CHANDAN KUMAR 1

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GENERAL NAVIGATION
1. Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50° N/S). At which time of year is the relationship between the
length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the
greatest rate?

A) Spring equinox and autumn equinox.

B) Summer solstice and winter solstice.
C) Summer solstice and spring equinox.
D) Winter solstice and autumn equinox.

2. In its path around the Sun, the axis of the Earth has an inclination:

A) varying with the season of the year.

B) varying between zero and 23° 27 with the plane of the pat.
C) of 23º 27 with the plane of Equator.
D) of 66º 33 with the plane of the path

3. Observed from a position on the surface of the Earth the heavenly bodies seems to:

A) move from East to West.

B) not change their relative positions on the sky.
C) move from West to East on the southern hemisphere.
D) move from East to West on the northern hemisphere.

4. Which of the following statements concerning ionospheric propagation errors is true?

A) They are significantly reduced when a second frequency is available.

B) They are eliminated using differential techniques.
C) Transmitting the state of the ionosphere to the receivers enables the error to reduced to less than
one metre.
D) They are significantly reduced by the use of RAIM.

4. The mean sun:

A) Moves with constant speed along the celestial equator.

B) Is only of interest to users of astronomical navigation.
C) Is the middle position of the sun.
D) Has a declination equal to the apparent sun.

5. What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of 90° above the
horizon at some time during the year?

A) 0°
B) 23°
C) 66°
D) 45°

7. The length of a apparent solar day is not constant because:

A) The plane of the Ecliptic and the plane of the Equator are inclined to each other.
B) The Suns declination is not constant.

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C) The Earths speed of revolution in its orbit varies continuously, due to the orbit being elliptical.
D) The Earths speed of rotation is not the same at all latitudes.

8. The planets move around the Sun:

A) In circular orbits.
B) At constant angular speed.
C) At constant velocity.
D) In elliptical orbits.

9. At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?

A) Beginning of January.
B) Beginning of July.
C) End of December.
D) End of September.

10. Seasons are due to the:

A) Earths elliptical orbit around the Sun.

B) inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane.
C) Earths rotation on its polar axis.
D) variable distance between Earth and Sun.

11. The direction of the Earths rotation on its axis is such that:

A) An observer on the surface of the earth always will face West when observing sunrise.
B) Any point on the surface of the Earth will move westward.
C) Observed from the point above the North Pole, the rotation is counter-clockwise.
D) Any point on the surface of the Earth will move eastward.

12. The suns declination is:

A) The distance between the sun and the horizon.

B) The suns position relative to the plane of the Equator.
C) The angular distance between the sun and the celestial North Pole.
D) The suns position relative to the ecliptic.

13. When the length of the day is measured with reference to the passage of the apparent sun:

A) The length of the day will wary in the course of the year.
B) The length of the day will be the same once every month.
C) The length of the day will vary with the latitude of the observer.
D) The length of the days, as indicated by our watches, will be exactly equal.

14. The term sidereal is used:

A) to describe a situation or relationship concerning the stars.

B) to describe conditions with reference to the moon.
C) to describe the time interval between two successive transits of the real apparent sun at the same
meridian.
D) to describe how two positions of heavenly bodies are located sideways on the sky.

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15. What is the approximate date of perihelion, when the Earth is nearest to the Sun?

A) Beginning of July.
B) End of March.
C) Beginning of January.
D) End of December.

16. Sun rise at 50° N 072° E is at 0254 on 25th January. What time will the sun rise at 50° N 007° E
on that day?

A) 0254 UTC
B) 0714 UTC
C) 2154 UTC
D) 0514 UTC

17. the compression factor of the earth:

A) is about 1:300.
B) all 3 answers are correct.
C) is so small that it may be ignored when making ordinary maps and charts.
D) makes the difference between the polar diameter and the equatorial diameter about 22 NM.

18. The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following
points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, is:

A) 5.2°
B) 7.8°
C) 15.6°
D) 9°

19. An aircraft departing A(N40º 00´ E080º 00´ ) flies a constant true track of 270º at a ground
speed of 120 kt. What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6 HR?

A) N40º 00´ E070º 30´ .

B) N40º 00´ E064º 20´ .
C) N40º 00´ E068º 10´ .
D) N40º 00´ E060º 00´ .

20. The total length of the 30° Latitude is:

A) 10.800 km
B) 18.706 km
C) 18.706 nm
D) 10.800 nm

21. Latitude may be defined as:

A) The displacement of a place from equator.

B) The angular distance measured along a meridian from the equator to a parallel of the latitude,
measured in degrees, minutes, and seconds and named North or South.
C) The angle between the plane of the equator and the plane of the parallel of latitude.
D) The distance from equator to a place on the surface of the earth.

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22. You are flying from A (50N 10W) to B (58N 02E). What is the Convergency between A and B?

A) 6,5°
B) 6,8°
C) 9,7°
D) 10,2°

23. The convergency of meridians:

A) Is the distance between the meridians in degrees, minutes, and seconds.

B) Is independent of latitude and longitude.
C) Is the angular difference between the meridians.
D) Is greater using rhumb line track than using great circle.

24. The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about:

A) 0° North and South (equator).

B) 60° North and South.
C) 90° North and South.
D) 45° North and South.

25. The poles on the surface of the earth may be defined as:

A) The points from where the distance to the equator is equal.

B) The points on the surface of the earth where all meridians intersect at right angles.
C) The points where the earths axis of rotation cuts the surface of the earth.
D) The points at which the vertical lines runs through the centre of the earth.

26. What is the UTC time of sunrise in Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada (49N 123 30 W) on the
6th December?

A) 0724 UTC
B) 0738 UTC
C) 2324 UTC
D) 1552 UTC

27. What is the convergency at 5000N between the meridians 10500W and 14500W on the earth?

A) 40,0°
B) 50,0°
C) 32,1°
D) 30,6°

28. Parallels of latitude, except the equator are:

A) are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles.

B) both Rhumb lines and Great circles.
C) Great circles.
D) Rhumb lines.

29. What is the highest latitude on the Earth at which the Sun can be vertically overhead?

A) 90 deg.
B) 23 deg.

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C) 66 deg.
D) 45 deg.

30. What is the approximate latitude of the Antarctic Circle?

A) 23° S.
B) 23° N.
C) 66° N.
D) 66° S.

31. A great circle track joins position A (59° S 141° W) and B (61° S 148° W). What is the difference
between the great circle track at A and B?

A) It increases by 3° .
B) It decreases by 6° .
C) It increases by 6° .
D) It decreases by 3° .

32. If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following parallel 60° N at a ground speed of 480 kt.
In order to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same amount of time, it should fly at a
ground speed of:

A) 960 kt.
B) 550 kt.
C) 480 kt.
D) 240 kt.

33. In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the Apparent Sun and
Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest?

A) March and September.

B) February and November.
C) April and August.
D) June and December.

34. A correct definition of longitude is:

A) The arc at equator between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian of the place, measured in
degrees, minutes and seconds, named East or West.
B) The angle between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian of the place.
C) The East-West distance between Greenwich and the place.
D) The difference between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian of the place, measured at the
centre of the earth.

35. The diameter of the Earth is approximately:

A) 40 000 km.
B) 18 500 km.
C) 6 350 km.
D) 12 700 km.

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36. The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60° N is approximately:

A) 34 641 NM.
B) 10 800 NM.
C) 18 706 NM.
D) 20 000 NM.
37. A Parallel of Latitude is a:

A) Rhumb line.
B) Great circle.
C) Meridian of tangency.
D) Small circle.

38. An approximate equation for calculating the convergency between two meridians is:

A) Convergency= dlong x sin mean lat.

B) Convergency=60 x dlong x cos. lat.
C) Convergency= dlat x sin mean long
D) Convergency= dlong x cos. lat.

39. Given: value for the ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297. Earths semi-major axis, as measured at the
equator, equals 6378.4 km. What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis of the Poles?

A) 6 367.0
B) 6 399.9
C) 6 378.4
D) 6 356.9

40. The suns declination is on a particular day 12.00 S. Midnight sun may this day be observed:

A) North of 7800N.
B) South of 7800S.
C) At 7800S only.
D) North of 7800S.

41. The angle between the plane of the Equator and the plane of the Ecliptic is:

A) 65.6 deg.
B) 25.3 deg.
C) 66.5 deg.
D) 23.5 deg.

42. Consider the following statements on longitude.

A) The largest value of longitude is 180º .

B) The largest value of change of longitude is 90º .
C) The value of longitude will never exceed 90º .
D) Longitude is stated in degrees up to 360º .

43. The term Ellipsoid may be used to describe:

A) the movement of the earth around the sun.

B) the shape of the ecliptic.

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C) a great circle on the celestial sphere.

D) the shape of the earth.

44. A small circle:

A) will always cross equator.

B) has a plane that do not pass through the centre of the earth.
C) has a plane parallel to the earths axis of rotation.
D) will also be a rhumb line.

45. A Rhumb Line is:

A) a line that crosses the equator at a constant angle.

B) a line that crosses lines of latitude at a constant angle.
C) always a great circle.
D) a line that crosses meridians at a constant angle.

46. When the suns declination is northerly:

A) midnight sun may be observed at the south pole.

B) the daylight period is shorter in the southern hemisphere than the northern.
C) it is winter on the northern hemisphere.
D) the sunrise occurs earlier at southern latitudes than the northern latitudes.

47. The shortest distance between 2 point of the surface of the earth is:

A) the arc of a great circle

B) a great circle
C) Rhumb line.
D) half the rhumb line distance.

48. Consider the following statements on the properties of a great circle:

A) The parallels of latitudes are all great circles.

B) All 3 answers are correct.
C) The great circle will maintain their initial true direction.
D) The great circle running through two positions on the surface of the earth, is the shortest distance
between these two positions.

49. The earth may be referred to as:

A) elliptical
B) a globe.
C) round.
D) an oblate spheroid.

50. How many nm are equivalent to 1° of arc of latitude:

A) 15 nm
B) 60 nm
C) 600 nm
D) 1 nm

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51. At what approximate latitude is the length of one minute of arc along a meridian equal to one NM
(1852 m) correct?

A) 0°
B) 30°
C) 90°
D) 45°

52. osition A is at latitude 33º 45N and position B is at latitude 14º 25N. What is the change in latitude
between A and B?

A) 19º 20
B) 48º 10
C) 23º 45
D) 76º 15

53. If an aircraft flew around the world at latitude 60° N it would cover a distance of:

A) 10,800 nm.
B) 5,400 nm.
C) 18,700 nm.
D) 21,600 nm.

54. The prime meridian is:

A) the meridian running through Greenwich, England.

B) the meridian 180 (E/W).
C) the meridian having the highest value of longitude.
D) the mid meridian on a chart.

55.
A) on the surface of the earth and at right angles to the axis of rotation.
B) on the surface as a small circle, horizontal to the axis of rotation.
C) on the surface parallel to the magnetic equator.
D) on the surface of the earth, being a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the axis of the earth and
cutting through the centre of the earth.

56. An arc of 1 minute of a meridian equals:

A) 1 statute mile.
B) 10 kilometres.
C) 1 nautical mile.
D) 1 kilometre.

57. Consider the following statements on meridians:

A) The meridians are parallel only at equator.

B) The meridians are not of equal length.
C) Any two meridians will form a great circle.
D) Any two halves great circle will form a meridians.

58. An aircraft is flying around the Earth eastwards along the 60N parallel of latitude at a groundspeed
of 240 knots.

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At what groundspeed would another aircraft have to fly eastwards along the Equator to fly once round
the Earth in the same journey time?

A) 480 knots.
B) 120 knots.
C) 600 knots.
D) 240 knots.

59. Radio bearings:

A) are lines of fixed direction.

B) are Rhumb lines.
C) are Great circles.
D) cut all meridians at the same angle.

60. he inclination of the earths axis of rotation with the plane of the ecliptic:

A) is stable throughout the year.

B) is causing the seasons, summer and winter.
C) All 3 answers are correct.
D) is causing the variation of length of the daylight during a year.

61. Using latitude and longitude for a place:

A) Relative directions to another place may easily be calculated.

B) The distance from this place to another play may be easily calculated.
C) The location on the earths surface of this place is defined.
D) The direction from the place to any other place may be easily calculated.

62. The highest value of longitude is found:

A) Close to the prime meridian.

B) At Greenwich anti meridian.
C) Close to the poles.
D) Along equator.

63. An aircraft at latitude 02° 20N tracks 180° (T) for 685 km. On completion of the flight the latitude
will be:

A) 04° 10S.
B) 04° 30S.
C) 09° 05S.
D) 03° 50S.

64. Consider the following statements on the shape of the earth:

A) It is slightly flattened at the poles.

B) The longest diameter is between the poles.
C) The diameter at the equator is about 60 NM longer than the diameter between the poles.
D) The diameters of the earth is the same at all latitudes.

64. What is the standard formula for convergency?

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A) Convergency=dlat x sin mean latitude.

B) Convergency=dlat x cos mean latitude.
C) Convergency=dlong x sin mean latitude.
D) Convergency=dlong x cos mean latitude.

65. Generally what line lies closer to the pole?

A) The rhumb line or great circle depending on the chart used.

B) Equator.
C) Great line.
D) Rhumb line.

66. The latitude where the value of convergency is half the value of convergency at 60° N is:

A) 25° 39 N
B) 90° 00 N
C) 27° 52 N
D) 30° 00 N

67. Given: The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are: N48° 50 E002° 16.5 The
coordinates of the antipodes are:

A) S41° 10 E177° 43.5.

B) S48° 50 E177° 43.5.
C) S48° 50 W177° 43.5.
D) S41° 10 W177° 43.5.

68. The suns moves from East to West at a speed of 15° longitude an hour. What ground speed will
give you the opportunity to observe the sun due south at all times at 6000N?

A) 780 Kt.
B) 520 Kt.
C) 450 Kt.
D) 300 Kt.

69. A great circle is defined as:

A) A circle in any plane on the surface of a sphere.

B) A circle on the surface of the sphere, with its plane running perpendicular to the axis of rotation.
C) A circle on the surface of a sphere, whose plane is cutting through the centre of the sphere.
D) A circle running on the outside of the sphere.

70. If you want to follow a constant true track value:

A) You must fly a rhumb line.

B) You must fly east/west or North/south.
C) You, in most cases, will also fly the shortest possible track.
D) You must fly a great circle.

71. The circumference of the Earth is approximately:

A) 5400 nm.
B) 43200 nm.
C) 21600 nm.

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D) 10800 nm.

72. Which of the following statements concerning the earths magnetic field is completely correct?

A) The earths magnetic field can be classified as transient semi-permanent or permanent.

B) The blue pole of the earths magnetic field is situated in North Canada.
C) At the earths magnetic equator, the inclination varies depending on whether the geographic
equator is north or south of the magnetic equator.
D) Dip is the angle between total magnetic field and vertical field component.
73. An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position 04° 00N 030° 00W:
600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then 600 NM West. The final position of the
aircraft is:

A) 03° 58N 030° 02W

B) 04° 00N 030° 02W
C) 04° 00N 029° 58W
D) 04° 00N 030° 00W

74. The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately:

A) 25.3° .
B) 23.5° .
C) 27.5° .
D) 66.5° .

75. Consider the following statements on meridians:

A) All meridians run in true direction from South to North.

B) The relative direction between two selected meridians will be constant.
C) On the southern hemisphere the meridians run towards the south pole.
D) The distance, in nautical miles, between two selected meridians will be constant.

