INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 100 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use Ball Point Pen to darken to appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. For each wrong answer, (1/4) mark will be
deducted.
For Example
Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is: Which one of the following is linear in Geometry ?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) SO
2
Q.12.
(2) CO
2
(3) NO
2
(4) KO
2
Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball
point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If
more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that
Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet
are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,
he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can
leave the examination hall before half time.
Aakash Institute
Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
(Syllabus of the Test : Physics, Chemistry & Biology of Class XI)
Time : 1 Hrs. Max.Marks : 400
Roll No.: ____________________ Test Booklet Code: A
Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(For XII-cum-Medical Entrance Exams. 2013)
Space For Rough Work
- 1 -
XII-cum Medical Entrance Exams. 2013 Sample Test Paper
Choose the correct answer :
1. The length, breadth and thickness of a block are
measured as 125.1 cm, 5.1 cm and 0.81 cm.
Which of the following measurement is most
precise?
(1) Thickness
(2) Length
(3) Breadth
(4) All have the same preciseness
2. A particle starts moving from rest along a straight
line with constant acceleration. If S
1
is the
distance travelled by it in first 10 second and S
2
be
the distance travelled in the next 5 second then the
ratio of S
1
to S
2
will be
(1) 4 : 7 (2) 4 : 9
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 2 : 1
3. A ball is projected from ground vertically upward
with a certain velocity. Which of the following curve
best represents the variation of velocity of the ball
with time?
(1)
v
t O
(2)
v
t O
(3)
v
t O
(4)
v
t O
4. A boy throws a ball from the top of a tower with
velocity 20 m/s in horizontal direction. The speed
of the ball after 2 second will be nearly
(1) 20 m/s (2) 28 m/s
(3) 40 m/s (4) 56 m/s
PHYSICS
5. For what value of the two vectors

2 a i j k = + +

and

2 10 b j i k = + o

are mutually perpendicular?

(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 14 (4) 6
6. An aeroplane of mass 1000 kg is moving in a circular
path of radius 1000 m with speed 720 km/h. The
force acting on the aeroplane is
(1) 40 N (2) 40 kN
(3) 80 kN (4) 20 kN
7. Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 10 kg are placed
on a smooth surface as shown in figure. The
tension T in the string will be
F = 60 N
smooth surface
5 kg
10 kg
T
(1) 20 N (2) 60 N
(3) 40 N (4) Zero
8. A particle is dropped from a height h
0
on a
horizontal floor. The coefficient of restitution
between the particle and the floor is 0.5. What is
the maximum height after first rebounce?
(1)
0
2
h
(2)
0
2
h
(3)
0
4
h
(4)
0
16
h
9. A particle is acted upon by a force F = 10 N which
displaces it by 10 m in a direction 60 with the
force. The work done by the force will be
(1) 100 J (2) 200 J
(3) 86.6 J (4) 50 J
Space For Rough Work
- 2 -
Sample Test Paper XII-cum Medical Entrance Exams. 2013
10. What is the moment of inertia of a disc of mass
M and radius R about an axis passing through its
circumference and parallel to its geometrical axis?
(1)
2
1
2
MR (2)
2
3
2
MR
(3) MR
2
(4) 2 MR
2
11. A solid sphere of mass M is pulled horizontally on
a rough surface as shown in figure and the sphere
is in pure rolling. The acceleration of centre of
mass of the sphere will be
Rough
F
CM
(1)
F
M
(2)
2
3
F
M
(3)
2
5
F
M
(4)
5
7
F
M
12. The value of acceleration due to gravity at the
surface of earth is g. What will be value of
acceleration due to gravity at a height 2R above
the surface of the earth?
(1)
4
g
(2)
8
9
g
(3)
3
4
g
(4)
9
g
13. A satellite is orbiting around the earth in an orbit
of radius r with time period T. If its orbital radius is
increased by three times of its initial value, then
new time period of the satellite will be
(1) 4T (2) 3 3 T
(3) 8T (4) 64T
14. When some deforming force is applied on a rod,
the elongation in it is x and energy stored in the
rod is U. If the elongation is increased to 2x, then
the energy stored in the rod will be
(1) 2U (2) 4U
(3) 3U (4) 9U
15. The terminal velocity of a steel ball of radius r in
a liquid is v. If a ball of radius 1.5r of same material
is dropped in the same liquid, then the percentage
increase in its terminal velocity will be
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 125% (4) 300%
16. The three vessels shown in figure have same base
area a. All the vessels are filled with a liquid to the
same height H. The force exerted by the liquid at
the base area will be
A B C
a
H H H
a a
(1) Minimum in A (2) Minimum in B
(3) Minimum in C (4) Equal in all vessels
17. The rms speed of an ideal diatomic gas at room
temperature is v. When temperature is doubled the
gas dissociates into atoms. The new value of rms
speed will be
(1) 2v (2) 2v
(3) 2 2v (4) 4v
18. An ideal gas with adiabatic exponent
. .,
P
V
C
i e
C
| |
|
\ .

