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Aldebaran Answer Keys By: EEC, RMT: Clinical Chemistry

1. This document contains an answer key for various topics including clinical chemistry, centrifuges, body mass index (BMI), acute myocardial infarction markers, microbiology, parasitology, clinical microscopy, and hematology. 2. It provides the correct answers to multiple choice questions for each topic area, along with some explanatory notes. 3. The answer key tests knowledge of topics such as Westgard rules, types of centrifuges, normal BMI ranges, cardiac marker onset and peak times, microbial morphology and staining, parasite identification, semen analysis parameters, and basic hematology procedures.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
428 views11 pages

Aldebaran Answer Keys By: EEC, RMT: Clinical Chemistry

1. This document contains an answer key for various topics including clinical chemistry, centrifuges, body mass index (BMI), acute myocardial infarction markers, microbiology, parasitology, clinical microscopy, and hematology. 2. It provides the correct answers to multiple choice questions for each topic area, along with some explanatory notes. 3. The answer key tests knowledge of topics such as Westgard rules, types of centrifuges, normal BMI ranges, cardiac marker onset and peak times, microbial morphology and staining, parasite identification, semen analysis parameters, and basic hematology procedures.

Uploaded by

Penguin
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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RMT | 09-2012-367

ALDEBARAN ANSWER KEYS by: EEC, RMT

 CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 


Westgard Control Rules (Bishop, Calbreath) NOTE: For Rationalization Purposes Only

1:3s
1:2s Shift

4:1s
Trend
R:4s
1.

Trend 10:x

2:2s

2.
In statistical analysis of data, this refers to the middle or midpoint of a distribution:
a. Mean = AVERAGE
3. B b. Median 1 1 3 4 5
c. Mode = FREQUENT observation Mean = 2.8 Median = 3 Mode = 1
d. All are correct
4. A
5. A
What kind of quality control is important in maintaining long term accuracy of analytical methods?
6. B a. Internal QC = DAILY MONITORING c. Sensitivity
b. External QC d. Specificity
7. D
8. D
9. Point of care testing Test performed usually by nonlaboratorian personnel (nurses, RTs, etc.)
10. C
11. B

CENTRIFUGES (Ciulla)
Horizontal Head Centrifuge Angle-Head Centrifuge
 A.k.a. swinging-bucket centrifuge  Fixed-angle
 High air friction and air resistance  Lesser air friction and air resistance
13.
 When not spinning = VERTICAL  Speed = 9,000g
 When spinning = HORIZONTAL
 Speed = 1,650g

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RMT | 09-2012-367
Type of reagent water for preparation of standard solutions:
a. Type I
14. A
b. Type II = CC, MICRO, HEMA, IMMUNO
c. Type III = UA, HISTO, PARA, WASH GLASSWARES
How long does bleach inactivate hepatitis B virus?
15. D a. 1 minute c. 5 minutes
b. 2 minutes = HIV d. 10 minutes
16. B
17. C
BODY MASS INDEX (Bishop)
BMI (kg/m2) Indication
18.5 – 24.9 Normal
18. <18.5 Malnourished/undernourished/possibly underweight
25 – 29.9 Overweight
≥30.0 Obese

20. B
21. B
22. DECREASED Effect of high WBC count on blood glucose
23. B
24. A
25. ≤ 50 mg/dL Blood glucose level diagnostic for hypoglycemia (Rodriguez)

33. B
34. A

37. Wilson’s disease

41. D
42.
43. C
44. Arias syndrome (Criggler-Najjar syndrome Type II) Characterized by partial deficiency of UDPGT
45. A
46. B
47. C
48. A

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RMT | 09-2012-367

ACUTE MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION MARKERS (Bishop, Rodriguez)


Marker Onset of Elevation Peak Activity Duration of Elevation
Myoglobin 1-3 hrs 5-12 hrs 18-30 hrs
Troponin T 3-4 hrs 10-24 hrs 7 days (up to10-14 days)
Troponin I 3-6 hrs 12-18 hrs 5-10 days
50.
CK-MB 4-6 HRS 12-24 HRS 48-72 HRS
AST 6-8 HRS 24 HRS 5 DAYS
LDH 12-24 HRS 48-72 HRS 10-14 DYS
 Myoglobin = 1st to elevate, but not cardiac-specific (also present in other muscles)
 Troponins = Cardiac-specific

56. Impaired renal excretion


57. B
58. A
59. GROWTH HORMONE
60. A
61. B
62. B
63. A
64. B

66. A
67. B

 MICROBIOLOGY 

2. A

5. D
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. C
11.
12. A
13. D
14. M PROTEIN

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RMT | 09-2012-367
15.
16. C
17.

