FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2013

From Long Term Classroom Programs and Medium / Short Classroom Program 4 in Top 10, 10 in Top 20, 43 in Top 100, CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST
(Set – III)
Paper 2
75 in Top 200, 159 in Top 500 Ranks & 3542 t o t a l s e l e c t i o n s i n I I T - J E E 2 0 1 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240

ƒ P l e a s e r e a d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r e f u l l y. Y o u a r e a l l o t t e d 5 m i n u t e s
specifically for this purpose.
ƒ Y o u a r e n o t a l l o we d t o l e a v e t h e E x a m i n a t i o n H a l l b e f o r e t h e e n d o f
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section–C.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
(i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (09 – 12) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(ii) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2
columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second
column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks
will be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for
any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.
(iii) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer,
ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 ×10−34 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Permittivity of free space ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2/N-m2

Density of water ρwater = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K−1 mol−1
= 1.987 ≈ 2 Cal K−1 mol−1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 × 1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625 × 10−34 J⋅s
= 6.625 × 10–27 erg⋅s
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 × 10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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 3 AITS-CRT(Set-III)Paper-2-PCM-JEE(Advance)/13

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A

Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
G
1. A force F = ( 3xy − 5z ) ˆj + 4zkˆ is applied on a particle. The work done
(2,4,0)
by the force when the particle moves from the point (0,0,0) to the point
(2,4,0) as shown in the figure is
280 140 y = x2
(A) (B)
5 5 x
232 192 (0, 0, 0)
(C) (D)
5 5

2. A standing wave is produced in a vapour of an element of atomic mass

127 (g mol-1) at 400 K. Nodes are found to be 6.77 cm apart when frequency of source was 1000
Hz. The vapour used for the experiment is (R = 8.31 JK-1mol-1)
(A) monatomic (B) diatomic
(C) polyatomic (D) can not determine

3. A uniform rod of length 2A is suspended about one of its ends. The time period of oscillation for
small angular displacements is
3A 2A
(A) 2π (B) 2π
2g 3g
A 3A
(C) 4π (D) π
3g g

4. A particle is rotating about a vertical axis in the horizontal plane such that the R
angular velocity of the particle about the axis is constant and is equal to 1
rad/s. Distance of the particle from axis is given by R = R0- βt where t stands R0
for time. The speed of the particle as a function of time is O
(A) β2 + 1 (B) (R 0 − β t)

(C) β2 + (R 0 − βt)2 (D) β

Rough work

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5. The graph shows the extension (∆l) of a wire of length 1 m 4

∆l (× 104 m) →
suspended from the top of a roof at one end and with a load W 3
connected to the other end. If the cross-sectional area of the wire is
10−6 m2, calculate the Young’s modulus (i.e., Y) of the material of the 2
wire is S.I. units 1
(A) 2 × 106 N/m2 (B) 5 × 106 N/m2
11 2
(C) 2 × 10 N/m (D) 5 × 1011 N/m2
20 40 60 80
W(N) →

6. The magnification (m) of the real image formed by a convex lens is measured for various object
distances u. A graph is plotted between m and u. Which one of the following graph is correct ?
(A) m (B) m

u u
(C) m (D) m

u u

7. Moseley’s law for characteristic X-rays is v = a(Z − b) . In this,

(A) both a and b are independent of the material
(B) a is independent but b depends on the material
(C) b is independent but a depends on the material
(D) both a and b depend on the material

8. A circular coil has 10 turns with an effective radius of 0.5 m and carries a current of 2 amp
JG
through it. It is kept in a magnetic field perpendicular to its plane initially, with B = 4 Wb/m2. The
amount of work done to turn it by 60º is
(A) 10 π J (B) 5π J
(C) π J (D) – 5πJ

Rough work

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Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

9. In the figure, if F = 4 N, m = 2kg, M = 4 kg then µk = 0.08

2 z
(A) the acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is m / s2 F
3 m µ=0
(B) the acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is 1.2 m/s2 µs=0.1
M
(C) acceleration of M is 0.4 m/s2
Ground
2
(D) acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is m / s2
3
G G
10. Velocity of a particle of mass 2 kg changes from v1 = −2iˆ − 2ˆj m / s to v 2 = (iˆ − ˆj)m / s after
colliding with a plane surface
 1
(A) the angle made by the plane surface with the positive x–axis is 90º + tan–1  
3
 1
(B) the angle made by the plane surface with the positive x–axis is tan−1  
3
 1
(C) the direction of change in momentum makes an angle tan−1   with the +ve x–axis
3
 1
(D) the direction of change in momentum makes an angle 90° + tan−1   with the plane surface
3

