Q.

1) Match the following

1. DAA a) Interrupt instructions
2. LXI b) Program control instructions
3. RST c) Arithmetic instructions
4. JMP d) Data movement instructions
a) d, c, b, a
b) c, d, a, b
c) b, c d, a
d) c, b, d, a
Q.2) A mouse interface could be connected to a microprocessor based system through
a) serial interface
b) Ps/2
c) USB
d) All the above
Q.3) 32 bit ARM processors operate in ___ for 32 bits operations
a) Jessle mode
b) ARM mode
c) thumb mode
d) JTAG mode
Q.4) Define the type of instructions with its addressing mode ( 8086 ALP) INAX, 04H
a) arithmetic, indexed addressing
b) data transfer, port addressing
c) logical based, indexed addressing
d) Branching, register indirect addressing
Q.5) To determine the sequences required for execution of operation the opcode of the instruction get
transferred to
a) instruction register
b) status register
c) accumulator
d) temporary register
Q.6) The number of memory chips needed to design 8K byte memory using the memory chip size of
1024x1 is
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 64
Q.7) The address lines required to interface 8K byte memory chip with 8085 microprocessor is
a) 16
b) 13
c) 19
d) 7
Q.8) Description of LAHF instruction in 8085 processor
a) store
b) load A register to segment register
c) store A register from flags
d) load A register from flags
Q.9) A computer employs RAM chips of 256x8 and ROM chips of 1024x8. The system needs 2K bytes
of RAM and 4KB of ROM and 4 interface units. How many ROM and RAM chips are needed.
a) ROM 4 chips and RAM 8 chips
b) ROM 8 chips and RAM 4 chips
c) ROM 4 chips and RAM 4 chips
d) ROM 8 chips and RAM 8 chips
Q.10) Which DMA techniques employ cycle stealing in true sense?
a) transparent DMA
b) multiplexed DMA
c) Interleaved DMA
d) Daisy Chain
Q.11) The correct matching for the following pairs is
(A) Disk Scheduling (1) Round robin
(B) Batch Processing (2) SCAN
(C) Time sharing (3) LIFO
(D) Interrupt processing (4) FIFO
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 4 3 2
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
Q.12) Which of the following is an example of a spooled device ?
a) The terminal used to input data for a program being executed
b) The Secondary memory device in a virtual memory system.
c) A line printer used to print the output of a number of Jobs.
d) None of the Above.
Q.13) Four Jobs to be executed on a single processor system arrive at time 0 in the order A,B, C, D. Their
burst CPU time requirements are 4,1,8,1 time units, respectively. The completion time of A under round
robin scheduling with time slice of one time unit is
a) 10
b) 4
c) 8
d) 9
Q.14) Consider a system having m resources of the same type. These resources are shared by 3 processes
A, B and C which have peak demands of 3, 4 and 6 respectively. For what value of m deadlock will not
occur ?
a) 7
b) 9
c) 10
d) 13
Q.15) There are three processes P1, P2 and P3 sharing a semaphore for synchronizing a variable. Initial
value of semaphore is one. Assume that negative value of semaphore tells us how many processes are
waiting in queue. Processes access the semaphore in following order :
a. P2 needs to access
b. P1 needs to access
c. P3 needs to access
d. P2 exits critical section
e. P1 exits critical section
The final value of semaphore will be :
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) -2
Q.16) Thrashing occurs when
a) When a page fault occurs
b) Processes on system frequently access pages not memory
c) Processes on system are in running state
d) Processes on system are in waiting state
Q.17) Match the following with respect to various memory management algorithms:

a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
Q.18) A System has four processes and five allocatable resources. The current allocation and maximum
needs are as follows.

The Smallest value of x for which the above system in a safe state is ________
a)1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 0
Q.19) In a computer system where the ‘best-fit’ algorithm is used for allocating ‘jobs’ to ‘memory partitions’, the
following situation was encountered:

When will the 20K job complete?

