PACKAGE QUESTION LIST

UPT PUKP 03 - AKMI, Cirebon

Periode 141217AKMI (14 Dec 2017 - 16 Dec 2017)
ANT III -
Exam Code N-02-01-01 (Pra) Level Function
1
Package Code A

Competency Plan and conduct a passage and determine position

Package Code N3.1.01-B

1. How can an ARPA assist the ship to steer a suitable course to make good the entrance to a channel?

a. Select ground stabilised true motion display and alter course so that own ships true vector
passes through the middle of the entrance to the channel
b. Acquire the buoy at the entrance to the channel and on relative vector display alter course to
make the vector of the buoy pass directly through the centre of the screen
c. Select True ground stabilised vectors and make the vectors from both buoys at the entrance to
the channel pass either side of the centre of the screen
d. Select Relative motion display and make Own Ship vector pass through the middle of the
entrance to the channel

2. How can the error of the Gyro compass be determined?

a. By taking a transit bearing with the gyro compass of two prominent fixed shore objects and
comparing it with the bearing of the same objects on the chart
b. By using any of the methods in the suggested answers
c. By comparing the course readout on the GPS with the gyro course steered
d. By taking the radar bearing of an object when the radar is on a compass stabilised mode and
comparing it with the bearing on the chart of the same object

3. If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an echo of a target with no trail indicate? Note this the trail of
the echo and not a vector

a. The target is on the same course and speed as own ship

b. The target is stopped and making no way through the water
c. The target is on a collision course with own ship
d. The target is on a constant bearing and getting closer to own ship

4. In the Beaufort Scale of Wind Force, what is the Beaufort number associated with the wind force known as a "Gale"? This
should not be confused with a "Near Gale" or "Strong Gale"

a. Eight (8)
b. Nine (9)
c. Seven (7)
d. Ten (10)

5. Is the location of the Compass Binnacle critical?

 a. Yes, for the reasons stated in all of the suggested answers
b. Yes, it should be on the fore and aft centreline of the ship
c. Yes, it should be away from all electrical power cables
d. Yes, it should be sited on a non-metallic base if possible

6. The compass binnacle on the ship has various specific functions, which of the following answers reflect its most important
functions

a. All of the answers provided

b. Houses the corrective magnets
c. Houses the soft iron correctors
d. Provides a non-magnetic housing for the compass

7. The gyro compass can suffer from a compass error and may need to be allowed for, when steering a course in a dangerous
navigational area. What is the probable cause of the error?

a. An uncorrected course and speed error

b. Variation
c. Compass Deviation
d. Fluctuations in the electrical supply to the compass

8. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The Arpa radar is set on a range 12 miles on a
course of 314 degrees and own ship has a vector as shown. What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa?

a. True vectors
b. Relative vectors, sea stabilized
c. Relative vectors, ground stabilized
d. Relative vectors

9. What action should the Officer of the Watch (OOW) take if he is forced to make a major deviation from the voyage plan?

a. Inform the Master

b. Make an appropriate entry in the Log Book
c. There is no special action necessary
d. Check that the deviation will not lead into danger

10. What are the main components causing the magnetic compass to require a regular evaluation and compass correction?

a. Permanent and induced magnetism in the ships structure

b. The change in the position of the magnetic pole causing annual changes in the variation
c. Deviation and Variation
d. The continual changes of courses steered by the ship

11. What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses to reduce any possible compass error?

a. Latitude and Speed

b. Deviation and Variation
c. Maximum helm angle and rolling period
d. All of the data in the suggested answers

12. What are the two parts of the magnetic compass error?
 a. Variation and Deviation
b. Permanent and induced magnetism
c. The latitude and longitude
d. West and East errors

13. What corrections must be applied to the echo sounder reading to compare the depth of water with the depth printed on the
chart?

a. Draught of the ship

b. Allowance for the ships speed
c. Shallow water effects
d. The distance between the pulse Transmitter and Receiver

14. What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large angles when the ship is rolling in a seaway?

a. The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct position
b. The error due to deviation is large for that ships heading
c. The induced magnetism from the earth's magnetic field is very strong in that area
d. The Coefficient B determined by the Compass Corrector at the last dry-dock was not correctly
calculated

15. What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids?

a. The GPS system gives information about position, speed and time continuously world wide
b. The GPS system is based on hyperbola navigation
c. The GPS system has a built-in group of six radio-beacons called a Decca chain
d. The GPS system gives information about weather and waveconditions in the area

16. What is the correct understanding of the term "Isobar"?

a. An "Isobar" is a line joining places of equal pressure

b. An "Isobar" is a line joining places of equal temperature
c. An "Isobar" is the line showing the direction of the predicted path of a hurricane
d. An "Isobar" is the line of the cold front in a frontal depression

17. What is the correct setting of the "Anti sea clutter" control on the radar?

a. A few sea returns remaining on the screen

b. No sea returns left on the screen which may confuse with small target echoes near the ship
c. A removal of all the sea returns down to about a mile from own ship
d. All of the suggested answers

18. What is the correct understanding of the term "Lapse Rate" when used in Meteorology?

a. The change of the temperature in the atmosphere with height above sea level
b. The rate of increase of the wind associated with a Tropical Revolving Storm
c. The delay in temperature reduction associated with the wet bulb thermometer of a hygrometer
d. The change in the temperature associated with the passing of the warm front of a frontal
depression

