KCET 2018

ANSWER
KEYS
BY EXPERT COACHING CLASSES
 KCET – PHYSICS – 2018

VERSION CODE: G

1. A plane wavefront of wavelength  is incident on a single slit of width a. The angular width
of principal maximum is
 2 a a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a a  2
Ans: (B)
Width of the slit = a
Wavelength = 
2
Angular width of principal maxima  = 2 =
a
2. In a Fraunhofer diffraction at a single slit, if yellow light illuminating the slit is replaced by
bluelight, then diffraction bands
(A) Remain unchanged (B) Become wider
(C) Disappear (D) Become narrower
Ans: (D)
Width of diffraction bond is directly promotional to wavelength.
Since blue < yellow
Bond becomes narrower
3. In Young’s double slit experiment, two wavelengths 1 = 780 nm and 2 = 520 nm are used
to obtain interference fringes. If the nth bright band due to 1 coincides with (n + 1)th bright
band due to 2, then the value of n is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 6
Ans: (C)
Given xn = xn + 1
n 1D (n  1)  2D
=
d d
n1 = (n + 1) 2
n  520 4
= 2 = =
n1 1 780 6

6n = 4n + 4
2n = 4
n=2
4. In Young’s double slit experiment slits are separated by 2 mm and the screen is placed at a
o o
distance of 1.2 m from the slits. Light consisting of two wavelengths 6500 A and 5200 A are
used to obtain interference fringes. Then the separation between the fourth bright fringes of
two different patterns produced by the two wavelengths is
(A) 0.312 mm (B) 0.123 mm (C) 0.213 mm (D) 0.412 mm
Ans: (A)
o o
Given, d = 2mm, D = 1.2 m, 1 = 6500 A , 2 = 5200 A

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 n D
xn =
d
Separation between the fourth, bright fringes of two different patterns produced by the two
wavelength.
4  1D 4 2D 4D
x = x4 – x41 =  = [1 - 2]
d d d

4 x 1.2 4 x 1.2 x 1.3 x 10 7

= [6.5 x 10-7 – 5.2 x 10-7] = = 0.312 mm
2 x 10  3 2 x 10  3
5. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons depends on
(A) Intensity of incident radiation
(B) Frequency of incident radiation
(C) Speed of incident radiation
(D) Number of photons in the incident radiation
Ans: (B)
K.E.max = h - h0
h0 = k (constant)
 K.E.max  
6. A photon and an  particle are accelerated through the same potential difference V. The
ratio of their de Broglie wavelengths is
(A) 2 (B) 2 2 (C) 3 (D) 2 3
Ans: (B)
h
=
2mqV

For given ‘V’

1

mq

P m q 4mP x 2qP 
= = = P =2 2
 mP q P mP x qP 

7. The total energy of an electron revolving in the second orbit of hydrogen atom is
(A) -13.6 eV (B) -1.51 eV (C) -3.4 eV (D) Zero
Ans: (C)
13.6 eV
En =
n2
n=2
13.6 eV
En = = –3.4 eV
22
8. The period of revolution of an electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is T. The period
of revolution of the electron in the first excited state is
(A) 2 T (B) 4 T (C) 6 T (D) 8 T
Ans: (D)
2  rn
T=
Vn

rn  n2

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 1
vn 
n
T  n3 (n = principal quantum number)
n=2
T1  23
T1 23
= =8
T 1
T1 = 8T
9. The energy equivalent to a substance of mass 1 g is
(A) 18 x 1013 J (B) 9 x 1013 J (C) 18 x 106 J (D) 9 x 106 J
Ans: (B)
E = mc2 = 1 x 10-3 x (3 x 108)2 = 9 x 1013 J
10. The half-life of tritium is 12.5 years. What mass of tritium of initial mass 64 mg will remain
undecayed after 50 years?
(A) 32 mg (B) 8 mg (C) 16 mg (D) 4 mg
Ans: (D)
Given initial mass, m0 = 64 mg
64 mg
Mass remains after 50 years = = 4 mg
24
11. In a CE amplifier, the input ac signal to be amplified is applied across
(A) Forward biased emitter-base junction
(B) Reverse biased collerctor-base junction
(C) Reverse biased emitter-base junction
(D) Forward biased collector-base junction
Ans: (A)
12. If A = 1 and B = 0, then in terms of Boolean algebra, A + B =
(A) B (B) B (C) A (D) A
Ans: (B OR C)
Y=A+ B =1+ 0 =1+1=1
13. The density of an electron-hole pair in a pure germanium is 3 x 10 16 m-3 at room
temperature. On doping with aluminium, the hole density increases to 4.5 x 1022 m-3. Now
the electron density (in m-3) in doped germanium will be
(A) 1 x 1010 (B) 2 x 1010 (C) 0.5 x 1010 (D) 4 x 1010
Ans: (B)
ni2 = nenh
ni2 (3 x 1016 )2
ne = =
nh 4.5 x 10 22

9 x 10 32
ne = = 2 x 1010
4.5 x 10 22

14. The dc common emitter current gain of a n-p-n transistor is 50. The potential difference
applied across the collector and emitter of a transistor used in CE configuration is, V CE = 2 V.
If the collector resistance, RC = 4k, the base current (IB) and the collector current (IC) are
(A) IB = 10 A, IC = 0.5 mA (B) IB = 0.5 A, IC = 10 mA
(C) IB = 5 A, IC = 1 mA (D) IB = 1 A, IC = 0.5 mA
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Ans: (A)
Forward current gain
IC
=
IB

VCE = ICRC
2
IC = = 0.5 mA
4 x 10 3

IC 0.5 x 10 3
IB = = = 10 A
B 50
15. The radius of the Earth is 6400 km. If the height of an antenna is 500 m, then its range is
(A) 800 km (B) 100 km (C) 80 km (D) 10 km
Ans: (C)
4
d= 2Rh = 2 x 6.4 x 10 6 x 500 = 8 x 10 m = 80 km

16. A space station is at a height equal to teh radius of the Earth. If ‘vE’ is the escape velocity on
the surface of the Earth, the same on the space station is ......... times vE.
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 2 3
Ans: (C)
According to law of conservation of energy
1 GMm 1 GMm
mve2 – = mv2 –
2 R 2 2R

v 2e GM 1
 = v2
2 2R 2
2GM
ve2 =
R
ve
v=
2
17. A particle shows distance-time curve as shown in the figure. the maximum instantaneous
velocity of the particle is around the point
S

R
Distance

Q
P
Time
(A) P (B) S (C) R (D) Q
Ans: (C)
Slope indicates instantaneous velocity. Slope at R is move.

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18. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of ‘g’ on the Earth?

g g g g

(A) (B) (C) (D)

r r r r
R R R R

Ans: (B)   g
R2
g” = g  2

 (R  h) 
4
g= GRP [g  R]
3
4
Gy = g’ [g  y] s
3 s=R
g=0

19. A cup of tea cools from 65.5oC to 62.5oC in 1 minute in a room at 22.5oC. How long will it
take to cool from 46.5oC to 40.5oC in the same room?
(A) 4 minutes (B) 2 minutes (C) 1 minute (D) 3 minutes
Ans: (A)
I   f   f 
=K  I  s 
t  2 
3
3 = K [41.5]  K =
41.5
6 3
=  = 3.96 = 4 min
t  83 
41.5[21]t   
 21 
20. The dimensions of the ratio of magnetic flux () and permeability () are
(A) [M0L1T0A1] (B) [M0L-3T0A1] (C) [M0L1T1A-1] (D) [M0L2T0A1]
Ans: (A)
 = MLT-2 A-1
 = MLT-2 A-2
21. A mass ‘m’ on the surface of the Earth is shifted to a target equal to the radius of the
Earth. If ‘R’ is the radius and ‘M’ is the mass of the Earth, then work done in this process is
mgR mgR
A) B) mgR C) 2mgR D)
2 4
Ans: (A)
mgh mgR
Wshift = =
h 2
1
R
22. First overtone frequency of a closed pipe of length ‘l 1’ is equal to the 2nd harmonic
l
frequency of an open pipe of length ‘l2’. The ratio 1 =
l2
3 4 3 2
A) B) C) D)
4 3 2 3