Note – This question was subjective type.
a) 8
b) 18
c) 11
d) None of these
Q.20) Which of the following requires a device driver?
a) Register
b) Cache
c) Main memory
d) Disk
Q.21) The Boolean function = + IS TO BE REALIZED USING ONLY 2 INPUT nand
GATES. The minimum number of gates required is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Q.22) The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its input are at logic 0. The gate is either
a) Nand or Exor
b) And or Exor
c) or or Exnor
d) nor or Exnor
Q.23) Boolean function of A+BC is reduced form of
a) AB+BC
b) (A+B)(A+C)
c) ̅ +
d) (A+C).B
Q.24) The MSB of a signed binary number indicates its
a) radix
b) one
c) 0
d) sign
Q.25) = +R ̅ + Boolean function F has 3 variables R,S,T. The reduced expression of F in
SOP form
a) = +
B) ̅ +
C) RST+
D) R +
Q.26) In a JK flip flop J= and K=1. Assuming the flip flop was initially cleared and then clocked for 6
clock pulses the sequences at the Q output will be

a) 010000
b) 011001
c) 010010
d) 010101
Q.27) The value of b which satisfies (345)b+(544)b=(1001001001)2 is
a) 2
b) 10
c) 16
d) 8
Q.28) + +
a) ̅ + + ̅
b) ̅ + ̅
c) ̅ + + ̅
d) ̅ ̅
Q.29) The minterm A ̅
a) A+ + +
b) A+B+C+D
c) ̅ + + +
d) ̅ + + ̅ +
Q.30) A canonical SOP logic expression of 4 variables contains each term with____ literals
a) 4-1
b) 4+1
c) 4/2
d) 4
Q.31) …………… is not the component of data structure.
a) Operations
b) Storage Structures
c) Algorithms
d) None of above
Q.32) A binary search tree whose left subtree and right subtree differ in height by at most 1 unit is called
a) AVL tree
b) Red-black tree
c) Lemma tree
d) None of the above
Q.33) Which of the following is not the type of queue?
a) Ordinary queue
b) One ended queue
c) Circular queue
d) Priority queue
Q.34) Which of the following is not the part of ADT description?
a) Data
b) Operations
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Q.35) An algorithm is made up of two independent time complexities f (n) and g (n). Then the
complexities of the algorithm is in the order of
a) f(n) x g(n)
b) Max (f(n),g(n))
c) Min (f(n),g(n))
d) f(n) + g(n)
Q.36) The goal of hashing is to produce a search that takes
a) O(1) time
b) O(n2 ) time
c) O(log n ) time
d) O(n log n ) time
Q.37) Which of the following operations is performed more efficiently by doubly linked list than by
singly linked list?
a) Deleting a node whose location in given
b) Searching of an unsorted list for a given item
c) Inverting a node after the node with given location
d) Traversing a list to process each node
Q.38) ……………… must be either non-static member function or friend functions.
A) member functions
B) Operator functions
C) non-static functions
D) friend functions
Q.39) The compiler does not support automatic type conversions for the ………….. data type.
A) basic
B) user defined
C) class
D) derived
Q.40) In the case of ……….. function, arguments may be passed either by value or by reference.
A) private
B) friend
C) member
D) public
Q.41) The friend functions and the member functions of a friend class can directly access the ……….
data.
A) private and protected
B) private and public
C) protected and public
D) private, protected and public
Q.42) What will be the order of execution of base class constructors in the following method of
inheritance.
class A: public B, virtual public C {….};
a) B(); C(); A();
b) C(); B(); A();
c) A(); B(); C();
d) B(); A(); C();
Q.43) A class can be derived from another derived class which is known as ………. inheritance.
a) single
b) multiple
c) multilevel
d) hierarchical
Q.44) Which function cannot be overloaded in C++ program?
a) Virtual function
b) member function
c) Static function
d) All can be overloaded
Q.45) Choose the correct answer for following piece of C++ pseudo code
voidfunc(int a, int&b)
{
}
int main(){
inta,b;
func(a,b);
}
a) a is pass by value and b is pass by reference
b) a is pass by value and b is pass by address
c) a is pass by value and b is pass by pointer
d) Compile error
Q.46) What is the Output?
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int x = 1;
void fun()
{
int x = 2;
{
int x = 3;
cout << ::x << endl;
}
}
int main()
{
fun();
return 0;
}
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Q.47) What is the Output?
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int x[100];
int main()
{
cout << x[99] << endl;
}
a) Unpredictable
b) Runtime error
c) 0
d) 99
Q.48) What is the Output?
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
union A {
int a;
unsigned int b;
A() { a = 10; }
unsigned int getb() {return b;}
};

