Acoustic Emission Testing Review c. Large structural steel members.

Questions d. Ceramics.

1. The most common range of acoustic emission 6. The Kaiser is useful in distinguishing:
testing is:
a. Electrical noise from mechanical noise.
a. 10-15 kHz.
b. Electrical noise from growing discontinuities.
b. 100-300 kHz.
c. Mechanical noise from continuous emissions.
c. 500-750 kHz.
d. Electrical noise from continuous emissions.
d. 1-5 MHz.

7. The term “counts” refers to the:

2. Discontinuities that are not readily detectable by
a. Number of times a signal crosses a preset
acoustic emission testing are:
threshold.
a. Leaks.
b. Number of events from a source.
b. Plastic deformation.
c. Number of transducers required to perform a test.
c. Growing cracks.
d. Duration of hold periods.
d. Rounded inclusions.

8. The acoustic emission signal amplitude is related to:

3. The total energy loss of a propagating wave is
a. The preset threshold.
called:
b. The intensity of the source.
a. Scatter.
c. The band pass filters.
b. Dispersion.
d. Background noises.
c. Diffraction.
d. Attenuation.
9. Threshold setting are determined by the:
a. Graininess of the material.
4. The Kaiser effect refers to:
b. Attenuation of the material.
a. Velocity changes due to temperature changes.
c. Test duration.
b. Low amplitude emissions from aluminum structures.
d. Background noise level.
c. The behavior where emission from a source will not
occur until the previous load is exceeded.
d. Emissions from dissimilar material interfaces. 10. Background noise can be reduced by:
a. Electronic filtering.
5. The felicity effect is useful in evaluating: b. Using flat response amplifier.
a. Fiber-reinforced plastic components. c. Using in-line amplifiers.
b. High alloy castings. d. Using heavier gage coaxial cable.
Electromagnetic Testing Review Questions a. An electrical conductor.

1. Eddy currents are circulating electrical currents b. An electrical insulator.

induced in conductive materials by: c. A ferromagnetic material.
a. Continuous direct current. d. A nonmagnetic material.
b. Gamma rays.
c. An alternating magnetic field. 6. The magnetic field generated by Eddy currents
d. A piezoelectric force. induced in a test specimen:
a. Opposes the magnetic field that induced the Eddy
currents.
2. The method used to generate eddy currents in a test
specimen by means of a coil can most closely be b. Reinforces the magnetic field that induced the Eddy
compared with the action of a: currents.

a. Transformer. c. Cancels the magnetic field that induced the Eddy

currents.
b. Capacitor.
d. Has no effect on the magnetic field that induced the
c. Storage battery.
Eddy currents.
d. Generator.

7. In Eddy current testing, IACS is a recognized

3. Eddy current testing relies on the principle of: abbreviation for:
a. Magnetostriction. a. Induced alternating current system.
b. Electromagnetic induction. b. Inductively activated comparison system.
c. Piezoelectric energy conversion. c. Internal applied current system.
d. Magnetomotive force. d. International annealed copper standard.

4. When the electrical current in an eddy current coil 8. In eddy current testing, the specimen is coupled to
reverses direction, the: the test coil by:
a. Direction of the Eddy currents in the test part a. Core coupling.
remains the same.
b. Magnetic saturation.
b. Eddy currents in the test part will change phase by
c. The coil’s electromagnetic fields.
45 degrees.
d. Magnetic domains.
c. Direction of the eddy currents in the test part also
reverses.
d. Eddy currents in the test part will change phase by 9. The penetration of eddy currents in a conductive
90 degrees. material is decreased when the:
a. Test frequency or conductivity of the specimen is
decreased.
5. In order to generate measurable eddy currents in a
test specimen, the specimen must be: b. Test frequency is decreased or conductivity of the
 specimen is increased. a. A subsurface crack which lies parallel to the
direction of the eddy current.
c. Test frequency, conductivity of the specimen or
permeability of the specimen is increased. b. A discontinuity located in the center of a 51 mm (2
in.) diameter bar.
d. Permeability of the specimen is decreased.
c. A radial crack that extends to the outer surface of a
51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar.
10. At a fixed test frequency, in which of the following
d. A subsurface radial crack located at a depth of 13
materials will the eddy current penetration be
mm (0.5 in.) in a 51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar.
greatest?
a. Aluminum (35% IACS conductivity).
14. A term used to define the timing relationships
b. Brass (15% IACS conductivity).
involved in alternating current signals is:
c. Copper (95% IACS conductivity).
a. Magnitude.
d. Lead (7% IACS conductivity).
b. Phase.
c. Impedance.
11. A term used to describe the effect observed due to
d. Time-gain correction.
a change in the coupling between a test specimen
and a flat probe coil when the distance of
separation between them is varied is:
15. The impedance of a test coil can be represented
a. Fill factor. by the vector sum of:
b. Edge effect. a. Inductive reactance and resistance.
c. End effect. b. Capacitive reactance and resistance.
d. Liftoff. c. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance.
d. Inductive reactance, capacitive reactance and
resistance.
12. When testing with eddy currents, discontinuities
will be most easily detected when the eddy currents
are:
16. Disadvantages of using a surface probe coil for the
a. Coplanar with the major dimension of the eddy current inspection of small-diameter tubing
discontinuity. include:
b. Perpendicular to the major plane of the a. Inability to detect small discontinuities.
discontinuity.
b. Liftoff variations effect .
c. Parallel to the major dimension of the discontinuity.
c. Inherent mechanical problems.
d. 90 degrees out of phase with the current in the coil.
d. Slow inherent speed.

13. Which of the following discontinuities is easiest to

17. The term “fill factor”” applies to:
detect with an eddy current test? (Assume that the
area of the discontinuity is equal in all five choices a. A surface coil.
listed.)
b. Coaxial cable.
c. An encircling coil. tested.
d. The ability to null an eddy current instrument. c. The surface finish of the specimen should be the
same as the piece to be tested.
d. If the material is aluminum, the surface should be
18. Which of the following materials would be more
anodized.
likel used as a mounting material for a probe coil?
a. Aluminum.
22. Which of the following conditions would be the
b. Plastic.
most difficult to detect when eddy current testing a
c. Copper. rod using an encircling?
d. No ferromagnetic Steel. a. A short surface crack that has a depth of 10% of the
rod diameter.

19. Which of the following is not a commonly used b. A small inclusion in the center of the rod.
Eddy current testing read-out mechanism? c. A 5% change in diameter.
a. Signal generator. d. A 10% change in conductivity.
b. Meter.
c. Cathode ray tube. 23. The thickness of nonconductive coatings on a
conductive base can be most simply measured by:
d. Strip-chart recorder.
a. Observing the liftoff effect caused by the coating.

20. Reference standards used for Eddy current testing: b. Testing both sides of the specimen.

a. Must contain artificial discontinuities such as c. Varying the test frequency over a given range during
notches and drilled holes. the test.

b. Must contain natural discontinuities such as cracks d. Using specially shaped encircling.
and inclusions.
c. Must be free of measurable discontinuities, but may 24. Same of the products commonly tested using
contain artificial or natural discontinuities or may be encircling coils are:
free of discontinuities, depending on the test
a. Rods, tubes and wire.
system and the type of test being conducted.
b. Interior of hollow tubes.
d. Must be constructed from the same material of the
object being inspected. c. Sheets and metal foil.
d. Square billets and plates.
21. Which of the following conditions is not important
when selecting specimens to be used as reference
25. It is often possible to sort various alloys of a
standards?
nonmagnetic metal by means of an Eddy current
a. The specimen should be of the same size and test when:
shape as the test piece.
a. There is a unique range of permeability values for
b. The specimen should be of the same materials and each alloy.
have the same heat treatment as the piece to be
b. There is a unique range of conductivity values for
 each alloy.
c. The direction of induced eddy currents varies for
each alloy .
d. The magnetic domains for each alloy are different

26. When conducting eddy current testing on tubing

with a system that includes a frequency
discriminating circuit, which of the following
variables would be classified as a high frequency
variable?
a. Small discontinuities.
b. Conductivity changes.
c. Diameter changes.
d. Wall thickness variations.

27. Which of the following is not a candidate for testing

by the eddy current method?
a. A 102 mm (4 in.) thick plate to be tested for
discontinuities throughout the plate.
b. Tubing to be tested for surface cracks.
c. A rod to be tested for laps and seams.
d. Tubing to be tested for variation in outside diameter.
Leak Testing Review Questions d. Eddy current testing.

1. Which of the following systems or components are

not good candidates for leak testing? 6. Which of the following best describes the type of
a. Piping and pressure vessels. leak test used when the interior of the test object is
evacuated and a tracer gas is applied to the
b. Refrigeration piping.
exterior, while the leak detector is connected to the
c. Vacuum chambers. evacuating system?

d. Sintered material components. a. Static leak test.

b. Helium leak test.
2. A helium mass spectrometer is used in which of the c. Dynamic leak test.
following NDT techniques or methods?
d. Halogen leak test.
a. X-ray spectroscopy.
b. Optical holography.
7. Assuming no significant leakage, if the temperature
c. Acoustic holography. increased during a pressure drop leak test, the
pressure in the system under test would:
d. Leak testing.
a. Increase.
b. Remain the same.
3. Which of the following is a technique of leak testing
c. Decrease.
Static.
d. First increase, then decrease to its former level.
a. Gaseous diffusion.
b. Dynamic.
8. If the sensitivity of the halogen leak detector is
c. Detector probe.
constant throughout a test, which of the following is
true upon completion of the test?
4. Potentially, the most sensitive leak testing technique a. No leaks smaller than a certain size have gone
is the: undetected.
a. Bubble test. b. The total leak rate of the test object is less than a
b. Pressure change test. certain amount.

c. Mass spectrometer test. c. The instrument and the test procedure were capable
of detecting leakage of a certain size during the
d. Liquid penetrant test. test.
d. The instrument and test procedure were only
5. Establishing differential pressure between the test capable of detecting leakage of a certain size
object and environment is an essential element in upstream of the tracer gas during the test.
which of the following NDT methods?
a. X-ray diffraction. 9. All leak detection methods are dependent upon:
b. Neutron radiography. a. Barometric pressure.
c. Leak testing. b. Gas or fluid flow.
c. Mass spectrometer analysis.
d. Mean free paths of helium flow.

10. In a evacuated system, sensitivity of a pressure

change leak test is dependent not only on the
pressure change observed, but also on the degree
of outgassing. Outgassing is best defined as:
a. The viscosity of the pressurizing gas.
b. Being directly proportional to the temperature of the
gas.
c. The release of gas from materials in a vacuum.
d. The drop in test pressure due to leakage from the
vacuum manifold.
Liquid Penetrant Testing Review Questions d. Fluorescence.

1. The tendency of a liquid penetrant to enter a 5. When using a fluorescent, post-emulsifier penetrant,
discontinuity is primarily related to: the length of time the emulsifier is allowed to
remain on the part is critical for detecting shallow
a. The viscosity of the penetrant.
discontinuities. The optimum length of time should
b. Capillary forces. be:
c. The chemical inertness of the penetrant. a. 10 seconds.
d. The specific gravity of the penetrant. b. 5 seconds.
c. 2-3 minutes.
2. Liquid penetrant testing is a nondestructive method d. Determined by experimentation.
that can be used for:
a. Locating and evaluating all types of discontinuities in
6. A red penetrant indication against white background
a test specimen.
is most likely to be seen when:
b. Locating and determining the length, width and
a. Dry developers are used.
depth of discontinuities in a test specimen.
b. Visible dye penetrants are used.
c. Determining the tensile strength of a test specimen.
c. Fluorescent post-emulsified penetrants are used.
d. Locating discontinuities open to the surface.
d. Ultraviolet light is used with visible dye penetrants.

3. Which of the following is not a characteristic that

applies to liquid penetrant testing? 7. The most widely accepted method for removing
excessive water-washable penetrant from the
a. This method can accurately measure the depth of a
surface of a test specimen is by:
crack or discontinuity.
a. Using a wet rag.
b. This method can be used for on-site testing of large
parts. b. Using a water spray rinse.

c. This method can be used to find shallow surface c. Washing the part directly under water running from a
discontinuities. tap.

d. This method can be made more or less sensitive by d. Immersing the part in water.
using different penetrant material.

