I.E.

S-(OBJ) 2001 1 of 14

ELECTRONICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II

1. 3. Ordinary water can be used as

moderator with natural uranium as fuel
4. The multiplication factor is kept
slightly greater than unity during its
normal functioning
Of these statements
a. 1 and 3 are correct
The load duration curve for a power b. 3 and 4 are correct
station is as shown in the above figure. c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
The reserve capacity in the plant at 70%
d. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
capacity factor is
5. If a 250 MVA, 11/400 kV three-phase
a. Zero
power transformer has leakage reactance
b. 10 MW of 0.05 per unit on the base of 250 MVA
c. 30 MW and the primary voltage of 11 kV, then the
d. 50 MW actual leakage reactance of the transformer
2. In pump storage hydropower plant, the referred to the secondary side of 400 kV is
electrical machine is made to work a. 0.8 Ω
alternately as generator and motor. The
b. 0.0032Ω
efficiency of the generator working at the
same electrical power Level is c. 0.03125Ω
a. Greater than that as motor d. 32.0Ω
b. Equal to that as motor 6. In a short transmission line, voltage
c. Less than that as motor regulation is zero when the power factor
angle of the load at the receiving end side
d. Greater or less than that as motor
is equal to
depending on the type of the machine
3. The ABCD constants of a 3-phase a. tan −1 ( X / R )
transmission line are b. tan −1 ( R / X )
A = D = 0.8 ∠ 1°
c. tan −1 ( X / Z )
B = 170 ∠ 85°Ω
C = 0.002 ∠ 90.4°mho d. tan −1 ( R / Z )
The sending end voltage is 400 kV. The 7. Consider the following statements:
receiving end voltage under no-load Surge impedance loading of a transmission
condition is line can be increased by
a. 400 kV 1. Increasing its voltage level
b. 500 kV 2. Addition of lumped inductance in
c. 320 kV parallel
d. 417 kV 3. Addition of lumped capacitance in
4. In a thermal nuclear reactor series
1. The purpose of moderator is to slow 4. Reducing the length of the line
dawn fast neutrons produced due to Of these statements
fission a. 1 and 3 are correct
2. The moderator material must have low b. 1 and 4 are correct
molecular weight c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. 3 and 4 are correct
 2 of 14
8. The load current in short circuit power-angle. At the power-limit condition
calculation are neglected because i.e. for maximum PR
1. Short-circuit currents are much larger a. Leading VARs (QR) goes to the load
than load, currents for any values of VS and VR
2. Short circuit currents are greatly out of b. Leading VARs (QR) goes to the load
phase with load currents ONLY for VS=VR
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct? c. Lagging VARs (QR) goes to the load
a. Neither 1 nor 2 for any values of VS and VR
b. 2 alone d. Lagging VARs (QR) goes to the load
c. 1 alone ONLY for VS = VR
d. 1 and 2 13. A traveling wave 400/1/50 means crest
9. The surge impedance ‘of a 3-phase, 400 value of
kV transmission line is 400Ω . The surge a. 400 V with rise time of 1/50 s
impedance loading (SIL) is b. 400 kV with rise time 1 s and fall time
a. 400MW 50 S
b. 100MW c. 400 kV with rise time 1 μs with fall
c. 1600MW time 50μs
d. 200MW d. 400 MV with rise time 1μs and fall
10. Two 50 Hz generating units operate in time 50μs
parallel within the same power plant and 14. If a 500 MVA, 11 kV three-phase
have the following ratings generator at 50 Hz feeds, through a
Unit 1 : 500 MVA, 0.85 power factor, 20 transfer impedance of (0.0 + J 0.605)Ω per
kV, 3000 rpm, phase, an infinite bus also at 11 kV; then
H1=5MJ/MVA the maximum steady state power transfer
Unit 2 : 200 MVA, 0.9 power factor, 20 on the base of 500 MVA and 11 kV is
kV, 1500 rpm, H2 = 5 MJ/MVA. a. 1.0 Pu
The equivalent inertia constant H in b. 0.8 Pu
MJ/MVA on 100 MVA base is c. 0.5 Pu
a. 2.5 d. 0.4 Pu
b. 5.0 15. Installation of capacitors at suitable
c. 10.0 locations and of optimum size in a
d. 35.0 distribution system results in
11. If a traveling-wave traveling along a loss- 1. Improved voltage regulation.
free overhead line does not result in any 2. Reduction in distribution power losses.
reflection after it has reached the far end, 3. Reduction of kVA rating of
then the far end of the line is distribution transformers
a. Open circuited Select the correct answer using the codes
b. Short circuited given below:
c. Terminated into a resistance equal to a. 1 alone
surge impedance of the line b. 1 and 2
d. Terminated into a capacitor c. 1,2 and 3
12. The active and the reactive power d. 3 alone
delivered at the receiving end of a short 16. In a three unit insulator string, voltage
