Tor Kjellsson

Stockholm University

Chapter 6
6.1
Q. Suppose we put a delta-function bump in the center of the infinite square
well:
H 0 = (x a/2)

(1)

where is a constant.
a)
Find the first-order correction to the allowed energies. Explain why the energies
are not perturbed for even n.
Sol:
For the infinite square well we have that the energies are given by:
n 2 2 ~2
n = 1, 2, 3 . . .
(2)
2ma2
since each energy level is unique the spectrum is non-degenerate. So when we
seek the first order corrections to the energy levels we can use non-degenerate
perturbation theory:
En1 = hn0 |H 0 |n0 i
(3)
0

where n are the unperturbed eigenfunctions of H. For the infinite square

well these are:
r
 n 
2
n (x) =
sin
x .
(4)
a
a
En =

Using eq.(3) we now get:

En1 = hn0 |H 0 |n0 i = hn0 |(x a/2)|n0 i
Z

n0 (x) (x a/2) n0 (x) dx

 n 
 n 
x (x a/2) sin
x dx
a
a
0
(


2
0 if n = even
2 n a
= sin
=
2
else
a
a 2
a
2
=
a

sin

For even n we see that the correction is 0. We can understand this, besides
trusting the calculations, from the fact that the even wave functions are 0 where
the delta-functions is located - they thus never get affected by it.
1

b)
Find the first three nonzero terms in the expansion (eq.(6.13) in the text book)
of the correction to the ground state 11 .
Sol:
Eq.(6.13) in the book is:
n1 =

X h 0 |H 0 | 0 i
m
n
0
m
0
En0 Em

(5)

n6=m

n = 1 gives:
11 =

X h 0 |H 0 | 0 i
m
1
0
m
0
E10 Em

m6=1

11 (x)

X
m6=1

11 (x)

0
m
(x)
0
0
E1 Em

0
m
(x) (x a/2) 10 (x) dx

Z
 3/2 X
 
 m 
sin m
2
a x
x
sin
x dx

(x

a/2)
sin
=
0
a
E10 Em
a
a
m6=1

11 (x)

 3/2 X
 m 

sin m
2
a x
=
sin
sin

.
0
a
E10 Em
2 | {z2 }
m6=1

which gives:
11 (x)

#






 3/2 "
sin 3
sin 5
sin 7
2
a x
a x
a x
0
=
+ 0
0
+ ... .
a
E1 E30
E1 E50
E1 E70

Using eq.(2) and performing some basic algebra we obtain:

11 (x)

r
=

 






a m
3
1
5
1
7
sin
x sin
x + sin
x + ...
2 2 ~2
a
3
a
6
a

(6)

6.2
Q. For the harmonic oscillator [V (x) = (1/2)kx2 ], the allowed energies are:
En = (n + 1/2)~

(n = 0, 1, 2, . . .)

(7)

where = k/m is the classical frequency. Now suppose the spring constant
increases slightly: k (1 + )k.
a)
Q. Find the exact new energies. Expand your formula as a power series in ,
up to second order.
Sol:
Obtaining the new energies is trivial:
r

(1 + )k

= (n + 1/2)~ 1 + . (8)
En En = (n + 1/2)~
= (n + 1/2)~
m
Expanding this to second order in :

1
1
1 +  1 +  2 + . . .
2
8

gives:


1
1 2

En (n + 1/2)~ 1 +   + . . . .
2
8

(9)

b)
Q. Now calculate the first-order perturbation in energy using eq.(6.9) in the text
book. What is H 0 here? Compare your result with part (a). Hint: do not calculate any integral but use information from p.48-49 when suitable.
Sol:
First-order energy perturbation is given by:
En1 = hn0 |H 0 |n0 i
and to calculate it we must of course know the perturbation H 0 . For the Harmonic oscillator (in one dimension) we have the Hamiltonian:
H=

1
~2 d 2
+ kx2
2m dx2
2

(10)

so with the new spring constant k = (1 + )k we get:

