MCQ On Basic Physics
MCQ On Basic Physics
4. In aerodynamics the ratio of the velocity of the sound waves to the velocity of the
source is called __________.
5. The structure of a crystal can be studied with the help of __________ of x-rays.
(Increases with temperature, Decreases with temperature, Does not change with temperature)
8. If the vector addition of two vectors of magnitude 3 units and 4 units has a resultant
of 5 units, then the angle between those two vectors is __________.
(its weight is balanced by air friction, its weight is balanced by air friction and upthrust, Its weight is
balanced by upthrust)
14. __________ of the following phenomena cannot be explained by the wave theory.
16. When a particle move in a circle, the angle between its linear velocity ‘v’ and
angular velocity ‘ω’ is always __________.
17. They physical quantity which produces angular acceleration is called __________.
18. A string stretched between two fixed points is vibrating in one segment. The
frequency generated is called __________.
20. When the temperature of air rises, the speed of sound waves increases because
__________.
(frequency of the wave increases, only wavelength increases, both the frequency and wavelength
increases)
21. A monochromatic light beam is entering from one medium into another.
__________ of the following properties remains unchanged.
A decrease in pitche.)
25. A body remains at rest or continuous to move with a uniform velocity unless it is
acted upon by __________.
(an unbalanced force, A force equal to the weight of the body, a force)
(It increases iindefinitely with the external force, it does not increase indefinitely with the external force, it
remains constant)
27. The dispersion of white light into seven different colours when passed through a
prism is due to __________.
28. A pendulum bob is swinging with simple harmonic motion. Its potential energy is
maximum at __________.
(Extreme position, mean postiion, at any other point along the path)
29. When light enters into a denser medium, its velocity __________.
(Perpendicular to each other, parallel to each other, parallel to the direction of propagation of the waves)
31. A particle moving with a uniform speed in a circle has __________ acceleration.
32. If the distance between the centre of the body and the centre of the earth increases
the value of g __________.
Chapter 1
1. The branch of physical science, which deals with interaction of matter and energy, is
called __________.
2. The new era of modern physics began near the end of __________.
6. Number of ayah which are taken from Surah Nooh for our book are __________.
10. In Muslim world the man was both a poet and a mathematician is __________.
13. Ibn-e- Sina was famous for his research in the field of __________.
21. Atomic clock is a (briefly) radio transmitter giving out short waves of wavelength
about __________.
22. The time interval occupied 9192631770 cycles of a specified energy change in the
Cesium atom is taken as equal to one __________.
Chapter 2
Scalars and Vectors
1. Physical quantity, which can be completely specified by its magnitude only, is called
__________.
3. Two or more than two scalars measured in the same system of units are equal only if
they have the __________.
( or a, b, c)
( or a, b, c)
6. Two vectors are equal without any consideration of their initial point only if they
have __________.
(Initial point of the vector, terminal point of the vector, final point of the vector)
(Diagonal of the parallelogram, any adjacent side of the parallelogram, opposite side of the parallelogram)
(Magnitude of resultant, direction of resultant, both magnitude and direction of the resultant)
11. The product of number “m” and vector generates a new vector . The magnitude
of the product is represented by __________.
(commutative law for multiplication, Associative law for multiplication, Distributive law for multiplication)
(Commutative law for multiplication, Associative law for multiplication, Distributive law for multiplication)
( , , )
20. The sum of rectangular components vector produces the original vector, which is
represented by __________.
21. The magnitude of vector is given by __________.
, , )
(i, , )
(0, 1, )
(- , , r)
26. A vector which can be displaced parallel to it self and applied at any point is known
as __________.
27. A vector, which can represent the position of a point with respect to some fixed point
in coordinate system, is called __________.
28. If two vectors which are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, their
combination produces __________.
32. The product of magnitude of two vectors and sine of the angle between them is called
__________.
35. The angle between the horizontal and vertical component of a vector is __________.
36. If the resultant of two forces of magnitude 3N and 4N is 5N then the angle between
these two forces is __________.
37. The dot product of two vectors is zero when they are __________.
(In the same Direction, Perpendicular to each other, In the opposite direction)
38. If the cross product of two vectors is zero they are __________.
Chapter 3
Motion
1. The change of position of a body in a particular direction is called its __________.
4. The total change in displacement divided by the total change in time of body is
called its __________.
5. The change of displacement in a very small interval of time (time tends to zero) of a
body is called its __________.
(Its speed increases, Its velocity increases, It falls toward the earth)
7. A force acts on a body that is free to move. We known that magnitude and direction
of the force and the mass of the body. Newton’s second law of motion enables us to
determine the body’s __________.
8. A hole is drilled through the earth along the diameter and a stone dropped into it.
When the stone is at the centre of the earth it has __________.
10. In __________ of the following examples the motion of the car not accelerated.
(Car turns a corner at constant speed of 29km/hr, Car climbs a steep hill with its speed dropping from 60
km/hr at the bottom to 15 km/hr at the top, Car climbs a steep hill at the constant speed of 40km/hr)
(The choice of direction, Whether an object is speeding up or slowing down, The position of the object)
12. The acceleration due to gravity __________.
(has the same value every where in space, has the same value every where on the earth, varies with the
latitude on the earth)
15. An object falls freely from rest with an acceleration of 10m/s2 (approximately).
Then the distance traveled after 0.6 second is __________.
16. A trolley of mass 1.0kg travelling at 3m/s, collides with second trolley which is
stationary. On collision the two trolley join together and continue to travel in the
original direction with a common speed of 1.0 m/s. __________is the mass of second
trolley.
