ACHIEVEMENT TEST IN SCIENCE 10

Choose the letter of the correct answer.

EARTH AND SPACE

1. From the seismogram, the distance to the epicenter can be determined by measuring
A. The arrival time of surface waves
B. The difference in the arrival time of the P and S-waves.
C. The ratio of the amplitude of the largest P and S-waves.
D. The speed of the surface waves.
2. When two tectonic plates collide, the oceanic crust usually subducts beneath the continental crust
because it is
A. Denser than continental crust C. Thicker than continental crust
B. Less dense than continental crust D. Thinner than continental crust
3. If you visit a place in the Pacific known to be along converging plates, which of these should you
NOT expect to see?
A. Active volcanoes C. rift valleys
B. mountain ranges D. volcanic islands
4. You are an oceanographer and want to map the ocean floor on the east coast of the Philippines.
As you do your study, you notice that there is a portion in the ocean floor which is relatively
much deeper than the rest. What most likely is that deeper part?
A. Linear sea C. Rift valley
B. Oceanic ridge D. Trench
5. Crustal plate A is moving away from crustal plate B. What is the expected average rate of change
in position between A and B?
A. A few centimeters per year C. A few millimeters per century
B. A few meters per month D. A few millimeter per day
6. Which plate boundary is formed between the Philippine plate and the Eurasian plate?
A. Convergent C. Reverse fault
B. Divergent D. Transform fault
7. Which of these is NOT true about the Philippine islands?
A. Most are part of the Philippine Mobile Belt, except for Palawan, Mindoro and
Zamboanga.
B. Formed because of the convergence of the Philippine plate and the Pacific plate
C. Originated geologically in an oceanic-oceanic convergence
D. Some are products of suduction process
 8. An S-wave shadow zone is formed as seismic, waves travel through the Earth’s body. Which of
the following statements does this S-wave shadow zone indicate?
A. The inner core is liquid C. The mantle is solid
B. The inner core is solid D. The outer core is liquid
9. What makes up the Lithosphere?
A. Continental crust
B. Crust and the upper mantle
C. Oceanic crust and continental crust
D. Upper mantle

10. Miners dig into the Earth in search for precious rocks and minerals. In which layer is the deepest
explorations made by miners?
A. Crust C. Mantle
B. Inner core D. Outer core
11. The movement of the lithospheric plates is facilitated by soft, weak, and plastic layer. Which of
the following layer is described in the statement?
A. Asthenosphere C. Lithosphere
B. Atmosphere D. Mantle
12. Alfred Wegener is a German scientist who hypothesized that the Earth was ones made up of a
single large landmass called Pangaea. Which of the following theories did he propose?
A. Continental drift theory C. Plate tectonics
B. Continental shift theory D. Seafloor spreading Theory
13. If you are a cartographer, what will give you an idea that the continents were once joined?
A. oceanic depths C. shape of the continents
B. position of the south pole D. size of the atlantic ocean
14. Which observation was NOT instrumental in formulating the hypothesis of seafloor spreading?
A. Depth of the ocean C. Magnetization of the oceanic crust
B. Identifying the location of glacial D. Thickness of seafloor sediments
deposits
15. As a new seafloor is formed at the mid-ocean ridge, the old seafloor farthest from the ridge is
destroyed. Which of the stated processes describes how the oceanic crust plunges into the Earth
and destroyed at the mantle?
A. Convection C. Diversion
B. Construction D. Subduction