is heated at constant pressure. It absorbs Q heat.
The value of work done by the gas will be
(1)
Q

(2)
1
1 Q
| |

\ .
(3)
1
Q

(4) Q
19. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic
property?
(1) Pressure (2) Volume
(3) Heat (4) Temperature
Space For Rough Work
- 3 -
XII-cum Medical Entrance Exams. 2013 Sample Test Paper
20. Two conductors A and B are connected in parallel
as shown in figure. If length of each conductor is
l, area of cross secti on i s A and thermal
conductivities are k and 2k, the rate of flow of heat
through the combination will be
T
1
= 100C T
2
= 0C
k
2k
(1)
300 kl
A
(2)
300 kA
l
(3)
200 kA
l
(4)
400 kA
l
21. Two solid spheres of same materials are heated to
same temperature and are placed in the same
surroundings. Their radii are in ratio 1 : 2. The ratio
of the rate of cooling of the two spheres will be
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
22. A particle is executing SHM with amplitude A and
having maximum velocity v
0
. The velocity of the
particle at
2
A
x = will be
(1)
0
2
v
(2)
0
2
v
(3)
0
3
2
v
(4)
0
4
v
23. In the situation shown in figure, the pulley and the
spring are massless. The time period of oscillation
of the block for small vertical displacement will be
k
m
(1) 2
4
m
k
t (2)
2
2
m
k
t
(3)
2
m
k
t
(4)
4
2
m
k
t
24. If the speed of sound in air at 0C is 331 m/s, then
the value of speed of sound in air at 51C will be
nearly
(1) 310 m/s (2) 335 m/s
(3) 360 m/s (4) 400 m/s
25. An organ pipe of effective length 68 cm is closed
at one end. If the speed of sound in air at that
temperature is 340 ms
1
, what should be the
minimum value of frequency of a tuning fork to
obtain resonance ?
(1) 125 Hz (2) 250 Hz
(3) 325 Hz (4) 500 Hz
CHEMISTRY
26. A vessel contain H
2
and O
2
in the molar ratio of
8 : 1 respectively. This mixture of gases is allowed
to diffuse through a hole. What will be composition
of the mixture coming out of hole?
(1) 1 : 32 (2) 1 : 16
(3) 32 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
27. For one mole gas at low pressure compressibility
factor will be
(1)
Pb
1
RT
+ (2)
a
1
RTV

(3)
Pb
1
RT
(4)
a
1
RTV
+
28. At which of the following conditions volume of
1 mol e gas at 1 bar pressure and 25C
temperature will be double of the volume of this gas
(1) 50C at 1 bar (2) 323C at 1 bar
(3) 25C and 2 bar (4) 100C and 0.5 bar
29. If equal volume of two solution with pH = 5 and
pH = 9 are mixed together, what will be new pH of
solution?
(1) 4 (2) 14
(3) 7 (4) 6
Space For Rough Work
- 4 -
Sample Test Paper XII-cum Medical Entrance Exams. 2013
30. Which of the following can show variable covalency
because of use of vaccant p-orbital?
(1) B (2) Be
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Si
31. Oxidation of Cr in CrO
5
is
(1) +6 (2) +10
(3) +8 (4) 0
32. Which of the following element is detected by
Lassuignes extract?
(1) Carbon (2) Oxygen
(3) Sulphur (4) Hydrogen
33. What would be pH of mixture of 50 ml of 0.1 M
CH
3
COOH and 50 ml of 0.05 M NaOH if
(pK
a
= 4.74)?
(1) 9.26 (2) 9
(3) 4.74 (4) 5.74
34. 36 g of metal oxide on reduction give 30 g metal.
What should be equivalent mass of metal?
(1) 36 (2) 40
(3) 24 (4) 20
35. Masses of equal volume of CH
4
and a gas X are
in ratio of 1 : 5. What would be vapour density of
gas X?
(1) 0.5 (2) 20
(3) 40 (4) 80
36. What will be volume strength of
1
5
N H
2
O
2
?
(1) 1.12 (2) 2.24
(3) 4.48 (4) 8.96
37. Which of the following will be corresponding to
highest wavelength in Hydrogens atomic spectra?
(1) 1
st
line of Balmer series
(2) 1
st
line of Lyman series
(3) 1
st
line of Paschen series
(4) 1
st
line of Brackett series
38. What i s the correct IUPAC name of
C H CHCH
2 5 3
|
CH OH
2
?
(1) 2-hydroxy methyl Butane
(2) 2-Ethyl Propane-1-ol
(3) 2-Methyl Butane-1-ol
(4) Ethyl, methyl ethanol
39. What would be the number of e

