January 2017

Examiners’ Report
NEBOSH National
Diploma in
Occupational Health
and Safety - Unit B
Examiners’ Report

NEBOSH NATIONAL DIPLOMA IN

OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY

UNIT B:
HAZARDOUS AGENTS IN THE WORKPLACE

JANUARY 2017

CONTENTS

Introduction 2

General comments 3

Comments on individual questions 4

Examination technique 16

Command words 20

 2017 NEBOSH, Dominus Way, Meridian Business Park, Leicester LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700 fax: 0116 282 4000 email: info@nebosh.org.uk website: www.nebosh.org.uk

The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health is a registered charity, number 1010444
 Introduction

NEBOSH (The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health) was formed in 1979 as
an independent examining board and awarding body with charitable status. We offer a comprehensive
range of globally-recognised, vocationally-related qualifications designed to meet the health, safety,
environmental and risk management needs of all places of work in both the private and public sectors.

Courses leading to NEBOSH qualifications attract around 50,000 candidates annually and are offered
by over 600 course providers, with examinations taken in over 120 countries around the world. Our
qualifications are recognised by the relevant professional membership bodies including the Institution
of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH) and the International Institute of Risk and Safety Management
(IIRSM).

NEBOSH is an awarding body that applies best practice setting, assessment and marking and applies
to Scottish Qualifications Authority (SQA) Accreditation regulatory requirements.

This report provides guidance for candidates and course providers for use in preparation for future
examinations. It is intended to be constructive and informative and to promote better understanding of
the syllabus content and the application of assessment criteria.

© NEBOSH 2017

Any enquiries about this report publication should be addressed to:

NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Meridian Business Park
Leicester
LE19 1QW

tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
email: info@nebosh.org.uk

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 General comments

Many candidates are well prepared for this unit assessment and provide comprehensive and relevant
answers in response to the demands of the question paper. This includes the ability to demonstrate
understanding of knowledge by applying it to workplace situations.

There are other candidates, however, who appear to be unprepared for the unit assessment and who
show both a lack of knowledge of the syllabus content and a lack of understanding of how key concepts
should be applied to workplace situations, which is an essential requirement at Diploma level.

This report has been prepared to provide feedback on the standard date examination sitting in January
2017. This report covers both 2010 and 2015 specifications.

Feedback is presented in these key areas: responses to questions, examination technique and
command words and is designed to assist candidates and course providers prepare for future
assessments in this unit.

Candidates and course providers will also benefit from use of the ‘Guide to the NEBOSH National
Diploma in Occupational Health and Safety’ which is available via the NEBOSH website. In particular,
the guide sets out in detail the syllabus content for Unit B and tutor reference documents for each
Element.

Additional guidance on command words is provided in ‘Guidance on command words used in learning
outcomes and question papers’ which is also available via the NEBOSH website.

Candidates and course providers should also make reference to the Unit B ‘Example question paper
and Examiners’ feedback on expected answers’ which provides example questions and details
Examiners’ expectations and typical areas of underperformance.

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 Unit B
Hazardous agents in the workplace

Question 1 In a particular department of a large manufacturing organisation

managers are concerned that a fall in productivity in the last 12 months is
linked to an increase in sickness absence among the workforce. The
management team want the occupational health department to assist
them in reducing sickness absence and increasing productivity.

(a) Identify specific information the occupational health department

could review to determine possible reasons for the increase in
sickness absence. (4)

(b) Outline how the occupational health department can:

(i) help to prevent or reduce instances of sickness absence

from work in the future; (3)
(ii) reduce the duration of sickness absence from work. (3)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

11.3: Outline the management of occupational health (including the practical and legal
aspects); equivalent to 1.3 in the 2015 specification.

In part (a) candidates were able to identify some of the obvious sources of information
the occupational health department could review. Accident reports and return to work
interviews were commonly mentioned. Many candidates overlooked the fact that
occupational health departments often provide treatment for some workplace injuries.
Candidates did not mention that records relating to the attendance at the occupational
health for treatment could provide another source of information to review. Fit notes
were also not commonly mentioned. Fit notes would always give information on the
health conditions a person has been affected by during their recent absence.
Therefore, this information could be reviewed when determining the possible reasons
for an increase in sickness absence.

Part (b) was divided into two parts with (b) (i) concentrating on instances of sickness
absence and part (b) (ii) addressing duration of the absence. Few candidates fully
distinguished these when answering the question and providing relevant information in
the wrong part of the question was not mark-worthy. Training employees about risks
and controls could help reduce instances of sickness absence, whereas providing
treatment for minor injuries is something the occupational health department could do
to minimise the time for which an employee is absent from work. If the occupational
health department can offer this treatment it may avoid an initial absence to attend a
GP or a minor injuries centre for treatment. If follow up treatments can also be offered,
for example re-dressing a wound, then again the time of the absence from work can be
minimised.

Few candidates thought that the occupational health department could be involved in
designing an attendance incentive scheme as a way of reducing instances of sickness
absence.

This question was targeted at particular occasions or situations where the occupational
health department can be of assistance to the organisation. Only those candidates who
were able to use their overall knowledge of occupational health functions and apply it
to these particular situations, were able to gain higher marks.

The average mark for this question was around half marks and the overall performance
was reasonable.

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Question 2 A bus company operates a fleet of buses to provide transport for
passengers in a busy city. The bus driver is the only bus company
employee on each bus. Bus drivers are sometimes subject to violence.

(a) Outline why these bus drivers may be at an increased risk of

violence. (5)

(b) Outline practical control measures to help reduce the risk of

violence to these bus drivers. (5)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes 8.3: Explain the scope, effects and causes of work-related violence/
aggression; and 8.4: Explain the identification and control of work-related violence/
aggression with reference to legal duties.