int main()
{
A obj;
cout << obj.getb();
return 0;
}
a) Compiler Error: union can’t have functions
b) Compiler Error: can’t access private members of A
c) 10
d) garbage value
Q.49) Which of the following is true about virtual functions in C++.
a) Virtual functions are functions that can be overridden in derived class with the same signature.
b) Virtual functions enable run-time polymorphism in a inheritance hierarchy.
c) If a function is ‘virtual’ in the base class, the most-derived class’s implementation of the function is called
according to the actual type of the object referred to, regardless of the declared type of the pointer or reference.
In non-virtual functions, the functions are called according to the type of reference or pointer.
d) All of the above
Q.50) What is the output of this C++ program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
void square (int *x)
{
*x = (*x)++ * (*x);
}
void square (int *x, int *y)
{
*x = (*x) * --(*y);
}
int main ( )
{
int number = 30;
square(&number, &number);
cout << number;
return 0;
}
a) 910
b) 920
c) 870
d) 900
Q.51) Consider the following C++ program’
int a (int m)
{return ++m;}
int b(int&m)
{return ++m;}
int c(char &m)
{return ++m;}
void main 0
{
int p = 0, q = 0, r = 0;
p += a(b(p));
 q += b(a(q));
r += a(c(r));
cout<<r;
}
Assuming the required header files are already included, the above program:
a) results in compilation error
b) print 123
c) print 111
d) print 322
Q.52) What is the output of the following code:
#include <iostream>
int main(int argc, const char * argv[]) {
int a[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6};
std::cout << (1 + 3)[a] - a[0] + (a + 1)[2];
}
a) 7
b) 3
c) 8
d) 9
Q.53) What is the output of the following code:
#include <iostream>
class Base {
virtual void method() {std::cout << "from Base" << std::endl;}
public:
virtual ~Base() {method();}
void baseMethod() {method();}
};
class A : public Base {
void method() {std::cout << "from A" << std::endl;}
public:
~A() {method();}
};
int main(void) {
Base* base = new A;
base->baseMethod();
delete base;
return 0;
}
The above will output:
a) from A
from A
from Base
a) from A
from Base
from A
c) from Base
from A
from A
d) from A
from A
from A
Q.54)
#include <iostream>
struct A
{
int data[2];

A(int x, int y) : data{x, y} {}

virtual void f() {}
};

int main(int argc, char **argv)

{
A a(22, 33);

int *arr = (int *) &a;

std::cout << arr[2] << std::endl;

return 0;
}
a) On 32-bit architectures the output will be 33, and on 64-bit architectures it will be 22.
b) On 32-bit architectures the output will be 22, and on 64-bit architectures it will be 33.
c) On 32-bit architectures the output will be 22, and on 64-bit architectures it will be 22.
d) On 32-bit architectures the output will be 33, and on 64-bit architectures it will be 33.
Q.55) How to create a dynamic array of pointers (to integers) of size 10 using new in C++?
a) int *arr = new int *[10];
b) int **arr = new int *[10];
c) int *arr = new int [10];
d) Not Possible
Q.56)
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class A
{
int aid;
public:
A(int x)
{ aid = x; }
void print()
{ cout << "A::aid = " <<aid; }
};
class B
{
int bid;
public:
static A a;
B (int i) { bid = i; }
};
int main()
{
B b(10);
b.a.print();
return 0;
}
a) Compiler Error
b) 10
c) 20
d) 30
Q.57) What is the output of following program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class Point
{
int x, y;
public:
Point(const Point &p) { x = p.x; y = p.y; }
int getX() { return x; }
int getY() { return y; }
};
int main()
{
Point p1;
Point p2 = p1;
cout << "x = " << p2.getX() << " y = " << p2.getY();
return 0;
}
a) x = garbage value y = garbage value
b) x = 0 y = 0
c) Compiler Error
d) x=1 y=1
Q.58) Consider the below C++ program.
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
class A
{
public:
A(){ cout <<"1";}
A(const A &obj){ cout <<"2";}
};
class B: virtual A
{
public:
B(){cout <<"3";}
B(const B & obj){cout<<"4";}
};
class C: virtual A
{
public:
C(){cout<<"5";}
C(const C & obj){cout <<"6";}
};
class D:B,C
{
public:
D(){cout<<"7";}
 D(const D & obj){cout <<"8";}
};
int main()
{
D d1;
D d(d1);
}
Which of the below is not printed?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) All of the above
Q.59)
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int a = 10, *pa, &ra;
pa = &a;
ra = a;
cout << "a=" << ra;
return 0;
}
Options:
a) 10
b) no output
c) compile error
d) runtime error
Q.60) Which of the following is correct about Python?
a) It supports automatic garbage collection.
b) It can be easily integrated with C, C++, COM, ActiveX, CORBA, and Java
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Q.61) What is the output of the following program :
y=8
z = lambda x : x * y
print z(6)
a) 48
b)14
c) 64
d) None of the above
Q.62) Given a string s = “Welcome”, which of the following code is incorrect?
a) print s[0]
b) print s.lower()
c) s[1] = ‘r’
d) print s.strip()
Q.63) Find the Output of the following program?
<?php
$OriginalString = "Hello, How can we help you?";
print_r(explode(" ",$OriginalString,3));
?>
a) Array
 (
[0] => Hello,
[1] => How
[2] => can we help you?
b) Array
(
[0] => Hello,
[1] => How
[2] => can?
c) Array
(
[0] => Hello,
[1] => How
[2] => can help ?
d) Compiler Error
Q.64) What is the output for the program?
<?php
$x = 300;
$y = 200;
function multiplication(){
$GLOBALS['z'] = $GLOBALS['x'] * $GLOBALS['y'];
}
multiplication();
echo $z;
?>
a) 60000
b) 6000
c) 500
d) None
Q.65) hat is the result of the program?
<?php
class PHPClass
{
public function __destruct(){
echo 'The class "' . __CLASS__ . '" was destroyed!';
}

