SS 04 Quiz 1 - Answers
SS 04 Quiz 1 - Answers
Can an economy that is at long-run equilibrium adjust to produce real GDP which is greater than full-employment real GDP in the
short run?
✗ A) No.
✓ B) Yes, if aggregate demand increases.
✗ C) Yes, if wages increase.
Explanation
An increase in aggregate demand when the economy is operating at long-run equilibrium (at full employment) will increase both
the price level and real GDP in the short run.
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Consider an economy in which labor's relative share of national income is 60%. For which of the following sources of economic
growth will a 1% increase result in the largest increase in potential GDP?
✗ A) Labor.
✗ B) Capital.
✓ C) Technology.
Explanation
The contributions of technology, labor, and capital to potential GDP can be modeled as follows: Growth in potential GDP = growth
in technology + WL(growth in labor) + WC(growth in capital), where WL is labor's relative share of national income, WC is capital's
relative share of national income, and WL + WC =1.
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✗ A) real GDP.
✗ B) real interest rates.
Explanation
A decrease (shift to the left) in short-run aggregate supply results in lower output and a higher price level. A decrease in short-run
aggregate supply will likely cause nominal and real interest rates to decrease.
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✓ A) demand-pull inflation.
✗ B) stagflation.
✗ C) cost-push inflation.
Explanation
A decrease in taxes, other things equal, will increase personal disposable income and the consumption spending component of
aggregate demand. An increase in aggregate demand from a position of long-run equilibrium is the most likely cause of
demand-pull inflation.
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Explanation
The peak phase of a business cycle represents the highest level of economic output (real GDP) reached during that cycle.
Inflation pressure that built during the expansion may continue into the early part of the contraction that follows the peak.
Employment typically does not begin to decline until sometime after the peak.
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Bradley works a 14-hour-per-week job as a bartender at McQuigley's Pub. Maddeline left her position at a commercial bank to
raise her two-year old daughter. How would these individuals be classified from the viewpoint of employment statistics?
Bradley Maddeline
✓ A) Not in labor
Employed
force
✗ B) Not in labor
Not in labor force
force
✗ C) Employed Employed
Explanation
The labor force includes all people who are either employed or actively seeking employment. As such, Bradley is considered
employed from the viewpoint of employment statistics whereas Maddeline is not counted in the labor force.
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Explanation
In Austrian school business cycle theory, cycles are caused by government intervention that reduces interest rates below what
they would be without government intervention, which leads to an artificial economic boom that must eventually collapse because
the economy lacks the physical capital to support it.
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Explanation
Stagflation refers to an economic environment where high unemployment and high inflation exist at the same time.
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Which method of calculating gross domestic product requires data from each stage of production of goods?
✗ A) Income method.
Explanation
The sum-of-value-added method of calculating GDP requires data on the value added to goods at each stage of production and
distribution. The value-of-final-output method only requires data on the final values of goods and services. The income approach
to calculating GDP measures the total income of households and companies, rather than the value of goods and services.
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The difference between personal income and personal disposable income is:
✓ A) taxes.
✗ B) savings.
✗ C) fixed expenses.
Explanation
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A shirt with a retail price of $50 is produced using cloth with a value of $40. The cloth is produced from cotton with a value of $30.
Using the sum-of-value-added method, what is the total value added to gross domestic product by producing the shirt?
✓ A) $50.
✗ B) $70.
✗ C) $20.
Explanation
Producing the shirt adds $50 to GDP under either the sum-of-value-added approach or the value-of-final-output approach.
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Which of the following statements about biases that affect the consumer price index (CPI) is least accurate?
✗ A) The basket of goods on which the CPI is based becomes a less accurate measure of household
costs as new goods appear on the market.
Explanation
The CPI is generally believed to overestimate inflation by about 1% per year. Upward biases include quality improvements (price
increases due to improving quality do not represent inflation but are reflected in the CPI), new and more expensive goods
replacing older and less expensive goods, and commodity substitution (consumers substitute less expensive goods for more
expensive ones, rather than continuing to consume a fixed basket of goods).
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✗ A) expansion.
✗ B) trough.
✓ C) restriction.