19. What is the depth of an iceberg below the surface of the sea?
 a. The draught of an iceberg varies with the type of berg and its age
b. The depth of an iceberg below the surface is always about one sixth of its total depth
c. The draught of an iceberg is about the same as the visible part of the iceberg above the water
d. The draught of an iceberg is normally about 3/4 of its total depth

20. What is the direction of wind associated with an anticyclone (area of high pressure) in the Northern Hemisphere?

a. Clockwise around the high pressure

b. Anticlockwise around the high pressure
c. Straight towards the centre of the anticyclone
d. Directly away from the centre of the anticyclone towards the nearest Low pressure

21. What is the probable cause of an error in position of the ship obtained from the GPS system?

a. Incorrect height of the antenna

b. A three dimensional instead of a two dimensional position output
c. All of the suggested answers
d. Abnormal sun spot activity causing unusual radiation effects

22. What is the weather associated with being in the centre of an Anticyclone (a region of High Pressure)?

a. Light winds and fair weather, sometimes fog

b. Strong winds but with very little rain
c. Strong winds and heavy rain
d. Persistent rain and very humid weather

23. What is understood by the term "Dew point" of the air?

a. The temperature at which condensation in the air forms into water droplets
b. The temperature of the water vapour in a cloud
c. The "Dew Point" is the point at the centre of an Anticyclone
d. All of the suggested answers

24. What possible reason could there be for the identification mark associated with a Racon not being visible on the radar screen?

a. All of the suggested answers

b. The racon may not be transmitting a pulse
c. The transmitted radar frequency may not trigger the Racon transmitter
d. The radar may be suppressing the mark with application of the Interference Rejection control

25. When the temperature of the air increases with height it is known as a "Temperature Inversion" and may influence the
performance of some instruments on the ship. What should the bridge Officer of the Watch be prepared to happen?

a. Abnormal ranges of VHF RT and Second Trace Returns on the radar

b. The GPS may give errors of position because of interference of incoming signals from the
satellites
c. The radar will be show abnormal sea clutter as the pulse is trapped by the inversion
d. The bearings obtained from the Directional Finder (DF) will not be as accurate as normal

26. When using the echo sounder in a river the soundings indicated may be incorrect, what would be the most probable cause of
the error?
 a. The density of the water
b. The strength of the tide and current in the river
c. Shallow water effects
d. There should be no error with a properly working echo sounder

27. Where can the size of the Magnetic Compass Error be found?

a. By taking a transit bearing of two fixed geographical positions and comparing it with the
bearing of the same points on the chart
b. On the chart in the centre of the compass rose or by reference to the Variation chart, taking
into account the annual changes
c. By reference to the last entry in the Compass Error Log Book
d. By taking the error from the Deviation Table on the bridge

28. Which of the suggested navigational systems is a "Hyperbolic" navigational system and has hyperbolae as position lines?

a. Loran C
b. GPS
c. Radio Direction Finder
d. All of the suggested systems

29. Which part of the magnetic compass error changes with a change in the course steered?

a. Deviation
b. Variation
c. Induced magnetism
d. All of the suggested answers

30. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the Arpa for anti-collision purposes

a. The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water
b. True motion does not provide the collision risk of other ships
c. The Relative Motion display and relative vectors is the only display to use for anti-collision
purposes
d. The true vector can never give an indication of collision risk with another ship

Competency Maintain a safe navigational watch

Package Code N3.1.02-B

1. A man is reported to have fallen overboard and the Officer of the Watch releases the lifebuoy and starts a man overboard
manoeuvre, who are the first persons onboard he should inform?

a. Master and Engine Room

b. Chief Officer and lifeboat party
c. The Master only
d. The crew quarters for extra lookouts.

2. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________.
 a. engaged in towing
b. constrained by her draft
c. under sail
d. All of the above

3. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel __________.

a. intends to alter course to port

b. intends to pass starboard to starboard
c. is altering course to port
d. will alter course to port

4. Can the OOW be the sole lookout?

a. During daylight when visibility and traffic allows

b. When the visibility is good and the ship is in the middle of the ocean where there is very little
shipping.
c. Only if the Arpa radar is set onto Auto Acquisition with an audio alarm sounding when a ship is
detected
d. Never should the Officer of the Watch be the only lookout

5. How can a new officer, just boarding a ship, ensure that he knows the location and operation of all navigational and safety
equipment and take account of the operating limitations of such equipment?

a. By asking other officers and practicing with the use of the equipment
b. By following the standard company Induction procedures for a bridge watchkeeping officer
c. The certificate of competency will ensure the officer has suitable competence in operating the
bridge equipment
d. By using the equipment on regular watchkeeping duties

6. In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel indicates that the vessel __________.

a. is holding course and speed

b. is turning to starboard
c. intends to pass port to port
d. will keep out of the way of the stand-on vessel

7. In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed by one short blast?

a. When overtaking in restricted visibility

b. When overtaking in a narrow channel
c. When overtaking on open waters
d. When no other vessels are in the immediate area

8. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?