Rough work

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11. A 100 cm long cylindrical flask with inner and outer diameters 2 cm and 4
cm respectively is completely filled with ice as shown in the figure. The
constant temperature outside the flask is 40ºC. (Thermal conductivity of the
flask is 0.693 W/mºC, Lice = 80 cal/gm).
(A) Rate of heat flow from outside to the flask is 80π J/s. ice r1
π r2
(B) The rate at which ice melts is Kg / s .
4200
(C) The rate at which ice melts is 100π Kg/s.
(D) Rate of heat flow from outside to flask is 40 π J/s.

12. Inside a uniform sphere of mass M and radius R, a cavity of radius R/3 is A
made in the sphere as shown.
(A) Gravitational field inside the cavity is uniform.
(B) Gravitational field inside the cavity is non–uniform. R
88GM
(C) The escape velocity of a particle projected from point A is . B
45R
(D) Escape velocity is defined for earth and particle system only. R/3
C

Rough work

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SECTION – B

Matrix – Match Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s D p q r s t
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

1. A particle with charge Q is moving in fields of combination given below. Then match the following
Column – I Column – II
→
(A) Uniform E only (p) A trajectory of charge particle may be straight line
→
(B) Uniform B o n ly (q) A trajectory of charge particle may be Parabola
→ →
(C) Uniform E and Uniform B (r) A trajectory of charge particle may be non uniform
parallel to each other right circular cylindrical helix
→ →
(D) Uniform E and U n i f o r m B (s) A trajectory of charge particle may be uniform
p erp end icular to eac h o ther right circular cylindrical helix
(t) K.E. of charge particle can not be constant

Rough work

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2. A parallel beam of monochromatic

light of wavelength λ = 100(Å) is µ = 20 – 4t
incident on the slits separated by
distance d = 2mm. There is a y
S1 µ
screen at a distance D = 1m from
slit. If R.I. of the medium between
slits and screen is varying with time
d
as µ = 20 – 4t until it becomes 1. A
glass slab of R.I. µ = 5 and
thickness 0.2 mm is placed infront
of one of the slit S1 as shown in S2
figure. In figure y represent position
of central maxima on the screen
from its geometrical centre. Then
match the column I with column-II D
with suitable option(s)
Column – I Column – II
(A) At t = 0, value of |y| in (cm) (p) 40
(B) At t = 5s value of |y| (in cm) (q) 7.5
(C) Speed of central maxima when it is at (r) 1
geometrical centre of screen (in cm/s)
(D) Fringe width at time t = 3.75 sec (µm) (s) 8
(t) 12

Rough work

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SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive).

1. A small block of mass 1 kg is moving with constant speed of 10 m/s on a typical path in a x – y
x3 x 2
vertical plane whose equation is y = − . The coefficient of friction between the block and
30 10
path is 0.01. Find the magnitude of power dissipated by frictional force in watt at x = 2 m?

2. Four metallic plates, each having a surface area of one side A, 1

are placed at a distance D from each other. The plates are 2
connected as shown in the figure. Find the ratio of the field R E
3
strength between plates 2 and 3 and that between plates 1
4
and 2.
Given R = 3Ω, E = 72V,
D = 0.1 mm, A = 4 m2

Rough work

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3. A rod AB of length 2 m is hinged at point A and it’s other and B is

attached to a platform on which a block of man m is kept. Rod rotates
about point A maintaining angle θ = 30º with the vertical in such a way B
that platform remains horizontal and revolves on the horizontal circular
path. If the coefficient of static friction between the block and platform is
µ = 0.1 than find the maximum angular velocity in rad/s of rod so that θ
block does not slip on the platform. [g = 10 m/s2]
A

4. A current i flows in a rectangular wire whose centre lies at (x0, 0, 0) and whose vertices are
located at the points A (x0 + d, –a, –b), B (x0 – d, a, – b), C (x0 – d, a, +b) and D (x0 + d, –a, +b)
respectively. Assume that a, b, d << x0. Find the magnitude of magnetic dipole moment vector of
the rectangular wire frame in Tesla. (Given b = 10 m, i = 0.01 A, d = 4 m, a = 3 m)

5. A tritium gas target is bombarded with a beam of monoenergetic protons of kinetic energy
K1 = 3 MeV. The K.E. of the neutron emitted at 30º to the incident beam is K2? Find the value of
K1/K2 (approximately in whole number). Atomic masses are
H1 = 1.007276 amu
n1 = 1.008665 amu
3
1H = 3.016050 amu
3
2He = 3.016030 amu.