76. Conversion angle is:

A) twice convergency.
B) convergency.
C) 0,5 convergency
D) 4 times convergency.

77. At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)?

A) Beginning of July.
B) End of March.
C) End of June.
D) Beginning of January.

78. What is the angle between the plane of the Ecliptic and the plane of the Equator?

A) 45° .
B) 23° .
C) 0° .
D) 90°

79. What is the initial great circle direction from 45° N 14° 12W to 45° N 12° 48E?

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A) 86,5° (T)
B) 80,4° (T)
C) 090° (M)
D) 270° (M)

80. In order to fly from position A (10° 00N, 030° 00W) to position B (30° 00N, 050° 00W),
maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly:

A) the constant average drift route.

B) the great-circle route.
C) a straight line plotted on a Lambert chart.
D) a rhumb line track.

81. What is a line of equal magnetic variation?

A) An isocline.
B) An isovar.
C) An isogonal.
D) An isogriv.

82. Given: Great circle from P to Q measured at P=095° Southern hemisphere Conversion angle P - Q =7°
What is the rhumb line track P - Q?

A) 102
B) 088
C) 109
D) 081

83. The term Aphelion is used to describe:

A) The situation when the distance between the sun and the earth is at its longest.
B) The relative position between the earth and the moon.
C) The situation when apparent sun is passing the plane of the Equator.
D) The relationship between the length of the day and the length of the night.

84. A line which cuts all meridians at the same angle is called a:

A) Great circle.
B) Agonic line.
C) Line of variation.
D) Rhumb line.

85. onsider the following statements on departure:

A) As the latitude increases, the departure between two meridians decreases.

B) Departure is independent of difference of longitude.
C) Departure may be calculated using the equation: departure=Sin Lat. x sin Long.
D) As the difference of longitude increases, the departure is constant it the latitude is constant.

86. A Great Circle is:

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A) a line on the surface of the earth which crosses meridians at a constant angle.
B) a line that defines the shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth.
C) always a Great Circle on all charts.
D) a straight line joining two points on all charts.

87. As seen from an observer on the surface of the earth:

A) the apparent sun is always in the plane of the ecliptic.

B) the suns position relative to the stars is fixed throughout the year.
C) the sun is in a fixed position relative to the stars.
D) the stars will seem to move from west to east during a year.

88. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different durations is due to the:

A) earths rotation.
B) inclination of the ecliptic to the equator.
C) relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic.
D) gravitational effect of the Sun and the Moon on the speed of rotation of the Earth.

89. An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDB’ s and VOR’ s to true
bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:

A) NDB: aircraft position VOR: aircraft position

B) NDB: aircraft position VOR: beacon position
C) NDB: beacon position VOR: beacon position
D) NDB: beacon position VOR: aircraft position

90. An approximate equation for calculation conversion angle is:

A) CA=0,5 x dlong x sin lat.

B) CA=dlong x sin Lat. x sin Long.
C) CA=0,5 x dlat x sin Lat.
D) CA=(dlong-dlat) x 0,5.

92. The great circle track X - Y measured at x is 319° , and Y 325° Consider the following statements:

A) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .

B) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 313° .
C) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 331° .
D) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .

93. What does 5 hours 50 minutes and 20 seconds change of longitude represent?

A) 80° 05
B) 81° 25
C) 87° 35
D) 35° 15

94. A day is by definition:

A) the period from sunrise to sunset.

B) the period in which day flying is authorised.

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C) the period from morning to evening.

D) the period elapsed between two successive transits of a heavenly body.

95. Atmospheric refraction:

A) Causes the Sunrise to occur later and the Sunset to occur earlier.
B) Causes the Sunrise and the Sunset to occur later.
C) Causes the Sunrise and the Sunset to occur earlier.
D) Cause the Sunrise to occur earlier and the Sunset to occur later.

96. On the 27th of February, at 52° S and 040° E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same day, at
52° S and 035° W, the sunrise is at:

A) 0743 UTC.
B) 2143 UTC.
C) 0243 UTC.
D) 0523 UTC.

97. How would you define standard time in relation to Greenwich Mean Time?

A) It is local mean time adjusted for latitude.

B) It is local mean time.
C) It is another term for UTC.
D) It is local mean time adjusted to standard time.

98. What is the Standard Time in Hawaii when it is 0600 ST on the 16th February in Queensland,
Australia?

A) 1000 ST on the 16th.

B) 2000 ST on the 15th.
C) 1000 ST on the 15th.
D) 1000 ST on the 17th.

99. The times given for Sunrise, Sunset, Morning and Evening twilight in the Air Almanac:

A) Are given in LMT.

B) Must always be corrected for atmospheric refraction.
C) Are given in Standard time.
D) Are given in UTC.

100. Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50° N/S). At which time of year is the relationship between the
length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the
greatest rate?

A) Winter solstice and autumn equinox.

B) Spring equinox and autumn equinox.
C) Summer solstice and spring equinox.
D) Summer solstice and winter solstice.

111. In its path around the Sun, the axis of the Earth has an inclination:

A) varying with the season of the year.

B) of 23º 27 with the plane of Equator.
C) of 66º 33 with the plane of the path.

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D) varying between zero and 23° 27 with the plane of the pat.

112. Observed from a position on the surface of the Earth the heavenly bodies seems to:

A) move from East to West.

B) move from East to West on the northern hemisphere.
C) move from West to East on the southern hemisphere.
D) not change their relative positions on the sky.

113. Which of the following statements concerning ionospheric propagation errors is true?

A) Transmitting the state of the ionosphere to the receivers enables the error to reduced to less than
one metre.
B) They are significantly reduced by the use of RAIM.
C) They are eliminated using differential techniques.
D) They are significantly reduced when a second frequency is available.

114. The mean sun:

A) Has a declination equal to the apparent sun.

B) Is only of interest to users of astronomical navigation.
C) Moves with constant speed along the celestial equator.
D) Is the middle position of the sun.

115. What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of 90° above the
horizon at some time during the year?

A) 45°
B) 23°
C) 0°
D) 66°

116. The length of a apparent solar day is not constant because:

A) The plane of the Ecliptic and the plane of the Equator are inclined to each other.
B) The Suns declination is not constant.
C) The Earths speed of rotation is not the same at all latitudes.
D) The Earths speed of revolution in its orbit varies continuously, due to the orbit being elliptical.

117. At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?

A) Beginning of January.
B) End of December.
C) Beginning of July.
D) End of September.

118. Seasons are due to the:

A) Earths elliptical orbit around the Sun.

B) inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane.
C) variable distance between Earth and Sun.
D) Earths rotation on its polar axis.

119. The suns declination is:

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A) The suns position relative to the ecliptic.

B) The distance between the sun and the horizon.
C) The angular distance between the sun and the celestial North Pole.
D) The suns position relative to the plane of the Equator.

120. When the length of the day is measured with reference to the passage of the apparent sun:

A) The length of the day will wary in the course of the year.
B) The length of the day will be the same once every month.
C) The length of the day will vary with the latitude of the observer.
D) The length of the days, as indicated by our watches, will be exactly equal.

121. The term sidereal is used:

A) to describe how two positions of heavenly bodies are located sideways on the sky.
B) to describe a situation or relationship concerning the stars.
C) to describe conditions with reference to the moon.
D) to describe the time interval between two successive transits of the real apparent sun at the same
meridian.

122. Sun rise at 50° N 072° E is at 0254 on 25th January. What time will the sun rise at 50° N 007° E
on that day?

A) 0254 UTC
B) 0714 UTC
C) 0514 UTC
D) 2154 UTC

123. The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following
points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, is:

A) 9°
B) 5.2°
C) 15.6°
D) 7.8°

124. An aircraft departing A(N40º 00´ E080º 00´ ) flies a constant true track of 270º at a ground
speed of 120 kt. What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6 HR?

A) N40º 00´ E060º 00´ .

B) N40º 00´ E064º 20´ .
C) N40º 00´ E070º 30´ .
D) N40º 00´ E068º 10´ .

125. The total length of the 30° Latitude is:

A) 10.800 km
B) 10.800 nm
C) 18.706 nm
D) 18.706 km

126. An agonic line joins places of:

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A) equal magnetic deviation.

B) zero magnetic variation.
C) equal magnetic variation.
D) equal horizontal force H.

127. At the magnetic equator:

A) the isogonal is an agonic line.

B) dip is zero.
C) deviation is zero.
D) variation is zero.

129. When turning right from 330° (C) to 040° (C) in the northern hemisphere, the reading of a direct
reading magnetic compass will:

A) over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect.
B) under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect.
C) under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect.
D) over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect.

130. Variation in a position is 13W, and True track is 136° . Consider the following statements:

A) The magnetic track is 149° .

B) Looking north from this position, the magnetic North pole seems to be located to the East of the
true north pole.
C) The compass track is 149° .
D) The position most likely is located at northern latitudes and on eastern longitudes.

132. Deviation is:

A) a correction to be added to compass heading to obtain magnetic heading.

B) an error to be added to compass heading to obtain magnetic heading.
C) an error to be added to magnetic headings.
D) a correction to be added to magnetic heading to obtain compass heading.

133. An isogonal:

A) is a line running through all positions having the same magnetic inclination.
B) is a line on the surface of the Earth, running through all positions having the same magnetic
latitude.
C) is a line running through all positions having the same magnetic longitude.
D) is a line running through all positions having the same variation.

134. Dip:

A) is the angle between the vertical and a freely suspended magnet influenced by the earths magnetic
field.
B) is the angle between the horizontal and magnetic north.
C) is the angle between the horizontal and a freely suspended magnet influenced by the earths
magnetic field.
D) is the angle between the compass needle and magnetic north.

135. The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called:

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A) deviation.
B) variation.
C) compass error.
D) drift.

136. What is the value of magnetic dip at the South Magnetic Pole?

A) 090°
B) 360°
C) 0°
D) 180°

137. Consider the following statements on magnetic variation:

A) The largest values of variation are found along the anti meridians of the Magnetic poles.
B) Variation will never exceed 90° .
C) Variation will always increase when the total strength of the terrestrial magnetic field increases.
D) The variation is east when True North seems to be located west of Magnetic North.

138. The total Magnetic Force of the terrestrial magnetic field:

A) will be stronger at higher altitudes because the attenuation is less at high altitudes.
B) is strongest at the magnetic poles.
C) is horizontal in all positions on the surface of the Earth.
D) is vertical at the magnetic equator.

139. What are isogrivs?

A) Lines of equal magnetic dip.

B) Lines of equal magnetic grivation.
C) Lines of equal deviation.
D) Lines of equal variation.

140. A direct Mercator graticule is baaed on a projection that is:

A) spherical.
B) concentric.
C) conical.
D) cylindrical.

141. On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured between two meridians spaced 5° apart
at latitude 60° N is 8cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60° N approximately:

A) 1 : 3 500 000
B) 1 : 6 000 000
C) 1 : 7 000 000
D) 1 : 4 750 000

142. On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly correct along the:

A) prime meridian and the equator.

B) equator and parallel of origin.

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C) meridians of tangency.
D) meridian of tangency and the parallel of latitude perpendicular to it.

143. On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the:

A) meridian of tangency.
B) datum meridian and meridian perpendicular to it.
C) Equator, parallel of origin and prime vertical.
D) prime meridian and the equator.

144. Scale on a Lamberts conformal chart is:

A) constant over the whole chart.

B) varies with latitude and longitude.
C) constant along a meridian of longitude.
D) constant along a parallel of latitude.

145. An Oblique Mercator projection is used specifically to produce:

A) radio navigational charts in equatorial regions.

B) topographical maps of large east/ west extent.
C) plotting charts in equatorial regions.
D) charts of the great circle route between two points.

146. On a Transverse Mercator Chart scale is assumed to be constant within:

A) 300 nm of the Central Meridian

B) 300 nm of the Poles
C) 200 nm of the Poles
D) 300 nm of the Parallel of Tangency

147. Transverse Mercator projections are used for:

A) maps of large east/west extent in equatorial areas.

B) plotting charts in equatorial areas.
C) maps of large north/south extent.
D) radio navigation charts in equatorial areas.

148. On a Lambert conformal conic chart the quoted scale is correct:

A) in the area between the standard parallels.

B) along the parallel of origin.
C) along the two standard parallels.
D) along the prime meridian.

149. What is the most common use for an oblique Mercator chart?

A) Maps of equatorial areas only.

B) Selected great circle routes.
C) Topographical maps of the British Isles.
D) Polar routes.

150. The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a:

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A) Direct Mercator projection.

B) Stereographical projection.
C) Gnomonic projection.
D) Lambert conformal projection.

151. On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the:

A) Equator.
B) north and south limits of the chart.
C) parallel of origin.
D) standard parallels.

152. The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert projection are at N10° 40 and N41° 20. The cone
constant of this chart is approximately:

A) 0.18.
B) 0.90.
C) 0.44.
D) 0.66.

153. The Polar Stereographic projection is:

A) A plane projection.
B) A cylinder projection.
C) A variable cone projection.
D) A conical projection.

154. The convergence factor of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.78535. At what latitude
on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?

A) 38° 15
B) 51° 45
C) 52° 05
D) 80° 39

155. What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart?

A) 1.0
B) 0.5
C) 0.866
D) 0.0

156. On a direct Mercator projection, the. distance measured between two meridians spaced 5° apart
at latitude 60° N is 8 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60° N is approximately:

A) 1 : 4 750 000
B) 1 : 6 000 000
C) 1 : 3 500 000
D) 1 : 7 000 000

157. On an Oblique Mercator, scale is correct and constant:

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A) along the Central Meridian.

B) along the parallel of origin,
C) at the Equator.
D) at the False Equator

158. The constant of cone of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.3955. At what latitude on
the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?

A) 68° 25
B) 21° 35
C) 23° 18
D) 66° 42

159. On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of the Equator, parallels of latitude appear as:

A) straight lines.
B) hyperbolic lines.
C) parabolas.
D) ellipses.

160. Track = 090 (T), TAS = 460 knots, W/V = 360 (T) / 100, Variation = 10 E, Deviation = -2.
What is compass heading and groundspeed?

A) 070 455 knots

B) 068 460 knots
C) 079 470 knots
D) 069 450 knots

161. Given: Position A is N00° E100° , Position B is 240° (T), 200 NM from A. What is the position of
B?

A) S01° 40 E101° 40
B) N01° 40 E101° 40
C) N01° 40 E097° 07
D) S01° 40 E097° 07

162. Given: True course A to B = 250° Distance A to B = 315 NM TAS = 450 kt. W/V = 200° /60kt.
ETD A = 0650 UTC. What is the ETA at B?

A) 0716 UTC.
B) 0736 UTC.
C) 0730 UTC.
D) 0810 UTC.

163. An aircraft is climbing at a constant CAS in ISA conditions. What will be the effect on TAS and
Mach No?

A) TAS increases and Mach No decreases.

B) Both decrease.
C) TAS decreases and Mach No increases.
D) Both increase.

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164. Using mental navigation, the local speed of sound may be found using the following equation:

A) LSS = TAS + Mach number x TATc

B) LSS = 333 x TAS/Mach number
C) LSS = 644 + 1,2 TATc
D) LSS = 735 - 1,05 TATc

165. You are flying from A (50N 10W) to B (58N 02E). If Inital Great Circle track is 047° T what is
Final Great Circle track?

