TEST QUESTION SET

Subject Area II - 45%

(Environmental Planning Processes, Methods/Techniques & Strategies)

(Q & A courtesy of: Prof. Ernie Serote)

1. What is referred to as the “third pillar” is governance?

a. Doric b. Ionic c. Civil Society d. Corinthian

2. Transaction on land, the regulation of which is devolved to local governments.

a. Acquisition b. Disposition c. Ownership d. Use

3. Which of these laws does not address the needs of the marginalized sectors?
a. PD 957 b. RA 8550 c. RA 8371 d. RA 7279

4. One of these demographic processes does not contribute to urbanization.

a. Natural growth b. Migration c. Concentration d. Transhumance

5. The following land use policy areas were adopted by the National Land Use Committee in 1988,
except one. Which one is that?
a. Settlements b. Zoning c. Production d. Production

6. Which alternatives to residential freehold is not among those provided for in the UDHA or RA
7279?
a. Usufruct b. Lease to own c. Neighborhood ownership d. Public rental housing

7. The following strategies help augment the supply of land for urban development. Which one
does not?
a. Improved rural services
b. In-filling of vacant lands
c. Densification
d. Agricultural land conversion

8. Which of the following effects cannot be attributed directly to urban renewal?

a. Densification b. Commodification c. Gentrification d. Revitalization

9. Which of the following strategies does not contribute to the objective of restraining the outward
expansion of cities?
a. Building new towns
b. Encouraging high rise construction
c. Designating green belts around the built up area
d. Agricultural land conversion at the urban fringe

10. The UDHA allows the use of several methods of land acquisition for socialized housing, but one
of those methods should be used as a matter of last resort. Identify.
a. Negotiated purchase b. Expropriation c. Community mortgage d. Donation

11. One of these functions of the State can be shared with the private sector. Which one?
a. Administration of justice
b. Collection of taxes
c. Provision of social goods and services
d. Exercise of police power
12. The balanced housing provision of the UDHA can be complied with in different ways, except
one. Point out.
a. Financing a CMP project
b. Building a low-cost housing project in the same city as the main project
c. Building a high-end subdivision but at a smaller scale
d. Building a low-cost subdivision in an adjoining province

13. One of the following lands of the public domain is now completely devolved to local
governments.
a. Within 15 kilometers of the coastal zone
b. Mineral lands
c. National parks
d. Timberlands

14. Which of the following activities is closest to the concept of adaptive reuse?
a. Open air theater within the walls of Intramuros
b. Quezon Memorial Circle
c. Bay walk along Roxas Boulevard
d. Quirino Grandstand at the Luneta

15. All of the following sources of energy are renewable, except one.
a. Hydro-electric power b. Geothermal c. Coal d. Solar

16. The rational planning process consists of two parts. One part is elaboration of ends. What is the
other one?
a. Monitoring and evaluation
b. Data generation and analysis
c. Formulating a vision statement
d. Specification of means

17. Of the four land use policy areas adopted by the National Land Use Committee which one
pertains to the unbuilt environment?
a. Protection b. Production C. Settlements d. Infrastructure

18. Of the four new land classes under the 1987 Constitution which one is alienable and disposable?
a. Mineral Lands b. National Parks c. Agricultural Lands d. Forest Lands

19. Which of the following officials is not a member of the Local Development Council?
a. Governor’s representative
b. Congressman or his representative
c. Chair of the Appropriations Committee of the Sanggunian
d. All Barangay Chairmen

20. This local official is often invited to sit in the Local Finance Committee although he is not an
original member because his office is a major generator of local revenue. Who is he?
a. Local Planning and Development Coordinator
b. Local Assessor
c. Local Treasurer
d. Local Budget Officer

21. Which of the following economic activities is nor a subsector of agriculture?

a. Crop cultivation b. Livestock and poultry c. Eco-tourism d. Fisheries
 22. What activity is not considered a component of the industry sector?
a. Manufacturing b. Energy Generation c. Mining and Quarrying d. Tree farming

23. Identify the activity that does not belong to the services sector.
a. Construction b. wholesale and retail c. Finance and insurance d. Real estate