H + H0 =

~2 d 2
1
1
+ kx2 + kx2
2m dx2
2
2

(11)

and thus:
1
kx2 .
2
This gives us the first-order energy perturbation as:
H0 =

En1 = hn0 |H 0 |n0 i =

(12)

1
k hn0 |x2 |n0 i.
2

From pages 48-49 in the text book we now find1


~  2
a+ + a+ a + a a+ + a2
2m

a n = nn1 .
a+ n = n + 1n+1 ,
x2 =

(13)
(14)

Using these we obtain:

En1 =

En1 =



~
1
k
hn0 | a2+ + a+ a + a a+ a2 |n0 i.
2
2m

(15)


~  0 2 0
1
k
hn |a+ |n i + hn0 |a+ a |n0 i + hn0 |a a+ |n0 i + hn0 |a2 |n0 i
2
2m

Focusing on the square brackets we get:

 0 2 0

hn |a+ |n i + hn0 |a+ a |n0 i + hn0 |a a+ |n0 i + hn0 |a2 |n0 i

0
0
0
0
= n + 1hn0 |a+ |n+1
i + nhn0 |a+ |n1
i + n + 1hn0 |a |n+1
i + nhn0 |a |n1
i
=

0
0
n + 1 n + 2 hn0 |n+2
i + n n hn0 |n0 i + n + 1 n + 1 hn0 |n0 i + n n 1 hn0 |n2
i
| {z }
| {z }
| {z }
| {z }
0

(16)
= 0 + n + (n + 1) + 0 = 2n + 1
so:

En1

1
~
1
~
= k
(2n + 1) = m 2
2
2m
2
m





1

1
n+
=
n+
~
2
2
2

(17)

1 There is a famous quote that says that physics is just learning to solve the harmonic
oscillator problem at ever increasing level.

6.4
a)
Q. Find the second-order correction to the energies (En2 ) for the potential in
problem 6.1. Comment: You can sum the series explicitly, obtaining 2m(/~n)2
for odd n.

Sol:
The second-order energy correction (eq.(6.15) in the text book) is:
En2 =

X |h 0 |H 0 | 0 i|2
m
n
0
En0 Em

(18)

n6=m

On p.2 in this chapter of solutions we found2

0
0
hm
|H 0 |n0 i = hm
|(x a/2)|n0 i =

 m 
 n 
2
sin
sin
a
2
2

so:
0
|hm
|H 0 |n0 i|2

0
Since En0 Em
=

En2 =

 m 
 n 
42
= 2 sin2
sin2
=
a
2
2

2 ~2
2
2ma2 (n

(
0 for even n or m
42
else.
a2

m2 ) we obtain:

 2
1
8m2 1
8m2 X
=

=
2m
2 ~2
n2 m2
2 ~2 4n2
~n

(19)

n6=m
n=odd

note also that the m outside the sum is the mass, not the summation index in
the sum. The explicit expression for the sum can be looked up in a table or
derived if you think that is fun - it is not important for the understanding of
quantum mechanics (in my humble opinion).

b)
Q. Calculate the second-order correction to the ground state energy (E02 ) for
the potential in problem 6.2. Check that your result is consistent with the exact
result obtained in problem 6.2 a) (eq.(9) in these solutions!).

2 If you have a hard time seeing this I suggest that you redo the steps from problem 1 where
0 |H 0 | 0 i.
we computed hn
n

Sol:
Once again we need to use eq.(18) and we note that we already computed a lot
of it in eq.(16) from the previous problem:

0
hm
|H 0 |n0 i

"

1
~
0
0
0
= k
n + 1 n + 2 hm
|n+2
i + n n hm
| 0 i +
| {z n}
2
2m

| {z }
m,n

m,n2

0
0
0
+ n + 1 n + 1 hm
|n0 i + n n 1 hm
|n2
i .
| {z }
| {z }
m,n

m,n+2

Now, before we start computing this using the brute force method to obtain 16
terms we pause a moment and think. The 16 products will all consist of two
delta functions and if you look at the product of two such that are not equal,
say m,n m,n+2 this has to be 0. For fun, try to prove this - it is a one line
argument that I provide in the following (dont peek!) footnote3 .
So:
0
|hm
|H 0 |n0 i|2 =