}
$obj = new PHPClass;
?>
a) The class "PHPClass" was destroyed.
b) Compiler Error
c) The class “PHPClass.class” was destroyed
d) Example program for destructor in PHP
Q.66) If every non-key attribute is functionally dependent on the primary key, then the relation will be in
a) Second normal form
b) Third normal form
c) Fourth normal form
d) First normal form
Q.67) Let R be a relationship between the entity sets E1 and E2 with primary keys X and Y respectively. If R is a
one relationship between entities E1 and E2 then which of the following FD hold?
a) Y->X only
b) X->Y only
c) Both Y->X and X->Y
d) Neither of them
Q.68) Choose the incorrect statement:
a) A relation in 2NF must also be in 1NF
b) A relation in 3NF must also be in BCNF
c) A relation in 3NF must also be in 2NF
d) A relation in BCNF must also be in 3NF
Q.69) Which of the following statements are TRUE about an SQL query?
P : An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause even
if it does not have a GROUP BY clause

Q : An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause only

if it has a GROUP BY clause

R : All attributes used in the GROUP BY clause must

appear in the SELECT clause

S : Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY clause

need to appear in the SELECT clause
a) P and R
b) P and S
c) Q and R
d) Q and S
Q.70) Given
Table A
Id Name Age
----------------
12 Arun 60
15 Shreya 24
99 Rohit 11