a. A vessel constrained by her draft

b. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
c. A vessel on pilotage duty
d. A vessel engaged in fishing

9. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation
and applies to which vessels?

a. All vessels and on all voyages

b. The Convention only applies to ships over a certain size
c. It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged in International Voyages
d. Over 10 000 dwt
10. The bridge Officer of the Watch (OOW) is plotting the ship's position in the chartroom, when the ship is in collision with a
fishing vessel. Why would the OOW be held responsible for the collision?

a. Under the Rules a proper lookout should be maintained at all times and by all available means
b. If the OOW is busy with the safe navigation of the ship he should have exhibited the "Not under
Command" signals and made other ships keep clear.
c. If risk of Collision existed, the fishing boat should have contacted the larger ship over the VHF
before the collision took place.
d. Under the Rules the fishing vessel should have kept clear of larger vessels and the OOW would
not be responsible

11. The ship is drifting in the open sea with a temporary engine breakdown. The ship is equipped with GPS navigation equipment.
What should the bridge Officer of the Watch do in this situation?

a. All of the possible answers.

b. Keep a good lookout for other ships
c. Display the "Not under Command" signal and switch off the normal steaming lights
d. Plot the direction and rate of drift and predict the ships position for the period while the ship is
"Not Under Command"

12. The vessel is steaming off the coast when the engine room informs the bridge it must stop engines immediately. Shortly
afterwards they informed the bridge they would need a least three hours to fix it. Which of the following actions would be the
most suitable taken by the bridge?

a. Display the NUC signal, maintain the watch and determine how the ship is drifting and the
probable position after three hours.
b. Display the NUC signal, maintain the watch and ask the Engine room to be a quick as possible
c. Display the NUC signal, maintain the watch and wait for further developments.
d. Display the NUC signal and keep a good lookout

13. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which could be sounded by a __________.

a. fishing vessel
b. vessel anchored
c. mineclearing vessel
d. mineclearing vessel
e. vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel

14. Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed by one short blast?

a. When overtaking in restricted visibility

b. When overtaking in a narrow channel
c. When overtaking on open waters
d. When no other vessels are in the immediate area

15. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing course. Vessel "A" __________.

a. should sound two short blasts

b. should sound the danger signal
c. should sound one long blast
d. will not sound any whistle signals

16. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?

a. A black cone, apex upward

b. A cylinder
c. A black cone, apex downward
d. Two vertical black balls
17. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge team.

a. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge team.
b. All navigational equipment fully functional.
c. Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used efficiently
d. The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and effective operation

18. What is the main purpose of VTS?

a. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the vicinity.
b. Provide local information to all vessels navigating in the area
c. Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the area.
d. Increase safety for ships participating in VTS

19. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many hours, what management issues should
the Master consider?

a. All of these answers

b. Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers
c. Fully manned engine room throughout the canal transit
d. Suitable crew available for lock transits

20. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the passage plan with the pilot while
he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?

a. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the
same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea
b. The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary
c. A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very familiar with what is
required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not necessary
d. The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in knowing the ship's
characteristics and resist any passage planning discussions with the Master.

21. When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from one of the vessels means __________.

a. "I am altering my course to starboard"

b. "I am altering my course to port"
c. "I intend to change course to starboard"
d. "I intend to change course to port"

22. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?

a. Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes both identification of the
occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen.
b. Risk is the term to identify a dangerous situation which will affect the ship
c. Risk is the possibility that a dangerous situation is likely to occur
d. Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to occur

23. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning light signals?

a. The time between flashes shall be about five seconds.

b. The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds.
c. The light signals are to be used when not using sound signals.
d. All of the above

24. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line?
 a. A vessel constrained by her draft
b. A trawler fishing in close proximity to other trawlers
c. A vessel aground
d. A dredge

25. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged and two short blasts?

a. A vessel not under command

b. A vessel constrained by her draft
c. A vessel being towed
d. A vessel sailing

26. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the event of a vessel emergency when
transiting the Panama Canal?

a. The Panama Canal Authority

b. The ship's Master
c. The ship's company
d. The Master and Pilot will agree the best course of action to be taken to resolve the emergency
situation.

27. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18
knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects
would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?

a. Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of vessel;
effectiveness of navigational equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational
hazards.
b. Adjust my track to follow Route 1 or 2 illustrated and reduce speed down to half speed,
approximately 8 knots
c. Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the visible range
d. A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be
stopped within an appropriate distance

28. You are proceeding along a narrow channel in front of another vessel, both heading for port. You hear this signal from the
vessel behind you. What does it mean?

a. I intend to overtake you on your starboard side.

b. I intend to overtake you on your port side.
c. I am operating astern propulsion.
d. I am faster than you. Get out of the way.

29. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the vessel's port side. How should you
signal your intention?

a. No signal is necessary.
b. Two prolonged blasts
c. Two short blasts
d. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts

30. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a right-handed propeller and there is
equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little
space as possible?

a. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full ahead
b. Full ahead, rudder hard to port
c. Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard
d. Rudder hard to starboard, full ahead. Rudder hard to port, full astern. Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been
made.
 Competency Respond to emergencies
Package Code N3.1.05-B

1. What is a contingency plan for ships?

a. Plan for safety preparedness

b. Plan for next voyage
c. Loading plan for general cargo
d. Plan for maintenance and repair

2. A vessel is overtaking when she approaches another from more than how many degrees abaft the beam?

a. 0.0°
b. 11.25°
c. 22.5°
d. 45.0°

3. A vessel may exhibit lights other than those prescribed by the Rules as long as the additional lights __________.

a. do not interfere with the keeping of a proper look-out

b. are not the color of either sidelight
c. have a lesser range than the prescribed lights
d. All of the above

4. A vessel underway and making way in fog shall sound every two minutes __________.

a. one prolonged blast

b. two prolonged blasts
c. one prolonged blast and three short blasts
d. three distinct blasts

5. According to the Navigation Rules, all of the following are engaged in fishing EXCEPT a vessel __________.

a. setting nets
b. trawling
c. using a dredge net
d. trolling

6. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blast followed by one prolonged blast is sounded by the ship's whistle and alarm
bells. What are you to do?

a. Go to your lifeboat station

b. Go to your fire station
c. Report on the bridge (deck crew) or engine room (engine crew) for further orders
d. Go to (or remain in) your cabin and await further orders

7. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blasts followed by one long blast is sounded by the ship's whistle and the alarm
bells. What are you to do?

a. Go to your lifeboat station (muster station).

b. Go to your fire station.
c. Report on the bridge (deck crew) or engine control room (engine crew) for further orders.
d. Go to (or remain in) your cabin and wait for further orders.

8. As defined in the Rules, a towing light is a yellow light having the same characteristics as a(n) __________.
 a. masthead light
b. all-round light
c. sidelight
d. stern light

9. By day, you sight a vessel displaying three shapes in a vertical line. The top and bottom shapes are balls, and the middle
shape is a diamond. It could be a __________.

a. vessel trolling
b. mineclearing vessel
c. trawler
d. vessel engaged in replenishment at sea

10. Give the meaning of the following symbol:

a. muster station
b. muster station for families only
c. muster station for unaccompanied minors (UM)
d. gathering place for embarkation formalities

11. Identify this symbol:

a. Emergency generator?
b. Fire glass door?
c. Inertgas installation?
d. Escape gate?

12. If you detect a fire on board the ship, dependent on the situation, which of the following actions is the first to be taken?

a. Raise the fire alarm.

b. Try to kill the fire immediately by use of fire-extinguishers or other adequate appliances.
c. Check all nearby compartments for survivors.
d. Call the officer on duty

13. Sailing vessels are stand-on over power-driven vessels except __________.

a. in a crossing situation
b. in a meeting situation
c. when they are the overtaking vessel
d. on the inland waters of the U.S.

14. The term "power-driven vessel" refers to any vessel __________.

a. with propelling machinery onboard whether in use or not

b. making way against the current
c. with propelling machinery in use
d. traveling at a speed greater than that of the current

15. What alarm signal must be sounded by the alarm bells in case of fire?

a. The signal which is stated in the muster list

b. Series of short blasts
c. One long blast followed by seven short blasts
d. A continuous signal
16. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length?

a. Whistle only
b. Bell only
c. Whistle and bell only
d. Whistle, bell, and gong

17. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length?

a. Whistle only
b. Bell only
c. Whistle and bell only
d. Whistle, bell, and gong

18. When a vessel sounds three short blasts on the whistle, this indicates that __________.

a. danger is ahead
b. her engines are going astern
c. the vessel is not under command (broken down)
d. all other vessels should stand clear

19. When anchoring a 20-meter vessel at night, you must show __________.

a. one all-round white light

b. two all-round white lights
c. one all-round white light and the stern light
d. one all-round white light and a flare up light

20. When the fire alarm signal is sounded every member of the ship's crew shall immediately proceed to their assigned fire
station. Which one of the following signals is used as fire alarm signal on board cargo ships?

a. Intermittent signals on the ship's alarm bells

b. One long blast on the ship's whistle and alarm bells followed by seven short blasts
c. Seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle and alarm bells
d. Three short blasts followed by three long blasts, then followed by three short blasts on the
ship's whistle and alarm bells

21. Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision?

a. Risk of collision never exists if the compass bearing of the other vessel is changing.
b. Proper use shall be made of radar equipment to determine risk of collision.
c. Risk of collision must be determined before any action can be taken by a vessel.
d. Risk of collision exists if the vessels will pass within half a mile of each other.

22. Which statement is TRUE concerning a partly submerged vessel being towed?

a. It must show a yellow light at each end.

b. It will show red lights along its length.
c. A diamond shape will be carried at the aftermost extremity of the tow.
d. All of the above

23. Which statement is TRUE concerning the light used to accompany whistle signals?

a. It is mandatory to use such a light

b. The light shall have the same characteristics as a masthead light
c. It is used to supplement short blasts of the whistle
d. All of the above
24. Which vessel is to sound a fog signal of one prolonged followed by two short blasts?

a. A vessel not under command

b. A sailing vessel, underway
c. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when carrying out her work at anchor
d. All of the above

25. Which vessel is, by definition, unable to keep out of the way of another vessel?

a. Vessel engaged in fishing

b. Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
c. Sailing vessel
d. Vessel towing

26. Which vessel must exhibit forward and after masthead lights when underway?

a. A 200-meter sailing vessel

b. A 50-meter power-driven vessel
c. A 100-meter vessel engaged in fishing
d. All of the above

27. Which vessel must sound her fog signal at intervals not to exceed one minute?

a. A power-driven vessel underway, not making way

b. A vessel constrained by her draft
c. A vessel engaged in fishing, at anchor
d. A vessel aground

28. You are fishing at night, and you sight a vessel showing three lights in a vertical line. The upper and lower lights are red and
the middle light is white. Which statement is TRUE?

a. You must keep out of the way of the other vessel.

b. The other vessel is responsible to keep out of your way.
c. The other vessel is at anchor.
d. The rule of special circumstances applies.