Explanation
The four phases of a business cycle are expansion, peak, contraction (recession), and trough.
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Key Concepts by LOS
Which type of unemployment describes a situation where workers who have been laid off due to economic changes and they are
unable to find work due to a lack of education or the necessary skills to move into another available job?
✗ A) Frictional.
✗ B) Cyclical.
✓ C) Structural.
Explanation
Structural unemployment is due to structural changes in the economy that eliminate some jobs while generating job openings for
which unemployed workers are not qualified. Cyclical unemployment is when the economy is operating at less than full capacity.
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Explanation
An increase in real interest rates can be expected to decrease business investment and decrease consumption. The impact on
government spending and net exports is not clear-cut.
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✗ B) Statistical discrepancy.
Explanation
Indirect business taxes are not subtracted because they are included in national income.
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If both aggregate demand and short-run aggregate supply decrease, the price level:
✗ A) will increase.
✓ B) may increase or decrease.
✗ C) will decrease.
Explanation
The effect on the price level of decreases in both AD and SRAS depends on the relative size of the decreases in AD and SRAS.
An increase in AD increases the price level, but an increase in SRAS tends to decrease the price level, so their combined effect
could be an increase or a decrease in the price level.
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If money wages increase, other things equal, the most likely result is a:
An increase in the wage rate decreases short-run aggregate supply, leading to a short-run recessionary gap.
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In the production function approach to analyzing economic growth, total factor productivity accounts for:
Explanation
The production function as defined as Y = A × f(L, K) where Y is the aggregate output; L = quantity of labor; K = amount of capital
available; and A = total factor productivity. Total factor productivity represents output growth not directly attributable to changes in
the quantities of either labor or capital, and is thought to primarily reflect technological advances.
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Explanation
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✗ A) coincident indicator.
✓ B) lagging indicator.
✗ C) leading indicator.
Explanation
The inventory-to-sales ratio for manufacturing and trade is considered a lagging indicator because it peaks after the economy
does, even though it is sometimes used in forecasting economic activity.
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✗ A) Smith was laid off due to negative growth of GDP, and did not seek other employment until he was
recalled to his job.
✓ B) When the plant was modernized, Jones lost her job because she did not have the skill needed to
operate the new equipment.
✗ C) Although there were jobs available, Johnson was unable to find an employer with a satisfactory
opening.
Explanation
Structural unemployment exists when changes in the economy eliminate some jobs while generating new job openings for which
unemployed workers are not qualified.
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Which of the following economic indicators is classified as a leading indicator for the United States economy?
Explanation
Consumer expectations are a leading indicator. Industrial production is a coincident indicator. Average duration of unemployment
is a lagging indicator.
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Explanation
As capacity utilization rates increase to high levels (typically 80% to 85%), business investment in plant and equipment
increases, shifting the AD curve to the right. A change in the price level represents a movement along the demand curve, not a
shift in it. Appreciation of the country's currency increases the cost of exports and reduces the cost of imports, which shifts the
aggregate demand curve to the left (net exports decrease).
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✓ B) coincident indicator.
✗ C) leading indicator.
Explanation
Manufacturing and trade sales are a coincident indicator that generally reflects the current phase of the business cycle.
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A firm's most likely initial response to a cyclical increase in the inventory-to-sales ratio is to adjust their utilization of labor by:
✓ B) reducing overtime.
✗ C) laying off employees.
Explanation
As a cyclical indicator, an increase in the inventory-to-sales ratio is a sign of slowing economic growth. When decreasing their
utilization of labor in response to a slowing economy, firms typically first reduce overtime. Firms tend to be slow to lay off workers
until it is clear that an economic contraction is underway.
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Which of the following is the most accurate definition of the unemployment rate? The unemployment rate is the number of:
✗ A) individuals employed divided by the number of people who are unemployed and retired.
✗ B) unemployed individuals divided by the number of employed individuals.
Explanation
The unemployment rate of a country is the percentage of people in the labor force who are unemployed. It is calculated as:
unemployment rate = (number of unemployed / labor force) × 100. The labor force includes those individuals who are employed
or are actively seeking employment.