8. Which of the following penetrant systems is

4. The property of a dye used in penetrant materials to generally considered the least sensitive?
emit light in the range of wavelengths different from a. Water-washable; visible dye.
the wavelength of light that excites the emission is
called: b. Solvent-removable; visible dye.

a. Emissivity. c. Water-washable; fluorescent dye.

b. Irradiation. d. Post-emulsified; visible dye.

c. Spectrum blocking.
9. When performing a liquid penetrant test using c. Add fluorescent dye or pigment to the penetrant.
solvent-removable visible dye penetrant, there are
d. Emulsify surface oils and greases to facilitate their
several ways to remove excess penetrant from the
removal.
surface of the part. Which of the methods listed
below is generally regarded as most suitable for
giving accurate test results? 13. Which of the following statements does not apply
a. Squirting solvent over the surface with no more than to developers used during penetrant testing?
10 psi pressure. a. Developers are normally highly fluorescent.
b. Wiping with a solvent-soaked cloth, then wiping with b. Some developers furnish a contrasting background
a dry cloth. during inspection.
c. Wiping with a solvent-dampened cloth, then wiping c. Developers absorb or blot the penetrant that
with a dry cloths. remains in discontinuities after the excess
d. Wiping with dry wipes, then wiping with a solvent- penetrant has been removed.
dampened cloth and finally wiping with a dry cloth. d. Noaqueous developers are better suited for
detecting fine cracks.

10. A problem with retesting a specimen that has been

previously tested using liquid penetrant is that the: 14. The penetrant indication for a cold shut on the
a. Penetrant may form beads on the surface. surface of a casting will normally be:

b. Penetrant residue left in discontinuities may not a. A dotted line.

readily dissolve and the retest may be misleading. b. A large bulbous indication.
c. Penetrant will lose a great deal of its color brilliance. c. A smooth continuous line.
d. Added penetrant will intensify the penetrant residue, d. Undetectable since cold shuts are closed over on
making indications larger than normal. the surface.

11. A commonly used method of checking the overall 15. A crack-type discontinuity will generally appear as:
performance of a penetrant material system is to:
a. A rounded indication.
a. Determine the viscosity of the penetrant.
b. A continuous line, either straight or jagged.
b. Measure the wetability of the penetrant.
c. A broad, fuzzy indication
c. Compare two sections of artificially cracked
specimens. d. Random round or elongated holes

d. Check the penetrant contaminant levels.

16. In a penetrant test, scattered round indications on
the surface of a part could be indicative of:
12. The function of emulsifier in the post-emulsified
penetrant process is to: a. Fatigue cracks.

a. More rapidly drive the penetrant into deep, tight b. Porosity.

cracks. c. Weld laps.
b. React with the surface penetrant water-washable. d. Hot tears.
17. Which of the following are typical nonrelevant 21. Which of the following statements is true when
indications found in penetrant testing? using penetrants for leak detection?
a. Indications due to part geometry or part design a. Surfaces do not have to be clean.
configurations.
b. Only one side has to be accessible.
b. Nonmagnetic indications.
c. Penetrant can be diluted in water for hydro testing.
c. Nonlinear indications.
d. Only visible penetrants can be used.
d. Indications on low-stressed areas of the part.

22. Which of the following is a discontinuity that might

18. Which of the statements below best states the be found in rolled bar stock?
results of sandblasting for cleaning surfaces to be
a. Blow holes.
penetrant tested?
b. Shrinkage laps.
a. Discontinuities may be closed.
c. Cracks or seams.
b. Oil contaminants might be sealed in the
discontinuities. d. Insufficient penetration.

c. The sand used in the sandblasting operation may be

forced into the discontinuity. 23. Anodized surfaces are usually considered poor
d. The sandblasting operation may introduce candidates for high sensitivity liquid penetrant
discontinuities into the part. examination because the anodizing process
produces a conversion layer that:
a. Is extremely smooth and slick.
19. The penetrant indication of a forging lap will
normally be a: b. Has a multitude of extremely small pores.

a. Round or nearly round indication. c. May have alkaline residue that “quenches” the
penetrant.
b. Cluster of indications.
d. Cannot be cleaned by ordinary processes.
c. Thin continuous line.
d. Dotted line.
24. Which of the following penetrant methods does not
normally require a source of electricity to properly
20. Aluminum alloy test specimens that have been conduct a test?
tested by the liquid penetrant method should be
a. Water-washable fluorescent penetrant method.
thoroughly cleaned after testing because:
b. Postemulsified fluorescent penetrant method.
a. Acid in the penetrant may cause severe corrosion.
c. Visible dye penetrant method.
b. The alkalines in wet developers and most
emulsifiers could cause surface pitting, particularly d. Hydrophylic fluorescent penetrant method.
in moist atmospheres.
c. The oily residue from the test will severely inhibit the 25. Which of the following statements is true
application of paint on aluminum alloys. concerning penetrant testing of welds with rough
d. A chemical reaction between the penetrant and surfaces?
aluminum could cause a fire.
a. The post-emulsified process offers advantages
over the water-washable process.
b. Welds with rough surfaces may need to be
ground smooth prior to penetrant testing.
c. If the solvent removal process is used, the best
developer would be an aqueous suspension.
d. Welds with rough surfaces cannot be
successfully tested by any penetrant method.
Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing Review d. Direction of applied current in the coil.
Questions
5. The current used for magnetization when performing
1. In magnetic flux leakage inspection for magnetic flux leakage inspection must be a:
discontinuities using an active field, the part a. Steady nonfluctuating current.
begins inspected should be magnetized:
b. Current that reverses direction at a consistent rate.
a. Beyond saturation.
c. Current that fluctuates on and off at a consistent
b. To saturation or near saturation. rate.
c. Well below saturation. d. Current that varies based on the thickness of the
d. Near the point of maximum permeability. material.

2. An advantage that magnetic flux leakage testing has 6. As a general rule, hard (high strength) ferromagnetic
in comparison with eddy current testing is that materials have:
magnetic flux leakage testing is: a. High coercive force and are easily demagnetized.
a. Less sensitive to interferences caused by surface b. High coercive force and are not easily
roughness. demagnetized.
b. Useful on products at temperatures above the curie c. Low coercive force and are easily demagnetized.
point.
d. Low coercive force and are not easily
c. Useful on austenitic steels. demagnetized.
d. Easier to use on ferromagnetic materials.

7. In magnetic flux leakage testing, the greatest tube

3. What particular type of discontinuity would not wall thickness for which maximum sensitivity can
typically be indicated by magnetic flux leakage be maintained is:
techniques? a. 0.08 mm (0.003 in).
a. Laps. b. 0.8 mm (0.03 in).
b. Pitting with cracking. c. 8 mm (0.318 in).
c. Surface contamination. d. 76 mm (3in).
d. Longitudinal seams.

8. In the examination of above-ground storage tanks

4. The strength of the magnetic field in the interior of a where the flux sensor is on the top surface:
coil is determined by the: a. Only top surface discontinuities are detected.
a. Number of turns in the coil only. b. Only bottom surface discontinuities are detected.
b. Strength of applied current only. c. Both top and bottom surface discontinuities can be
c. Number of turns in the coil and the strength of the detected but generally cannot be distinguished
applied current. from each other.
d. Both top and bottom surface discontinuities can be
 detected and can generally be distinguished from
each other.

9. Materials that are weakly repelled magnetically are

called:
a. Diamagnetic.
b. Nonmagnetic.
c. Paramagnetic.
d. Ferromagnetic.

10. A break in the magnetic uniformity of a part that is

called a magnetic discontinuity is related to a
sudden change in:
a. Resistivity.
b. Inductance.
c. Permeability.
d. Capacitance.

11. A hysteresis curve describes the relation between:

a. Magnetizing force and flux density.
b. Magnetizing force and applied current.
c. Strength of magnetism and alignment of domains
within material.
d. Magnetic flux density and the current generated.

12. When inspecting wire rope, a magnetic flux loop is

used to monitor:
a. Broken external wires.
b. Broken internal wires.
c. Changes in inspection speed.
d. Reductions in cross-sectional area.
Magnetic Particle Testing Review Questions following?
a. Magnetization of the part.

1. Which of the following materials cannot be tested by b. Demagnetization of the part.

magnetic particle techniques? c. The residual magnetism is increased.
a. High allow steels. d. Location of deep-lying discontinuities.
b. Tool steels.
c. Copper alloys. 6. Circular magnetization is useful in the detection of:
d. Ferritic stainless. Circumferential cracks.
a. Longitudinal cracks.
2. Materials that are strongly attached to a magnet are b. Cracks in cylindrical parts at right angles to the long
called: axis of the part.
a. Magnetized. c. Deep-lying discontinuities.
b. Nonmagnetic.
c. Ferromagnetic. 7. In which magnetizing method is the current passed
d. Magnetic. directly through the part, thereby setting up a
magnetic field at right angles to the current flow?
a. Longitudinal magnetization.
3. Magnetic lines of force (magnetic fields) are oriented
in what direction in relation to the direction of the b. Coil magnetization.
magnetizing current? c. Central conductor magnetization.
a. Parallel. d. Circular magnetization.
b. At right angles.
c. At a 45 degree angle. 8. Which of the following is a major disadvantage of
d. At random angles. using prods?
a. The magnetic field may be applied in the wrong
direction.
4. Magnetizing flux is a term that relates to:
b. The inspection surface may be arc burned.
a. Describing the direction of current flow in an
electromagnet. c. Magnetic saturation may occur.

b. The manner by which magnetism flows through d. The operator’s eyes may be burned by arc strikes.
space.
c. The lines of force associated with a magnetic field. 9. Inspecting a part by applying the magnetic particle
d. Permanent magnets only. suspension while the current is flowing is called
the:
a. Continuous method
5. Subjecting a part to a magnetic field that is
constantly reversing in polarity and gradually b. Dry method
diminishing in strength accomplishes which of the
c. Residual method 14. Fluorescent magnetic particle are used in
preference to visible magnetic particles:
d. Demagnetization method
a. When parts are big and bulky.
b. When working in the field.
10. How is the inside diameter of a cylinder best
magnetized? c. If parts are railroad applications.
a. By a head shot. d. To increase the speed and reliability of detecting
very small discontinuities.
b. By using prods at either end.
c. With a central conductor placed between contact
heads. 15. The most versatile type of magnetic particle
equipment is:
d. With the cylinder placed crosswise in a solenoid.
a. A field kit.
b. The stationary horizontal machine.
11. The amount of amperage used for magnetic
particle inspection using prods is based on the c. The mobile power unit.
distance between the prods and the:
d. The automatic machine.
a. Thickness of the part.
b. Length of the prods.
16. Magnetic particle inspection methods are
c. Diameter of the prods. recognized as superior to liquid penetrant
techniques when the:
d. Total length of the part.
a. Surfaces of the test object are corroded.
b. Surface is anodized.
12. Demagnetization of a part is usually not necessary
if the part is: c. Parts are painted.
a. Small. d. Part is made from austenitic steel.
b. Inspected with the continuous method.
c. To be hardened by heat treatment after inspection. 17. When using direct current, an indication is
detected.
d. High carbon steel to be welded after inspection.
a. What is the next logical step to determine if the
indication results from a surface or subsurface
13. Which of the following is an advantage of the dry condition?
technique over the wet technique?
b. Reinspect using the surge method.
a. It is more sensitive for detecting fine surface cracks.
c. Demagnetize and apply powder.
b. It is more capable of providing full surface coverage
d. Reinspect at higher amperage.
on irregular shaped parts.
e. Reinspect using alternating current.
c. It is easier to use for field inspection with portable
equipment.
d. It is faster when testing many small parts. 18. A requirement to use magnetic particle testing on a
part should also include:
a. A fabrication and service manual. d. The weld bead should be ground flush with the plate
surfaces.
b. A statement on the drawing that requires a magnetic
particle test.
c. The procedure to be used and acceptance criteria.
d. The method of a test and service conditions.

19. The statement that magnetic particle testing can be

applied to plated and painted parts:
a. Is true regardless of the thickness of the coating.
b. May be true if flux densities are increased to
compensate for the coating thickness.
c. Is true only for circular magnetism.
d. Is not true under any circumstances.

20. The best type of magnetizing current for

inspections of fatigue cracks is:
a. Direct current.
b. Alternating current.
c. Half-wave direct current.
d. Full-wave rectified direct current.

21. A star-shaped indication is seen on the cover pass

of a weld. What type of discontinuity is indicated?
a. Cooling crack
b. Crater crack.
c. Slag inclusion.
d. Arc burn.