Most candidates performed very well on this question and the average mark achieved
was well above half marks. A significant number of candidates were close to gaining
full marks.

In part (a) candidates clearly understood what can increase the risk of violence at work
and were able to apply that well to this scenario. Only a few candidates specifically
mentioned overcrowding on the bus possibly leading to violence from some
passengers.

There was a good range of practical measures to reduce the risks of violence included
in answers to part (b); although few candidates mentioned driver exit doors that would
allow the driver to retreat in the event of a violent incident. The provision of good
lighting, both inside the bus and at bus stops, was also missed by many candidates.

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Question 3 The hazardous substance called machine-made mineral fibre (MMMF)
has workplace exposure limits (WELs). Unusually, there are two WELs.
The WELs are expressed in fibre/ml and also as mg/m3 and are as
follows:

2 fibre/ml 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA);

5 mg/m3 8-hour TWA.

Two personal monitoring results obtained using two different measuring

techniques for an operative working with MMMF, are provided below:

Sample Sample Pump Flow Number of Weight of

Number Time Rate Fibres MMMF on
(hours) (litre/minute) on filter filter (mg)
1 6 hours 0.5 5625 -
2 4 hours 2.0 - 2

Note:
1000ml = 1 litre
1000 litres = 1m3

(a) Calculate the average concentration of MMMF to which the

operative is exposed for EACH of the TWO samples shown. (6)

You must show your working.

(b) Comment on the significance of the operative’s exposure in

terms of future action required to comply with the Control of
Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) Regulations 2002. (4)

Assume the exposure in the time monitored is representative of

exposure during the full 8-hour shift.

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

4.2: Outline the strategies, methods, and equipment for the sampling and measurement
of airborne contaminants (Outline the methods for sampling of airborne contaminants
in the 2015 specification). Particularly the syllabus content within 4.2 that requires
candidates to calculate exposures to hazardous substances from gathered data
including sample mass, pump flow rate and flow time.

It was clear that some candidates had ‘learned’ a typical approach to calculations and
tried to apply it here. However, that did not work and instead it required candidates to
understand how to manipulate the key parameters of measuring exposure. These
parameters are an ‘amount of sample’ collected and a ‘volume of air’ sampled. Both
calculations in part (a) used this approach requiring the former to be divided by the later.
Conversation factors from litres to m3 were given but candidates did not often know how
to use these, suggesting a more fundamental lack of mathematical knowledge. It
should be noted that in order to study this level of qualification it is assumed candidates
are able to carry out simple mathematical procedures such as multiplication and
division. This can be done in the examination with the aid of calculator.

Course providers should assist candidates to understand the concepts behind exposure
monitoring and calculations and not concentrate solely of on how to use the equation
on page 41 of EH40. In addition, information that explains some of the detail in table 1
of EH40 should be explained to aid a candidate’s overall understanding.

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 From those candidates who did attempt this question, a few who understood the
concepts made good progress on the calculations and were able to gain some marks
even if there were minor slips with volume conversion or arithmetic. A very small
number of candidates provided full and complete answers to part (a).

Candidates who answered part (b) often gained marks for indicating the current controls
were adequate. Only those candidates who understood the calculations in part (a) were
able to conclude that any future monitoring could be based only on the gravimetric
measurement, which gave a result of exposure that was close to the WEL. Since the
fibre concentration exposure was very much lower than the WEL, there was no need to
monitor this in the future.

The overall performance on this question was limited and the average mark was low,
as so many candidates made no attempt at an answer.

Question 4 (a) Summarise the duties of an employer under the Control of Noise
at Work Regulations 2005. (4)

(b) Give the meaning of the following terms used in noise control:

(i) transmission; (1)

(ii) damping. (1)

(c) Outline the legal requirements for a hearing protection zone

within a workplace. (4)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

6.4: Explain the principles of controlling noise and noise exposure.

In part (a) candidates had difficulty in being concise when summarising the legal duties
of the employer. Candidates were not able to give the holistic approach that the Control
at Noise at Work Regulations (CNWR) set out, namely: assess the risks to employees,
take action to reduce the noise exposure, provide hearing protection where it is not
possible to control exposure by other means, make sure the legal limits for noise
exposure are not exceeded, provide employees with information, instruction and
training and finally, to provide health surveillance where there is a risk to health.

Instead, candidates often only focused on the legal limits for noise exposure and wrote
at length about the various numerical values that trigger the upper and lower exposure
actions values. Terminology for these numerical values was sometimes inaccurate.
Many candidates thought that health surveillance for noise (audiometry) is always
required by law. Candidates should look carefully at the wording in Regulation 9 of the
CNWR as well as Part 6 and appendix 5 of the HSE document L108.

The syllabus at learning outcome 6.4 lists a number of terms with which candidates
should be familiar. Two of these terms, ‘transmission’ and ‘damping’, were included in
part (b) of this question. Other terms in this part of the syllabus include reflection,
absorption, sound reduction indices, absorption coefficients isolation, diffusion, barriers,
acoustic enclosures, distance and active noise cancellation. Candidates need to be
familiar with all of these terms in the context of noise at work. Many candidates had
difficulty in giving a concise meaning of the two terms in this question, in particular
‘transmission’.

The creation and management of a hearing protection zone (HPZ) is covered in

Regulation 7 of the CNWR and detail is given in the guidance for Regulation 7 in HSE
document L108. Candidates were often unclear about what situations result in the
creation of a HPZ. It is an area of the workplace where the personal exposure is above
the upper exposure action value or the exposure limit value for peak noise.

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 Many candidates missed out on marks available in part (c) for the legal requirements of
HPZs. Marks could be gained for outlining the type of signage required for HPZs (blue
roundel with hearing protection pictogram), or that this signage must comply with the
requirements of the Health and Safety (Safety Signs and Signals) Regulations.