with m = 0 in
Ni
2+
ion? (At. No. of Ni = 28)
(1) 12 (2) 14
(3) 10 (4) 15
40. Which of the following will have highest most
negative value of e

gain enthalpy?
(1) Cl (2) F
(3) Br (4) I
41. What would be shape and geometry of SO
2
?
(1) Trigonal planar and tetrahedral
(2) Bent shape and trigonal planar
(3) Linear, linear
(4) Trigonal planar, pyramidal
42. In which case number of hybrid orbital used by
central atom increases?
(1) 4
5
PCl PC l

(2) H BO
3 3
[B(OH) ]
4
H O
2
(3)
2
H O
5 3
PCl POCl
(4)
2
H O
3 3 3
PCl H PO
43. Which of the following is a disproportionation
reaction?
(1)

3 2
CaCO CaO CO +
(2)
Zn dust
2 2 2 2 2
CH ClCH Cl CH CH ZnCl A = +
(3) H
2
O + CH
3
COONa CH
3
COOH + NaOH
(4) C = O + OH CH OH + CH COO
3 3
H
H
Space For Rough Work
- 5 -
XII-cum Medical Entrance Exams. 2013 Sample Test Paper
44. If molecular mass of Na
2
HPO
4
is M. What will be
equivalent mass of Na
2
HPO
4
in given reaction?
Na
2
HPO
4
+ NaOH Na
3
PO
4
+ H
2
O
(1)
M
3
(2)
M
2
(3) 2M (4)
M
1
45. Which of the following is a incorrect match of
name of enthalpy of reaction?
Reaction Enthalpy of Process
(1) CH
4
+ 2O
2
CO
2
+ 2H
2
O Heat of Combustion
(2) C
diamond
+ O
2
CO
2
+ 2H
2
O Heat of formation
(3) HH 2H Bond energy
(4)
2 4 2 4 2
1 1
NaOH H SO Na SO H O
2 2
+ + Heat of Neutralisation
46. Which of the following has biggest size?
(1) Li
+
(aq)
(2) Na
+
(aq)
(3) K
+
(aq)
(4) Rb
+
(aq)
47. Lithium is a substance with lowest reduction
potential because
(1) This is above hydrogen in reactivity series
(2) Lowest ionisation energy
(3) Highest heat of hydration
(4) All of these
48. Which of the following will form only one product
on mono chlorination?
(1) Neopentane (2) Isopentane
(3) Isobutane (4) n-butane
49. Which of the following resonating structure must be
most stable?
(1) CH CH = CH O CH
2 3
(2)
CH = CH CH O CH
2 3
(3)
CH = CH CH = O CH
2 3
(4) All are equally stable
50. Which of the following can not be prepared from
Kolbes electrolysis?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
BIOLOGY
51. Fami l y tree of organi sms on the basi s of
taximetrics is called
(1) Cladogram
(2) Cryptogram
(3) Dendrogram
(4) Monograph
52. Accordi ng to three ki ngdom cl assi fi cati on,
achlorophyllous thallophytes are included in
(1) Protista
(2) Plantae
(3) Fungi
(4) Metaphyta
53. Backbone of peptidoglycan in bacterial cell wall is
made of alternating units of
(1) NAM and tetrapeptide chain
(2) NAM and NAG
(3) NAG and amino acid
(4) Muramic acid and teichoic acid
54. Which one of the following types of bacterial
conjugation leads to sexduction?
(1) Hfr F