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Over the last five years, in the country of Midlothian, both the labor supply and the real stock of physical capital have increased
by 20% and real GDP increased 22%. The reason that real GDP growth was greater than input growth over the period is most
likely that:
Explanation
Any excess of real GDP growth over the rate of growth in labor and capital indicates there has been an increase in total factor
productivity.
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Explanation
Stages of processing are components of producer price indexes. Consumer price indexes compare the current prices of a typical
consumption basket to prices in a base year.
References
Question From: Session 4 > Reading 17 > LOS f
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An increase in aggregate demand can result in output greater than potential GDP in:
Explanation
From long-run equilibrium, an increase in aggregate demand can result in short-run equilibrium output greater than potential
GDP. However, this above-full-employment output cannot be sustained in the long run because upward pressure on input costs
(e.g., wages) will decrease short-run aggregate supply, decreasing output back to the full-employment level in the long run.
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Which one of the following is most likely to experience loss of wealth from an increase in the inflation rate?
✗ A) An individual investor who recently purchased a substantial amount of variable rate bonds.
✗ B) An individual investor who financed the purchase of a home with a 30-year fixed rate mortgage.
✓ C) A commercial bank that has a large quantity of fixed-rate mortgages in its loan portfolio.
Explanation
If an economy experiences inflation, the losers are those who hold long-term contracts in which they are to receive fixed
payments. A bank that has a large quantity of fixed-rate mortgages in its loan portfolio (i.e., they are investments for the bank) is
receiving fixed-rate payments. Both remaining choices are investors who are either making fixed rate payments (the homeowner)
or receiving floating-rate payments (the investor in variable rate bonds).
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Key Concepts by LOS
✓ A) deflation.
✗ B) hyperinflation.
✗ C) disinflation.
Explanation
Deflation is a sustained decline in the price level, which is reflected in a negative inflation rate. Disinflation refers to a decrease in
the inflation rate over time but does not imply a negative inflation rate. Hyperinflation is an extremely high and accelerating
inflation rate.
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As an economic expansion approaches its peak, the economy is most likely to show:
Explanation
As the economy approaches its peak, sales growth begins to slow, unsold inventories begin to accumulate, and the inventory-
to-sales ratio increases.
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Explanation
If business and consumer optimism wanes, consumers will spend less and defer current consumption and save more of their
disposable income. With reduced product demand, businesses will reduce their capital expenditures and investments. These
actions will lead businesses to reduce their number of employees, thereby increasing the rate of unemployment. Moreover,
current output will decrease and the price level will fall.
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The sustainable growth rate of real GDP is most likely to be increased by:
Explanation
Sustainable growth in real GDP is defined as the growth rate in real GDP that is sustainable over the long term. The sustainable
growth rate is positively affected by increases in the supply of natural resources, the supply of physical capital, or the supply or
productivity of labor. An increase in government spending does not increase an economy's sustainable growth rate.
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✓ A) technology.
✗ B) labor.
✗ C) capital.
Explanation
Total factor productivity represents increased productivity that cannot be directly accounted for by increases in capital and labor,
and is generally considered to be driven by changes in technology.
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✗ A) Substitution
✓ B) Sample selection
✗ C) Quality changes
Explanation
The three sources of bias associated with CPI data are: new goods, quality changes, and substitution.
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Explanation
A Laspeyres price index tends to overstate the inflation rate because it uses fixed market basket weights from a base period.
This does not consider that consumers will substitute away from goods that have risen dramatically in price.
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A price index that is calculated using the current weights of the index's basket of goods and services is known as a:
Explanation
A chained or chain-weighted price index uses updated weights for each good and service in its market basket. A price index that
is not chain-weighted, such as a Laspeyres index, is calculated using weights for each good and service in the market basket as
of the index's base period. Hedonic pricing is a technique used to adjust a price index for upward bias from quality changes of
goods in its market basket.
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If a fiscal budget deficit increases, which of the following factors must also increase if all other factors are held constant?
✗ A) Investment.
✓ B) Savings.
✗ C) Trade surplus.
Explanation
The relationship between the fiscal balance, savings, investment, and the trade balance is (G − T) = (S − I) − (X − M). An
increase in a fiscal budget deficit (G − T) must be funded by an increase in savings (S), a decrease in investment (I), or a
decrease in net exports (X − M), which would decrease a trade surplus or increase a trade deficit.
