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SI N D IA: Neet Sample Paper - 2019 Biology Answer Key & Solution

The document is a sample paper for NEET with 90 multiple choice questions and their answer key. It provides the questions, multiple choice options, and indicates the correct answer with an explanation for the first 5 questions. The questions cover topics in biology such as DNA structure, the nephron, Huntington's disease, photosynthesis, and plant cell structure. The answer key lists the correct response for each question number from 1 to 90.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
100 views18 pages

SI N D IA: Neet Sample Paper - 2019 Biology Answer Key & Solution

The document is a sample paper for NEET with 90 multiple choice questions and their answer key. It provides the questions, multiple choice options, and indicates the correct answer with an explanation for the first 5 questions. The questions cover topics in biology such as DNA structure, the nephron, Huntington's disease, photosynthesis, and plant cell structure. The answer key lists the correct response for each question number from 1 to 90.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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NEET SAMPLE PAPER -1 NEET SAMPLE PAPER -1

NEET
SAMPLE PAPER - 2019
BIOLOGY
ANSWER KEY & SOLUTION

IA
D
N
SI
O
O
ET

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Answer Key

1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (C)

8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (A)

15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (D)

22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (C)

29. (C) 30. (D) 31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (C)

IA
36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (D) 41. (B) 42. (D)

43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (C)

D
50. (B) 51. (D) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (D) 56. (C)

57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (C) 61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (A)

64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (A) 67.


N (B) 68. (A) 69. (A) 70. (C)
SI
71. (B) 72. (D) 73. (A) 74. (B) 75. (C) 76. (D) 77. (C)

78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (A) 81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (C)
O

85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (C)
O
ET

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1. In DNA model of Watson and Crick, the major grooves represent one of the following sites.
(A) Binding of histone proteins (B) Binding of acidic proteins
(C) Binding of RNA molecules (D) Binding of glycoproteins
Sol. (B)
Twin helical strands form the DNA backbone. Another double helix maybe found tracing the spaces, or grooves, between
the strands. These voids are adjacent to the base pairs and may provide a binding site. As the strands are not symmetri-
cally located with respect to each other , the grooves are unequally sized.
One groove, the major grooves , is 22 Å wide and the other the minor groove is 12 Å wide. The narrowness of the minor
groove means that the edges of the bases are more accessible in the major groove.
As a result , proteins like transcription factors that can bind to specific sequences in double- situation varies in on usual
conformations of DNA within the cell , but the major and minor grooves are always named to reflect the differences in size
that would be seen if the DNA is twisted back into the ordinary B form

IA
2. The given figure shows a part of nephron, Identify and choose it from the given options

D
N
SI
O

(A) Thin descending limb (B) Thin ascending limb


(C) Thick ascending limb (D) Proximal convulated tubules
Sol. (C)
O

Thick ascending limb does the active transport of Na+,and Cl+ is 1 : 1 : 2 ratio, using co-transporter.

3. Huntington's disease is caused by which of the following reason?


ET

(A) Autosomal gene on chromosome 7 (B) Sex-linked gene on X-chromosome


(C) Autosomal gene on chromosome 4 (D) Sex chromosomal monosomy
Sol. (C)
Huntington's disease is caused due to dominant trait of autosomal gene on chromosome 4.

4. Which one of the statement given below is not correct?


(A) As a result of light reaction, oxygem. NADPH and ATP are formed. Oxygen is relased into the atmosphere, white
NADPH and ATP are utilised for reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate in dark reaction.
(B) In C3 plants, carbon dioxide, combines with RuBP to form phosphoglyceric acid, On the other hand in C4 – plants,
carbon dioxide is first picked up by phospho and pyruvate to form oxaloacetic acid.
(C) Cytochrome plays very important role in ETS of photosynthesis as well as respiration
(D) Energy is released during photorespiration and ammonia is not released from photoerspiration
Sol. (D)
Photorespiration is a process in plant metabolism which attempts to ameliorate the consequences of a wasteful oxygen-
ation reaction by the enzyme. RuBisCO. During the photorespiratory reactions, energy is not released during photorespi-
ration. Ammonia is released from photorespiration

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5. When gram, seeds and wheat grains are soaked in water , pea seeds showed more swelling than the wheat. The reason is
(A) Imbibition capacity of proteins is more than that of starch
(B) Presence of less hydrophilic colloids in the wheat grains
(C) Cell membrane of pea seeds is less permeable and cell wall of wheat grains are more permeable
(D) Cell membrane of pea seeds is more permeable and cell wall of wheat grains are less permeable
Sol. (A)
Pea seeds contain protein, while wheat contains starch, the imbibition capacity of proteins is more than that of starch.
That is why, pea seeds imbibe more water and show more swelling than those of wheat grains.