The overall performance on this question was limited and indicated that candidates had
sometimes got lost in the detail of controlling of noise at work and could not address
the more fundamental knowledge of the CNWR that this question was assessing. The
average mark for this question was below half marks.

Question 5 Employees at a waste-water treatment plant are at risk from contracting

cryptosporidiosis.

(a) Explain how these employees might contract cryptosporidiosis. (4)

(b) Identify symptoms associated with cryptosporidiosis. (2)

(c) Outline specific control measures that these employees should

use to help reduce the risk of contracting cryptosporidiosis. (4)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes 5.1: Explain the types and properties of biological agents found at work; and
5.2: Explain the assessment and control of risk from exposure to biological agents at
work (Explain the assessment and control of risk from deliberate and non-deliberate
exposure to biological agents at work, in the 2015 specification).

Answers to this question were variable, but most candidates were able to gain some
marks in each of the three sections of the question. A common oversight in part (a)
was not explaining that cryptosporidiosis is caused by a protozoan parasite
(Cryptosporidium parvum). Instead, many candidates stated that it is caused by a
bacteria or virus, which is not correct. Recognising that it is transmitted by the faecal-
oral route (hand to mouth) was widely known.

In part (b) some candidates identified numerous symptoms, some of which were
correct.

In part (c) some candidates did not gain marks as they were too vague when outlining
control measures. Simply saying “maintain good hygiene” was not sufficient. Specifics
such as hand washing using warm water and soap was needed to gain marks. Few
candidates appreciated that for this biological agent it is necessary to use a hydrogen
peroxide disinfectant, as chlorine-based ones are not effective.

The average mark for this question was close to half marks.

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Question 6 Dilution ventilation can be used to control certain types of hazardous
substances generated in a workplace.

(a) Outline circumstances when dilution ventilation may be

appropriate as a control measure. (3)

(b) Explain how an effective dilution ventilation system is designed

and operates to reduce exposure to a hazardous substance. (4)

(c) The following specification applies in an open-plan workshop:

Workshop dimensions (metres): 10m x 10m x 3m

Volume of air throughput each hour: 3000m3
Required air changes per hour: 10 to 15

Calculate the actual number of air changes per hour AND

comment on the suitability of the specified dilution ventilation
system. (3)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

3.1: Explain local exhaust ventilation and procedures to ensure effective ventilation, in
the 2010 specification; (equivalent to 3.3: Explain the uses and limitations of dilution
ventilation and the purpose and operation of local exhaust ventilation, including
assessing and maintaining effectiveness, in 2015 specification).

There was a common theme running through many answers to this question with
confusion between dilution ventilation and local exhaust ventilation. Both are included
in the diploma syllabus within learning outcome 3.1 (or 3.3). Course providers should
confirm that candidates understand the difference between these types of ventilation
and in what situations each is used as a control measure. Helpful information is
available in some of the control guidance sheets on the COSHH essentials (HSE)
website.

In part (a) few candidates gave a good outline and many candidates were not able to
include a range of circumstances when it is appropriate to use dilution ventilation. For
example, many candidates did not appreciate that for dilution ventilation to be
appropriate the contaminant (hazardous substance) it is to control should not be
generated close to the worker’s breathing zone.

In part (b) understanding of the design and operation of the dilution ventilation was
limited. Many candidates did refer to air change rates or air throughput rates, but few
mentioned that the design required was dependent on the properties of the contaminant
it was aiming to control. For example, the density of a contaminant can determine
where the inlets or outlets should be positioned.

Given the limited responses to parts (a) and (b) it was encouraging to see that many
candidates carried out the calculation required in part (c). Those candidates were able
to confirm that the dilution ventilation system described met the minimum specification
of 10 air changes per hour. Some candidates went on to comment that it would be
preferable if the reliability of the dilution ventilation were increased further to the upper
end of the specification (15 air changes per hour). Then sufficient dilution of the
contaminant and the avoidance of it accumulating in ‘dead spots’ was more likely.

The overall performance on this final compulsory Section A question was limited, with
the average mark being well under half marks.

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Question 7 Farmers, veterinary workers and sheep shearers often need to manually
handle live animals such as sheep, pigs or goats as part of their work. In
these situations the load is the live animal.

(a) Describe factors associated with the load that increase the risk
of these manual handling activities. (4)

(b) Outline a range of other risk factors that should be considered

when carrying out manual handling risk assessments in these
situations. (6)

(c) Outline practical control measures that could be used in these

situations to help reduce the risk of a manual handling injury. (10)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes in 9.1: Outline types, causes and relevant workplace examples of injuries and
ill-health conditions associated with repetitive physical activities, manual handling and
poor posture; and 9.2: Explain the assessment and control of risks from repetitive
activities, manual handling and poor posture.

This question presented candidates with a scenario to which they needed to apply their
knowledge of manual handling assessment and risk control. The idea that the load is
a live animal and the working environment less than ideal, presents some specific
considerations when applying the task, individual, load, environment (TILE) approach
to manual handling assessment across parts (a) and (b) of this question.

Part (a) was only asking candidates to consider the load and some strayed away from
this and included factors in relation to the environment, individual and task. This wasted
time and then left candidates either repeating themselves or omitting relevant content
in part (b). When questions are broken down into parts candidates are advised to read
and re-read the whole question carefully before starting to plan and write their answer.

Those candidates who restricted their answer in part (a) to the ‘load factors’ performed
better. Factors including the weight of the animal, which may be great or unknown; and
the difficulty of holding or gripping the live animal, were commonly mentioned. Some
candidates were able to describe scenario-specific factors such as the animal
potentially having sharp teeth or horns. A few candidates recognised that animal mood
can greatly affect the risks associated with handling this load - perhaps they were
drawing on first-hand experience of taking pets to the vet. Suggesting a particular factor
that could affect animal mood was worthy of an additional mark, such as motherhood
or separation from the herd among valid factors.