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When the economy enters an expansion phase, the most likely effect on external trade is a(n):
✗ A) decrease in exports.
✓ B) increase in imports.
✗ C) increase in exports.
Explanation
When the domestic economy is expanding, demand for imports is likely to increase as domestic incomes increase. Exports tend
to be independent of domestic economic growth and are more closely related to trading partners' economic growth.
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If the government is running a budget deficit, which of the following relationships are least likely to occur in the economy at the
same time?
Savings relative to
Exports relative to imports
investment
Explanation
A government budget deficit, a trade surplus, and an excess of private investment over private savings cannot all occur at the
same time. If the government runs a budget deficit, the deficit must be financed by a trade deficit (exports < imports), surplus
private savings (private savings > private investment), or both.
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Because some input prices do not adjust rapidly to changes in the price level, the short-run aggregate supply curve:
✗ A) exhibits a negative relationship between quantity supplied and the price level.
✗ B) may be interpreted as representing the economy's potential output.
✓ C) is more elastic than the long-run aggregate supply curve.
Explanation
The short-run aggregate supply curve slopes upward (i.e., is not perfectly inelastic) because in the short run some input prices do
not adjust fully to changes in the price level. Because firms can increase profit in the short run by increasing output in response to
higher prices, there is a positive short-run relationship between the price level and quantity supplied.
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✓ A) increasing unemployment.
Explanation
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Explanation
Sources of sustainable long-run economic growth (increases in long-run aggregate supply) include increases in the labor force,
human capital (the education and skill level of the labor force), the stock of physical capital, the supply of natural resources, and
the level of technology. Increases in the money supply or government spending increase aggregate demand but do not increase
long-run aggregate supply.
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Explanation
While an increase in real wealth will shift the AD curve to the right, an increase in the real rate of interest will shift the AD curve to
the left as consumers and businesses reduce their borrowing and spending. An expected decrease in prices will shift the AD
curve to the left as households and businesses postpone their consumption in anticipation of lower prices in the future.
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Explanation
The LM curve illustrates the relationship between real income and the real interest rate, for a given level of the real money
supply.
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Explanation
Cost-push inflation typically results from a significant price increase in a production input that causes a decrease in short-run
aggregate supply.
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Nominal GDP for the year 20X7 is $784 billion and real GDP is $617 billion. If the base period for the GDP deflator is 20X1, the
annual rate of increase in the GDP deflator since the base year is closest to:
✗ A) 3.5%.
✓ B) 4.0%.
✗ C) 4.5%.
Explanation
GDP deflator = $784 billion / $617 billion × 100 = 127.07. Annual rate of increase = (127.07 / 100)1/6 - 1 = 0.0407 = 4.07%.
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Compared to GDP calculated using the sum-of-value-added method, GDP using the value-of-final-output method will be:
✗ A) biased downward.
✗ B) biased upward.
✓ C) equal to it.
Explanation
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When individuals are unemployed because they do not have perfect information concerning available jobs, this is:
✓ A) frictional unemployment.
✗ B) structural unemployment.
✗ C) natural unemployment.
Explanation
Frictional unemployment exists because workers and employers do not have perfect information and must expend time and
resources on search activities.
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✗ A) elastic because most input prices are variable in the long run.
✗ B) perfectly elastic because input prices are sticky in the long run.
✓ C) perfectly inelastic because input prices change proportionately with the price level in the long run.
Explanation
The long-run aggregate supply curve is perfectly inelastic because in the long run, wages and other input prices adjust to
changes in the overall price level. Long-run aggregate supply equals potential GDP.
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Firms' initial responses to an emerging economic contraction are most likely to be:
Explanation
Early in an economic contraction, firms typically reduce output by using capital and labor less intensively than during an
expansion (e.g., by reducing overtime). When they believe a contraction is likely to persist, firms decrease capacity by laying off
workers and reducing their physical capital, often by deferring maintenance or not replacing worn-out equipment.
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Which type of unemployment describes situations where qualified workers are not immediately matched with existing job
openings?
✗ A) Cyclical.
✗ B) Structural.