6. Match the following columns.


Column I (Stop codon) Column II (Also known as)
A. UAG 1. Opal

IA
B. UAA 2. Ochre
C. AGA 3. Amber
4. Umber
A B C A B C A B C A B C

D
(A) 3 1 2 (B) 4 1 3 (C) 3 4 2 (D) 3 2 1
Sol. (D)
in the genetic code, a stop codon (or termination codon) is a nucleotide triplet within messenger RNA that signals a

7. Which one is obtained by acetylation of morphine?


N
termination of transion of translation, In DNA, UGA is represented byTGA, which is also called as umber.
SI
(A)
Charas (B) Cocaine (C) Smack (D) Crack
Sol. (C) In the acetylation of morphine to yield heroin (diacetylmorphine) the phenolic OH group on the 3-carbon is the first to
O

react to give , as an intermediate, 3–O-monoacetylmorphine, which is further acetylated to heroin

2
O

CH3COO 1
3 heroin
de

n
tio
ac
ET

a
ety

4 l
ety
lat

ac
io
n

O 3-O-mono 6-O-mono
acetylmorphine acetylmorphine
is
5 lys
o
dr
hy
6 8 morphine
7

It is commonly called brown sugar, being cheap considered poor man's heroin

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8. Which of the following are the causes of insulin resistance?


I. Polycystic ovary disease II. Hemochromatosis
III. Lipodystrophy IV. Mutations of melanocortin receptors
(A) I and IV (B) I,II,III and IV (C) II and III (D) II and IV
Sol. (B)
Causes of Insulin resistance includes
Mutation that causes genetic obesity (e.g., melanocortin receptor mutation).
Lipodystrophy (lipid accumulation in liver).
Pregnancy
Hemochromatiosis (tissue ion accumulation)
9. Identify the marking in below graphs.

IA
D
N
SI
A B C
a. Allopatric Sympatric Parapatric
O

b. Sympatric Parapatric Allopatric


c. Parapatric Allopatric Sympatric
d. Allopatric Parapatric Sympatric
O

Sol. (D)
During allopatric speciation a population splits into two geographically isolated population. In parapatric speciation there
is only partial separation of the zones of two diverging populations afforded by geography.
ET

Sympatric speciation refers to the formation of two or more descendant species from a single ancestral species all occupy-
ing the same geographic location
10. Which of the following is/are true for Leber's hereditary Optic Neuropathy (LHON)
I. It is mitochondrial myopathy
II. It is characterised by short stature
III. It is characterised by acromegaly
IV. It is characterised by visual lose
(A) All are false (B) II and III (C) I and IV (D) II and IV
Sol. (C)
LHON is an mitochondrial disease (myopathy) which is charactesised by progressive loss of central vision due to
degeneration of optic nerves and retina.

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11. In the process of ATP synthesis , oligomycin and DCCD act at which place in figure

IA
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
Sol. (A)
Either oligomycin or DCCD blocks the H+ leak in membrances depleted of F1.
Thus oligomycin and DCCD inhibit the interacting with F0.

D
12. Crown gall disease is caused which of the following pathogen
(A) virus (B) bacteria (C) fungi (D) protozonns
Sol. (B)

N
Crown gall's disease is caused in plants by A. tumefaciens, a bacteria. They enter a portion their own DNA in DNA of the
plant
SI
13. Which of the following is not an autotrophic microbe that fix atmospheric nitrogen?
(A) Anabaena (B) Rhizobium (C) Nostoc (D) Oscillatoria
Sol. (B)
O

The nodules on the roots of leguminous plants formed by the symbiotic association of fungi acts as biofertilisers.
O

14. In summer vacationyou have visited to your friend's residence. He informed you that recently he has donated his kidney
to his father. When you enquired further , you have been told that your friend had opted for laproscopic way of kidney
donation, instead of open way of open way of kidney donation. What migth be the correct reason for it?
ET

I. Your friend's age is below is 18 year. II. It is less painful method


III. When laproscopic method is followed, other kidney does a quick hypertrophy
IV. Incision is not visible (Cosmetic reason)
(A) II and IV (B) All are true (C) All are false (D) I and II
Sol. (A)
Laproscopic method is less painful.
The kidney retrieval vision (6 cm) is not visible as it is placed over the pubic hair

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15. Identify the incorrect statement (s) from following options.


I. Glycolate is formed, in illuminated chloroplast of C3 plants
II. For every 2 glycolate molecules that leaves the chloroplast, one glycerate, derived from glycolate
III. One of the 4 carbons from the two glycolates is lost as CO2.
IV. As 3 -phosphoglycerate, the 3 remaining carbons can reenter the Calvin cycle.
(A) II and IV (B) I and III
(C) None of these statement is false (D) I and II
Sol. (C)
glycolate is formed in illuminated chloroplasts of C3-plants, by the sequential action of ribulose-1,5 bisphosphate
oxygenase and phosphoglycolate phosphatase
All others statements are also true.