In part (b) candidates were expected to concentrate on the other parts of the TILE
approach to manual handling assessment and outline a range of risk factors covering
the environment, task and individual. Those candidates who focused only on one or
two of these areas were not able to gain full marks. The question specifically asked for
a range of factors. Many candidates recognised that the environment may be outside
or in an animal shed, therefore lighting may be limited, or the surfaces slippery due to
weather or animal faeces. Few candidates suggested that lack of experience in the
individual carrying out the manual handling could affect the risk and should be taken
into account in the risk assessment.

In part (c) candidates were able to outline some control measures, but few candidates
provided a range of controls sufficient to gain the maximum of ten marks that were
available. The use of pens, gates and fences were all similar points and while valid did
not contribute significantly to the range of controls. Some candidates suggested that
changing the workplace layout and using ramps could either avoid lifting animals or
assist those attending to the animals by preventing them having to stoop and bend.
Few if any candidates mentioned that in the longer term selecting less aggressive or
more docile breeds could be helpful. However, using sedation was commonly
mentioned.

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 This was the most popular question choice in Section B with 86% of candidates
choosing to answer this. The average mark achieved was just above half marks.

Question 8 Nurses working in a radiotherapy treatment facility use a liquid to treat

patients that contains an ionising radioactive material. The liquid is
prepared by the nurses before they administer it to the patients. After the
treatment, they clean the area and equipment before disposing of any
remaining liquid.

(a) Outline how nurses could be exposed to the radioactive material

while carrying out this work AND, in EACH case, identify the
corresponding route of entry. (4)

(b) Outline practical control measures to help reduce the nurses’

exposure to the radioactive material while they are carrying out
this work. (16)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

7.3: Explain the effects of exposure to ionising radiation, its measurement and control
(Outline the effects of exposure to ionising radiation, its measurement and control, in
the 2015 specification).

Reasonable answers to part (a) meant many candidates gained at least three of the
four possible marks. Marks were sometimes missed because candidates did not link
the outline of how the nurses could be exposed with the specific route of entry, which
is clearly asked for in the question – shown by the emboldening of the words AND and
EACH. For example, in order to gain one of the marks in part (a) it would be necessary
to say that the nurse could be exposed while handling the liquid if it contaminated the
hands and then it was accidentally ingested.

When answering part (b) many answers lacked detail. Candidates made brief
statements such as the nurses must wear PPE. At Diploma level this is not enough to
gain marks. This is a specific scenario where the PPE will be very specific and relevant
examples of the PPE needed should have been given. This could include wearing
protective glasses or a face shield when preparing or handling the liquid; and putting on
an additional lab coat or overalls when entering the patient area, or when treating the
patient. Wearing lead aprons was rarely mentioned but would have gained marks.

Most candidates did not consider the various stages in the treatment process when
thinking about practical control measures. The question indicates that the stages
involve: preparing the liquid, administering the liquid, cleaning down the area after
treatment and disposing of the remaining liquid. Those candidates who noted these
stages given in the question produced a wider range of practical controls as they had
thought about what controls were needed at each stage of the treatment process.
Marks were available for having a spill kit and segregating disposable equipment
contaminated with ionising radiation from other waste. Monitoring exposure of the
nurses to ionising radiation using TLDs (thermoluminescent devices) was also worthy
of marks.

Overall the responses to this unpopular question were limited, with the average mark
being around 25% of the marks available.

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Question 9 Hardwood dust generated during sanding can be inhaled. The dust has
been analysed to determine the particle size and the results are shown in
the bar graph below:

(a) Outline the possible effects on health from exposure to

hardwood dust. (5)

(b) Describe the likely distribution of the hardwood dust in the

respiratory tract of the employees and the mechanisms the body
may use to defend itself following inhalation of the hardwood
dust.
(14)
(c) Identify a type of health surveillance for employees exposed to
hardwood dust. (1)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes 1.3: Describe the main effects and routes of attack of chemicals on the
human body (equivalent to 2.1: Explain the main routes of entry and the human body’s
defensive responses to hazardous substances, in the 2015 specification); and 2.1:
Outline the factors to consider when assessing risks from hazardous substances
(equivalent to 2.3: Outline the factors to consider when undertaking assessment and
evaluation of risks from hazardous substances, in the 2015 specification).

This popular question produced reasonably good responses and the average mark
attained was just under half marks.

Candidates often missed out on marks in part (a) as most had very limited knowledge
of the health effect of hardwood dust. For example, that it can cause nasal cancer.
Course providers are reminded that there is a set list of hazardous substances given in
both the 2010 and 2015 syllabus specifications. Both lists contain hardwood dust. For
these named substances candidates are expected to be able to outline the health
effects. There was a good range of possible effects that could have been outlined for
the five marks available.

Most candidates performed reasonably well on part (b) where candidates were
presented with some graphical information. Health and safety practitioners should feel
able to interpret and make use of graphical information as part of their day-to-day work.
However, few candidates referred to this in their answers. It is a reasonable expectation
that when numerical information is provided in the question, it is then referred to in the
responses given.

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 Marks were available for referring to the percentages of hardwood dust that were
present within each particle size range (ie 60%, 35% and 5%). While it was possible
to gain full marks in part (b) without reference to these percentages, reference to them
would have gained three of the fourteen marks available.

Part (c) presented little difficulty with virtually all candidates able to refer to lung function
tests as a relevant type of health surveillance. Reference to skin inspections would
have also gained marks but was not mentioned by most candidates.

Question 10 The Health and Safety Executive (HSE) have defined six stress
management standards that identify the main causes of work-related
stress. Two of these standards are demands and role.

(a) Explain practical ways an organisation can reduce work-related

stress associated with:

(i) demands; (6)

(ii) role. (4)

(b) An organisation has announced it is being taken over by a

competitor and this will result in significant change throughout
the organisation.