A) 29°
B) 52°
C) 43°
D) 57°

166. The rhumb-line distance between points A (60° 00N 002° 30E) and B (60° 00N 007° 30W) is:

A) 600 NM.
B) 150 NM.
C) 450 NM.
D) 300 NM

167. An aircraft leaves 0° N/S 45° W and flies due south for 10 hours at a speed of 540 kts. What is
its position as a true bearing from the south pole?

A) 60° T
B) 000° T
C) 30° T
D) 45° T

168. An aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and is over a stretch of water between 2 airfields 500 nm
apart. If the wind component is 60 knots head, what is the distance from the first airfield to the critical
point?

A) 250 nm.
B) 280 nm.
C) 200 nm.
D) 300 nm.

169. Given the following: True track: 192° Magnetic variation: 7° E Drift angle: 5° left What is the
magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?

A) 180°
B) 194°
C) 190°
D) 204°

170. The ICAO definition of ETA is the:

A) estimated time of arrival at destination.

B) estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix.
C) actual time of arrival at a point or fix.
D) estimated time en route.

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171. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to the right. If the
initial heading was 135° , after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass should read:

A) 225°
B) more than 225°
C) more or less than 225° depending on the pendulous suspension used
D) less than 225°
172. What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between meridians 010° E
and 030° W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?

A) 1 HR 45 MIN.
B) 5 HR 00 MIN.
C) 1 HR 15 MIN.
D) 2 HR 30 MIN.

173. What is the distance in kilometres from 49° S 180° E/W to 58° S 180º E/W?

A) 621 km.
B) 540 km.
C) 1000 km.
D) 1112 km

174. Heading is 156° T, TAS is 320 knots, W/V is 130° /45. What is your true track?

A) 222
B) 152
C) 160
D) 104

175. An aircraft departs from position A (04° 10 S 178° 22 W) and flies northward following the
meridian for 2950 NM.
It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 382 NM to position B. The coordinates of
position B are?

A) 53° 20 N 172° 38 E
B) 45° 00 N 172° 38 E
C) 53° 20 N 169° 22 W
D) 45° 00 N 169° 22 W

176. An aircraft passes position A (60° 00N 120° 00W) on route to position B (60° 00N 140° 30W).
What is the great circle track on departure from A?

A) 270° .
B) 279° .
C) 261° .
D) 288° .

177. You are flying from A(30S 20E) to B (30S 20E). What is the RL track from A to B?

A) 300° (T)
B) 290° (T)
C) 250° (T)
D) 270° (T)

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178. An aircraft leaves 0° N/S 45° W and flies due south for 10 hours at a speed of 540 kts. What is
its position?

A) South pole.
B) 30° S
C) 45° S
D) North pole.
179. You are flying from A(30S 20E) to B (30S 20E). What is the initial GC track?

A) 270° (T)
B) 290° (T)
C) 300° (T)
D) 260° (T)

180. Construct the triangle of velocities on a piece of paper, showing the following data: TH 305, TAS
135 Kt, W/V 230/40, Period of time from 1130 to 1145. What is the GS in this period of time?

A) 145 Kt
B) 135 Kt
C) 130 Kt
D) 97 Kt

181. The rhumb line track between position A (45° 00N, 010° 00W) and position B (48° 30N, 015°
00W) is approximately:

A) 315
B) 330
C) 345
D) 300

182. What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?

A) -81° C
B) -50° C
C) -56° C
D) -66° C

183. Given the following: Magnetic heading: 060° Magnetic variation: 8° W Drift angle: 4° right What
is the true track?

A) 048°
B) 072°
C) 064°
D) 056°

184. A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne weather
radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic variation is 15° East, the true
bearing of the aircraft from the feature is:

A) 310°
B) 130°
C) 220°
D) 160°

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185. An island appears 60° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is
the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a
magnetic heading (MH) of 276° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 10° E?

A) 086°
B) 226°
C) 046°
D) 026°
186. What do you understand by the term white-out?

A) Flight conditions when you suddenly enter a cloud and all get white outside the cockpit windows.
B) Flying in heavy snow.
C) Taking off from a snow-covered lake.
D) When the terrain is covered with snow and the horizon blend with the sky, visual visual
determination of height becoming difficult.

187. During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an aircraft. The time
between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:

A) position.
B) drift.
C) groundspeed.
D) track.

188. An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120° (M) and
the magnetic variation 17° W. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island?

A) 088°
B) 268°
C) 122°
D) 302°

189. Under which circumstances will an aircrafts radius of action be greatest?

A) Direct tail wind outbound.

B) Direct cross wind outbound.
C) Direct head wind outbound.
D) Wind at 45° to track.

190. An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What
is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a
magnetic heading (MH) of 215° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21° W?

A) 329°
B) 101°
C) 239°
D) 059°

191. An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What
is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a
magnetic heading (MH) of 355° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 15° E?

A) 130°
B) 160°

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C) 190°
D) 220°

192. You are flying a VFR route and have become uncertain of your position. Which is the best course
of action?

A) Turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you recognised
before.
B) Set heading towards a line feature - coastline, river, or motorway.
C) Turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base.
D) Fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till you find your next check point.

193. An island is observed to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120° (M), variation 17° (W).
The bearing ° (T) from the aircraft to the island is:

A) 268
B) 302
C) 122
D) 088

194. A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 MIN later on a relative
bearing of 270° . The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt. What is the minimum distance between the
aircraft and the ground feature?

A) 3 NM.
B) 6 NM.
C) 12 NM.
D) 9 NM.

195. An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of
descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at
which descent should start is:

A) 79 NM.
B) 69 NM.
C) 49 NM.
D) 59 NM.

196. Given: ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG, GS = 150 kt. What is the approximate rate of descent?

A) 350 FT/MIN.
B) 300 FT/MIN.
C) 700 FT/MIN.
D) 875 FT/MIN.

197. A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME station: radial 180° +/- 1° , distance =
200 NM. What is the approximate error?

A) +/- 3.5 NM.

B) +/- 1 NM.
C) +/- 2 NM.
D) +/- 7 NM.

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198. There are two NDB’ s, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming
that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in
a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:

A) greater from the beacon that is. 50 NM inland.

B) greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland.
C) the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and 360° .
D) the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and 270° .

199. RIX (N56° 53.8 E023° 58.0) 164° (RMI)/ 48 NM DME. The position of the aircraft is:

A) 57° 50N 023° 38E

B) 57° 42N 023° 50E
C) 57° 48N 023° 43E
D) 57° 42N 023° 40E

200. A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and five minutes later on a relative
bearing of 280° .
The aircraft heading was 165° (M), variation 25° W, drift 10° Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative
bearing was 280° , the distance and true bearing of the aircraft from the feature was:

A) 30 NM and 240° .
B) 40 NM and 110° .
C) 40 NM and 290° .
D) 30 NM and 060° .

201. What is the average magnetic track and distance between Kerry NDB ( KER, 5211N 00932W) and
Carnmore NDB (CRN, 5318N 00856W)?

A) 017 70 nm.
B) 205 71 nm.
C) 025 70 nm.
D) 197 71 nm.

202. An aircraft leaves A at 1400, flying at Mach 0.84 (OAT – 58° C). The ETA B is 1436 and the
distance between A and B is 300 nm. At what time must a speed adjustment be made if the arrival
time is changed to 1438:

A) 1425.5
B) 1426.5
C) 1428.5
D) 1427.5

203. Given: Distance A to B is 100 NM, Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of course. What
heading alteration must be made to reach B?

A) 15° Right.
B) 18° Right.
C) 6° Right.
D) 9° Right.

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204. The resultant of the first integration from the north/south accelerometer of an inertial navigation
system (INS) in the NAV MODE is:

A) velocity along the local meridian.

B) groundspeed.
C) change latitude.
D) latitude.

205. An INS platform is kept at right angles to local gravity by applying corrections for the effects of:

i. Aircraft manoeuvres
ii. earth rotation
iii. transport wander
iv. Coriolis
v. gyroscopic inertia

A) ii, iii and iv

B) i, iii and v
C) ii, iii and v
D) ii, iv and v

206. IRS differs from INS in that it:

A) does not need to correct for Coriolis and central acceleration.

B) has a longer spin-up time and is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity.
C) has a shorter spin-up time and suffers from laser lock.
D) does not experience Schuler errors as accelerometers are strapped down and are not rotated by a
V/R feedback loop.

207. In an IRS:

A) accelerometers and platform are both gyro-stabilised.

B) the accelerometers are strapped down but the platform is gyro stabilised.
C) accelerometers and platform are both strapped down.
D) the platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro-stabilised.

208. The principle of Schuler Tuning as applied to the operation of Inertial Navigation Systems Inertial
Reference Systems is applicable to:

A) only to strapdown laser gyro systems.

B) only gyro-stabilised systems.
C) both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when operating in the non strapdown mode.
D) both gyro-stabilised platform and strapdown systems.

209. In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a pendulous system, an aircraft inertial platform
incorporates a device:

A) with damping and a period of 84.4 MIN.

B) without damping and a period of 84.4 SEC.
C) with damping and a period of 84.4 SEC.
D) without damping and a period of 84.4 MIN.

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210. One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending
towards zero when a phenomenon known as lock-in is experienced. What is the name of the
technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used to correct this error?

A) Beam lock.
B) Zero drop.
C) Cavity rotation.
D) Dither.

211. Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as strapdown. This means that:

A) only the gyros ,and not the accelerometers, become part of the units fixture to the aircraft
structure.
B) the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the units fixture to the aircraft structure.
C) gyros, and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraft.
D) gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference.

212. What additional information is required to be input to an Inertial Navigation System (INS) in
order to obtain an W/V readout?

A) IAS.
B) TAS.
C) Altitude and OAT.
D) Mach Number.

213. What measurement is used to carry out alignment of an Inertial Navigation System?

A) Acceleration sensed by the north gyro horizontal accelerometer.

B) Acceleration sensed by the north gyro vertical accelerometer.
C) Acceleration sensed by the east gyro horizontal accelerometer.
D) Difference in magnitude of the value of gravity compared with the gravity at the last known
position.

RADIO NAVIGATION
214. An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 Relative. The alteration of heading
required to intercept the 120 track inbound to the NDB at 50° is:

A) 030° Right.
B) 050° Right.
C) 040° Right.
D) 020° Right.

215. The MF band extends from:

A) 300 to 3000 KHz.

B) 30 to 300 KHz.
C) 3 to 30 KHz.
D) 100 to 1000 KHz.

216. What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a service to an aircraft
at FL080?

A) 114 nm

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B) 107 nm
C) 134 nm
D) 91 nm

217. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a RF signal:

A) the magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.

B) the plane of polarisation is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter.
C) both the electrical and magnetic components are parralel to the aerial.
D) the electrical component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.

218. A VDF bearing Class A should be accurate to within:

A) ± 2°
B) ± 10°
C) ± 20°
D) ± 5°

219. A pilot wishes to obtain the magnetic bearing of his aircraft from a VDF station. Which of the
following terms would he use:

A) QDR
B) QDM
C) QTE
D) QGH

220. The maximum theoretical range at which a VHF signal will be received by an aircraft flying at FL
200, assuming that the transmitter is sited at 860 ft amsl, and that there is no intervening high
ground:

A) 144 nm.
B) 213 nm.
C) 170 nm.
D) 180 nm.

221. Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?

A) It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft.

B) It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft.
C) It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in the aircraft or
on the ground.
D) It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC.

222. Ground direction finding at aerodromes utilises which frequencies?

A) VHF at civil aerodromes and VHF at military aerodromes.

B) UHF at civil aerodromes and VHF at military aerodromes
C) UHF at civil aerodromes and UHF at military aerodromes.
D) VHF at civil aerodromes and UHF at military aerodromes.

223. What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could receive
information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?

A) 120 NM

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B) 180 NM
C) 150 NM
D) 220 NM

224. Of two sinusoidal waves of the same amplitude and frequency, Wave A is passing zero going
negative when Wave B is at maximum positive. Which of the following statements accurately
describes this situation

A) wave A leads wave B by 90° .

B) wave A leads wave B by 270° .
C) wave A leads wave B by 180° .
D) wave A leads wave B by 360° .

225. In an amplitude modulated signal, the amplitude of the carrier wave will:

A) vary according to the phase of the modulating signal.

B) vary according to the frequency of the modulating signal.
C) vary according to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
D) remain constant, and the frequency will vary according to the amplitude of the modulating signal

226. To estabilish and maintain effective HF communications the frequency used at a given range:

A) should only be varied by season, decreased in summer and increased in winter.

B) should be decreased at night.
C) should remain constant.
D) should be increased at night.

227. For a given set of ionospheric conditions, as the frequency of an HF signal is increased:

A) the size of the dead space increases because the surface wave coverage decreases, and the
minimum skip distance increases.
B) the size of the dead space increases due solely to the decreasing minimum skip distance.
C) the size of the dead space increases due solely to the increasing minimum skip distance.
D) the size of the dead space decreases because the surface wave coverage decreases, and the
minimum skip distance decreases.

228. The phase difference between the reference and variable signals on QDM 050° (VAR 10° W) for a
conventional VOR is:

A) 050°
B) 230°
C) 220°
D) 040°

229. The emission characteristics A3E describe:

A) HF communications.
B) VOR
C) VHF communications.
D) ILS.

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230. In the MF frequency band:

A) skywaves are more common by day than by night.

B) ducting is a common phenomena.
C) reasonable reception is restricted to line of sight range.
D) skywaves are more common by night than by day.

231. The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by:

A) time of day.
B) type of surface.
C) intensity of ionisation.
D) height of aircraft.

232. A VDF bearing can be obtain:

A) on the frequency agreed between the pilot and ATC but chosen from one of the available ATC
frequencies.
B) on the Approach frequency.
C) on the frequency notified for VDF services.
D) only on a frequency of 121,5 Mhz.

232. What is QTE?

A) Magnetic track from the station.

B) True track to the station.
C) True track from station.
D) Magnetic track to the station.

233. Around a radiating transmitter aerial there is:

A) a field of equal ionisation.

B) an electrical field.
C) a magnetic field.
D) an electrical and magnetic field.

234. A radio wave increases speed when crossing the coast, leaving the land and passing over the sea.
When this happens:

A) the frequency increases..

B) the wavelength changes.
C) no change in either.
D) the frequency changes.

235. f the (i) of a radio wave is (ii) then the skip distance will (iii) and the dead space will (iv):

A) (i) frequency; (ii) decrease; (iii) increase; (iv) decrease

B) (i) wavelength; (ii) decrease; (iii) increase; (iv) decrease
C) (i) wavelength; (ii) increase; (iii) increase; (iv) increase
D) (i) frequency; (ii) increase; (iii) increase; (iv) increase

236. Ground responders respond at a frequency:

A) 63 MHz grader than interrogation frequency.

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B) 63 MHz lower than interrogation frequency.

C) 63 MHz different from interrogation frequency, either above or below.
D) the same as the interrogation signal.

237. The rate of attenuation of a radio wave which occurs when the wave travels close to the Earths
surface.

A) decreases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the sea than the land.
B) increases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the land than the sea.
C) decreases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the land than the sea.
D) increases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the sea than the land.

238. What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the
tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL

A) FL 50
B) FL 60
C) FL 100
D) FL 80

239. Which of the following statements is true?

A) A narrow bandwidth improves beam width.

B) A broad bandwidth gives a narrow beam width.
C) Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce noise.
D) A transmissions bandwidth is affected by the design of the aerial.