transmission line of impedance Z∠Ψ are across the lowest unit is 17.5 kV and string
respectively given by efficiency is 8428%. The total voltage
VV V2 across the string will be equal to
PR = S R cos ( Ψ − δ ) − R cos Ψ, and a. 8.825 kV
Z Z
b. 44.25 kV
VV V2
QR = S R sin ( Ψ − δ ) − R sin Ψ, with c. 88.25 kV
Z Z d. 442.5 kV
Vs and VR being the magnitude of voltage
at the sending and receiving ends, δ the
 3 of 14
17. Bundled conductors are used for EHV
transmission lines primarily for reducing
the
a. Corona loss
b. Surge impedance of the line A three-phase transformer having zero-
c. Voltage drop across the line sequence impedance of Z0 has the zero-
d. I2R losses sequence network as shown in the above
18. The good effect of corona on overhead figure. The connections of its windings are
lines is to a. star — star
a. Increase the line carrying capacity due b. delta — delta
to conducting ionized air envelop c. star – delta
around the conductor d. delta — star with neutral grounded
b. Increase the power factor due to 23. Which one of the following relays has the
corona loss capability of anticipating the possible
c. Reduce the radio interference from the major fault in a transformer?
conductor a. Over current relay
d. Reduce the steepness of surge fronts b. Differential relay
19. The principal information obtained from c. Buchholz relay
load flow studies in a power system are. d. Over fluxing relay
1. Magnitude and phase angle of the 24. In a 220 kV system, the inductance and
voltage at each bus capacitance up to the circuit breaker
2. Reactive and real power flows in each location are 25mH and 0.025μF
of the lines respectively. The value of resistor required
3. Total power loss in the network to be. connected across the breaker
4. Transient stability limit of the system contacts which will give no transient
Select the correct answer using the codes oscillations, is
given below: a. 25 Ω
a. 1 and 2 b. 250Ω
b. 3 and 4 c. 500Ω
c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1000Ω
d. 2 and 4 25. Match List I with List II and select the
20. Three generators rated 100 MVA, 11 kV correct answer:
have an impedance of 0.15 Pu each. If in List I (Equipments)
the same plant, these generators are being
A. Metal oxide arrester
replaced by a single equivalent generator,
the effective impedance of equivalent B. Isolator.
generator will be C. Auto-reclosing C.B
a. 0.05 pu D. Differential relay
b. 0.15 pu List II (Applications)
c. 0.25 Pu 1. Protects generator against short circuit
d. 0.45 Pu faults
21. If all the sequence voltages at the fault 2. Improves transient stability
point in a power system are equal, then the 3. Allows C.B. maintenance
fault is a 4. Provides protection against surges
a. Three-phase fault A B C D
b. Line to ground fault a. 4 3 2 1
c. Line to line fault b. 3 4 1 2
d. Double line to ground fault c. 4 3 1 2
22. d. 3 4 2 1
26.
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b. 15 p.u.
c. 20 p.u.
d. 25 p.u.
29. The speed regulation parameter R of a
control area is 0.025 Hz/MW and load
The operating characteristic of a distance frequency constant D is 2 MW/Hz. The
relay in the R-X plane is shown in the area frequency response characteristic
above figure. It represents operating (AFRC) is,
characteristic of a a. 42.0 MW/Hz
a. Reactance relay b. 40.0 MW/Hz
b. Directional impedance relay c. 20 M/Hz
c. Impedance relay d. 2 MW/Hz
d. Mho relay 30. In the HVDC system, the ac harmonics
27. which gets effectively eliminated with 12
pulse bridge converters, are
a. Triplen harmonics
b. Triplen and 5th harmonics
c. Triplen, 5th and 7th harmonics
Two power plants interconnected by a tie- d. 5th and 7th harmonics
line as shown in the above figure have loss 31. In an electromechanical energy conversion
formula coefficient B11 = 10-3 MW-1. device, the developed torque depends upon
Power is being dispatched economically a. Stator field strength and torque angle
with plant ‘1’ as 100 MW and plant ‘2’ as b. Stator field and rotor field strengths
125 MW The penalty factors for plants 1 c. Stator field and rotor field strengths
and 2 are respectively and the torque angle
a. 1 and 1.25 d. Stator field strength only
b. 1.25 and 1 32. Consider the following statements:
c. 1 and zero The use o. inter poles in dc machines is to
d. Zero and 1 counteract the
28. 1. Reactance voltage
2. Demagnetizing effect of armature mmf
in the commutating zone
3. Cross-magnetizing effect of armature
mmf in the commutating zone
Which of these statement (s) is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
The above diagram shows the layout of a
c. 1 and 3
power station having two generators A and
B, connected to the 11 kV buses which are d. 3 alone