(move down with uniform velocity, remain stationary, fall with uniform acceleration of 9.8 m/s2)
18. A trolley of mass 2kg moves with constant acceleration on a smooth horizontal
surface. Its speed changes from 4m/s to 16 m/s during 6.0 seconds. The trolley has an
acceleration of __________m/s2.
(0.5 , 0.66, 2)
19. During a stop a car comes to rest from a speed of 10 m/s in 5 seconds. Assuming a
steady deceleration during this time, it will travel a distance of __________.
20. A ball is dropped from a tall building falls to the ground. Ball reaches the ground in
3.0 seconds. __________ is the height of the building.
21. A trolley of mass 2kg is moving at 15m/s. It collides head on with another trolley of
mass 1kg initially at rest. The first trolley sticks with second one. __________ is the
speed of both trolleys after collision.
(5m/s, 7.5m/s, 10m/s)
22. When a tennis ball is allowed to fall freely in air toward the ground. It is found that
it acquires a uniform velocity. This is because the __________.
(Weight of the ball does not act beyond a certain speed, Upthrust of the displaced air supports the ball,
Frictional force caused by the air increases with speed)
23. The force required to accelerate mass of 1kg at 1.0 m/s2 is __________.
24. If a stone falls from rest with a uniform acceleration of 10m/s2 (approximately) then
__________.
(It falls equal distance in successive seconds, it falls 10.0 m during the first second, its speed increases by
10 m/s each second)
26. A person covers half of its journey at a speed of 40 m/s and the other half at 50 m/s.
His average speed during the whole journey is __________.
27. An object is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 40 m/s and returns after
some time into the thrower’s hands with the same velocity. Average velocity during
the whole movement is __________.
28. A body starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration of 10m/s2 in the first 10
seconds. During the next 10 seconds it moves with uniform velocity attained. The
total distance covered by it is __________.
29. A ball A dropped from the top of a building while another ball B is thrown
horizontally at the same time. The ball strikes the ground is __________.
(The wheels of a moving train, the earth revolving round the sun, A train running on a straight track)
31. A body has an initial velocity of 8 m/s. After moving 4m its velocity is 12 m/s. The
acceleration is __________m/s2.
(10, 100, 4)
32. A body starting from rest travels 120 m in 8th second. Assuring the motion to be
uniform, its acceleration is __________m/s2.
33. A body thrown vertically up with a velocity of 10m/s, comes back in to the hand of
the thrower after 4 seconds. Height attained by the body is __________. (Take g =
10m/s2)
34. The total change in velocity of a body divided by the total time is called
__________.
35. The change in velocity of a body in a very small interval of time (time interval tends
to zero) is called __________.
36. When there is equal change in velocity in equal intervals of time, then acceleration is
called __________.
37. Force is that agent which produces or tends to produce the __________.
(Speed in the body, Acceleration in the body, Constant velocity in the body)
38. Whenever a constant force is applied on a body then it will move with __________.
(Same direction of applied force, Opposite direction of applied force, None of the above)
40. A body of mass 10kg is suspended by a string, the tension produced in the string is
__________. (Take g = 10m/s2)
(Only mometum of the system is conserved, Only the kinetic Energy of the system is conserved, Both the
kinetic Energy and Momentum of the system remain the same)
43. If a lighter body collides elastically with a massive body at rest then the lighter
bodies will __________.
(Rebound, Come to rest, Start to move with a velocity double of its initial)
(Greater than the static friction, Equal to the Static Friction, Less than the static Friction)
46. Due to the rise in temperature the coefficient of fluid friction will __________.
47. A body of mass ‘m’ slides down a frictionless inclined plane making an angle θ with
the horizontal then __________ of the following statement is most appropriate.
(The component of its weight normal to the plane pulls it down the plane, The component of its weight
parallel to the plane is balanced by the normal reaction of the plane, The body moves down the plane with
a constant acceleration)
48. If a weight of 1 kg and 1gm are dropped from the same height simultaneously then
__________.
(1kg will reach the ground earlier, 1gm weight will rach the ground earlier, bother will reach the ground at
the same time)
(Its speed remains uniform, Its speed and direction of motion will remain the same, Its acceleration is
uniform)
50. If a particle is moving with constant speed in a circle then its velocity is
__________.
Chapter 4
(Ball moving along a straight line, Progectile, Train moving along a straight track)
5. In projectile motion (freely falling bodies) sign assigned to the acceleration due to
gravity (g) will always be __________.
6. In considering the projectile motion all the vectors like, velocity and displacement
along positive y-axis will be taken as __________.
8. During the projectile motion, the horizontal component of the velocity __________.
10. During the projectile motion the acceleration along the horizontal direction will
__________.
12. The expression for the time to reach the maximum height of the projectile is
__________.
(Vosinθ/g, 2Vosinθ/g, Vosinθ/2g)
13. The expression for the total time of flight of the projectile is __________.
14. The expression for maximum height reached by the projectile is __________.
15. The expression for the horizontal range of the projectile is __________.
16. The expression for the maximum range of the projectile is __________.
17. For the maximum range of the projectile the angle of elevation must be __________.
18. The horizontal range of the projectile is directly proportional to the __________.
(Initial Velocity, Square of the initial velocity, Square root of the initial velocity)
19. The horizontal range of the projectile is directly proportional to the __________.
(sine of the angle of elevation, sine of the twice of the angle of elevation, square of the sine of the angle
of elevation)
23. If the angle of elevation of the projectile is 90° then its horizontal range will be
__________.
24. For the projectile with high trajectory their time of flight will be __________.
(Short, Long, None of these)
25. For the projectile with low trajectory, their time of flight will be __________.
26. If a projectile has some horizontal range at an angle of elevation of 15° then its
range will be the same when the angle of elevation is equal to __________.