240. The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 mm is:

A) 2.5 GHz
B) 25 GHz
C) 25 MHz
D) 2.5 MHz

241. Abnormal long ranges may be experienced on VDF channels, caused by:

A) Efficient VDF antennas.

B) Super refraction of signals in the atmosphere.
C) The VDF station using a relay station for communication to the aircraft.
D) Intermodulation with signals on frequencies close to the one used by the VDF station.

242. A VDF bearing category B should be accurate to within:

A) ± 10°
B) ± 20°
C) ± 2°
D) ± 5°

243. With reference to VDF, the true bearing of an aircraft from a ground station is:

A) QDM
B) QUJ
C) QDR
D) QTE

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244. For a given HF frequency skip distance will normally:

A) be greater by day than by night.

B) have no diurnal variation.
C) be less by night than by day.
D) be greater by night than by day.

245. When two separate frequencies are mixed together the resultants are the sum and also the
difference between the frequencies. This process is called:

A) transponding.
B) hydro-phasing.
C) frequency modulation.
D) heterodyning.

246. The maximum theoretical range at which a UHF transmission can be received by an aircraft flying
at FL 200, assuming the UHF station is at a height of 860 ft amsl is:

A) 180 nm
B) 170 nm
C) 144 nm
D) 213 nm

247. Diffraction of a RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to:

A) reflection from the surface.

B) passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength.
C) passing through ionised regions of the upper atmosphere.
D) passing over or though mediums of different conductivity.

248. Which of the following does NOT affect the accuracy of VDF bearings:

A) sky waves.
B) synchronous transmissions.
C) duct propagation.
D) ground reflections.

249. The rate of refraction of a radio wave which occurs within the ionosphere:

A) increases as the frequency of the radio wave increases.

B) is constant regardless of the frequency involved.
C) is greater at night.
D) decreases as the frequency of the radio wave increases.

250. You are at an altitude of 9.000 feet. At a range of 200nm from a VHF communications
transmitter, and you are receiving a good signal.

A) You should have been receiving the signal from a range of 240 nm.
B) You are probably receiving a duct propagation signal.
C) You are probably receiving a sky wave signal.
D) You should expect this since the transmitter is at a height of 2.000 feet.

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251. The frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 3.5 cm is:

A) 8.57 MHz.
B) 857 MHz.
C) 85.7 MHz.
D) 8.57 GHz.

252. In sky wave propagation the distance between the end of the surface wave and the first returning
sky wave is called the:

A) maximum usable range.

B) skip distance.
C) dead space.
D) minimum theoretical range.

253. What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be
flown?

A) VOR/DME
B) VHF radio
C) none
D) VOR

254. A half wave dipole aerial suitable for transmitting an RF signal at 18 MHz should have an effective
length of:

A) 166,67 metres.
B) 16,67 metres.
C) 83,33 metres.
D) 8,33 metres.

255. At a height 5.000 feet you might expect to receive a VHF signal, from a transmitter at sea level,
at a range of:

A) 88,4 nm
B) 88,4 km
C) 70,7 nm
D) 200 km

256. A Class A magnetic bearing from a VDF station will be a ... with an accuracy of ...

A) QDR; ± 2° .
B) QDM; ± 2° .
C) QDM; ± 5° .
D) QDR; ± 5° .

257. A radio aid has a wavelength of 2.4 m. The frequency is:

A) 125 MHz
B) 72 MHz
C) 12.5 MHz
D) 720 MHz

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258. A frequency of 295 KHz would be described as:

A) LF.
B) MF.
C) short wave.
D) HF.

259. f, when you are requesting a QDM from an airfield, you are offered a QGH, it means:

A) the VDF service will be handled by a different VDF unit, operating on the same frequency.
B) the VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield, based on VDF
bearings.
C) the bearing will only be accurate when the aircraft is flying above the QGH level.
D) the service will be limited to bearings, no positions will be given by the DF station.

260. With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station is a:

A) QDM.
B) QTE.
C) QUJ.
D) QDR.

261. VDF for aeronautical use provides service in the frequency band:

A) 130 - 300 MHz

B) 108 - 118 MHz
C) 118 - 137 MHz
D) 108 - 136 MHz

262. The total length of a half-wave dipole designed to operate on 100 MHz would be:

A) 285 cm.
B) 142.5 cm.
C) 1.5 m.
D) 0.95 m.

263. A signal with a wavelength of 7360 m lies in the:

A) LF band.
B) MF band.
C) VLF band.
D) HF band.

264. A radio signal which is modulated in a manner described as A3E is likely to be used for:

A) HF telegraphy.
B) VHF voice communication.
C) LF/MF radio navigation (NDB).
D) a pulsed radar system.

265. In radio terms, frequency means:

A) the speed of radio waves in metres per second.

B) the length of a complete waveform in metres.

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C) the number of complete waveforms passing a spot in one second.

D) the number of waveforms in one hour.

266. A frequency of 305 KHz would be described as:

A) MF.
B) Short Wave.
C) LF.
D) HF.

267. VLF surface waves achieve greater range than LF surface waves because:

A) VLF diffraction and attenuation are greater.

B) VLF diffraction is less and attenuation is greater.
C) VLF diffraction is greater and attenuation is less.
D) VLF diffraction and attenuation are less.

268. The maximum theoretical range that an aircraft flying at 14.400 ft can receive signals from a VHF
station (400 ft amsl) is:

A) 72.5 nm.
B) 203 nm.
C) 152 nm.
D) 175 nm.

269. The indicator of the ground VDF equipment responds to:

A) The signal being reflected from the aircraft.

B) The voice modulated signal transmitted by the aircraft.
C) The carrier wave received.
D) The identification transmitted from the aircraft.

270. A radar set with a wavelength of 10 cm lies within which of the following frequency bands:

A) SHF
B) EHF
C) VHF
D) HF

271. A radar set with a wavelength of 10 cm lies within which of the following frequency bands:

A) SHF
B) EHF
C) VHF
D) HF

272. As a radio signal increases in frequency, ionospheric refraction ... and atmospheric attenuation...

A) decreases; decreases.
B) increases; decreases.
C) decreases; increases.
D) increases; increases.

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273. Which of the following is an advantage of VDF?

A) Only a VHF radio is needed in the aircraft.

B) It is pilot interpreted, so ATC is not required.
C) No equipment required in the aircraft.
D) No special equipment required in the aircraft or on the ground.

274. An aircraft travelling at 330 metres a second transmits a signal at 10 GHz to a stationary
receiver. If the aircraft is flying directly towards the receiver and they are approximately at the same
height the received frequency will be:

A) 9,999989 GHz
B) 11 GHz
C) 11 MHz
D) 10,000011 GHz

275. When conducting a QGH approach responsibility for interpreting the procedure rests with ... and
on a VDF approach responsibility rests with...

A) the pilot; the controller.

B) the pilot; the pilot.
C) the controller; the controller.
D) the controller; the pilot.

276. In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to
fix an aircrafts position?

A) On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary.

B) When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz.
C) When contacting ATC to join controlled airspace from the open FIR.
D) When declaring an emergency on any frequency.

277. Skywaves are not likely to occur by day or night in which of the following frequency bands:

A) MF.
B) LF.
C) VHF.
D) HF

278. A horizontally polarised signal would be best received by an aerial which is:

A) the plane of the aerial does not matter.

B) vertical.
C) horizontal.
D) horizontal or vertical.

279. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground
VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:

A) 107 NM.
B) 114 NM.
C) 134 NM.
D) 158 NM.

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280. An aircraft heading 130° (M) has an ADF reading of 190° Relative. The heading to steer to
intercept the 170° track outbound from the NDB at 30º is:

A) 220° (M)
B) 200° (M)
C) 190° (M)
D) 210° (M)

281. An aircraft is maintaining track outbound from an NDB with a constant relative bearing of 184° .
To return to the NDB the relative bearing to maintain is:

A) 004°
B) 356° .
C) 000° .
D) 184°

282. Consider the following statements on the NDB transmitter:

A) It is operating in the MF/HF band.

B) To overcome the limitations caused by line of sight propagation, high-power transmitters must be
used.
C) In Europe, most NDBs operate in the frequency band 455 - 1750 kHz.
D) It is very simple, being required to transmit only a carrier wave and an identification.

283. At 1000 Z an aircraft is overhead NB PE enroute to NDB CN, Track 075(M), Heading 082(M) At
1029 Z NDB PE bears 176 Relative and NDB CN bears 353 Relative. The heading to steer at 1029 Z to
reach NDB CN is:

A) 079(M)
B) 081(M)
C) 078(M)
D) 0082(M)

284. The basic information given by the ADF is:

A) The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB.

B) The relative bearing from the aircraft to the NDB.
C) The magnetic direction of the loop aerial with reference to the sense aerial.
D) The true great circle track from the NDB to the aircraft.

285. The purpose of the BFO switch on the ADF receiver is to:

A) attenuate the received signal.

B) make the signal audible.
C) cut out the static noise.
D) improve the strength of the received signal.

286. When using NDBs night effect is most likely to be greatest at:

A) dawn or dusk.
B) night.
C) dusk.
D) awn.

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287. With regard to the following types of NDB which statements is correct?

A) Locators have 200 W power, 50 nm range and are NON A2A.

B) Locators have 15 W power, 10-25 nm range and are NON A2A.
C) Locators have 5000 W power, 50 nm range and are NON A2A.
D) Locators have 5000 W power, 50 nm range and are NON A1A.

288. The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075° (T), Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right. The relative bearing
to maintained on the radio compass to reach GDV is

A) 007 Relative.
B) 000 Relative.
C) 183 Relative,
D) 353 Relative.

289. An aircraft heading 040° (M) has an ADF reading of 060° ;Relative is to intercept the 120° (M)
track inbound to an NDB at 50° . The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception is:

A) 080 Relative.
B) 060 Relative.
C) 070 Relative.
D) 050 Relative.

290. Variations of signal strength in NDB receivers known as fading indicates the presence of:

A) reflection from thunderstorms.

B) night effect.
C) mountain or terrain effect.
D) coastal refraction.

291. An aircraft heading 100° (M) has an ADF reading of 210° Relative. The alteration of heading
required to intercept the 340° track inbound to the NDB at 60° is:

A) 180 Left.
B) 170 Left.
C) 180 Left or Right.
D) 170 Right.

292. The D layer of the ionosphere affects the accuracy of NDB bearings:

A) never.
B) by day only.
C) by day and night.
D) by night only.

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293. Both the VOR (single pointer) and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The
indications from both are shown on the RMI shown below. Which of the following statements is
correct:

A) the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB.
B) the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB.
C) the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB.
D) the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB.

294. An ADF uses a sense aerial to:

A) resolve ambiguous bearings.

B) transmit the beacon ident.
C) determine the null position.
D) detect the receiver test signal.

295. Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:

A) height error - station interference - mountain effect.

B) static interference - station interference - latitude error.
C) coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect.
D) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system.

296. The heading read on a standard RMI is:

A) The True heading.

B) The compass heading.
C) The relative heading.
D) The magnetic heading.

297. An aircraft heading 200° (M) has an ADF reading of 160° Relative is to intercept the 150° (M)
track outbound from an NDB at 30° . The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception
is:

A) 210 Relative.
B) 220 Relative.
C) 230 Relative.

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D) 240 Relative.

298. The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is ... allowing a maximum error of ... on 95% of occasions
during ...

A) 3/1, ± 5 degrees, 24 hours.

B) 5/1, ± 3 degrees, daylight hours only.
C) 5/1, ± 3 degrees, 24 hours.
D) 3/1, ± 5 degrees, daylight hours only.

299. What is the role of a ground direction finder?

A) To map airfields.
B) To assist planners in the construction of airfield approaches.
C) To all ground movements.
D) To aid pilot navigation.

300. A long range NDB is likely to transmit on ... and be classified as … Select the answer to complete
this statement.

A) 200 KHz; A2A.

B) 200 KHz; A1A.
C) 800 KHz; A1A.
D) 800 KHz; A2A.

301. Some ADFs have a bandwidth control. Consider the following statements:

A) Broad or wide bandwidth should be selected when listening to music or voice.

B) Broad or wide bandwidth should be used when static from CBs is experienced.
C) Narrow bandwidth should be selected for listening to voice or music.
D) Broad or wide bandwidth should be selected when listening to any NDB for its identification.

302. An aircraft over the sea is receiving a signal from an NDB 50nm from the coast and another from
an NDB 20nm from the coast. Which of the following statements is most correct?

A) The bearing information from the beacon 20nm inland would be most correct.
B) The bearing information from the beacon 50nm inland would be most correct.
C) The bearing information from relative bearings of 90° and 270° would be most correct.
D) The bearing information from relative bearings of 360° and 180° would be most correct.

303. The maximum errors when using an ADF bearing will occur in the position of NDB ... and angle of
cut at the coast...

A) on the coast; 45°

B) on the coast; 90°
C) inland; 90°
D) inland; 45°

304. Which of the following equipments does not have a system to warn the pilot that it is inoperative:

A) VOR
B) ADF
C) DME
D) ILS

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306. The BFO:

A) is used to make the ident from an A2A NDB audible.

B) is used to make the ident from an A1A NDB audible.
C) creates the audio ident for an NDB.
D) is used to determine the signal strength of an NDB.

307. An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 Relative. The heading to steer to intercept
the 120° track inbound to the NDB at 50° is:

A) 050(M)
B) 060(M)
C) 070(M)
D) 080(M)

308. Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations?

A) Night effect, station interference and latitude error.

B) Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system.
C) Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect.
D) Night effect, station interference and lack of a failure warning system.

309. An NDB signal crossing from land to sea will ... speed and bend ... the normal.

A) increase, away from.

B) decrease, away from.
C) decrease, towards.
D) increase, towards.

310. An aeroplanes RMI shows an NDB bearing 070° , w/v calm. The aeroplane is to join a right hand
holding pattern at the NDB, the inbound leg of which is 330° . The aeroplane should:

A) fly to the NDB then fly outbound on 150° for 1 minute, then turn left to point directly at the NDB
joining the pattern overhead.
B) fly to the NDB then fly a teardrop with an outbound heading of 120° for 1 minute and a rate one
turn to join in bound.
C) fly to the NDB then fly choose either B) or C) above as preferred.
D) fly to the NDB and join the pattern.

311. An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:

A) bi-lobal circular.
B) omnidirectional.
C) a beam rotating at 30 Hz.
D) a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz.

312. The D layer in the ionosphere causes … errors by day for an NDB system and … errors by night
for a VOR system:

A) no; no
B) maximum; no
C) no; maximum
D) maximum; maximum

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313. Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?

A) 200 - 1750 kHz.

B) 255 - 455 kHz.
C) 300 - 3000 kHz.
D) 200 - 2000 kHz.

314. An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 Relative. The alteration of heading
required to intercept the 120 track inbound to the NDB at 50° is:

A) 020° Right.
B) 050° Right.
C) 030° Right.
D) 040° Right.

315. The MF band extends from:

A) 3 to 30 KHz.
B) 100 to 1000 KHz.
C) 300 to 3000 KHz.
D) 30 to 300 KHz.

316. What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a service to an aircraft
at FL080?

A) 114 nm
B) 134 nm
C) 107 nm
D) 91 nm

317. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a RF signal:

A) the electrical component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.