18.
19.
20. To sterilize inoculating loops & needles for sputum culture, dip them in 70% alcohol w/ SAND before flaming
21. 2 x 3 cm
22.

23.

24.

25. B
26. A
Which of the following are sexual spores?
27. D a. Basidiospores c. Ascospores
b. Zygospores d. All of the above (and OOSPORES)
28. C
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. Parvovirus B19

 PARASITOLOGY 


33. A
34. A
35.

36.
37. B
38. A
39. C
40. B
41. A
42. D
43. D
44. D
45. B
46. Fasciola hepatica
47.

48. A
49. C
50. C
51. D
MalaQuick Standby Malaria test detects:
52. B a. Parasite LDH = detected BY OptiMal test c. Schuffner dot antigens
b. Histidine-rich protein 2 d. P. vivax and P. ovale only
53. A
54. C
55. B
56. D

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RMT | 09-2012-367

 CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 

10.
11.
12.
13. DONOR/CLIENT An individual who submits urine sample for drug testing is called ___ (DOH)
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.

20.
21.
22.

23.

24. C
25. D
26. D
27. C
28. B
29. A

31. A
32. B
33. C
34. C

a. SPERM MOTILITY GRADING


b. SPERM MORPHOLOGY
Grade WHO Criteria

4.0 a Rapid, straight-line motility 3


5 1/2
3.0 b Slower speed, some lateral movement 2/3
38.
Slow forward progression, 7
2.0 b
noticeable lateral movement

1.0 c No forward progression


45
0 d No movement

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RMT | 09-2012-367

39. B

42. A
43.
44.
45.
46.
47. B
48. A
49. C
50.
51. A
52. B
53. B
54. A
55. C
56. A

 HEMATOLOGY 


2. C
Needle angle for venipuncture:
3. A a. 15O (STEININGER) c. 45O
b. 30O
4. B
5. C
6. B
True about microhematocrit method:
a. Centrifuge for 10 mins (5 MINUTES) at 10,000g
7. B b. Uses a capillary tube with 1.2mm bore
c. The clay seal should be 1-3 mm thick (4-6 MM THICK)
d. The capillary tube should be three-fourths filled with blood (TWO-THIRDS ONLY)
8. D
Third layer in the examination of a spun hematocrit:
9. C a. Fatty layer = 1ST c. Buffy coat
b. Plasma = 2ND d. Packed red cells = 4TH
10. A
Which among the following pathways maintains iron in hemoglobin molecule in its reduced or ferrous
state?
11. D
a. Embden-Meyerhoff pathway = 2 ATP c. Rapoport-Luebering pathway = 2,3-DPG
b. Hexose-Monophosphate shunt = Gluta d. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
12. D
13. B
14. C
Configuration of Gower II Hemoglobin:
15. B a. 2 zeta, 2 epsilon = Gower I c. 2 zeta, 2 gamma = Portland
b. 2 alpha, 2 epsilon d. 4 gamma = Bart’s
16. D
17. C A falsely decreased ESR may be caused by:
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RMT | 09-2012-367
a. Vibrations from opening and closing the refrigerator and freezer doors = INCR
b. Heat released from the refrigerator = INCR
c. Lower temperatures from air rushing out on opening the refrigerator or freezer
d. All of these

19. B
20. D
21. C
22. B Dilution used when WBC count is >30.0 x 109/L a. 1:10
b. 1:100
23. C Dilution used when WBC count is between 100-300 x 10 /L 9
c. 1:200
24. A Dilution used when WBC count is <3.0 x 109/L d. 1:20
25. B WBC count is <1.0 x 109/L, how many WBCs are counted in the differential? a. 300 to 400
b. 50
26. C WBC count is >40 x 109/L, how many WBCs are counted in the differential?
c. 200
27. A WBC count is 100 x 109/L, how many WBCs are counted in the differential? d. 100
Among the following blood cells, which one is the most fragile?
28. C a. Red blood cells c. Lymphocytes (HENRY)
b. Granulocytes d. Platelets
According to WHO, to establish the diagnosis for leukemia, the percentage of blasts found in the bone
marrow should be:
29. A
a. ≥20% c. ≥15%
b. ≥30% = FAB d. ≥40%

34. C
Ecchymosis would suggest a deficiency in:
35. B a. Coagulation factors c. Protein C and S
b. Platelets = Rodak, Henry d. Plasminogen

First coagulation factor affected by Coumarin: VII > IX > X > II


38. B a. II c. IX
b. VII d. X
39. B
40. B
41. C
42. D

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RMT | 09-2012-367

 IMMUNOLOGY 


1. D

3. C

6. DIAPEDESIS is the passage of blood, or any of its formed elements, through the intact walls of blood vessels
What is the function of IL-8?
7. C a. Stimulates blood cells c. Inflammatory = BRYANT
b. Prevents apoptosis d. Anti-inflammatory