27. At maximum height, the vertical component of the velocity of the projectile is
__________.
28. Horizontal motion with constant velocity and vertical motion with constant
acceleration is called __________.
29. A ball is thrown horizontally from a height of 400m with a muzzle velocity of
100m/s. It experiences a horizontal acceleration equal to __________.
30. If a shell is fired with the velocity of 9.8 m/s at an angle of 45° then its horizontal
range will be __________.
31. A projectile is fired horizontally with an initial velocity of 20m/s. after 3 seconds its
horizontal component of velocity is __________.
32. In projectile motion __________ of the following angle will result the maximum
range.
33. An aeroplane moving horizontally with a velocity of 100m/s, drops a food packet
while flying at a height of 490m. The packet will strike the ground from the point
just vertically below the point of the projection at a distance of __________.
34. The ball A is dropped from the top of a building simultaneously the ball B is thrown
horizontally then __________.
(ball A strikes the ground first, ball B strikes the ground first, both ball A and B will strike the ground
simultaneously)
35. If the launch angle of a locust is 55° and its range is 0.8 m then the take off speed of
a locust is __________.
36. __________ should be the initial velocity of a rocket if it to hit a target 1000 km
away.
37. If an object is moving with constant speed along a circle then its motion is
__________.
38. The expression for the time period of an object moving with constant speed v along
a circle of radius r is given by __________.
39. The angle subtended by an object with the centre of the circle when its is moving
from one point to another on its circumference is called __________.
41. The central angle subtended by an arc whose length is equal to the radius of the
circle is equal to one __________.
42. The relation linear (s) and angular (θ) displacements is given by __________.
46. The angular displacement or shift per unit time is called __________.
49. The direction of angular velocity is always along the axis of rotation and it can be
determined by __________.
50. If an object is rotating in the counter-clockwise direction then the direction then the
direction of angular velocity is __________.
51. If a particle with instantaneous linear velocity ‘v’ is rotating along the circumference
of circle of radius ‘r’ then the relation between angular velocity (w) and its linear
velocity (v) is given by __________.
52. If a particle covers equal angular displacement in equal interval of time then its
angular velocity is __________.
55. The relation between linear acceleration (a) and angular acceleration (α) of a particle
is given by __________.
57. In circular motion the time period and angular velocity of a particle are __________.
58. If a particle is moving with constant speed along the circumference of a circle then
the acceleration possessed by the particle is __________.
(Towards the centre of the circle, Aways from the centre of the circle)
60. The force, which produces the centripetal acceleration, is called __________.
62. The expression for centripetal acceleration in terms of time period (T) is given as
__________.
63. The force, which keeps the body in circular motion and always directed towards the
centre of the circle is called __________.
64. The acceleration of the body or particle tangent to the circular path is called
__________.
(speed of the object is changed, speed of object is constant, direction of motion of the object is changed)
(speed of the object is changed, speed of the object is constant, direction of motion of object is changed)
67. Centripetal acceleration and tangential acceleration are always __________.
68. A car is travelling at a constant speed of 20m/s rounds a curve of radius 100m. What
is its acceleration.
69. If the speed of the object moving in a circle is doubled then centripetal force
__________.
(Remains the same, Becomes half of its initial value, Becomes from times than its initial value)
70. When an object moves round the circular track, the centripetal force is provided by
__________.
Chapter 5
(Time rate of change of angular momentum, Time rate of change of linear momentum, time rate of
change of angular velocity)
(Depends on the choice of origin, does not depend on the choice of origin)
(the same angular velocity, the same linear velocity, the same linear acceleration)
(The direction, of a vector obtained by the vector product of two vectors, The magnitude of a vector
obtained in the above manner, neither the direction nor the magnitude)
(can be replaced by a single equivalent force, cannot be replaced by a single equivalent force, are
perpendicular to each other)
(The same as the direction of the corresponding applied force, opposite to the direction of the applied
force, perpendicular to the direction of applied force)
7. The centre of mass of system of particles __________.
(coincides always with centre of gravity, never coincides always with the centre of gravity, coincides with
the centre of gravity only in a uniform gravitational field)
11. Radius of a ring is 2cm and its mass is 20g. Its M.I about an axis passing through its
centre and perpendicular to its plane is __________.
12. If the distance of a particle from the axis of rotation is doubled, the moment of
inertia __________.
(Becomes half, Increases two times, increases four times, increases eight times)
13. The physical quantity, which produces angular acceleration, is called __________.
(Right hand rule, Knowing the direction of F, Knowing the position of origin)
17. The product of force times the perpendicular distance between some point and the
line of action of the force is __________.
(the moment of inertia acting on the body, The moment of force about the chosen point, The angular
momentum of the body)
18. The magnitude of torque is equal to the product of the force and the moment arm.
The moment arm is __________.
(The distance between the point (point chosen), and the pointof action of the force, the maximum
distance between the point and the line of action of the force, The minimum (perpendicular) distance
between the pivot and the line of action of the force)
(Its torque remains unchanged, the magnitude of its torque changes and direction of the torque remains
the same, The magnitude of its torque remains the same but the direction of the torque reverses)
(The magnitude and direction of the torque remain unaltered, the magnitude of the torque changes but
direction remains unchanged, the magnitude of the torque does not change but direction reverses)
(Two equal and opposite forces acting at a point on a body, two equal and parallel forces acting at a point
on a body, two equal and antiparallel forces acting at two different points on a body)
(The smallest distance between two equal and antiparallel forces, The greates distance between two equal
and antiparallel forces, The lines of action of two equal and opposite forces)
(N-m and N-m2 respectively, N-m2 and N-m respectives, N-m for both)
24. A pair of forces equal in magnitude and opposite in direction with non-coincident
lines of action is known as __________.