"
#
2 k 2 ~2
2
2
2
2
2
=
(n+1)(n+2) (m,n+2 ) +n (m,n ) +(n+1) (m,n ) +n(n1) (m,n2 ) .
16m
2 2
Inserting this into eq.(16), noting that we are interested in n = 0 and that the
sum does not allow m = n we obtain:
"
#
2 2 2 X

k
~
1
2
2
(0 + 1)(0 + 2) (m,0+2 ) + 0(0 1) (m,0+2 )
E02 =
0
16m
2 2
E00 Em
m6=0

E02 =

2 k 2 ~2 X
1
2
2 (m,2 )
0
16m
2 2
E00 Em

(20)

m6=0

one of the delta functions collapses the sum:

E02 =

2 k 2 ~2 2m,2
2 k 2 ~2
1
=
0
0
2
2
16m
E0 E2
8m
2 2 E00 E20

while the other one can be thrown away since it does nothing - there are no
more m to force to the value 2.
Now we use:
E00 E20 = ~ (0 2)

and

k2 = m
2 4

(21)

to obtain:
E02 =
3 This

2 m
2 4 ~2
1
2

~
8m
2 2
(2~)
16

product is non-zero if and only if n = n + 2 which can not happen.

(22)

note that both this result and eq.(17) are in agreement with the exact result obtained in eq.(9)!

6.7
Q. Consider a particle of mass m that is free to move in a one-deminsional
region of length L that closes on itself. An example of this would be problem
2.46 in the text book, where a bead that slides frictionlessly on a circular wire.
a)
Q. Show that the stationary states can be written in the form:
1
n (x) = e2in/L ,
L

(L/2, < x < L/2)

(23)

where n = 0, 1, 2, . . . and the energies are given by:

En =

2
m

n~
L

2
.

(24)

Notice that the spectrum is doubly degenerate for all n but n=0.
Sol:
To find the eigenstates and eigenvalues we solve the eigenvalue equation:

H|i
= E|i

(25)

Notice now that our system is a particle that moves freely. The Hamiltonian
must thus only contain a kinetic energy term:
2
2
=~ d
(26)
H
2m dx2
and since our operator explicitly depends on the x-basis we naturally work in
this representation. The eigenvalue equation to solve is thus:

H(x)
= E(x)
~2 d2
(x) = E(x)
2m dx2
which has the most general solution:

(x) = A eikx + B eikx

p

(27)

with k = 2mE/~2 . As always when we are working with functions we find

the eigenvalues by applying the boundary conditions - which in this case must
be that the functions are periodic4 :
4 The

problem statement says that the region closes on itself.

(L/2) = (L/2) = A eik 2 + B eik 2 = A eik 2 + B eik 2 e0

eikL = e0

kL = 2n nZ.

This means that:

2n
k=
L

r
=

2n
2mE
=
~2
L

= En =

2
m

~n
L

2
n Z.

(28)

Recall now that the we are asked to give the stationary states, that is, we are
asked to give the eigenfunctions of the operator. The solution found in eq.(27)
is actually a linear combination of the functions:
n (x) = C ei

2nx
L

n Z.

(29)

Note that eq.(27) of course is an

which in themselves are eigenfunctions of H.
eigenfunction as well but it is not on the simplest form and we normally want
to express the general formula using the smallest constituent part. Thus, eq.(29)
is on the form we normally want (and also note that we can obtain eq.(27) from
eq.(29)).
Finally, we just need to normalize this:
Z

L/2

L/2

1
dx = C =
L
L/2
L/2
(30)
and as always, note that even though mathematically the solution is C = 1L ei
(where the last exponential is called a phase) we are free to set this phase to 1.
1 = hn |n i = |C|

i 2nx
i 2nx
L
L

dx = |C|

Thus:
2nx
1
n (x) = ei L n Z
L

(31)

with:
En =

2
m

~n
L

2
n Z.