22. For maximum sensitivity in magnetic particle

inspection of rough welds:
a. The weld should be wire brushed to remove slag
and scale.
b. Standard test weldments should be used for
comparison.
c. The weld bead should be coated with lacquer.
Neutron Radiographic Testing Review c. Low angular divergence.
Questions d. Relatively high thermal neutron intensity

1. The highest intensity sources of thermal neutrons 6. Material that slows down neutron is called:
are:
a. A moderator.
a. Cf-252 isotopes.
b. An accumulator.
b. Accelerators.
c. A limitor
c. Nuclear fission reactors.
d. A collimator.
d. Cosmic radiation.

7. The primary radiation mechanism for darkening X-

2. Neutrons for fast-neutron radiography are not ray film when direct neutron radiography
obtainable from: process is used with gadolinium screen is
a. Accelerators. a. Alpha particles.
b. Radioactive sources. b. Electrons.
c. Reactors. c. Gamma rays.
d. X-ray machines. d. Light emission.

3. A radioactive source used for neutron radiography is 8. Neutron radiography using the transfer method
a. Pu-239. requires that the imaging screen must:

b. Co-60. a. Be placed behind the film.

c. Cs-137. b. Be placed in front of the film.

d. Cf-252. c. Be very thin.

d. Become radioactive.

4. The energy of the neutron is expressed in which of

the following units of measurement? 9. Which of the following neutron radiography
a. Curies (Becquerels). converter foils cannot be used for transfer or
indirect radiography?
b. Roentgens (coulombs per kilogram).
a. Dysprosium
c. Rems (Sieverts)
b. Indium
d. Electronvolts
c. Gadolinium
d. Gold
5. A normally desirable feature of a thermal neutron
beam for neutron radiography is:
a. Background gamma radiation intensity 10. The most suitable films for producing neutron
radiographs are:
b. Relatively low fast-neutron intensity
a. Red sensitive films. d. Tungsten, cesium, antimony and columbium.
b. Instant-type films.
c. Industrial X-ray films. 15. The main reason for using neutron radiography in
place of X-radiography is:
d. Emulsions that contain no silver halides.
a. A lower cost.
b. Higher resolution.
11. Materials that are exposed to thermal neutron
beams: c. The ability to image objects and materials not
possible with X-rays.
a. Must not be handled for at least 3 min after
exposure has ceased. d. It is simpler radiography procedure when required
than X-radiography.
b. Must be stored in a lead-lined room.
c. May be radioactive after exposure to neutrons has
ceased. 16. A photographic record procedure by the passage
of neutrons through a specimen onto a film is
d. Should be monitored by means of a neutron
called:
counter.
a. A fluoroscopic image.
b. A radiograph.
12. Lead is:
c. An isotopic reproduction.
a. A good neutron shield.
d. A track-etch photograph.
b. Corroded by neutron exposures.
c. A relatively poor neutron absorber.
17. Many of the absorption differences between
d. An efficient conversion screen.
neutrons and X-rays indicate that the two
techniques:
13. If 2 mm (0.08 in) of plastic attenuates a thermal a. Cause radiation problems.
neutron beam by a factor of 2, then 20 mm (0.8 in)
b. Complement each other.
will attenuate it by approximately a factor of:
c. Can be used interchangeably.
a. 10.
d. Can both be used to image hydrogenous materials
b. 20.
equally well.
c. 200.
d. 1000.
18. The penetrating ability of a thermal neutron beam
is governed by:
14. Materials in common usage for moderation of fast- a. Attenuating characteristics of the material being
neutron sources include: penetrated.
a. Aluminum, magnesium and tin. b. Exposure time.
b. Water, plastic, paraffin and graphite. c. Source-to-film distance.
c. Neon, argon and xenon. d. Thickness of the converter screen.
19. The transfer exposure method is used because: a. Producing a photographic copy of the original
neutron radiograph using X-ray duplicating film.
a. It is not influenced by gamma radiation in the
primary beam. b. Comparing a neutron radiographic of the parts to a
blank neutron radiograph of the same imaging
b. It produces greater radiographic sensitivity than
screen with no parts in place.
direct exposure using gadolinium.
c. Increasing the exposure time of the radiograph.
c. It is faster than the direct exposure method.
d. Decreasing the temperature of the developer
d. The screens used in this method emit only internal
solution.
conversion electrons of about 70 ke V.

24. For inspection of radioactive objects or those that

20. Higher resolution can be achieved in direct neutron
emit gamma radiation when bombarded with
radiography by:
neutrons, a preferable detection technique is the:
a. Placing a lead intensifying screen between a
a. Direct exposure technique.
gadolinium screen and film.
b. Transfer technique.
b. Increasing the L/D ratio of the collimation system.
c. Isotopic reproduction technique.
c. Increasing the exposure time.
d. Electrostatic-belt generator technique.
d. Increasing the distance between the object and the
film cassette.
25. Neutron radiography is an excellent tool for
determining:
21. The primary advantage of using a Cf-252 source
for neutron radiography is its: a. The coating thickness of aluminum oxide on
anodized aluminum.
a. Portability
b. The size of voids in thick steel castings.
b. Low cost per unit neutron flux compared to other
neutron radiographic sources. c. The integrity of thin plastic material within a steel
housing.
c. High resolution.
d. Tungsten inclusions in GTAW welds.
d. Long useful life.

26. Neutron radiography extends radiographic

22. Quality of the results from a neutron radiographic
capability for detecting cracks in small cylinders of:
exposure is best determined by:
a. Aluminum.
a. Reference standards.
b. Iron.
b. Image quality indicators.
c. Magnesium.
c. Neutron flux measurement.
d. Plutonium.
d. Densitometer readings.

27. Which of the following is not a preferred

23. The radiographic image of flaws in the imaging
application of neutron radiography?
screens can be separated from actual flaws in a
part being radiographed by: a. Detecting the presence or absence of explosive
 material contained within a metal device.
b. Detecting the presence of water in the cells of
stainless steel honeycomb.
c. Detecting the proper alignment of a rubber seal in a
small steel valve assembly.
d. Detecting the presence of a lead rupture diaphragm
in a small aluminum safety valve assembly.
Radiographic Testing Review Questions of the following units of measurement?
a. Curie (gigabecquerel).

1. The penetrating ability of an X-ray beam is governed b. Roentgen (coulomb per kilogram).
by: c. Half-life.
a. Kilovoltage or wavelength. d. Kiloelectronvolts (keV) or millions of electronvolts
b. Time. (MeV).

c. Milliamperage
d. Source-to-film distance. 6. Of the following, the source providing the most
penetrating radiation in:
a. Co-60.
2. Two X-ray machines operating at the same nominal
kilovoltage and milliamperage settings: b. 220 kVp X-ray tube.

a. Will produce the same intensities and energies of c. 15 MeV betatron.

radiation. d. Electrons from Ir-192
b. Will produce the same intensities but may produce
different intensities of radiation.
7. Common sources of neutrons for neutron
c. Will produce the same energies but may produce radiography are:
different intensities of radiation.
a. Electron linear accelerators.
d. May give not only different intensities but also
different energies of radiation. b. Isotopes of cobalt (e.g.,Co-60).
c. Nuclear reactors.

3. Short wavelength electromagnetic radiation d. Betatrons.

produced during the disintegration of nuclei of
radioactive substances is called:
8. The difference between the densities of two areas of
a. X-radiation. a radiograph is called:
b. Gamma radiation. a. Radiograph contrast.
c. Scatter radiation. b. Subject contrast.
d. Beta radiation. c. Film contrast
d. Definition.
4. Almost all gamma radiography is performed with: 9. The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation,
a. Natural isotopes. ionize and become electrical conductors makes
them useful in:
b. Artificially produced isotopes.
a. X-ray transformers.
c. Radium.
b. Fluoroscopes.
d. Co-60.
c. Masks.
d. Radiation detection equipment.
5. The energy of gamma rays is expressed by which
10. The reason exposure time must be increased by a
factor of four when the source-to-film distance is
14. Which of the following technique variables is most
double is that the:
commonly used to adjust subject contrast?
a. Intensity of radiation decreases at an exponential
a. Source-to-film distance.
rate when the source-to-film distance is increased.
b. Milliamperage.
b. Energy of radiation is inversely proportional to the
square root of the distance from the source to the c. Kilovoltage.
film. d. Focal spot size.
c. Intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to
square of the distance from the source to the film.
15. A basic difference between a radiograph and a
d. Scattered radiation effect is greater as the source- fluoroscopic image is that:
to-film distance increases.
a. The fluoroscopic image is more sensitive.
b. The fluoroscopic image is positive whereas the
11. The most important factor in X-ray absorption of a radiographic image is negative.
specimen is:
c. The fluoroscopic image is brighter.
a. The thickness of the specimen.
d. There is no basic difference between the two.
b. The density of the specimen.
c. The atomic number of the material.
16. Thin sheets of lead foil in intimate contract with X-
d. Young’s modulus of the material. ray film during exposure increase film density
because they:

12. The maximum permissible dose per quarter of a a. Fluoresce and emit visible light, which helps expose
calendar year is 12mSv (1.25 rem) for: the film.

a. Hands, feet, forearms and ankles. b. Absorb the scattered radiation.

b. Skin of the whole body. c. Prevent backscattered radiation from fogging the
film.
c. Whole body; head and active blood-forming organs;
lens of eyes; and gonads. d. Emit electrons when exposed to X– and gamma
radiation, which helps to darken the film.
d. A fetus from occupational exposure of a declared
pregnant woman.
17. When viewing a radiograph, an image of the back
of the cassette super-imposed on the image of the
13. Exposure to small doses of X-rays or gamma rays:
specimen is noted. This is most likely due to:
a. Has a cumulative effect that must be considered
a. Undercut.
when monitoring for maximum permissible dose.
b. Overexposure.
b. Is beneficial because it serves to build an immunity
in humans to radiation poisoning. c. X-ray intensity being too high.

c. Will have no effect on human begins. d. Backscattered radiation.

d. Will have only short-term effect on human tissues.

18. An image quality indicator (IQI) is used to measure a. 3 mm (0.11 in).
the:
b. 9 mm (0.35 in).
a. Size of discontinuities in a part.
c. 18 mm (0.7 in).
b. Density of the film.
d. 36 mm (1.4 in).
c. Amount of radiation that penetrates the test object.
d. Quality of the radiographic technique.
23. The fact that each solid crystalline substance
produces its own characteristic X-ray pattern is the
basis for:
19. In film radiography, IQIs are usually placed:
a. Xeroradiography.
a. Between the intensifying screen and the film.
b. Fluoroscopic testing.
b. On the source side of the test object.
c. Polymorphic testing.
c. On the film side of the test object.
d. X-ray diffraction testing.
d. Between the operator and the radiation source.

24. When inspecting a light metal casting by

20. At voltages above 400 kV, the use of lead to
fluoroscopy, which of the following discontinuities
provide protection may present serious structural
would most likely be detected?
problems. If this should be a serious problem,
which of the following materials would most likely a. Copper shrinkage.
be used as a substitute?
b. Microshrinkage.
a. Aluminum
c. Shrinkage
b. Concrete.
d. Fine cracks.
c. Steel.
d. Boron.
25. For testing a 25 mm ( 1 in.) steel plate 305 mm (12
in. square for laminar discontinuities, which of the
following would be most effective?
21. A distinctive characteristic of megavolt radiography
is that is: a. Ir-192, 3.7 TBq (100cCi).
a. Results in comparatively high subject contrast. b. Co-60, 925 GBq (25 Ci).
b. Results in comparatively high radiographic contrast. c. 250 kVp X-ray machine.
c. Is applicable to comparatively thick or highly d. An ultrasonic device.
absorbing specimens.
d. Is utilized for stainless steels only.
26. A critical weld was made with a double V-groove,
among those listed, which radiographic technique
would provide coverage with the greatest
22. Given the radiographic equivalency factors of 1.4
probability for detecting the most serious
for Inconel™ and 1.0 for 304 stainless steel, what is
discontinuities?
the approximate equivalent thickness of Inconel™
to produce the same exposure as a 3.8 mm (0.15 a. A single exposure centered on the weld and
in.) thickness of 304 stainless steel? perpendicular to the principal surface of the plate.
b. Two exposures aligned with the V-groove, focus equivalent of the test objects, containing copper
±30° off perpendicular. wires ranging from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm
(0.015 in.) diameter.
c. Two exposures, perpendicular to the plate, offset by
the width of the weld bead. d) A series of cooper shims ranging in the thickness
from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.), in
d. A single exposure as in a, above, but with two films
containing 1/2 and 1T holes.
aligned ±30° off perpendicular.