(The foce of gravity on the object, The point about which the object rotates, The point at which the total
weight of the objects acts)
(At its centre, At the surface of the body, At the intersection of medians)
(Results only in rotational motion, Results only in translational motion, holds the body in equilibrium)
( )
30. In rotational motion, the quantity, which plays the same role as the inertial mass in
rectilinear motion, is called __________.
31. The symbol that is used to represent rotational inertia or moment of inertia is
__________.
(W, l, R)
32. The angular momentum (L) can be expressed in terms of moment of inertia (l) and
angular velocity (ω) as __________.
33. The product of the rotational inertia about an axis and the angular velocity of a body
rotating about this axis is called __________.
(Mass Distribution of the body about the axis of rotation, Mass of the body and its radius, Mass of the
body and its angular speed)
35. The time rate of change of angular momentum of a body is equal to __________.
36. If no external torques act, the angular momentum of a body rotating about a fixed
axis in two dimension is __________.
40. If θ is the angle between force and displacement vectors then the physical quantity
torque is mathematical expressed as __________.
41. The perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation of a body to the line of action of
a force is called __________.
42. If the moment arm of a force is zero, i.e. the line of action of a force is passing
through the pivot then the magnitude of the torque generated as such is __________.
44. The magnitude of torque will be zero if the angle between force and displacement is
__________.
(The body is spherically symmetric, The body is not deformable, The body may be considered as mass
point)
(All the forces are concurrent, The lines of action of all forces meet in a common point, any of the above)
(Vector sum of all forces be zero, Acceleration be constant, Vector sum of the forces and torques be zero)
(By the body on the ceiling, By the body on the cord, By the earth on the body)
50. It is easier to turn a steering wheel with both hands than with a single hand because
__________.
(A couple acts on the wheel, Two equal and opposite forces act on the wheel, The wheel is more strongly
gripped)
Chapter 6
Gravitation
(Has the same value every where in space, has the same value every where on the earth, Varies with
latitude on the earth)
2. If a planet existed whose mass and radius were both twice that of the earth, then
acceleration due to gravity at its surface would be __________.
3. When the space ship is at a distance equal to twice of the earth’s radius from its
centre then the gravitational acceleration is __________.
4. A hole is drilled through the earth along the diameter and a stone is dropped into it.
When the stone is at the centre of the earth it has __________.
(Can only be indirectly inferred from the behaviour of the planent, Can be directly verified in the
larboratory, is valid only with in the solar system)
6. The gravitational force between two bodies does not depend upon __________.
7. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% while its mass remaining same, the
acceleration due to gravity on the earth surface would __________.
10. When a person goes down to the bottom of deep mine compared to his weight on the
surface then its weight will __________.
11. The weight of an object at the pole is greater than at equator. This is because
__________.
(Gravitational pull is more at the poles, the shape of the earth, the attraction of the moon is maximum at
the earth’s surface)
13. A spring balance is being used to weigh mass of 1kg in a lift. If the spring balance
reads 9N and the acceleration of free fall (g) = 10m/s2. The lift is __________.
14. The acceleration of free fall on moon is about one sixth of its value on earth. If on the
earth a body has mass ‘m’ and weight ‘w’, then on the moon, mass and weight will be
respectively about __________.
(Mass of the object, Apparent weight of the object, None of the above)
16. A person whose weight is 120 pound on the earth, on the moon his weight will be
approximately __________.
17. According to the law of gravitation the force of attraction between the two bodies is
directly proportional to the __________.
(Sum of the masses of the bodies, Product of their masses, Difference of their masses)
18. According to the Newton’s law of gravitation the force of attraction between the two
bodies is inversely proportional to the __________.
(distance between the two bodies, Square of the distance between the two bodies, none of the above)
19. The gravitational force between two bodies whose mass are m1 and m2 are placed at a
distance r from each other is __________.
( , , )
20. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force between them
becomes __________.
(half of its original value, one fourth of its original value, four times of its original value)
(6.673 x 10-11 N-m2 /kg2, 7.673 x 10-11 N-m2 /kg2, 8.673 x 10-11 N-m2 /kg2)
23. The approximate value of the average density of the earth is __________.
(Inversely proportional to the radius of the earth, Inversely proportional to the square of the radius of the
earth, Directly proportional to the square of the radius of the earth)
27. The time taken by the moon to complete one revolution around the earth is
__________.
28. The gravitational force of attraction between two balls each of mass 100kg when they
are placed at a distance of 1m apart is __________.
30. The value of the gravitational acceleration at a distance equal to the earth’s radius
above the earth’s surface is __________.
31. The value of the distance from the centre of the earth when the gravitational
acceleration has one half the value it has on the earth’s surface __________.
32. A person with a mass of 40kg is standing on a scale in an elevator. The elevator
moves upwards with a constant acceleration of 1.2 m/s2, then the weight of the person
as measured by him in the elevator is __________.
33. The sun exerts a force of attraction on the planets thus keeping them in their
__________.
34. Numerical value of the gravitational acceleration can also be estimated by knowing
the __________.
35. A spring balance suspended from the ceiling of an elevator supports an object. The
magnitude and direction of acceleration, which would make the balance reading zero,
is __________.
36. The earth traverses its circular orbit in 3.15 x 107 seconds, orbiting at an orbital
velocity of 2.9 x 104 m/s, then its orbit radius is __________.
37. The artificial gravity is produced in a satellite to overcome the state of weightlessness
experienced by the astronaut by __________.