6. A cylinder of mass M radius R is resting on a horizontal platform (which is parallel to x–y plane)
with its axis fixed along the y–axis and free to rotate about its axis. The platform is given a motion
in X–direction given by X = A cos wt. There is sufficient friction present in the surface of contact
that can prevent the slipping between the cylinder and platform. The minimum torque in N-m
acting on the cylinder during its motion is.
[take M = 4 kg , R = 1m, A = 2m, ω = 1 rad/s]

Rough work

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 11 AITS-CRT(Set-III)Paper-2-PCM-JEE(Advance)/13

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. ‘D’ is vapour density of PCl5 at initial stage and ‘d’ is the vapour density of the equilibrium mixture
and α is the degree of dissociation (taking temperature as constant), which is the correct
statement
(A) The vapor density of the mixture is increasing until the equilibrium is achieved.
(B) The ‘d’ can be changed by performing the experiment with different initial concentration of
PCl5.
(C) The vapor density ‘d’ of the mixture is dependent of temperature .
(D) The vapor density of the mixture is increasing until the equilibrium is achieved and after
it, it does not change.

2. In electrophilic aromatic substitution

Br

+Br2 
→

(A) This reaction can be catalysed by Lewis acid

(B) This reaction can be catalysed by presence of light
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) none of these

3. Water is saturated with CO2, then the fraction of CO32− in H2CO3, HCO3−, and CO32− at pH = 5, is
K = 10−4 ,K = 10−7 
 a1 a2 
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.35
(C) 0.05 (D) none of these

4. The charge of the blast furnace in the extraction of iron is a mixture of oxide ore, coke and ‘Y’, the
‘Y’ will be
(A) Silica (B) Dolomite
(C) MgO (D) Limestone
Rough Work

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5. The following disaccharide has

CH2OH

H O O
H HOH2C
H

OH H H OH
CH2OH
OH O

H OH OH H
(A) It has α-Glucosidic linkage and β-fructosidic linkage
(B) It has β -Glucosidic linkage and β-fructosidic linkage
(C) It has α-Glucosidic linkage and α -fructosidic linkage
(D) It has β -Glucosidic linkage and α -fructosidic linkage

6. The temperature coefficient (for E0) of a cell is –ve.

→ 2H + + Cu , which is incorrect
Cu 2+ +H 2 
0
(A) on increasing temperature, E Cu +2 / Cu
will decrease.
0
(B) on increasing temperature, E H + /Η 2
may decrease or increase.
(C) E0 of the cell is effected by changing the temperature.
(D) E of the cell can be effected by changing the pH.

7. 30.11×1022 unit cells of K2S is dissolved in 10L water. K2S has antifluorite structure. The freezing
point of the solution becomes
[Kf of water is 1.86°C Kg mol−1, Tf ,H2O=273.15]
(A) 272.78 K (B) 272.034 K
(C) 272.87 K (D) 272.9 K

8. For the electrolysis, the following reactions are taking places at different electrodes;
At cathode MPO (s)+ 3e− → PO3 − + M(s)
4 4

At anode MPO (s)+ 2H O → MO2 (s) + PO3 − (s) + 4H+ + e −

4 2 4

How much charge is required to form 4 mole of MPO4?

(A) 3F (B) 1.5F
(C) 2F (D) 6F
Rough Work

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Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. Which is true regarding colloidal solution?

(A) The boiling point of colloidal solution is smaller than the true solution under similar conditions.
(B) Colloidal particles can be coagulated by electrophoresis.
(C) Brownian movement is shown by colloidal particles.
(D) Sodium salt of fatty acids forms colloids at higher concentration.

10. Which of the following process occurs at interface?

(A) adsorption (B) heterogeneous catalyses
(C) homogeneous catalyses (D) corrosion

11. There are four containers. Bigger container has the volume double than that of smaller container.
Two types of gases are present, gas A( ) has 20amu and gas B( ) has 40 amu. If the gasses
(A) and (B) are filled in the containers as shown below. Which of the following is/ are correct
(P=pressure, d=density)

I II III IV
(All are at same temperature,I and III has volume V and II and IV has volume 2V)
(A) PII < PIV = PI = PIII (B) (Av. KE)I = (Av. KE)II =(Av. KE)III=(Av. KE)IV
(C) dII < dI < dIV = dIII (D) (RMS)I = (RMS)II = (RMS)III = (RMS)IV