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Ans: (A)
3V
First over tone of closed pipe t =
4 1
v
2nd Harmonic of open pipe t =
2
3u v  3
=  1 =
4 1 2 2 4
V
23. The resistance R = where V = (100  5) V and I = (10  0.2) A. The percentage error in
I
R is
A) 5.2% B) 4.8% C) 7% D) 3%
Ans: (C)
R V I
x 100 = x 100 + x 100
R V I
5 0.2
= x 100 + x 100 = 7%
100 10
24. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30 with the horizontal. The
coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is 0.8. If the frictional force on
the block is 10 N, the mass of the block is (g = 10 ms-2)
A) 1 kg B) 2 kg C) 3 kg D) 4 kg
Ans: (C)
mgcos = Friction = 10
3
0.8 x m x 10 x = 10
2
m = 2.88 kg = 3kg
25. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their
momenta is
A) m1 : m2 B) m2 : m1 C) m1 : m2 D) m12 : m22
Ans: (C)
p2
KE =  p2  m
2m
p m
p1 m1
=
p2 m2
26. The pressure at the bottom of a liquid tank is not proportional to the
A) Acceleration due to gravity B) Density of the liquid
C) Height of the liquid D) Area of the liquid surface
Ans: (D)
Pressure at the bottom
p = patm + hg
Independent of area
27. A Carnot engine takes 300 calories of heat from a source at 500 K and rejects 150 calories
of heat to the sink. The temperature of the sink is
A) 125 K B) 250 K C) 750 K D) 1000 K
Ans: (B)
Q1  Q 2 T  T2
Efficiency  = = 1
Q1 T1
300  150 T
=1– 2
300 500
T2 = 250K

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28. Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping temperature constant. The kinetic energy
of molecules
A) Decreases
B) Increases
C) Remains same
D) Increases or decreases depending on the nature of gas
Ans: (C)
3
KE = PV
2
When P increases V
Kinetic energy = constant
29. A man weighing 60 kg is in a lift moving down with an acceleration of 1.8 ms-2. The force
exerted by the floor on him is
A) 588 N B) 480 N C) Zero D) 696 N
Ans: (B)
W| = m (g – a) = 60 (9.8 – 1.8) = 480 N
30. Moment of inertia of a body about two perpendicular axes X and Y in the plane of lamina
are 20 kg m2 and 25 kg m2 respectively. Its moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular
to the plane of the lamina and passing through the point of intersection of X and Y axes is
A) 5 kg m2 B) 45 kg m2 C) 12.5 kg m2 D) 500 kg m2
Ans: (B)
Ix = 20 kg m2, Iy = 25 kgm2
Iz = Ix + IY
Iz = 45 kgm2
31. Two wires A and B are stretched by the same load. If the area of cross-section of wire ‘A’ is
double that of ‘B’, then the stress on ‘B’ is
A) Equal to that on A B) Twice that on A
C) Half that on A D) Four times that on A
Ans: (B)
1
Stress  (since force is same)
A
(stress)B 2A
=  (stress)B = 2(stress)A
(stress) A A
32. The magnitude of point charge due to which the electric field 30 cm away has the
magnitude 2 NC-1 will be
A) 2 x 10-11 C B) 3 x 10-11 C C) 5 x 10-11 C D) 9 x 10-11 C
Ans: (A)
1 q q
E= . 2 2 = 9 x 109
4t o r (0.3)2
2 x 0.09
q= = 2 x 10-11
9 x 10 9
33. A mass of 1 kg carrying a charge of 2 C is accelerated through a potential of 1 V. The
velocity acquired by it is
1 1
A) 2 ms-1 B) 2 ms-1 C) ms-1 D) ms-1
2 2
Ans: (B)
1
qV = mV2
2
2qV
= v2
m
2qV
v2 = = v2
m
2qV 2 x 2 x 1
v= v= = 2m/s
m 1

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34. The force of repulsion between two identical positive charges when kept with a separation
‘r’ in air is ‘F’. Half the gap between the two charges is filled by a dielectric slab of dielectric
constant = 4. Then the new force of repulsion between those two charges becomes
F F F 4F
A) B) C) D)
3 2 4 9
Ans: (D)
1 q2
F= . 2 ...... (1)
4 0 r
r
When half of the separation is filled with dielectric hence t =
2
1 q2
F| = .
4 0 (r  t)  t(t r )2
1 q2
F| = .
4 0   r r 
2
  r    ( 4 ) 
 2 2 
1 q2
F| = .
4 0  r 
2
  r
2 
1 q2
F| = . 2 ....... (2) we get
4 0 9r
4
| 4
F = F
9
35. For the arrangement of capacitors as shown in the circuit, the effective capacitance
between the points A and B is (capacitance of each capacitor is 4 F)

4 F 4 F
A B 4 F

4 F 4 F

A) 4 F B) 2 F C) 1 F D) 8 F
Ans: (A)
Above circuit can be redrawn as

4 F 4 F

A B

4 F
4 F

Since it is balanced network

4 || 4  2F
4 || 4  2F
2F and 2F are in parallel
CP = C1 + C2 = 4F

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36. The work done to move a charge on an equipotential surface is
A) Infinity B) Less than 1 C) Greater than 1 D) Zero
Ans: (D)
W = q0 (VA – VB) Since VA = VB
W = 0 (0) = 0
37. Two capacitors of 3 F and 6 F are connected in series and a potential difference of 900 V
is applied across the combination. They are then disconnected and reconnected in parallel.
The potential difference across the combination is
A) Zero B) 100 V C) 200 V D) 400 V
Ans: (C) 3F 6F
When 3F and 6F are in series

600 V 300 V
I
900 V
1
C
V
 p.d across 3F is 600 V
p.d across 6 F is 300 V
then they are disconnected and connected in parallel
3F

600V

6F
C1 V1  C 2 V2 3 x 600  6 x 300 1800  1800 3600
V= = = = 400 V
C1  C 2 63 9 9
38. Ohm’s Law is applicable to
A) Diode B) Transistor C) Electrolyte D) Conductor
Ans: (D)
39. If the last band on the carbon resistor is absent, then the tolerance is
A) 5% B) 20% C) 10% D) 15%
Ans: (B)
40. The effective resistance between P and Q for the following network is R

1
A) 
12 3 3
B) 21 

C) 12  6
1
D)  4 5
21
Ans: (C)
Referring above diagram,

3 in series with 3  3 + 3 = 6 P 
6 x 6 Q
6 is in parallel with 6  RP = = 3
66
4, 3 and 5 are in series
Rs = 4 + 3 + 5 = 12

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41. Five identical resistors each of resistance R = 1500  are connected to a 300 V battery as
shown in the circuit. The reading of the ideal ammeter A is

   
+
300 R R R R R
V 

  A  

1 3 2 4
A) A B) A C) A D) A
5 5 5 5
Ans: (B)
R 1500
Reff = = = 300
n 5
V 300
Main current in the circuit is I = = =1A
R 300
1
 current through each resistor will be 
5
3
There force current read by the ammeter will be A
5
42. Two cells of internal resistances r1 and r2 and of same emf are connected in series, across a
resistor of resistance R. If the terminal potential difference across the cells of internal
resistance r1 is zero, then the value of R is
A) R = 2(r1 + r2) B) R = r2  r1 C) R = r1  r2 D) R = 2 (r1r2)
Ans: (C)
Eq
I=
R  req
Er1 Er2
2E
I= ........ (1)
R  (r1  r2 )
V1 = E – Ir1 V1 = 0
0 = E – Ir1 I
Ir1 = E
E
I= [ ........ (2)
r1 R
From (1) and (2)
E 2E
=
r1 R  (r1  r2 )
2r1 = R + (r1 + r2)
R = 2r1 – r1 – r2
R = r1 – r2
43. The I-V graphs for two different electrical appliances P and Q are shown in the diagram. If
RP and RQ be the resistances of the devices, then

P
I

O
V
RQ
A) RP = RQ B) RP > RQ C) RP < RQ D) RP =
2

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Ans: (B)
Q (RQ)
I
Slope of is G
V I Q2 P (RP)
1
Tan Q = G =
R
Q2 > Q1
Q1
G2 > G 1
R2 < R 1 O
RQ < RP V

44. The correct Biot-Savart law in vector form is

   

0 I (d l x r )  0 I (d l x r )
A) d B  B) d B 
4 r2 4 r3
 
 0 I d l  0 I d l
C) d B  D) d B  .
4 r 2 4 r 3
Ans: (B)
45. An electron is moving in circle of radius r in a uniform magnetic field B. Suddenly the field
B
is reduced to . The radius of the circular path now becomes.
2
r r
A) B) 2r C) D) 4r
2 4
Ans: (B)
mv B
r= If B is reduced to
GB 2
1
r then radius is doubled
B
46. A charge q is accelerated through a potential difference V. It is then passed normally
through a uniform magnetic field, where it moves in a circle of radius r. The potential
difference required to move it in a circle of radius 2r is
A) 2V B) 4V C) 1V D) 3 V
Ans: (B)
mv
r=
qB
mv = 2mEk
EK = qv
2mqv
r=
qB
r v
r1  v1
r1 v1

r v
v1 = 4v
47. A cyclotron’s oscillator frequency is 10 MHz and the operating magnetic field is 0.66 T. If
the radius of its dees is 60 cm, then the kinetic energy of the proton beam produced by the
accelerator is
A) 9 MeV B) 10 MeV C) 7 MeV d) 11 MeV
Ans: (C )
B2q2r 2
EK =
2m
(0.66)2 (1.66 x 10 14 )2 x (0.6)2
EK = MeV
2 x 1.67 x 10 27 x 1.6 x 10 19 x 106
EK = 7meV

