Amateur Radio Question Pools

Source: 2014-2018 FCC Element 2, 2015-2019 FCC Element 3, and

2012-2016 FCC Element 4 Question Pools

SUBELEMENT T5 – ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES

T5A - Electrical principles, units, and terms: current and voltage; conductors
and insulators; alternating and direct current

T5A01 (D)
Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?
A. Volts
B. Watts
C. Ohms
D. Amperes
~~

T5A02 (B)
Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?
A. Volts
B. Watts
C. Ohms
D. Amperes
~~

T5A03 (D)
What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?
A. Voltage
B. Resistance
C. Capacitance
D. Current
~~

T5A04 (B)
What is the name for a current that flows only in one direction?
A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. Normal current
D. Smooth current
~

T5A05 (A)
What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes
electron flow?
A. Voltage
B. Ampere-hours
C. Capacitance
D. Inductance
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T5A06 (A)
How much voltage does a mobile transceiver usually require?
A. About 12 volts
B. About 30 volts
C. About 120 volts
D. About 240 volts
~~

T5A07 (C)
Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?
A. Glass
B. Wood
C. Copper
D. Rubber
~~

T5A08 (B)
Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?
A. Copper
B. Glass
C. Aluminum
D. Mercury
~~

T5A09 (A)
What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?
A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. Circular current
D. Vertical current
~~

T5A10 (C)
Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?
A. Resistance
B. Current
C. Power
D. Voltage
~~

T5A11 (A)
What is the basic unit of electromotive force?
A. The volt
B. The watt
C. The ampere
D. The ohm
~~

T5A12 (D)
What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current
reverses direction?
A. Pulse rate
B. Speed
C. Wavelength
D. Frequency
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T5B - Math for electronics: conversion of electrical units; decibels; the metric
system

T5B01 (C)
How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
A. 15 milliamperes
B. 150 milliamperes
C. 1,500 milliamperes
D. 15,000 milliamperes
~~

T5B02 (A)
What is another way to specify a radio signal frequency of 1,500,000 hertz?
A. 1500 kHz
B. 1500 MHz
C. 15 GHz
D. 150 kHz
~~

T5B03 (C)
How many volts are equal to one kilovolt?
A. One one-thousandth of a volt
B. One hundred volts
C. One thousand volts
D. One million volts
~~

T5B04 (A)
How many volts are equal to one microvolt?
A. One one-millionth of a volt
B. One million volts
C. One thousand kilovolts
D. One one-thousandth of a volt
~~

T5B05 (B)
Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts?
A. 0.02 watts
B. 0.5 watts
C. 5 watts
D. 50 watts
~~

T5B06 (C)
If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere
current, what reading would it show?
A. 0.003 amperes
B. 0.3 amperes
C. 3 amperes
D. 3,000,000 amperes
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T5B07 (C)
If a frequency readout calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz,
what would it show if it were calibrated in kilohertz?
A. 0.003525 kHz
B. 35.25 kHz
C. 3525 kHz
D. 3,525,000 kHz
~~

T5B08 (B)
How many microfarads are 1,000,000 picofarads?
A. 0.001 microfarads
B. 1 microfarad
C. 1000 microfarads
D. 1,000,000,000 microfarads
~~

T5B09 (B)
What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power
increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 5 dB
D. 10 dB
~~

T5B10 (C)
What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power
decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?
A. -1 dB
B. -3 dB
C. -6 dB
D. -9 dB
~~

T5B11 (A)
What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power
increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?
A. 10 dB
B. 12 dB
C. 18 dB
D. 28 dB
~~

T5B12 (A)
Which of the following frequencies is equal to 28,400 kHz?
A. 28.400 MHz
B. 2.800 MHz
C. 284.00 MHz
D. 28.400 kHz
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T5B13 (C)
If a frequency readout shows a reading of 2425 MHz, what frequency is that in
GHz?
A. 0.002425 GHZ
B. 24.25 GHz
C. 2.425 GHz
D. 2425 GHz
~~

T5C - Electronic principles: capacitance; inductance; current flow in circuits;

alternating current; definition of RF; DC power calculations; impedance

T5C01 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?
A. Inductance
B. Resistance
C. Tolerance
D. Capacitance
~~

T5C02 (A)
What is the basic unit of capacitance?
A. The farad
B. The ohm
C. The volt
D. The henry
~~

T5C03 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?
A. Admittance
B. Capacitance
C. Resistance
D. Inductance
~~

T5C04 (C)
What is the basic unit of inductance?
A. The coulomb
B. The farad
C. The henry
D. The ohm
~~

T5C05 (A)
What is the unit of frequency?
A. Hertz
B. Henry
C. Farad
D. Tesla
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T5C06 (A)
What does the abbreviation “RF” refer to?
A. Radio frequency signals of all types
B. The resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
C. The real frequency transmitted as opposed to the apparent frequency
D. Reflective force in antenna transmission lines
~~

T5C07 (C)
What is a usual name for electromagnetic waves that travel through space?
A. Gravity waves
B. Sound waves
C. Radio waves
D. Pressure waves
~~

T5C08 (A)
What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit?
A. Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)
B. Power (P) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)
C. Power (P) equals voltage (E) minus current (I)
D. Power (P) equals voltage (E) plus current (I)
~~

T5C09 (A)
How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts
DC and the current is 10 amperes?
A. 138 watts
B. 0.7 watts
C. 23.8 watts
D. 3.8 watts
~~

T5C10 (B)
How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts
DC and the current is 2.5 amperes?
A. 4.8 watts
B. 30 watts
C. 14.5 watts
D. 0.208 watts
~~