(Spinning it around its own axis, Increasing the orbital speed of it, Decreasing its orbital speed)
38. The expression for the frequency of rotation of the satellite to produce artificial
gravity is __________.
(1/2π √g/R, 2π √g/R, 1/2π √R/g)
39. If the mass of the earth becomes four times to its initial value then the value of g will
be __________.
(Equal to its initial value, Four times to its initial value, One fourth of its initial value)
40. The value of gravitation acceleration (g) on the surface of the planet of radius 105 m
and mass 10kg is __________.
41. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is about _________.
(One sixth the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth, One fourth the acceleration due to
gravity on the surface of the earth, double the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth)
42. The mass of a planet and its diameter are three times those of Earth’s. Then the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet will be _________.
(One third on the Earth’s, half on the Earth’s, None of the above)
44. The equation, which gives the magnitude of centripetal acceleration of the moon, is
_________.
Chapter 7
2. When the force and displacement are parallel to each other, then work is
__________.
3. When the force and displacement are perpendicular to each other, then work is
__________.
(Goes to fifth floor of the building, Goes to fifth floor of the building and comes back to ground floor,
remains on the ground floor)
15. The expression for the absolute potential energy of mass m at the earth surface is
given as __________.
(mgh, GmMe/Re, GmMe/Re2)
17. In a tug of war, team A is slowly giving way to the team B, then __________.
(Team A is doing negative work, Team A is doing positive work, team A is not doing work)
(Is independent of the direction of velocity, Depends on the direction of velocity, Is a scalar quantity)
(Making an angle 45° with the floor, Making an angle of 90° with the floor, Along a line parallel to the floor)
21. A car covers some distance without any acceleration in it, then __________.
(Engine did some positive work, Engine did some negative work, none of these)
22. A body lifts a block on to a table in time ∆t. The work he did, depends upon
__________.
(Kinetic Energy only, Potential Energy only, Both kinetic energy and potential energy)
(Is independent of the path followed, depends upon the path followed, none of these)
27. Work done in the gravitational field along a closed path is equal to __________.
(Rotation of earth relative to moon, rotation of the earth around sun, none of these)
(Water evaporates, A train accelerates from rest along a horizontal track, A body falls from a table)
36. __________ of the following represents the energy lost by a 1 N weight in falling
through 1 m.
(0.10 J, 1 J, 10 J)
38. __________ of the following does not convert one type of energy into another.
39. __________ of the following has the same unit as that of potential energy.
41. A body whose mass is 40g finds that he can run up a flight of 45 steps each 16 cm
high in 5.2 sec. His power is __________.
42. A person having a mass of 60kg exerts a horizontal force of 300N in pushing a 90 kg
object through a distance of 3m along a horizontal floor. The work done by this
person is __________.
43. __________ is the kinetic energy of 60 g bullet moving at a speed of 600 m/s.
44. A ball of mass 2kg rolls from the top of a smooth slope which is 7 m high and 14 m
long to its bottom. The change in the gravitational potential energy is approximately
__________.
45. A man weighing 600 N climbs 5m vertically upward in 8 seconds his rate of working
is __________.
Chapter 8
2. If k and a are the positive constants and x is the displacement from equilibrium
position. __________ of the following expression represents S.H.M.
3. A bob of mass m is hanging from the end of an elastic spring and executing S.H.M
with a period T. If this mass is replaced by another bob of mass 2m, the new time
period of this system will be __________.
(T, 2T, √2T, T/2)
4. A bob of mass m is hanging from the end of an inelastic string is executing S.H.M
with a period T. If this bob is replaced by an other bob of double mass. The new time
period of this system will be __________.
(Motion is Periodic, Elastic Restoring force must be present, System may possess inertia, Total Energy of
system is conserved)
6. A body is attached to the end of a spring is executing S.H.M. at the extreme position
its __________.
(Kinetic energy is maximum, Kinetic Energy is zero, Both kinetic and potential energy are zero, its velocity
is maximum)
(Always simple harmonic, may be simple harmonic, can never be simple harmonic, circular)
(Its acceleration is proportional to displacement and directed away from mean postion, Its acceleration is
proportional to displacement and directed towards mean position, Its acceleration is zero, none of these)
(If its acceleration is maximum, its acceleration is zero, its velocity is zero, it posseses maximum potential
energy)
(Its acceleration is maximum, Its velocity is maximum, It possesses maximum potential energy, none of
these)
(Its amplitude of motion remains constant, Its amplitude of motion may be constant, Its motion is not
periodic, its motion may be vibratory)
12. A body is executing S.H.M with force constant k with an amplitude ‘a’, when its
displacement is ‘x’. Its instantaneous K.E is represented by __________.
14. If we increase the length of simple pendulum its time period will __________.
16. A particle is moving in a circular path with constant angular speed. The motion of its
projection along its any diameter is __________.
17. The trajectory of the bob of a vibrating simple pendulum after it has got suddenly
detached from the thread while passing through its mean position is __________.
18. A string stretched between two fixed points is vibrating in one segment. The
frequency generated is called __________.
19. When the temperature of air rises, the speed of sound waves increases because.
(Frequency of the wave increases, both frequency and wavelength increases, Only wave length increases,
Neither frequency nor wavelength changes)
24. The pitch of note obtained by plucking a stretched string would be lowered by
__________.
(Increasing the tension of the wire, Plucking it more vigorously, reducing the length of the string,
wrapping a length of the fine wire round the string)
26. __________ of the following must differ for a transverse and longitudinal wave
moving in the same direction.
27. A spectator watching a cricket match sees the bat strikes the ball and hears the sound
of this about half a second later. This is because light waves and sounds waves have
a different __________.