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48. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic
substance respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will
A) Attract all three of them
B) Attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
C) Attract N1 strongly but repel N2 and N3 weakly
D) Attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
Ans: (B)
Ferromagnetic materials are strongly attracted by magnet. Paramagnetic materials are
weakly attracted by a magnet. Diamagnetic materials are weakly repelled by a magnet
49. The strength of the Earth’s magnetic field is
A) Constant everywhere
B) Zero everywhere
C) Having very high value
D) Varying from place to place on the Earth’s surface
Ans: (D)
Earth’s magnetic field varies from place to place
50. A jet plane having a wing-span of 25m is travelling horizontally towards east with a speed
of 3600 km/hour. If the Earth’s magnetic field at the location is 4 x 104 T and the angle of
dip is 30then, the potential difference between the ends of the wing is
A) 4V B) 5 V C) 2 V D) 2.5V
Ans: (B)
Induced emf
E = Bl  sin 
 = angle or dip
1
e = 4 x 104 x 25 x 1000 x
2
e = 5V
51. Which of the following represents the variation of inductive reactance (XL) with the
frequency of voltage source ()?
XL XL XL XL

A) B) C) D)
   
Ans: (A)
XL  frequency
52. The magnetic flux linked with a coil varies as  = 3t2 + 4t + 9. The magnitude of the emf
induced at t = 2 second is
A) 8 V B) 16V C) 32 V D) 64 V
Ans: (B)
Given  = 3t2 + 4t + 9
d
|e| =  6t  4
dt
|e|at t = 2 = 12 + 4
= 16 V
53. A 100 W bulb is connected to an AC source of 220V, 50 Hz. Then the current flowing
through the bulb is
5 1 3
A) A B) A C) 2 A D) A
11 2 4
Ans: (A)
P = Vns Irms cos 
Bulb is pure resistive circuit
cos = 1
P 100 5
Irns =   A
Vms 220 II
54. In the series LCR circuit, the power dissipation is through
A) R B) L C) C D) Both L and C
Ans: (A)
There is no power dissipation through L & C since phase diff is 90
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55. In Karnataka, the normal domestic power supply AC is 220 V, 50 Hz. Here 220V and 50 Hz
refer to
A) Peak value of voltage and frequency B) rms value of voltage and frequency
C) Mean value of voltage and frequency D) Peak value of voltage and angular frequency
Ans: (B)
56. A step-up transformer operates on a 230 V line and a loan current of 2 A. The ratio of
primary and secondary windings is 1 : 25. Then the current in the primary is
A) 25 V B) 50 A C) 15 A D) 12.5 A
Ans: (B)
s I 25 IP
For a transformer :  P  
p Is 1 2
IP =50A
57. The number of photons falling per second on a completely darkened plate to produce a
force of 6.62 x 105 N is ‘n’. If the wavelength of the light falling is 5 x 107 m, then
22
n = __ x 10 .
(h = 6.62 x 1034 J-s).
A) 1 B) 5 C) 0.2 D) 3.3
Ans: (B)
dP
F=
dt
u  dp u
F=n   
C  dt c
nr h
F=n F= n
C 
F x  6.62 x 10 5 x 5 x 10 7
n= = =5 x 1022
h 6.67 x 10 34
58. An object is placed at the principal focus of a convex mirror. The image will be at
A) Centre of curvature B) Principal focus
C) Infinity D) No image will be formed
Ans: (D)

 F

59. An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from the pole of a concave mirror of focal length
10 cm. The distance of the image formed is
A) + 20 cm B) + 10 cm C)  20 cm D) 10 cm
Ans: (C)
1 1 1
Mirror formula:  
f u V
1 1 1 1 1 2  1
  =  =
v f u  10  20 20
v = 20cm
60. A candle placed 25 cm from a lens forms an image on a screen placed 75 cm on the other
side of the lens. The focal length and type of the lens should be
A) + 18.75 cm and convex lens B)  18.75 cm and concave lens
C) + 20.25 cm and convex lens D)  20.25 cm and concave lens
Ans: (A)
Lets formula
1 1 1
= 
f u v
1 1 1
 
f  25 75
31
f  f = +18.75 cm
75

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 KCET – CHEMISTRY – 2018

VERSION CODE: A

1. 1.0 g of Mg is burnt with 0.28 g of O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and
how much?
A) Mg, 5.8 g B) Mg, 0.58 g C) O2, 0.24 g D) O2, 2.4 g
Ans: (B)
2. The orbital nearest to the nucleus is
A) 4f B) 5d C) 4s D) 7p
Ans: (C)
3. Which of the following is the correct order of radius?
A) H> H > H+ B) Na+ > F > O2- C) F > O2- > Na+ D) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3-
Ans: (A)
4. The intramolecular hydrogen bond is present in
A) Phenol B) o-Nitrophenol C) p-Nitrophenol D) p-Cresol
Ans: (B)
5. The state of hybrid orbitals of carbon in CO2, CH4 and CO 23  respectively is
A) sp3, sp2 and sp B) sp3, sp and sp2 C) sp, sp3 and sp2 D) sp2, sp3 and sp
Ans: (C)
6. For an ideal gas, compressibility factor is
A) 0 B) 1 C) -1 D) +2
Ans: (B)
7. The relationship between K p and Kc is Kp = Kc(RT)n. What would be the value of n for the
reaction NH4Cl(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + HCl (g)?
A) 1 B) 0.5 C) 1.5 D) 2
Ans: (D)
8. Acidity of BF3 can be explained on which of the following concepts?
A) Arrhenius concept B) Bronsted Lowry concept
C) Lewis concept D) Bronsted Lowry as well as Lewis concept
Ans: (C)
9. For the redox reaction x MnO 4 + yH2C2O4 + z H+  m Mn2+ + nCO2 + p H2O. The values of x,
y, m and n are
A) 10, 2, 5, 2 B) 2, 5, 2, 10 C) 6, 4, 2, 4 D) 3, 5, 2, 10
Ans: (B)
10. H2O2 is
A) An oxidising agent B) A reducing agent
C) Both Oxidising and reducing agent D) Neither oxidising nor reducing agent
Ans: (C)

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11. Dead burnt plaster is
1
A) CaSO4 B) CaSO4. H2O C) CaSO4.H2O D) CaSO4.2H2O
2
Ans: (A)
12. Identify the following compound which exhibits geometrical isomerism:
A) But-2-ene B) But-1-ene C) Butane D) Isobutane
Ans: (A)
13. During the fusion of organic compound with sodium metal, nitrogen present in the organic
compound is converted into
A) NaNO2 B) NaNH2 C) NaCN D) NaNC
Ans: (C)
14. The reagent ‘X’ used for the following reaction is
R R'

R C CR' + H 2 X C C
  H H
 A) Ni B) Pd/C C) LiAlH4 D) Na/Liquid NH3
Ans: (B)
15. Which of the following ions will cause hardness in water?
A) Ca2+ B) Na+ C) Cl D) K+
Ans: (A)
16. Which of the following oxides shows electrical properties like metals?
A) SiO2 B) MgO C) SO2(s) D) CrO2
Ans: (D)
17. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?
A) 1.0 M NaOH B) 1.0 M Na2SO4 C) 1.0 M NH2NO3 D) 1.0 M KNO3
Ans: (B)
18. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mole of MnO 4 to MnO2 is
A) 1F B) 3F C) 5F D) 7F
Ans: (B)
19. For the reaction, 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3, the rate of disappearance of O2 is 2 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1.
The rate of appearance of SO3 is
A) 2 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1 B) 4 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
C) 1 x 10-1 mol L-1 s-1 D) 6 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
Ans: (B)
20. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag + sol?
A) Na2S B) Na3PO4 C) Na2SO4 D) NaCl
Ans: (D)
21. Electrolytic refining is used to purify which of the following metals?
(A) Cu and Zn (B) Ge and Si (C) Zr and Ti (D) Zn and Hg
Ans: (A)