T5C11 (B)
How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts
DC and the load is 120 watts?
A. 0.1 amperes
B. 10 amperes
C. 12 amperes
D. 132 amperes
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T5C12 (A)
What is meant by the term impedance?
A. It is a measure of the opposition to AC current flow in a circuit
B. It is the inverse of resistance
C. It is a measure of the Q or Quality Factor of a component
D. It is a measure of the power handling capability of a component
~~

T5C13 (D)
What are the units of impedance?
A. Volts
B. Amperes
C. Coulombs
D. Ohms
~~

T5D – Ohm’s Law: formulas and usage

T5D01 (B)
What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?
A. Current (I) equals voltage (E) multiplied by resistance (R)
B. Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R)
C. Current (I) equals voltage (E) added to resistance (R)
D. Current (I) equals voltage (E) minus resistance (R)
~~

T5D02 (A)
What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?
A. Voltage (E) equals current (I) multiplied by resistance (R)
B. Voltage (E) equals current (I) divided by resistance (R)
C. Voltage (E) equals current (I) added to resistance (R)
D. Voltage (E) equals current (I) minus resistance (R)
~~

T5D03 (B)
What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?
A. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)
B. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)
C. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) added to current (I)
D. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) minus current (I)
~~

T5D04 (B)
What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows
through a resistor connected to 90 volts?
A. 3 ohms
B. 30 ohms
C. 93 ohms
D. 270 ohms
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T5D05 (C)
What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts
and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?
A. 18 ohms
B. 0.125 ohms
C. 8 ohms
D. 13.5 ohms
~~

T5D06 (A)
What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
A. 3 ohms
B. 16 ohms
C. 48 ohms
D. 8 Ohms
~~

T5D07 (D)
What is the current flow in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a
resistance of 80 ohms?
A. 9600 amperes
B. 200 amperes
C. 0.667 amperes
D. 1.5 amperes
~~

T5D08 (C)
What is the current flowing through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200
volts?
A. 20,000 amperes
B. 0.5 amperes
C. 2 amperes
D. 100 amperes
~~

T5D09 (C)
What is the current flowing through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240
volts?
A. 24,000 amperes
B. 0.1 amperes
C. 10 amperes
D. 216 amperes
~~

T5D10 (A)
What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows
through it?
A. 1 volt
B. 0.25 volts
C. 2.5 volts
D. 1.5 volts
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T5D11 (B)
What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows
through it?
A. 1 volt
B. 10 volts
C. 11 volts
D. 9 volts
~~

T5D12 (D)
What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows
through it?
A. 8 volts
B. 0.2 volts
C. 12 volts
D. 20 volts
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
SUBELEMENT T4 – AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES
T4A – Station setup: connecting microphones; reducing unwanted emissions; power
source; connecting a computer; RF grounding; connecting digital equipment;
connecting an SWR meter

T4A01 (B)
Which of the following is true concerning the microphone connectors on amateur
transceivers?
A. All transceivers use the same microphone connector type
B. Some connectors include push-to-talk and voltages for powering the microphone
C. All transceivers using the same connector type are wired identically
D. Un-keyed connectors allow any microphone to be connected
~~

T4A02 (D)
How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?
A. For logging contacts and contact information
B. For sending and/or receiving CW
C. For generating and decoding digital signals
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

T4A03 (A)
Which is a good reason to use a regulated power supply for communications
equipment?
A. It prevents voltage fluctuations from reaching sensitive circuits
B. A regulated power supply has FCC approval
C. A fuse or circuit breaker regulates the power
D. Power consumption is independent of load
~~

T4A04 (A)
Where must a filter be installed to reduce harmonic emissions from your station?
A. Between the transmitter and the antenna
B. Between the receiver and the transmitter
C. At the station power supply
D. At the microphone
~~

T4A05 (A)
Where should an in-line SWR meter be connected to monitor the standing wave
ratio of the station antenna system?
A. In series with the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna
B. In series with the station's ground
C. In parallel with the push-to-talk line and the antenna
D. In series with the power supply cable, as close as possible to the radio
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T4A06 (C)
Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in
a packet radio station?
A. Transmatch
B. Mixer
C. Terminal node controller
D. Antenna
~~

T4A07 (C)
How is a computer’s sound card used when conducting digital communications using
a computer?
A. The sound card communicates between the computer CPU and the video display
B. The sound card records the audio frequency for video display
C. The sound card provides audio to the microphone input and converts received
audio to digital form
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

T4A08 (D)
Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding?
A. Round stranded wire
B. Round copper-clad steel wire
C. Twisted-pair cable
D. Flat strap
~~

T4A09 (D)
Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF
current flowing on the shield of a microphone cable?
A. Band-pass filter
B. Low-pass filter
C. Preamplifier
D. Ferrite choke
~~

T4A10 (B)
What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a
mobile transceiver’s receive audio?
A. The ignition system
B. The alternator
C. The electric fuel pump
D. Anti-lock braking system controllers
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T4A11 (A)
Where should the negative return connection of a mobile transceiver's power
cable be connected?
A. At the battery or engine block ground strap
B. At the antenna mount
C. To any metal part of the vehicle
D. Through the transceiver’s mounting bracket
~~

T4A12 (D)
What could be happening if another operator reports a variable high-pitched
whine on the audio from your mobile transmitter?
A. Your microphone is picking up noise from an open window
B. You have the volume on your receiver set too high
C. You need to adjust your squelch control
D. Noise on the vehicle’s electrical system is being transmitted along with your
speech audio
~~

T4B - Operating controls: tuning; use of filters; squelch function; AGC;

repeater offset; memory channels

T4B01 (B)
What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too
high?
A. The output power might be too high
B. The output signal might become distorted
C. The frequency might vary
D. The SWR might increase
~~