IA
16. Your one of the relatives has just married. She called you and requested to suggest the most appropriate method of
contraception. Which of the following contracetpion would be your first suggested choice?
(A) Oral contraceptive pills (B) IUDS (Intrauterine devices)
(C) Tubectomy (D) I-pill

D
Sol. (A)
OCPs is the contraception of choice for newly married women.

17.
N
When osmotic potential is either zero or negative and pressure potential is positive, then the water potenital will be
(A) Always negative (B) Always positive
SI
(C) some times negative and some times positive (D) do not show any specificity
Sol. (A)
Osmotic potential or solute potential  s are always in negative values and pressure potential  p is usually positive.
Water potential of solution is always less than zero or has negative value
O

18. Which of the following statement is not correct?


(A) Double fertilisation is characteristic feature of angiosperms. It was discovered by SG nawaschin
O

(B) In adventive embryos, embroys develop directly from the nucellus


(C) Miky water of coconut is called liquid endosperm
ET

(D) In anatropous ovule, the micropyle, funicle and chalaza lie in a straight line
Sol. (D)
in orthotropous (atropous) ovule, the micropyle, funicle and chalaza lie in a straight line

19. All below are the symptoms of one of the following condition Urtirearia
Hypotension Wheeze
Flushing Angioedema of lips
(A) Mitral stenosis (B) Aortic stenosis (C) Acute asthma (D) Anaphylaxis
Sol. (D)
Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening. Systemic allergic reaction caused by the release of histamine and other inflammatory
mediators from mast cells.

20. Hassal's bodies which area potent source of the cytokine TS2P, are found in one of the following organ
(A) Liver (B) thymus (C) adrenal (D) thyroid
Sol. (B)
Hassal's bodies are eosinophilic thymic corpuscies and are present in medulla. They are phagocytic in nature.

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21. When one molecule of glucose enters into glycolysis two molecules of pyruvic acid is formed then pyruvic acid enter into
the Krebs' cycle. How many carbon dioxide molecules are formed when one glucouse molecule passes through glycolyis
and Krebs' cycle
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Sol. (D)
One glucose molecule formed two pyruvic acid molecule in glycolysis no decarboxylation occurs are pyruvic acid enters
into the Krebs cycle release 3CO2 molecules, so two pyruvic acid produces 6 molecules of CO2.

22. A hormone is a class of regulatory biochemical produced in particular parts of organism by specific cells , glands and / or
tissues. Identify the systemic hormone form the following options
(A) Oxytocin (B) Somatostatin (C) Melatonin (D) Somatotrophin
Sol. (D)
Somatotrophin is secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. It is a systemic hormone as it acts on all the tissues

IA
of the body. It stimulates growth of the body. It is not produced by any other tissue

23. Identify the incorrect statement regarding oogenesis


(A) It has long cesting periods (B) It forms one functional and three non- functional cells

D
(C) Its growth phase is very short (D) The division of primary oocyte is not equal
Sol. (C)
Growth phase of oogenesis is very long so that oocytes are much larger than oogonia. In contrast, spermatogenesis has

24.
N
short growth phase so that spermatocytes are only twice the size of spermatogonia.

Which of the following combination of drugs has a dramatic rapid increase in sedative effect?
SI
(A) Alcohol + Antihistamines (B) Alcohol + Benzodiazepines
(C) Alcohol + Aspirin (D) Amphetamine + Insuline
Sol. (B)
O

Some drug addicts use mixtures of drugs to have immediate effect

25. Genetically modified foods contain


O

(A) Same number of genes as conventional crop (B) Same number of genes as hybrid crop
(C) One or two additional genes (D) Hundreds of additional genes
ET

Sol. (C)
GMFs contain one or two additional genes than conventional crops

26. Wobble pairing takes place


(A) Under unusual condition between homologous chromosomes of a somatic cell causing somatic crossing over
(B) In some cases between the third base of a codon and that of an anticodon
(C) In those rare instances where unequal crossing over takes place for the lack of segment to segment pairing
(D) In radiation included base deletion from one strand of a DNA molecule so that the complementary counter- part of the
other strand exhibits mispairing
Sol. (B)
Crick's Wobble hypothesis states that the base at 5' end of the anticodon is not spatially confined as the other two bases
allowing it to form hydrogen bonds with any of several bases located at the 3' end of a codon.
27. Extinction of passenger pigeon (Ectopistus migratorius) is a result of one of the following causes
(A)
absence of food (B) presence of predators (C) over exploitation by humans (D) bird flu
Sol. (C)
Extinction of Ectopistus migratoirus occurred due to commerician exploitation of pigeon meat

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28. Which one of the following human genes has the longest stretch of DNA (~24 Mb)?
(A) Globin gene (B) Histone gene (C) Dystrophin gene (D) tRNA gene
Sol. (C)
The human gene, dystrophin gene has the longest stretch of DNA (~ 24 Mb).