28. In one medium a wave has a frequency of the wave length λ and speed c, the waves
passes from this medium to another where its speed is 2/3c. In the second medium
the __________.
(frequency is still f and the wave length still λ, frequency is still f, but wavelength is 2/3 λ, the wavelength
is still λ, but frequency is 2/3f, frequency is still f, but wavelenth is 3/2 λ)
29. Dolphins can communicate by emitting sounds of frequency 150,000 Hz. If speed of
sound in water is 1500 m/s, the wavelength of these sounds will be __________.
30. The motion of the particles of air, when sound waves passes through it is
__________.
31. Two stringed instruments are playing notes of the same pitch, __________ of the
following must be same for these notes.
(Amplitude, Frequency, Length of String, quality)
(Acceleration of the bob, Its amplitude, Force on the bob, Velocity of the bob)
(Only elasticity, Only inertia, Elasticity as well as inertia, Neither elasticity nor inertia)
34. A spring of force constant k is broken into two equal parts, then the force constant of
each part is __________.
37. In the above question if the lift moves upwards with uniform velocity, its time period
will __________.
38. In the question number 36, the lift falls freely. They the time period will
__________.
39. A body is executing S.H.M of amplitude A. Its potential energy is maximum when it
displacement is __________.
40. Mass m is suspended from an elastic spring of spring constant k. The time period of
small oscillation is __________.
44. If the oscillations are highly damped, the amplitude of oscillation __________.
(Decreases with time, Increases with time, Remains constant with time, First increases then decreases)
45. The time period of a simple pendulum at the centre of the earth is __________.
46. In S.H.M the maximum acceleration is α and maximum velocity is β, its time period
is __________.
48. The tuning fork A is of a slightly higher frequency than a fork B. they are employed
to produce beats. On loading the fork A the frequency of beats will __________.
(Diffraction, Constructive Interference only, Destructive Interference only, Constructive and Destructive
Interference both)
50. The distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is __________.
51. The stem of a vibrating tuning fork is pressed against a tabletop. The duration of its
vibration __________.
55. When beats are produced by two travelling waves of nearly the same frequency then
__________.
(the particles vibrate simple harmonically with a frequency equal to the difference in the frequencies of the
two waves, the amplitude of vibration at any point changes simple harmonically with a frequency equal to
the difference in the frequencies of the two waves, The frequency of beats depends on the position, where
the beats are heard, the frequency of beats decreases as the time is passing_
56. When beats are produced by two travelling waves of same amplitude and of nearly
the same frequencies, then __________.
(The maximum loudness heard is two times thaht corresponding to each of the constituent waves, The
amximum loudness heard is four times thaht corresponding to each of the constituent waves, The
maximum loudness heard is the same as thaht of corresponding to each of the constituent waves, the
maximum loudness heard is 8 times thath corresponding to each of the wave)
57. When beats are produced by two waves, T1 = a sin 1000πt and T2 = a sin 1008 πt
then __________ of the following gives the frequency of the beats heard.
58. When stationary waves are set up in a medium, __________ of the following
statements is correct.
(Rarefaction occurs at the antinode, Compression takes place at all the nodes, no strain is felt at the
antinodes, Maximum strain is felt at the antinodes)
(All the particles of the medium are in same phase, particles separated by a distance of an amplitude out
of phase, all the particles between two consective nodes are in phase, particles separated by a distance of
an amplitude are always in phase)
(Energy is propagated at a rate double thaht of travelling waves of equal amplitude and of equal velocity,
the flux of energy through any area is zero, the energy density is same throughout the space, the medium
possesses no net energy)
(The amplitude of vibration changes simple harmonically with the distance of the particle from the origin,
all particles are in the same phase, different particles of the medium have different periods of oscillation,
amplitude of vibration of each particle changes simple harmonically with time)
62. When stationary waves are produced in a medium. The amplitude of vibration
__________.
(of a particle changes from time to time, is the same for particles separated by half the wave length,
changes simple harmonically with time, is the time for all the particles)
63. Two tuning forks A and B produce 7 beats per second, when sounded together. On
loading the fork A slightly only 5 beats are heard in a second. If the frequency of fork
B is 200 cps, the frequency of the fork A after loading will be __________.
64. Two forks A and B produce 7 beats per second. On loading the fork A slightly the
number of beats reduces to 5 beats per second. If the frequency of the fork B is
200cps. The frequency of the fork A before loading is __________.
65. In stationary waves, the amplitude of vibration will have a maximum value at
positions separated by a distance equal to __________.
66. In a transverse arrangement, a stretched string vibrates in two loops. If the same
string under the same tension vibrates in one loop, the frequency in latter case
divided by the frequency in former case will be __________.
(1, ½, 2, √2)
67. A source of sound wave moves away with the velocity of sound from a stationary
observer. The frequency of the note is __________.
68. The frequency of a man’s voice is 200 cps and its wavelength is 2 m. If the
wavelength of a child’s voice is 4 m then the frequency of the child’s voice in the
same medium is __________.
69. If the densities of two gases are in the ratio 25:9 then the velocities of sound in two
gases (having the same value of ratio of specific heats) at the same pressure will be
in the ratio __________.
(25 : 9, 5 : 3, 9 : 25, 3 : 5)
70. The ratio of the fundamental frequency of an organ pipe open at both ends to that of
the organ pipe closed at one end is __________
(1 : 2, 2 : 1, 1.5 : 1, 1 : 1)
71. The velocity of longitudinal waves passing through metal rod is proportional to the
square root of __________.