27. A fuse assembly is radiographed so that

measurements can be made on the film to
determine a minimum internal clearance dimension.
What should be factored into dimension taken from
the film?
a) Projection magnification.
b) Film latitude.
c) Slope of the characteristic curve.
d) Image quality indicator (IQI) alignment.

28. Miniature electronic components are to be

radiographically inspected to reveal broken copper
wire leads of 0.2 mm (0.008 in.) diameter. Which of
the following image quality indicators (IQIs) would
be most affective to use in establishing a reliable
technique?
a) A series of steel plaque-type IQIs ranging in
thickness from 0.1 mm (0.005 in) to .4 mm (0.015
in.), containing 1T, 2T and 4T holes.
b) A plastic block with the radiographic thickness
equivalent of the test objects, containing cooper
wires ranging from 0.1 mm (0.005in.) wire leads of
0.2 mm (0.008 in.) diameter. Which of the following
image quality indicators (IQIs) would be most
effective to use in establishing a reliable technique?
a) A series of Steel plaque-type IQIs ranging in
thickness from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015
in.), containing 1T, 2T and 4T holes.
b) A plastic block with the radiographic thickness
equivalent of the test objects, containing precision-
drilled holes ranging from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4
mm (0.015 in.) diameter.
c) A plastic block with the radiographic thickness
Thermal/Infrared Testing (IR) d) 0.75-100 µm.
1. Thermal resistance is:
a) Analogous to electrical current. 6. As a surface cools, the peak of its radiated infrared
energy:
b) A material’s impedance to hear flow.
a) Shifts to longer wavelengths.
c) Proportional to the fourth power of emissivity.
b) Shifts to shorter wavelengths.
d) Proportional to the rate of the heat flow.
c) Remains constant if emissivity remains constant.
d) Remains constant even if emissivity varies.
2. Conductive heat transfer cannot take place:
a) Across to electrical current.
7. A gray body surface with emissivity of 0.04 would
b) Within organic materials such as wood.
be:
c) Between two solid materials in contact.
a) Transparent to infrared radiation.
d) Between dissimilar metals.
b) A fairly good emitter.
c) Almost a perfect reflector.
3. The infrared/thermal energy emitted from a target
d) Almost a perfect emitter.
surface:
a) Occurs only in the vacuum.
8. If a surface has an emissivity of 0.35 and a
b) Is proportional to the fourth power of the absolute
reflectivity of 0.45, its transmissivity would be:
surface temperature.
a) Impossible to determine without additional
c) Is inversely proportional to surface emissivity.
information.
d) Is totally absorbed by water vapor in the air.
b) 0.80.
c) 0.10.
4. Thermal radiation reaching the surface of a
d) 0.20.
thermally opaque object will only be:
a) Absorbs by the surface.
9. The spectral band in which glass transmits infrared
b) Absorbed and reflected by the surface.
radiation most efficiently is the:
c) Reflected by the surface.
a) 3-6 µm region.
d) Transmitted and absorbed by the surface.
b) 2-3 µm region.
c) 6-9 µm region.
5. The following spectral band is included in the
d) 9-11 µm region.
infrared spectrum:
a) 0.1-5.5 µm.
10. Infrared thermal detectors:
b) 0.3-10.6 µm.
a) Have a broad, flat spectral response.
c) 0.4-20 µm.
b) Have much faster response times tan photon
 detectors. temperature.
c) Usually require cooling to operate properly. d) Improve with increasing working distance.
d) Have much greater sensitivity tan photon detectors.
15. The 3-5 µm spectral region is well suited for the
inspection of the materials that exhibit:
11. A diffuse reflecting surface is:
a) Distinct spectral characteristics limiting isnpection to
a) A polished surface that reflects incoming energy at
3-5 µm.
a complementary angle.
b) Measuring targets at extremely long working
b) A surface that scatters reflected energy in many
distances.
directions.
c) Measuring targets warmer that 200°C (392 °F).
c) Also called a spectacular reflecting surface.
d) Operating at elevated ambient temperatures.
d) Highly transparent to infrared radiation.

16. When measuring the temperature of glass while

12. The minimum resolvable temperature difference is
using a mid-wave (3-5 µm) infrared imaging
a subjective measurement that depends on:
system, which of the following steps is necessary?
a) The infrared imaging system’s spatial resolution
a) use a 3.2 µm low-pass filter.
only.
b) Use a 3.9 µm band-pass filter.
b) The infrared imaging system’s thermal sensitivity
and spatial resolution. c) Use a 5 µm high-pass filter.
c) The infrared imaging system’s measurement d) No filter is necessary if using the same emissivity
resolution only. setting used with long-wave imaging systems.
d) The infrared imaging system’s minimum spot size.
17. A line scanner is best used for applications:
13. The spatial resolution of an instrument is related to a) Requiring online real-time process monitoring and
the: control of a linear thermal process.
a) Instantaneous field of the view and the working b) Where the material is stationary.
distance.
c) Where the process speed is no greater than 3 m/s.
b) Thermal resolution.
Where the maximum temperature of the material is
c) Spectral band width. 300°C (572°F)
d) System responsivity.
18. Most infrared focal plane array imagers:

14. The noise equivalent temperature difference a) Use more costly optics than scanning radiometers.
(NETD) of an thermal infrared imager tends to:
b) Offer better spatial resolution than scanning
a) Improve as the target temperature increases. radiometers.
b) Degrade as the as the target temperature increases. c) Offer better thermal resolution than scanning
radiometers
c) Remain constant regardless of the target
d) Offer less diagnostics features than scanning
radiometers.

19. When measuring the temperature of a nongray

target:
a) The viewing angle is not critical.
b) Always assume a uniform emissivity.
c) Varying surface temperature differences can be
ignored.
d) Errors may occur when using a variety of
instruments.

20. Thermal diffusivity is:

a) High for metals and low for porous materials.
b) The same for all metals.
c) Low for metals and high for porous materials.
d) The same for all porous materials.

21. The term used to describe a material’s surface

temperature response to a given energy input is
called:
a) Diffuse reflectivity.
b) Thermal effusively.
c) Thermal conductance.
d) Spectral transmittance.
Ultrasonic Testing Review Questions a) Compressional waves travel faster and will
therefore reduce the distance of the interface
1. Ultrasonic waves propagate through test materials
signal.
in the form of:
b) Liquids will only sustain compressional waves.
a) Electromagnetic waves.
c) Compressional waves are used with immersion
b) Low-voltage electric fields.
testing only.
c) Discontinuous radio waves.
d) The higher intensity of compressional waves is
d) Mechanical vibrations. necessary to overcome high attenuation in liquids.

2. When an ultrasonic beam passes through the 6. When inspecting coarse-grained materials, which of
interface of two dissimilar materials at an angle, a the following frequencies will generate a sound
new angle of sound travel takes place in the wave that will be most easily scattered by the grain
second material due to: structure?
a) Attenuation. a) 1.0 MHz.
b) Rarefaction. b) 2.25 MHz.
c) Compression. c) 5 MHz.
d) Refraction. d) 10 MHz

3. The gradual loss of energy as ultrasonic vibrations 7. In general, shear waves are more sensitive to
travel through material is referred to as: small discontinuities than longitudinal waves
for a given frequency and in a given material
a) Reflection.
because:
b) Refraction.
a) The wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the
c) Compression. wavelength of longitudinal waves.
d) Attenuation. b) Shear waves are not as easily dispersed in the
material.

4. Ultrasonic velocities are different materials. These c) The direction of particle vibration for shear waves is
differences are primarily caused by differences in more sensitive to discontinuities.
the materials’: d) The wavelength of shear waves is longer than the
a) Frequency and wavelength. wavelength of longitudinal waves.

b) Thickness and travel time.

c) Elasticity and density. 8. The ability of transducers to detect echoes from
small discontinuities is a definition of:
d) Chemistry and permeability.
a) Resolution.
b) Sensitivity.
5. Ultrasonic energy for immersion testing is
transmitted to the test object as a compressional c) Definition.
wave because: d) Gain.
9. Which of the following will create a resonance c) Vertical nonlinearity in the ultrasonic instrument.
condition in a specimen?
d) Attenuation, distance and beam spread.
a) Pulsed longitudinal waves.
b) Continuous longitudinal waves.
14. In area-aptitude ultrasonic standard test blocks,
c) Pulsed shear waves. the flat-buttomed holes in the block are:

d) Continuous shear waves. a) All the same diameter.

b) Different in diameter, increasing in 0.4mm (0.02 in.)
increments from the No. 1 block to the No. 8
10. The display on most basic pulse-echo ultrasonic
block.
instruments consists of:
c) Largest in the No. 1 block and smallest in the No. 8
a) Automatic read-out equipment.
block.
b) An A-scan presentation.
d) Drilled to different depths from the front surface of
c) A B-scan presentation. the test block.

d) A C-scan presentation.
15. The amount of energy reflected from a
discontinuity is dependent on all of the following
11. In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the
except the:
component that produces the voltage that
activates the search unit is called: a) Size of the discontinuity.

a) An amplifier. b) Orientation of the discontinuity.

b) A receiver. c) Type of the discontinuity.

c) A pulser. d) Test frequency.

d) A synchronizer.
16. The presence of a discontinuity will not produce
specific discontinuity indications on the CRT
12. The primary purpose of reference blocks is to: screen when which of the following techniques is
a) Aid the operator in obtaining maximum back used?
reflections. a) Straight-beam testing.
b) Obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an b) Surface-wave testing.
instrument.
c) Angle-beam testing.
c) Obtain a common reproducible reference standard.
d) Through-transmission testing.
d) Establish the size and orientation of a discontinuity.

17. Lack of parallelism between the entry surface and

13. The general use of distance-amplitude correction is the back surface:
to compensate for:
a) May result in a screen pattern that does not contain
a) Amplitude of noise signals. back reflection indications.
b) Velocity changes. b) Makes it difficult to locate discontinuities that lie
parallel to the entry surface.
c) Usually indicates a porous condition existing in the surface.
metal.
b) Elimination of water multiples.
d) Will decrease the penetrating power of the test.
c) Maximum reflection amplitude from the back
surface.
18. Significant errors in ultrasonic thickness d) Maximum amplitude of the initial.
measurement can occur if:
a) Test velocity is varied.
22. In immersion testing, the water distance between
b) The velocity of propagation deviates substantially the search unit and the test piece:
from an assumed constant value given material.
a) Should be as small as possible.
c) Water is used as a couplant between the transducer
b) Will have no effect on the test.
and the part being measured.
c) Should be the same as the water distance used
d) Longitudinal waves are used.
during calibration.
d) Should be as great as possible.
19. In contact testing, shear waves can be introduced
in the test material by:
23. Generally, the best ultrasonic testing technique for
a) Placing an X-cut quartz crystal directly on the
detecting discontinuities oriented along the
surface of the material and coupling through a
fusion zone in a welded plate is:
film of oil.
a) An angle-beam contact method employing surface
b) Using two transducers on opposite sides of the test
waves.
specimen.
b) An immersion test using surface waves.
c) Placing a spherical acoustic lens on the face of the
transducers. c) A resonance technique.

d) Using an angle-beam transducers with the d) An angle-beam method using shear waves.
transducer mounted on a plastic wedge so that
sound enters the part at an angle.
24. This sheet may be inspected for laminar
discontinuities with the ultrasonic wave directed
20. The most commonly used method of producing normal to the surface by observing:
share waves in a test part when inspecting by a) The amplitude of the front surface reflection.
the immersion method is by:
b) The multiple reflection pattern.
a) Transmitting longitudinal waves into a part in a
direction perpendicular to its front surface. c) The amplitude of the initial pulse.

b) Using two crystals vibrating at different frequencies. d) Signals that “walk” or move along the time base as
the transducer is scanned over the sheet.
c) Using a low-frequency transducer.
d) Angulating the search tube to the proper angle with
respect to the entry surface of the test part. 25. Ultrasonic inspection of castings is occasionally
impractical because:
21. In immersion testing, proof that the search unit is
normal to a flat entry surface is indicated by: a) Extremely small grain structure typical in casting.

a) Maximum reflection amplitude from the entry b) Coarse grain structure.

c) Uniform flow lines. 30. Ultrasonic testing techniques are useful in testing
laminate and sandwich construction test objects
d) Random orientation of discontinuities.
for:
a) Paint thickness.
26. Angle-beam testing of plate will often miss:
b) Bond integrity.
a) Cracks that are perpendicular to the sound wave.
c) Leakage.
b) Inclusions that are randomly oriented.
d) Surface roughness
c) Laminations that are parallel to the front surface.
d) A series of small discontinuities
31. Ultrasonic techniques are frequently used in line
. automatic process control applications to
27. Reflection indications from a weld area being measure and control:
inspected by the angle-beam technique may a) Moisture content in food.
represent all of the following except:
b) Surface roughness of turbine blade casting.
a) Porosity.
c) Chemical activity in chemical etching process.
b) Cracks.
d) The thickness of cold-rolled strips, sheets and plate.
c) The weld bead.
d) Laminations in the base metal.
32. Which of the following statements about field
inspection applications of ultrasonic testing is
28. An ultrasonic test using a straight-beam contact true?
search unit is being conducted through the a) Because the equipment is large and bulky, field
thickness of a flat part, such a plate. This test inspections are difficult, at best.
should detect:
b) Aircraft and other field maintenance inspections
a) Laminar type flaws with major dimensions parallel to usually require three persons: one to manipulate
the plane of the rolled surface. the transducer, one to monitor the instrument
b) Transverse type flaws with major dimensions at the and one to record results.
right angles to the plane of the rolled surface. c) Digital displays must be used for outdoors
c) Radial flaws with major dimensions along the length inspections because of the limited brightness of
but radially oriented to the rolled surfaces. CRT displays.

d) Rounded flaws at the edges of the rolled plate. d) Manual and automatic system can be used for field
inspections.