also fed through two transformers C and D 33. In an alternator, if m is the number of slots
from a 132 kV grid. The 11 kV buses are per pole per phase and γ is the slot pitch
interconnected through a reactor R. angle, then the breadth or the distribution
The reactance’s of A, B, C, D and R are, in factor for the armature winding is
p.u. on a common MVA- and kV-base. All γ
sin
the generated voltages in A, B and grid are a. 2
each 1.0 p.u. and assumed as in phase at mγ
m sin
the time of fault. 2
The steady state symmetrical fault-current ⎛ mγ ⎞
for a 3-phase fault on the 11 kV feeders is b. sin ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
a. 10 p.u.
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γ B. Series motor
m sin
2 C. Cumulative compound motor
c.
mγ D. Differential compound motor
sin
2 List II
⎛ mγ ⎞
sin ⎜ ⎟
d. ⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛γ ⎞
sin ⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠
34. The current drawn by a 220V dc motor of
armature resistance 0.5Ω and back emf A B C D
200V is a. 3 2 1 4
a. 40A b. 4 1 2 3
b. 44A c. 3 1 2 4
c. 400A d. 4 2 1 3
d. 440A 38.
35. Match List I (Type of machine) with List
II (Characteristic/application) and select
the correct answer:
List I
A. dc shunt generator
B. dc series motor In the ‘V’ curve shown in the above figure
C. Level compounded dc generator for a synchronous motor, the parameter of
D. dc series generator x and y coordinates are, respectively
List II a. Armature current and field current
1. Electric tr4action b. Power factor and field current
2. Has good voltage regulation c. Armature current and torque
3. Must have residual flux d. Torque and field current
4. Used as boosters 39. The advantage of the double squirrel-cage
A B C D induction motor over single cage rotor is
a. 4 1 2 3 that its
b. 3 2 1 4 a. Efficiency is higher
c. 4 2 1 3 b. Power factor is higher
d. 3 1 2 4 c. Slip is larger
36. A dc shunt generator when driven without d. Starting current is lower
connecting field winding shows an open 40. An induction motor when started on load
circuit terminal voltage of 12V. does not accelerate up to full speed but
When field winding is connected and runs at 1/7t) of the rated speed. The motor
excited the terminal voltage drops to zero is said to be
because a. Locking
a. Field resistance is higher than critical b. Pluming
resistance c. Crawling
b. There is no residual magnetism in the d. Cogging
field. Circuit 41. Match List I (Equivalent circuit parameter)
c. Field winding has got wrongly with List II (Values) for a 50 MVA three
connected phase alternator arid select the correct
d. There is a fault in armature circuit answer:
37. Match List I (dc motors) with List II List I
(Characteristics labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4) and A. Armature resistance
select the correct answer: B. Synchronous reactance
List I C. Leakage reactance
A. Shunt motor List II
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1. 1 Pu A B C D
2. 0.1 Pu a. 1 2 3 4
3. 0.01 pu b. 1 2 4 3
A B C c. 2 1 3 4
a. 1 2 3 d. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 1 2 45. In a cylindrical rotor synchronous
c. 3 2 1 machine, the phasor addition of stator and
d. 1 3 2 rotor mmfs is possib1 because
42. Synchronous condenser means a. Two mmfs are rotating in opposite
a. A synchronous motor with capacitor direction
connected across stator terminals to b. Two mmfs are rotating in same
improve pf direction at different speeds
b. A synchronous motor operating at full c. Two mmfs are stationary with respect
load with leading pf to each other
c. An over-excited synchronous motor d. One mmf is stationary and the other
partially supplying mechanical load, mmf is rotating
and also improving. Pf of the system to 46. The rotor power output of 3-phase
which it is connected induction motor is 15 kW The rotor copper
d. An over-excited synchronous motor losses at a s1p of 4% will be
operating at no-load with leading pf a. 600W
used in large power stations for b. 625W
improvement of pf c. 650W
43. Match List I with List II aid select the d. 700W
correct answer: 47. Skewing of the rotor in a three-phase
List I (Tests) squirrel-cage induction motor reduces
A. No-load and blocked rotor test a. Noise, parasitic torque, starting torque
B. Sumpner’s test and pullout torque
C. Swinburne’s test b. Noise and parasitic torque, but
List II (Machines) increases starting torque and pullout
1. Transformer torque.
2. Induction motor c. Noise and pullout torque, but increases
3. Synchronous motor parasitic torque and starting torque
4. dc motor d. Noise, parasitic torque and starting
A B C torque, but increases pullout torque
a. 1 4 2 48. In a shaded-pole induction motor, the rotor