29. Identify the correct statement regarding pBR322. It is a


(A) bacteriophage (B) yeast (C) plasmid (D) parasite
Sol. (C)
 BR322 is a plasmid, which has genes coding for enzyme for modifying or destroying ampicillin and tetracycline both.

30. Which one of the following statements correctly describes allosteric enzymes?

IA
(A) Not usually controlled by feedback inhibition (B) Regulatory site may be catalytic site
(C) Michaelis- Menten kinetics describe their activity (D) Effectors may enhance of inhibit substrate binding
Sol. (D)
Binding of an effector causes conformational change that either increaes or decreases the activity of the enzyme

D
31. An individual had been diagnosed with a Salmonella infection, which he acquired. While on vacation. She had been
treated with antibiotic and the diarrhoea she was experiencing , had resolved. One day later, he developed a chest pain in
the centre of chest. The important point was that the person had never any problem with his cardiovascular system. Even

probable diagnosis of above history is


(A) angina pectoris
N
at that time his BP and pulse rate is normal, But ECG. showed diffuse PR depression in the anterolateral leads. Most

(B) pericarditis
SI
(C) relation between Salmonella infection and chest pain could not be established
(D) typhoid
Sol. (B)
O

Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium and may be caused by number of entities, like neoplastic processes, viral
infection, tuberculosis, bacterial infections and unknown caused.
O

32. Which of the following elements is/are trace elements or microelements for human?
I. Zinc II. Manganese III. Molybdenum IV. Calcium
(A) All of these (B) I,II and IV (C) I,III and IV (D) I,II and III
ET

Sol. (D)
Trace elements of microelements are
Iron (Fe), Iodine (I) , zinc (Zn), manganese (Mn), cobalt (Co). copper (Cu), molybdenum (Mo) are required in very small
amounts to our body.

33. World Summit of Sustainable development 2002 was held in which of the following country?
(A) Rio, Brazil (B) Sydney, Australia (C) Johansburg , South Africa (D) Amsterdam, Netherlands
Sol. (C)
World summit of sustainable develoment was held in Johanesburg, South Africa in which 190 countries pledged their
commitment to achieve a significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss.

34. Recombination DNA technology can be used ot produce medically useful protein. Which of the following can be pro-
duced by using this technology?
(A) Somatostatin (B) Insulin (C) Interferon (D) All of these
Sol. (D)
Recombination DNA technology can be used to produce medically useful proteins such as somatostatin, insulin, human
growth hormone and interferon.

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35. 'Decarboxylation' refers to the removal of a CO2 molecule during a reaction. One of the following reaction involves
decarboxylation. Identify that reaction
(A) Electron transport system (B) Lactic acid fermentation
(C) Alcohol fermentation (D) Glycolysis
Sol. (C)
Process of alcohol formation involves CO2 release as follows

ADP PDP
ATP
ATP
+ Pi Pi

IA
Glucose

2 pyruvate
+
NAD+ NADH CO2
NAD NADH CO2

D
+ +
+H H
2 Acetaldehyde

36.
2 ethanol

N
Identify the correct statement among following regarding the growth in plants
SI
(A) Growth does not involve increase in parts
(B) Growth occurs during definite periods
(C) Growth is indeterminate
(D) Growing regions are absent
O

Sol. (C)
Plant growth is unique because plants retain. The capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life.
O

37. If a strand of DNA has 0.1 mm length, what will be the ratio of length to diameter?
(A) 500 (B) 50 (C) 50,000 (D) 5000
ET

Sol. (C) 0.1 mm = 105 nm


Diameter of DNA = 2nm

105
Axial ratio =  10 5  50000 nm
2  109

38. Which one of the following component can function as carrier in active absorption?
(A) Ferredoxin and cytochrome (B) Cytochrome and lecithin
(C) Lecithin (D) Plastoquinone
Sol. (C)
Lecithin is a complex protein which binds up anions and cations on its surfaces, thus it plays a role of carrier in active ion
absorption.

39. What is common is Bryophyllum, Sanevieria and Kalanchoe?


(A) All are members of family - Rubiaceae (B) All reproduce only sexually
(C) All reproduce by leaf cutting vegetatively (D) All lack heterospory
Sol. (A) Leaf cuttings are used to propagate Sanseviena, Begonia, Bryophyllum, Kalanchoe.