29. The resonance technique of the thickness

measurement has been mostly replaced by:
a) Through-transmission longitudinal wave techniques.
b) Acoustic emission monitoring.
c) Pitch-and-catch shear-wave techniques.
d) Linear time-base pulse-echo techniques.
Visual testing (VT) 5. What do inspectors need to have in addition to
1. What is visual testing? being proficient in the testing process to increase
a) Detection of surface anomalies and various color probability of finding rejectable discontinuities with
variation. maximum efficiency?
b) Optical detection of surface anomalies and check a) Ironclad specifications.
performance to specification. b) Knowledge of acceptance criteria.
c) Evaluation of metallurgical conditions via electronic c) Motivation to perform.
microscope. d) Caring supervision.
d) Examination for wide variety of discontinuities open
to the surface or just below.
6. What magnifying power is typically available for the
field, pocket, pen or measuring microscopes that
2. What element of the eye is analogous to the film of are small and handheld?
a camera, receiving and documenting an image of a) Between 5X and 20X.
the world? b) Between 10X and 50X.
a) Optical nerve. c) Between 5X and 100X.
b) Iris. d) Greater than 50X.
c) Cornea.
d) Retina.
7. What is the minimum luminance recommended by
the Illuminating Engineering Society (IES) for task
3. Illumination varies inversely as the square of the lighting with medium contrast and small size
distance between the source and the point of the detection desired?
surface increases. What is this law called? a) 100 1x.
a) Inverse square law. b) 200 1x.
b) Cosine law. c) 500 1x.
c) Generation of light law. d) 2000 1x.
d) Lambert’s law.

8. What is the direction view called in a borescope or

4. When measuring surface roughness, Ra is defined videoscope when viewing 45 degrees off the
as what? straight-ahead direction of the probe?
a) Average distance between the peak and valley a) Forward slant.
points. b) Forward oblique.
b) Average waviness from crest to though. c) Forespective.
c) Average distance of the profile to the mean line. d) Angulated.
d) Parameter of the friction between contact surfaces.
9. How many bundles are there in a fiber optic visual inspections?
borescope and what are they called? a) Boiling water reactor (BWR).
a) One; monochromatic bundle. b) Pressurized water reactor (PWR).
b) Two; light guide and image guide. c) Light water reactor (LWR).
c) Two; light guide and CCD cable bundle. d) Heavy water reactor (HWR).
d) Three; light guide, image guide and fiber sheath.

14. What might be required after visual inspection of

10. Which remote camera system is singularity best steel fasteners in wrought aluminum plate in lap
suited to inspect stainless tubing for weld joint of an aircraft with evidence of exfoliation?
conditions or cleanliness, process piping, drain a) Computed radiography exams.
lines and heat exchanger tubing? b) Immersion ultrasonic exams.
a) Crawler mounted camera. c) Fluorescent penetrant testing.
b) Probe camera. d) Ultrasonic C-scan.
c) Pan, tilt and zoom camera.
d) Push camera.
15. What is pillowing on aircraft lap joints, typically on
aircraft skin, usually attributed to?
11. What is commonly evident surface discontinuity a) Misalignment of fasteners used to attach the skin
visible to be unaided eye following forming? to the airframe.
a) Forging bursts at the center of the billet. b) Expansion of corrosion products under the skins.
b) Edge breaks in temper rolled sheets of steel. c) Stretching the skins beyond their yield points over
c) Laminations at end preparations of plate for time.
welding. d) Twisting of the airframe during tight turns and
d) Segregation between pours. similar maneuvers.

12. What type of cracking occurs at the last 16. When inspecting welds for discontinuities located
termination point of a weld by shielded metal arc by visual testing of pressure vessels and storage
welding? tanks, which of the following discontinuities is
a) Hot tearing. allowed to be present to some degree?
b) Cold cracking. a) Undercut
c) Hot cracking. b) Cracks.
d) Crater crack. c) Lack of fusion.
d) Incomplete penetration.

13. Which type of nuclear reactor vessel may have all

its internals removed from the vessel to allow 17. Which of the following is an example of an
 organization that publishes standards for test
techniques?
a) ASNT.
b) API.
c) OSHA.
d) ASTM.

18. How can the heat-affected zone (HAZ) of carbon

steel welds be made visible?
a) Etchants enhance the visibility of the
microstructure.
b) High frequency ultrasonic microscopic means.
c) Color-contrast penetrating liquids.
d) Arrays of temperature-sensitive marking.

19. Pixels used in digital photographs or images, is a

term that comes from what combination of words?
a) Photography, inserts and electric laser.
b) Pie, excel and light.
c) Positional “x” elements.
d) Picture elements.
Relation of NDT to Manufacturing cause a part to fail.
d) Determine the remaining life of a structure.
1. Facture is a type of material failure. Of the
following, which is another type of material failure?
a) Facture mechanics.
5. An important basis for the success of fracture
b) Low-frequency dynamic loading.
control design procedures is:
c) Permanent deformation.
a) That all flaws are detected by NDT of proof testing
d) Elongation within the elastic range.
before the component enters service.
b) In the use of large factors of safety.
c) In the use of a value of strength that the material
2. Which of the following statements best
used in the design is presumed to possess.
differentiates between a defect and discontinuity?
d) The need to ensure that unexpected flaws of some
a) Discontinuities can propagate and become defects.
critical size are not present when the component
b) All discontinuities are defects.
enters service.
c) All defects will lead to failure if undetected;
discontinuities can be harmless.
d) Discontinuities are external natural boundaries
6. If properly used, NDT can assist in fracture control
only; defects are internal flaws originating from
by:
errors in processing.
a) Accurately measuring the tensile strength of design
materials.
b) Providing an accurate evaluation of the number and
3. Nondestructive testing (NDT) is often differentiated
type of discontinuities that exist in a material.
from another measurement or inspection
c) Predicting the time it will take a given size
techniques in that:
discontinuity to grow to a critical size.
a) NDT involves indirect tests related to some others
d) Determining the corrosion rate.
quality or characteristic of the material.
b) NDT is a measurement of dimensions, geometry
and appearance.
7. A statement that a particular experiment produce a
c) NDT uses electronic instruments to identify,
0.9 probability of detection with a 93% confidence
evaluate and locate discontinuities.
level means that:
d) NDT is an inspection tool used to confirm the
a) There is a 95% probability that the probability of
findings of the many other quality assurance
detection is overstated.
techniques.
b) There is a 5% probability that the probability of
detection is overstated.
c) On the average, 90% of all flaws will be detected.
4. Which of the following is not function of NDT?
d) On the average, 95 out of 100 flaws will be
a) Identification and sorting of material.
detected 90& of the time.
b) Identification of material properties.
c) Ensuring absence of faults or defects that could
Introduction to Manufacturing Technology

1. Most solid metals and plastics that have

reasonable strength at room temperature are
called:
a) Composite materials.
b) Manufacturing materials.
c) Allotropic materials.
d) Engineering materials.

2. Material properties, as used in designs, are

most frequently determined by:
a) Theorical analysis.
b) Materials testing.
c) The National Institute Standards and
Technology (NIST).
d) Facture mechanics testing.

3. Even at the early stages of product planning,

NDT should be considered because:
a) Codes and specifications are too restrictive.
b) The design of the part should permit easy
access to critical areas for later inspection.
c) The NDT method may damage the product.
d) The NDT processes generally take longer that
other processes generally take longer than
other processes.
Properties of Materials.

1. Which of the following material properties are

of the most concern if corrosion resistance is
essential?
a) Processing properties.
b) Mechanical properties.
c) Physical properties.
5. In figure 1, point B is called the:
d) Chemical properties.
a) Elastic range.
b) Elastic limit.
c) Yield point.
2. Which of the following is true relative to the
d) Modulus of elasticity.
comparison of the properties of aluminum-
based alloys and iron-based alloys?
a) Theoretical analysis.
6. In figure 1, which of the following rages indicates
b) Materials testing.
the effect of work hardening (to its maximum)
c) The National Institute of Standards and
caused by plastic flow of the material during a
Technology.
tensile load?
d) Facture mechanics testing.
a) A-B.
b) B-C.
c) C-D.
3. Even at the early stages of product planning,
d) D-E.
NDT should be considered because:
a) Indirect test.
b) Physical properties tests.
7. In figure 1, the points represented by E and F
c) Destructive tests.
would be closer together if the material being tested
d) Acoustic emission test.
were:
a) Loaded in tension.
b) Loaded in lapshear.
4. A bar that is 305 mm (12 in.) long, 51 mm (2
c) More duties.
in.)
d) Less ductile.
a) 10 335 kPa (1500 psi).
b) 82 680 kPa (12 000 psi).
c) 124 020 kPa (18 000 psi).
8. The modulus of elasticity, or Young’s modulus, is
d) 248 040 kPa (36000psi).
related to the material’s relative:
a) Tensile strength.
b) Compressive strength.
c) Resistance to stress 12. Figure 2 typifies:
d) Stiffness and yield strength a) A creep test curve.
b) An S-N curve.
c) A stress-strain diagram.
9. Which of the following materials is typically
d) A true stress-strain diagram.
considered when the application only requires high
compressive strength?
a) Low carbon steel. 13. Direct hardness test provide a measure of
b) High carbon steel. material’s ability to resist:
c) Cast iron. a) Bending.
d) Magnesium. b) Surface and near-surface penetration.
c) Tensile stresses.
d) Elogation.
10. A fatigue failure can often be prevented by
using NDT to:
a) Verify the cyclic loading on a component part. 14. A particular type of steel has an ultimate
b) Detect surface discontinuities that could be stress strength of 551 200 kilopascals (kPa) (80 000
risers. pounds per square inch [psi]), an elastic limit if
c) Measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing 413 180 kPa (62 000 psi). An allowable design
cyclic stresses. stress of 137 8000 kPa (20 000 psi) is used.
d) Determine percent elongation of a material before it What is the factor of safety based on the
is placed in service. ultimate strength?
a) 0.25.
b) 0.33.
11. Which of the following tests uses a pendulum
c) 3.0
to break a specimen that is notched and supported
d) 4.1
on both ends, with the result of measuring energy
absorption?
a) Creep test.
b) Charpy test.
c) Fatigue test.
d) Transverse rupture test.
The Nature of Materials and Solid State Changes in
Metals

1. Under ordinary usage, metals exist as:

a) Amorphous solids.
b) Mixtures and compounds of iron and carbon.
c) Crystalline solids.
d) Face-centered cubic lattices.

2. The terms body-centered cubic, face-centered

cubic and hexagonal close-packed all refer to
the:
a) Different size grains that can exist at the same
time in a metallic structure.
b) Sequence of crystalline growth in a typical
mind steel.
c) Lattice structures that make up unit cells in a
solid metallic structure.
d) Change in a metallic structure as it undergoes
plastic deformation.