29. You are heading due east (090°) and observe a vessel's red sidelight on your port beam. The vessel may be heading
__________.

a. northwest (315°)
b. north (000°)
c. southeast (135°)
d. southwest (225°)

30. Your vessel enters fog. You stop your engines, and the vessel is dead in the water. Which fog signal should you sound?

a. One prolonged blast every two minutes

b. Two prolonged blasts every two minutes
c. Three short blasts every two minutes
d. One prolonged and two short blasts every two minutes

Competency Respond to a distress signal at sea

Package Code N3.1.06-B

1. During restricted visibility, you are posted as bridge lookout and you hear 1 long blast at intervals of about 2 minutes on your
 port bow. What will you report to the OOW (officer on watch)?

a. Fog signal of one long blast heard on the port bow at regular intervals of about 2 minutes
b. Power-driven vessel making no way on port bow
c. A vessel at anchor on port bow
d. The fog signal of a power driven vessel under way, but not making way, heard on the port bow

2. On the diagram provided, there are four (4) possible directions indicating the term "AHEAD". Which one is the correct?

a. Ahead is given by A on the figure

b. Ahead is given by B on the figure
c. Ahead is given by C on the figure
d. Ahead is given by D on the figure

3. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "CENTRE LINE" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Centre line is given by A on the figure

b. Centre line is given by B on the figure
c. Centre line is given by C on the figure
d. Centre line is given by D on the figure

4. On the figure there are four (4) possible directions shown by the arrowed lines. Which one would correctly shows the direction
understood by the term "AFTER SPRING"?

a. After spring is defined as A on the figure

b. After spring is defined as B on the figure
c. After spring is defined as C on the figure
d. After spring is defined as D on the figure

5. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AFT" shown. Which one is the correct one?

a. Aft is defined as A on the figure

b. Aft is defined as B on the figure
c. Aft is defined as B on the figure
d. Aft is defined as D on the figure

6. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AIR DRAUGHT" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Air draught is given by D on the figure

b. Air draught is given by C on the figure
c. Air draught is given by A on the figure

7. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "ASTERN" shown. Which one is the correct one?

a. Astern is defined as D on the figure

b. Astern is defined as B on the figure
c. Astern is defined as C on the figure
d. Astern is defined as A on the figure
 8. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "BOLLARD" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Bollard is given by D on the figure

b. Bollard is given by B on the figure
c. Bollard is given by C on the figure
d. Bollard is given by A on the figure

9. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "QUAY" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Quay is given by A on the figure

b. Quay is given by B on the figure
c. Quay is given by C on the figure
d. Quay is given by D on the figure

10. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "STARBOARD QUARTER" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Starboard quarter is given by C on the figure

b. Starboard quarter is given by B on the figure
c. Starboard quarter is given by A on the figure
d. Starboard quarter is given by D on the figure

11. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "WINDLASS" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Windlass is given by B on the figure

b. Windlass is given by A on the figure
c. Windlass is given by C on the figure
d. Windlass is given by D on the figure

12. On the figure there are four (4) possible directions, shown by the arrowed lines, which could be the correct direction
associated with the term "HEAD LINE". Which one is the correct one?

a. Head line is given by B on the figure

b. Head line is given by A on the figure
c. Head line is given by C on the figure
d. Head line is given by D on the figure

13. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "BREADTH" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Breadth is given by B on the figure

b. Breadth is given by A on the figure
c. Breadth is given by C on the figure
d. Breadth is given by D on the figure

14. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "MIDSHIPS" given. Which one is the correct one?
 a. Midships is given by B on the figure
b. Midships is given by A on the figure
c. Midships is given by C on the figure
d. Midships is given by D on the figure

15. On the figure there are four possible definitions of the term "STARBOARD BOW" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Starboard bow is given by A on the figure

b. Starboard bow is given by B on the figure
c. Starboard bow is given by C on the figure
d. Starboard bow is given by D on the figure

16. The diagram shows the direction that a rope runs during a mooring operation and a possible place where it may break.
Where would be considered the safest position to stand?

a. Outside the blue coloured zone.

b. Inside the blue coloured zone.
c. Between the "point of break" and the "fairlead".
d. Behind the point of restraint, but inside the blue coloured zone.

17. The diagram shows the lead of a rope during mooring operations and the possible point where it may break. Where would be
considered the safest place to be standing?

a. Outside the coloured zone.

b. Inside the coloured zone and behind the "point of restraint".
c. Between the "point of break" and the "point of restraint".
d. It is impossible to stand clear of any possible danger areas surrounding wires or ropes and
therefore there are not any safe areas.

