Exam 4: Class 11:30

 
1. In Drosphila, a mutation in the homeotic gene "ultrabithorax" can result in….
A. an embryo with 2 heads.
B. an embryo with 2 tails.

C. an adult with 4 wings.

D. an adult with legs growing out of its head.

E. an adult with a very large head.
 
2. Metacentric is the term used to describe a chromosome ….
A. that contains a "q arm".
B. that is of average size.
C. whose centromere is in the middle of the chromosome.
D. that contains 2 telomeres.
E. that contains 2 centromeres.
 
3. Correcting a genetic defect by gene replacement in an egg or embryo is known as…
A. oocyte gene therapy.
B. somatic gene therapy.
C. non-invasive gene therapy.
D. germ-line gene therapy.
E. blastocyst gene therapy.
 
4. Which of the following statements concerning "nanos" is true?
A. It helps establish the anterior/posterior axis in Drosophila embryos.
B. It regulates the transcription of immunoglobulin genes in B-lymphocytes.
C. It is a potent mutagenic drug.
D. It is an inducer of the arabinose operon.
E. None of the above.
 
5. T or F. The normal function of the E2F protein is to bind to RB and inhibit it from
entering the nucleus.
 
6. Which of the following is an example of a transition mutation?
A. A to G.
B. G to T.
C. C to G.
D. C to A.
E. G to U.
 
7. Which of the following elements is not present in a pUC18 vector?
A. Origin of replication.
B. Ampicillin resistance gene.
C. A gene encoding beta-galactosidase.
 D. A polylinker region containing multiple restriction enzyme recognition sites.
E. All of the above are present in a pUC18 vector.
 
8. In 1990 Ashanti DaSilva became the first person to be treated with gene replacement therapy,
which disease was Ashanti being treated for?
A. hereditary multiple exostoses.
B. adenosine deaminase deficiency.
C. alkaptonuria.
D. fragile X syndrome.
E. xeroderma pigmentosa.
 
9. Which of the following statements about bicoid is true?
A. It is localized to the posterior end of the Drosophila egg.
B. The 3’UTR of its mRNA plays a critical role in its localization.
C. It is a translational repressor.
D. Its presence is required for the formation of tail structures.
E. All of the above are true.
 
10. T or F. The first genetic map ever produced for an amphibian species was assembled at
the University of Texas, Austin.
 
11. What would we call a mutation that resulted in an AAG (positively charged lysine codon)
mutating to a UAG (stop codon).
A. silent.
B. conserved missense.
C. nonconserved missense.
D. nonsense.
E. frameshift.
 
12. In gene knock out experiments in mice using homologous recombination, what type of cells
are used for the initial gene targeting and selection.
A. fibroblast cells.
B. ES cells.
C. bone marrow cells.
D. unfertilized oocytes.
E. T cells.
 
13. T or F Although the hunchback-maternal mRNA is initially present equally throughout
the anterior/posterior axis of the Drosophila egg, the hunchback-maternal protein
is most prevalent in the posterior regions of the egg and embryo.
 
14. During Drosophila development, which cells express Kruppel (kr)?
A. Those cells that contain low levels of bcd and hb-m.
B. Those cells that contain low levels of hb-m and no bcd.
C. In all cells that do not express hunchback-zygotic.
D. Those cells that contain high levels of hb-m but no bcd.
 E. Those cells that contain high levels of bcd and low levels of hb-m.
 
15. When thymine is in its enol form, which of the following molecules will it pair with?
A. Cytosine
B. Guanine
C. Uracil
D. Adenine
E. Alanine
 
16. T or F. Apoptosis occurs both as a normal part of development and as a mechanism to
inactivate damaged cells.
 
17. A keto to enol tautomeric shift will generally cause which type of mutation?
A. Frame shifts.
B. Base pair substitutions.
C. One base deletions.
D. One base additions.
E. Depurination.
 
18. Which of the following might be useful in the development of a physical map?
A. Apoptosis.
B. Gene targeting.
C. Meiotic recombination.
D. Defective repair enzymes.
E. Fluorescent in situ hybridization.
 
19. Excessive DNA damage can induces p53 to ……?
A. activate the kinase activity of cdk2/cyclinA.
B. sequester p21 in an inactive form.
C. induce apoptosis.
D. induce mitosis.
E. induce entry into S phase.
 
20. Which of the following mutations are repaired by photolyase?
A. Missense mutations.
B. Thymine dimers.
C. Alkylation.
D. Deamination.
E. Tautomerization.
 
21. What is the function of the Spz (spaetzle) protein with regard to early Drosophila
development?
A. It controls the premature cellularization of the pole cells.
B. It acts as a cytoplasmic inhibitor of dorsal.
C. It binds gurken and causes the microtubules to orient in an anterior/posterior direction.
D. It acts to remove the phosphate groups from the Toll protein.
 E. It binds to Toll and transduces a signal that causes the phosphorylation of dorsal.
 
22. What is the field of study is generally associated with the prediction of gene sequence
information (location of exons, promoters, etc) based on the DNA sequence?
A. Biosystematics.
B. Decoding Science.
C. Forensic analysis.
D. Bioinformatics.
E. Nuclear spectroscopy.
 
23. The Ti plasmid normally found in Agrobacterium is responsible for…..
A. allowing plants to utilize nitrogen from the atmosphere.
B. inhibiting plants from utilizing nitrogen from the atmosphere.
C. causing crown gall tumors.
D. enabling researchers to create genetically engineered sheep who can secrete important
products in their milk.
E. toxic plasmosis of the human blood.
 
24. The modified bases, 8 oxo dG and thymidine glycol, are produced as a result of…..
A. oxidative damage.
B. intercalation.
C. exposure to UV radiation.
D. enolization.
E. alkylation.
 
25. Fragile X syndrome is cause by ….
A. defective DNA repair enzymes.
B. mutations on chromosome 8.
C. ultraviolet radiation.
D. an expanding triplet repeat.
E. a build up of homogentisic acid.
 
26. Which of the following is a general characteristic of a tumor-suppressor gene?
A. They activate cyclin/cdk complexes.
B. They are autosomal dominant mutations.
C. They typically display loss-of-function mutations.
D. Mutations in these genes allow activation of cellular kinases.
E. All of the above.
 
27. T or F. During PCR (polymerase chain reaction), the DNA temperature is initially raised
to 950C to destroy any RNA contamination.
 
 
28. Chorionic villus sampling is a technique used for….
A. fetal screening of disease.
B. positional cloning of a gene.
 C. genetic mapping a phenotype.
D. inducing apoptosis.
E. none of the above.
 
29. The percentage of human genomic DNA that encodes mature mRNA is approximately…
A. more than 50%.
B. 45%.
C. 25%.
D. 10%
E. less than 5%.
 
30. In the procedure for the production of insulin we discussed in class, the A and B chains were
initially synthesized as lac Z fusion proteins, treated with CNBr and then oxidized to form
the mature insulin protein. What is the function of the CNBr treatment?
A. Breaks open the bacterial cells.
B. Eliminates contaminating viruses.
C. Causes disulfide bonds to form.
D. Removes the lac Z portion of the fusion protein.
E. Denatures the protein so it can fold properly.