24. It is listed among the ecosystems under the Philippine Agenda 21 although it is not an
ecosystem per se because it is of such a special concern. Which one is this?
a. Upland forest b. Lowland agriculture c. Urban d. Biodiversity

25. One of these goals, though a worthy one, is not included among the General Welfare Goals as
embodied in Section 16 of the 1991 Local Government Code.
a. Promotion of health and safety
b. Improvement of public morals
c. Ensuring education for all
d. Maintenance of peace and order

(Q & A courtesy of: EnP Vero Arcilla)

26. In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following fall under the social sector?
a. Education
b. Tourism
c. Health
d. Police Protective Services
e. Sports and Recreation

a. i, ii, iii, iv b. ii, iii, iv, v c. i, iii, iv, v d. i, ii, iv, v

27. In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following fall under the economic sector?
a. Housing
b. Mining
c. ICT and Business Process Outsourcing
d. Manculture
e. Small Scale Industries

a. i, ii, iii, iv b. ii, iii, iv, v c. i, iii, iv, v d. i, ii, iv, v

28. This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and proceeds by
systematically evaluating alternative patterns of resource use, choosing that use which meets
specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate policies and programs, directed to the best use of
land in view of accepted objectives, and of environmental and societal opportunities and
constraints.

a. Framework Planning
b. Strategic Planning
c. Land Use Planning
d. Development Planning

29. This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality including statements
about community goals, priorities, strategies, and socially desired mix of resource uses. These
are illustrated by maps, diagrams, charts, tables that show a coherent spatial framework for
environment protection, economic production, settlements, and infrastructure.

a. Charrette
b. Chatroulette
c. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
d. Strategic Plan
e. Framework Plan
 30. An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic planning but before the
detailed layout of location, and aims to characterize and design a parcel of land or specific
section of town so that it can function effectively in relation to the complexity and scale of
proposed development and the range of land uses around it.

a. Estate Planning
b. Wards and Precincts Planning
c. Parcellary Planning
d. Site Planning
e. Project Planning

31. This refers to the division of a community into districts or sections according to present and
potential uses of land in order to maximize, regulate, and direct their use and development.
a. Wards and Precincts Planning
b. Subdivision Plats
c. Land Allocation and Appointment
d. Zoning

32. It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively planned as a

unitary entity such that innovations in site design and building design are rewarded by
government with some flexibility in zoning, usually relaxation of standards or their replacement
with negotiated agreement between the developer and the LGU.
a. Enterprise Zone
b. Sites and Services Model
c. Zonal Improvement Program
d. Planned Unit Development

33. Which of those listed below is not a thematic map?

a. Political-administrative boundaries
b. NPAAAD map
c. Slope map
d. Forest cover map

a. i, ii, iii b. ii, iii, iv c. i, iii, iv d. i, iii, iv

34. According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more thematic maps on
top of each other to determine areas of convergence of certain features of land contributing to
the suitability of the area to a particular purpose, and conversely, to eliminate or screen out
areas that are not suitable for that purpose.
a. Thematic superimposition
b. Cartographic merging
c. Sieve analysis
d. Spatial modeling

35. What rational tool do planners use in selecting from alternative land use schemes?
a. Checklist of criteria
b. Linear programming
c. Cost-Benefit analysis
d. Computer simulation

36. Which of the following are basic steps in preparing a CLUP?

a. Identify stakeholders and analyze the situation
b. Develop a detailed organizational management profile
c. Formulate goals and translate them into strategies
d. Anticipate economic trends and build scenarios
e. Identify the needed infrastructure and utilities
 f. Involve participants in Goals Achievement Matrix

a. i, ii, iii, iv, v b. ii, iii, iv, v, vi c. i, iii, iv, v, vi d. ii, iii, iv, v, vi

37. Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive Development Plan?
a. Urban morphology and physiognomy
b. Data collection, problem analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall vision,
goals, objectives
c. Investment programming, zero-based budgeting, earmarking and appropriation
d. Community-based monitoring system, local government poverty monitoring system

a. i, ii, iii b. ii, iii, iv c. i, iii, iv d. i, ii, iv

38. What are the tools or levers of authority of city / town LGUs use to implement their local plans?
a. Clearance, non-conformance, variance, exemptions, licenses, and permits
b. Condemnation, legal expropriation, seizure, confiscation, closure, and takeover of
property
c. Zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives to
private investment
d. Levies, duties, charges, tolls, and tariffs

a. i, ii, iii b. ii, iii, iv c. i, iii, iv d. i, ii, iv

39. This document contains an LGUs proposed schedule of infrastructure projects listed in order of
construction priority usually for a timeframe of 6 years together with cost estimates, anticipated
means of financing, and commitment of public funds for the purchase, construction, or
replacement of physical assets of the community?
a. DOTC plan
b. Annual Investment Plan
c. Civil Works Program
d. Capital Investment Program

40. This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustrations and
diagrams, which described what the community wants to become and how it wants to develop.
It is essentially composed of community goals, objectives, policies, programs and a physical
development plan which translates the various sectoral plans.
a. Land Use Plan
b. Action Plan
c. Strategic Plan
d. Development Plan

41. This is the process of appraising the feasibility, credibility and probable impacts or
consequences of alternative schemes of development or specific environmental conditions.
a. Environmental Impact Assessment
b. Evaluation
c. Diagnostic Survey
d. Feasibility Study

42. It is a process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project of

undertaking and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating, and enhancement measures.
a. Scoping
b. Initial environmental examination
c. Environmental impact assessment
d. Environmental risk assessment

43. What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?

a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
 d. None of the above
e. All of the above

44. What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?

a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

45. What body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

46. What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?

a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

47. A Comprehensive Land Use Plan must meet the following criteria?
a. Technical feasibility
b. Socio-economical and financial possibility
c. Political viability
d. Administrative operability
e. All of the above

48. A special locational clearance which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of
the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or
topographical conditions of the property, compliance with height, area, bulk, setback and/or
density would result in particular hardship upon the owner is called:
a. Certificate of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
d. None of the above

49. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a zoning ordinance
where, because of the specific use would result in a particular hardship to the owner.
a. Variance
b. Certificate of Non-Conformance
c. Exception
d. Development

50. The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups for the
purpose of systematizing, harmonizing, and facilitating operations is called:
a. Public hearing
b. Consultation
c. Coordination
d. Scoping

51. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion, which may not be followed is called
a. Consultation
b. Coordination
c. Public hearing
 d. Citizen participation

52. The agency that implements the laws, rules, and regulations that support policies of
government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is:
a. NEDA
b. DAR
c. HLURB
d. DPWH

53. What higher level plans guide Local Government Units in preparing their own comprehensive
land use plans?
a. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term Development Plans
b. Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional Development Plans
c. Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development Plans
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

54. Which among the following are included in the general welfare clause of the local government
code?
i. Enrichment of culture
ii. Promote health & safety
iii. Enhance economic prosperity & social justice
iv. Preserve the comfort & convenience of their inhabitants

a. i & ii b. i, ii & iii c. i, ii, iii, & iv d. iv only

55. Which among the following is/are NOT part of the sub sectors for Infrastructure Sector?
i. Hospitals ii. Health iii. Housing iv. Public Socialized Housing

a. II & III b. II only c. I & II d. III & IV

56. Which among the following is/are part of the sub sectors for Environment Sector
i. Parks, wildlife & other reservations
ii. Lands for public domain
iii. Protection forest
iv. Freedom Parks

a. ii & iii b. i, ii, ii c. i & iv d. iv only

57. Which among the following is/are included in the indicator of development (or
underdevelopment) for Social Sector?
i. Proportion of population with incomes below poverty line.
ii. No. of fire trucks per capita
iii. Percent of household without sanitary toilets
iv. Share of women in non-agricultural wage employment

a. i, ii, ii, & iv b. ii only c. ii & iii d. i, iii & iv

58. Which among the following is/are NOT included in the indicators of development (or
underdevelopment) for Economic Sector?
i. Percent of labor force employed by sex
ii. Volume/Value of agricultural crop production by major crop
iii. Percent of irrigable, irrigated, rainfed, non-irrigated & primelands converted to agricultural
uses.
iv. Percent of households with secondary/tertiary source of income

a. I only b. III only c. II & III c. I & IV

 (courtesy of: EnP/Arch Step Gilles)