T4B02 (A)
Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern
transceiver?
A. The keypad or VFO knob
B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
C. The Automatic Frequency Control
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

T4B03 (D)
What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver?
A. To set the highest level of volume desired
B. To set the transmitter power level
C. To adjust the automatic gain control
D. To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T4B04 (B)
What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency on your
transceiver?
A. Enable the CTCSS tones
B. Store the frequency in a memory channel
C. Disable the CTCSS tones
D. Use the scan mode to select the desired frequency
~~

T4B05 (C)
Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?
A. Change frequency slightly
B. Decrease the squelch setting
C. Turn on the noise blanker
D. Use the RIT control
~~

T4B06 (D)
Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-
sideband signal seems too high or low?
A. The AGC or limiter
B. The bandwidth selection
C. The tone squelch
D. The receiver RIT or clarifier
~~

T4B07 (B)
What does the term “RIT” mean?
A. Receiver Input Tone
B. Receiver Incremental Tuning
C. Rectifier Inverter Test
D. Remote Input Transmitter
~~

T4B08 (B)
What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a
multimode transceiver?
A. Permits monitoring several modes at once
B. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the
mode
C. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
D. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies
~~

T4B09 (C)
Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in
order to minimize noise and interference for SSB reception?
A. 500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 2400 Hz
D. 5000 Hz
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
T4B10 (A)
Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in
order to minimize noise and interference for CW reception?
A. 500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 2400 Hz
D. 5000 Hz
~~

T4B11 (C)
Which of the following describes the common meaning of the term "repeater
offset"?
A. The distance between the repeater’s transmit and receive antennas
B. The time delay before the repeater timer resets
C. The difference between the repeater’s transmit and receive frequencies
D. Matching the antenna impedance to the feed line impedance
~~

T4B12 (A)
What is the function of automatic gain control or AGC?
A. To keep received audio relatively constant
B. To protect an antenna from lightning
C. To eliminate RF on the station cabling
D. An asymmetric goniometer control used for antenna matching
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
SUBELEMENT G5 – ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES
G5A - Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance matching

G5A01 (C)
What is impedance?
A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B. The inverse of resistance
C. The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
D. The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
~~

G5A02 (B)
What is reactance?
A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or
inductance
C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is
de-energized
~~

G5A03 (D)
Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in
an inductor?
A. Conductance
B. Reluctance
C. Admittance
D. Reactance
~~

G5A04 (C)
Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a
capacitor?
A. Conductance
B. Reluctance
C. Reactance
D. Admittance
~~

G5A05 (D)
How does an inductor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
~~

G5A06 (A)
How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G5A07 (D)
What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output
impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?
A. The source delivers minimum power to the load
B. The electrical load is shorted
C. No current can flow through the circuit
D. The source can deliver maximum power to the load
~~

G5A08 (A)
Why is impedance matching important?
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
~~

G5A09 (B)
What unit is used to measure reactance?
A. Farad
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Siemens
~~

G5A10 (B)
What unit is used to measure impedance?
A. Volt
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Watt
~~

G5A11 (A)
Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC
circuits?
A. Insert an LC network between the two circuits
B. Reduce the power output of the first circuit
C. Increase the power output of the first circuit
D. Insert a circulator between the two circuits
~~

G5A12 (B)
What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
A. To minimize transmitter power output
B. To maximize the transfer of power
C. To reduce power supply ripple
D. To minimize radiation resistance
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G5A13 (D)
Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio
frequencies?
A. A transformer
B. A Pi-network
C. A length of transmission line
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

G5B - The Decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations;
sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations

G5B01 (B)
What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?
A. Approximately 2 dB
B. Approximately 3 dB
C. Approximately 6 dB
D. Approximately 12 dB
~~

G5B02 (C)
How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a
purely resistive parallel circuit?
A. It equals the average of each branch current
B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
~~

G5B03 (B)
How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm
load?
A. 0.5 watts
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 3200 watts
~~

G5B04 (A)
How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws
0.2 amperes?
A. 2.4 watts
B. 24 watts
C. 6 watts
D. 60 watts
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G5B05 (A)
How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through
1.25 kilohms resistance?
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
B. Approximately 61 watts
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
D. Approximately 11 watts
G5B06 (B)
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts
peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?
A. 1.4 watts
B. 100 watts
C. 353.5 watts
D. 400 watts
~~

G5B07 (C)
What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as
a DC voltage of the same value?
A. The peak-to-peak value
B. The peak value
C. The RMS value
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value
~~

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120
volts?
A. 84.8 volts
B. 169.7 volts
C. 240.0 volts
D. 339.4 volts
~~

G5B09 (B)
What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
A. 8.5 volts
B. 12 volts
C. 24 volts
D. 34 volts
~~

G5B10 (C)
What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1
dB?
A. 10.9 percent
B. 12.2 percent
C. 20.5 percent
D. 25.9 percent
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G5B11 (B)
What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated
carrier?
A. 0.707
B. 1.00
C. 1.414
D. 2.00
~~

G5B12 (B)
What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
A. 173 volts
B. 245 volts
C. 346 volts
D. 692 volts
~~

G5B13 (B)
What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter
connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?
A. 530 watts
B. 1060 watts
C. 1500 watts
D. 2120 watts
~~

G5B14 (B)
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts
peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?
A. 8.75 watts
B. 625 watts
C. 2500 watts
D. 5000 watts
~~

G5C – Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers

G5C01 (C)
What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer
when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
A. Capacitive coupling
B. Displacement current coupling
C. Mutual inductance
D. Mutual capacitance
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G5C02 (A)
What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage
step down transformer?
A. The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
B. The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
C. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent
overload
D. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent
overload
~~