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22. Dry ice is
(A) Solid CO (B) Solid SO2 (C) Solid CO2 (D) Solid O2
Ans: (C)
23. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
(A) V2O5, Cr2O3 (B) Mn2O7, Cr2O3 (C) CrO, V2O5 (D) V2O5, V2O4
Ans: (A)
24. The IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)4Cl(NO2)]Cl is
(A) tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-cobalt(III) chloride
(B) tetraamminechloridonitrocobalt(II) chloride
(C) tetraamminechloridonitrocobalt(I) chloride
(D) tetraamminechloridodinitrocobalt(III) chloride
Ans: (A)
25. Which of the following statements is true in case of alkyl halides?
(A) They are polar in nature
(B) They can form hydrogen bonds
(C) They are highly soluble in water
(D) They undergo addition reactions
Ans: (A)
26. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the reagent
(A) Bromine water (B) Sodium metal (C) Iron metal (D) Chlorine water
Ans: (A)
27. Which of the following compounds undergoes haloform reaction?
(A) CH3COCH3 (B) HCHO (C) CH3CH2Br (D) CH3 – O – CH3
Ans: (A)
28. Which of teh following will be the most stable diazonium salt (R N2 X-)?
(A) CH3 N2 X- (B) C6H5 N2 X- (C) CH3CH2 N2 X- (D) C6H5 CH2 N2 X-
Ans: (B)
29. Which of the following bases is not present in DNA?
(A) Adenine (B) Guanine (C) Cytosine (D) Uracil
Ans: (D)
30. Which one of the following is a polyamide polymer?
(A) Terylene (B) Nylon-6,6 (C) Buna-S (D) Bakelite
Ans: (B)
31. In F.C.C. the unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells?
A) 10 B) 8 C) 6 D) 2
Ans: (C)
32. At a particular temperature, the ratio of molar conductance to specific conductance of
0.01M NaCl solution is
A) 105 cm3 mol-1 B) 103 cm3 mol-1 C) 10 cm3 mol-1 D) 105 cm2 mol-1
Ans: (A)
33. Isotonic solutions are solutions having the same
A) Surface tension B) Vapour pressure C) Osmotic pressure D) Viscosity
Ans: (C)
34. The temperature coefficient of a reaction is 2. When the temperature is increased from
30C to 90C, the rate of reaction is increased by
A) 150 times B) 410 times C) 72 times D) 64 times
Ans: (D)

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35. Gold sol is not a
A) Lyophobic sol B) Negatively charged sol
C) Macromolecular sol D) Multimolecular colloid
Ans: (C)
36. The common impurity present in bauxite is
A) CuO B) ZnO C) Fe2O3 D) Cr2O3
Ans: (C)
37. Very pure N2 can be obtained by
A) Thermal decomposition of ammonium dichromate
B) Treating aqueous solution of NH4Cl and NaNO2
C) Liquifaction and fractional distillation of liquid air
D) Thermal decomposition of sodium azide
Ans: (D)
38. Which of the following oxidation states is common for all lanthanides?
A) +2 B) +3 C) +4 D) +5
Ans: (B)
39. The electronic configuration of transition element “X”, is +3, oxidation state is [Ar]3d 5.
What is its atomic number?
A) 25 B) 26 C) 27 D) 24
Ans: (B)
40. n-Propyl chloride reacts with sodium metal in dry ether to give
A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 B) CH3CH2CH3
C) CH3CH2CH2CH3 D) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
Ans: (A)
41. When the vapours of tertiary butyl alcohol are passed through heated copper at 573 K, the
product formed is
A) But-2-ene B) 2-Butanone C) 2-Methyl propene D) Butanal
Ans: (C)
42. What is the increasing order of acidic strength among the following?
(i) p-methoxy phenol (ii) p-methyl phenol (iii) p-nitro phenol
A) ii < iii < I B) iii < ii < I C) I < ii < iii D) I < iii < ii
Ans: (C)
43. Which of the following is more basic than aniline?
A) Diphenylamine B) Triphenulamine
C) p-nitroaniline D) Benzylamine
Ans: (D)
44. The two forms of D-Glucopyranose are called
A) Diastereomers B) Anomers C) Epimers D) Enantiomers
Ans: (B)
45. Among the following, the branched chain polymer is
A) Polyvinyl chloride B) Bakelite
C) Low density polythene D) High density polythene
Ans: (C)
46. Edge length of a cube is 300 pm. Its body diagonal would be
A) 600 pm B) 423 pm C) 519.6 pm D) 450.5 pm
Ans: (C)
47. Which of the following is not a conductor of electricity?
A) Solid NaCl B) Cu C) Fused NaCl d) Brine solution
Ans: (A)

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48. For a cell involving two electron changes, E0cell  0.3 V at 25C. The equilibrium constant of
the reaction is
A) 1010 B) 3 x 102 C) 10 D) 1010
Ans: (D)
49. The value of rate constant of a pseudo first order reaction
A) Depends only on temperature
B) Depends on the concentration of reactants present in small amounts
C) Depends on the concentration of reactants present in excess
D) Is independent of the concentration of reactants
Ans: (A)
50. (CH3)3SiCl is used during polymerization of organosilicons because
A) The chain length of organosilicon polymers can be controlled by adding (CH3)3SiCl
B) (CH3)3SiCl improves the quality and yield of the polymer
C) (CH3)3SiCl does not block the end terminal of silicone polymer
D) (CH3)3SiCl acts are as a catalyst during polymerization.
Ans: (A)
51. When PbO2 reacts with concentrated HNO3, the gas evolved is
(A) NO2 (B) O2 (C) N2 (D) N2O
Ans: (B)
52. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline medium. When alkaline KMnO 4 is treated with
KI, iodide ion is oxidised to
(A) I2 (B) IO- (C) IO3- (D) IO4-
Ans: (C)
53. [Fe(NO2)3Cl3] and [Fe(O – NO)3Cl3] shows
(A) Linkage isomerism (B) Geometrical isomerism
(C) Optical isomerism (D) Hydrate isomerism
Ans: (A)
54. Tertiary alkyl halide is practically inert to substitution by SN2 mechanism because of
(A) Insolubility (B) Instability (C) Inductive effect (D) Steric hindrance
Ans: (D)
55. The products X and Z in the following reaction sequence are
OH

AlCl3/ether O2/130oC H +/H2O

+ H3C CH CH2
Heat
X Y
Heat
+ Z

(A) Isopropylbenzene and acetone

(B) Cumene peroxide and acetone
(C) Isopropylbenzene and isopropyl alcohol
(D) Phenol and acetone
Ans: (A)
56. The appropriate reagent for the following transformation is
O

CH3 CH3

HO HO

(A) Zn – Hg/HCl (B) H2N – NH2, KOH/ethylene glycol

(C) Ni/H2 (D) NaBH4
Ans: (B)
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57. In the following reaction,
CH3

CrO2Cl2 H 3O
X Z
CS2

the compound Z is
(A) Benzoic acid (B) Benzaldehyde (C) Acetophenone (D) Benzene
Ans: (B)
58. The reaction of Benzenediazonium chloride with aniline yields yellow dye. The name of the
yellow dye is
(A) p-Hydroxyazobenzene (B) p-Aminoazobenzene
(C) p-Nitroazobenzene (D) o-Nitroazobenzene
Ans: (B)
59. The glycosidic linkage involved in linking the glucose units in amylase part of starch is
(A) C1 – C4 -linkage (B) C1 – C6 -linkage
(C) C1 – C6 -linkage (D) C1 – C4 -linkage
Ans: (D)
60. Ziegler-Natta catalyst is used to prepare
(A) Low-density polythene (B) Teflon
(C) High density polythene (D) Nylon-6
Ans: (C)

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 KCET – MATHEMATICS – 2018

VERSION CODE: H

1. For the LPP; maximise z = x + 4y subject to the constraints x + 2y  2, x + 2y  8, x, y  0

(A) zmax = 4 (B) zmax = 8
(C) zmax = 16 (D) Has no feasible solution
Ans: (D)
y

x
0 2 8

No feasible region
2. For the probability distribution given by

X = xi 0 1 2
Pi 25 5 1
36 18 36
the standard deviation () is
1 1 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of the above
3 3 2 36
Ans: (B)
X  xi 0 1 2
Pi 25 / 36 5 /18 1/ 36
5  1  6 1
   xi Pi  0  (1)    (2)     .
 18   36  18 3
1 25 4 5 25 1 90 10 1 5
  ( xi   )2  Pi =       = 
9 36 9 18 9 36 9  36 36 3 2
3. A bag contains 17 tickets numbered from 1 to 17. A ticket is drawn at random, then another
ticket is drawn without replacing the first one. The probability that both the tickets may
show even numbers is
7 8 7 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34 17 16 17
Ans: (A)
8 7 7
P( E2  E1 )  P(E1 )  P( E2 | E1 ) =  
17 16 34