b. 2 1 4 runs from the
c. 3 4 2 a. Shaded portion to the unshaded portion
of the pole while the flux in the former
d. 3 1 4
leads that of the latter
44. Match List 1 with List II and select the
b. Shaded portion to the unshaded portion
correct answer:
of the pole while the flux in the former
List I (Regulation method) lags that in the latter
A. Synchronous impedance method
c. Unshaded portion to the shaded portion
B. Mmf method while the flux in the former leads that
C. Zero power factor (ZPF) method in the latter
D. American standard Association method d. Unshaded portion to the shaded portion
List II (Relevant phasor) while the flux in the former lags that in
1. emf phasor the latter
2. Predominantly mmf phasor 49. The torque of a reluctance motor can be
3. Both emf and mmf phasors effectively increased by
4. emf and mmf phasors including a. Increasing reluctance of the magnetic
saturation circuit along the direct axis
 7 of 14
b. Decreasing the reluctance of the ( Psc / Pc )
2
d.
magnetic circuit along the quadrature
axis 54. For a given amount of kinetic energy to be
c. Increasing the ratio of the quadrature released by the flywheel of ward-Leonard-
axis reluctance to direct axis reluctance Ilgner control system at a given percentage
reduction in speed, the mass of the
d. Decreasing the ratio of quadrature axis
flywheel would depend upon its radius of
reluctance to direct axis reluctance
gyration rg and its initial peripheral speed
50. The starting current of a 3φ induction Up1
motor is 5 times the rated current, while
the rated slip is 4%. The ratio of starting a. Directly proportional to both rg2 and
torque to full-load torque is U p21
a. 0.6
b. Directly proportional to rg2 , but
b. 0.8
c. 1.0 inversely to U P21
d. 1.2 c. Inversely proportional to rg2 , but
51. A single-phase transformer when supplied
directly to U P21
from 220 V, 50 Hz has eddy current loss
of 50 W. If the transformer is connected to d. Inversely proportional to both rg2 and
a voltage of 330V, 50 Hz, the eddy current U P21
loss will be
a. 168.75 W 55. Match list I with list II and select the
b. 112.5 W correct answer:
c. 75W List I (Motors)
d. 50W A. Dc series motor
52. In case of auto-transformers, which of the B. Squirrel-cage induction motor
following statements are correct? C. dc shunt motor
1. An auto-transformer requires less List II (Applications)
copper as compared to a conventional, 1. Shearing and pressing
2-winding transformer of the same 2. Haulage and hoisting
capacity. 3. Rolling mill
2. An auto-transformer provides isolation A B C
between the primary and secondary a. 1 2 3
windings. b. 2 3 1
3. An auto-transformer has less leakage c. 3 1 2
reactance as compared to the d. 3 2 1
conventional, 2-winding transformer of 56. Match List 1 (1–φ Rectifier topology –
the same capacity. feeding resistive Load) with List II
Select the correct answer using .the codes (Average output voltage) and select the
given below: correct answer: ( α is the firing angle)
a. 1, 2 and 3 A. Uncontrolled - half wave
b. 1 and 2 B. Controlled - half wave
c. 1 and 3 C. Controlled - full wave
d. 2 and 3 D. Semi-controlled full wave
53. If Pc and Psc represent core and full-load List II
1. V peak / π (1 + cos α )
ohmic losses respectively, the maximum
kVA delivered to load corresponding to
maximum efficiency is equal to rated kVA 2. 2V peak / π cos α
multiplied by 3. V peak / π
a. Pc / Psc
4. V peak / 2π (1 + cos α )
b. Pc / Psc
A B C D
( Pc / Psc )
2
c. a. 3 2 4 1
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b. 1 4 2 3 b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
c. 3 4 2 1 the correct explanation of A
d. 1 2 4 3 c. A is true but R is false
57. Switched reluctance motor means d. A is false but R is true
a. Salient pole synchronous motor 62. Assertion (A): Linear AM detector
without excitation winding applied with two amplitude-modulated
b. A stepper motor with salient poles waves simultaneously, one being very
c. Synchronous motor with salient poles weak with respect to the other, detects
on stator and rotor only the strong signal.
d. A steeper motor with closed loop Reason (R): Detector selectivity is
control and with rotor position sensor increased in the presence of strong signal.
58. Assertion (A): In avalanche breakdown, a. Both A and R are hue and R is the
the reverse current sharply increases with correct explanation of A
voltage due to a field emission. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Reason (R): The field, emission requires the correct explanation of A
highly doped p and n regions. c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and R are hue and R is the d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A 63. Assertion (A): Coherent FSK system is