(32)

b)
Q. Now suppose we introduce the perturbation:
H 0 = V0 ex

/a2

(33)

where a << L. Find the first-order correction to En using eq.(6.27) in the text
book. Hint: to evaluate the integral, exploit the fact that a << L to
extend the limits from L/2 to .
Sol:
The first-order correction for degenerate perturbation theory is given by Eq.(6.27)
in the text book:


q
1
1
E
=
Wa,a + Wb,b (Wa,a Wb,b )2 + 4|Wa,b |2
(34)
2
where:
Wa,b ha0 |H 0 |b0 i

(35)

and the indices a, b denote that indices for the degenerate energy levels. In this
example the energy levels are degenerate for n, so a = n, b = n.
Now we calculate Wn,n :
Wn,n =

V0
=
L

hn0 |H 0 |n0 i

V0
L

L/2

ex

/a2

L/2

ei

2nx
L

ex

/a2 i 2nx
L

dx

L/2

dx

L/2

V0
L

ex

/a2

dx =

V0
a
L

(36)

Now we proceed by calculating Wn,-n :

0
hn0 |H 0 |n
i=

V0
L

L/2

ei

2nx
L

ex

/a2 i 2nx
L

dx =

L/2

V0
L

L/2

x2

e a2 i

4nx
L

dx

L/2

Completing the square5 gives:

0
hn0 |H 0 |n
i

2
V0 ( 2na
L )
e
L

L/2

V0
=
L

e( a +i
x

e( a +i
x

2na
L

( 2na
L )

dx

L/2

2na
L

L/2

L/2

) dx V0 e( 2na
L )
L
2

e( a +i
x

2na
L

) dx

Computing this integral is not easy but manageable. Start with a variable
substitution:
x
2na
+i
= y,
a
L
which gives:
Wn,-n
5 In

+ i

dx = ady,

2na 2
V0
e ( L ) a
L

Swedish: kvadratkomplettering.

+i

2na
2na
<y <+i
L
L

2na
L

2n
+i aL

ey dy.

(37)

This is a very famous integral which is tabulated in most places (Physics Handbook for instance.). However, the limits are now complex which might be a first
sight for most of you following this solution. On this level it suffices to say that
you can prove, using something called the Cauchy residue theorem 6 , that this
integral is the same as if you had computed it on the real line. Thus, you can
just ignore the imaginary parts in the integration limits:
Z
2
2
2
V0 ( 2na
V0 ( 2na
L )
L )
ey dy =
ae
ae

(38)
|Wn,-n |
L
L

and we finally arrive at:

1
E
=


2
V0 
a 1 e(2na/L)
L

(39)

c)
Q. What are the good linear combinations of n and n for this problem?
Show that with these states you get the first-order correction using eq.(6.9) in
the text book:
Sol:
What commonly happens during a perturbation of the Hamiltonian is that the
energies that are degenerate split in as many components (see figure 6.4 in
the text book) as the degeneracy. So during the perturbation we get a nondegenerate spectrum for the new eigenstates7 . The problem now is that we
dont know what these eigenstates look like more than that they must be a
linear combination of the unperturbed degenerate eigenstates. We call such a
combination a good linear combination.
In the case of a two-fold degeneracy, as this problem, the good states must
be of the form:
= a0 + b0
(40)
and we seek the coefficients , . Eq.(6.22) in the text book gives:
Waa + Wab = E 1 = =

E 1 Waa
Wab

(41)

where Waa , Wab , E 1 were calculated in the previous problem (a=n, b=-n). Note
1
1
that we get one combination for E+
and one for E
which is precisely what we
expect - one for each degeneracy-lift (compare with fig. 6.4 in the book).
First note from the previous problem that since Wn,n = W-n,-n we have:
1
E
= Wnn |Wn,-n |

(42)

6 In the beautiful theory of complex analysis you learn how to overcome the many limits
in real-valued mathematical analysis and you also explain a lot of the weird trigonometric
substitutions people do when solving indefinite integrals computed on the real line.
7 Remember, we have a new Hamiltonian now.