Table B
Id Name Age
----------------
15 Shreya 24
25 Hari 40
98 Rohit 20
99 Rohit 11
Consider the above tables A, B and C. How many tuples does the result of the following SQL query contains?
SELECT A.id FROM A
WHERE A.age> ALL (SELECT B.age FROM B
WHERE B. name = "arun")
a) 4
b) 3
c) 0
d) 1
Q.71) Relations are:
a) two-dimensional tables.
b) three-dimensional tables.
c) four-dimensional tables.
d) five-dimensional tables.
Q.72) The relation scheme Student Performance (name, courseNo, rollNo, grade) has the following functional
dependencies:
name, courseNo → grade
rollNo, courseNo → grade
name → rollNo
rollNo → name
The highest normal form of this relation scheme is
a) 2 NF
b) 3 NF
c) BCNF
d) 4NF
Q.73) If no multivalued attributes exist in a relation, then the relation is in what normal form?
a) First normal form
b) Second normal form
c) Third normal form
d) Fourth normal form
Q.74) transitive dependency is which of the following?
a) A functional dependency between two or more key attributes.
b) A functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes.
c) A relation that is in first normal form
d) A relation that is in second normal form
Q.75) If a piece of data is stored in two places in the database, then
a) storage space is wasted
b) changing the data is one spot will cause data inconsistency
c) it can be more easily accessed
d) both (a) and (b)
Q.76) Technique of using two butters as interface between two devices is called.
a) Double digitalizing
b) Single buffering
c) Double interfacing
d) Double buffering
Q.77) Modem which is attached between a remote terminal and telephone system is an example of
a) Interface
b) Converter
c) Analogue
d) Digitized
Q.78) Which of the following database object does not physically exists?
a) Base table
b) Index
c) View
d) None of the above
Q.79) _____ data type can store unstructured data
a) Raw
b) CHAR
c) NUMERIC
d) VARCHAR
Q.80) The Process of effectively managing consumable stock items is
a) Financial accounting
b) Income tax management system
c) Fees management system
d) Inventory control
Q.81) Items are identified priced and tracked is knows as
a) Price fixation
b) Profit margin
c) Inventory control
d) Items identification
Q.82) Accurate, protect, information integrity, confidentiality, and availability is,
a) Income tax protection
b) Profit & loss account
c) Accounting system
d) Accounting formulas
Q.83) It stores all information electronically including information of students, employees, or teaching materials,
etc..
a) Financial accounting
b) Fees management software.
c) Inventory control
d) Admission management
Q.84) The fees management system cycle not consist the following
a) Calculate tax
b) Enter price list
c) Create class
d) Account record
Q.85) The main objective of system evaluation is
a) To see whether the system met specification
b) To improve the system based on operational experience for a period
c) To remove bugs in the programs
d) To asses the efficiency of the system
Q.86) Which SQL keyword must be used to remove duplicate rows from the result relation?
a) DELETE
b) DISTINCT
c) NOT EXISTS
d) UN IQUE
Q.87) A functional dependency is a relationship between or among
a) Tables
b) Relations
c) Rows
d) Attributes
Q.88) A collection of conceptual tools for describing data, relationship, semantics, constraints, are
a) Entity
b) Entity type
c) Data model
d) Entity set
Q.89) To delete a particular column in a relation the command used is
a) UPDATE
b) DROP
c) ALTER
d) DELETE
Q.90) Web content mining describes the discovery of useful information from the ____ contents.
a) Text
b) Web
c) Page
d) Level
Q.91) How can you make an e-mail link?
a) <a href=”xxx@yyy ”>
b) <mail href=”xxx@yyy ”>
c) <mail>xxx@yyy</mail>
d) <a href=”mailto:xxx@yyy ”>
Q.92) Tags and text that are not directly displayed on the page are written in _____ section.
a) <html>
b) <head>
c) <title>
d) <body>
Q.93) What is the correct HTML tag for inserting a line break?
a) <br>
b) <lb>
c) <break>
d) <&nbsp>
Q.93) Outlook Express is a _________
a) E-Mail Client
b) Browser
c) SearchEngine
d) None of the above
Q.94) Text within <EM> … </EM> tag is displayed as ________
a) bold
b) italic
c) list
d) indented
Q.95) What is an ISP in Web and HTML?
a) Internet System Protocol
b) Internal System Program
c) Internet Service Provider
d. None of the above
Q.96) Which is not a domain name extension
a) mil
b) org
c) int
d) com
Q.97) ASP server scripts are surrounded by delimiters, which?
a) <&>...</&>
b) <%...%>
c) <script>...</script>
d) <%>...</%>
Q.98) "<%=" is the same as:
a) <%Document.Write
b) <%Console.write
c) <%Request.Write
d) <%Response.Write
Q.99) How can you script your ASP code in JavaScript?
a) JavaScript is the default scripting language
b) End the document with: <% language="javascript" %>