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT preferred over non-coherent FSK.
the correct explanation of A Reason (R): Coherent FSK requires less
c. A is true but R is false power than non-coherent FSK.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are hue and R is the
59. Assertion (A): In small signal class ‘A’ correct explanation of A
amplifier, the output is a magnified replica b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
of the input without any change in the correct explanation of A
frequency. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): The dc operating point is d. A is false but R is true
fixed in class ‘A’ position. 64. Assertion (A): High frequency power
a. Both A and R are hue and R is the supplies are lightweight.
correct explanation of A Reason (R): Transformer size get reduced
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT at high frequency.
the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are hue and R is the
c. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
60. Assertion (A): D-latch and edge-triggered the correct explanation of A
D-flip flop (FF are functionally different. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): In D-latch the output (O) can d. A is false but R is true
change while enable (EN) is high. In D-FF 65. A speciment of intrinsic germanium with
the output can change only on the active the density of charge carries of 2.5
edge of CLK. ×1013/cm3, is doped with donor impurity
a. Both A and R are hue and R is the atoms such that there is one donor
correct explanation of A impurity atom for ever 106 germanium
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT atoms. The density of germanium atoms is
the correct explanation of A 4.4×1022/cm3. The hole density would be
c. A is true but R is false a. 4.4 ×1016 / cm3
d. A is false but R is true b. 1.4 ×1010 / cm3
61. Assertion (A): D-flip flops are used to c. 4.4 ×1010 / cm3
construct a buffer register.
Reason (R): Buffer registers are used to d. 1.4 ×1016 / cm3
store a binary word temporarily. 66. In a forward biased photo diode, an
a. Both A and R are hue and R is the increase in incident light intensity causes’
correct explanation of A the diode current to
 9 of 14
a. Increase b. Coupling capacitor at high frequency
b. Remain constant arid bypass capacitor at low frequency
c. Decrease c. Coupling junction capacitance at low
d. Remain constant while the voltage frequency and coupling capacitor at
drop across the diode increases high frequency
67. If for intrinsic Silcon at 27°C, the charge d. Device junction capacitor at high
concentration and mobilities of free- frequency and coupling capacitor at
electrons and holes are 1.5×1016 per m3, low frequency
0.13m2/(Vs) and 0.05 m2/(Vs) 72. The Darlington pair has a current gain of
respectively, its conductivity will be approximately β2, the voltage gain AV, the
a. 2.4×10-3 (Ω-m)-1 input resistance Ri and the output
b. 3.15×10-3 (Ω-m)-1 resistance R0. when the Darlington pair is
used in the emitter follower configuration,
c. 5×10-4 (Ω-m)-1
AV, Ri and R0 are respectively
d. 4.32×10-4 (Ω-m)-1 a. Very large, very large and very small
68. b. Unity, very large and very small
c. Unity, very small and very large
d. Very large, very small and very large
73. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. hie
A circuit using the .BJT is shown in the B. hfe
above figure, the value of β is C. hre
a. 120 D. hoe
b. 150 List II (Units/delimitations)
c. 165 1. Current transfer ratio
d. 166 2. Ohms
69. Bridge rectifiers are preferred because 3. Siemens
a. They require small transformer 4. Voltage transfer ratio
b. They have less peak inverse voltage A B C D
c. They need small transformer and also a. 2 1 3 4
have less peak inverse voltage b. 1 2 4 3
d. They have low ripple factor c. 1 2 3 4
70. d. 2 1 4 3
74. An amplifier having an output resistance
of 4 Ω gives an open circuit output voltage
of 6 V (rms). The maximum power that it
can deliver to a load is
a. 1.5 W
For the circuit shown in the above figure b. 2.25 W
h11, h12, h21 and h22 are respectively c. 2.4 W
a. – 0.5, 0.5, 0.125 and 6 d. 9 W
b. 6, 0.5, – 0.5 and 0.125 75. Active load is used in the collector of the
c. 0.5, – 0.5, 6 and 0.125 differential amplifier of an op-amp to
d. 0.125, 6, 0.5 and – 0.5 a. Increase the output resistance
71. In an RC coupled amplifier, the gain b. Increase the differential gain Ad
decreases in the frequency response due to c. Increase maximum peak to peak output
the voltage
a. Coupling capacitor at low frequency d. Eliminate load resistance from the
and bypass capacitor at high frequency circuit
 10 of 14
76.