(i) Identify reasons why this change may cause an

increase in work-related stress. (4)
(ii) A key part of reducing work-related stress associated
with this change is to have good communication with the
workforce. Outline practical ways in which the
organisation can make arrangements for good
communication at this time. (6)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes 8.2: Explain the identification and control of workplace stress with reference
to legal duties and other standards (Explain the identification and control of workplace
mental ill-health with reference to legal duties and other standards in the 2015
specification); and 8.1: Explain the scope, effects and causes of work-related stress
(Explain the effects and causes of common types of mental ill-health within the
workplace, in the 2015 specification).

The focus of this question was on three of the HSE’s stress management standards.
The standards’ demands and role were covered in part (a), and part (b) of the question
considered the standard of ‘change’ as it would apply in a real life situation.

Most candidates were able to give reasonable responses to parts (a) (i) and (ii).
However, a common mistake was to write about how stress is caused through demands
and role, rather than to offer practical ways to reduce the stress resulting from these
aspects of a person’s work-life. Those candidates who performed well in part (a) gave
practical suggestions in sufficient detail necessary to provide an explanation. Most
candidates mentioned planning work to help manage stress caused by demands; but
few included the use of flexible working to accommodate peaks and troughs in
workload. Few candidates mentioned the importance of having any performance
incentive schemes designed in such a way as to be fair.

The use of written job descriptions was commonly mentioned as a practical way of
reducing stress caused by role. Few mentioned that any changes in job role needed to
be consulted on and agreed in advance. The use of organisational charts also helps to
clarify roles within the wider organisation and avoid stress resulting from confusion or
conflicts over reporting lines.

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 Change is one of the six stress management standards and part (b) addressed a
common way in which major change within an organisation can cause work-related
stress. Most candidates were able to identify a number of reasons why a company
takeover can cause stress. The financial concerns around possible redundancy were
frequently mentioned. However, only some candidates appreciated that changes in
work location, with impacts on commuting patterns and the knock-on effects on family
life, were also a significant cause of stress during a company takeover. Perhaps
candidates were drawing on personal experience here.

Answers to part (b) (ii) were often limited, with many candidates only mentioning holding
meetings and sending out emails as practical ways of communicating the changes. For
the six marks available candidates needed to outline a range of practical communication
arrangements. The importance of having a published timetable for the proposed
changes was often missed. This is to help ensure everyone knows what is to happen
and when. Having an ‘official’ means of communication is also important. If this is
known and used by all, it can help to avoid rumours and mixed messages developing
during the change, all of which can increase work-related stress.

This was a popular question answered by nearly three quarters of all candidates and
the average mark achieved was just under half marks.

Question 11 In deep underground mines there are high temperatures and high levels
of humidity. These conditions arise naturally from the surrounding earth
as well as through mining processes.

(a) Identify specific health effects associated with working in these

conditions. (2)

(b) (i) Explain how the working conditions can affect the health
of the employees. (3)
(ii) Explain how the working conditions can affect the safety
of the employees. (1)

(c) Outline practical measures to help reduce the risks associated

with working in an environment with high temperatures and high
levels of humidity. (14)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

10.1: Explain the need for, and factors involved in, the provision and maintenance of
thermal comfort in the work environment (Explain the need for, and factors involved in,
the provision and maintenance of temperature in both moderate and extreme thermal
environments, in the 2015 specification).

Candidates answering this question often produced limited answers only gaining a
proportion of the marks available in each of the parts of the question. Health effects
required in part (a) were limited with most candidates only mentioning heat exhaustion.

In part (b) candidates were able to explain the health effects better than they were able
to explain the safety effects of this working environment. In (b) (i) candidates were able
to develop the explanation by linking the inability of the body to sweat because of the
high humidity, so heat loss was difficult, leading to a core body temperature rise and
the possibility of death. There was less to say about the safety effects and therefore
fewer marks available. Many candidates did not recognise that concentration could be
affected with an increased risk of accidents.

14
Answers to part (c) often contained relevant practical measures, but the range of
measures outlined was limited, so few, if any candidates were able to gain the full
fourteen marks available. The usual control measures for ‘hot environments’ were mark
worthy, such as taking more rest breaks or using job rotation, isotonic drinks, cool
refuges, etc. Fewer candidates thought about the actual scenario of the underground
mine and the mining activities. Those who did were able to outline a wider range of
practical controls such as siting equipment that generates heat, away from ventilation
air intakes. Switching off equipment when not in use is another important control
measure. Controlling underground water sources or leaks would also assist in reducing
humidity.

Just under half of the candidates chose to answer this final Section B question and the
average mark was under half marks.

15
Examination technique
The following issues are consistently identified as the main areas in need of improvement for candidates
undertaking Diploma level qualifications:

Candidates misread/misinterpreted the question

NEBOSH questions are systematically and carefully prepared and are subject to a number of checks
and balances prior to being authorised for use in question papers. These checks include ensuring that
questions set for the Diploma level qualifications relate directly to the learning outcomes contained within
the associated syllabus guides. The learning outcomes require candidates to be sufficiently prepared
to provide the relevant depth of answer across a broad range of topic areas. For example, a candidate
could be asked about the causes of stress, or could be asked about the effects of stress, a question
could require a response relating to the principles of fire initiation, or a question could require a response
relating to the spread of fire. Therefore, a candidate should focus not only on the general topic area (eg
stress, fire), but also the specific aspect of that topic to which the question relates.