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40. Different types of cleavage found in different organisms but the cleavage which found in human egg is
(A) Superficial (B) Discoidal (C) Radial (D)Holoblastic
Sol. (D)
In holoblastic cleavage, furrow extend completely through the entire length of the egg and bisect it into almost equal sized
blastomeres

41. Protein  –1 antitrypisn is used for the treatment of the disease


(A) cancer (B) emphysema (C) rheumatoid arthritis (D) hepatitis B
Sol. (B)
Deficiency or  –1 antitrypsin produces an imbalance in ratio of protease to protease inhibitor resulting in emphysema

IA
42. Among the following, which microorganism is photoautotrophic in nature
(A) Ferrobacillus (B) Beggiotoa
(C) Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus (D) Green-Sulphur bacteria and purple bacteria
Sol. (D)

D
Green sulphur bacteria and purple bacteria are photoautotrophic in nature. They are photosynthetic in nature but are
anaerobic and no O2 is evolve during photosynthesis
Beggiatoa is a sulpher oxidising bacteria

N
Ferrobacillus obtains energy by oxidising ferrous compounds to ferric forms
Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus obtains energy by oxidising ammonia to nitrite
SI
Nitrosomonas, Nitrosococcus, Ferrobacillus and Beggiatoa all are chemoautotrophic bacteria

43. How does frogs differ from humans ?


(A) Frogs possess hepatic portal system (B) Frogs have nucleated acid blood RBCs
O

(C) Frogs have thyroid gland (D) Frogs contain paired cerebral hemispheres
Sol. (B)
O

The blood of frogs contain erythrocytes that are large, oval, biconvex nucleated cells.

44. Detoxification process at cellular level is controlled by which of the following cell organelle?
ET

(A) lysosome (B) mitochondria (C) ER (D) Golgi complex


Sol. (C)
ER or endoplasmic reticulum an interconnected network of membrane vesicles controls the detoxification process.

45. What is the mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time ?
(A) Humus (B) Standing crop (C) Standing stage (D) Detritus
Sol. (B)
It is the amount of living biomass or number of living organisms present in a unit area of an ecosytem.

46. The photosynthetic or assimilatory roots are modification of roots which is found in
(A) Tinospora (B) Dahila (C) Banyan (D) Asparagus
Sol. (A)
Adventitious roots of certain plants become green and carry out photosynthesis , such roots are called assimilatory of
photosynthetic roots. e.g. , Tinospora, Trapa , Taeniophyllum. In Tinospora, these are like green, hanging threads
developing form the nodes during the rainy seasons and shrivel during drought.

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47. Which of the following is not involved in this process is important biological process of fixing atmospheric nitrogen by
microorganisms?
(A) Azotobacter (B) Nitrosomonas (C) Nostoc (D) Anabaena
Sol. (B)
A number of free living bacteria and blue-green algae take up gaseous nitrogen and change it into organic form of
nitrogen. This process is nitrogen fixation. Nitrosomonas is involved in denitrification process.

48. Largest immunoglobulin is found in human blood is


(A) IgA (B) IgM (C) IgD (D) IgE
Sol. (B)
IgM is produced in the primary response to an antigen. Its antigen receptors are present on the surface of B-cells.

IA
49. In an angiospermic embryo sac, n, 2n, 3n conditions are found respectively in
(A) egg, synergids, antipodal (B) endosperm , egg, zygote
(C) egg, zygote, endosperm (D) endosperm, synergids, nucleus
Sol. (C)

D
Each nucleus of embryo sac is hapioid . At the time of fertilisation. one male gamete fused with egg nucleus (n) to form
zygote (2n) . Wherease the second male gamete fuses eith two polar nucleus to form endosperm (3n). This type of
fertilisation is called double fertilisation.

50.
(A) Osmosis (B) Diffusion
N
Graham's law is related with which of the following physiological process?
(C) Plasmolysis (D) Absorption
SI
Sol. (B)
Graham's law of diffusion can be represented by the following formula.
1
O

Rate of diffusion  Density of particle


O

51. Diapedesis is a frequently used term in biology. Its refer to


(A)
Formation of WBC (B) Formation of pus (C) Formation of RBC (D) Passage of WBC
ET

Sol. (D)
WBC can change their shape like Amoeba and this enables them to squeeze out of blood capillaries into tissue. This is
called diapedesis.

52. Find the correct statement from the followings, The word " tautonym" refers to
(A) Unscientific explanation of a biochemical phenomenon (B) Common name to be used as scientific name
(C) Identical name of two different taxon (D) When species name repeats the generic name
Sol. (D)
When the species name (specific epithet) repeats the unaltered generic name this is known as tautonym e.g., alfa-alfa,
malus malus.