✓ C) Frictional.
Explanation
Frictional unemployment will prevent qualified workers from being immediately matched with existing job openings. Two causes
are imperfect information and the job search conducted by both employers and employees.
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Total investment is one of the components of a country's GDP. Which of the following is least likely to be considered a source of
funds for investment?
✗ A) Foreign borrowing.
✓ B) Household expenditures.
✗ C) National savings.
Explanation
Total investment is one of the major components of GDP (the others are consumption, government spending, and net exports).
Investment is defined as expenditures allocated to fixed assets and inventory. The sources of funds for investment are national
savings, foreign borrowing, and government savings.
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Nominal GDP is $562 billion and the GDP deflator is 119. Using base-year prices, real GDP is closest to:
✗ A) $440 billion.
✓ B) $470 billion.
✗ C) $560 billion.
Explanation
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Which of the following factors would least likely result in demand-pull inflation? An increase in:
✓ B) energy prices.
✗ C) exports.
Explanation
Demand-pull inflation can result from any factor that increases aggregate demand, including increases in the money supply,
increases in exports, and increases in government purchases. Increases in the prices of productive inputs would result in
cost-push inflation as aggregate supply decreases.
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If the GDP deflator is less than 100, then real GDP is:
Explanation
The GDP deflator is calculated by dividing the value of nominal GDP by the value of real GDP. In most cases the GDP deflator is
greater than 100; a value greater than 100 means prices have increased. A GDP deflator less than 100 shows that prices have
decreased and the value of real GDP is greater than the value of nominal GDP.
References
Question From: Session 4 > Reading 16 > LOS c
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Explanation
Aggregate income and aggregate output (gross domestic product) must be equal for an economy as a whole.
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Explanation
Gross domestic product (GDP) is the sum of the market values of all goods and services produced during a measurement period.
Goods purchased during the measurement period that were produced earlier are not included in GDP. Goods produced during
the measurement period but not purchased, such as goods produced for inventory, are included in GDP.
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✗ A) When price levels rise, real wealth increases, and individuals will spend more.
✓ B) When price levels rise, real wealth decreases, and individuals will spend less.
✗ C) When price levels fall, real wealth increases, and individuals will spend less.
Explanation
When price levels rise, real wealth decreases, and we would expect individuals to spend less. If the converse were also true-if
price levels were to fall-real wealth should increase, and we would expect individuals to spend more, all else being equal.
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Joe Lebow, an analyst, is discussing the difference between inflation and price level. Lebow states: "The higher the price level in
the current year compared to the price level in the previous year, the higher is the inflation rate of a country. Any increase in the
price level is evidence of positive inflation." Lebow's statement is:
✓ B) incorrect because not all increases in the price level indicate inflation.
✗ C) correct.
Explanation
Lebow is incorrect because a one-time increase in the price level is not necessarily inflation. Inflation is an on-going process, not
a one-time increase in the price level.
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The relationship between savings (S), investment (I), government spending (G), government tax revenue (T), exports (X), and
imports (M) is:
✓ A) (S − I) = (G − T) + (X − M).
✗ B) (G − T) = (S − I) + (X − M).
✗ C) (X − M) = (S − I) + (G − T).
Explanation
The fundamental relationship of saving to investment, the fiscal balance, and the trade balance is S = I + (G − T) + (X − M), or (S
− I) = (G − T) + (X − M). This relationship can be solved for the fiscal balance, (G − T) = (S − I) − (X − M), or for the trade
balance, (X − M) = (S − I) − (G − T).
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Explanation
In Keynesian business cycle theory, business cycles are caused primarily by changes in expectations about economic growth.
Business managers overinvest when they are excessively optimistic and underinvest when they are excessively pessimistic.
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Explanation
National income is the sum of employee wages and benefits, corporate and government enterprise profits before tax, interest
income, unincorporated business owners' income, rental income, and indirect business taxes less subsidies. Capital
consumption allowance is an estimate of depreciation during the measurement period. Statistical discrepancy is an adjustment to
GDP when measured using the income approach, which accounts for differences from the data used to calculate GDP using the
expenditure approach.
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Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding monetarists? Monetarists believe that:
✗ B) discretionary monetary policy is the best way to moderate fluctuations in prices and output.