3. In Figure 3, which intersection descries the

“triple point” of the material?
a) (P2, T3).
b) (P2, T2).
c) (Px, Tx).
d) (P1, T1).
4. The process of returning ductility to a cold- c) Annealing.
worked low-carbon steel is called: d) Work hardening.
a) Precipitation
b) Recrystallization.
9. An NDT method that has the ability to measure
c) Allotropic change.
changes in electrical conductivity caused by
d) Austenitization.
the effects of heat treatment is:
a) Magnetic particle testing.
5. Many metals exhibit an increase in strength b) Acoustic emission testing.
caused by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. c) Eddy corrent testing.
The effect is called: d) Immersion ultrasonic testing.
a) Twinning.
b) Plastic deformation.
10. Spheroidizing and normalizing have the effect
c) Work hardening.
of:
d) Age hardening.
a) Increasing ductility.
b) Age hardening.
6. When used as in process treatment, c) Reducing the grain size.
recrystallization can: d) Causing a phase change.
a) Improve ductility.
b) Enlarge grains.
11. When a steel has been quench-hardened and
c) Increase hardness.
then reheat to some point below the lower
d) Passivate the surface.
transformation temperature of the purpose of
reducing brightness, this is called:
7. Processes called austenitizing, annealing, a) Austenitiation.
normalizing and spheroidizing are: b) Thermal slip deformation.
a) Performed only on nonferrous metals. c) Allotropic change.
b) Approximate equilibrium heat-treatment d) Tempering.
processes.
c) Cold-working processes.
12. Annealing is usually performed:
d) Age-hardening processes.
a) Increase hardness.
b) Reduce corrosion.
8. The term “precipitation hardening” is often c) Relieve stresses.
used interchangeably with the term: d) Increase conductivity.
a) Age hardening.
b) Recrystallization.
13. Attacks on metals by direct chemical action
 and/or electrolysis are called:
a) Pitting corrosion.
b) Galvanic corrosion.
c) Electrochemical corrosion.
d) Stress corrosion.

14. Metal corrosion that is accelerated when the

metal is under loads is called:
a) Pitting corrosion.
b) Galvanic corrosion.
c) Electrochemical corrosion.
d) Stress corrosion.

15. Which of the following does not help prevent

corrosion?
a) Stress relieving.
b) Anodizing.
c) Insulating.
d) Electroplating.

16. Factors of safety are often in the range of 2 to

4. These factors:
a) Are provided for engineering mistakes.
b) Are added as a corrosion allowance.
c) Could be reduced with the assurance of NDT
techniques that the material was of discontinuities.
d) Provide allowances for poor welding techniques.
Ferrous Metals 5. What percentage of carbon is found in steel?
a) Between 3% and 4%.
1. The reduction of iron ore, by mixing with coke,
b) Between 2% and 3%.
limestone, and oxygen for combustion of the coke,
c) Less than 0.2%
is accomplished in:
d) Less than 2%.
a) A blast furnace.
b) An open-hearth furnace.
c) A bessemer converter.
6. By which of the following processes is most of the
d) A basic oxygen furnace.
world’s steel pronounced?
a) Bassemer converter.
b) Electric furnace.
2. In the iron-and steel-making process, the term “pig
c) Open hearth.
iron” refers to:
d) Basic oxygen.
a) The waste material that contains high
concentrations of impurities and slag and is either
discarded or used as a byproduct.
7. An undesirable by product of steel-making
b) A high-carbon, low-ductility metal produced in the
processes is:
blast furnace that can be used to make subsequent
a) Coke.
types of iron and steel.
b) Low-carbon steel.
c) The molten metal from the blast furnace that is not
c) Low-alloy steel.
usable and is poured off into a series of crude
d) Slag.
castings called “pigs”.
d) Low-cost metal used in large production factories.
8. A steel with 40 points of carbon contains:
a) 40% carbon.
3. Which of the following techniques is often used to
b) 4% carbon.
speed up the steel marking process?
c) 0.4% carbon.
a) Adding oxygen to the molten metal.
d) 0.04% carbon.
b) Reducing the amount of scrap steel that is often
added to the molten metal.
c) Adding oxygen to the molten metal. 9. Low-carbon steel contains approximately:
d) Converting the old open-hearth furnace. a) 0.6 to 2.5% carbon.
b) 0.06 to 0.25% carbon.
c) 0.5 to 1.6% carbon.
4. Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in:
d) 5 to 16% carbon.
a) An electric furnace.
10. Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively
b) An open-hearth furnace.
high percentages of nickel and chromium are
c) A bassemer furnace.
called:
d) A basic oxygen furnace.
a) Wrought iron. Nonferrous Metals and Plastics.
b) Low-alloy steels.
c) Stainless steels.
1. Which of the followings nonferrous metals is the
d) Nonferrous steels.
most important structural material?
a) Copper alloys.
11. Austenitic stainless steels are paramagnetic; b) Nickel alloys.
this means that: c) Zinc alloys.
a) Alternating current must be used when using the d) Aluminum alloys.
magnetic particle testing method.
b) The steel is very dense and, relative to other steels,
difficult to penetrate with X-rays. 2. Which of the following statements is true regarding

c) Ultrasonic is the logical NDT method to choose the electrical conductivity of aluminum alloys?

because of the coarse-grained nature of a a) Most aluminum alloy are un the rage of 70% to

paramagnetic material. 96% IACS.

d) The material has a very low permeability. b) Clad aluminum takes on the conductivity of the
base metal.
c) Each basic wrought aluminum alloy has
12. Which of the following is an advantage of cast conductivity distinct from any other.
steel over wrought steels? d) Conductivity decreases at elevated temperatures.
a) Cast steels usually have higher mechanical
properties than wrought steels.
b) Cast steels have more isotropic properties than 3. The heat treatment of aluminum for the purpose of

wrought steels. hardening and strengthening:

c) Cast steels are more corrosion-resistant than a) Is not possible with aluminum alloy because they

wrought steels. contain no carbon and cannot undergo allotropic

d) Cast steels cannot be heat-treated, and thus less changes.

expensive to produce than wrought steels. b) Can produce tensile strengths equivalent to some
carbon steels.
c) Requires the use of special furnaces and is rarely
done as a practical application.
d) Requires that iron and carbon be alloyed for the
best results.

4. Which of the following materials cannot typically be

used in the as-cast state?
a) Aluminum,
b) Magnesium. a) Tungsten.
c) Zinc. b) Zinc.
d) Manganese. c) Titanium.
d) Magnesium.

5. Which of the following metal alloys has a density

approximately two-thirds that of aluminum? 10. Which of the following statements is true
a) Magnesium. concerning plastic following their initial
b) Beryllium. polymerization?
c) Copper. a) Thermoplastics harden when reheated.
d) Nickel. b) Thermosetting plastic do not often, but char and
deteriorate when reheated.
c) All plastic are synthetic and contain no natural
6. Brass and bronze are alloys of zinc, tin and a large
materials.
percentage of:
d) Plastics have a complex molecular structure,
a) Beryllium
making it expensive to blind with other materials.
b) Copper
c) Lead.
d) Nickel. 11. Based on the strength-to-weight ratio:
a) No plastic materials can compare with metals.
b) Some plastic, including nylon, may have strengths
7. Monel™ and Iconel™ are:
greater than some steels.
a) Nickel alloys.
c) Plastics, as a group, are superior in strength to
b) Steel alloys.
most ferrous metals.
c) Magnesium alloys.
d) Plastic, being chemically inert, retain their strength
d) Aluminum alloys.
longer than carbon steels in corrosive
environments.

8. Which of the following materials cannot typically be

used in the as-cast state?
a) Aluminum.
b) Zinc.
c) Carbon.
d) Iron.

9. A high-strength, low-density, corrosion-resistant

metal alloy of significance in the aircraft, marine
and chemical processing industries is:
The nature of Manufacturing

1. Design engineers are responsible for establishing

the function, appearance, quality and cost of
product. Regarding the role of NDT in product
design, which of the following is true?
a) As a group, designers (by their training and
education) are adequately informed about NDT to
establish NDT procedures and acceptance criteria.
b) When NDT appears necessary in a design, the
designer should properly select the methods and
techniques to be used by reference to NDT
handbooks.
c) Designers should depend solely upon NDT
personnel to establish acceptance criteria.
d) Designers should seek input from NDT personnel
to ensure all required inspections can be
performed.

2. “Manufacturing” is a term that refers to processing

that starts with raw ,material in a bulk from and is
concerned mainly with processing the raw material
in a manner that changes its:
a) Shape.
b) Chemical form.
c) Mechanical properties.
d) Physical properties.

3. Manufacturing processes change raw material by:

a) Machining.
b) Stress relieving.
c) Case hardening.
d) Electroplating.
The Casting Process cools first.
b) Requires that the pattern used slightly smaller
1. Which of the following is the true regarding
than the desired dimension of the finished
solidification of molten metal in a casting mold?
casting.
a) The metal cools at a constant rate, thus
c) May cause cavities that are enlarged by the
providing fine equiaxed grains throughout.
evolution of gases.
b) Cooling takes place in phases having different
d) May be eliminated by investment casting.
rates that produce different types of grain
structure in different section of the casting.
c) Solidification occurs at a constant rate,
5. The design of the casting is important because
beginning at the interior of the casting and
the quality of the finished product can be
processing outward.
adversely affected by all of the following except:
d) Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than
a) Lack of molten metal to compensate for
thin sections because thin sections consist
contraction.
mostly of fine equiaxed grains.
b) Location of the gate with reference to either
progressive solidification or directional
solidification.
2. In a casting, shrinkage occurs:
c) The location of “hot spots” in areas of the
a) Only after the transformation from liquid to
casting that are isolated by thin sections.
solid.
d) Temperature of the mold immediately prior to
b) Only during the transformation from liquid to
casting.
solid.
c) Before, during and after the transformation
from liquid to solid.
6. The term used to describe a discontinuity in a
d) Only when the metal is in the liquid state.
casting that occurs when molten metal interfaces
with already solidified metal with failure to fuse at
the interface is:
3. Large voids or porosity in a casting result from:
a) Hot tear.
a) Turbulent flow of the molten metal during
b) Cold shut.
pouring.
c) Lack of fusion.
b) Alloy element segregation.
d) Segregation.
c) Molten metal boiling because of superheat.
d) Gas evolution before and during solidification.

7. The part of the casting where the gate or riser

was attached:
4. During the solidification of a casting, the
a) Should be the area used to establish reference
shrinkage that occurs:
standards for fortune NDT examinations because
a) May cause porosity and shrinkage cavities
this area will contain the best quality cast material.
primarily in the outer surfaces where the metal
b) Provides the best quality material because of rapid 12. Which of the following may cause a discontinuity
cooling in this area. even though its intended purpose is to prevent
c) Should be the area that “freezes” first, thus shrinkage cavities by absorbing heat from the
preventing excessive shrinkage cavities. molten metal in the center of the casting?
d) May provide concentration point for discontinuities. a) Riser.
b) Core.
c) Internal chill.
8. Risers, feeders, or feed heads in casting serve to
d) Chaplet.
provide sources of molten metal to compensate for:
a) Misruns.
b) Cold shunts. 13. Which of the following NDT methods can be
c) Dendritic grain growth. commonly used to inspect casting for core shift and
d) Shrinkage. nonfused chaplets and used to determine that all
core materials have been removed?
a) Ultrasonic testing.
9. Green sand casting molds include:
b) Magnetic particle testing.
a) Sand, clay and water.
c) Radiographic testing.
b) Sand, wrax and solvent.
d) Electromagnetic testing.
c) Sand, refractory metals and water.
d) Sand, carbon and green clay.
14. Casting molds made by covering a heated metal
pattern with sand that is mixed with particles of
10. Mold materials in the form of inserts that exclude
thermosetting plastic are called:
metal flow and thus form internal surfaces or
a) Green sand molds.
passages in a casting are called:
b) Shell molds.
a) Chills.
c) Die casting molds.
b) Chaplets.
d) Permanent molds.
c) Cores.
d) Patterns.
15. Permanent molds are most frequently made of:
a) Ceramics.
11.Small metal supports used to support and position
b) Fused.
cores become part of a casting by fusing with the
c) Metal.
molten metal. Such devices are called:
d) Plaster.
a) Core hangers.
b) Chills.
c) Cores. 16. Another term for precision casting and the lost-
d) Patterns. wax process is:
a) Investment casting.
b) Die casting.
c) Metal mold casting.
d) Shell mold casting.