53. The most active phagocytic white blood cells in the cell mediated immunity are
(A) Neutrophils and monocytes (B) Lymphocytes and eosinophils
(C) eosinophils and neutrophils (D) lymphocytes and macrophages
Sol. (A)
Phagocytic cells are able to engulf and breakdown foreign particles , cell debris and disease producing microorganisms.
Neutrophils and monocytes are the most active phagocytic cells

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54. Acetylcholine is a very important neurotansmitter in human disease caused by the deficieny of this acetylcholine in
humans is
(A) Alzheimer's disease (B) Parkinson's disease (C) Schizophrenia (D) Amnesia
Sol. (A)
Alzheimer's disease is a neurological disease characterised by progressive loss of intellectual ablity.

55. Which of the following is/ are true about species?


I. There is a complete anatomical similarity.
II. There is a broad similarity in morphological characters.
III. All the memebr of a species have similar karyotype
IV. The members are able to interbreed freely and produce fertile offsprings

IA
(A) I,II and III (B) II,III and IV (C) I, II and IV (D) All of these
Sol. (D)
Species is defined as the basic unit of classification.

D
56. Singing birds make excellent pets if you enjoy the song of these flying creatures. The sound producing organ in these
singing birds is
(A) air sacs (B) larynx (C) syrinx (D) lungs
Sol. (C)
N
in birds, larynx does not act as a voice box, Voice is produced by a special organ, the syrinx.
SI
57. Which of the following has no effect on the the second organism?
(A) Parasitism (B) Amensalism (C) Predation (D) Commensalism
Sol. (D)
O

Sucker fish attaches itself to the under surface of the shark


O

58. Plants which can tolerate bright light are called


(A) Sciophytes (B) xerophytes (C) phreatophytes (D) heliophytes
Sol. (D)
ET

Sciophytes are plants growing is partial shade or low intensity light. Haliophytes can toterate bright light

59. Euploidy is best explained by


(A) Exact multiples of a haploid set of chromosomes
(B) One chromosome more than the haploid set of chromosomes
(C) One chromosome less than the haploid set of chromosomes
(D) One chromosome more than the diploid set of chromosomes
Sol. (A)
Euploidy, describing a nucleus, cell or organism is a form of polyploidy that has an exact multiple of the haploid number
(n) of chromosomes , e.g., diploid (2n), triploid (3n) and tetraploid (4n) nuclei or cells are all euploid.

60. Which of the following is considered to be the best chemical methods of fixing atmospheric nitrogen?
(A) Fisher method (B) Decan method (C) Haber-Bosch method (D) Parnas-Meyerhoff method
Sol. (C)
Haber-Bosch method is used for manufacturing ammonia from atmospheric nitrogen. This method is considered as the
best chemical method of fixing atmospheric nitrogen

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61. The inheritance of acquired character is given by Lamarck. Which of the following opposes the inheritance of acquired
characters?
(A) Formation of germ cells from somatic cells (B) Effect of chemicals
(C) Boring of pinna and nose of India women (D) Effect of radiation
Sol. (C)
Boring of pinna (external ear) and nose of Indian women is never inherted to the next generations. This example violate the
theory of inheritance of acquired characters.

62. According to Red Data Book (It is a document established for documenting rare and endangered species) red panda is
(A) Extinct species (B) Vulnerable species (C) Threatened species (D) Endangered species
Sol. (B)
Red panda is vulnerable species because its population is estimated as 10,000

IA
63. Bursa of Fabricous is the primary lymphoid organ in birds. Bursa of Fabricous involved in the differentiation of
(A) B-cells (B) T-cells (C) primed cells (D) plasma cells
Sol. (A)
B-cells arise from bone marrow and Bursa of Fabricus (in bird).

D
64. Photosynthesis consists of essentially two biological reactions, one followed by the other, the second of these reaction
involve which of the following event given in the options?
(A) Fixes CO2
(C) Synthesises starch N(B) Traps light energy
(D) Work only in the presence of light
SI
Sol. (A)
Photosynthesis consists of essentially two biological reaction systems, one followed by the other, the second of these
systems does fixes CO2.
O

65. Which of the following is most likely to occur due to the damage of thymus in a child?
(A) Reduction in RBC count in blood (B) Increase of antibody mediated immunity
(C) Decreased count of WBC and platelets in blood (D) Loss of cell mediated immunity
O

Sol. (D)
Thymus secreted pepitide hormones named thymosine. These stimulates the development and differentiation of
ET

T-lymphocytes. They provide humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity.

66. According to Darwin's theory of natural selection Australian marsupials is an example of which phenomenon.
(A) Parallel evolution (B) Parallel radiation (C) Adaptive radiation (D) convergent evolution
Sol. (A)
When convergent evolution (analogous organ) is found in closely related species, It is called parallel evolution. e.g.,
Tasmanian wolf is a marsupial, while wolf is a placental mammal.