c) Start the document with: <% language="javascript" %>
d) Start the document with: <%@ language="javascript" %>
Q.100) Page 1 has this link:
<a href="page2.asp?color=green">Go</a>
How can page2.asp get the "color" parameter?
a) Response.QueryString("color")
b) Request.QueryString("color")
c) Get("color")
d) Response.Parameter("color")
Q.101) In general, event handler is nothing but ____________
a) function
b) interface
c) event
d) handler
Q.102) The different types of dialog boxes supported by JavaScript are
i. Alert dialog box
ii. Information dialog box
iii. Conformation dialog box
iv. Prompt dialog box
a) i, ii and iii only
b) i, iii and iv only
c) i, ii and iv only
d) All i, ii, iii, and iv
Q.103) Which of the following are the advantages of JavaScript?
i. Less server interaction
ii. Immediate feedback to visitors
iii. Reading or writing of files
iv. Increased interactivity
a) i, ii and iii only
b) i, iii and iv only
c) i, ii and iv only
d) All i, ii, iii, and iv
Q.104) Which of the following is not an operator used in JavaScript?
a) Arithmetic Operator
b) Comparison Operator
c) Conditional Operator
d) Static Operator
Q.105) A JavaScript function which can be defined dynamically along with the new operator using …….
a) Nested Function
b) Function Literals
c) Function ( ) Constructor
d) None of the above
Q.106) Adding _________ to objects on your slides not only controls the flow of information, but adds
interest to your presentation.
a) background
b) transition
c) animation
d) popups
Q.107)If frames are displayed on screen fast enough, we get an impression of
a) Signals
b) Motions
c) Packets
d) Bits
Q.108) Before audio or video signals can be sent on Internet, they need to be
a) Channelized
b) Analoged
c) Digitized
d) Organized
Q.109) Moving Picture Experts Group (MPEG-1), was designed for a
a) MIDI
b) CD
c) DVD
d) Floppy
Q.110) Perceptual encoding is based on science of
a) Frames
b) Music
c) Rhythm
d) Psychoacoustics
Q.111) A____ can forward packets across different that may also use different protocols
a) repeater
b) bridge
c) router
d) gateway
Q.112) Which of the following are not valid IPv4 address
a) 192.10.14.3
b) 200.172.287.33
c) 65.92.11.00
d) 10.34.110.77
Q.113) In which kind of communication the destination address in each packet is the same for all
duplicates.
a) unicasting
b) multicasting
c) multiple unicasting
d) broadcasting
Q.114) In IPv4 using classful addressing scheme the whole address space is divided into how many
classes
a) 8
b) 16
c) 24
d) 5
Q.115) The block size in 56 bit DES and 128 bit DES are respectively
a) 64 and 64 bits
b) 64 and 128 bits
c) 128 and 128 bits
d) 128 and 256 bits
Q.116) A router must have atleast___ NICs
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
Q.117) The time complexities of RSA encryption and decryption ( as a function of key size) are
respectively
a) o(k3) and o(k2)
b) o(k) and O(K2)
c) o(k4) and o(k3)
d) o(k2) and o(k3)
Q.118) If an IP address starts with a bit sequence of 1110 it is a class ___ address
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) B
Q.119) The gateway that stands between the mobile network and the internet in GPRS is called as
a) CCSN
b) SGGN
c) SGSN
d) GGSN
Q.120) The major functions of the presentationlayer in OSI stack are
a) dialog presentation and control
b) dealing with differences in data representation encryption and compression
c) presenting the full and half duplex services to the user
d) enabling end to end error control presentation
Q.121) Name of first popular web browser is
a) IBM browser
b) Google Chrome
c) Mozilla Firefox
d) MOSAIC
Q.122) If a message “CONGRATS” is encoded as “AMLEPYRQ” the encryption key is
a) +3
b) +2
c) -3
d)-2
Q.123) Sending offensive message to someone comes under _____________ of the Indian IT Act ______
a) section 66-A, 2000
b) section 66-B, 2008
c) section 67, 2000
d) section 66-A, 2008
Q.124) The Internet Relay Chat was developed by
a) Jarkko Oikarinen
b) Tim burners Lee
c) Robert cailliau
d) None of the above
Q.125) ___ is used to obtain the IP address of a host based on its physical address
a) RARP
b) IPV6
c) TFTP
d) TELNET
Q.126) When the sender and the receiver of an email are on the same system, we need only ___________.
a) one UA
b) two UAs
c) one UA and one MTA
d) none of the above
Q.127) All of the following are radio waves, except
a) Bluetooth
b) wifi
c) twisted pair
d) wireless fidelity
Q.128) In the OSI laye model which layer does the functionality of end to end error and flow control
a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) data link layer
d) physical layer
Q.129) GPRS tunneling protocol uses ___ transport protocol
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) both TCP and UDP
d) neither TCP nor UDP
Q.130) A maximum of ___ cookies are allowed at each domain
a) 21
b) 22
c) 20
d) 23