G5C03 (B)
Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to
increase the resistance?
A. A resistor in parallel
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in series
D. A capacitor in parallel
~~
G5C04 (C)
What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?
A. 0.30 ohms
B. 0.33 ohms
C. 33.3 ohms
D. 300 ohms
~~

G5C05 (C)
If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of
each resistor?
A. 1500 ohms
B. 90 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 175 ohms
~~

G5C06 (C)
What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if
the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
A. 2370 volts
B. 540 volts
C. 26.7 volts
D. 5.9 volts
~~

G5C07 (A)
What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having
600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?
A. 12.2 to 1
B. 24.4 to 1
C. 150 to 1
D. 300 to 1
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G5C08 (D)
What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750
picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
A. 576.9 nanofarads
B. 1733 picofarads
C. 3583 picofarads
D. 10.750 nanofarads
~~

G5C09 (C)
What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
A. 0.30 microfarads
B. 0.33 microfarads
C. 33.3 microfarads
D. 300 microfarads
~~

G5C10 (C)
What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
A. 0.30 henrys
B. 3.3 henrys
C. 3.3 millihenrys
D. 30 millihenrys
~~

G5C11 (C)
What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50
millihenry inductor?
A. 0.07 millihenrys
B. 14.3 millihenrys
C. 70 millihenrys
D. 1000 millihenrys
~~

G5C12 (B)
What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a
50 microfarad capacitor?
A. 0.07 microfarads
B. 14.3 microfarads
C. 70 microfarads
D. 1000 microfarads
~~

G5C13 (C)
Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the
capacitance?
A. An inductor in series
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in parallel
D. A capacitor in series
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G5C14 (D)
Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the
inductance?
A. A capacitor in series
B. A resistor in parallel
C. An inductor in parallel
D. An inductor in series
~~

G5C15 (A)
What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor
connected in parallel?
A. 5.9 ohms
B. 0.17 ohms
C. 10000 ohms
D. 80 ohms
~~

G5C16 (B)
Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers
larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?
A. To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B. To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C. To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D. To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of
the secondary winding
~~

G5C17 (C)
What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?
A. 0.22 nF
B. 2.2 nF
C. 22 nF
D. 220 nF
~~

G5C18 (D)
What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?
A. 47 µF
B. 0.47 µF
C. 47,000 µF
D. 4.7 µF
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
SUBELEMENT G4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES
G4A – Station Operation and set up

G4A01 (B)
What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
~~

G4A02 (C)
What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when
receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D. Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
~~

G4A03 (C)
What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
A. The radio is operating at half power
B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D. The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
~~

G4A04 (B)
What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier
indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
A. A pronounced peak
B. A pronounced dip
C. No change will be observed
D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
~~

G4A05 (C)
What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power
amplifier?
A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B. To reduce harmonic radiation
C. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
D. To increase overall efficiency
~~

G4A06 (C)
What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an
impedance not equal to 50 ohms?
A. Balanced modulator
B. SWR Bridge
C. Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
D. Q Multiplier
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4A07 (D)
What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?
A. Insufficient drive power
B. Low input SWR
C. Shorting the input signal to ground
D. Excessive drive power
~~

G4A08 (D)
What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube
RF power amplifier?
A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
~~

G4A09 (C)
Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
A. To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B. To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C. To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly
before RF output is allowed
D. To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
~~

G4A10 (B)
What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C. VOX operation
D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
~~

G4A11 (A)
Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?
A. To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
B. To change frequency rapidly
C. To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are
transmitting
D. To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your
transmit frequency
~~

G4A12 (C)
Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a
transceiver?
A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B. To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the
same time
C. To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
D. To facilitate computer interface
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4A13 (A)
What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF
transceivers?
A. To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D. To slow down received CW signals for better copy
~~

G4A14 (B)
What is likely to happen if a transceiver’s ALC system is not set properly when
transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?
A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B. Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to
overheat
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

G4A15 (D)
Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an
audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?
A. The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
B. The transmitter signal is distorted
C. Frequent connection timeouts
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

G4B - Test and monitoring equipment; two-tone test

G4B01 (D)
What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
A. An ohmmeter
B. A signal generator
C. An ammeter
D. An oscilloscope
~~

G4B02 (D)
Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital
voltmeter?
A. An oscilloscope uses less power
B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
C. Input impedance is much lower
D. Complex waveforms can be measured
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4B03 (A)
Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying
waveform of a CW transmitter?
A. An oscilloscope
B. A field strength meter
C. A sidetone monitor
D. A wavemeter
~~

G4B04 (D)
What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when
checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
B. An external RF oscillator
C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
~~

G4B05 (D)
Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
A. It improves the frequency response
B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C. It improves the resolution of the readings
D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
~~

G4B06 (C)
What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?
A. Better for measuring computer circuits
B. Better for RF measurements
C. Better precision for most uses
D. Faster response
~~

G4B07 (B)
What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C. Two swept frequency tones
D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
~~

G4B08 (A)
Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output
when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
A. A field strength meter
B. An antenna noise bridge
C. A multimeter
D. A Q meter
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4B09 (B)
Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
A. The radiation resistance of an antenna
B. The radiation pattern of an antenna
C. The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
D. The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
~~

G4B10 (A)
Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
A. Standing wave ratio
B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
C. RF interference
D. Radio wave propagation
~~

G4B11 (C)
Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being
used for SWR measurements?
A. Receiver
B. Transmitter
C. Antenna and feed line
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

G4B12 (B)
What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an
antenna analyzer?
A. Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B. Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of
measurements
C. The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are
attempted
D. Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
~~

G4B13 (C)
What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna
system?
A. Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B. Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
C. Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
D. Determining the gain of a directional antenna
~~