67. Which of the following is an example of recapitulation theory (ontogeny repeats phylogeny)?
(A) Canine teeth of dog (B) Tadpole larva of frog (C) Placenta of mammals (D) Embryonic membrane of mammals
Sol. (B)
Development of frog takes place from the fish like larva tadepole, which shows the character of fish. Hence, It is an
example of recapitulation theory.

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68. Which microorganism from the given below is known as living fossil?
(A) Archaebacteria (B) Virus (C) Viroids (D) PPLOs
Sol. (A)
Archaebacteria is known as living fossil as they represent the one of the earliest form of life , which experimented on the
absorption of solar radiations for the first time, lived comfortably. Under anaerobic conditions and developed techniques
to oxidise the chemicals present in the substratum on the availability of O2.

69. Blood pressure is the pressure of systolic and diastolic pressure . In which part of brain , reflexes for blood pressure are
present?
(A) Medulla oblongata (B) Crusa cerebri (C) Corpora quadrigemina (D) Pons varolii
Sol. (A)
Medulla oblongata is a part of hindbrain. Its vasomotor centre controls expansion and contraction of blood vessels to

IA
regulate blood pressure.
70. Gene responsible for biological nitrogen fixation is
(A) Cry –I gene (B) ADA gene (C) nif - gene (D) Cry - II gene
Sol. (C)

D
Nif gene is responsible for biological nitrogen-fixation. NiF stands for nitrogen fixation.

71. Biogeography is the distribution of organism. How many biogeographic regions are present in India?

Sol.
(A) 12
(B)
(B) 10
N (C) 3 (D) 9

Biogeographic classification of India is the division of india according to biogeographic characteristics.


SI
Biogeographic is the study of the distribution of species (Biology). organisms, and ecosystems in geographic space and
through geological time. The biogeographic zones of India are as follows
(i) Himalayan zone (ii) Desert zone (iii) Semiarid zone (iv) Western ghat zone
O

(v) Deccan plateau zone (vi) Gangetic plain zone (vii) North east zone (viii) Coastal zone
(ix) Islands present near the shore line (x) Trans Himalaya zone
O

72. Some of the amino acid are non-coded amino acid. Non -coded amino acids in proteins are also called
(A) Neutral amino acid (B) Polar amino acids (C) Protein amino acids (D) Rare amino acids
Sol. (D)
ET

Non-coded amino acid Any  – amino acid residue occurring in a polypeptide or protein for which no codon exists is
called non- coded amino acid, e.g. carboxyglutamic acid, hydroxylysine, hydro xyproline, oxyproline. Residues of these
amino acids are formed from residues of the corresponding coded amino acids by post- translational modification of the
polypeptide chain. They are also called rare amino acid.

73. Conservation of biodiversity can be done generally by ex situ and in situ conservation. One of the ex situ conservation
methods for endangered species is
(A) Cryopreservation (B) National Parks (C) Wildlife Sanctuaries (D) Biosphere Reserves
Sol. (A)
The ex situ methods are gene banks, orchards tissue culture , etc.

74. The correct sequence of water flow into body of sycon and out of it is
(A) Ostia  Apopyles  Prosopyles  Osculum (B) Osita  Prosopyles  Apopyles  Osculum
(C) Ostia  Osculum  Prosopyles  Spicules (D) Osculum  Apopyles  Prosopyles  Osita
Sol. (B)
The criteria for a patent are utility, novelty and inventiveness.

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75. CSF is a shock absorber for brain and spinal cord. The pH of Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) is
(A) 3.2 (B) 5.6 (C) 7.33 (D) 11.2
Sol. (C)
CSF is a blood filtrate, which is colourless , clear and slightly alkaline (7.33pH) fluid. It maintains a constant pressure
inside the cranium and acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.

76. In humans, dessication of the embryo inside the uterus is prevented by


(A) Allantois (B) Placenta (C) Chorion (D) Amnion
Sol. (D)
Amnion is extraembryonic membrane, which surrounds the embryo and form an amniotic cavity. Fluid contained in this
cavity acts as a shock absorber, prevent dessication and regulate foetal body temperature.

IA
77. Phenotypic plasticity is the phenomenon is which
(A) genotypic changes in response to habitat (B) migration temporarily
(C) phenotypic changes in response to variations in environment
(D) hibernation

D
Sol. (C)
The phenotype variants formed in population due to changes in environments are called ecophenes or ecads.