A circuit with op-amp .is shown in the

above figure. The voltage V0 is
a. 3Vs1 − 6Vs2
b. 2Vs1 − 3Vs2
For the circuit shown in the above figure,
c. 2Vs1 − 2Vs2
β=100 for the transistor, the transistor will
be in d. 3Vs1 − 2Vs2
a. Cut off region 81. A sinusoidal waveform can be converted
b. Inverse active region to a square waveform by using a
c. Active region a. Two stage transistorized ovel7driven
d. Saturation region amplifier
77. “Slope overload” occurs in delta b. Two stage diode detector circuit
modulation when the c. Voltage comparator based on op-amp
a. Frequency of the clock pulses is too d. Regenerative voltage comparator
low circuit
b. Rate of change of analog waveform is 82.
too large
c. Step size is too small
d. Analog signal varies very slowly with
time
78. The slew rate of an op-amp is 0.5V/micro
sec. The maximum frequency of a
sinusoidal input of 2 V rms that can be For the circuit shown in the above figure,
handled without excessive distortion is by assuming β=200 and VBE = 0.7V, the
best approximation for the collector
a. 3kHz
current Ic in the active region is
b. 30kHz
a. 1 mA
c. 200kHz
b. 2.4 mA
d. 2MHz
c. 3 mA
79.
d. 9.6 mA
83. High power efficiency of the push-pull
amplifier is due to the face that
a. Each transistor conducts on different
cycle of the input
b. Transistors are placed in CE
An op-amp is used in the circuit as shown configuration
in the above figure. Current I0 is
c. There is no quiescent collector current
RL
a. Vs × d. Low forward biasing voltage is
Rs ( RL + Rs ) required
b. Vs / Rs 84. Which one of the following is the output
of the high pass filter to a step input?
c. Vs / RL
a.
⎛ 1 1 ⎞
d. Vs ⎜ + ⎟
⎝ Rs RL ⎠
80.
b.
 11 of 14
d. Delay time
88.

c.

For the circuit shown in the above figure,

the output F will be
a. 1
d. b. X
c. Zero
d. X
89. In the CMOS inverter, the power
dissipation is
85. a. Low only when VEN is low
b. Low only when VEN is high
c. High during dynamic operation
d. Low during dynamic operation
90.