B) the plane of polarisation is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter.
C) the magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
D) both the electrical and magnetic components are parralel to the aerial

318. A VDF bearing Class A should be accurate to within:

A) ± 20°
B) ± 2°
C) ± 10°
D) ± 5°

319. A pilot wishes to obtain the magnetic bearing of his aircraft from a VDF station. Which of the
following terms would he use:

A) QDR
B) QGH
C) QDM
D) QTE

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320. The maximum theoretical range at which a VHF signal will be received by an aircraft flying at FL
200, assuming that the transmitter is sited at 860 ft amsl, and that there is no intervening high
ground:

A) 170 nm.
B) 180 nm.
C) 144 nm.
D) 213 nm

321. Of two sinusoidal waves of the same amplitude and frequency, Wave A is passing zero going
negative when Wave B is at maximum positive. Which of the following statements accurately
describes this situation

A) wave A leads wave B by 360° .

B) wave A leads wave B by 90° .
C) wave A leads wave B by 270° .
D) wave A leads wave B by 180°

322. In an amplitude modulated signal, the amplitude of the carrier wave will:

A) remain constant, and the frequency will vary according to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
B) vary according to the frequency of the modulating signal.
C) vary according to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
D) vary according to the phase of the modulating signal.

323. To estabilish and maintain effective HF communications the frequency used at a given range:

A) should remain constant.

B) should only be varied by season, decreased in summer and increased in winter.
C) should be increased at night.
D) should be decreased at night.

324. For a given set of ionospheric conditions, as the frequency of an HF signal is increased:

A) the size of the dead space increases because the surface wave coverage decreases, and the
minimum skip distance increases.
B) the size of the dead space increases due solely to the decreasing minimum skip distance.
C) the size of the dead space increases due solely to the increasing minimum skip distance.
D) the size of the dead space decreases because the surface wave coverage decreases, and the
minimum skip distance decreases.

325. The phase difference between the reference and variable signals on QDM 050° (VAR 10° W) for a
conventional VOR is:

A) 230°
B) 050°
C) 040°
D) 220°

326. The emission characteristics A3E describe:

A) VOR
B) ILS.
C) VHF communications.

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D) HF communications.

327. In the MF frequency band:

A) skywaves are more common by day than by night.

B) ducting is a common phenomena.
C) skywaves are more common by night than by day.
D) reasonable reception is restricted to line of sight range.

328. The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by:

A) height of aircraft.
B) type of surface.
C) time of day.
D) intensity of ionisation.

329. A VDF bearing can be obtain:

A) on the frequency agreed between the pilot and ATC but chosen from one of the available ATC
frequencies.
B) on the Approach frequency.
C) on the frequency notified for VDF services.
D) only on a frequency of 121,5 Mhz.

330. What is QTE?

A) True track from station.
B) True track to the station.
C) Magnetic track from the station.
D) Magnetic track to the station.

331. Around a radiating transmitter aerial there is:

A) a magnetic field.
B) an electrical field.
C) an electrical and magnetic field.
D) a field of equal ionisation.

332. A radio wave increases speed when crossing the coast, leaving the land and passing over the sea.
When this happens:

A) the frequency increases..

B) no change in either.
C) the frequency changes.
D) the wavelength changes.

333. If the (i) of a radio wave is (ii) then the skip distance will (iii) and the dead space will (iv):

A) (i) wavelength; (ii) decrease; (iii) increase; (iv) decrease

B) (i) frequency; (ii) increase; (iii) increase; (iv) increase
C) (i) frequency; (ii) decrease; (iii) increase; (iv) decrease
D) (i) wavelength; (ii) increase; (iii) increase; (iv) increase

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334. Ground responders respond at a frequency:

A) 63 MHz different from interrogation frequency, either above or below.

B) the same as the interrogation signal.
C) 63 MHz grader than interrogation frequency.
D) 63 MHz lower than interrogation frequency.

335. The rate of attenuation of a radio wave which occurs when the wave travels close to the Earths
surface.

A) decreases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the sea than the land.
B) increases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the land than the sea.
C) increases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the sea than the land.
D) decreases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the land than the sea.

336. What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the
tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL

A) FL 100
B) FL 80
C) FL 60
D) FL 50

337. Which of the following statements is true?

A) A narrow bandwidth improves beam width.

B) A broad bandwidth gives a narrow beam width.
C) A transmissions bandwidth is affected by the design of the aerial.
D) Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce noise.

338. Abnormal long ranges may be experienced on VDF channels, caused by:

A) Super refraction of signals in the atmosphere.

B) The VDF station using a relay station for communication to the aircraft.
C) Efficient VDF antennas.
D) Intermodulation with signals on frequencies close to the one used by the VDF station.

339. A VDF bearing category B should be accurate to within:

A) ± 2°
B) ± 5°
C) ± 10°
D) ± 20°

340. With reference to VDF, the true bearing of an aircraft from a ground station is:

A) QUJ
B) QDR
C) QTE
D) QDM

341. For a given HF frequency skip distance will normally:

A) have no diurnal variation.

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B) be less by night than by day.

C) be greater by day than by night.
D) be greater by night than by day.

342. When two separate frequencies are mixed together the resultants are the sum and also the
difference between the frequencies. This process is called:

A) transponding.
B) frequency modulation.
C) hydro-phasing.
D) heterodyning.

343. Diffraction of a RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to:

A) passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength.

B) passing over or though mediums of different conductivity.
C) reflection from the surface.
D) passing through ionised regions of the upper atmosphere.

344. Which of the following does NOT affect the accuracy of VDF bearings:

A) sky waves.
B) ground reflections.
C) duct propagation.
D) synchronous transmissions.

345. The rate of refraction of a radio wave which occurs within the ionosphere:

A) increases as the frequency of the radio wave increases.

B) is greater at night.
C) is constant regardless of the frequency involved.
D) decreases as the frequency of the radio wave increases.

346. You are at an altitude of 9.000 feet. At a range of 200nm from a VHF communications
transmitter, and you are receiving a good signal.

A) You should expect this since the transmitter is at a height of 2.000 feet.
B) You are probably receiving a duct propagation signal.
C) You should have been receiving the signal from a range of 240 nm.
D) You are probably receiving a sky wave signal.

347. In sky wave propagation the distance between the end of the surface wave and the first returning
sky wave is called the:

A) dead space.
B) minimum theoretical range.
C) skip distance.
D) maximum usable range.

348. What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be
flown?

A) VOR/DME
B) VOR

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C) VHF radio
D) none

349. A half wave dipole aerial suitable for transmitting an RF signal at 18 MHz should have an effective
length of:

A) 166,67 metres.
B) 8,33 metres.
C) 16,67 metres.
D) 83,33 metres.

350. At a height 5.000 feet you might expect to receive a VHF signal, from a transmitter at sea level,
at a range of:

A) 200 km
B) 88,4 nm
C) 88,4 km
D) 70,7 nm

351. Consider the following statements on the NDB transmitter:

A) To overcome the limitations caused by line of sight propagation, high-power transmitters must be
used.
B) In Europe, most NDBs operate in the frequency band 455 - 1750 kHz.
C) It is very simple, being required to transmit only a carrier wave and an identification.
D) It is operating in the MF/HF band.

352. At 1000 Z an aircraft is overhead NB PE enroute to NDB CN, Track 075(M), Heading 082(M) At
1029 Z NDB PE bears 176 Relative and NDB CN bears 353 Relative. The heading to steer at 1029 Z to
reach NDB CN is:

A) 078(M)
B) 081(M)
C) 0082(M)
D) 079(M)

353. The basic information given by the ADF is:

A) The relative bearing from the aircraft to the NDB.

B) The magnetic direction of the loop aerial with reference to the sense aerial.
C) The true great circle track from the NDB to the aircraft.
D) The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB.

354. When using NDBs night effect is most likely to be greatest at:

A) dusk.
B) awn.
C) night.
D) dawn or dusk.

355. The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075° (T), Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right. The relative bearing
to maintained on the radio compass to reach GDV is

A) 000 Relative.

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B) 183 Relative,
C) 007 Relative.
D) 353 Relative.

356. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:

A) at both the VOR and aircraft.

B) at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station.
C) at the aircraft location.
D) at the VOR.

357. The basic principle of operation of the VOR is by:

A) pulse difference between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal.

B) phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 63 Hz variable signal.
C) phase comparison between a 63 Hz reference signal and a 63 Hz variable signal.
D) phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal.

348. The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by:

A) phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a frequency modulated
variable signal.
B) phase comparison between a 108 Mhz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal.
C) phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an amplitude modulated
variable signal.
D) phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 108 Mhz variable signal.

349. An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270° (M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left
deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station:

A) NE
B) SE
C) NW
D) SW

350. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090° . From/To indicator
indicates TO. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?

A) 265
B) 095
C) 085
D) 275

351. For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090 deg would be achieved by flying ... from the
beacon.

A) north
B) east
C) south
D) west

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352. The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR:

A) Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR.
B) Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication.
C) Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR.
D) Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre the aircraft towards or
from the CDI needle.

353. If you correctly tuned in a VOT situated to your east, your RMI should read ... and your OBS
would read...

A) 090; 090 with needle central and TO indicated.

B) 000; 000 with needle central an TO indicated.
C) 090; 090 with needle central and FROM indicated.
D) 000; 000 with needle central and FROM indicated.

354. Using a VOR outside the DOC may result in interference from:

A) other aircraft.
B) skywaves.
C) ground waves.
D) other beacons.

355. In the DME system:

A) The aircraft equipment is called a transponder.

B) The channels are referred to as " X" channels paired with VORs and " Y" channels paired with ILS
localizers.
C) The operation is similar to a primary radar system.
D) The receive and the transmit frequency is always split by 63 MHz.

356. During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station
located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:

A) aeroplane is below the line of sight altitude.

B) aeroplane is circling around the station.
C) altitude is too high.
D) range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM.

357. An X channel DME transponder will not reply to a Y channel interrogation, because:

A) the interrogation and reply frequencies are 126 Mhz apart.

B) the x channel accepts three pulse interrogations only,
C) the spacing between the X and Y interrogation pulses is different.
D) the Y channel accepts three pulse interrogations only.

358. An aircraft will not accept replies from its own transmissions that are reflected from the ground
because the:

A) the aircrafts registration is embedded onto the signal.

B) random PRF which is unique to each transmitter.
C) interrogation and reply frequencies are 63 Mhz apart.
D) pulses are transmitted in pairs.

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359. If an ident signal is received once in 30 seconds on a frequency paired VOR/DME, then:

A) the TACAN signal is degraded.

B) the DME only is operational.
C) both facilities are operational.
D) the VOR only is operational.

360. When can an ILS back beam be received in the:

A) when flying in the area forward the localiser aerial

B) never.
C) only at installations where this facility exists.
D) when flying in the area behind the localiser aerial.

361. DME uses:

A) primary radar.
B) primary radar from the ground and secondary radar from the aircraft.
C) secondary radar.
D) primary radar from the aircraft and secondary radar from the ground.

362. What is the maximum distance apart, in metres, that an associated en-route VOR/DME can be
sited?

A) 600 m.
B) 30 m.
C) 2000 m.
D) 300 m.

363. DME distinguishes between its signals returning from the ground equipment and signals reflected
from the ground because:

A) they are differently modulated.

B) they are at different frequencies.
C) the time delay between transmitted and received signals is incorrect.
D) they carry a unique coding sequence.

364. What is the ILS Localizer frequency on the sample approach plate provided?

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A) 111.3 KHz
B) 332.5 MHz
C) 111.3 MHz
D) 332.5 KHz
(See the figure
below.)

365. From the approach plate provided, what is decision height for a Category B aircraft on the
straight-in ILS 26 approach?

A) 247 feet (See above figure)

B) 200 feet
C) 247 metres
D) 200 metres

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366. An aircraft is following the ILS glidepath of 3° at an airfield where the outer marker is 4.2 nm
from the ILS touchdown point. The aircraft approach speed is 130 kt. The height of the aircraft at the
outer marker should be:

A) 960 ft
B) 1200 ft
C) 1150 ft
D) 1310 ft

367. For reliable navigational information the approximate coverage of a 3° glideslope is:

A) 3° above and below the glidepath and 10° either side of the localiser.
B) 0.45° from the horizontal to 1.75° above the glidepath and 8° either side of the localiser.
C) 0.7° above and below the glidepath and 8° either side of the localiser.
D) 1.35° to 5.25° from the horizontal and 8° either side of the localiser.

368. The ILS glidepath is 2,8° . At what altitude above the threshold level is the upper limit of the
glide path coverage at a distance of 1,5 NM from the touchdown point?

A) 610 feet.
B) 865 feet.
C) 425 feet.
D) 745 feet.

369. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a
groundspeed of 120 kt?

A) 600 FT/MIN.
B) 800 FT/MIN.
C) 550 FT/MIN.
D) 950 FT/MIN.

370. Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit
display represent:

A) 0.5 degrees.
B) 2.5 degrees.
C) 2.0 degrees.
D) 1.5 degrees.

371. On a localizer the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz. Which of the following statements is
correct?

A) The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line.

B) When both modulations are received, the aeroplane will be on the centre line.
C) If the 150 Hz modulations predominates, the needle on the CDI moves to the right of centre.
D) The 90 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line.

372. An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the
approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:

A) will not normally receive signals.

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B) may receive false course indications.

C) can expect signals to give correct indications.
D) will receive signals without identification coding.

373. The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is:

A) 186,000
B) 161,842
C) 300,000
D) 163,842

374. or a parabolic reflector to make a narrow beam:

A) the antenna must rotate at a high speed.

B) the size of the antenna has only minor importance.
C) the size must be large compared to the wavelength.
D) the power from the transmitter must be evenly distributed on the antenna.

375. In a Cathode Ray Tube the grid is used to:

A) control the focus.

B) drain electrons from the tube.
C) deflect the electron stream to form a time-base.
D) control the brilliance.

376. sing a primary radar:

A) target size will influence the maximum range.

B) detection of targets in the area close to the radar will be difficult.
C) All 3 answers are correct.
D) precipitation may reduce the useful range.

377. The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is
pulse:

A) repetition rate.
B) length.
C) amplitude.
D) frequency.

378. A Primary radar operates on the principle of:

A) phase comparison.
B) transponder interrogation.
C) continuous wave transmission.
D) pulse technique.

379. The main factor which affects the maximum range of a pulse radar is:

A) the pulse repetition frequency.

B) the frequency of the radar transmission.
C) the size of the radar screen.
D) the aerial system size.

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380. Using primary radar, super refraction may play a role, because:

A) super refraction may cause the direct wave range to be considerably increased.
B) super refraction may cause shadows, in which no target will be observed.
C) other radar signals may be received due to super refraction of signals.
D) super refraction will cause a sort of night effect also on radar frequencies.

381. In a primary radar the maximum range requires:

A) Long PRI and high PRF.

B) High pulse effect and short PRI.
C) Short PRI and high PRF.
D) High pulse effect and long PRI.

382. The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:

A) size of parabolic receiver aerial.

B) power output.
C) height of the transmitter above the ground.
D) pulse recurrence rate.

383. A primary radar has a PRF of 500 pps. The maximum theoretical unambiguous range, ignoring all
other factors, is

A) 100 nm
B) 250 nm
C) 350 nm
D) 162 nm

384. Pulse width can be defined as:

A) the time difference from the start of one radar pulse to the start of the next pulse.
B) the duration of the pulse generally measured in microseconds.
C) the time that the radar is active.
D) the number of pulses per second.