78.
(A) calcium, phosphorus, potassium, zinc
(C) nitrogen, potassium, sulphur , molybdenum
N
Necrosis in crops in due to the deficiency of which ions/ elements?
(B) sulphur, calcium, potassium, molybdenum
(D) manganese, sulphur, nitrogen, calcium
SI
Sol. (B)
Deficiency of sulphur leads to chlorosis followed by necrosis.
Deficiency of calcium leads to stunted growth, chlorosis, necrosis and curling.
O

Deficiency of potassium leads to chlorosis followed by necrosis


Deficiency of molybdenum leads to marginal necrosis
O

79. Tendency of one croos over to affect other is called


(A) coefficient of coincidence (B) position effect
(C) interference (D) cis-trans effect
ET

Sol. (C)
The tendency of one cross over to interfere with the other cross over is called interference . It may also be explained as
presence of one chaismata reduceds the possibility of another occurring in close vicinity.

80. Which one of the following is true?


(A) Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles (B) Earthworm – Setae are present on first clitellum
(C) Rat – Right kidney is slightly lower in position than left one
(D) Frog – body divisible into neck and trunk
Sol. (A)
There are 10 pairs of slit like openings, the spiracles situated on either side of body wall. First two are thoracic and the
remaining 8 are abdominal

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81. Stirred - tank bioreactors (most common type of aerobic bioreactor) have been designed for
(A) availability of oxygen throughout the process
(B) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
(C) purification of the product
(D) addition of preservatives to the product
Sol. (A)
The most common type of aerobic bioreactors in use today is the stirred-tank reactor, which may feature a specific internal
configuration designed to provide a specific circulation pattern. The stirred- tank bioreactor have been designed for
availability of oxygen throughout the process.

82. Eggs of humans are (on the basis of amount of yolk present)
(A) alecithal (B) mesolecithal (C) microlecithal (D) macrolecithal

IA
Sol. (A)
Eggs of humans do not contain yolk hence, they are alecithal. Yolk is required in egg-laying animals , but in humans
foetus complete its developmentaol stages occur inside the female body only.

D
83. RQ (Respiratory Quotient) is the ratio of which gases during the respiration.
volume of CO 2 absorbed volumeof CO 2 evolved
(A) RQ  volume O 2 absorbed (B) RQ  volumeO 2 evolved

(C) RQ 
volume of CO 2 absorbed
volumeO 2 evolved
N volumeof CO 2 evolved
(D) RQ  volume of O absorbed
SI
2

Sol. (D)
RQ (Respiratory Quotient) is the ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide produced to the volume of oxygen consumed over
a period of time in respiration
O

84. Development of land plants, wingless insects and scorpions is an example of which type of evolution from the given
below options.
(A) coevolution (B) mimicry (C) quantum evolution (D) saltatory evolution
O

Sol. (C)
Quantum evolution is a rapid evolution of a number of new-taxa in a short span of time probably due to large scale
environment changes
ET

85. Foramen of magendie is the median aperture of medulla oblogata which in turn is the component of
(A) Diencephalon (B) Mesencephalon (C) Rhombencephalon (D) Prosencephalon
Sol. (C)
Foramen of magnedie is the median aperture of medulla oblongata which in turn, is a component of rhombencephalon
(hindbrain). This aperture permit the exit of cerebrospinal fluid into spaces around the brain

86. The bond which is responsible for DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) strand to be antiparallel is
(A) phosphodiester bonds (B) H- bonds
(C) peptide bonds (D) disulphide bonds
Sol. (A)
Phosphodiester bond connects C3 and C5 of adjacert deoxyribose sugars due to which the two strand of DNA are
antiparallel.

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87. Formation of erythrocytes ios called erythropoiesis. In early few weeks of embryonic life. primitive nucleated RBCs are
produed in the
(A) Liver (B) Yolk sac (C) bone marrow (D) Both (B) and (C)
Sol. (D)
In the embryonic life , the primitive nucleated RBC are produced from the yolk sac (one of the embryonic membrane). In
later stage of embryonic life, RBC is mainly produced by the liver

88. In Lac-operon (inducible operon system) the repressor protein binds with which part of DNA
(A) Regulator gene (B) Operator gene (C) Promoter gene (D) Structural gene
Sol. (B)
ir, the lac-operon model the repressor protein is formed by regulator gene , In switch off state the repressor protein binds
to the operator gene of the DNA. Due to which the transcription and translation stops.

IA
89. DNA ligase is used to seal the two strands of DNA. This unique enzyme was firstly dicovered from which organism
(A) E.coil (B) × 176 (C) A. tumefaceins (D) H.influenza
Sol. (A)

D
DNA ligase enzymes join DNA strands covalently and was first isolated by Martin Gellert in 1967 from Escherichia coli.

90. Identify a Mendelian disorder from the following.

Sol.
(A) Down's syndrome
(C)
(B) Turner's syndrome
N
(C) Phenylketonuria (D) Klinefelter's syndrome

Phenylketonuria Mendelian disorder is determined by mutations in single gene. It is transmitted to the offspring as per
SI
Mendelian principles. The pattern of inhertance of such Mendelian disorders can be traced in a family by the pedigree
analysis.
O
O
ET

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