G4B14 (D)
What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be
preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?
A. When testing logic circuits
B. When high precision is desired
C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D. When adjusting tuned circuits
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4B15 (A)
What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
A. Linearity
B. Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C. Percentage of frequency modulation
D. Percentage of carrier phase shift
~~

G4C - Interference with consumer electronics; grounding; DSP

G4C01 (B)
Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio
frequency devices?
A. Bypass inductor
B. Bypass capacitor
C. Forward-biased diode
D. Reverse-biased diode
~~

G4C02 (C)
Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of
frequencies?
A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
~~

G4C03 (C)
What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference
from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?
A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Distorted speech
D. Clearly audible speech
~~

G4C04 (A)
What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is
interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
A. On-and-off humming or clicking
B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C. A chirpy CW signal
D. Severely distorted audio
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4C05 (D)
What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment
while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a
ground rod?
A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C. The ground rod is resonant
D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
~~

G4C06 (C)
What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
A. Overheating of ground straps
B. Corrosion of the ground rod
C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D. A ground loop
~~

G4C07 (A)
What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur
station?
A. Connect all equipment grounds together
B. Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
C. Use a ground loop for best conductivity
D. Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your
station
~~

G4C08 (A)
Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode
current on an audio cable?
A. Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
~~

G4C09 (D)
How can a ground loop be avoided?
A. Connect all ground conductors in series
B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point
~~

G4C10 (A)
What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?
A. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4C11 (B)
Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?
A. To provide adequate grounding
B. To remove noise from received signals
C. To increase antenna gain
D. To increase antenna bandwidth
~~

G4C12 (A)
Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared
to an analog filter?
A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B. Fewer digital components are required
C. Mixing products are greatly reduced
D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
~~

G4C13 (B)
Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
A. Bandpass tuning
B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
C. Balanced mixing
D. A noise limiter
~~

G4D - Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges

G4D01 (A)
What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
A. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor
conditions
B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C. Prevent distortion of voice signals
D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
~~

G4D02 (B)
Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted
single sideband phone signal?
A. It increases peak power
B. It increases average power
C. It reduces harmonic distortion
D. It reduces intermodulation distortion
~~

G4D03 (D)
Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech
processor?
A. Distorted speech
B. Splatter
C. Excessive background pickup
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4D04 (C)
What does an S meter measure?
A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C. Received signal strength
D. Transmitter power output
~~

G4D05 (D)
How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a
receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
A. It is 10 times less powerful
B. It is 20 times less powerful
C. It is 20 times more powerful
D. It is 100 times more powerful
~~

G4D06 (A)
Where is an S meter found?
A. In a receiver
B. In an SWR bridge
C. In a transmitter
D. In a conductance bridge
~~

G4D07 (C)
How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the
S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
A. Approximately 1.5 times
B. Approximately 2 times
C. Approximately 4 times
D. Approximately 8 times
~~

G4D08 (C)
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed
carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
A. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
~~

G4D09 (B)
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed
carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4D10 (A)
How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should
your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
~~

G4D11 (B)
How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your
displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?
A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
~~

G4E - HF mobile radio installations; emergency and battery powered operation

G4E01 (C)
What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?
A. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B. To allow automatic band changing
C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D. To allow remote tuning
~~

G4E02 (D)
What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?
A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B. To increase the "Q" of the antenna
C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D. To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
~~

G4E03 (A)
Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a
100 watt HF mobile installation?
A. To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
C. To the battery using resistor wire
D. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4E04 (B)
Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a
vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?
A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the
transceiver
C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF
transceivers
D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to
overheat
~~

G4E05 (C)
Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver
operating in the 75-meter band?
A. "Picket Fencing" signal variation
B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C. The antenna system
D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
~~

G4E06 (C)
What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a
full size antenna?
A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B. Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D. Harmonic radiation may increase
~~

G4E07 (D)
Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an
HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?
A. The battery charging system
B. The fuel delivery system
C. The vehicle control computer
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

G4E08 (A)
What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into
electricity?
A. Photovoltaic conversion
B. Photon emission
C. Photosynthesis
D. Photon decomposition
~~

G4E09 (B)
What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon
photovoltaic cell?
A. 0.02 VDC
B. 0.5 VDC
C. 0.2 VDC
D. 1.38 VDC
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
G4E10 (B)
What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a
storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
A. The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
B. The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during
times of low or no illumination
C. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
~~

G4E11 (C)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of
power for an emergency station?
A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less
than 2 percent
B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with
amateur equipment
C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not
blowing
D. All of these choices are correct

source: www.ncvec.org
SUBELEMENT E5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES
E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits; series and parallel
resonance; Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits

E5A01 (A)
What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the
voltage applied to them?
A. Resonance
B. Capacitance
C. Conductance
D. Resistance
~~

E5A02 (C)
What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
A. The highest frequency that will pass current
B. The lowest frequency that will pass current
C. The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive
reactance
D. The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
~~

E5A03 (D)
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
~~

E5A04 (A)
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor
and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
~~

E5A05 (B)
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the
frequency goes through resonance?
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. R/L
D. L/R
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5A06 (B)
What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a
parallel LC circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root
of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by
inductance "L"
~~

E5A07 (A)
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at
resonance?
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. R/L
D. L/R
~~

E5A08 (C)
What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage
across a series resonant circuit at resonance?
A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are in phase
D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
~~

E5A09 (C)
What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage
across a parallel resonant circuit at resonance?
A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are in phase
D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
~~

E5A10 (A)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a
resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
A. 18.9 kHz
B. 1.89 kHz
C. 94.5 kHz
D. 9.45 kHz
~~