385. What is the maximum theoretical range for a primary radar with a PRF of 324 pps?

A) 463 sm
B) 463 nm
C) 500 nm
D) 250 nm

386. The main advantage of a slotted scanner is:

A) reduces sidelobes and directs more energy into the main beam.
B) removes the need for azimuth slaving.
C) can produce simultaneous map and weather information.
D) sidelobe suppression.

387. Minimum useful range of a primary radar requires:

A) Short pulses and long PRI.

B) Short pulses.

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C) High PRF.
D) Long pulses and high PRI.

388. The minimum range of a radar with a pulse width of 1.5 micro/secs is:

A) 450 metres.
B) 450 ft.
C) 225 metres.
D) 225 ft.

389. If the PRF of a transmitter is stated as 500, the corresponding PRI is:

A) 2 microseconds.
B) 2 milliseconds.
C) 2 nanoseconds.
D) 2 picoseconds.

390. The advantages of CW radar systems over pulse radar systems are:

A) there is no minimum range.

B) they offer better long range performance.
C) the transmitter/receiver aerial system is smaller and less complex.
D) they are more reliable.

391. In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:

A) target discrimination.
B) maximum measurable range.
C) minimum measurable range.
D) beam width.

392. The interval in time between the commencement of two consecutive pulses is:

A) pulse recurrence frequency.

B) pulse width.
C) pulse rate.
D) pulse recurrence period.

393. The maximum theoretical range of a radar whose PRF is 750 is:

A) 200 nm.
B) 108 nm.
C) 132 nm.
D) 218 nm.

394. On a standard radar display (PPI):

A) the time base is made to rotate synchronously with the antenna in order to display bearing as well
as range
B) the time base is a linear, straight scale
C) the time base is a sine curve.
D) the time base is a cosine curve.

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395. In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)
signifies the:

A) number of pulses per second.

B) the number of cycles per second.
C) delay after which the process re-starts.
D) ratio of pulse period to pulse width.

396. The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

A) an emergency.
B) entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required.
C) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight.
D) transponder malfunction.

397. In the SSR terminology de-fruiting means:

A) Displaying only airplanes changing their altitude.

B) Removing all different colours from the display, making it a mono-colour display.
C) The removal from the display of random responses.
D) Displaying only airplanes with a selected destination.

398. The advantages of SSR mode S are:

A) better resolution, selective interrogation.

B) data link, no voice communications required.
C) improved resolution, TCAS.
D) TCAS, reduced RT communications.

399. In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:

A) 7500.
B) 7600.
C) 7000.
D) 7700.

400. In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
transponder should be set to:

A) 7700
B) 7500
C) 7000
D) 7600

401. The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and
receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies (transmitter; receiver):

A) 1090 MHz; 1090 MHz.

B) 1030 MHz; 1030 MHz
C) 1030 MHz; 1090 MHz
D) 1090 MHz; 1030 MHz.

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402. An aerodrome ground movement radar is likely to operate in the ... band with a scan rate of ...
revolutions per minute.

A) EHF, 1000
B) EHF, 20
C) UHF, 200
D) SHF, 60

403. he SHF band has been selected for Airfield Surface Movement Indicator (ASMI) radars in
preference to the EHF band because:

A) the attenuation caused by precipitation is greater in the EHF band and reduces the radars effective
range and usefulness.
B) target discrimination using the SHF band is better.
C) the EHF band is not suitable for the provision of the very narrow beams needed for an ASMI radar.
D) the EHF band causes unacceptable radiation hazards to personnel.

404. Positions on a Flight Management Computer are updated with information from:

A) VOR / ADF.
B) DME / VOR.
C) DME / DME.
D) DME / DME or DME / VOR.

405. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:

A) flight envelope and system limits.

B) warnings.
C) engaged modes.
D) cautions, abnormal sources.

406. nder JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is
coloured:

A) cyan.
B) black.
C) red.
D) white or magenta.

407. The radio navigation information used by the FMC is:

A) ADF, VOR, DME.

B) DME, VOR, ILS.
C) VOR, DME.
D) VOR, ADF, DME, ILS.

408. Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:

A) +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time.

B) +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time.
C) +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight.
D) +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time.

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409. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft
operation on any desired flight path:

A) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid.
B) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids.
C) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid.
D) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of
self- contained aids, or a combination of these.

410. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing
intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:

A) amber/yellow, magenta, black.

B) green, red, magenta, black.
C) black, amber/yellow, magenta, red.
D) green, amber/yellow, red, magenta.

411. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected
heading is coloured:

A) magenta.
B) green.
C) white.
D) yellow.

412. The colour used on the B737-400 EHSI weather display to show turbulence is:

A) flashing red.
B) white or magenta.
C) high colour gradient.
D) magenta.

413. The limits of the VHF band are:

A) 30 - 300 MHz.
B) 300 - 3000 KHz.
C) 300 - 3000 MHz.
D) 3 - 30 MHz.

415. In a hybrid navigation system:

A) the information obtained from ATC and ground radars plays a dominant role.
B) data from two or more of sources is electronically compared and the best information is used.
C) the aircrew has full control of all navigational matters, because all navigation is executed by the
aircrew.
D) the aircrew has limited control over the navigation.

416. nder JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and
values are coloured:

A) white.

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B) magenta.
C) red.
D) cyan.

417. Attenuation of a radio wave is the:

A) change of its amplitude by use of sidebands.

B) change of its frequency by use of sidebands.
C) reduction of its power by absorption, scattering or spreading.
D) increase of its power by the combination of multi-path signals.

418. When can the IRS position be updated?

A) Continuously by the FMC.

B) On the ground only.
C) At VOR beacons on route by the pilots.
D) At significant waypoints only.

419. Why is an IRS known as a self contained system?

A) Because it only depends on input for VOR/DME facilities.

B) Because it is contained in one area in the aircraft.
C) Because it only depends on input from global navigation satellite systems.
D) Because it derives navigational data from relative movement via in-built sensors.

420. What does O followed by KFAC indicate?

A) A destination airfield.
B) An off route airfield.
C) An alternate airfield.
D) An off route VOR/DME.

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421. An aircraft is flying at FL 140 where the COAT is -5° C. It is flying at an indicated air speed of 260
kts and is experiencing a headwind of 34 knots. When 150 nm from the FIR boundary it is instructed
to reduce speed in order to delay arrival at the boundary by 5 minutes. The required reduction in
indicated air speed is:

A) 41 kts.
B) 33 kts.
C) 24 kts.
D) 15 kts.

422. The JAR25 colour code for a down path waypoint is:

A) magenta.
B) green.
C) white.
D) cyan.

423. In a simple RNAV system the phantom station will be designated by:

A) DME/DME.
B) VOR/DME.
C) Any of the above.
D) VOR/VOR.

424. Which of the following is one of the functions of the Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area
Navigation (RNAV) system?

A) It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues
working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the air.
B) It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme.
C) It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches.
D) It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to
any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint.

426. The IRS position can be updated:

A) on the ground only.

B) at selected waypoints and on the ground.
C) at designated positions en-route and on the ground.
D) on the ground and overhead VOWDME.

427. The range to a required waypoint presented by RNAV system is:

A) neither plan range nor slant range.

B) plan range.
C) slant range.
D) plan range or slant range depending on RNAV settings.

428. What is the maximum off-track error permitted on P-RNAV systems?

A) ± 1 nm
B) ± 2 nm
C) ± 0.5 nm
D) ± 5 nm

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429. After a long period in memory, Doppler:

A) will have wandered more over land than over sea.

B) falls back to INS.
C) should be switched to manual.
D) requires updating.

430. The 4-beam moving Janus array aligns with the aircraft centre line by:

A) measuring the drift and rotating the array by the same amount.
B) rotating the array towards the beams with the smallest doppler shift.
C) rotating the array until matched pairs of beams receive the same difference in Doppler shift.
D) all of the above.

431. The Doppler Navigation System is based on:

A) radar principles using frequency shift.

B) phase comparison from ground station transmissions.
C) doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System.
D) radio waves refraction in the ionosphere.

432. In the normal applications using Doppler shift registered in aircraft equipment:

A) The Doppler shift, indicating ground speed, will always indicate a speed higher than the actual
ground speed of the aircraft, due to depression of the beams.
B) The Doppler shift will only be detectable when a ground station is within range.
C) The Doppler shift will be doubled, because it is based on measuring the frequency of a reflected
signal from the ground.
D) The Doppler shift frequency will normally be displayed.

433. With regard to Doppler navigation system:

A) updating can be achieved using VOR/DME fix.

B) updating is the process of entering ne co-ordinates after taking a fix.
C) updating must be carried out as soon as possible after a prologed period in memory.
D) all of the above are correct.

434. Using a hyperbolic navigation system, where the master and slave are 100 nm apart, an aircraft
is 110 nm from the master and 70 nm from the slave. How far is the hyperbola passing through the
aircraft from the slave at the point where the hyperbola crosses the base line:

A) 70 nm
B) 30 nm
C) 90 nm
D) 10 nm

435. What frequencies are allocated to Doppler Navigation systems?

A) 8,8 Hz and 13,3 Hz

B) 8,8 KHz and 13,3 KHz
C) 8,8 MHz and 13,3 MHz
D) 8,8 GHz and 13,3 GHz

436. A LOP is inaccurate and may be ambiguous:

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A) in the vicinity of the base line extensions.

B) at extreme ground wave range.
C) at night due to sky wave effect.
D) in the vicinity of the base line bisector.

437. An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter
velocity will occur when:

A) the transmitter moves towards the receiver.

B) the receiver moves towards the transmitter.
C) both transmitter and receiver move towards each other.
D) the transmitter moves away from the receiver.

438. Sea bias error:

A) is due to the movement of the sea and is not affected by the land/sea switch.
B) is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is not affected by the land/sea switch.
C) is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is partially corrected by the land/sea switch.
D) is due to the movement of the sea and can be partially corrected by the land/sea switch.

439. The major source of cross-track error in a doppler navigation system is:

A) altitude error.
B) manoeuvring error.
C) compass error.
D) latitude error.

440. In day to day use the greatest cause of error in Doppler is:

A) weight error.
B) pitch error.
C) input error.
D) sea movement error.

441. Doppler may unlock over:

A) a desert surface.
B) a calm sea.
C) ice.
D) shallow fast running water.

442. Doppler may unlock over:

A) a desert surface.
B) a calm sea.
C) ice.
D) shallow fast running water.

443. Which of the following statements is true in respect of GNSS?

A) The C/A code is the only code available for civilian use. It is transmitted only on L1.
B) The P code is the only code available for civilian use. It is transmitted on L.
C) The P code is for authorised (military) use only. It is transmitted only on L2.
D) The C/A code is for authorised (military) use only. It is transmitted on both L1 and L2.

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444. n the GPS system Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM):

A) Means that the positions from 3 independent receivers are matched and blended to one accurate
position.
B) Means that the receiver evaluates the signals from 5 satellites and discards the signals from a
satellite exhibiting anomalous pseudo range errors.
C) Includes the operators final selection of the satellites that the receiver presents as suitable.
D) Means that the receiver itself selects 3 satellites from the 21 in orbit at any time.

445. The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is:

A) multiplex.
B) fast multiplex.
C) multi-channel.
D) sequential.

446. Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation
and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out
independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to
isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of
satellites is:

A) 5
B) 7
C) 4
D) 6

447. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term inclination denotes the
angle between the:

A) orbital plane and the equatorial plane.

B) orbital plane and the earths axis.
C) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite.
D) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite.

448. What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of
signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

A) It causes multi-path propagation.

B) The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and
information from unaffected signals.
C) It may prevent the reception of signals.
D) It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected.

449. The visibility of GPS satellites is:

A) greatest at the equator.

B) the same at all points on and close to the surface of the earth.
C) greatest at the poles.
D) dependent on the location of the user.

450. The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is:

A) above the WGS84 ellipsoid.

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B) pressure altitude.
C) above mean sea level.
D) above ground level.

451. GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these
are generally available for use by civil aviation?

A) L2-coarse acquisition (C/A).

B) L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A).
C) L1-precise (P).
D) L2-selected availability (S/A).

452. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three
dimensional fix?

A) 6
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

453. Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR conditions using a
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix obtained from the GPS receiver
differs from the position of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?

A) It may be continued using conventional navigation systems.

B) The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off the faulty
system.
C) It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next flight all systems must be checked.
D) It must be continued under VFR conditions.

454. Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate
position fixes in air navigation?

A) NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit.

B) NNSS-Transit and GLONASS.
C) NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS.
D) GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT.

INSTRUMENT
455. When climbing at a constant mach number below the tropopause through an inversion:

A) the CAS and TAS will both decrease.

B) the CAS and TAS will both increase.
C) the CAS will increase and the TAS will decrease.
D) the CAS will decrease and the TAS will increase.

466. Which instrument does not connect to the static system?

A) Vertical speed indicator.

B) Altimeter.
C) Vacuum gauge.

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D) Airspeed Indicator.

467. The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies
substantially with the:

A) aircraft altitude.
B) Mach number of the aircraft.
C) deformation of the aneroid capsule.
D) static temperature.

468. The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple
pressure altimeter is the use of:

A) combination of counters/pointers.
B) more effective temperature compensating leaf springs.
C) a sub-scale logarithmic function.
D) an induction pick-off device.

469. Cruising at FL390, M.84 is found to give a TAS of 499kt. The ISA deviation at this level will be:

A) +17.
B) -19.
C) -17.
D) +19.

470. Compressibility error in the ASI is normally corrected by:

A) Use of the navigation computer

B) Accurate calibration of the instrument
C) Use of a calibration card placed next to the instrument
D) The error is insignificant and can be ignored

471. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers
below the aircraft are warm is:

A) higher than the real altitude

B) equal to the standard altitude
C) lower than the real altitude
D) the same as the real altitude

472. An aircraft is flying at an TAS of 310 Kt at FL290, temperature deviation is -6º C. The local speed
of sound is:

A) 570 Kt.
B) 583 Kt.
C) 563 Kt.
D) 596 Kt.

474. What will the altimeter of an aircraft on the aerodrome indicate with QNH set on the subscale?

A) Zero.
B) The airfield barometric pressure.
C) The equivalent sea level pressure at the airfield.
D) Airfield elevation.

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475. The reason for the adjustable index on the Machmeter being set at a different Mach number on
different aircraft types is:

A) to correct for the differing position errors

B) to correct for the differing instrument errors
C) to indicate the best cruising Mach number for that aircraft
D) because different aircraft types have different critical Mach numbers

476. During a missed approach and go-around procedure the change of aircraft attitude plus raising of
the landing gear and changing of flap settings can cause short term unpredictable errors in certain
instruments. The instruments most likely to be affected in this case are:

A) the altimeter, artificial horizon and vertical speed indicator.

B) the airspeed indicator, machmeter and vertical speed indicator.
C) the machmeter, airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
D) the vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator and altimeter.

477. Turbulent flow around a pressure head will cause:

A) density error.
B) 95% increase in manoeuvre induced error.
C) an increase in the dynamic pressure.
D) approximately 95% of the position error.

478. Dynamic pressure is given by:

A) The kinetic energy formula: ½ density x V2

B) The kinetic energy formula P1V1 = P2V2
C) The static energy formula: ½ density x V2
D) The static energy formula P1V1 = P2V2

479. n aircraft flying at Mach 0.83 is in air SAT 230 Kelvin. What is the TAS?

A) 495 kt
B) 575 kt
C) 470 kt
D) 490 kt

480. The advantages of an ADC over a traditional pitot - static system are:

1. position and compressibility correction.