59. Philippine laws pertain to the following as urban areas ___

i. All cities regardless of their population density

ii. All cities and municipalities with a population density of at least 1,000 persons/
sq. km
iii. Municipalities with population density of at least 500 persons per sq. km.
iv. Barangays that have a population size of 5,000 or more
v. Barangays that have at least one establishment with a minimum of 100 employees
vi. Barangays that have 5 or more establishments with a minimum of 10 employees,
and 5 or more facilities within the two-kilometer radius from the barangay hall
vii. Poblaciones or central districts of municipalities and cities which have a
population density of at least 500 persons per square kilometer
viii. Poblaciones or central districts of municipalities and cities the following:
 Street pattern
 At least 6 establishments (commercial, manufacturing, etc.)
 Town hall, church or chapel with religious services at least once a month
 Public plaza, park or cemetery
 Market or any place where trading activities are carried out at least once a
week
 Public building like a school, hospital, periculture and health centers or library.

a. i, iii, iv, viii

b. i, iii, v, vi, viii
c. ii, iv, v,vi, vii
d. ii, iv, vii, viii
e. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii, viii

60. Republic Act 10121 of 2010 defines Disaster Risk Reduction and Management as:

a. the systematic process of using administrative directives, organizations, and operational

skills and capacities to implement strategies, policies and improved coping capacities in
order to lessen the adverse impacts of hazards and the possibility of disaster.

b. the strategy and coordinative mechanism that is aimed at reducing the risks related to the
occurence of disasters, including but not limited to mitigation, preparedness, prevention,
response and disaster planning.

c. a systematic approach to identifying, assessing and reducing the risks of disaster. It aims to
reduce socio-economic vulnerabilities to disaster as well as dealing with the environmental
and other hazards that trigger them.

d. The conceptual framework of elements considered with the possibilities to minimize

vulnerabilities and disaster risks throughout a society, to avoid (prevention) or to limit
(mitigation and preparedness) the adverse impacts of hazards, within the broad context of
sustainable development.

61. The Philippine Agenda 21:

 I. Is the Philippines’ response to Agenda 21 – a program of action into the 21st
century for bringing the Earth into a sustainable future which was adopted by the
participating governments of the world in the United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED), otherwise known as the Earth Summit, in
Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 1992.

II. Is the Philippines’ national agenda for sustainable development oriented towards
the overarching goals of poverty reduction, social equity, empowerment and good
governance, peace and solidarity and ecological integrity

III. Is the country’s agenda to achieve and maintain such levels of environmental quality
as to protect public health and to prevent to the greatest extent practicable, injury
and/or damage to plant and animal life and property, and promote the social and
economic development of the country

IV. Includes an action agenda per ecosystem including the following:

 Forestland/upland ecosystems
 Coastal and marine ecosystems
 Urban ecosystems
 Freshwater ecosystems
 Lowland/agricultural ecosystems
 Minerals and mines
 Biodiersity

V. Includes an action agenda for the different environmental resources including:

 Energy resources
 Mineral resources
 Forestry resources
 Wildlife and biodiversity resources
 Land resources
 Water resources / marine, aquatic and coastal resources
 Atmospheric / airshed management

a. I, II and IV
b. I, III and V
c. II and IV
d. III and IV
e. I, II, III, IV and V