Examiners suggest that while many candidates do begin their answer satisfactorily and perhaps gain
one or two marks, they then lose sight of the question and include irrelevant information. Although
further points included in an answer can relate to the general topic area, these points are not focused
on the specific learning outcome and marks cannot be awarded. However, some candidates appear to
misread or misinterpret several questions. This situation is more likely due to candidates preparing for
the examination with a number of stock answers obtained through rote-learning, that again can provide
answers that are loosely associated with the topic matter but do not provide answers specific to the
question. Such an approach is clearly evident to an Examiner and demonstrates little understanding of
the topic matter and marks are not awarded.

Examiners noted a tendency on the part of many candidates to write about things that were not asked
for, despite the fact that guidance as to what to cover had been given in the question. An example is a
question where candidates were instructed that there was no need to make reference to specific control
measures and yet did so. In another example candidates wrote about selection of PPE when the
question wording had clearly stated that this had already been undertaken. Another example was where
candidates wrote about barriers to rehabilitation without relating them to the bio-psychosocial model,
even though the question specifically asked them to do this.

Some candidates wrote large amounts of text on a single topic where only one mark could be awarded.
Candidates did not recognise that the amount of marks awarded to each section gives an indication of
the depth of the answer required.

It would therefore appear that a sizeable number of candidates misread some of the questions, to their
disadvantage. This should be a relatively easy pitfall to overcome; candidates should ensure that they
make full use of the 10 minutes reading time to understand what each question requires. Candidates
are advised to allow sufficient time to read and re-read the question in order to determine the key
requirements. Underlining or highlighting key words can assist in keeping focused and simple mind
maps or answer plans can also be useful. An answer plan will often be helpful in ensuring that all
aspects of the question are attended to; maps and plans should be kept simple so as not to use up too
much examination time; if all aspects are not dealt with it will be difficult to gain a high mark. Candidates
should not assume when they see a question that it is exactly the same as one that they may have seen
in the past; new questions are introduced and old questions are amended. It is therefore of the utmost
importance that questions are read carefully and the instructions that they give are followed.

It may help if, when preparing for the examinations, candidates write out their answers in full and ask a
tutor or other knowledgeable third party to mark their work. In so doing, issues with understanding can
be noted and remedial action taken.

Course providers and candidates should note that various means are used to draw attention to keywords
in examination questions. These means include emboldened and italicised text and the use of words in
capitals. These means are intended to draw the candidate’s attention to these words and this emphasis
should then be acted upon when making a response. These devices can often assist in giving guidance
on how to set out an answer to maximise the marks gained. For example: Identify THREE things to be
considered AND for EACH…..

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Candidates often have a reasonable body of knowledge and understanding on the topic covered by a
question, but they have not been able to apply this to the examination question being asked. This could
be because sufficient time has not been taken to read the question, noting the words being emphasised.

When preparing candidates for examination, or offering advice on examination technique, accredited
course providers should stress that understanding the question requirements and the sub-structure of
the response to the question is the fundamental step to providing a correct answer. Rather than learning
the ‘ideal answer’ to certain questions effort would be better spent in guided analysis on what a question
requires. The rote learning of answers appears to close the candidates’ minds to the wider (and usually
correct) possibilities.

Candidates repeated the same point but in different ways

There are instances where candidates repeat very similar points in their answers, sometimes a number
of times. This is easily done in the stressful environment of the examination. However, once a point
has been successfully made and a mark awarded for it, that mark cannot be awarded again for similar
points made later in the answer. In some cases, particularly where questions had more than one part,
candidates gave an answer to, say, part (b) of a question in part (a), meaning that they needed to repeat
themselves in part (b) thus wasting time.

One possible reason for this might be that candidates have relatively superficial knowledge of the topic
- a view supported by the low marks evident in some answers. It appears that, faced with a certain
number of marks to achieve and knowing that more needs to be written, but without detailed knowledge,
candidates appear to opt to rephrase that which they have already written in the hope that it may gain
further marks. Another possible reason is a failure to properly plan answers, especially to the Section
B questions - it would appear that candidates sometimes become ‘lost’ in their answers, forgetting what
has already been written. It may be due either to a lack of knowledge (so having no more to say) or to
limited answer planning, or to a combination of the two. When a valid point has been made it will be
credited, but repetition of that point will receive no further marks. Candidates may have left the
examination room feeling that they had written plenty when in fact they had repeated themselves on
multiple occasions, therefore gaining fewer marks than they assumed.

Candidates sometimes think they have written a lengthy answer to a question and are therefore
deserving of a good proportion of the marks. Unfortunately, quantity is not necessarily an indicator of
quality and sometimes candidates make the same point several times in different ways. Examiners are
not able to award this same mark in the mark scheme a second time. The chance of repetition increases
when all marks for a question (eg 10 or 20) are available in one block. It can also happen when a
significant proportion of the marks are allocated to one part of a question.

This issue is most frequently demonstrated by candidates who did not impose a structure on their
answers. Starting each new point on a new line would assist in preventing candidates from repeating a
basic concept previously covered, as well as helping them assess whether they have covered enough
information for the available marks.

As with the previous area for improvement (‘misreading the question’) writing an answer plan where
points can be ticked off when made, or structuring an answer so that each point made is clearly shown,
for example by underlining key points, can be of great use. This technique aids candidates and makes
it much clearer in the stress of the examination for candidates to see which points have been made and
reduce the chances of the same point being made several times. Course providers are encouraged to
set written work and to provide feedback on written answers, looking to see that candidates are able to
come up with a broad range of relevant and accurate points; they should point out to candidates where
the same point is being made more than once.

Candidates are advised to read widely. This means reading beyond course notes in order to gain a fuller
understanding of the topic being studied. In that way, candidates will know more and be able to produce
a broader and more detailed answer in the examination. Candidates may also find it helpful to read
through their answers as they write them in order to avoid repetition of points.

Course providers should provide examination technique pointers and practice as an integral part of the
course exercises. Technique as much as knowledge uptake should be developed, particularly as many
candidates may not have taken formal examinations for some years.