FORCES, MOTION AND ENERGY

16. In which case can a magnetic field be produced?

A. A charge comb C. A welder’s arc flash
B. A falling glass rod D. A rolling plastic cylinder
17. Which statement about an Electromagnet is TRUE?
A. The electric field surrounding a battery-powered electromagnet alternates constantly.
B. The current in the electromagnet coil temporarily magnetizes the iron core
C. The electric field strength is inversely proportional to the current
D. The magnetic field lines produced are all straight
18. Complete the following statement: Moving a metallic detector past a 5-peso coin creates a
secondary magnetic field that is most similar to that of ____?
A. A horse shoe magnet D. A V-shaped straight wire that
B. A flat refrigerator magnet carries a current
C. A current-carrying, circular loop
19. During the Student Technologists and Entrepreneurs of the Philippines (STEP) Competition in
Landscaping, a water pond transformer changes 216 V across the primary to 12 V across the
secondary. If the secondary coil has 10 turns, how many turns does the primary coil have?
A. 10 turns C. 180 turns
B. 18 turns D. 228 turns
20. What basic principle enables ALL electric motors to operate?
A. Iron is the only element that is magnetic
B. Opposite electric charges attract and like charges repel
C. A moving conductor within a magnetic field will experience electromotive force
D. A current-carrying conductor placed within a magnetic field will experience a magnetic
force
 21. Which statement about transformers is FALSE?
A. A step-down voltage transformer steps up the current
B. Transformer use mutual induction
C. Transformers are an application of Faraday’s and Lenz’s Law
D. A transformer can function with either an alternating current (AC) or a steady direct
current (DC)
22. What transformation can take place in an improvised generator?
A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
C. Alternating current into direct current
D. Direct current into alternating current
23. A loop of conductor lies flat on a horizontal table. A toy magnet is hanging still over it with the
magnet’s north-seeking pole pointing down. What happens next?
A. The magnet produces a clockwise current in the coil
B. The magnet does not produce any current in the coil
C. The magnet produces an upward electromagnetic current
D. The magnet produces a counterclockwise current in the coil
24. Which two waves lie at the ends of the visible spectrum?
A. Infrared and ultraviolet rays C. Radio waves and x-rays
B. Radio waves and microwaves D. X-rays and gamma rays
25. What type of electromagnetic wave is used in RADAR?
A. Infrared rays C. Radio waves
B. Microwaves D. Ultraviolet rays
26. You see the reflection of the clock without the numbers in your plane mirror. The image formed
by the hands of the clock shows the time of 3:30. What is the real time?
A. 3:30 C. 9:30
B. 8:30 D. 10:30
27. Where is the image located if an object is 30 cm in front of convex mirror with a focal length of
20 cm?
A. Between F and V C. In front of the mirror
B. Between C and F D. Can’t be determined
28. An object is placed between a concave mirror and its focal point. What is the type and orientation
of the image formed?
A. Virtual and inverted C. Virtual and erect
B. Real and inverted D. Real and erect
29. What kind of mirror is used in automobile and trucks to give the driver a wider area and smaller
image of traffic behind him?
A. Plane mirror C. Concave mirror
B. Convex mirror D. None of the above
30. A white sheet of paper cannot act as mirror because it ______________ the rays of light.
A. Diffracts C. Interferes
B. Diffuses D. Refracts

LIVING THINGS AND THEIR ENVIRONMENT

31. A hormone secreted by letter A that promotes growth.

A. Promine C. Gastrine
B. Retine D. melatonin
32. Choose the incorrect association.
A. Medulla – controls breathing
B. frontal lobe – speech center
C. Hypothalamus- center for emotions
D. cerebellum –controls heartbeat
33. Semen is composed of:
A. sperm and secretions from the prostate, seminal vesicles, and bulbourethral glands.
B. sperm and secretions from the prostate, epididymis, and interstitial cells.
C. sperm and secretions from the epididymis, ductus deferens, and urethra.
D. sperm and secretions from the testes.
34. The endocrine product of the testis is _________ while the exocrine product is ________.
A. semen; estrogen C. sperm; testosterone
B. estrogen; semen D. testosterone; sperm
 35. These are simple, quick, and local responses to stimuli without analysis by higher levels of the
brain.
A. Spinal nerves C. Reflexes
B. Sense organ D. neurons
36. What is the function of the sense organs?
A. to receive the stimulus C. to react to the stimulus
B. to transmit messages to D. all of the above
the CNS