The Schmitt trigger circuit is shown in the

above figure. If Vsat = ± 10 V, the tripping
point for the increasing input voltage will
be
a. 1 V
b. 0.893 V An NMOS circuit is shown in the above
c. 0.477V figure. The logic function for the output
d. 0.416V (o/p) is
86. In Boolean Algebra, a. ( A + B ) .C + D.E
( )
If F = ( A + B ) A + C , then
b. ( AB + C ) .( D + E )
a. F = AB + AC
c. A. ( B + C ) .D.E
b. F = AB + AB
d. ABCDE
c. F = AC + AB
91. Match List I with List II and select the
d. F = AA + AB correct answer:
87. List I (Type of gates)
A. ECL
B. TTL
C. CMOS
D. NMOS
List II (Values of propagation delay)
1. 5ns
A switch circuit using the transistor is 2. 20ns
shown in the above figure. Assume hFE(min) 3. 100 ns
= 20 and f τ = 100MHz. The most 4. 1ns
dominant speed limitation is brought by A B C D
a. Rise time a. 1 4 3 2
b. Fall time b. 4 1 3 2
c. Storage time c. 1 4 2 3
 12 of 14
d. 4 1 2 3 96. In the frequency modulation if f m is
92. The length of a bus cycle in 8086/8088 is modulating frequency, Δf is maximum
four clock cycles, T1, T2, T3, T4 and an frequency deviation and B is bandwidth,
indeterminate number of wait state clock then
cycles denoted by Tw. The wait states are
a. B = Δf + f m
always inserted been
a. T1 and T2 b. B = Δf − f m
b. T2 and T3 c. B = 2 ( Δf + f m )
c. T3 and T4
d. T4 and T1 d. B = 2 ( Δf − f m )
93. When RET instruction is executed by any 97. In 8085 microprocessor, a number of the
subroutine then form 000XXXXO stored in the
a. The top of the stack will be popped out accumulator is processed by the
and assigned to the PC programme (Assume Cy = 0) as follows
b. Without any operation, the calling ANI OFFH
program would resume from RAL
instruction immediately following the MOV
call instruction ANI B,A
c. The PC will be incremented after the RAL
execution of the instruction ANI
d. Without any operation, the calling RAL
program would resume from ADD B
instruction immediately following the The operation carried out by the
call instruction, and also the PC will be programme is
incremented after the execution of the a. Multiplication of accumulator content
instruction by 10
94. Consider the following set of 8085 b. Complement of accumulator content
instructions used to read a byte of data
c. Multiplication of accumulator content
from the output of an ADC. The byte
by 9
represents digital equivalent of analog
d. Rotation of accumulator content three
input voltage Vin applied to ADC when
times
RD is asserted. 98. Which one of the following circuits
ADC EQU 30H transmits two messages simultaneously in
GETADC: IN ADC one direction?
RET a. Duplex
When RET is executed b. Diplex
1. Op-code of IN is fetched c. Simplex
2. port address 30H is decoded d. Quadruplex
3. Op-code of IN is decoded 99.
4. I/O read operation is performed
The correct sequence of these operations is
a. 3, 1, 4, 2
b. 1, 3, 2, 4 A DSB suppressed carrier reception is
c. 1, 3, 4, 2 shown in the above figure. If (SNR)i is the
d. 3, 1, 2, 4 S/N ratio for direct (incoherent) detection
95. In an AM signal when the modulation and (SNR)s is that for (coherent)
index is one, the maximum power Pt, synchronous detection, then
(where Pc is the carrier power) is equal to a. (SNR)s = 2(SNR)i
a. Pc b. (SNR)s = (SNR)i
b. 1.5pc c. (SNR)s = 4(SNR)i
c. 2pc d. (SNR)s = ½ (SNR)i
d. 2.5pc
 13 of 14
100. An AM super-heterodyne receiver with IF d. Inverter
of 455kHz is tuned to the carrier frequency 106. The snubber circuit is used in thyristor
of 1000 kHz. The image frequency is circuits for
a. 545 kHz a. Triggering
b. 1 MHz b. dv/dt protection
c. 1455kHz c. di/ dt protection
d. 1910 kHz d. Phase shifting
101. A 4 GHz carrier is amplitude-modulated 107. It is preferable to use a train of pulse of
by a low-pass signal of maximum cut off high frequency for gate triggering of SCR
frequency 1 MHz. If this signal is to be in order to reduce
ideally sampled, the minimum sampling a. dv/dt problem
frequency should be nearly b. di/dt problem
a. 4 MHz c. The size of the pulse transformer
b. 4 GHz d. The complexity of the firing circuit
c. 8 MHz 108. A four quadrant chopper cannot be
d. 8 GHz operated as
102. If the modulation index of an AM wave is a. One quadrant chopper
changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted power b. Cycloconverter
a. Increases by 50% c. Inverter
b. Increases by 75% d. Bi- directional rectifier
c. Increases by 100% 109. Match List I (Waveforms) with List II
d. Remains unaffected (Descriptions) and select the correct
103. answer:
List I
A.