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4. A flashlight has 10 batteries out of which 4 are dead. If 3 batteries are selected without
replacement and tested, then the probability that all 3 are dead is
1 2 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
30 8 15 10
Ans: (A)
4
C3 4  3 2 1
Required probability = 10
= 
C3 10  9  8 30
5. If |x + 5|  10 then
(A) x  (-15, 5] (B) x  (-5, 5]
(C) x  (-, -15]  [5, ) (D) x  [-, -15]  [5, )
Ans: (C)
| x  5 |  10
x  5  10 or x  5   10  x  5 or x  15  x  (, 15]  [5, )
6. Everybody in a room shakes hands with everybody else. The total number of handshakes is
45. The total number of persons in the room is
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 15
Ans: (B)
n
Let ‘n’ be the number of persons, C2  45  n(n  1)  90  n = 10.
16
 1 
7. The constant term in the expansion of  x 2   is
 x2 
(A) 16C8 (B) 16
C7 (C) 16
C9 (D) 16
C10
Ans: (A)

16
 2 1 
 x  2  , n  16 , p  2 , q  2
 x 
np 32 16
r  8  Coefficient = C8 (1)8  16C8
pq 4

8. If P (n) : “22n – 1 is divisible by k for all n  N” is true, then the value of ‘k’ is
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 2
Ans: (B)
P (n)  2 2 n  1 is divisible by k
Put n = 1, P (1)  22  1  3 is divisible by k
 k = 3.
9. The equation of the line parallel to the line 3x – 4y + 2 = 0 and passing through (-2, 3) is
(A) 3x – 4y + 18 = 0 (B) 3x – 4y – 18 = 0
(C) 3x + 4y + 18 = 0 (D) 3x + 4y – 18 = 0
Ans: (A)
Line is parallel to 3x  4 y  2  0
 Equation is 3x  4 y  k  0
Passes through (2,3)
6  12  k  0  k  18
 Equation is 3x  4 y  18  0

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 96
1  i
10. If   = a + ib then (a, b) is
1  i 
(A) (1, 1) (B) (1, 0) (C) (0, 1) (D) (0, -1)
Ans: (B)
1  i 1  i 1  i (1  i ) 2 2i
     i
1 i 1 i 1 i 2 2
96
 1 i  96
   ( i )  1  1  i  0
 1 i 
 a  1, b  0
11. The distance between the foci of a hyperbola is 16 and its eccentricity is 2 . Its equation is
2 2
x y
(A) x2 – y2 = 32 (B) – =1 (C) 2x2 – 3y2 = 7 (D) y2 – x2 = 32
4 9
Ans: (A or D)
Distance between foci = 2ae or 2be = 16
 ae or be = 8
Given, e  2
 b  a (e  1)  b = a
2 2 2

x2 y 2 x2 y2
 Equation is   1 or   1
32 32 32 32
12. The number of ways in which 5 girls and 3 boys can be seated in a row so that no two boys
are together is
(A) 14040 (B) 14440 (C) 14000 (D) 14400
Ans: (D)
6
3 boys in available 6 places can be arranged in P3 ways corresponding to each such
arrangement 5 girls can be arranged in 5! Ways
6!
Total arrangements = 6 P3  5!   5!  5! 5!  14400
3!
13. If a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an AP and x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a
GP, then the value of xb – c, yc – a, za – b is
(A) 0 (B) xyz (C) -1 (d) 1
Ans: (D)
a, b, c are in AP.  2b  a  c
x, y, z are in G.P. Let x  a, y  ar , z  ar 2
 xb c  y c  a  z a b = a b  c  ( ar )c  a  ( ar 2 ) a b
bc c  a  a b c  a  2 a 2b
= a r
0 a  c  2b
= a r  a0 r 0  1 .
|x|
14. The value of lim is
x 0 x
(A) 1 (B) -1 (C) 0 (D) Does not exist
Ans: (D)
|x| ( x)
LHL = lim  lim  1
x 0 x x 0 x


| x| x
RHL = lim  lim  1
 x x 0 x
x 0
LHL  RHL
Limit does not exist.
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 1
15. Let f (x) = x – then f’ (-1) is
x
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) -2
Ans: (B)
1
f ( x)  x  , f '( x )  1  1/ x 2 , f '(1)  1  1  2 .
x
16. The negation of the statement “72 is divisible by 2 and 3” is
(A) 72 is not divisible by 2 or 72 is not divisible by 3
(B) 72 is divisible by 2 or 72 is divisible by 3
(C) 72 is divisible by 2 and 72 is divisible by 3
(D) 72 is not divisible by 2 and 3
Ans: (A)
17. The probability of happening of an event A is 0.5 and that of B is 0.3. If A and B are
mutually exclusive events, then the probability of neither A nor B is
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.9
Ans: (C)
P( A ' B ')  P( A  B) '  1  P( A  B) = 1  [ P( A)  P( B )] = 1  [0.5  0.3]  0.2
18. In a simultaneous throw of a pair of dice, the probability of getting a total more than 7 is
7 5 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 36 12 36
Ans: (C)

A = {(2, 6), (3, 5), (3.6), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6), (6, 2),
(6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
15 5
 P ( A)  
36 12
3 1
19. If A and B are mutually exclusive events, given that P (A) = , P (B) = , then P (A or B) is
5 5
(A) 0.8 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.2
Ans: (A)
3 1 4
P (A or B) =    0.8
5 5 5
20. Let f, g: R  R be two functions defined as f (x) = |x| + x and g (x) = |x| - x  x  R. Then
(fog) (x) for x < 0 is
(A) 0 (B) 4x (C) -4x (D) 2x
Ans: (C)
Where x  0 , g ( x)  2 x  f ( g ( x))  f ( 2 x) | 2 x | ( 2 x) = 2 x  2 x  4 x
21. A is set having 6 distinct elements. The number of distinct functions from A to A which are
not bijections is
A) 6! – 6 B) 66 – 6 C) 66 – 6! D) 6!
Ans: (C)
No of functions on A – No of bijective functions on A = 66 - 6!
2x ; x3

22. Let f: R  R be defined by f(x) = x 2 ; 1  x  3 , then f(-1) + f(2) + f(4) is
3x ; x 1

A) 9 B) 14 C) 5 D) 10
Ans: (A)
3  4  8  9
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 2
23. If sin-1x + cos-1y = , then cos-1x + sin-1y is
5
2 3 4 3
A) B) C) D)
5 5 5 10
Ans: (B)
Let cos 1 x  sin 1 y  
2
sin 1 x  cos 1 y 
5
  2 2 3
Add,        .
2 2 5 5 5
1 2 
24. The value of the expression tan  cos 1  is
2 5
5 2
A) 2 - 5 B) 5 -2 C) D) 5 - 2
2
Ans: (B)
2
1
2 2  1  cos  5  52
cos1   , cos   tan  
5 5 2 1  cos  1
2
5
 2  2 n k
25. If A =   , then A = 2 A, where k =
 2 2 
A) 2n-1 B) n + 1 C) n – 1 D) 2(n – 1)
Ans: (D)
 1 1  1 1  1 1 2 2 2 
A  2   A2  22     = 2 
2
2 A
 1 2    1 1  1 1   2 2 
3 2 2 2 2 2 2 4
Similarly A  A  A  2 A  A  2  A  2  2 A  2 A
A4  A3  A  (24  A) A  26 A
By inspection (D) is correct.

 1 1 x  2 
26. If     =   , then the values of x and y respectively are
  1 1 y
   4 
A) -3, 1 B) 1, 3 C) 3, 1 D) -1, 3
Ans: (D)
 x  y   2
 x  y    4
   
2 y  6, y  3
x  1
 cos  sin  
27. If A =   , then AA’ =
 sin  cos  

A) A B) Zero matrix C) A’ D) I
Ans: (D)
 cos  sin    cos   sin   1 0 
  sin  cos    sin  cos    =  I
 0 1 

JOIN EXPERT & BE AN EXPERT 5

 5 x
 5 x  5
2 x
 5 x 
2
1
28. If x, y, z  R, then the value of determinant 6 x
6 x 2
 6 x
6 x 2
 1 is
7 x
7 x 2
 7 x
7 x 2
 1

A) 10 B) 12 C) 1 D) 0
Ans: (D)

4 (5x  5 x )2 1
4 (6 x  6 x ) 2 1  0 .
4 (7 x  7  x ) 2 1
ab b c a
29. The value of determinant b  a c  a b is
c a ab c
A) a3 + b3 + c3 B) 3abc
3 3 3
C) a + b + c – 3abc D) a3 + b3 + c3 + 3abc
Ans: [wrong question]
30. If (x1, y1), (x2, y2) and (x3, y3) are the vertices of triangle whose area is ‘k’ square units,
2
x1 y1 4
then x 2 y2 4 is
x3 y3 4
A) 32 k2 B) 16 k2 C) 64 k2 D) 48 k2
Ans: (C)
2
x1 y1 1 x1 y1 1
1
Given k  x2 y2 1  16 x2 y2 1 = 16(2k ) 2  64k 2 .
2
x3 y3 1 x3 y3 1

31. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 x 3, then |5A| =

A) 5|A| B) 125 |A| C) 25|A| D) 15|A|
Ans: (B)
5 A  5 3 A  125 A
 1  kx  1  kx 
 if  1  x  0
32. If f(x) =  x  is continuous at x = 0, then the value of k is
 2x 1 if 0  x 1 
 x  1 
A) k = 1 B) k = -1 C) k = 0 D) k = 2
Ans: (B)
1  kx  1  kx
Lt  1
x 0 x
1 1
 Lt k ( k )  1
x 0 2 1  kx 2 1  kx
 k  1

JOIN EXPERT & BE AN EXPERT 6

 dy
33. If cos y = x cos (a + y) with cos a   1, then is equal to
dx
sin a cos2 a  y  cos a cos2 a  y 
A) B) C) D)
cos2 a  y  sin a sin2 a  y  cos a
Ans: (B)
cos y
x
cos(a  y)
dy cos(a  y )(  sin y )  cos y.( sin(a  y )) sin(a  y  y )
 =
dx cos 2 ( a  y ) cos 2 ( a  y )
dy cos 2 ( a  y )
 
dx sin a

34. If f(x) = |cos x – sin x|, then f’   is equal to
6

A) -
1
2

1 3  B)
1
2

1 3  C) -
1
2

1 3  D)
1
2

1 3 
Ans: (A)

In the surroundings of ,
6
Cosx > sinx
 f ( x)  cos x  sin x
f '( x)   sin x  cos x
  1 3 1
f '       (1  3)
6 2 2 2
dy
35. If y = x  x  x  ... , then =
dx
1 1 2y 1
A) 2
B) C) 2
D)
y 1 2y  1 y 1 2y  1
Ans: (D)

y  x  x  x.....  y  x  y  y2  x  y  0
 f 
 
dy x  (1) 1
     
dx  f  2y 1 2y 1
 
 y 
 loge x

36. If f(x) =  x  1 ; x  1 is continuous at x = 1, then the value of k is
 k ; x 1
A) e B) 1 C) -1 D) 0
Ans: (B)
log e x 1/ x
Lt  k  Lt  k  k 1
x 1 x 1 x 1 1

JOIN EXPERT & BE AN EXPERT 7

37. Approximate change in the volume V of a cube of side x meters caused by increasing the
side by 3% is
A) 0.09 x3 m3 B) 0.03 x3 m3 C) 0.06 x3 m3 D) 0.04 x3 m3
Ans: (A)
dv
v  x & V  x3
dx
3
 v  3x2  x = 0.09 x 3
100
x
1
38. The maximum value of   is
x
1/e
1
A) e B) ee C) e1/e D)   
e
Ans: (C)
dy  v du dv 
y  xx  uv   uv  .  log u. 
dx  u dx dx 
dy
  x  x (1  log x)
dx
dy
At the stationary point, 0  (1  log e x)  0 ( x x  0 )
dx
1/ e
1  1  1
 f      e1/ e  x
 e   1/ e  e
39. f(x) = xx has stationary point at
1
A) x = e B) x = C) x = 1 D) x = e
e
Ans: (B)
dy
y  xx  x x (1  log x).

dx
dy 1
At the stationary point  0  1  log x  0  x 
dx e
40. The maximum area of a rectangle inscribed in the circle (x + 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = 64 is
A) 64 sq. units B) 72 sq. units C) 128 sq. units D) 8 sq. units
Ans: (C)
2
Maximum area of rectangle inscribed in a circle of radius ‘r’ has area = 2r  2(64) = 128
1
41. 1 e x
dx is equal to

 ex  1   ex  1 
A) loge  x
 c

B) loge  x
 c

 e   e 
e  x  e x 
C) loge  x  c

D) loge  x  c

e 1  e 1 
Ans: ( C)
1 1 ex  ex ex
 1 ex dx   1 ex dx   1 ex
1 

x  ex 
= x  log(1  e )  log  x 
1 e 

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 1
42.  3  6x  9x 2
dx is equal to

 3x  1   3x  1 
A) sin1  2  c B) sin   c
 6 
1  3x  1   2x  1 
C) sin1   c D) sin1  3   c
3  2 
Ans: (C)
3  6 x  9 x 2  4  (1  6 x  9 x 2 ) = 2 2  (3x  1) 2
1 1 1  3x  1 
  dx   dx = sin 1  C .
3  6x  9x 2
2  (3 x  1)
2 2 3  2 
 sin x  1 
e
sin x
43. .   dx is equal to
 sec x 
A) sin x . esin x + c B) cos x . esin x + c
C) esin x + c D) esin x (sin x + 1) + c
Ans: (A )
sin x
 e (sin x  1) cos x  dx , put sin x  t
t t sin x
 e (t  1)dt  e  t  c = sin x  e  c
2
44.  |x cos x | dx is equal to
2

8 4 2 1
A) B) C) D)
   
Ans: (A)
2
dt
 x(cos  x)dx Put  x  t  dx 

2
2 2
t dt 2  3
= 
2

cos t

=
 2  | t cos t | dt
0
[ t cos t  0  t  0 , t 
2
,
2
]

2  / 2 3 / 2 2

= 2  
t cos t  dt   t cos t  dt   t cos t  dt 
  0  /2 3 / 2 
2
  /2 3 / 2 2
= 2 (t sin t  cos t ) 0  (t sin t  cos t )  / 2  (t sin t  cos t ) 3 / 2


2     3    3   2 8
= 2   1       1    = 2 (4 )  .
  2   2 2   2   
1
dx
 e
0
x
 e x
is equal to

  
A)  tan1 (e) B) tan1(e)  C) tan1(e) + D) tan1(e)
4 4 4
Ans: (B )
1
1 1
ex
 x x dx   1  (e x )2 dx
0 e e 0
1
1 1 x 1 
=  x 2
d ( ex ) = tan (e ) = tan 1 (e)  .
0 1  (e ) 4
0

JOIN EXPERT & BE AN EXPERT 9

 1/2
dx
46. 
0 (1  x 2 ) 1  x 2
is equal to

1 2 2  3  2 3 2  3
A) tan1 B) tan1  
 D) tan1   d) tan1  
2 3 2 2 2 2  2 
 2  
Ans: (A )
Put x  tan  , dx  sec
2
 d
dx cos  dgq cos  d
  =  , 2 sin   t , 2 cos  d  dt
2
(1  x ) 1  x 2
cos   sin 
2 2
1  2sin 2 
1/ 2
1 dt 1 1
 = sin 1 t  sin 1 ( 2 sin(tan 1 x))
2 1 t 2 2 2 0

1  1   1 1    1  1 2  1 2
= sin  2 sin  tan    0 = sin  = tan 1
2   2   2 5 2 3

47. The area of the region bounded by the curve y = cos x between x = 0 and x =  is
A) 1 sq. unit B) 4 sq. units C) 2sq. units D) 3 sq. units
Ans: (C)

2


Required area = 2 cos x = 2 sq. units.
0

48. The area bounded by the line y = x, x-axis and ordinates x = 1 and x = 2 is
3 5
A) B) C) 2 D) 3
2 2
Ans: (B )
0 2
1 1 1 5
Required area A =  xdx   xdx
1 0
= 0  ( 4)   2 
2 2 2 2
2
d2 y  dy 
49. The degree and the order of the differential equation 2
31    respectively are
dx  dx 
A) 2 and 3 B) 3 and 2 C) 2 and 2 D) 3 and 3
Ans: (A )
3 2
 d2y   dy 
 2  1   
 dx   dx 
Order = 2, degree = 3.
dy
50. The Solution of the differential equation x y = 3 represents a family of
dx
A) straight lines B) circles C) parabolas D) ellipses
Ans: (A )
x dy  ( y  3)dx
dy dx
   log( y  3)  log cx
y3 x
y  3  cx

JOIN EXPERT & BE AN EXPERT 10

 dy 1y
51. The integrating factor of +y= is
dx x
ex x
A) xex B) xe1/x C) D)
x ex
Ans: (C )
dy  1  1
 1   y 
dx  x  x
 1 
 1   dx 1 ex
IF = e  x 
= e x log x  e x  elog x  .
x
     
52. If | a x b |2  | a . b |2  144 and | a|  4, then the value of | b | is
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Ans: (C )
   
| a |2  | b |2  144  16 | b |2  144  b 3

 
53. If a and b are mutually perpendicular unit vectors, then
   
(3 a  2 b ). (5 a  6 b ) =
A) 5 B) 3 C) 6 D) 12
Ans: (B )
 