17. A casting process used to produce hollow

products like pipes and hollow shafts is:
a) Investment casting.
b) Blow casting.
c) Core casting.
d) Centrifugal casting.

18. A casting process used to produce elongate

shapes by drawing solidified metal from a water-
cooler mold packed by molten metal is:
a) Centrifugal casting.
b) Continuous casting.
c) Draw casting.
d) Extrusion.
The Welding Process a) Heat.
b) Filler material.
1. An assembly that has been created by joining two
c) Oxides.
or more parts by one or more welds is called a:
d) Adhesives.
a) Joint.
b) Bonded structure.
c) Weld.
6. Proper brazing depends upon numerous factors
d) Weldment.
being controlled. Of the following, which is not
2. A general definition of welding describes the joining
appropriate?
of two surfaces:
a) Proper joint fit-up and joint preparation.
a) With a filler metal that has a higher melting point
b) Adequate heat to melt the braze filler metal.
that the base metal.
c) Selection of proper braze filler metal.
b) With a filler material that is different from the base
d) Complete melting of the step metal and
material.
diffusion of the braze filler metal into the base
c) In a permanent union established by atom-to-atom
metal.
bonds.
d) Where both heat and pressure are necessary for
permanent bonding. 7. Soldering, brazing, and braze welding all:
a) Have the same strength characteristics.
b) Use a process where only filler metal is
3. Of the following which is not a requirement for
actually melted.
fusion bonding?
c) Are fusion-type weldments.
a) Melting.
d) Use liquid penetrant inspection to reveal
b) Atomic closeness.
porosity.
c) Atomic cleanliness.
d) Pressure.
8. Due to high temperatures and rapid rate of
cooling, the filler material used in fusion welds:
4. Metallurgical effects in a weld, such as grain size
a) Is coated with an oxide to help reduce weld
variation and shrinkage, are similar to those that
defects.
occur in:
b) Contains alloys that will help compensate for
a) Forgings.
properties lost during the welding process.
b) Castings.
c) Is alloyed with nickel, copper and carbon to
c) Extrusion.
eliminate craking.
d) Hot-rolled plates.
d) Should be as close as possible to the same
alloy content as the base material.

5. Pressure welding can be accomplished with

pressure alone, but what else is usually added?
9. The uneven shrinkage and brittle structures occur d) Excessive residual stresses.
due to the rapid cooling of a weld can often be
reduced by:
a) Preheating the weldments prior to welding.
b) Using a filler metal with higher carbon content than
the base metal.
c) Clamping the weldments in a rigid fixture.
d) Overdesigning the size of the weldments to prevent
shrinkage.

10. After welding many steel weldments are heat

treated to obtain more uniform properties between
the weld and base metal and to relieve stress.
Which heat-treatment method is often used
following welding?
a) Tempering.
b) Martensitic aging.
c) Normalizing.
d) Spheroidizing

11. Weldments subject to restraints during welding

can develop high residual stresses. Unrestrained
weldments can develop:
a) Geometric distortion.
b) High residual stress.
c) Cracking after the weld has cooled.
d) Fatigue cracking.

12. Welds and weldments have been known to

develop cracks long after cooling but prior to being
used in service. What is the principle cause for
such cracks?
a) Accelerated corrosion at high temperature.
b) Scattered porosity in the weld.
c) Improper selection of base material.
Welding Process and Design 5. Which of the following welding processes uses a
nonconsumable electrode with the arc maintained
1. In arc welding, the electronic arc is usually
in an atmosphere of inter gas?
sustained between an electrode and the:
a) Gas tungsten arc welding.
a) Welding machine.
b) Submerged arc welding.
b) Coating on the electrode.
c) Gas metal arc welding.
c) Workpiece.
d) Electroslag welding.
d) Shielding gas.

6. Shielding in the submerged arc welding process is

2. Which of the following gases are most frequently
provided by:
used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in
a) Gases
the vicinity of the weld?
b) Granular flux that completely surrounds the arc.
a) Argon, helium and carbon dioxide.
c) A flux-coated welding rod.
b) Neon, tritium and helium.
d) Chopped glass fibers.
c) Sulphure dioxide, argon and oxygen.
d) Argon, nitrogen and hydrogen.

3. When molten metal is transferred from the

electrode to the weld zone, it can be shielded from
the atmosphere by all of the following except:
a) The burning of the coating on the welding
electrode.
b) Maintaining the arc beneath flux powders.
7. Which welding process is depicted in Figure 4?
c) The flow of a shielding gas around the arc.
a) Electron-beam welding.
d) Switching to a 2% ceriated tungsten electrode
b) Plasma arc welding.
when performing the GTAW process.
c) Resistance spot welding.
d) Friction welding.

4. The burn-off rate and amount of spattering during

the arc welding process can often be controlled by:
8. A welding process that is most frequently carried
a) Proper post-heating of the entire weldment.
out in a vacuum chamber is:
b) Maintaining the arc beneath flux powders.
a) Plasma arc welding.
c) The flow of a shielding gas around the arc.
b) Electron-beam welding.
d) Switching to a 2% ceriated tungsten electrode
c) Electroslag
when performing the GTAW process.
d) Friction welding.
9. The welding process capable of very high intensity c) Corner joint.
and rate of heat transfer is: d) Edge joint.
a) Braze welding.
b) Plasma arc welding.
c) Diffusion welding.
d) Soldering.

10. The welding process in which the arc is

extinguished after melting a slag cover and in which
the base metal and copper slides from a sort of
13. What type of weld joint preparation is shown in
moving mold is called:
Figure 6?
a) Electroslang welding.
a) J-groove.
b) Submerged arc welding.
b) Tee joint.
c) Electron-beam welding.
c) Corner joint.
d) Slag-mold welding.
d) Edge joint.

11. In the process of diffusion welding, often called

diffusion bonding, the base metal is joined by:
a) Melting the weld joint area with strip heaters.
b) Using high-temperature adhesive.
c) Putting it under pressure at temperatures below the
melting point.
d) The heat of fictional movement between the
surfaces to be joined.
14. In Figure 7, which sketch contains an incorrect
welding symbol with respect to the weld joint
shown?
a) A.
b) B.
c) C.
d) D.

15. A slag inclusion can result from which of the

12. What type of weld joints is depicted in Figure 5?
following?
a) Butt joint.
a) Small pieces of tungsten being dislodged from
b) Tee joint.
the electrode in the gas tungsten arc process.
b) Insufficient cleaning of successive passes in a blend into the base metal.
multipass weldments.
c) Excessive overlap on intermediate passes in a
19. In the welding, the most obvious defects are those
multipass weldment.
associated with structural discontinuities in the
d) Contaminants in the welding flux.
weld itself. Conditions not considered welding
process defects are:
16. Undercut on a weld pass I s usually caused by: a) Improper weld dimensions and profiles.
a) Poor operator technique. b) Base metal irregularities that have been
b) A rate of travel that is too slow, which causes enlarged by welding stresses and distortion.
the base metal to become too hot. c) Structural sound welds, but those with
c) The use of an electrode that is too large from inadequate properties caused by errors in filler
the current capacity of the welding machine. metal selection.
d) Welding in the vertical position. d) Corrosion of the structural members.

17. Crater cracks may take the form of a single crack

or start-shaped cracks and will usually be found:
a) By magnetic particle techniques since crater
cracks are always subsurface.
b) Anywhere along a weld where the welding was
stopped and restarted.
c) In the natural crater formed between the two
20. In the V-groove weld shown in Figure 8 was made
plates in a typical fillet weld.
in multiple passes and not clamped or restrained,
d) In the root area of a multiple pass weld where
typical warping would take place in which
the weld metal failed to flow completely into
direction?
the root opening.
a) Edges A and B would be lowered due to the
expansion of the weld metal in the weld zone.
18. The principle purpose of preheat treatment and b) Edges A and B would be raised due to the
post-heat treatment in welds is to: contraction of the weld metal.
a) Reduce the probability of formation of porosity c) In the multipass weld, there would be little if
in the weld. any warpage.
b) Neutralize residual stresses and geometric d) Expansion and contraction would be equal in a
distortion. V-groove weld as shown.
c) Create grains in the weld that are the same as
those in the base metal.
21. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which
d) Cause the weld ripple and reinforcement to
 three types?
a) Shallow, deep and intermittent.
b) Longitudinal, transverse and crater.
c) Laminar, through and oblique.
d) Longitudinal, laminar and intermittent.

22. Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important

factor to consider in making quality weldments
because:
a) Some metals, such as aluminum, have a low
conductivity, which results in weld defects due to
localized heat buildup.
b) Some metals, such as stainless steel, have a high
conductivity, which results in lack of fusion defects
as the heat is quickly removed from the weld zone.
c) In some metals, such as aluminum, very high
temperature gradients are produced, causing
stresses during cooling.
d) Some metals, such as stainless steel, have low
conductivity, which results in weld defects caused
by localized overheating.
Plastic Flow processes.
d) Removed by cropping up to one-third off the
1. Deformation of metal provides a number of
top of the ingot.
advantages. Which of the following is not an
advantage?
a) Deformation processes increase the probability of
5. Discontinuities with their origin in the original
defect formation.
ingot can be reduced in severity by the closing
b) High duplication accuracy results from most
and welding of avoids and the breaking up and
deformation processes.
elongation of inclusions by which of the
c) In general, the properties of wrought metals are
following processes?
improved over their cast counterparts.
a) Cold working.
d) Thin section can be more economically and more
b) Hot working.
successfully produced than by casting.
c) Heat treatment.
d) Welding.

2. Among other things, the advantageous effects of

recrystallization depend upon the:
6. Which of the following would have the least
a) Rate of heating.
ductility?
b) Temperature at which deformation takes place.
a) Cold-rolled steel plate.
c) Presence of carbon in excess of 25% for steels.
b) Hot-rolled steel plate.
d) Presence of silicon in excess of 0.1%for steels.
c) Gray cast iron.
d) Hot-rolled aluminum plate.

3. Wrought products invariably exhibit:

a) High susceptibility to corrosion.
7. An NDT techniques best suited to locating
b) Lower strength than their cast counterparts.
discontinuities caused by inclusions rolled into
c) Directional properties.
steel plate is:
d) Poor weldability.
a) Radiographic testing.
b) Ultrasonic testing.
c) Visual testing.
4. During the steel-making process, a large number of
d) Magnetic particle testing.
faults such as slag, porosity and shrinkage cavities
exist in the top of the ingot. There discontinuities
are:
8. Which of the following statements is true
a) Mostly eliminated in subsequent hot working due to
concerning deformation processes?
the pressure that “welds” the void shut.
a) Hot working usually follows cold working.
b) Located with NDT techniques at later stages of
b) Hot working must be followed by heat
production.
treatment.
c) Almost nonexistent with modern steel-making
c) Cold working renders brittle material more
ductile.
d) Cold working usually follows hot working.

9. Machinability and fatigue resistance are

improved in most metals that have been:
a) Hot worked.
b) Cold worked.
c) Heat treated.
d) Cast.
Millwork, Forging, and Powder Metallurgy d) Will have a lower yield and tensile strength
after cold working.
1. NDT is often used just following hot- and cold-
working operations to:
a) Ensure that further operations are not
4. Before cold-finishing operations can be done
performed on material that contains defects
on hot-rolled materials, cleaning is often done
that could cause rejection of the manufactured
by immersing the hot-rolled material in acid
part.
baths in a process called:
b) Determine that defects do not exist in the
a) Degreasing.
material that could damage the rolling and
b) Descaling.
other equipment.
c) Anodizing.
c) Determine the ductility of the material after the
d) Pickling.
rolling operation is complete.
d) Accurately determine the compressive strength
of the material after passes through the rolling 5. The millworking process performed principally
mill. on flat products and bars that improves
hardness, strength, surface finish and
dimensional accuracy is:
2. Slabs, blooms and billets are:
a) Cold rolling.
a) The three consecutive stages that the metal
b) Hot rolling.
goes through during the production of products
c) Forging.
such as angle iron and channel iron.
d) Sintering.
b) The shapes that ingot is rolled into prior to a
variety of secondary operations.
c) Types of defects that occur during the hot 6. Most steel pipe is produced by forming and:
rolling of steel. a) Drawing.
d) The three different shapes produced during b) Welding.
typical cold-rolling operations. c) Extrusion.
d) Pressing.