12. Which is not correct?

(A) energy of 1s for Li < energy of 2s for Li (B) shape of all d-orbitals are same
(C) energy of 3d < energy of 4s (D) energy of 4s < energy of 3d
Rough Work

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SECTION-B
(Matrix Type)

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t

in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

1. Match the following column:

Column-I Column-II
(A) O (p) Positive test with 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine

O
(B) O (q) Positive Tollen’s test

CH C
OH

(C) O (r) Positive Fehling Solution Test

I3C H
(D) O (s) Form highly stable hydrate
(t) Perkin Reaction
H

2. Match the following

Column – I Column – II
(A) 20ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH + (p) pH > 7
50 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
(B) 20 ml of 0.1 M NH4OH + (q) pH < 7
50 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH
(C) 50 ml of 0.1 M NaOH + (r) Phenolphthalein is suitable indicator
50 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH
(D) 20 ml of 0.1 M NH4OH + (s) Methyl orange is suitable indicator
20 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4
(t) pH = 7

Rough Work

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 15 AITS-CRT(Set-III)Paper-2-PCM-JEE(Advance)/13

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive).

1. 6.4 gm CH3OH was placed in a 1 lt flask and heated to 250°C to vaporize the methanol. At
250°C, methanol vapour decomposed by

CH3OH(g) ←→ CO(g) + 2H2(g)

After the system has reached equilibrium a tiny hole is drilled in the side of the flask allowing
gaseous compounds to effuse out of the flask. It was seen that H2 was effused 2 2 times faster
that of equilibrium mixture. The 100Kc for this reaction at 25°C is

2. The number of oxygen atom/s shared by SiO4 units in Sc2Si2O7 is/are

3. Lactic acid on dehydration forms lactide. The number stereoisomer of lactide is/are

+
H /H2O
4. CH2 = C = CH2  → P. The number of lone pairs in P is

5. In Fe2(CO)9, the co−ordination number of Fe is

6. ∆Hf of Hg2Cl2 and HgCl are −125 and −640 kj/ mole. The enthalpy of disproportionation of Hg2Cl2
is −103 x kj/ mol. Find the value of x.

Rough Work

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

e
f (x) 1
1. Suppose f, f′ and f″ are continuous on [0, e] and f′(e) = f(e) = f(1) = 1 and ∫ x 2
dx =
2
, then the
1
e
value of ∫ f ′′ ( x ) ln x dx equals
1

5 1 3 1
(A) − (B) −
2 e 2 e
1 1 1
(C) − (D) 1 −
2 e e

a b c 
2. Let A = p q r  and suppose that det. (A) = 2 then the det. (B) equals, where B =
 x y z 
 4x 2a −p 
 4y 2b −q
 
 4z 2c −r 
(A) det(B) = −2 (B) det(B) = −8
(C) det(B) = −16 (D) det(B) = 8

 1
3. Let f be a real valued function of real and positive argument such that f ( x ) + 3xf   = 2 ( x + 1) for
x
all real x > 0. The value of f(10099) is
(A) 550 (B) 505
(C) 5050 (D) 10010

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4. The equation (x − 1) (x − 2) (x − 3) = 24 has the real root equal to ‘a’ and the complex roots b and
bc
c. Then the value of , is
a
1 1
(A) (B) −
5 5
6 6
(C) (D) −
5 5

5. A circle with centre A and radius 7 is tangent to the sides of an

angle of 60°. A larger circle with centre B is tangent to the sides
of the angle and to the first circle. The radius of the larger circle is
(A) 30 3
(B) 21
B
(C) 20 3
(D) 30 A

6. Consider straight line ax + by = c where a, b, c ∈ R+ and a, b, c are distinct. This line meets the
coordinates axes at P and Q respectively. If area of ∆OPQ, ‘O’ being origin does not depend
upon a, b and c then
(A) a, b, c are in G.P. (B) a, c, b are in G.P.
(C) a, b, c are in A.P. (D) a, c, b are in A.P.