72. The velocity of sound waves in fluid medium at absolute temperature T is directly
proportional to __________.
75. When source of sound waves moves towards an observer at rest in the atmosphere,
the pitch of the note heard by the observer is higher because __________.
(Wavelength of waves becomes smaller, Wavelength remains unchanged byt the observer receive a larger
number of waves per second, The pitch of the source increases, The velocity of sound waves increases)
77. When a body travelling with supersonic speed approaches a stationary observer the
__________.
(The pitch appears to increase, The pitch appears to decrease, The pitch is unaltered, doppler’s effect is
inapplicable)
78. When sound waves travel from air to water, the quantity that remains unchanged is
__________.
80. When the pressure of the gas is doubled, the velocities of sound in it are
__________.
(Longitudinal, Transverse, Neither longitudinal nor transverse, both longitudinal and transverse)
84. At __________ temperature will be velocity of sound be double of its value at 0°C.
85. In sonometer, the frequency of a sonometer wire is given by n = 1/2L √T/m. Where
SI unit of the symbol m is __________.
86. In a vibrating tuning fork, the waves produced between the prongs of the fork are
__________.
89. Stationary waves of frequency 165Hz are formed in air. If the velocity of sound
waves is 330m/s, the shortest distance between two nodes is __________.
93. The pitch of the whistle of an engine changes in the ratio of 6 : 5 as it approaches a
stationary observer. If v is the velocity of sound waves, the velocity of the engine is
__________.
(Shaking the end faster, shakeing the end over a under range, stretching the rope tighter, using a heavier
rope)
(Onkly sound waves, only light waves, both sound and light waves, neither sound nor light waves)
96. The distance from crest to crest of any wave is called its __________.
98. When source and observer are moving away from each other the apparent pitch will
__________.
101. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the wave goes
from left to right is classed as __________.
102. As a man move directly away from a steady source of sound at constant speed, the
sound he hears will __________.
(Increase in frequency and intensity, decrease in frequency and intensity, stay constant in pitch but
decrease in loudness, remain constant in both pitch and loudness)
103. Decibel is __________.
(A musical instrument, musical note, a measure of intensity level, the wavelength of noise)
104. Increased loudness produced when two bodies vibrate sympathetically is called
__________.
106. Wavelength is the distance between two nearest particles of the medium having
phase difference __________.
(π/4, π/2, π, 0)
107. At the mean position of vibration, the velocity of the vibrating particle is
__________.
109. When the soldiers corss a bridge, they are advised to march out of step due to the
__________.
(free end, fixed end, both free and fixed end, none of these)
111. When two vibrating systems are in resonance, then their __________.
(Amplitude are equal, Frequencies are equal, Resistances are equal, Temperatures are equal)
113. When waves go from one place to another, they transport __________.
(Doubled, reduced to one half, reduced to one fourth, increased to four times its original value)
(traveling in opposite direction, of slightly different frequencies, of equal wavelength, of equal amplitude)
(Beats, the fundamental produced in a pipe, the notes produced in a pipe other than the fundamental, all
of these)
118. Two tuning forks of 340 and 343 Hz are sounded together. The resulting beats per
second will be __________.
(1, 2, 3, 4)
119. The speed of sound waves in air having a frequency of 256 Hz compared with the
speed of sound waves having a frequency of 512 Hz is __________.
120. The apparent change in frequency due to a relative motion between the source and
the observer is known as __________.
121. If E is the coefficient of volume elasticity (Bulk Modulus) of the medium and δ its
density, then the velocity of a longitudinal wave in fluid is given by __________.
122. We know that the velocity of sound obtained from Newton’s formula is much less
than the experimental value. The reason for this is __________.
(Sound travels in air under isothermal conditions, soundtravels in air under adiabatic conditions, sound
travels in air as a transverse wave motion, none of these is correct)
(has a definite pitch, has a definite quality, has a definite capacitor, can penetrate the wall)
125. Two waves arrive simultaneously at a point in phase. The disturbance, at the point,
due to each wave is 2.5 mm and 3.5 mm respectively the resultant disturbance is
__________.
Chapter 9
(Require air or another gas to travel through, require an electric field to travel through, require a magnetic
field to travel through, can travel through a perfect vacuum)
2. The blue colour of the sky is due to due to fact that __________.
(Red light is absorbed, blue colour is preferentially scattered, red light is preferentially scattered, this is
the natureal colour)
(Infra red spectrum, Ultra violet spectrum, visible range, green light)
5. The property of light waves thath leads to the phenomenon of colour is their
__________.
(Velocity, Amplitude, Quality, Wavelength)
6. If Plank’s constant h = 6.625 x 10-34 J/Hz. The energy associated with light with a
wavelength of 160nm is __________.
8. Two light waves meet at time when one has the instantaneous amplitude A and the
other has the instantaneous amplitude B. Their combined amplitude is __________.
10. __________ of the following phenomenon cannot be explained by the wave theory of
light.
11. In the complete electromagnetic spectrum __________ of the following has least
frequency.
12. The number of fringes passing through a reference point, if the moveable mirror of
Michlson’s interferometer is moved by 0.08 mm, when the wavelength of light used
is 5800 A°, are __________.
13. __________ of the following demonstrates the transverse nature of light waves.
14. The locus of all points in the same state of vibrations is known as __________.
(Half period zone, a half wave zone, a wave front, none of thse)
(Its mass is h2ν2, it has zero rest mass, all its energy is K.E, its momentum is hν/c)
(Interference of light waves, diffraction of light waves, Scattering of light rays, Dispersion of light rays)
(Velocity of light in gases, wavelength of monochromatic light, thickness of very thin objects, illuminating
power of light)
(The two waves should be of same amplitude, the two waves should be phase coherent, the two waves
should travel in the opposite direction through the medium, the two waves should be monochromatic)
23. Two monochromatic waves of same wavelength are travelling through a medium.
They can interfere destructively. Provided their path difference is __________.