3. Cold rolling steel usually beings with a material

that: 7. Most seamless tubing made without welds is
a) Has been completely inspected with an processed by:
automated radiography system. a) Casting.
b) Has been previously hot-rolled to dimensions b) Piercing.
close to the size of the finished product. c) Cold rolling.
c) Has less ductility and grater hardness than d) Brazing.
typical hot-rolled steel.
8. A process that requires the use of large, 12. A major purpose of pressing the metal
powerful equipment that forms ductile material powders during powder metallurgy processing
into wide variety of long-length, uniform, cross- is to:
sectional shapes best describes: a) Squeeze out excess moisture.
a) Forging. b) Further refine the grains.
b) Powder metallurgy. c) Compact the powders into mechanical and
c) Extrusion. atomic closeness.
d) Die casting. d) Provide all of the above.

9. The millworking process used most to form 13. In the powder metallurgy process, sintering is:
metals into three-dimensional shapes is_ a) In most cases, a fully solid-state process.
a) Casting. b) Never a fully solid-state process.
b) Cold rolling. c) Principally done at room temperature.
c) Welding. d) Always done at elevated temperature and high
d) Forging. pressure.

10. Which of the following product form is 14. Powdered metallurgy products cannot:
generally selected for high strength and a) Be hot worked after sintering.
controlled property directionality? b) Be heat treated after sintering.
a) Casting. c) Be machined after sintering.
b) Extrusions. d) Attain 100% of theoretical density.
c) Hot-rolled flat stock.
d) Forgings.
15. Which of the following is not an application for
powdered metal products?
11. Powder metallurgy provides two unique a) Cemented carbide cutting tools and dies.
advantages in metals processing. One is the b) Tungsten rocket nozzles.
capability to produces shapes and objects of c) Oil-impregnated bushings.
refractory metals that are extremely difficult or d) Electric motor housings.
impractical to melt; the other is to:
a) Economically produced metals with extremely
low melting temperatures.
b) Produce metal shapes with controlled porosity.
c) Produce metals that can be easily machined
by electrochemical processes.
d) Produce metals that are corrosion resistant.
Pressworking of Sheet Metal d) The use of large autoclaves that contain both
the tooling and the metal being formed.
1. Which of the following terms does not describe
operations that bend, stretch and shape sheep
metals into three-dimensional shapes with
significant plastic flow and deformation?
a) Bending.
b) Forming.
c) Drawing.
d) Shearing.

2. In drawing and deep drawing, the final shape

often can be completed in a series of draws,
each successively deeper. What process
performed between draws might effectively
reduce the number of draws required?
a) Recrystallization.
b) Pickling.
c) Etching.
d) Hardening heat treatment.

3. Spinning can be used to form:

a) Spherical tank halves.
b) Cemented carbide cutting tools.
c) Rectangular sheet metal tanks.
d) Solid spheres.

4. Most new developments in sheet metal

forming typically use nonconventional energy
sources. What is a common feature of these
processes?
a) The use of lasers for controlled heat input.
b) The use of cryogenics to super-cool the metal
prior to forming.
c) The use of energy sources that release large
amounts of energy in a very short time.
Machining Fundamentals variety of machining operations?
a) The use of NDT to evaluate the finished
1. Machines designed to hold a cutting tool and a
product.
workpiece and establish a suitable set of
b) The use of electrical discharge machining ti
motions between them to remove material
replaces the conventional lathes and surface
form the workpiece are called:
grinders.
a) Mill-working machines.
c) The use of modern ultrasonic machining
b) Factory machines.
operations.
c) Machine tools.
d) The use of numerical control system applied to
d) Metal-cutting machines.
convention types of machining operations.

2. In describing machinability, three different

measurements are generally considered on a
relative. If not quantitative, basis. These are:
a) Shear, tensile and impact strength of the
material being machined.
b) Surface finish of the material achievable,
power consumption required to remove a given
volume of material and expected tool life.
c) Softness of material, sharpness of the cutting
tool and type of machine used to remove the
material.
d) Volume of material before machining, volume
of material after machining and time required
to remove that volume.

3. When used with respect to machine tools, the

acronym N/C means:
a) A nonmetal cutter.
b) Noncorrosive coolant.
c) Numerical control.
d) Negative clearance.

4. Which of the following can result in economical

setup and reduced machine time with an
increase in repeatability and accuracy for a
Miscellaneous Processes b) When composite materials are cured, the
constituents lose their original identity and form
1. Which of the following statements is true
chemical compounds with one another.
regarding plastics processing?
c) A unique feature of composite materials is that
a) Unlike metals, plastics must be processed
their tensile strength frequently exceeds the
without the addition of heat.
strength of the strongest constituent.
b) Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics
d) Composites are usually formed into complex
may be processed by molding, casting and
three-dimensional shapes with each dimension
extrusion.
approximately equal to the other two.
c) All plastic molding processes use liquid-state
materials introduced into the mold cavity.
d) Injection molding can be done only with
5. Which of the following statements is true
thermosetting materials.
concerning honeycomb?
a) Nonmetallic honeycomb derives high strength
and rigidity from a structural combination of
2. Reinforced plastic molding involves use of:
relatively weak, thin, lightweight materials.
a) Thermosetting plastics and fibrous
b) In honeycomb, the walls of the cellular core
reinforcement materials.
material are aligned parallel with the plane of
b) Thermosetting plastics and metallic powder
the face sheets.
reinforcement.
c) Honeycomb containing nonmetallic elements
c) Thermoplastics and wood fiber reinforcement
can be bonded by adhesives, brazing or
materials.
diffusion.
d) Thermoplastics and metallic powder
d) Honeycomb combining metallic and
reinforcement.
nonmetallic elements cannot be used in
cryogenic service due to the permeability of
3. The mechanical of adhesion combines the nonmetallic elements.
mechanical interlocking and:
a) Stickiness of the adhesive.
6. The major difference between materials
b) Roughness of the adherents.
classified as composites and those classified
c) Dynamic mechanical forces.
as mixtures is that:
d) Interatomic forces.
a) Mixtures are a type of composite with random
orientation and shape of the constituents.
4. Which of the following statements is true b) Composites contain metallic constituents and
concerning composite materials? mixtures are nonmetallic.
a) Composite materials can be wrapped over c) Mixtures starts as liquids blended together and
metallic materials to increase strength and composites start as solid.
reduce weight. d) Mixtures are elastomeric, while composites are
 characterized as having at least one plastic
component.

7. The acronym EDM refers to:

a) Engineering design materials.
b) Energy discharge machines.
c) Electro-dynamic machining.
d) Electrical discharge machining.
10. The process illustrated in Figure 10 is called:
a) Electrical discharge machining.
b) Ultrasonic machining.
c) Electrochemical machining.
d) Abrasive drilling.

11. A process that is the reverse of electrochemical

machining and that is the basis for electroplating is
called:
8. Figure 9 illustrates:
a) Chemical milling.
a) Chemical milling.
b) Electrical discharge machining.
b) Electrochemical machining.
c) Electroforming.
c) Ultrasonic machining.
d) Magnetoforming.
d) Electrolytic grinding.

12. A cutting operation that has the ability to cut

9. The process used for shaping metals by chemical
through thickness of over 0.9 m (3 ft.) of the steel
dissolution only, with selective removal
and is commonly used to remove surface defects
accomplished by masking areas where metal is not
on castings and forgings by “scarfing” is called:
to be removed, is called:
a) Friction cutting.
a) Electrical discharge machining.
b) Oxyacetylene cutting.
b) Chemical milling.
c) Ultrasonic cutting.
c) Electromechanical machining.
d) Plasma arc cutting.
d) Electroforming.
Surface Finishing d) Optical holography.

1. Which of the following statements is not true

concerning surface finishing?
5. The best and most chemical cleaners used for
a) Cleaning operations are considered to be
removal of oils and greases are:
surface-finishing process.
a) Pickling baths.
b) Surface finishing is often performed for
b) Deionized water sprays.
corrosion protection.
c) Wire brushes and cloth buffers.
c) Surface finishing is not typically followed by
d) Petroleum solvents.
further processes.
d) Surface finishing is something performed to
improve surface and near-surface mechanical 6. Some materials, such as aluminum, are
properties. corrosion resistant:
a) By virtue of immediate oxidation of newly
exposed surfaces.
2. Carburizing and flame hardening are examples
b) Only if anodized.
of:
c) Because the material itself will not readily
a) Annealing processes.
combine with oxygen.
b) Case-hardening processes.
d) Against all types of corrosive atmospheres.
c) Processes that produce ductile surfaces.
d) Electrochemical processes.
7. All of the following statements concerning
electrostatic spraying are true except:
3. Which of the following nondestructive test
a) The material being sprayed is directly attracted
would provide the best results in measuring
to all of the surfaces to be covered.
the case depth on a case-hardened part?
b) There is less waste due to oversprayed
a) Ultrasonic immersion testing a very low-
material.
frequency probe.
c) There is more uniform coverage of the
b) Radiography.
surfaces.
c) Eddy current.
d) The parts being sprayed require a high current
d) Optical holography.
to attract the spray media.

4. Coating are often applied to protect a material;

8. A corrosion protection material commonly
their thicknesses can frequently be determined
applied to steel by hot dipping and galvanizing
nondestructively by:
is:
a) Acoustic emission.
a) Porcelain.
b) Eddy current.
b) Paint.
c) Surface-wave ultrasonic techniques.
c) Zinc.
d) Chromic acid.

9. Metals commonly applied to other metals by

electroplating are:
a) Nickel, chromium and cadmium.
b) Tin, zinc and tungsten.
c) Silver, gold and carbon.
d) Copper, aluminum and magnesium.

10. A process that coverts the base metal surface

to an oxidized barrier layer of very small
porous cells is called:
a) Galvanizing.
b) Plating.
c) Anodizing.
d) Metallizing

11. The anodized surface on aluminum:

a) Can produce a high background during a
penetrant test.
b) Is very dense and makes X-ray penetration
difficult.
c) Can produce cracks that are easily detected by
electromagnetic testing techniques.
d) Must be removed before performing ultrasonic
test.
Inspection: 4. On the operating characteristic curve shown in
Figure 11:
1. A techniques for the inspection of
a) The line P2 indicates that in the given
manufactured products that utilizes the
example, four parts were found to be defective.
selection of a certain percentage of parts for
b) The line P1 indicates that if the lot being
inspection is called:
inspected had 1% defectives, there is a 6%
a) Standard deviation.
probability that this plan would reject the lot.
b) Random sampling.
c) The lot fraction defective cannot exceed 6%.
c) Natural selection.
d) There is a 10% probability of accepting a 1%
d) Analysis of variance.
defective lot.

2. Implied in sampling inspection is:

5. Frequently, dimensions are permitted to vary
a) That the chosen plan will produce precise
within specified limits. There variations are
numbers of acceptable parts.
called:
b) The need for a sample size of 100 units or
a) Variances.
multiples thereof.
b) Fudge factors.
c) A willingness to sometimes acceptance
c) Factors of safety.
defective products.
d) Tolerances.
d) The need to collect data in the form of
variables instead of attributes.

6. Measurements are classified as being either:

a) Comparative or absolute.
3. A process control chart based on the means
b) Comparative or dimensional.
and rages of measurements taken on periodic
c) Dimensional or angular.
samples requires the measurement to be
d) Microscopic or macroscopic.
taken of:
a) Attributes.
b) Variables.
7. A vernier measurement permits:
c) Either attributes or variables.
a) Accurate interpolation between major divisions
d) Neither attributes nor variables.
on a measuring device.
b) Measurements to be accurate within 0.03 mm
(0.001 in).
c) Extending the length of a measurement scale
by 10 times.
d) Measurements to be traced to NIST.
8. Indication gages are usually used in applications
that provide:
a) Absolute measurements.
b) Comparative measurements.
c) Long linear measurements.
d) Reflected or projected images of the workpiece.

9. Which of the following measurement tools uses the

principle of light interference to check surface
flatness?
a) Optical comparator.
b) Vernier caliper.
c) Sine bar.
d) Optical profiler.

10. Gases such as plug gages, ring gages, go/no-go

gages, profile gages, thread gages, radius gages,
etc., are all types of:
a) Variable measurement tools.
b) Absolute gages.
c) Optical gages.
d) Fixed gages.

11. Devices that show magnified reflected or profile

images of the workpiece on a frosted glass screen
are called optical:
a) Comparators.
b) Flats.
c) Projectors.
d) Micrometers.