Use the table below to answer the next 5 items

62. The DENR has the following core function/s:

a. II only
b. II and VII
c. II, VII and VIII
d. II, VII and IX

63. The HLURB has the following function/s:

a. IV only
b. V only
c. IV, V and VIII
 d. VIII only

64. The NEDA has the following function/s:

a. III only
b. VI only
c. I, III, and VI
d. I, VI and X

65. The DILG* has the following function/s:

a. I and III
b. I, III and VI
c. I, III, and X
d. I, III, VI and X

66. HUDCC has the following function/s

a. IV and V
b. IV and VIII
c. V and VIII
d. IV, V and VIII

I. Establish and prescribe rules, regulations and other VII. Formulate implement and supervise
issuances implementing laws on public order and the government's policies, plans and
safety, the general supervision over local programs pertaining to the
governments and the promotion of local autonomy management, conservation,
and community empowerment and monitor development, use and replenishment
compliance thereof of the country's natural resources and
ecological diversity
II. to formulate and implement policies, guidelines, rules
and regulations relating to environmental VIII. the lead agency in the provision of
management and pollution prevention and control. technical assistance to local
government units in the preparation
III. Establish and prescribe plans, policies, programs and of comprehensive land use plans;
projects to promote peace and order, ensure public regulation of housing, land
safety and further strengthen the administrative, development and homeowners
technical and fiscal capabilities of local government association; and adjudications of
offices and personnel related disputes
IV. over-all coordinator, initiator and facilitator of all IX. Promulgate and implement rules and
government policies, plans and programs for the regulations governing the
housing sector exploration, development, extraction,
V. determines strategies, formulates appropriate disposition, and use of the forests,
policies, monitors, and evaluates the programs, lands, minerals, wildlife, and other
projects and performance of the implementing natural resources.
shelter agencies. X. Establish a system of coordination
VI. Responsible for coordinating the formulation of and cooperation among the citizenry,
continuing and integrated socioeconomic local executives and (this National
development plans, policies and programs, including Government Agency) to ensure
the formulation of annual and medium-term public effective and efficient delivery of
investment programs, programming of official basic services to the public
development assistance in the form of grants and
concessional loans from foreign governments and
multilateral agencies and organizations, and the
monitoring and evaluation of plan implementation
67. _____ is designated with the function to review and ratify land use plans of MM cities and
municipalities, provinces, highly urbanized cities and independent component cities.
a. LGU
b. HUDCC
c. DILG
d. HLURB
e. MMDA

Use the table below to answer the following questions:

In 2012, the municipality of San

Jose has 14,111 residents with
the following cohort break-down:

Male Female
0-4 882 889
5-9 832 837
10-14 766 781
15-19 752 749
20-24 682 675
25-29 621 620
30-34 559 560
35-39 465 471
40-44 353 353
45-49 256 259
50-54 263 270
55-59 211 211
60-64 164 170
65-69 109 112
70-74 75 76
75-79 33 36
80+ 7 12

68. Which of the following statements are true?

i. For every 100 active workers in the labor force there are 95 young dependents
ii. For every 100 active workers in the labor force, there are 58 young dependents
iii.For every 100 active workers in the labor force thare are 5 old dependents
iv. For every 100 active workers in the labor force there are 11 dependents
v. The dependecy ratio of the municipality of San Jose is 63; where 100 members of the
active population support 63 dependents
vi. The dependency ratio of the municipality of San Jose is 106; where 100 members of the
active population supports 106 dependents

a. Statements i, iv and vi are true

b. Statements ii, iii and v are true
c. Statements ii, iv and vi are true
d. Only statement v is true
e. None of the statements are true
69. Which of the following statements is/are false?

i. Young dependents comprise 35% of the population of the municipality of San Jose
ii. Approximately 4.6 out of every 10 residents in San Jose is a young dependent
iii. The active working population is 48% of the entire population of the municipality of San
Jose
iv. Approximately 61 out of 100 residents in San Jose is considered to be part of working
population
v. Approximately 3 out of 100 residents in San Jose is an old-age dependent
vi. Old-age dependents comprise 5.63% of the population of the municipality of San Jose

a. All of the statements are false

b. Statements i, iv and v are false
c. Statements ii, iii and vi are false
d. None of the statements are false

70. The municipality of San Jose has the following sex ratio
a. For every 100 females there are 99.27 males
b. For every 99.27 females there are 100 males
c. For every 100 females there are 100.72 males
d. There are less females than males

71. If the population growth rate of the municipality of San Jose is 2.36, which of the following
statements will apply
a. San Jose will have a projected population of 28,222 in 2041
b. San Jose will have a doubled its population in 36 years
c. San Jose will have a projected population of 14,444 in 2015
d. All of the statements are applicable

72. Which of the following sequences is in accordance with HLURB’s A Guide to Comprehensive
Land Use Plan Preparation (2013)?