18. The figure shows a cross section through a ship floating in water, with the hull in red and the seabed below the ship shaded.
On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "FREEBOARD" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Freeboard is given by D on the figure

b. Freeboard is given by A on the figure
c. Freeboard is given by C on the figure
d. Freeboard is given by B on the figure

19. The figure shows the cross section of a ship floating in water with the hull coloured in red and the seabed below the vessel
shaded. On this figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "UNDERKEEL CLEARANCE" given. Which one is the
correct one?

a. Underkeel clearance is given by A on the figure

b. Underkeel clearance is given by B on the figure
c. Underkeel clearance is given by C on the figure
d. Underkeel clearance is given by D on the figure

20. What does the term "Hard a Starboard" or "Hard to Starboard" mean?
 a. Put the wheel fully over to starboard.
b. Do not allow the vessel to swing to port.
c. The wheel is difficult to turn to starboard.
d. Start the ship swinging to starboard.

21. What is meant by the term "keeping a proper lookout" as applied to the bridge lookout?

a. Keeping a visual lookout all round the ship and also actively listening out for audio signals
b. Keeping a very visual lookout ahead and abeam of the ship
c. Continually visually scanning the horizon all round the ship
d. Keeping a visual lookout all round the vessel

22. What is the correct understanding of the term "boat deck"?

a. The deck where the lifeboats davits are positioned.

b. The deck where the top of the lifeboats can be viewed
c. The deck of a ship at the base of the accommodation
d. The deck which is at the top of the double bottom tank on a cargo ship.

23. What is the correct understanding of the term "boat drill"?

a. Practical exercise for the people on board to practice their duties and be prepared in the case
of an emergency abandon ship.
b. A demonstration for the people on board to understand how a lifeboat can be used to abandon
ship
c. A presentation by the Master on what he would expect from all on board in the case of an
emergency.
d. The opportunity for all on board to launch the boats and abandon ship.

24. What is the correct way that the lookout should report the appearance of a light, in clear visibility, on the port side of the ship
in a direction half way between right ahead and abeam?

a. The lookout should state "Light 4 points to port"

b. The lookout should state "Light on the port bow"
c. The lookout should state "Ship observed 45 degrees to port"
d. The lookout should state "Ship seen to port"

25. What is the main responsibility of a bridge lookout at night?

a. Inform the bridge of any new lights when they appear over the horizon or any other items
observed which may affect the ship
b. Inform bridge of any lights when they appear over the horizon
c. Inform bridge of any other ships observed, which appear to be getting closer to your own ship
d. Inform bridge of changing weather patterns

26. What is the meaning of the term "Steady as she goes" when acting as helmsman?

a. While altering the ships head, the instruction "steady as she goes" means reduce the ships
swing as rapidly as possible and steady on present course
b. Try to reduce the continuous swinging either side of the course when steering a compass
course.
c. Reduce the number of helm movements used when steeriing a set course
d. Keep the applied rudder constant until the next helm order.

27. What will you do if you are helmsman and the OOW (officer on watch) gives you the order: ”Starboard ten”

a. Repeat the command back and then turn the wheel to make the rudder turn 10 degrees to starboard of amidships
b. Repeat the command back and then change course 10 degrees to starboard of present course
c. Repeat the command back and then allow the vessel to drift 10 degrees to starboard of original course
d. Repeat the command back and then put the wheel over sufficiently for the ship to swing at a rate of 10 degrees per minute to starboard.
28. What will you do if you are helmsman and the OOW (officer on watch) gives you the order: “Port 20” and after a while the
order: "Ease to 10"?

a. Apply 20 degrees of rudder towards port and then after the second command reduce the wheel
to 10 degrees of helm.
b. Change the compass course to a new heading which is 20 degrees to port of original heading
and then after the second command reduce it to only 10 degrees to port of original heading
c. Turn the wheel until the rate of swing of the ship is 20 degrees per minute and then after the
second order, reduce the wheel to make it swing at only 10 degrees per minute
d. Apply the wheel to alter the course 20 degrees to port and then after the second command
change the heading a further 10 degrees

29. When acting as helmsman would you expect the reading of the gyro compass to be the same as the magnetic compass?

a. Very seldom would they be the same

b. They would always be the same
c. They would always be within 1 or 2 degrees of each other
d. They would never be the same

30. When you are on watch during a stay in port, what should you always ensure is ready at the head of the gangway?

a. Life buoy with line.

b. Notice board stating the sailing time of the ship
c. A telephone to contact shore terminal control
d. Notice Board giving name of ship and company

Competency Manoeuvre The Ship

Package Code N3.1.09-A

1. What is the correct understanding of the term "a ship with good Directional Stability"?

a. A ship which when the rudder is left amidships, it will continue on approximately a straight
course
b. A ship which will maintain its course unless large rudder angles are applied
c. A ship which when a rudder angle is applied and the ship starts to swing, will continue to swing
even after the rudder is returned to amidships
d. A ship where the amount of positive transverse stability (GM) will vary with the direction of the
ship's head

2. Which of the following hull shapes would normally provide a directionally stable ship?

a. A long ship with a narrow beam

b. A short ship with a narrow beam
c. A short ship with a wide beam
d. A long ship with a wide beam

3. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AIR DRAUGHT" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Air draught is given by C on the figure

b. Air draught is given by B on the figure
c. Air draught is given by A on the figure
d. Air draught is given by D on the figure

4. Ships vary considerably in design and underwater shape, but does the ship's trim ever have any influence on its steering
abilities?
 a. Yes, the ship often steers better if trimmed by the stern
b. No, the ship will have the same steering ability and is unaffected by trim
c. Yes, a ship often steers better if trimmed by the bow
d. Yes, it is usually best to be on an even keel and have no trim at all

5. The engines are going astern and the ship is making sternway of about 1.5 knots with the rudder hard to starboard. What
effect will this have on the ship's progress?

a. This will give the stern a lift force to starboard

b. The rudder will have no effect when the ship is making sternway, it should be in the amidships
position when going astern
c. This will give the stern a lift force to port
d. There will be no lift force and the ship will go straight astern

6. The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Do you think this is the angle that the rudder is most effective?

a. No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees, this is because the rudder is
"stalling" at 35 degrees angle
b. No, the rudder is most effective at angles between 10 and 20 degrees
c. Yes, the rudder is most effective at max angle
d. No, the rudder is most effective at small rudder angles

7. The rudder is in the hard over position with the propeller stopped and the ship turning slowly. On a ship with a single fixed
pitch right handed propeller and no thrusters, what can be done to make the ship increase the speed of turn without
significantly increasing the forward speed of the ship?

a. Give the engines a short kick ahead

b. Give full astern on the engines until ship has stopped and then full ahead on the engines with
rudder hard over
c. Give dead slow ahead on the engines and leave the rudder in the hard over position.
d. Give half astern on the engines as this will increase the rate of turn

8. The ship has a right-handed propeller and is swinging to starboard when the engines are slow ahead and the rudder is to
starboard. The engines are stopped and the rate of swing rapidly slows down. How could the swing to starboard be
maintained without the ship making much headway.

a. Astern on the engines will allow Transverse Thrust to continue the swing
b. By applying the rudder hard over to starboard and going ahead on the engines.
c. Transverse Thrust will reduce the swing and therefore a kick ahead is necessary with full
starboard helm applied.
d. The only effective method is by using the bow thruster to push the bow to starboard.

9. The ship has completed a 360 degree turn at full speed in deep water. The ship is now to repeat the turn at full speed in
shallow water. What will be the difference in the turning circle diameter?

a. The turning diameter will be increased in shallow water

b. The turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water
c. The turning diameter will be the same for all depths
d. It will be the same provided the UKC is 25%-50%

10. The ship is required to be stopped in the water as quickly as possible, but without major changes to the ship's heading. What
is the most effective method to achieve this?
 a. The use of the rudder hard over both sides combined with reducing engine power, a method
known as "high frequency rudder cycling"
b. Put the engine full astern and keep the rudder amidships
c. Make a complete turn while reducing the engine power.
d. Make a zig zag manoeuvre while reducing the engine power.

11. The ship is sailing in shallow water with reduced Under Keel Clearance. If the ship is steaming with the engines at full RPM,
what would be the speed in comparison to the speed achieved in deep water?

a. Slower than deep water

b. Faster than deep water
c. The same as deep water
d. It would be very difficult to maintain full deep sea RPM on the engines and therefore difficult to
assess the speed.

12. The ship is starting to slow down after steaming at full ahead speed. What will happen to the position of the "pivot point"?

a. It will move aft as the ship slows down

b. Same position as when the ship is steaming at full speed ahead
c. The "pivot point" will move towards the bow of the ship
d. It will move to the side of the centre line

13. The ship is steaming at Full Ahead when the engines are reversed to "Full Astern" to stop the ship. The ship has a single,
right-handed fixed pitch propeller. What would be the anticipated reaction of the ship, if there is no wind or current?

a. The ship will probably sheer to starboard and gradually lose headway
b. The ship will probably continue on a straight course, but lose forward speed.
c. It is unpredictable and could be any of the other alternative answers.
d. The ship will probably sheer to port and gradually lose headway.

14. The ship is to berth alongside a quay in calm conditions of no wind or current. The ship has a single fixed pitch right handed
propeller. Which angle of approach would be considered the most favourable?

a. No. 2
b. No. 1
c. No. 3
d. The decision should be left to the pilot who is in charge of the manoeuvre.

15. The ship's rudder is full over when the ship's engines are full ahead. Will the turning effect (lift force) of the rudder be
changed when the engine is stopped?

a. Yes, the lift force will be dramatically reduced when the engines are stopped
b. Yes, the Lift or turning force will be reduced to about 50% of the original lift force when the
engines are stopped
c. No, the turning force applied by the rudder will be maintained within about 90% of the lift force
when going full ahead
d. No, the lift force is unaffected by the speed of the propeller

16. The ship's engine is going astern and the ship is picking up sternway. The rudder is amidships and the ship has a single, right-
handed, fixed pitch propeller. What would be expected to happen?
 a. The ship will probably start to change heading to starboard and stern speed will increase
b. The ship will probably start to change heading to port and stern speed will increase
c. The ship will probably go straight astern without a change in heading and the stern speed will
increase
d. The ship will move astern at an increasing speed and the stern start to swing off to starboard