1/n
tan−1 ( nx )
7. Let Cn = ∫1 sin −1
(nx )
dx , then lim n2 ⋅ Cn equals
n→∞

n +1
(A) 1 (B) 0
1
(C) −1 (D)
2

8. Suppose that the domain of the function f(x) is set D and the range is the set R, where D and R
 x  f (x)
are the subsets of real numbers. Consider the functions: f(2x), f(x + 2), 2f(x), f   , − 2. If m
2 2
is the number of functions listed above that must have the same domain as f and n is the number
of functions that must have the same range as f(x), then the ordered pair (m, n) is
(A) (1, 5) (B) (2, 3)
(C) (3, 2) (D) (3, 3)

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18

Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

9. An equilateral triangle ABC has its centroid at the origin and the base BC lies along the line
x+y=1
3 3
(A) Area of the equilateral ∆ABC is
2
3 3
(B) Area of the equilateral ∆ABC is
4
(C) Gradient of the other two lines are 2 + 3 , 2 − 3
(D) Gradient of the other two lines are 2 + 1 , 2 − 1

10. In which of the following cases limit exists at the indicated points
[x + x ]
(A) f(x) = at x = 0 where [x] denotes the greatest integer function
x
xe1/ x
(B) f(x) = at x = 0
1 + e1/ x
(C) f(x) = (x – 3)1/5 Sgn (x – 3) at x = 3, where Sgn stands for signum function
tan−1 x
(D) f(x) = at x = 0
x

11. Let T be the triangle with vertices (0, 0), (0, c2) and (c, c2) and let R be the region between y = cx
and y = x2 where c > 0 then
c3 c3
(A) area (R) = (B) area (R) =
6 3
area (T) area (T) 3
(C) lim+ =3 (D) lim+ =
c →0 area (R) c →0 area (R) 2

 x +3 
ln 
12. Consider the graph of the function f(x) = e  x +1  .Then which of the following is correct
(A) range of the function is (1, ∞) (B) f(x) has no zeroes
(C) graph lies completely above the x–axis (D) domain of f is (–∞, –3) ∪ (–1, ∞)

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SECTION – B

Matrix – Match Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given

p q r s t
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, A p q r s t
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles B p q r s t
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as
C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s D p q r s t
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

1. Match the following column–I with column–II.

Column–I Column–II
π 2π 3π 9π 10π 11
(A) sin sin sin ......sin sin (p)
21 21 21 21 21 210
π 2π 3π 9π 10π 1
(B) sin sin sin .......sin sin (q)
22 22 22 22 22 210
π 2π 3π 9π 10π 11
(C) cos cos cos .......cos cos (r)
21 21 21 21 21 210
π 2π 3π 9π 10π 21
(D) cos cos cos .......cos cos (s)
22 22 22 22 22 210
11
(t)
210

2. Match the following column–I with column–II.

Column–I Column–II
(A) ax + by + c = 0 be a variable line where a, b, c are 1st, 4th, 7th (p) (1, – 2)
terms of an increasing A.P then the Straight line always passes
through a fixed point is
(B) ax + by + c = 0 be a variable line where a, b, c are three (q) (2, – 3)
consecutive terms of an A.P then the straight line always passes
through a fixed point is
(C) ax + by + c = 0 be a variable line where a, b, c are r, r², (r) (1, 1)
2r² – r terms of an AP then straight line always passes through a
fixed point is
(D) ax + by + c = 0 be a variable line where a, b, c are r, r², 3r² – 2r (s) (1, – 1)
terms of an AP then straight line always passes through a fixed
point is
(t) (–1, –1)

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20

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive).

1. Let z1 and z2 be two fixed point in argand plane z is a variable point such that
 z − z1   z1 − z2 
arg   = θ1 and arg   = θ2
 z2 − z1   z − z2 
tan θ1 / 2 3
If = then locus of z is branch of hyperbola of eccentricity equal to __________.
tan θ2 / 2 2

 2 π 2 2π 2 3π 
 cos ec 7 + cos ec 7 + cos ec 7 
2.   is equals to __________.
 2 
 

dy dy
3. Suppose A = of x2 + y2 = 4 at ( 2, 2) , B = of sin y + sin x = sin x.sin y at (π, π) and
dx dx
dy
C= of 2exy + exey – ex – ey = exy + 1
at (1, 1) then |A + B + C| has the value equal to
dx
__________.

4. The equation of tangent at point P(3, 4) on the parabola whose axis is x-axis is 3x − 4y + 7 = 0 ,
a
and the distance of the tangent from the focus of the parabola is { where a, b ∈ N and H.C.F.
b
of a, b is 1} then a – b is equal to __________.

π a
5. If a0 = 0 and an+1 = an + 1 + an2 ∀ n ∈ I+ then lim nn−1 is equals to __________.
4 n→∞ 2

( )
K
6. Let f ( x ) = x 2 − 1 where K ∈ N. The number of different real roots of equation f n ( x ) = 0 are ‘m’
{ where 'n' denotes for nth derivative} . If ‘m’ equal to 8 only for one value of ‘n’ then ‘K’ is
__________.

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