E5A11 (C)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a
resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
A. 157.8 Hz
B. 315.6 Hz
C. 47.3 kHz
D. 23.67 kHz
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5A12 (C)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a
resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
A. 436.6 kHz
B. 218.3 kHz
C. 31.4 kHz
D. 15.7 kHz
~~

E5A13 (B)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a
resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
A. 38.1 kHz
B. 76.2 kHz
C. 1.332 kHz
D. 2.665 kHz
~~

E5A14 (C)
What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50
microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
A. 44.72 MHz
B. 22.36 MHz
C. 3.56 MHz
D. 1.78 MHz
~~

E5A15 (B)
What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40
microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
A. 3.76 MHz
B. 1.78 MHz
C. 11.18 MHz
D. 22.36 MHz
~~

E5A16 (D)
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is
50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 23.5 MHz
B. 23.5 kHz
C. 7.12 kHz
D. 7.12 MHz
~~

E5A17 (A)
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is
25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 10.1 MHz
B. 63.2 MHz
C. 10.1 kHz
D. 63.2 kHz
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5B Time constants and phase relationships: RLC time constants; definition; time
constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase
angles of series and parallel circuits

E5B01 (B)
What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be
charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?
A. An exponential rate of one
B. One time constant
C. One exponential period
D. A time factor of one
~~

E5B02 (D)
What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit
to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
A. One discharge period
B. An exponential discharge rate of one
C. A discharge factor of one
D. One time constant
~~

E5B03 (D)
The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting
voltage after two time constants?
A. 86.5%
B. 63.2%
C. 36.8%
D. 13.5%
~~

E5B04 (D)
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and
two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
A. 55 seconds
B. 110 seconds
C. 440 seconds
D. 220 seconds
~~

E5B05 (A)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC
in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?
A. 0.02 seconds
B. 0.04 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 40 seconds
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5B06 (C)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC
in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
A. 4.50 seconds
B. 9 seconds
C. 450 seconds
D. 900 seconds
~~

E5B07 (C)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a
series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
~~

E5B08 (A)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a
series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
~~

E5B09 (D)
What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage
across a capacitor?
A. Voltage and current are in phase
B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
~~

E5B10 (A)
What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage
across an inductor?
A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D. Voltage and current are in phase
~~

E5B11 (B)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a
series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5B12 (C)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a
series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
~~

E5B13 (D)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a
series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
~~

E5C Impedance plots and coordinate systems: plotting impedances in polar

coordinates; rectangular coordinates

E5C01 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-
ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
B. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
C. 161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
D. 181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees
~~

E5C02 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-
ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor,
all connected in series?
A. 100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
B. 10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
C. 10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
D. 100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
~~

E5C03 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-
ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor,
all connected in series?
A. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
B. 900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
C. 400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
D. 1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5C04 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-
ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?
A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
~~

E5C05 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-
ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
~~

E5C06 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-
ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
B. 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
C. 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
~~

E5C07 (C)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-
reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
B. 51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
C. 71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
D. 91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
~~

E5C08 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-
reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
A. 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
B. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
C. 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
D. 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
~~

E5C09 (A)
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what
does the horizontal axis represent?
A. Resistive component
B. Reactive component
C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5C10 (B)
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what
does the vertical axis represent?
A. Resistive component
B. Reactive component
C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components
~~

E5C11 (C)
What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph
using rectangular coordinates?
A. The magnitude and phase of the point
B. The sine and cosine values
C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
D. The tangent and cotangent values
~~

E5C12 (D)
If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system
and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the
horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?
A. It has to be a direct current circuit
B. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
C. It contains resistance and inductive reactance
D. It is equivalent to a pure resistance
~~

E5C13 (D)
What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or
capacitive reactance components of an impedance?
A. Maidenhead grid
B. Faraday grid
C. Elliptical coordinates
D. Rectangular coordinates
~~

E5C14 (D)
What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit
containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
A. Maidenhead grid
B. Faraday grid
C. Elliptical coordinates
D. Polar coordinates
~~

E5C15 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms
impedance?
A. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
B. 100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
C. 100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5C16 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance
of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
A. 5.03 E–06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
C. 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
~~

E5C17 (C)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an
admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
A. 173 -j100 ohms
B. 200 +j100 ohms
C. 173 +j100 ohms
D. 200 -j100 ohms
~~

E5C18 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a
resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive
reactance of 1 ohm?
A. 6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
B. 5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
C. 5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
D. 10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees
~~

E5C19 (B)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
A. Point 2
B. Point 4
C. Point 5
D. Point 6
~~

E5C20 (B)
Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 7
D. Point 8
~~

E5C21 (A)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 7
D. Point 8
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5C22 (A)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a
10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?
A. 40 + j31,400
B. 40 - j31,400
C. 31,400 + j40
D. 31,400 - j40
~~

E5C23 (D)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad
capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 5
D. Point 8
~~

E5D AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and

electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor; coordinate systems

E5D01 (A)
What is the result of skin effect?
A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor,
closer to the surface
B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor,
closer to the surface
C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
~~

E5D02 (C)
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct
currents?
A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect
C. Because of skin effect
D. Because conductors are non-linear devices
~~

E5D03 (C)
What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
A. A battery
B. A transformer
C. A capacitor
D. An inductor
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5D04 (B)
What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
A. Coulomb
B. Joule
C. Watt
D. Volt
~~

E5D05 (B)
Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
A. Potential differences between two points in space
B. Electric current
C. A charged capacitor
D. A battery
~~

E5D06 (D)
In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation
to the direction of electron flow?
A. In the same direction as the current
B. In a direction opposite to the current
C. In all directions; omnidirectional
D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
~~

E5D07 (D)
What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
A. The resistance divided by the current
B. The ratio of the current to the resistance
C. The diameter of the conductor
D. The amount of current
~~