10

so we now get:
=

1
E
Wn,n
|Wn,-n |
=
=
Wn,-n
Wn,-n

(43)

which gives the good linear combinations:

 2
 2in/L
+
e
e2in/L =
sin (2nx/L)
L
L
 2
 2in/L

e
+ e2in/L =
cos (2nx/L) .
=
L
L

+ = + n + -n =
= n + -n

From the fact that we have added two orthonormal functions to create we
immediately see that the normalisation constant is + = = 12 .
1
Since E
are non-degenerate and we have found the corresponding eigenstates
1
using non-degenerate perturbation theory
we should be able to get the values E
with and indeed this is the case:
1
E+
= h+ |H 0 |+ i =

2V0
L

L/2

ex

/a2

2
2
2V0
h+ |ex /a |+ i =
L

sin2 (2nx/L) dx

L/2

2V0
L

ex

/a2

sin2 (2nx/L) dx.

(44)
Note now that using the Euler formula we obtain:
Z

x2 /a2

ex

sin (2nx/L) dx =

1
=
4

x2 /a2 i4nx/L

1
dx
4

/a2


1  i4nx/L
i4nx/L
e
+
e

2
dx
4i2

x2 /a2 i4nx/L

1
dx +
2
|

ex

{z

a /2

/a2

dx .
}

Note that the first two terms are very reminiscent of Wn,-n , which we computed
between eq.(37) and eq.(39). As an exercise you can prove the following:
x
int
e

/a2 i4nx/L

x
dx = int
e

/a2 i4nx/L

dx

by making the variable substitution x =

x. Thus we now have:
Z


V0
1
0
x2 /a2 i4nx/L
E+ = h+ |H |+ i =
e
e
dx + a
L

where the first term now is exactly Wn,-n . Referring back to eq.(37) through
eq.(39) where we computed this we obtain:
1
E+
=

i
2na 2
V0 h
ae( L ) + a
L
11

1
E+
=

i
2na 2
V0 h
a 1 e ( L )
L

(45)

which is in agreement with eq.(40), the result obtained using degenerate perturbation theory. Now, you can produce the steps for h |H 0 | i yourself,
either by expressing cos2 (2nx/L) as 1 sin2 (2nx/L) or by using the
1
Euler formula for cosine. You should then also verify that you actually get E
as stated in eq.(40).

12

6.9
Q. Consider a quantum system with just three linearly independent states. Suppose the Hamiltonian in matrix form is:

1 0 0
1 
H = V0 0
(46)
0
 2
where V0 is a constant and  << 1.
a)
Q. Write down the eigenvectors and eigenvalues of the unperturbed Hamiltonian
( = 0).
Sol:
This is very straightforward. If is0 then:

1 0
H0 = V0 0 1
0 0

0
0
2

and we immediately see that the eigenvectors are:

0
1
|2 i = 1
|1 i = 0
0
0

(47)

0
|3 i = 0
1

(48)

with the three eigenvalues:

1 = V0

2 = V0

3 = 2V0

(49)

b)
Q. Solve for the exact eigenvalues of H. Expand each of them as a power series
in  up to second order.
Sol:
This is something that we have done a lot. Start by setting up the eigenvalue
matrix equation:
H|i = |i

1 0
1
V0 0
0


V0 (1 )


0


0

0
a
a
 b = b
2
c
c

0
0 
V0
V0   = 0
V0 
2V0 
13

(V0 (1 ) )(V0 )(2V0 ) V0  V0  (V0 (1 ) ) = 0

(V0 (1 ) ) [(V0 )(2V0 ) V0  V0 ] = 0


(V0 (1 ) ) 2 3V0 + V02 (2 2 ) = 0

which has the solutions:

(V0 (1 ) ) = 0

2 3V0 +V02 (22 )

expanding

2 =

1 = V0 (1 )


p
V0 
3 1 + 42
2

3 =


p
V0 
3 + 1 + 42
2

1 + 42 1 + 22 + . . . gives:

1 V0 V0

(50)

2 V0 2 V0

(51)

3 2V0 + 2 V0

(52)

N.B: we chose 2 = V20 3 1 + 42 out of convenience. We could have chosen the other square root instead if we wanted to.
c)
Q. Use first- and second-order nondegenerate perturbation theory to find the
approximate eigenvalue for the state that grows out of the nondegenerate eigenvector of H 0 . Compare this to the exact value obatined in (a).
Sol:
For nondegenerate perturbation theory we get the first order correction from:
En1 = hn0 |H 0 |n0 i

(53)

and since our perturbation (on matrix form) is:

1 0 0
H0 = V0 0 0 1
0 1 0
and the state that is nondegenerate is the one with
2V0 we find:

1


E31 = h30 |H 0 |30 i = 0 0 1 V0 0
0
14

(54)
the unperturbed eigenvalue

0 0
0
0 1 0 = 0
1 0
1

(55)

(which means that there are no first-order energy corrections due to the perturbation).
The second-order correction is given by:
X |h0 |H 0 |0 |2
|h10 |H 0 |30 |2
|h20 |H 0 |30 |2
m
3
=
+
0
0
0
0
E3 Em
E3 E1
E30 E20
m

1 0 0
0


h10 |H 0 |30 i = 1 0 0 V0 0 0 1 0 = 0
0 1 0
1

1 0 0
0


h20 |H 0 |30 i = 0 1 0 V0 0 0 1 0 = V0
0 1 0
1

E32 =

(56)

(57)

(58)

so:
E32 =

2 V02
|h20 |H 0 |30 |2
=
= 2 V0
0
0
E3 E2
2V0 V0

(59)

which is the same as the result you obtained in (a).

d)
Q. Use degenerate perturbation theory to find the first-order correction to the
two initially degenerate eigenvalues. Compare to the exact results.
Sol: First order degenerate perturbation theory gives the energy correction:
1
E
=

i
p
1h
Waa + Wbb (Waa Wbb )2 + 4|Wab |2
2

(60)

with Wab = ha0 |H 0 |b0 i. Our degenerate states are a=1 and b=2 so we obtain:

1 0


W11 = 1 0 0 V0 0 0
0 1

1


W12 = 1 0 0 V0 0
0

1


W22 = 0 1 0 V0 0
0

0
1
1 0 = V0
0
0

0 0
0
0 1 1 = 0
1 0
0

0 0
0
0 1 1 = 0
1 0
0

assuming that V0 > 0 we obtain:

1
E

i
p
1h
V0 (V0 0)2 + 0 =
=
2

15

1
0 for E+
1
V0 for E

(61)

Is this consistent with the results in (b)? Yes, because there we found:
E11 = V0 V0

(62)

E21 = V0 2 V0

(63)

and in this problem we found that one state gets forced down by V0 while
the other state is unaffected in first order of .

16

6.32
for a particular quantum system is a function of
Q. Suppose the Hamiltonian H
some parameter ; let En () and n () be the eigenvalues and eigenfunctions
of H(). The Feynman-Hellmann theorem states that
 
 
En
 H 
(64)
= n 
n

assuming either that En is nondegenerate or if degenerate that the n s are the

good linear combinations of the degenerate eigenfunctions.
a)
Q. Prove the Feynman-Hellmann theorem. Hint: use eq.(6.9) in the text book
for this.
Sol:
First of all, what are the consequences of H being a function of ? Well, since
H is a function it means that we can see it as
H() = H(0 ) + V () = H0 + H 0 ()

(65)

and the new eigenfunctions are n (). Then we note that:

En () = hn |H()|n i =

i
En
h
=
hn |H()|n i .