2. reduced lag
3. ability to supply many instruments
4. ability to act as an altimeter following failure.

A) 1, 3 & 4
B) 2, 3 & 4
C) 1, 2 & 3
D) 1, 2 & 4

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481. When the barometric subscale of the altimeter is adjusted to 1013.2 hPa, what type of altitude is
being measured?

A) True altitude.
B) Indicated altitude.
C) Pressure altitude.
D) Relative height.

482. servo altimeter has a quoted accuracy of 1 mb at mean sea level. The accuracy in the standard
atmosphere is:

A) ± 27 ft at MSL and ± 50 ft at 10 000 ft

B) ± 30 ft at 20 000 ft and ± 100 ft at 20 000 ft
C) ± 50 ft at 10 000 ft and ± 100 ft at 40 000 ft
D) ± 50 ft at 20 000 ft and ± 90 ft at the tropopause

483. VNO is the maximum speed:

A) with flaps extended in landing position.

B) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
C) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
D) which must never be exceeded.

484. An is aircraft flying at a TAS of 1100 knots at FL 650. A change in 0.1M causes a change in TAS
of 57 knots.
The temperature deviation at FL 650 assuming an ISA atmosphere is:

A) -2.5
B) -5
C) +5
D) +2.5

485. The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are:

1. Position/pressure error correction

2. Hysteresis error correction
3. Remote data transmission capability
4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the event of a failure

The combination of correct statements is:

A) 1,3,4
B) 1,2,3
C) 2,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4

486. An aircraft is passing 6,500 ft in a descent when the static line becomes blocked. The altimeter
then reads:

A) 6,500 ft
B) zero
C) more than 6,500 ft
D) less than 6,500 ft

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487. Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed
(VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to
meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the
descent. He will be limited :

A) by the MMO
B) by the VMO in still air
C) initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
D) initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level

488. How many diaphragms are present in a basic Mach meter?

A) Three.
B) Four.
C) One.
D) Two.

489. The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a " standard + 10" atmosphere is:

A) 1013.25 hPa
B) 942.85 hPa
C) 644.41 hPa
D) 781.85 hPa

490. During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the
airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed :

A) decreases, abruptly towards zero

B) increases abruptly towards VNE
C) decreases steadily
D) increases steadily

491. Pressure error consists of which of the following:

A) Configuration change, manoeuvre induced errors, slipstream

B) Slipstream error, manoeuvre induced errors, turbulence
C) Configuration change, manoeuvre induced errors, turbulence
D) Configuration change, profile induced errors, turbulence

492. The purpose of the IVSI is to:

A) indicate to the pilot instantaneously when an aircraft pitches in turn, especially steep turns.
B) automatically initiate climbs and descents through the automatic flight control system.
C) eliminate lag by passing static pressure directly into the case before entering the metering device.
D) give an instantaneous indication of the aircraft's vertical speed when a climb or descent has been
initiated.

493. On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:

A) temperature altitude.
B) standard altitude.
C) pressure altitude.
D) density altitude.

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494. When an altimeter is used for SSR it is always referenced to:

A) QNH
B) The pressure setting in use
C) QFE
D) 1013.25 hPa

495. The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the:

A) total pressure.
B) static pressure.
C) dynamic pressure.
D) total pressure plus static pressure.

496. Indication of Mach number is obtained from:

A) Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter type aneroid.
B) Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS) from the air data computer.
C) A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with indicated speed.
D) An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers instead of knots.

497. When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True
Airspeed (TAS) will:

A) increase at a linear rate.

B) increase at an exponential rate.
C) decrease.
D) remain constant.

498. Aircraft with pressurized cabin in flight:

When switching to the alternate static pressure source, the pointer of the Vertical Speed Indicator:

A) indicates a descent, then settles down and reads incorrectly

B) indicates correctly
C) indicates a slight continuous descent
D) indicates a climb, then settles down and reads incorrectly

499. The subscale of an altimeter is set to 1030 mb and indicates 4500 ft when the QNH is 996 mb.
Assuming 1 mb equals 30 ft, the altitude of the aircraft AMSL is:

A) 3180 ft
B) 5520 ft
C) 3480 ft
D) 3990 ft

500. The errors to which the machmeter is subject are:

A) instrument error, position error, barometric error, temperature error and manoeuvre induced error.
B) instrument error, position error, density error and manoeuvre induced error.
C) instrument error, position error.
D) instrument error, position error, compressibility error and manoeuvre induced error.

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501. Pressure error in an altimeter arises because:

A) The true external static pressure is not accurately transmitted to the instrument
B) The true external pitot pressure is not accurately transmitted to the instrument
C) The true external dynamic pressure is not accurately transmitted to the instrument
D) The true external kinetic pressure is not accurately transmitted to the instrument

502. The airspeed indicator is calibrated to:

A) ISA at 36,000 ft
B) the full ISA
C) ISA at mean sea level
D) ISA at the height the aircraft is flying

503. An increase of 0.15 in Mach number results in an increase of 93 kt in TAS. If the temperature
deviation from ISA is +9° C, the FL is:

A) FL 90
B) FL 170
C) FL 220
D) FL 200

504. The QNH is by definition the value of the:

A) atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.
B) altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for which
it is given.
C) atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over flown by the aircraft.
D) altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location for
which it is provided.

505. Given:

M: Mach number
Ts: static temperature
Tt: total temperature

Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Ts = Tt / (1+0.2M2)
B) Ts = Tt x (1+0.2M2)
C) Ts = Tt / (0.2M2)
D) Ts = Tt x (0.2M2)

506. As an airplane climbs higher, the true airspeed for a given indicated airspeed will:

A) Increase
B) Remain the same
C) Decrease
D) Vary depending on the actual value of the indicated airspeed and the angle of attack

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507. If the pitot line to an ASI becomes totally blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will:

A) drop to zero.
B) remain unchanged.
C) progressively decrease.
D) progressively increase.

508. What is the significance of the yellow arc in an airspeed indicator?

A) Never exceed range

B) Normal operating range
C) Turbulent operations range
D) Structural warning range

509. Which of the following instruments require pitot and static pressure inputs?

A) Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter.

B) Airspeed indicator and machmeter.
C) Airspeed indicator only.
D) Airspeed indicator, machmeter and vertical speed indicator.

510. At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach number:

A) increases when the altitude increases.

B) decreases when the altitude increases.
C) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases.
D) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases.

511. Which of the following could cause a pressure (position) error:

1. Changes in configuration
2. Manoeuvres
3. Turbulence

A) 1 and 3 are correct

B) 1 and 2 are correct
C) 2 and 3 are correct
D) All the statements are correct

512. With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the
same:

A) equivalent airspeed.
B) ground speed.
C) true airspeed.
D) calibrated airspeed.

513. An aircraft is flying straight and level, over a warm air mass. The altimeter reading will be:

A) greater than the real height

B) correct
C) less than the real height
D) oscillating around the correct height

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514. The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of:

A) the outside temperature.

B) the total pressure.
C) the static pressure.
D) the differential pressure measurement.

515. The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white hatched pointer.
This pointer indicates the:

A) maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperature.

B) speed indicated on the autothrottle control box, versus temperature.
C) speed indicated on the autothrottle control box versus altitude.
D) maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude.

516. VLE is the maximum:

A) speed authorized in flight.

B) flight speed with landing gear down.
C) speed with flaps extended in a given position.
D) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.

517. An aircraft is flying at M0.86 at FL320. The temperature deviation is +10° C. The TAS is:

A) 522 kts
B) 607 kts
C) 481 kts
D) 512 kts

518. The difference between static air temperature and total air temperature is known as:

A) hot ramp radiation

B) the recovery factor
C) corrected outside air temperature
D) the ram rise

519. If the alternate static source is used, the resulting reading will be:

A) Too low reading of altitude.

B) Too high reading of altitude.
C) Too low reading of airspeed.
D) No reading of airspeed.

520. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will:

A) show the actual height above ground.

B) overread.
C) be just as correct as before.
D) underread.

521. oday's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-Venant formula), indicate, in the absence of
static (and instrumental) error:

A) The calibrated airspeed (CAS) in all cases

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B) The equivalent airspeed, in all cases

C) The airspeed, whatever the altitude
D) The true airspeed

522. When descending through an isothermal level (at a constant Mach number) the TAS will .... (i),
the CAS .... (ii) and the LSS will .... (iii):

A) i remain constant ii increase iii remain constant

B) i increase ii increase iii decrease
C) i remain constant ii decrease iii increase
D) i decrease ii decrease iii remain constant

523. A pitot tube measures:

A) Dynamic plus static pressure

B) Static pressure
C) Dynamic pressure
D) Dynamic minus static pressure

524. An aircraft is flying at 0.86 M, temperature 218 Kelvin. The TAS is:

A) 607 kt
B) 494 kt
C) 575 kt
D) 477 kt

525. n aircraft flies from A to B with QNH at A of 1019mb set on the altimeter subscale throughout the
flight.
Assuming all other errors are zero and that 1 mb = 30 feet, when overhead B, QNH 1013 mbs, the
altimeter will be:

A) over indicating by 180 feet

B) over indicating by 120 feet
C) indicating true altitude
D) under indicating by 180 feet

526. If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will:

A) remain fixed.
B) increase, no matter what the actual airspeed is.
C) progressively underread.
D) progressively overread.

527. Indicated airspeed (as read on the airspeed indicator] will:

A) Remain unchanged in headwind and tailwind.

B) Increase in tailwind.
C) Increase in headwind.
D) Decrease in tailwind.

528. An aircraft is flying at FL 390, temperature -56.5° C at Mach 0.85. The TAS of the aircraft is:

A) 561
B) 485

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C) 472
D) 476

529. The colour arcs of an ASI are in ascending speed order?

A) white, green and yellow

B) blue, yellow and red
C) green, yellow and red
D) white, yellow and red

530. The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed expressed in:

A) calibrated airspeed (CAS).

B) computed airspeed (COAS).
C) equivalent airspeed (EAS).
D) true airspeed (TAS).

531. When side-slipping, one of the instruments below will give an incorrect indication:

A) Vertical Speed Indicator.

B) Airspeed Indicator.
C) Attitude Indicator.
D) Altitude Indicator.

532. Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on:

A) temperature and the pressure.

B) density.
C) pressure.
D) temperature.

533. A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the
airspeed indicator to:

A) read a little high.

B) freeze at zero.
C) react like an altimeter.
D) read a little low.

534. A pressure head is subject to the following errors:

A) position, manoeuvre induced and temperature errors.

B) position, manoeuvre induced and density errors.
C) position, manoeuvre induced and instrument errors.
D) position and manoeuvre induced errors.

535. The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are:

A) VS1 for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
B) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
C) VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
D) VS1 for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit

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536. If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40° C, the local speed of sound is:

A) 596 kt.
B) 686 kt.
C) 307 kt.
D) 247 kt.

537. The altimeter in the attached figure shows:

A) a height of 2700 ft
B) FL 270
C) FL 27
D) a pressure altitude of 20700 ft

538. In a combined mach/airspeed indicator the purposes of the BARBER POLE is to indicate:

A) VMO and this value increases at high altitudes

B) VMO and this value decreases at high altitudes
C) VMO and this is a fixed value at all altitudes
D) The maximum safe airspeed with flaps/slats extended

539. An aircraft is flying at 4000 ft from a high temperature area to a cold temperature area where the
temperature difference is 20º C. What will be the actual height of the aircraft:

A) 4000 ft
B) 4320 ft
C) 3680 ft
D) 3840 ft

540. If the ambient temperature decreases, the TAS of an aircraft cruising at a constant Mach number
will:

A) remain constant.

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B) decrease because local speed of sound decreases.

C) increase because local speed of sound decreases.
D) increase because local speed of sound increases.

541. A VSI metering unit incorporates a capillary tube to compensate for:

A) viscosity changes
B) temperature and pressure changes with height
C) position error
D) barometric error

542. The temperature at the airport is 23º C, what is the local speed of sound:

A) 671 knots
B) 694 knots
C) 616 knots
D) 644 knots

543. What does a vertical speed indicator actually measure?

A) The rate of temperature change.

B) The rate of altitude change.
C) The rate of pressure change.
D) The rate of temperature and altitude change.

544. VSO is shown on an ASI by a:

A) Red radial line

B) Green arc
C) White arc
D) Yellow arc

545. An aircraft is flying at FL 290, TAS 500 knots, 0.86M, the temperature deviation is:

A) -8
B) -15
C) +7
D) +25

546. Where a M/IAS indicator is being used:

A) At low altitudes, the VMO pointer retains a fixed position which indicates the maximum operating
IAS permitted
B) At high altitudes, the VMO pointer retains a fixed position which indicates the maximum operating
IAS permitted
C) At high altitudes, the VMO pointer retains a fixed position which indicates the maximum operating
Mach Number permitted
D) At low altitudes, the VMO pointer retains a fixed position which indicates the maximum operating
Mach Number permitted

547. EAS is:

A) CAS corrected for compressibility

B) IAS corrected for compressibility

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C) IAS corrected for instrument error only

D) CAS corrected for position error

548. For an altimeter, pressure fluctuations at the static vent cause:

A) Barometric error
B) Hysteresis error
C) Position error
D) Temperature error

549. The combined Machmeter / ASI is subject to the following errors:

A) instrument, pressure and temperature only

B) instrument and compressibility only
C) position, density, instrument, compressibility, manoeuvre induced
D) those of the Machmeter only

550. The machmeter employs:

A) A capsule linked to a dashpot

B) Two capsules with their axes at 90° to each other
C) Two capsules
D) Two capsules with their axes linked

551. The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a:

A) correction based on an accelerometer sensor.

B) return spring.
C) bimetallic strip.
D) second calibrated port.

552. In the IVSI, lag error:

A) is virtually eliminated by using a special dashpot accelerometer assembly.

B) is only eliminated when initiating a climb or descent.
C) is eliminated by the use of logarithmic presentation.
D) is eliminated by feeding a sample of static pressure to the case and delaying it to the capsule.

553. Which of the following lists the errors of the machmeter?

A) Lag, position, density, compressibility and temperature

B) Position, manoeuvre induced and instrument
C) Compressibility, position, density, instrument and manoeuvre induced
D) Position, manoeuvre induced, lag, density and instrument

554. A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s):

A) altimeter only.
B) airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
C) vertical speed indicator only.
D) airspeed indicator only.

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555. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another
altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal:

A) there will be no difference between them if air the data computer is functioning normally.
B) at high speed, the non compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.
C) At high speed the non compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
D) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.

556. Inside an artificial horizon:

A) the inner ring is tied to the vertical by a control system.

B) the inner ring is pivoted laterally inside the outer ring and the outer ring is pivoted longitudinally
inside the case.
C) there is only one gimbal ring.
D) the rotor axis is kept level by a calibrated spring attached to the outer ring and the instrument
case.

557. The fundamental difference between an INS and an IRS is that:

A) The IRS is a strap down system with 3 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other
B) The IRS is a strap down system with 2 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other
C) The INS is a strap down system with 2 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other
D) The INS is a strap down system with 3 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other

558. The purpose of the flux-valve is:

A) to provide flux for the automatic slaving system.

B) to measure the strength of the earth's magnetic field.
C) to sense the direction of the earth's magnetic field relative to the airplane.
D) to align the spokes with the earth's magnetic field in order to get maximum voltage from the pick-
up coils.