17. The vessel is in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If the engine speed is reduced during the turn, will there be any
change in the turning diameter

a. Yes, the turning diameter will increase if the speed is reduced

b. Yes, the turning diameter will be smaller if the speed is reduced
c. No, the turning diameter will not change if the speed is reduced
d. No, the turning diameter will only change if the rudder angle is reduced

18. Two ships are meeting in a restricted channel as illustrated. Which of the following actions would be the most suitable to take
on both vessels as they approach and pass each other?

a. Slow down if possible without losing steerage and be prepared for prompt application of rudder
to counteract any swing as they approach and pass each other
b. Maintain speed and a straight course on the starboard side of the channel
c. Keep as far as possible on the starboard side of the channel and maintain speed to retain
effective steerage
d. Increase speed slightly to pass each other as quickly as possible and thereby reduce the effects
of "ship to ship" interaction

19. Two ships travelling in opposite directions are to pass each other in a narrow river, as illustrated. Explain what is likely to
happen as they pass each other?

a. Due to interaction, the bows will repel each other, and then when alongside each other the two
ships will be sucked together and finally the sterns will be repelled as they start to pass clear
b. Due to interaction, the bows will attract each other as they approach, then they will repel each
other alongside and as they pass clear, the sterns will be attracted.
c. As they approach, rudder should be applied quickly to avoid sheering into the path of each
other. Then as they are alongside they will be attracted and finally repel each other as they
pass clear
d. There will be very little effect between the two ships as they pass.

20. Two vessels are meeting each other in confined waters. What would be the effects of interaction between the two vessels as
they approach each other?

a. The bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other
b. The bows of the ships will be sucked together
c. Each vessel will experience an increase in speed
d. There will be no effects in these circumstances

21. What depth of water would be considered as "Shallow Water" in relationship to a change of the ships manoeuvring
characteristics?

a. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 50% of the draught of the ship
b. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is equal to the draught of the ship
c. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 15% of the draught of the ship. When the "Under
Keel Clearance" is less than a quarter of the draught of the ship

22. What is the correct understanding of the term "bank effect"? If a ship was approaching the bank at an angle, what would be
the effect on the ship?
 a. The vessel's bow is pushed away from the bank
b. The vessel's stern is pushed away from the bank
c. The vessel’s bow is attracted by the bank
d. The whole vessel would continue straight towards the bank and would require a large helm
order to avoid going aground

23. What would be the correct definition of the term "Squat"?

a. Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance and the possible change of trim of a ship when it
moves through shallow water due to a reduction in water pressure
b. Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance of a ship when it moves through shallow water
due to a reduction in water pressure
c. Squat is the loss of effectiveness of the rudder and propeller as a ship moves through shallow
water due to the reduction of water pressure
d. Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance due to increase of water flow under the keel and
an increase in the water pressure

24. What would be the effects of a ship passing into shallow water?

a. The ship is less responsive to both rudder and propeller

b. There is no noticeable difference in performance of the ship
c. The speed is not affected, but more rudder is required to steer the ship
d. The vessel has a tendency to swing to port with a single fixed-pitch right-hand turning propeller

25. When a ship is lying at anchor in a tidal area using both forward anchors, to what particular aspect should the officer of the
watch be paying special attention?

a. When the ship swings to the tide the direction of swing should be controlled to avoid the anchor
cables becoming wrapped round each other
b. The tension on both cables should be similar, to avoid one dragging and all the weight of the
ship remaining on the other anchor only
c. The two anchors will restrict the ships swing with the tide and the ship may not lie to the
prevailing current and wind
d. The ship will become controlled by the tide and the wind will not be allowed to have any effect
on the direction the ship lies at anchor

26. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located when the ship is proceeding at full speed ahead and there is no
wind or current?

a. At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the bow

b. At amidships
c. At a position near the stern of the ship
d. At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the stern

27. Which of the following answers correctly specify the following most common rudders? a) UNBALANCED, b) BALANCED, c)
SEMI-BALANCED and d) UNDERHUNG BALANCED. i.e. The number in the picture is related to the letter adjacent to the name
of the rudder

a. 1 = a, 2 = b, 3 = c and 4 = d
b. 1 = b, 2 = c, 3 = d and 4 = a
c. 1 = c, 2 = d, 3 = a and 4 = b
d. 1 = d, 2 = a, 3 = b and 4 = c

28. Which type of vessel suffers from the greatest squat effects?

a. Vessel with a high Block Coefficient

b. Vessel with a low Block Coefficient
c. Vessel with a large length to beam ratio
d. Vessel with a small length to beam ratio
29. Who is responsible for the number and the position of any tugs to be used during a mooring operation?

a. The Master, with consideration of the advice of the pilot

b. The Pilot is fully responsible for the number and use of tugs within the port area
c. It will be only the wind speed that will determine the required number of tugs and how they are
used
d. The Port Authority will dictate the tug requirements and their use within the port limits

30. You are sailing in shallow water with a 15% Under Keel Clearance. Turning the ship around, what space do you need
compared to deep water?

a. Need more space than normal

b. Need less space than normal
c. The turning diameter of your ship is the same for all water depths
d. To port less, to starboard more space