✗ C) fiscal policy is the most powerful of all government tools used to affect prices and output.
Explanation
Monetarists believe that the Fed's tools are powerful and should not be used to moderate fluctuations in prices and outputs. Thus, steady,
predictable growth is the best monetary policy. They believe in the power of the money supply, not fiscal policy, to affect prices and outputs.
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Steve Walker, CFA, is attending an economics lecture, during which the lecturer makes the following two statements about
consumer price inflation:
Statement 1: High-definition televisions are considerably more expensive than traditional models. This means consumers are
spending more money per television unit, which represents a form of inflation.
Statement 2: Employment contracts with automatic increases based on the Consumer Price Index fail to increase wages in line
with the cost of living because of biases in the price index.
Statement 1 Statement 2
✗ A) Agree Agree
✓ B) Disagree Disagree
✗ C) Disagree Agree
Explanation
Walker should disagree with both statements. Price changes resulting from increases in the quality of goods, do not represent
inflation. However, the Consumer Price Index is affected by biases from product quality, as well as new goods and substitution,
causing it to overstate the rate of inflation. As a result, increases in wages that are based on CPI will more than compensate for
actual increases in the cost of living.
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Which of the following factors is most likely to increase long-run aggregate supply?
Explanation
Factors that shift the long-run aggregate supply curve (LAS) to the right include improvements in technology and productivity,
increases in the supply of resources, and institutional changes that increase the efficiency of resource use. An increase in the
productivity of the average worker is likely to shift the LAS curve to the right. Wage rate changes shift the short-run aggregate
supply curve (SAS) but not the LAS curve. A decline in consumer demand would represent a move down the LAS curve but not a
shift in LAS.
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Explanation
The long-run aggregate supply curve is perfectly inelastic because in the long run all input prices change in proportion to the
price level. Therefore the price level has no effect on long-run aggregate supply, which represents the level of potential GDP.
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If both aggregate demand and short-run aggregate supply increase, real GDP:
✗ A) will decrease.
Explanation
Increases in AD and SRAS both cause real GDP to increase. An increase in AD increases the price level, but an increase in
SRAS tends to decrease the price level, so their combined effect could be an increase or a decrease in the price level.
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At a recent symposium, "The Great Economic Debate of the Decade" several panelists were asked to state their opinions on
aggregate demand and aggregate supply.
Panelist 1 stated that he believed shifts in both aggregate demand and aggregate supply were driven primarily by changes in
technology over time.
Panelist 2 stated that she believed the focus of economic policy should be to directly increase aggregate demand by increasing
the money supply or through fiscal policy.
The views of Panelist 1 and Panelist 2 would best be described as which economic school of thought?
Panelist 1 Panelist 2
✓ A) Neoclassical Keynesian
Explanation
The neoclassical economists believe that shifts in both aggregate demand and aggregate supply are primarily driven by changes
in technology over time. Keynesian economists believe that aggregate demand can be increased through monetary policy
(increasing the money supply) or through fiscal policy (increasing government spending, decreasing taxes, or both). They do not
focus on aggregate supply. Monetarists believe that the main factor leading to business cycles and deviations from
full-employment equilibrium is monetary policy.
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✗ A) GDP calculated using the value-of-final-output method and the sum-of-final-output method.
Explanation
The GDP deflator is the percentage difference between nominal GDP and real GDP, reflecting inflation since the base period.
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The sustainable growth rate of an economy is best viewed as the sum of the growth rates of:
Explanation
The sustainable rate of economic growth can be estimated as the sum of the growth rate of the labor force and the growth rate of
labor productivity.
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The current annual inflation rate, as measured by using the Consumer Price Index (CPI), is best defined as:
Explanation
The inflation rate is the percentage change in the price index from a year earlier.
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Which of the following least accurately describes a component of gross domestic product?
✓ A) Net imports.
✗ B) Investment.
✗ C) Consumption.
Explanation
The components of GDP are consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports, which is exports minus imports.
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Which of the following choices best describes the effects on consumption, investment, and net exports that would result from an
increase in the price level, other factors held constant?