17
Candidates produced an incoherent answer

Candidates produced answers that lacked structure, digressed from the question asked and were often
incoherent as a result. In many cases, there seemed to be a scatter gun approach to assembling an
answer, which made that answer difficult to follow. Answers that lack structure and logic are inevitably
more difficult to follow than those that are well structured and follow a logical approach. Those
candidates who prepare well for the unit examination and who therefore have a good and detailed
knowledge commensurate with that expected at Diploma level, invariably supply structured, coherent
answers that gain good marks; those candidates who are less well prepared tend not to do so.

Having good written communication skills and the ability to articulate ideas and concepts clearly and
concisely are important aspects of the health and safety practitioner’s wider competence. Candidates
should be given as much opportunity as possible to practice their writing skills and are advised to
practice writing out answers in full during the revision phase. This will enable them to develop their
knowledge and to demonstrate it to better effect during the examination. It may help if candidates ask
a person with no health and safety knowledge to review their answers and to see whether the reviewer
can understand the points being made.

Candidates did not respond effectively to the command word

A key indicator in an examination question will be the command word, which is always given in bold
typeface. The command word will indicate the depth of answer that is expected by the candidate.

Generally, there has been an improvement in response to command words, but a number of candidates
continue to produce answers that are little more than a list even when the command word requires a
more detailed level of response, such as ‘outline’ or ‘explain’. This is specifically addressed in the
following section dealing with command words, most commonly failure to provide sufficient content to
constitute an ‘outline’ was noted. Failure to respond to the relevant command word in context was also
a frequent problem hence information inappropriate to the question was often given.

Course exercises should guide candidates to assessing the relevant points in any given scenario such
that they are able to apply the relevant syllabus elements within the command word remit.

Candidate’s handwriting was illegible

It is unusual to have to comment on this aspect of candidate answers, as experienced Examiners rarely
have difficulties when reading examination scripts. However, Examiners have independently identified
and commented on this as an area of concern. While it is understood that candidates feel under pressure
in an examination and are unlikely to produce examination scripts in a handwriting style that is
representative of their usual written standards; it is still necessary for candidates to produce a script that
gives them the best chance of gaining marks. This means that the Examiners must be able to read all
the written content.

Some simple things may help to overcome handwriting issues. Using answer planning and thinking time,
writing double-line spaced, writing in larger text size than usual, using a suitable type of pen, perhaps
trying out some different types of pens, prior to the examination. In addition, it is important to practise
hand writing answers in the allocated time, as part of the examination preparation and revision. Today,
few of us hand-write for extended periods of time on a regular basis, as electronic communication and
keyboard skills are so widely used. Accredited course providers should encourage and give
opportunities for candidates to practise this hand-writing skill throughout their course of study. They
should identify at an early stage if inherent problems exist. These can sometimes be accommodated
through reasonable adjustments, eg by the provision of a scribe or the use of a keyboard. Candidates
with poorly legible handwriting need to understand this constraint early in their course of studies in order
for them to minimise the effect this may have.

NEBOSH recommends to accredited course providers that candidates undertaking this qualification
should reach a minimum standard of English equivalent to an International English Language Testing
System score of 7.0 or higher in IELTS tests in order to be accepted onto a Diploma level programme.

18
For further information please see the latest version of the IELTS Handbook or consult the IELTS
website: http://www.ielts.org/institutions/test_format_and_results.aspx

Candidates wishing to assess their own language expertise may consult the IELTS website for
information on taking the test: http://www.ielts.org/institutions/faqs.aspx

Course providers are reminded that they must ensure that these standards are satisfied or additional
tuition provided to ensure accessible and inclusive lifelong learning.

Candidates did not answer all the questions

It has been noted that a number of candidates do not attempt all of the questions on the examination
and of course where a candidate does not provide an answer to a question, no marks can be awarded.
Missing out whole questions immediately reduces the number of possible marks that can be gained and
so immediately reduces the candidate’s opportunity for success. There can be several reasons for this
issue: running out of the allocated time for the examination, a lack of sufficient knowledge necessary to
address parts of some questions, or in other cases, some candidates have a total lack of awareness
that the topic covered in certain questions is even in the syllabus.

If candidates have not fully studied the breadth of the syllabus they may find they are not then equipped
to address some of the questions that are on a question paper. At that late stage there is little a
candidate can do to address this point. Responsibility for delivering and studying the full breadth of the
syllabus rests with both the course provider and the individual candidates and both must play their part
to ensure candidates arrive at the examination with a range of knowledge across all areas of the
syllabus.

Unit B
Lack of technical knowledge required at Diploma level

In Section A, candidates must attempt all questions and it was clear that some struggled with those
requiring more detailed and technical knowledge. For example, it is not acceptable that at Diploma level,
candidates have no knowledge of the principles of good practice that underpin COSHH. Unfortunately
this was often found to be the case in responses to questions.

In Section B, where candidates have a choice of questions, many sought to avoid those questions with
a higher technical knowledge content. For example questions on radiation, lighting and vibration.
Practitioners operating at Diploma level need to be confident with the technical content of the whole
syllabus and this does require a significant amount of private study, particularly in these areas of the
syllabus that are perhaps less familiar to them in their own workplace situations.

Candidates provided rote-learned responses that did not fit the question

It was apparent in those questions that were similar to those previously set, that the candidates’ thought
processes were constrained by attachment to memorised answer schemes that addressed different
question demands.

While knowledge of material forms a part of the study for a Diploma-level qualification, a key aspect
being assessed is a candidate’s understanding of the topic and reciting a pre-prepared and memorised
answer will not show a candidate’s understanding. In fact, if a candidate gives a memorised answer to
a question that may look similar, but actually is asking for a different aspect of a topic in the syllabus, it
shows a lack of understanding of the topic and will inevitably result in low marks being awarded for that
answer.