G.E = 15 | a |2 12 | b |2  3 . ( a.b  0  b.a)

54. If the vector a î  ĵ  k̂ , î  b ĵ  k̂ and î  ĵ  ck̂ are coplanar (a  b  c  1), then the value
of abc (a+b+c) =
A) 2 B) 2 C) 0 D)  1
Ans: (B )
a 1 1
1 b 1 0
1 1 c
 abc  a  (c  1)  1(1  b) =0
 abc  a  c  1  1  b =0
 abc  (a  b  c)  2
   
55. If a  î   ĵ  2k̂ ; b   î  ĵ  k̂ are orthogonal and | a | = | b | then (, )
1 7 7 1 1 9 1 9
A)  ,  B)  ,  C)  ,  D)  , 
4 4 4 4 4 4  4 4
Ans: (A )

1  2  4   2 11
 2  5   2  2   2   2  3
 
a b  0
  2  0   u  2
7 1
By inspection  2 .
4 4

JOIN EXPERT & BE AN EXPERT 11

 x y 1 z 2
56. The image of the point (1, 6, 3) in the line   is
1 2 3
A) (1, 0, 7) B) (7, 0, 1) C) (2, 7, 0) D) (1, 6, 3)
Ans: (A )
By inspection, midpoint of (1, 6, 3) & (1, 0, 7) lies on the line.
By inspection, midpoint of (1, 6, 3) & (1, 0, 7) lies on the line.
57. The angle between the lines 2x = 3y = z and 6x = y = 4z is
A) 0 B) 45 C) 90 D) 30
Ans: (C )
x y z
 
1/ 2 1/ 3 1
x y z
 
1/ 6 1 1/ 4
 a1a2  b1b2  c1c2
11 1 1
    ( 1)  ( 1)(  )  0    90
26 3 4
x 4 y 2 zk
58. The value of k such that the line   lies on the plane 2x 4y + z = 7 is
1 1 2
A) 7 B) 4 C) 4 D) 7
Ans: (D)
Substitution (4, 2, k) in 2 x  4 y  z  7
 88 k  7  k  7
59. The locus represented by xy + yz = 0 is
A) a pair of perpendicular lines B) a pair of parallel lines
C) a pair of parallel planes D) a pair of perpendicular planes
Ans: (D )
xy  yz  0  y = 0 and x + z = 0
y  0 is a plane with direction ratios (0, 1, 0) and x  z  0 has direction ratios (1, 0,1)
Also (1) (0) + (0) (1) + (1) (0) = 0
 The planes are perpendicular
60. The feasible region of an LPP is shown in the figure. If z = 3x + 9y, then the minimum
value of z occurs at
y

(0,20)


 (15,15)
(0,10) 
 (5,5)
0 x

A) (5, 5) B) (0, 10) C) (0, 20) D) (15, 15)

Ans: (A)
By inspection, Z is minimum at (5, 5).

JOIN EXPERT & BE AN EXPERT 12

 KCET – BIOLOGY – 2018

VERSION CODE: H

1. Match for M and N with species area relationship shown in the graphic representation below
and choose the correct option.
M

Sps. richness
A) M  S = CAZ, N  log S = log C + Z log A

B) M  S = CZA, N  log C = log S + A log Z N

C) M  S = CAZ, N  log S = log X + A log Z

D) M  S = AZC, N  log ZA = log C + log S Area

Ans: (A)
2. Select the option from the following which is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity
hotspots:
A) Large number of species B) Destruction of habitats
C) Abundance of endemic species D) Large number of exotic species
Ans: (D)
3. The biomagnifications of which pollutant causes a decline in the bird population?
A) Mercury B) SO2 C) DDT D) NO2
Ans: (C)
4. Snow blindness is caused due to
A) Global warming B) Ozone depletion
C) Greenhouse effect D) Biomagnification
Ans: (B)
5. Match the items of Column I with those of Column II and Choose the correct answer.

Column I Column II
1. Hepatitis B vaccine I. IgA
2. Preformed antibodies II. Against snake venom
3. Colostrum III. Neutrophils
4. PMNL IV. Yeast
V. Basophils

1 2 3 4
A IV II I III
B I II IV III
C IV II I V
D V II IV I
Ans: (A)

JOIN EXPERT & BE AN EXPERT 1

6. The correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchy is
A) Genus  Family  Class  Order  Phylum  Kingdom  Species
B) Species  Genus  Family  Order  Class  Phylum  Kingdom
C) Species  Family  Genus  Kingdom  Order  Class  Phylum
D) Species  Genus  Family  Class  Order  Phylum  Kingdom
Ans: (B)
7. Match the animals of Column I with their respective classes in Column II and choose the
correct answer.

Column I Column II
1. Aptenodytes I. Aves
2. Hemidactylus II. Chondrichthyes
3. Carcharodon III. Mammalia
4. Pteropus IV. Reptilia
V. Osteichthyes

1 2 3 4
A V II IV I
B I IV III II
C V I II III
D I IV II III
Ans: (D)
8. Choose the correct floral formula of the given floral diagram.

A) ⊕ K(2+2) C4 A4+2 G(3) B) ⊕ K(3)+2 G(2+1)

O O C4 A4
+ +
C) ⊕ O
+ K2+2 C4 A2+4 G(2) D) ⊕ O
+ K2+2 C4 A2+4 G2
Ans: (C)
9. In which type of vascular bundless are Xylem and Phloem present at the same radius?
A) Radial B) Closed C) Conjoint D) Exarch
Ans: (C)
10. Conjunctive tissue is present between i and ii in iii.
A) (i) Pericyle (ii) Endodermis (iii) Dicot root
B) (i) Xylem (ii) Phloem (iii) Dicot root
C) (i) Palisade Parenchyma (ii) Spongy parenchyma (iii) Dicot leaf
D) (i) Xylem (ii) Phloem (iii) Dicot stem
Ans: (B)

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11. Identify the major site of biosynthesis of lipids.
A) Golgi apparatus B) Mitochondria
C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
Ans: (C)
12. The following graph shows concentration of substrate on enzyme activity:
Vmax

What does the Y-axis represent?

A) Temperature B) Velocity of reaction
C) pH D) Pressure
Ans: (B)
13. In the maize plant, CO2 fixation occurs in both mesophyll and bundle sheath cells. The
enzymes involved in these cells for the process respectively are,
A) RuBisCO and PEP Kinase B) PEP Kinase and Pepsin
C) RuBisCO and PEP Carboxylase D) PEP Carboxylase and RuBisCO
Ans: (D)
14. In the following reaction, identify X and Y respecticely:
2
Mg
Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+   Y + CO2 + NADH + H+
X

A) Water, Acetyl CoA B) Acetyl CoA, Pyriuvate dehydrogenase

C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase, Acetyl CoA D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase, Oxalo – acetic acid
Ans: (C)
15. Which of the following factors favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the alveoli
of human lungs?
A) High pCO2 B) Lower temperature
+
C) High H concentration D) Low pO2
Ans: (B)
16. Digestion of both starch and proteins is carried out by enzymes of
A) gastric juice B) Saliva C) Bile Juice D) Pancreatic juice
Ans: (D)
17. The type of epithelium found in the inner lining of PCT is
A) Squamous epithelium B) Cuboidal epithelium
C) Glandular epithelium D) Ciliated epithelium
Ans: (B)
18. Select the correct Rh-blood groups of the parents, whose child is affected with
erythroblastosis foetalis.
A) Both father and mother are Rh +ve B) Mother is Rh +ve and father is Rh –ve
C) Both father and mother are Rh-ve D) father is Rh +ve and mother is Rh –ve
Ans: (D)
19. In which of the following groups do the male and female gametophytes have independent,
free living existence?
A) Bryophytes and Gymnosperms B) Bryophytes and Pteridophytes
C) Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms D) Algae and Gymnosperms
Ans: (B)
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20. The hormones of “Fright, Fight and Flight” are
A) Thyroxin and Oxytocin B) Thyroxin and Melatonin
C) Adrenalin and Nor-adrenalin D) Gastrin and Secretin
Ans: (C)
21. In the given options, which one cannot propagate by vegetative means?
A) A marginal piece of Bryophyllum leaf B) A middle piece of sugarcane internode
C) A piece of potato tuber with eyes D) A piece of ginger rhizome
Ans: (B)
22. Among the following statements related to polleons, choose the correct one.
Statement I: In 40% of angiosperms pollen grains are shed at 3-celled stage
Statement II: Intine is made of celluklose and pectin and it is discontinuous with germpores
A) Both I and II are correct B) Both I and II are incorrect
C) I is correct and II is incorrect D) I is incorrect and II is correct
Ans: (C)
23. Match the animals of Column I with the Column II and select the correct options among the
following:

Column I Column II
1. DNA replication I. RNA polymerase
2. Translation II. DNA polymerase
3. Transcription III. Reverse transcriptase
4. Reverse transcriptase IV. Aminoacyl synthetase

1 2 3 4
A II IV III I
B II IV I III
C II III IV I
D II I IV III

Ans: (B)
24. When pollen grain is shed at 3-celled stage, name the cells it contains.
A) 1 vegetative cell and 2 male gametes B) 2 vegetative cells and 1 male gamete
C) 2 generative cells and 1 male gamete D) 2 male gametes and 1 generative cell
Ans: (A)
25. Even in the absence of pollinators, assured seed set will be there in
A) Chasmogamous flowers B) Geitonogamy
C) Cleistogamous flowers D) Xenogamy
Ans: (C)
26. The process of conversion of non-motile spermatids into motile spermatozoa is called
A) Spermiogenesis B) Oogenesis C) Sporogenesis D) Spermatogenesis
Ans: (A)
27. Several mammary ducts join to form a wider structure called
A) Lactiferous duct B) Mammary lobe
C) Mammary ampulla D) Mammary tubules
Ans: (C)

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28. The signals for the population process originates from
A) Muscles of uterus B) Fully developed foetus and placenta
C) Placenta D) Hormones of ovaries and uterus
Ans: (B)
29. Match the following Column I with Column II:

Column I Column II
1. Surgical methods I. Condom
2. Barrier methods II. Pills
3. Natural methods III. Tubectomy
4. Chemical methods IV. Lactational amenorrhea

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:

1 2 3 4
A III I IV II
B III IV I II
C IV III II I
D II I III IV

Ans: (A)
30. The following factors indicate improved reproductive health of the society. Choose the correct
option.
1. Better detection and cure of disease 2. Better post natal care
3. Medically assisted deliveries 4. Increased MMR
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
A) 2, 3 and 4 only B) 1, 2 and 3 only C) 1, 3 and 4 only D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans: (B)
31. ABO blood type in main is an example of
1) Pleiotropy 2) Incomplete dominance
3) Co-dominance 4) Multiple allelism
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
A) 1, 2 and 3 only B) 1, 3 and 4 only C) 3 and 4 only D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans: (C)
32. The codon on mRNA are
CAU  CCU  AAA  CUG
Identify the correct sequence of amino acids.
A) His  Pro  Lys  Leu B) Pro  His  Lys  Leu
C) His  Pro  Leu  Lys D) Pro  Leu  Lys  His
Ans: (A)
33. Choose the possible genotypes responsible for lightest skin colour in human beings
A) AABBCC b) AaBbCc c) aabbcc d) AABbCc
Ans: (C)
Genotype all the recessive (aabbcc) will have lightest skin colour.

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34. Both male and female have normal vision though their fathers were colour blind, and
mothers did not have any gene for colour blindness. The probability of their daughter
becoming colour blind is
A) 0% B) 15% C) 25% D) 50%
Ans: (A)
35. Find the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA which codes for the sequence of amino acids 
‘Met  Leu  Val  Arg  Ala’ and Choose the correct option from below:
A) AUG  GAU  GAA  UAU  UGU B) AGU  GAU  GAA  CGU  GCC
C) AUG  CUA  GUG  UAU  UGU D) AGU  CUA  GUG  CGU  GCC
Ans: (D)
36. Sickle- cell anaemia is due to the following mutant gene:
A) CTC  CAC B) CTC  GAG C) CAC  GUG D) GAG  GUG
Ans: (A)
37. In the given transcription unit, identify the regions I and II respectively.

Coding stand
3’ 5’
I II
5’ 3’
Template stand

A) Promter and Terminator B) Rho factor and Sigma factor

C) Terminator and Promoter D) Operator and Inhibitor
Ans: (C)
38. Which of the following sequences of mRNA are required for translation process but are not
translated?
A) Stop codons B) Anticodons C) Sense codons D) UTR
Ans: (D)
39. Identify the palindromic sequence in the following base sequence :
A) 5' C G A T A 3' B) 5' C G A T C C 3'
3' G C T A T 5' 3' C C T A G G 5'

C) 5' C C T G C 3' D) 5' G A A T T G 3'

3' G G A C G 5' 3' C T T A A C 5'

Ans: (B)
40. DNA, present in the nucleus, was named as ‘Nuclein’ by
A) James Watson and Crick B) Friedrich Miescher
C) Maurice Wilkins D) Rosalind Franklin
Ans: (B)
41. When does the lac-operon in E.Coli becomes “switched on”?
A) Repressor binds to operator
B) RNA polymerase binds to operator
C) Lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
D) Lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase
Ans: (C)
42. The Primary gases that were used by Miller in his experiment are
A) CH4, NH3, H2O, H2 B) CH4, CO2, N2, SO2
C) CH4, CO2, N2, NH3 D) CH4, N2, NH3, H2
Ans: (A)

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43. From which of the given plants is the drug whose skeletal structure is given below
extracted? OH

OH

A) Papaver somniferum B) Atropa belladonna

C) Cannabis sativa D) Erythroxylum coca
Ans: (C)
44. The allele frequency of ‘A’ ad ‘a’ in a population are 0.6 and 0.4 respectively. The expected
frequency of heterozygous individuals is
A) 48% B) 36% C) 16% D) 24%
Ans: (A)
45. Identify the odd one from the following:
A) -Interferon B) Oncogenic virus C) Proto-oncogenes D) UV rays
Ans: (A)
46. During replication of retrovirus
A) Viral protein is introduced in the host cell
B) Viral RNA is introduced into the host cell
C) Viral DNA is introduced into the host cell
D) Transcriptase enzyme is introduced in to the host cell
Ans: (B)
47. In malignant tumors, the cells divide rapidly and move to distant parts of the body and
cause new tumors. This property is called
A) Metastasis b) Metagenesis C) Teratogenesis D) Mitosis
Ans: (A)
48. The breeding technique that is useful to expose harmful recessive genes is
A) Outbreeding B) Artificial insemination
C) Inbreeding D) MOET
Ans: (C)
49. Germplasm collection refers to
A) Collection of all alleles for all genes in a crop
B) Collection of all alleles for few genes in a crop
C) Collection of different alleles for all genes in different crop plants
D) Collection of few alleles for all genes in several crop plants.
Ans: (A)
50. The microorganisms involved in floc formation during sewage treatment are
A) Anaerobic bacteria and fungus B) Aerobic bacteria and fungus
C) Autotrophic bacteria and yeast D) Fungus and algae
Ans: (B)

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51. Match the following bacteria of List I with their commercial products of List II:

List I List II
1. Lactobacillus I Butyric acid
2. Aspergillus niger II Acetic acid
3. Acetobacteraceae III Lactic acid
4. Clostridium butyricum IV Citric acid

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:

1 2 3 4
(A) III II IV I
(B) I IV III II
(C) III IV II I
(D) III IV I II
Ans: (C)
52. The technique of bombarding plant cells with high velocity microparticles of gold or
tungsten, coated with DNA, is
A) Microinjection B) Biolistic method
C) Heat shock method D) By disarmed pathogen vector
Ans: (B)
53. Choose the bacterium which is not a source of REN.
A) Haemophilus influenzae B) Escherichia coli
C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens D) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
Ans: (C)
54. Silencing of specific mRNA translation could be achieved through
A) Antisense RNA B) RNA interference technique
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Microinjection
Ans: (C)
55. In which of the following steps in DNA fingerprinting technique are labelled VNTR probes
used?
A) During isolation of DNA B) During digestion of DNA by REN
C) During electrophoresis D) During hybridization
Ans: (D)
56. dsRNA is used to develop pest resistant tobacco plant by a technique called
A) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) B) RNA interference (RNAi)
C) Electrophoresis D) Insertional Activation
Ans: (B)
57. The interaction between “Cuckoo and Crow” is an example for
A) Competion B) Predation C) Brood parasitism D) Mutualism
Ans: (C)

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 dN K  N 
58. Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is described by the equation  rN   , where ‘r’ and ‘K’
dt  K 
represent.
A) r  intrinsic rate of natural decrease, K  carrying capacity
B) r  intrinsic rate of natural increase, K  carrying capacity
C) r  extrinsic rate of natural increase, K  productive capacity
D) r  extrinsic rate of natural decrease, K  carrying capacity
Ans: (B)

59. Net primary productivity (NPP) in an ecosystem is

A) GPP  R = NPP B) GPP + R = NPP C) GPP  NPP = R D) R  NPP = GPP
Ans: (A)

60. Which among the following is not a functional unit of the ecosystem?
A) Decompoisition B) Nutrient cycling C) Energy flow D) Pollution
Ans: (D)

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