(2) Hfr F
+
(3) Hfr Hfr (4) F
+
F

Space For Rough Work

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Sample Test Paper XII-cum Medical Entrance Exams. 2013
55. Holophytic protistans exhibiting large sap vacuole
and primordial utricle are
(1) Noctiluca and Thiospirillum
(2) Melosira and Physarum
(3) Ciliates and Sarcodines
(4) Navicula and Melosira
56. Sexual structure of pigmented moulds are
(1) Antheridia and oogonia
(2) Spermatangia and carpogonia
(3) Ascogonia and antheridia
(4) Archegonia and antheridia
57. Special structure in the thallus of lichen which is
analogous to the stomata of higher plants is
(1) Cyphellae (2) Cephalodia
(3) Isidia (4) Soredia
58. Aposporously formed gametophyte in Funaria will
be
(1) Haploid (2) Diploid
(3) Triploid (4) Polyploid
59. Actinostele is related to
(1) Medullated stele (2) Eustele
(3) Dictyostele (4) Nonmedullated stele
60. Megasporophyll of gymnosperm is equivalent to
(1) Ovule (2) Carpel
(3) Endosperm (4) Embryosac
61. Cell organelle enriched with oxidative enzymes is
(1) Golgi bodies (2) Lysosome
(3) Mitochondria (4) ER
62. Which one of the following organelles is involved in
gluconeogenesis in germinating fatty seeds?
(1) Peroxisome (2) Mitochondria
(3) Sphaerosomes (4) Glyoxysomes
63. Isobrachial chromosomes are
(1) Acrocentric (2) Telocentric
(3) Sub-metacentric (4) Metacentric
64. Zygotic meiosis occurs in
(1) Ferns (2) Moss
(3) Algae (4) Angiosperms
65. Decision of cell division occurs during
(1) G
1
-phase (2) S-phase
(3) G
2
-phase (4) M-phase
66. Phragmoplast is associated with
(1) Karyokinesis
(2) Cytokinesis
(3) Cell elongation
(4) More than one option is correct
67. Find correct match
Column I Column II
a.
P A
(i) Fabaceae
b.
C A
(5) (5)
(ii) Solanaceae
c. C
1+2+(2)
A
(9)+1
(iii) Liliaceae
d.
C A
(5) 5
(iv) Asteraceae
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
68. Inflorescence characterised by fleshy receptacle
and trimorphic flowers is
(1) Capitulum (2) Hypanthodium
(3) Cincinnus (4) Cyathium
69. Find incorrect statement with respect to
meristematic tissue
(1) Cells are isodiametric without intercellular
spaces
(2) Absence of ergastic substances
(3) Cells have primary wall only
(4) Plastids are present
Space For Rough Work
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XII-cum Medical Entrance Exams. 2013 Sample Test Paper
70. Light coloured and physiologically active element of
xylem in matured woody dicots is
(1) Tracheids
(2) Primary xylem vessels
(3) Duramen
(4) Alburnum
71. What is true for plasmolysed cells?
(1) DPD = OP + TP (2) DPD = OP TP
(3) OP = TP (4)
s
=
p
72. First balanced culture solution with macronutrients,
micronutrients and chelating agent was prepared by
(1) Knop (2) Sachs
(3) Arnon and Stout (4) Arnon and Hoagland
73. To reduce one CO
2
molecule in sorghum plant,
total number of assimilatory powers required is
(1) 2 NADPH
2
and 3 ATP
(2) 2 NADPH
2
and 5 ATP
(3) 12 NADPH
2
and 18 ATP
(4) 12 NADPH
2
and 30 ATP
74. First decarboxylation in TCA cycle occurs at which
substrate level?
(1) Pyruvate (2) Oxaloacetate
(3) Oxalosuccinate (4) -ketoglutarate
75. Pre-harvest fruit drop in tomato is checked by
application of
(1) NAA (2) IBA
(3) NAAM (4) TIBA
76. Which of the following is common ancestral larval
form for echinoderms and hemichordates?
(1) Dipleura larva (2) Tornaria larva
(3) Glochidium larva (4) Ammocoete larva
77. Ecdysone is moulting hormone in insects, which is
secreted by
(1) Mehlis glands (2) Green gland
(3) Uricose gland (4) Prothoracic gland
78. Which of the following is correct digital formula of
the hindlimb of frog?
(1) 0, 2, 2, 3, 3 (2) 0, 2, 3, 4, 3
(3) 2, 2, 3, 4, 3 (4) 2, 2, 2, 3, 4
79. Which larval stage of Ascaris is infective?
(1) First stage larva (2) Second stage larva
(3) Third stage larva (4) Fifth stage larva
80. Which of the following protozoan secretes cellulase
enzyme?
(1) Entodinium caudatum
(2) Entamoeba histolytica
(3) Elphidium
(4) Trypanosoma cruzi
81. Whi ch of the fol l owi ng i s not true about
chondrichthyes?
A. Swim bladder is absent
B. Spiral valve occurs in the intestine
C. Mouth is ventral
D. Strictly oviparous
(1) A, B and C (2) A and B
(3) A and C (4) D only
82. Which of the following is peptide bond?
(1) CO.NH (2) C.O.C
(3) C.N.C (4) C.O.C
O
83. Select odd one
(1) Glucose (2) Galactose
(3) Mannose (4) Fructose
84. Which one of the following is not an essential fatty
acid?
(1) Oleic acid (2) Linoleic acid
(3) Linolenic acid (4) Arachidonic acid
85. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
(1) Tryptophan (2) Proline
(3) Aspartic acid (4) Glycine
Space For Rough Work
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Sample Test Paper XII-cum Medical Entrance Exams. 2013