Explanation
At higher price levels, consumption, investment, and net exports all decrease. A rising price level decreases consumers' real
wealth, so they consume less. The higher price level will increase interest rates, which causes business investment to decrease.
Rising domestic prices will also reduce foreign purchases of the country's goods, decreasing net exports.
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When potential real GDP is less than actual real GDP, the economy is most likely experiencing:
✗ A) recession.
✓ B) inflation.
✗ C) underemployment.
Explanation
The economy is in an inflationary phase if actual real GDP is greater than potential real GDP. When actual real GDP equals
potential real GDP, the economy is said to be at full employment. The economy is in a recessionary phase if real GDP is less
than potential GDP.
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Which of the following types of price index is most likely to include a sub-index for raw materials?
✗ A) GDP deflator.
✓ B) Wholesale price index.
Explanation
Wholesale or producer price indexes typically include sub-indexes for finished goods, intermediate goods, and raw materials or
crude goods.
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Which of the following events is least likely to cause a decrease in short-run aggregate supply?
Explanation
Changes in the price level represent movement along the short-run aggregate supply curve. The other items listed are events
that are likely to shift the short-run aggregate supply curve to the left (decrease SRAS).
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Which of the following most accurately describes the Monetarist school of macroeconomic thought in relation to aggregate
demand and aggregate supply? Monetarists believe that the money supply should be:
Explanation
Monetarists believe that to keep aggregate demand stable and growing, the central bank should follow a policy of steady and
predictable increases in the money supply. Furthermore, monetarists believe that recessions are caused by inappropriate
decreases in the money supply and that recessions can be persistent because money wage rates are downward sticky.
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An economist wanting to determine the sources of an increase in a country's GDP using the production function approach would
most likely investigate:
Explanation
The production function approach relates a country's economic output to its inputs of capital and labor and its levels of
productivity.
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When national income in an important trading partner's economy increases, aggregate demand in the domestic economy is most
likely to:
✓ A) increase because foreign consumers will tend to buy more export goods from the domestic country.
✗ B) decrease because interest rates in the domestic economy will tend to increase.
✗ C) decrease because foreign consumers will tend to buy less export goods from the domestic country.
Explanation
When incomes in foreign countries increase, it is unlikely to have a direct effect on interest rates in the domestic economy.
However, an increase in foreign incomes is likely to result in greater foreign purchases of goods exported from the domestic
country, which increases the domestic country's net exports and aggregate demand.
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If private saving equals private business investment, a trade surplus implies that there is:
✓ A) a fiscal surplus.
✗ B) a fiscal deficit.
Explanation
The fundamental relationship among saving, investment, the fiscal balance, and the trade balance is stated as: (G - T) = (S - I) -
(X - M). If S = I, this equation becomes (G - T) = - (X - M), or (T - G) = (X - M). In this case, if the trade balance is in surplus
(exports are greater than imports), the fiscal balance must also be in surplus (taxes are greater than government spending).
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When economists are speaking of the labor-force participation rate, they are referring to which of the following? The labor-force
participation rate is the percentage of the:
✗ A) labor force who are new entrants (less than one year of work experience).
✓ B) working-age population who are either working or actively looking for work.
✗ C) working-age population who are working.
Explanation
The labor-force participation rate is the percentage of the working-age population who are employed or actively seeking
employment. The labor-force participation rate can be calculated as: (the labor force / working-age population) × 100.
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✗ A) lagging indicator.
✓ B) leading indicator.
✗ C) coincident indicator.
Explanation
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From an initial long-run equilibrium, an increase in aggregate demand combined with a decrease in short-run aggregate supply
will most likely result in:
✗ A) higher real GDP.
Explanation
Both an increase in aggregate demand and a decrease in short-run aggregate supply increase the price level. Their combined
effect on real GDP depends on the magnitudes of the changes in AD and SRAS.
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Under the expenditure approach, gross domestic product is the sum of:
✗ A) wages and benefits, corporate profits, interest income, unincorporated business owners' income,
rent, and indirect business taxes less subsidies.
✓ B) consumption spending, gross private domestic investment, government spending, and net exports.
✗ C) national income and transfer payments to households, less corporate and indirect business taxes
and undistributed corporate profits.