Alfred Nisonoff used the enzyme pepsin to obtain evidences on structure of immunoglobulins. The
enzyme he used cleaves antibodies into:
9. B
a. 2 Fab and 1 Fc = PAPAIN c. 1 Fab and 1 Fc
b. 1 F(ab)2 and 1 Fc’ d. 1 Fab and 1 Fc’
Which of the following IgG subclasses does not cross the placenta?
10. B a. IgG1 = BEST TO CROSS PLACENTA c. IgG3 = BEST TO FIX C’ (3 > 1 > 2)
b. IgG2 d. IgG4 = DOES NOT FIX C’

13. 30 MINUTES Inactivation of the complement is done by heating serum at 56OC for ____ minutes
14. 10 MINUTES Reinactivation of the complement is done by heating serum at 56OC for ____ minutes

 SEROLOGY 

23. C

25. C

27. C A reactive result in the qualitative VDRL test should be followed by performing:
a. FTA-ABS c. Quantitative VDRL = TITER
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RMT | 09-2012-367
b. TPI d. Nothing. Report the result as reactive
Destroyed by Enzymes : MNSs, Fy, CR Y X (Chido, Rodgers, Yt, Xg)
28. A
Enhanced by Enzymes
Treponema : P R I K Le (TPI)
pallidum immobilization (P1, Rh,
test:I,10%
Kidd, Lewis) are immobilized:
treponemes
29. B a. Positive = >50% IMMOB. c. Doubtful = 20-50% IMMOB.
b. Negative = <20% IMMOB. d. Indeterminate
When using RF latex tests, a titer of 20-40 is considered as:
30. A a. Weakly positive reaction c. Positive = >80
b. Negative = <20 d. Strongly positive
Which of the following body fluids does not contain HBV?
31. B a. Saliva c. Semen
b. Sputum = UNLESS BLOODY d. Vaginal secretions

 BLOOD BANKING


1.
2. D
Blood anticoagulant preservative introduced in 1957:
3. B a. ACD = 1943 c. Sodium citrate = 1914
b. CPD d. Sodium phosphate = 1869

4.

5. D
6. C
7. D
What could be the possible cause of the following reactions?
Forward Typing Reverse Typing
Anti-A = 4+ A1 cells = 0 A = N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
Anti-B = 2+ B cells = 4+  Proteus vulgaris (DEACETYLASE)
8. C 
D-galactosamine = reacts with
a. Weak antibodies
b. Cold agglutinins anti-B
c. Acquired B phenomenon B = D-galactose
d. Rouleaux formation
9. A
Identify the blood type of this newborn patient: WEAK ANTIBODIES, FOLLOW FORWARD TYPING
Forward Typing Reverse Typing
10. B Anti-A Anti-B A1 cells B cells
0 4+ 0 0
a. Group A b. Group B c. Group AB d. Group O
11.
12. C
13. C
14. C
15. C

17. D (12 months) Sexual contact with a person positive for AIDS
18. D (Indefinite) Bluish purple areas under the skin (Kaposi’s sarcoma)
a. Accepted
19. D (indefinite) White spots in mouth or mucous membranes (thrush)
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RMT | 09-2012-367
20. D (min. of 12.5 or 11.0 g/dL) Hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL
21. A (2 weeks deferral only) Rubeola vaccine 2 months ago
d. Deferred
22. D (12 months) Appendectomy 5 months ago
23. C
24. 4 weeks (American Red Cross) MMR (Measles-Mumps-Rubella) vaccine deferral period

27. D
28. C Blood component therapy for individuals with Rosenthal syndrome: (FACTOR XI DEFICIENCY)
Lesions of storage, EXCEPT:
29. D a. Decreased pH c. Decreased ATP
b. Decreased glucose d. Decreased lactate = INCREASED
30. A
31. A
32. B

 HISTOPATHOLOGY

Malignant tumors of mesenchymal connective tissue are known as:


6. A a. Sarcomas c. Carcinomas = MALIGNANT EPITH.
b. Fibromas = FIBROUS CT TUMOR d. Adenomas = GLANDLIKE TUMOR
7. ANASTOMOSIS Surgical connection between two structures

-
12. A
13. D

15. C
16. A
17. B
18. D
19. A
20. C
21. B

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RMT | 09-2012-367

 MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS AND ETHICS 


A penalty of suspension of license can be given if there is:
2. C a. Unanimous vote = REVOCATION c. 2 out of 3 votes
b. Approval of the chairman of the board d. 3 out of 3 votes = REVOCATION
3. B

6. D

9. B
10. A
11. B

14. R.A. 9482 Anti-Rabies Act of 2007

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