(66)

There are at least two ways to proceed from here. I will start by solving it
following the hint and then solve it in the way that Feynman did it.
In the first way to solve this we note that

En (0 + d) En (0 )
E 1 (0 + d)
En (0 ) = lim
= lim n
d0
d0

d
d

(67)

and from eq.(6.9) in the text book we find:

En1 (0 + d) = hn0 |H 0 (0 + d)|n0 i.

(68)

n0

= n (0 ) are the unperturbed eigenfunctions while the ones used

Note that
in eq.(64) and eq.(66) are the perturbed eigenfunctions n ().
Now, for small changes in we can write H as:
H(0 + d) H0 +

H(0 )
d = H0 + H 0 (0 + d)

(69)

so eq.(68) becomes:
En1 (0 + d) =

 H( )     H( )  



0
0  0
n0 
dn0 = n0 
n d.

17

(70)

and combining eq.(67) and eq.(70) we obtain:

En (0 )
E 1 (0 + d)
= lim n
=
d0

 H( )  

0  0
n0 
n

(71)

So we have now shown the relation for small values close to 0 . To generalize
this we first make a small recap. We started at = 0 and increased the value
0)
with d to obtain 1 = 0 + d. To calculate E(
we used first order nonde
generate perturbation theory using the eigenfunctions of H(0 ) in eq.(68) and
arrived at eq.(71).
1)
Now consider a further increase in to obtain 2 = 1 +d. To calculate E(

we just repeat the same steps as before but now the unperturbed eigenfunctions
are n (1 ). Thus:


 H( ) 
En (1 )
En1 (1 + d)

1 
(72)
= lim
= n (1 )
n (1 )
d0

and the same pattern would continue with further increase of . By this we
have shown that for any we have:
En ()
=


 H() 


n ()
n ()

(73)

In the second way we do not use perturbation theory but rather a direct
method. From eq.(66) we obtain:
i
En
h
=
hn |H|n i


  
     
n  
 H 
  n
=
H n + n 
n + n H 


  
 





n  
n  
 H 
=
+

+
En n
n
H n
n







 H 
n  
n 


= En
n + n 
n +
En n


  


 
n 
n 
 H 
= En
n + n 
n + En
n


  

 



n 
 H 
 n

= En
n + n 
n + En n 

but remember now that the energies are real, so En = En . Thus:

 
 

En
 H 
= n 
[hn |n i]
n + En

| {z
}
0

where we have used that hn |n i = 1, so the last term is 0.

18

(74)

b)
Q. Apply the theorem to the one-dimensional harmonic oscillator, (i) using
= (which yields a formula for hV i), (ii) using = ~ (which yields a formula for hT i) and (iii) using = m (which yields a relation between hV i and
hT i). Compare your answers to problem 2.12 and the Virial theorem predictions.
Sol:
Here we are going to use the formula we proved in the previous problem:
 
 
En
 H 
= n 
n

for the harmonic oscillator. The Hamiltonian and the energies are given by:
H=

~2 d 2
1
+ m 2 x2
2m dx2
2

1
En = ~(n + )
2

(75)

(i)
Using this for = we get:


 H  


n 
n

 
 


En
 2V 
= n |mx2 |n = n 
n

From the energies we then see:

En
=

1
En
En
= ~(n + ) =

and thus:
En = 2 hV i

(76)

which is familiar from problem 2.12 and 3.31.

(ii)
Using = ~ instead we now get:


 H  


n 
n
~
 
  
  2
En
~ d2 

2 
= n 
=

T
n = hT i.


n
n
~
m dx2
~
~
En
=
~

(77)

From the expression for the energies you get (check this):
En
En
=
~
~
so eq.(77) gives:
En = 2hT i.

(78)

Now you can do the third exercise (iii) to verify what you can get from (i) and
(ii): hV i = hT i.
19