Explanation
Under the expenditure approach, GDP is the sum of consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports. National
income is the sum of wages and benefits, corporate profits, interest income, unincorporated business owners' income, rent, and
indirect business taxes less subsidies. Personal income is the sum of national income and transfer payments to households, less
corporate and indirect business taxes and undistributed corporate profits.
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Explanation
The IS curve slopes downward and shows an inverse relationship between real interest rates and income equilibria.
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✗ A) Inflation occurs when there is a steady increase in the relative prices of key commodities.
✓ B) An economy experiences inflation when there is a persistent increase in the prices of almost all
goods and services.
✗ C) Inflation is present if the prices of some goods and services are increasing.
Explanation
Inflation is a persistent increase in the price level over time. Inflation occurs when there is a sustained increase in the prices of
almost all goods and services. Inflation indicates a decline in the purchasing power of a currency.
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Which of the following is the most accurate definition of the labor force?
✓ B) Those people of working age who are either employed or seeking employment.
Explanation
The labor force includes people of working age (16+) who are either employed or seeking employment. People who are not employed or
seeking employment (e.g., homemakers, full-time students, "discouraged" workers) are not counted as part of the labor force.
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Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between headline inflation and core inflation?
Explanation
Core inflation excludes food and energy and is thus a better measure of the underlying trend in prices.
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Explanation
An economic contraction (recession) is typically characterized by decreasing inflationary pressures, increasing unemployment,
and low or negative real GDP growth.
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Which of the following is least likely a reason that the aggregate demand curve slopes downward?
✗ A) The wealth effect causes consumers to spend less when the price level rises.
✗ B) Business investment declines as a rising price level increases interest rates.
✓ C) Because entitlements are adjusted for inflation, a rising price level forces government spending to
increase.
Explanation
The aggregate demand curve plots real GDP against the price level. Rising entitlement payments that result from an increasing
price level affect nominal GDP, but not real GDP. Both remaining choices describe reasons why the consumption and investment
components of real GDP decrease when the price level increases.
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If the economy is in short-run disequilibrium below full employment, the most likely explanation is that:
Explanation
A decrease in aggregate demand can reduce output below its full-employment level. A decline in long-run aggregate supply
would mean the full-employment output level itself has decreased. Wage rates are assumed to be fixed in the short run, but the
long-run effect of decreases in wage rates would be to increase (shift) short-run aggregate supply, leading to an increase in
output.
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When the sources of economic growth are stated as a production function, which factor is treated as a multiplier?
Explanation
Economic output can be stated as a production function of the form Y = A × ƒ(L, K), where Y is economic output, L is the size of
the labor force, K is the amount of capital available, and A is total factor productivity.
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Explanation
Inflation is defined as a persistent increase in the price level over time. Inflation indicates that there has been a general decline in
the purchasing power of a currency. Fixed-rate borrowers gain at the expense of lenders when inflation is greater than expected.
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An economy has been producing at its full-employment level of output and the price level has been stable. Businesses then
begin experiencing unintended decreases in their inventory levels. What does this most likely imply about the short-run outlook
for economic growth and inflation?
✓ B) Increasing Increasing
✗ C) Decreasing Increasing
Explanation
Starting from conditions of long-run equilibrium, unintended decreases in inventory levels suggest that aggregate demand has
increased. Producers will respond in the short run by increasing output and prices, so economic growth and inflation will
increase.
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A country's labor force is projected to decrease by 2% while its labor productivity is projected to increase by 3% per year. Based
on these projections, the country's sustainable annual economic growth rate:
✓ A) is positive.
✗ B) is negative.
Explanation
Growth in potential GDP = growth in labor force + growth in labor productivity. In this example, -2% + 3% = 1% growth in potential
GDP.
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Which of the following is the least likely one of the types of unemployment?
✗ A) Frictional.
✓ B) Temporal.
✗ C) Structural.
Explanation
Frictional unemployment is due to constant changes in the economy that prevent qualified workers from being immediately
matched with existing job openings.
Cyclical unemployment is when the economy is operating at less than full capacity.
Structural unemployment is due to structural changes in the economy that eliminate some jobs while generating job openings
for which unemployed workers are not qualified.
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