86. Which of the following enzyme has maximum
turnover number?
(1) Catalase
(2) Urease
(3) Carbonic anhydrase
(4) Lactate dehydrogenase
87. Which one of the following is the strongest
cartilage?
(1) Hyaline cartilage
(2) Yellow elastic cartilage
(3) White fibrous cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage
88. Which one is the major component of plasma
protein?
(1) Albumin (2) Globulin
(3) Prothrombin (4) Fibrinogen
89. Which one is not absent in axon?
(1) Golgi complex (2) Nissl bodies
(3) Mitochondria (4) ER
90. Monocondylic skull is found in
A. Frog B. Reptiles
C. Birds D. Mammals
(1) A, B and C (2) A and D
(3) B and C (4) B, C and D
91. Brunners glands open into which part of alimentary
canal?
(1) Stomach
(2) Duodenum
(3) Ileum
(4) Proximal part of colon
92. Which of the following is equal to FRC?
(1) IRV + TV (2) ERV + VC
(3) ERV + RV (4) ERV + IRV + RV
93. Gulls disease is the result of
(1) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland
(2) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland
(3) Hypersecretion of pituitary gland
(4) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland
94. Which one of the following valves present between
left atrium and left ventricle?
(1) Tricuspid valve (2) Mitral valve
(3) Semilunar valve (4) Valve of Houston
95. Which one of the following are involved in regulation
of the kidney function?
(1) ADH (2) RAAS
(3) ANF (4) All of these
96. Which one is highly vascularised meninx?
(1) Duramater (2) Aarchnoidmater
(3) Piamater (4) All of these
97. Which one is special feature for mammalian brain?
(1) Presence of optic lobe
(2) Presence of hypothalamus
(3) Presence of corpus callosum
(4) Presence of hollow olfactory lobes
98. Select the longest cranial nerve supplying to
thoracic as well as abdominal parts
(1) Trigeminal nerve (2) Pathetic nerve
(3) Vagus nerve (4) Facial nerve
99. Organ of Corti rests upon
(1) Reissners membrane
(2) Basilar membrane
(3) Choroid layer
(4) Membranous labyrinth
100. Which of the following endocrine gland is ecto-
mesodermal origin?
(1) Pituitary gland (2) Thyroid gland
(3) Adrenal gland (4) Gonads
1. (1)
2. (3)
3. (3)
4. (2)
5. (2)
6. (2)
7. (1)
8. (3)
9. (4)
10. (2)
11. (4)
12. (4)
13. (3)
14. (2)
15. (3)
16. (4)
17. (2)
18. (2)
19. (3)
20. (2)
21. (1)
22. (2)
23. (3)
24. (3)
25. (1)
26. (3)
27. (2)
28. (2)
29. (3)
30. (3)
31. (1)
32. (3)
33. (3)
34. (2)
35. (3)
36. (1)
37. (4)
38. (3)
39. (1)
40. (1)
41. (2)
42. (2)
43. (4)
44. (4)
45. (2)
46. (1)
47. (3)
48. (1)
49. (3)
50. (2)
51. (3)
52. (1)
53. (2)
54. (4)
55. (4)
56. (3)
57. (1)
58. (2)
59. (4)
60. (2)
61. (3)
62. (4)
63. (4)
64. (3)
65. (1)
66. (2)
67. (4)
68. (2)
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Aakash Institute
Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Answers
Test Booklet Code : A
Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(For XII-cum-Medical Entrance Exams. 2013)