a. Set the Vision, Identify Stakeholders, Organize, Analyze the Situation, Set the Goals and
Objectives
b. Conduct the Public Hearing, Draft the Zoning Ordinance, Review-Adopt-Approve the CLUP
and ZO, Implement the CLUP and ZO, Monitor and Evaluate the CLUP and ZO
c. Analyze the Situation, Set Goals and Objectives, Establish Development Thrusts and Spatial
Strategies, Prepare the Land Use Plan, Monitor and Evaluate the CLUP and ZO
d. Analyze the Situation, Organize, Identify Stakeholders, Set the Vision, Establish Development
Thrust and Spatial Strategies

73. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. NPFP
b. MTPDP
c. PDIP
d. MTPIP

74. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. NPFP
 b. PDPFP
c. PCDP
d. PDIP

75. The Co-management principle is one of the principles and approaches adopted in the CLUP
Preparation Process. It stipulates that the ___ shall share with the ___ the responsibility in the
management and maintenance of ecological balance within their territorial jurisdiction. These 2
parties are mandated to be co-managers of the national territory and patrimony.

a. Private sector and Public sector

b. Civil society and Government
c. National Government and Line Agencies
d. Local Government Units and National Government

76. The Ridge-to-Reef Integrated Watershed Ecosystems Management Framework, integrates the
following areas in planning:
a. Forest-Upland-Lowland-Coastal and Marine
b. Ridge-Agricultural-Coastal and Fisheries
c. Upland-Lowland-Heritage-Marine
d. Forest-NIPAS-Heritage-Coastal and Marine

77. The fifth step in the CLUP process entails setting the Goals and Objectives. Ideally goals embody
a desired outcome in the long-term, while objectives must be SMART. This acronym stands for:
a. Strategic, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Testable
b. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Time-Bound
c. Short, Memorable, Austere, Rudimentary, Traditional
d. Specific, Mainstreamed, Adjustable, Rational, Technical

78. “Mitigation” in the context of R.A. 10121 or the DRRM Act of 2010 ___
a. Refers to structural and non-structural measures undertaken to limit the adverse impact of
natural hazards, environmental degradation, and technological hazards and to ensure the
ability of at-risk communities to address vulnerabilities aimed at minimizing the impact of
disasters.
b. refers to human intervention to address anthropogenic emissions by sources and removals
by sinks of all GHG, including ozone- depleting substances and their substitutes.
c. refers to the adjustment in natural or human systems in response to actual or expected
climatic stimuli or their effects, which moderates harm or exploits beneficial opportunities.
d. Refers to the systematic approach and practice of managing uncertainty to minimize
potential harm and loss. It comprises risk assessment and analysis, and the implementation
of strategies and specific actions to control, reduce and transfer risks.

79. An evaluation tool used in the selection of a preferred development thrust and special strategy
which assigns weights to objectives so as to be able to rank them in order of relative
importance.
a. Social Cost Benefit Analysis
b. Goals Achievement Matrix
c. SWOT Analysis
d. Overlay Analysis

80. Refers to the process of which resources of land are put to effect
a. Land Management
 b. Land Administration
c. Land Tenure
d. Land Valuation

81. Refers to the processes of determining, recording and disseminating information about the
ownership, value and use of land when implementing land management policies
a. Land Management
b. Land Administration
c. Land Tenure
d. Land Valuation

82. A ___ is a study which assesses the effects that a particular development's traffic will have on
the transportation network in the community.
a. Traffic Impact Analysis
b. Infrastructure Capacity Assessment
c. Metro Manila Urban Transport Integration Study (MMUTIS)
d. Travel Demand Analysis

83. The Four-step Model of Transport Planning, includes the following components
a. Arterial, collector, distributor and capilliary
b. Transportation Demand Analysis, Accessibility Assessment, Land Use Suitability Assessment
and an integrated analysis of the 3
c. Trip Generation, Trip Distribution, Modal Split, Trip Assignment
d. Land Transportation Demand Analysis, Water Transport Demand Analysis, Air Tranport
Demand Analysis, Integrated Transport Assessment