25. In Young’s double slit arrangement, the bright fringes obtained are __________.
(Zero or integral multiple of wavelength, only integral multiple of wavelength, zero or multiple of
wavelength, odd multiple of wavelenght)
(They reach a point in phase, they reach a point out of phase by π radian, they are traveling through a
medium in opposite direction, none of these is true)
28. Newton’s rings can be obtained by using a __________.
(Plano convex lens of small focal length, plano convex lens of very large focal length, concave lens of large
focal length, flat glass slab)
30. The conditions for the production of constructive and destructive interference are
reversed due to the fact that on striking the thin film __________.
(Two rays of splitted light under go phase change of 180°, One of two rays of splitted light undergo phase
change of 180°, light is diffracted, light is polarized)
31. When electromagnetic waves strike the boundary of denser medium they are
__________.
(Reflected, in phase, Reflected out of phase by 180°, reflected, they are completely abosrbed)
(Thin film interference, Phase coherence, mono chromatic light, coloured fringe)
(Only screen is placed at finite distance, Only source is placed at finite distance, Both source and screen
are at finite distance, Neither source nor screen is at finite distance)
(Only screen is placed at finite distance, souce is placed at finite distance, neither source nor screen is at
finite distance)
37. In diffraction pattern of monochromatic light the bright bands formed are
__________.
(Of uniform intensity, of non-uniform intensity, of uniform width, are of different colours)
(Always bright, may be bright or dark, always dark, neither bright nor dark)
39. The diffraction observed by diffraction grating can also be termed as __________.
(Single slit diffraction, Double slit Diffraction, Multiple Slit Diffraction, Fresnel’s Diffraction)
40. The grating used to observe, diffraction of visible light can have approximately
__________.
(300 lines per cm, 3000 lines per cm, 15000 lines per cm, 30 lines per cm)
42. The phenomenon of Newton’s rings can be used to check the __________.
(Wavelength of monochromatic light, phase coherence of two sources, flatness of any glass surface,
velocity of light)
(they produce waves of the same wave length, they have the same amplitude of vibration, they produce
waves in the medium simultaneously, they produce waves of the same amplitude)
44. As the order increases, the width of a dark band in diffraction patterns __________.
46. __________ of the following phenomenon can not be explained on the particle nature
of light.
47. Fringe spacing is defined as the distance between two consecutive __________.
(Crests, Bright fringes only, Dark fringes only, Bright or dark fringes)
48. If we narrow the distance between two slits in Young’s experiment the fringes width
__________.
49. When Newton’s rings interference pattern is viewed from above by means of
reflected light, the central spot is __________.
Chapter 10
Geometrical Choice
(two spherical surfaces, two plane surfaces, spherical and plane surfaces)
(thicker in the middle and thinner on the edge, thinner in the middle and thicker on the edge, none of
these)
(converges the light rays towards its optical centre, diverges the light rays towards its optical axis, none of
these)
(thinner in the middle and thicker on the edges, thicker in the middle and thinner on the edges, none of
these)
8. The point to which the light rays are brought to focus is called __________.
9. The distance between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus is called its
__________.
10. The point in the lens through which the light rays will pass without any deviation is
called its __________.
(Optical centre, Optical axis, Principal axis)
11. In convex lens when the object is placed beyond 2F then its image will form
__________.
(at 2F on the other side, in between F and 2F on the other side, beyond 2F on the other side)
12. In converging lens when the object is placed within its focal length then the image
will form __________.
(At its principal focus on the other side, on the same side where the object is placed, none of these)
13. In convex lens the image distance is taken as positive for __________.
14. The relation between the focal length and the power of a lens is that __________.
(they are reciprocal to each other, they are inversely proportional to each other, none of these)
15. The use of a single converging lens is such a position when the object is placed
within its focal length is called __________.
16. In order to get higher magnification by magnifying glass, the lens used is of
__________.
17. If the focal length of the lens is 10 cm then its power in diopter is __________.
(1, 5, 10)
18. The power of the lens is 2 diopter then its focal length is __________.
19. The focal length of the magnifying glass is 5 cm then its magnification is
__________.
(6, 2, 1)
20. If the focal length of a diverging lens is 6cm and the object is placed at 12 cm from it
then image formed at a distance of __________.
23. In compound microscope the objective will form a image which is __________.
24. The objective of the astronomical telescope will form an image with is __________.
27. The magnifying power of the terrestrial telescope is the same as __________.
28. The length of the astronomical telescope, which is focussed for infinity, is
__________.
29. An astronomical telescope has the magnifying power 100 and focal length of
eyepiece is 4 cm, then the focal length of the objective is __________.
31. A telescope has an objective of focal length 60 cm and eyepiece of focal length 3 cm
then its magnifying power is __________.
33. A Galilean telescope has an objective of focal length 25 cm and an eye piece of focal
length 10 cm then its length is given as __________.
34. A Galilean Telescope has an objective of focal length 25cm and an eyepiece of focal
length 5cm then its magnifying power is __________.
35. The instrument, which is used to study the spectrum of luminous bodies, is called
__________.
38. The spectrometer is an analysing instrument used primarily to discover and measure
the __________.
39. The spectrum of light, which shows band instead of lines, is called __________.
40. The front of the eye is covered by a transparent membrane called __________.
(Wavelength of the light entering in the eye, Speed of the light entering in the eye, Amount of the light
entering in the eye)