B.
Which one of the following PCM schemes
is depicted in the above figure?
a. Adaptive DM
b. Differential PCM
c. Companding C.
d. Delta Modulation
104.

D.

The latching current in the above circuit is

List II
4 mA. The minimum width of the gate
pulse required turn on the thyristor is 1. Single phase fully controlled ac to dc
converter
a. 6 μs
2. Voltage commuted dc to dc chopper
b. 4 μs with input dc voltage E
c. 2 μs 3. Phase voltage of a three phase inverter
d. 1 μs
with 180° conduction and input dc
105. Triac cannot be used in
voltage E
a. ac voltage regulators
b. Cycloconverters
c. Solid state type of switch
 14 of 14
4. Line voltage of a three phase inverter 114. The most suitable solid state converter for
with 120° conduction and input dc controlling the speed of the three-phase
voltage E cage motor at 25 Hz is
5. Three-phase diode bridge rectifier a. Cycloconverter
A B C D b. Current source inverter
a. 3 4 1 5 c. Voltage source inverter
b. 5 1 4 2 d. Load commutated inverter
c. 3 1 4 5 115. In case of voltage source inverter, free-
d. 5 4 1 2 wheeling can be avoided for the load of
110. The total harmonic distortion (THD) of ac a. Inductive nature
supply input current of rectifiers is b. Capacitive nature
maximum for c. Resistive nature
a. Single - phase diode rectifier with dc d. Back emf nature
inductive filter 116. PWM switching is preferred in voltage
b. 3-phase diode rectifier with dc source inverters for the purpose of
inductive filter a. Controlling output voltage
c. 3-phase thyristor rectifier with b. Output harmonics
inductive filter c. Reducing filter size
d. Single-phase diode rectifier with d. Controlling output voltage, output
capacitive filter harmonics and reducing filter size
111. A single phase ac voltage controller 117. Which one of the following is NOT the
feeding a pure resistance load has a load advantage of solids state switching of ac
voltage of 200 V (rms) when fed from a capacitors into ac supply over relay based
source of 250 V(rms). The input power switching?
factor of the controller is a. Low transients
a. 0.64 b. Low losses
b. 0.8 c. Fast response
c. 0.894 d. Long life
d. Difficult to estimate because of 118. The most suitable device for high
insufficiency of data frequency inversion in SMPS is
112. In a thyristor-controlled reactor, the firing a. BJT
angle of thyristor is to be controlled in the b. IGBT
range of
c. MOSFET
a. 0° to 90°
d. GTO
b. 0° to 180°
119. The quality of output ac voltage of a
c. 90° to 180° cycloconverter is improved with
d. 90° to 270° a. Increase in output voltage at reduced
113. A 3-phase wound rotor induction motor is frequency
controlled by a chopper-controlled b. Increase in output voltage at increased
resistance in its rotor circuit. A resistance frequency
of 2Ω is connected in the rotor circuit and c. Decrease in output voltage at reduced
a resistance of 4Ω is additionally frequency
connected during OFF periods of the d. Decrease in output voltage at increased
chopper. The average resistance in the frequency
rotor circuit for the chopper frequency of
120. A cycloconverter is operating on a 50 Hz
200 Hz is
supply. The range of output frequency that
a. 26/5Ω can be obtained with acceptable quality, is
b. 24/5 Ω a. 0 – 16 Hz
c. 18/5Ω b. 0 – 32 Hz
d. 16/5Ω c. 0 – 64 Hz
d. 0 – 128 Hz