E5D08 (B)
What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
A. Electromechanical energy
B. Potential energy
C. Thermodynamic energy
D. Kinetic energy
~~

E5D09 (B)
What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors
and ideal capacitors?
A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
B. It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric
fields, but is not dissipated
C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5D10 (A)
How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and
current are out of phase?
A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
~~

E5D11 (C)
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle
between the voltage and the current?
A. 1.414
B. 0.866
C. 0.5
D. 1.73
~~

E5D12 (B)
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the
input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
A. 400 watts
B. 80 watts
C. 2000 watts
D. 50 watts
~~

E5D13 (B)
How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in
series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
A. 70.7 Watts
B. 100 Watts
C. 141.4 Watts
D. 200 Watts
~~

E5D14 (A)
What is reactive power?
A. Wattless, nonproductive power
B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage
D. Power consumed in circuit Q
~~

E5D15 (D)
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between
the voltage and the current?
A. 0.866
B. 1.0
C. 0.5
D. 0.707
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E5D16 (C)
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between
the voltage and the current?
A. 1.73
B. 0.5
C. 0.866
D. 0.577
~~

E5D17 (D)
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the
input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?
A. 200 watts
B. 1000 watts
C. 1600 watts
D. 600 watts
~~

E5D18 (B)
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the
apparent power is 500 VA?
A. 704 W
B. 355 W
C. 252 W
D. 1.42 mW
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
SUBELEMENT E4 – AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES
E4A Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network
analyzers, antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; testing transistors; RF
measurements

E4A01 (C)
How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays
electrical signals
B. A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope
displays the average amplitude of signals
C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope
displays signals in the time domain
D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays
audio frequencies
~~

E4A02 (D)
Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the
horizontal axis?
A. SWR
B. Q
C. Time
D. Frequency
~~

E4A03 (A)
Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the
vertical axis?
A. Amplitude
B. Duration
C. SWR
D. Q
~~

E4A04 (A)
Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from
a radio transmitter?
A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A wattmeter
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer
~~

E4A05 (B)
Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation
distortion products in an SSB transmission?
A. A wattmeter
B. A spectrum analyzer
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4A06 (D)
Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter
duplexer
B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
C. The spectral output of a transmitter
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4A07 (B)
Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to
an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
B. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation
envelope
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4A08 (D)
Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam
antenna?
A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A Q meter
C. An ohmmeter
D. An antenna analyzer
~~

E4A09 (A)
Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation
distortion of your own PSK signal?
A. Transmit into a dummy load, receive the signal on a second receiver, and feed
the audio into the sound card of a computer running an appropriate PSK program
B. Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the
average power output
C. Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate
isolation to prevent damage to the meter
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4A10 (D)
Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor
is biased on?
A. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be
approximately
6 to 7 ohms
B. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be
approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
C. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
6 to 7 volts
D. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
0.6 to 0.7 volts
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4A11 (B)
Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital
signals?
A. Dip meter
B. Oscilloscope
C. Ohmmeter
D. Q meter
~~

E4A12 (B)
Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when
connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?
A. Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
C. Match the antenna to the load
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4B Measurement techniques: Instrument accuracy and performance limitations;

probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of Q; instrument calibration

E4B01 (B)
Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
A. Input attenuator accuracy
B. Time base accuracy
C. Decade divider accuracy
D. Temperature coefficient of the logic
~~

E4B02 (C)
What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions
B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
C. The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done very
precisely
D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format
~~

E4B03 (C)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could
differ from the reading?
A. 165.2 Hz
B. 14.652 kHz
C. 146.52 Hz
D. 1.4652 MHz
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4B04 (A)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could
differ from the reading?
A. 14.652 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 1.4652 Hz
D. 1.4652 kHz
~~

E4B05 (D)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000
Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the
reading?
A. 146.52 Hz
B. 10 Hz
C. 146.52 kHz
D. 1465.20 Hz
~~

E4B06 (D)
How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter
connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward
power and 25 watts reflected power?
A. 100 watts
B. 125 watts
C. 25 watts
D. 75 watts
~~

E4B07 (A)
Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
A. Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
B. Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
C. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4B08 (C)
Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
A. High reluctance input
B. Low reluctance input
C. High impedance input
D. Low impedance input
~~

E4B09 (D)
What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with
the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to
resonance?
A. There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
B. The transmitter is not properly neutralized
C. There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
D. There is more power going into the antenna
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4B10 (B)
Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion
in an SSB transmitter?
A. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies
and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies
and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
C. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and
observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
D. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and
observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
~~

E4B11 (D)
How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna
resonance and feed point impedance?
A. Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
B. Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
C. Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
~~

E4B12 (A)
What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?
A. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt
rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter
B. When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt
will determine the power drawn by the device under test
C. When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will
determine the voltage applied to the circuit
D. When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt
will determine the size of shunt needed
~~

E4B13 (A)
How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
A. A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal
portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
B. A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum
amplitude
C. A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the
deflection time is accurate
D. A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the
displayed voltage is accurate
~~

E4B14 (B)
What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being
checked?
A. Harmonics are generated
B. A less accurate reading results
C. Cross modulation occurs
D. Intermodulation distortion occurs
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4B15 (C)
Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a
series-tuned circuit?
A. The inductance to capacitance ratio
B. The frequency shift
C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
D. The resonant frequency of the circuit
~~

E4C Receiver performance characteristics: phase noise; capture effect; noise

floor; image rejection; MDS; signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity

E4C01 (D)
What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a
receiver?
A. It limits the receiver’s ability to receive strong signals
B. It reduces receiver sensitivity
C. It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception
of weak signals
~~