37. What does the illustration show?

A. the stages of implantation C. the stages of fertilization

B. the stages of development D. the stages of the menstrual cycle
38. On which day does menstruation begin?
A. Day 7 C. Day 1
B. Day 14 D. Day 28
39. An egg is released from an ovary about once per month in a process called
A. Implantation C. Menstruation
B. Fertilization D. Ovulation
40. The average length of a human female menstrual cycle is __________.
A. nine months C. about 28 days
B. less than 24 h D. more than 45 years
41. The DNA code GCA TAC GGC ATG corresponds with the m RNA _________.
A. UAG CCG AUU UGC C. GUA ACC GUA CCG
B. CGU AUG CCG UAC D. CCG AUA ACG CGG
42. Where can most of the fossils be found?
A. Sedimentary rock C. Granite rock
B. Lava flows D. Black soil
43. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Organs that are not used may disappear while organs that are constantly used may
develop.
B. In nature, the organisms with desirable characteristics may survive while those with
weaker traits may not.
C. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in a given environment.
D. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to offsprings.
44. Which of the following statement explains Lamarck’s Theory of Use and Disuse?
A. Body structures develop because they are used extensively.
B. Body structures develop because they are not in use.
C. Body structures develop because of competition.
D. Body structures develop because of mutation.
45. Which of the following statements DOES NOT show the process of adaptation?
A. Extinction of dinosaurs during Cretaceous period.
B. Certain group of birds eating different kinds of food.
C. The finches in Galapagos with different beaks.
D. A child learning to walk on his own.

MATTER AND ITS INTERACTIONS

46. Which example has particles that can be drawn closer to occupy smaller volume?
A. Fruit juice C. Block of wood
B. air inside the syringe D. ice cube
47. Which of the following phenomena does NOT involve the application of gas pressure?
A. Burning fuels C. vulcanizing tire
A. Falling leaves D. rising hot air balloons
48. Each of the following containers is air tight and has the same number of gas molecules. Which
container has the highest pressure?

A B C D

49. Each of the following containers has the same size. Which of following containers has the most
compressed gas molecules?

1 mole 2 moles 3 moles 4 moles

A B C D

50. All gas samples have the same temperature and mass. In which of the following conditions will
the gas sample have the highest density?

10 atm 8 atm 6 atm 4 atm

A B C D
51. What happens to the density of a gas as its volume decreases at constant pressure and
temperature?
A. Decreases C. Stays the same
B. Increases D. Unpredictable
52. What kind of movement is exhibited by gas molecules?
E. Vibrational movement
F. Rotational movement
G. Translational movement
H. Combination of a, b and c
53. How does the temperature affect the average kinetic energy of gas molecules?
A. As the temperature decreases the average kinetic energy of gas molecules decreases
B. As the temperature decreases the average kinetic energy of gas molecules increases
C. As the temperature decreases the average kinetic energy of gas molecules remains the
same
D. As the temperature decreases the average kinetic energy of gas molecules fluctuates
54. What will happen to the gas pressure as the temperature increases, if the amount and volume of
the gas are kept constant?
A. The gas pressure remains the same C. The gas pressure increases
B. The gas pressure decreases D. There is no significant effect
55. During a chemical reaction,
A. Atoms are destroyed C. Elements are destroyed
B. Atoms are rearranged D. New elements are produced
56. A chemical reaction is a process in which
A. All reactants change state C. The law of conservation of mass applies
B. Products change into reactants D. All of these
57. What determines an atom’s ability to undergo chemical reactions?
A. Protons C. Innermost electrons
B. Neutrons D. Outermost electrons
58. How is chemical equation is balanced?
A. Changing subscripts C. Adding coefficients
B. Erasing elements as necessary D. Adding elements as necessary
59. What are the products in the equation below?
Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu
A. Zn and Cu
B. Zn and CuSO4
C. ZnSO4 and Cu
D. Zn only

60. Which of the following is a correct pair?

A. Glucose: disaccharide
B. Sucrose: monosaccharide
C. Starch: polysaccharide
D. Triglyceride: polysaccharide

Prepared by:

Araceli D. Bautista

Rachael B. Chavez

Renante C. Claveria

Rowena C. Cumal

Michelle B. Espiritu

Czar P. Ilagan
Science 10 Teachers

Checked by:

Michael M. Yee
Head Teacher III - Science Department