19
Command words
Please note that the examples used here are for the purpose of explanation only.

The following command words are listed in the order identified as being the most challenging for
candidates:

Explain

Explain: To provide an understanding. To make an idea or relationship clear.

This command word requires a demonstration of an understanding of the subject matter covered by the
question. Superficial answers are frequently given, whereas this command word demands greater
detail. For example, candidates are occasionally able to outline a legal breach but do not always explain
why it had been breached. A number of instances of candidates simply providing a list of information
suggests that while candidates probably have the correct understanding, they cannot properly express
it. Whether this is a reflection of the candidate’s language abilities, in clearly constructing a written
explanation, or if it is an outcome of a limited understanding or recollection of their teaching, is unclear.
It may be linked to a general societal decline in the ability to express clearly explained concepts in the
written word, but this remains a skill that health and safety professionals are frequently required to
demonstrate.

When responding to an ‘explain’ command word it is helpful to present the response as a logical
sequence of steps. Candidates must also be guided by the number of marks available. When asked
to ‘explain the purposes of a thorough examination and test of a local exhaust ventilation system’ for 5
marks, this should indicate a degree of detail is required and there may be several parts to the
explanation.

Candidates are often unable to explain their answers in sufficient detail or appear to become confused
about what they want to say as they write their answer. For example, in one question many candidates
explained the difference between the types of sign, explaining colours and shapes of signs without
explaining how they could be used in the depot, as required by the question.

Describe

Describe: To give a detailed written account of the distinctive features of a topic. The account should be
factual without any attempt to explain.

The command word ‘describe’ clearly requires a description of something. The NEBOSH guidance on
command words says that ‘describe’ requires a detailed written account of the distinctive features of a
topic such that another person would be able to visualise what was being described. Candidates have
a tendency to confuse ‘describe’ with ‘outline’. This means that less detailed answers are given that
inevitably lead to lower marks. This may indicate a significant lack of detailed knowledge and/or a lack
of ability to articulate the course concepts clearly. Candidates should aim to achieve a level of
understanding that enables them to describe key concepts.

Some candidates see the command word ‘describe’ as an opportunity to fill out an answer with irrelevant
detail. If a person was asked to describe the chair they were sitting on, they would have little difficulty
in doing so and would not give general unconnected information about chairs in general, fill a page with
everything they know about chairs or explain why they were sitting on the chair. Candidates should
consider the general use of the command word when providing examination answers.

Outline

Outline: To indicate the principal features or different parts of.

This is probably the most common command word but most candidates treat it like ‘identify’ and provide
little more than a bullet pointed list. As the NEBOSH guidance on command words makes clear, ‘outline’
is not the same as ‘identify’ so candidates will be expected to give more detail in their answers. ‘Outline’
requires a candidate to indicate ‘the principal features or different parts of’ the subject of the question.

20
An outline is more than a simple list, but does not require an exhaustive description. Instead, the outline
requires a brief summary of the major aspects of whatever is stated in the question. ‘Outline’ questions
usually require a range of features or points to be included and often ‘outline’ responses can lack
sufficient breadth, so candidates should also be guided by the number of marks available. Those
candidates who gain better marks in questions featuring this command word give brief summaries to
indicate the principal features or different parts of whatever was being questioned. If a question asks
for an outline of the precautions when maintaining an item of work equipment, reference to isolation,
safe access and personal protective equipment would not be sufficient on their own to gain the marks
available. A suitable outline would include the meaning of isolation, how to achieve safe access and
the types of protective clothing required.

Identify

Identify: To give a reference to an item, which could be its name or title.

Candidates responding to identify questions usually provide a sufficient answer. Examiners will use the
command word ‘identify’ when they require a brief response and in most cases, one or two words will
be sufficient and further detail will not be required to gain the marks. If a question asks ‘identify typical
symptoms of visual fatigue’, then a response of ‘eye irritation’ is sufficient to gain 1 mark. If having been
asked to identify something and further detail is needed, then a second command word may be used in
the question.

However, in contrast to ‘outline’ answers being too brief, many candidates feel obliged to expand
‘identify’ answers into too much detail, with the possible perception that more words equals more marks.
This is not the case and course providers should use the NEBOSH guidance on command words within
their examination preparation sessions in order to prepare candidates for the command words that may
arise.

Give

Give: To provide short, factual answers.

‘Give’ is usually in a question together with a further requirement, such as ‘give the meaning of’ or ‘give
an example in EACH case’. Candidates tend to answer such questions satisfactorily, especially where
a question might ask to ‘identify’ something and then ‘give’ an example. The candidate who can answer
the first part, invariably has little difficulty in giving the example.

Comment

Comment: To give opinions (with justification) on an issue or statement by considering the issues
relevant to it.

For example, if candidates have already calculated two levels of the exposure to wood dust and are
then asked to comment on this the issues would include the levels of exposure they had found, and
candidates would need to give their opinion on these, while considering what is relevant. The question
guides on what may be relevant for example, did it meet the legal requirements, did it suggest controls
were adequate, so based on that guidance, did exposure need to be reduced further or did anything
else need to be measured or considered? If candidates comment with justification on each of these
areas they would gain good marks in that part of question.

Few candidates are able to respond appropriately to this command word. At Diploma level, candidates
should be able to give a clear, reasoned opinion based on fact.

For additional guidance, please see NEBOSH’s ‘Guidance on command words used in learning
outcomes and question papers’ document, which is available on our website:
www.nebosh.org.uk/students/default.asp?cref=1345&ct=2.

21
The National Examination
Board in Occupational
Safety and Health

Dominus Way
Meridian Business Park
Leicester LE19 1QW

telephone +44 (0)116 2634700

fax +44 (0)116 2824000
email info@nebosh.org.uk
www.nebosh.org.uk