E4C02 (A)
Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating
image signal interference?
A. A front-end filter or pre-selector
B. A narrow IF filter
C. A notch filter
D. A properly adjusted product detector
~~

E4C03 (C)
What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM
phone signal?
A. Desensitization
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Capture effect
D. Frequency discrimination
~~

E4C04 (D)
What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver?
A. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
B. The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a
resistive network
C. The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the
theoretical minimum noise
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4C05 (B)
What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a
receiver?
A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
D. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
~~

E4C06 (D)
A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -
174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this
receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise
bandwidth?
A. 174 dBm
B. -164 dBm
C. -155 dBm
D. -148 dBm
~~

E4C07 (B)
What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
A. The meter display sensitivity
B. The minimum discernible signal
C. The multiplex distortion stability
D. The maximum detectable spectrum
~~

E4C08 (B)
How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
A. It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
B. It would improve weak signal sensitivity
C. It would reduce bandwidth
D. It would increase bandwidth
~~

E4C09 (C)
Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency
for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
A. Fewer components in the receiver
B. Reduced drift
C. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
D. Improved receiver noise figure
~~

E4C10 (B)
Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY
HF receiver?
A. 100 Hz
B. 300 Hz
C. 6000 Hz
D. 2400 Hz
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4C11 (B)
Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB
phone receiver?
A. 1 kHz
B. 2.4 kHz
C. 4.2 kHz
D. 4.8 kHz
~~

E4C12 (D)
What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF
section of a receiver?
A. Output-offset overshoot
B. Filter ringing
C. Thermal-noise distortion
D. Undesired signals may be heard
~~

E4C13 (C)
How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
A. It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
C. It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive
frequency
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4C14 (D)
On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is
generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which
uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
A. 13.845 MHz
B. 14.755 MHz
C. 14.445 MHz
D. 15.210 MHz
~~

E4C15 (D)
What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with
an antenna connected?
A. Detector noise
B. Induction motor noise
C. Receiver front-end noise
D. Atmospheric noise
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4D Receiver performance characteristics: blocking dynamic range;
intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept;
desensitization; preselection

E4D01 (A)
What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
A. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming
signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
B. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will
cause one signal to block the other
C. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept
point
D. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order
intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
~~

E4D02 (A)
Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a
communications receiver?
A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong
adjacent signals
B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to
recover the opposite sideband
C. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to
operate the speaker
D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest
received signals
~~

E4D03 (B)
How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
A. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in
the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final
amplifier of one or both transmitters
C. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from
airplanes passing overhead
D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes
passing overhead
~~

E4D04 (B)
Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a
repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
A. A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
B. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
C. A Class C final amplifier
D. A Class D final amplifier
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4D05 (A)
What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a
receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
D. 173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
~~

E4D06 (D)
What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more
signals?
A. Amplifier desensitization
B. Neutralization
C. Adjacent channel interference
D. Intermodulation interference
~~

E4D07 (D)
Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency
signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
A. A large increase in background noise
B. A reduction in apparent signal strength
C. The desired signal can no longer be heard
D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
~~

E4D08 (C)
What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
A. Too little gain
B. Lack of neutralization
C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
D. Positive feedback
~~

E4D09 (C)
What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
A. To store often-used frequencies
B. To provide a range of AGC time constants
C. To increase rejection of unwanted signals
D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
~~

E4D10 (C)
What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver
performance?
A. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order
intermodulation products
B. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without
producing third-order intermodulation products
C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order
intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation
product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4D11 (A)
Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of
particular interest compared to other products?
A. The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is
also likely to be within the band
B. The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
C. Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
D. Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal
within the band of interest
~~

E4D12 (A)
What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong
signal near the received frequency?
A. Desensitization
B. Quieting
C. Cross-modulation interference
D. Squelch gain rollback
~~

E4D13 (B)
Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
A. Audio gain adjusted too low
B. Strong adjacent-channel signals
C. Audio bias adjusted too high
D. Squelch gain misadjusted
~~

E4D14 (A)
Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver
desensitization?
A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
C. Increase the receiver front end gain
D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4E Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise;
locating noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers

E4E01 (A)
Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a
receiver noise blanker?
A. Ignition noise
B. Broadband white noise
C. Heterodyne interference
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4E02 (D)
Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP
noise filter?
A. Broadband white noise
B. Ignition noise
C. Power line noise
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4E03 (B)
Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove
from desired signals?
A. Signals which are constant at all IF levels
B. Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
C. Signals which appear at one IF but not another
D. Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
~~

E4E04 (D)
How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be
suppressed?
A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by
installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
B. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both
leads
C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a
low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by
installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
~~

E4E05 (B)
How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
A. By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor’s power leads
B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the
motor
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4E06 (B)
What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
A. Solar radio frequency emissions
B. Thunderstorms
C. Geomagnetic storms
D. Meteor showers
~~

E4E07 (C)
How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your
home?
A. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a
battery operated radio
D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
~~

E4E08 (A)
What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?
A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
B. An electrical-sparking signal
C. A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
D. Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
~~

E4E09 (C)
What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission
standards
D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated
~~

E4E10 (D)
What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled
electrical device?
A. The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier
modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
B. The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
C. The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at
regular intervals across a HF band
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4E11 (B)
Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations
of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
A. The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast
signals
C. You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
D. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
~~

source: www.ncvec.org
E4E12 (A)
What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when
attempting to copy CW signals?
A. The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes
interfering signals
B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired
signal
C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW
characters
~~

E4E13 (D)
What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that
comes and goes at intervals?
A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
B. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
C. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4E14 (C)
What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the
operation of a nearby personal computer?
A. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific
frequencies
D. A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
~~

source: www.ncvec.org