559. In a left turn, the ball of the turn co-ordinator is out to the right, what corrective action is
required?

A) more left bank.

B) more right bank.
C) more left rudder.
D) decrease elevator pitch.

560. A DGI has:

A) one degree of freedom & a horizontal spin axis.

B) two degrees of freedom & a horizontal spin axis.
C) one degree of freedom & a vertical spin axis.
D) two degrees of freedom & a vertical spin axis.

561. The case of an air driven turn and balance indicator is leaking. A rate 1 turn of 360° will take:

A) More than two minutes

B) None of the above
C) Two minutes exactly
D) Less than two minutes

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562. In a Gyro magnetic Compass the flux gate transmits information to the:

A) heading indicator.
B) error detector.
C) erecting system.
D) amplifier.

563. Typical directional gyro indicator errors are:

A) gimballing errors, position error and friction error.

B) parallax errors and gimballing errors.
C) instrument error, synchro error and wandering errors.
D) random wander, gimballing errors and apparent wander due to earth's rotation.

564. The flux valve in a RIMC:

A) has its own self exciter unit.

B) is supplied with AC current.
C) is fed with DC current.
D) is made of hard-iron magnetic steel.

565. The sustained oscillation in the Ring Laser Gyro (RLG) is initially caused by:

A) the spontaneous return of photons to a higher energy level, which in turn produces, excited neon
atoms.
B) the corner mirrors, which reflect the radiation energy, back to the photons.
C) the gas (or plasma) inside the triangular cavity is ionised by the voltage, causing helium atoms to
collide with and transfer energy to the neon atoms.
D) the pressure fluctuation in the high pressure mixture of helium and neon gases in the triangular
cavity.

566. A tied gyro has .... (i) planes of freedom and is always controlled in .... (ii) of these planes by ....
(iii):

A) (i) 3 (ii) both (iii) an external force

B) (i) 3 (ii) at least one (iii) an external force
C) (i) 2 (ii) both (iii) gravity
D) (i) 3 (ii) only one (iii) gravity

567. What angle of bank should you adopt on the attitude indicator for a standard rate (rate 1) turn
while flying at an IAS of 130 Kt?

A) 30°
B) 15°
C) 20°
D) 10°

568. What indications should you get from the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?

A) the ball moves freely in the direction of the turn, and the needle deflects in the opposite direction
of the turn
B) the ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn
C) the ball stays fixed in the centre position during the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of
the turn

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D) the ball stays fixed in the centre position during the turn, and the needle deflects in the opposite
direction of the turn

569. Variation is defined as the angle between:

A) TN and CN.
B) TN and MN.
C) MN and CN.
D) CN and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

570. For a position in the southern hemisphere, the effect of acceleration errors are greatest on
headings:

A) 180° (C) and 360° (C).

B) 090° (C) and 270° (C).
C) 045° (C) and 225° (C).
D) 135° (C) and 315° (C).

571. A compass swing is used to:

A) align magnetic north with true north.

B) align compass north with true north.
C) get true north and lubber line aligned.
D) align compass north with magnetic north.

572. In a standby direct reading compass there is:

A) a low magnetic moment system, either of circular or bar configuration.

B) a non-pendulously mounted magnet system.
C) a circular magnet or pair of bar magnets pendulously mounted.
D) a single pendulously mounted bar magnet.

573. During deceleration following a landing in Northerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:

A) an apparent turn to the East.

B) an apparent turn to the West.
C) a heading fluctuating about 360° .
D) no apparent turn.

574. During deceleration following a landing in a southerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the
northern hemisphere indicates:

A) no apparent turn.
B) an apparent turn to the west.
C) no apparent turn only on northern latitudes.
D) an apparent turn to the east.

575. A radio altimeter can be defined as a:

A) ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
B) self contained on board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
C) ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
D) self contained on board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.

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576. A radio altimeter is:

A) aircraft based and measures true height.

B) ground based and measures true height.
C) ground based and measures true altitude.
D) aircraft based and measures true altitude.

577. Which colours are typically used on an EHSI?

A) White, green, magenta, cyan, yellow and red.

B) Black, blue, purple, red, green and white.
C) Red and blue.
D) Magenta, brown, black and green.

578. In PLAN mode:

A) the active flight path appears as a red line joining successive waypoints.
B) the weather radar display data is inhibited.
C) the display may be oriented to grid North.
D) the wind arrow is oriented to True North.

579. Modes available for (EFIS) HSI on some units are:

A) airspeed and Mach

B) only from manometric sources
C) VOR, ILS, MAP and AUTO SELECT
D) MAP and PLAN

580. Weather data can not be displayed on the EHSI in which of the following modes:

A) PLAN
B) MAP
C) ILS
D) VOR

581. Which mode is selected on the following Navigation Display (EHSI)?

A) Map mode (see figure below)

B) Plan mode
C) Full NAV mode
D) Centre Map mode

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582. In which of the following EHSI modes are weather radar returns not available?

A) Any full rose mode.

B) Any expanded mode.
C) Plan mode.
D) Plan mode and any full rose mode.

583. A bounded error in an INS system:

A) will cause the ground speed to oscillate about a constant mean value, which in itself will be an
error.
B) will result in all of the above being correct.
C) will produce a constant track error.
D) will not increase with time.

584. What is an FMC?

A) An auto throttle system.

B) A flight management computer.
C) A flight management inertial reference system.
D) An autopilot/flight director system.

585. Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not immediately,
are signalled by the colour:

A) red.
B) green.
C) amber.

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D) flashing red

586. The Altitude Alert system alerts the pilot:

A) at the selected altitude.

B) when reference altitude equals the selected altitude.
C) at decision height.
D) when deviating from the selected altitude.

587. The Altitude Alert system:

A) disengages auto-trim on reaching selected altitude.

B) engages auto-trim on reaching selected altitude.
C) activates a warning light on reaching selected altitude.
D) may alert by visual signals when approaching the selected altitude.

588. The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural warning to the pilot
when the:

A) airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude.

B) airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude.
C) altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude.
D) proximity to the ground becomes dangerous.

589. A FDR fitted to an aircraft of over 5700 kg after the 1st of April 1998 must record and store data
during:

A) at least the last 30 minutes.

B) at least the last 10 hours.
C) at least the last 25 hours.
D) at least the last 15 hours.

590. If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably:

A) ice in induction system.

B) fuel of too low volatility.
C) leak in pressure gauge line.
D) too high float level.

591. The " Bourdon tube" is used to measure:

A) fuel flow
B) pressure
C) temperature
D) vibrations

592. A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures:

A) vacuum in the carburettor

B) absolute air pressure entering the carburettor
C) fuel pressure leaving the carburettor
D) absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve

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593. Among these instruments, which one uses aneroid capsules?

A) air intake pressure sensor.

B) fuel pressure sensor.
C) oil thermometer.
D) oil pressure sensor.

594. Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an aneroid pressure diaphragm
is the:

A) oil thermometer.
B) manifold pressure gauge.
C) oil pressure gauge.
D) fuel pressure gauge.

595. In a mechanical oil pressure gauge the sensing element is:

A) a bourdon tube.
B) a liquid capillary.
C) an aneroid wafer.
D) a helical bimetallic spring.

596. During the take-off run , the effect of increasing airspeed is to cause the EPR indication to:

A) increase.
B) increase and subsequently decrease.
C) decrease.
D) remain constant.

597. What type of sensor is used to measure the output of a low pressure booster pump?

A) Differential capsule.
B) Bourdon tube.
C) Bellows.
D) Aneroid capsule.

598. The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engined power plant is:

A) a bellows sensor.
B) a differential capsule.
C) a Bourdon tube.
D) an aneroid capsule.

599. A " Bourdon Tube" is used in:

A) pressure sensors.
B) turbine temperature probes.
C) smoke detectors.
D) vibration detectors.

600. The operating principle of the " induction" type of tachometer is to measure the:

A) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

B) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.

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C) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.
D) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

601. The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM indicator
is :

A) a DC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator is a simple voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
B) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the signal into
square pulses which are then counted
C) an AC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is
provided with a voltmeter
D) a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM; the indicator is provided with a motor which
drives a magnetic tachometer

602. When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter takes into account
the fuel:

A) temperature.
B) pressure.
C) density.
D) dielectrical constant.

603. The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system can be
graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:

A) the same as that of air and varies directly with density

B) the same as that of air and varies inversely with density
C) twice that of air and varies inversely with density
D) twice that of air and varies directly with density

604. The function of EICAS is to:

A) show engine primary indications on the upper display and engine secondary indications on the
lower display.
B) show engine primary indications on the left display and engine secondary indications on the right
display.
C) show check lists on the upper display and systems diagrams on the lower display.
D) show check lists on the left display and systems diagrams on the right display.

605. Which of the following would be an EICAS caution:

A) Yaw damper fault

B) Both b & c
C) Engine fire
D) Engine overheat

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MASS AND BALANCE

606. The position of the centre of gravity can always be determined by:

A) subtracting the total moment from the total mass

B) dividing the total mass by the total moment
C) subtracting the total mass from the total moment
D) dividing the total moment by the total mass

607. What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane?

A) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag

B) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab
C) The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point
D) The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect

608. he stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:

A) low gross mass and aft centre of gravity

B) low gross mass and forward centre of gravity
C) high gross mass and forward centre of gravity
D) high gross mass and aft centre of gravity

609. During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more
rapidly than expected. This is an indication that:

A) the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit

B) the aeroplane is overloaded
C) the centre of gravity is too far forward
D) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity

610. What effect has a centre of gravity close to the forward limit?

A) A better rate of climb capability

B) A reduction in the specific fuel consumption
C) A reduced rate of climb
D) A decreased induced drag

611. If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will:

A) tend to over rotate during take-off

B) require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption
C) require less power for a given airspeed
D) benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack

612. If all the moments are positive when calculating mass (weight) and balance, the position of the
datum would be at the:

A) centre line of the nose or tail wheel depending on the aircraft type
B) nose, or forward of the aircraft
C) main wheels centreline

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D) trailing edge of the wing

613. The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of the aeroplane
is said to act.
The weight acts in a direction:

A) parallel to the gravity vector

B) at right angles to the flight path
C) always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis
D) governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane

614. It is intended to fly a certified aircraft with both a full traffic load and a full fuel load.

A) The CG might not be in limits any of the time during the flight
B) The CG might be in limits all of the flight
C) The CG limits will be in limits all of the flight
D) The CG will not be within the limits during the flight

615. The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act:

A) vertically through the centre of pressure

B) vertically through the centre of gravity
C) vertically through the datum point
D) always along the vertical axis of the aeroplane

616. For a large aircraft where the main and nose landing gears retract forward, the effect on the CG
on lowering the gear is:

A) to move forward then aft

B) to move aft
C) to remain static
D) to move forward

617. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of centre of gravity it is possible that
the aeroplane will be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces
B) A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane
C) If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of the centre of gravity the aeroplane
may be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces
D) The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of gravity is located in the middle between
the aft and forward limit of centre of gravity

618. An aeroplane is said to be NEUTRALLY STABLE. This is likely to:

A) Be totally unrelated to the position of the CG

B) Be caused by the CG at the aerodynamic centre of the aircraft
C) Cause the CG to move forwards
D) Be caused by the CG towards the forward limit

619. The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension:

A) creates a pitch-up longitudinal moment

B) does not create a longitudinal moment

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C) creates a longitudinal moment in the direction (pitch-up or pitch-down) determined by the type of
landing gear
D) creates a pitch-down longitudinal moment

620. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?

A) A decrease of the stalling speed

B) A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off
C) A decrease in the landing speed
D) A decrease in range

621. An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to:

A) cause the centre of gravity to move forwards

B) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit
C) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit
D) be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity

622. If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the
centre of gravity (cg) on the aeroplane?

A) It will cause the cg to move aft

B) It will cause the cg to move forward
C) The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given
D) It will not affect the cg location

623. When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically:

A) through its centre of pressure

B) through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly
C) through its centre of gravity
D) through a point defined as the datum point

624. If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator control will:

A) become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manoeuvre in pitch

B) become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manoeuvre in pitch
C) become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manoeuvre in pitch
D) become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manoeuvre in pitch

625. If the CG is aft of the neutral point it results in:

A) Decreased stability with decreased elevator trim

B) Longitudinal instability
C) Neutral stability
D) Increased stability with increased elevator trim

626. The datum of an aeroplane is situated:

A) always between the nose and the tail

B) between the leading edge and the trailing edge of the wing
C) not always between the nose and the tail
D) between the leading edge and the trailing edge of the MAC

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627. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

A) can be allowed to move between defined limits.

B) must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.
C) is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aircraft loading.
D) may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aircraft's
certificate of airworthiness.

628. An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result in:

A) a reduction in power required for a given speed

B) a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag
C) an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment
D) an increase in longitudinal stability

629. With respect to the arm ____ (i) of the aircraft datum the arm is _____ (ii) and _____ (iii) of the
aircraft datum it is _____ (iv).

A) (i) forward (ii) positive (iii) aft (iv) negative

B) (i) aft (ii) negative (iii) forward (iv) positive
C) (i) forward (ii) negative (iii) aft (iv) negative
D) (i) aft (ii) positive (iii) forward (iv) negative

630. Select the correct statement for the CG safe range:

A) The safe range falls between the front and rear CG limits but does not include them
B) The safe range falls between the front and rear CG limits but only includes the aft limit
C) The safe range falls between the front and rear CG limits and includes both limits
D) The safe range falls between the front and rear CG limits but only includes the fwd limit

631. What effect does the CG on the aft limit have on the fuel flow of an aeroplane?

A) Decreases
B) No effect
C) Marginal increase
D) Increases

632. The undercarriage of an aeroplane moves rearward when it is being retracted. Does this affect
the CG?

A) Yes, the CG would move aft

B) No, the position of the CG would remain the same
C) Yes, the CG would move forward
D) Yes, but the CG movement could not be calculated

633. Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity positions on an
aeroplane?

A) Location of the undercarriage

B) Elevator and tail plane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in all flight conditions
C) The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed
D) The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency

634. Which of the following statements is correct?

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A) A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane
B) The station (STA) is always the location of the centre of gravity in relation to a reference point,
normally the leading edge of the wing at MAC
C) The centre of gravity is given in percent of MAC calculated from the leading edge of the wing,
where MAC always = the wing chord halfway between the centre line of the fuselage and the wing
tip
D) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit the aeroplane longitudinal stability
increases.

635. Standard masses for baggage can only be used when the aircraft has:

A) 20 seats or more
B) 30 seats or more
C) less than 30 seats
D) 9 seats or more

636. Is it possible to fly a certified aircraft at a Regulated Take-off mass with both a full traffic load
and a full fuel load?

A) No, it is not possible

B) All aircraft all the time
C) Some aircraft in some cases
D) Only if the performance limited take-off mass is less than the structural limited take-off mass

637. Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off fuel, the traffic
load is normally limited by:

A) Maximum zero fuel mass

B) Actual landing mass
C) Maximum landing mass
D) Maximum take-off mass

638. The handling and performance problems encountered with a CG too far aft include:

A) Degrade or loss of nose wheel steering

B) Higher stick forces per G loading with no risk of over-stressing the airframe in manoeuvres
C) Improvement in nose wheel steering
D) No likelihood of a nose up overbalance on a nose wheel aircraft on the ground resulting in tail
damage

639. An aircraft is flying at 1.3 VS1g in order to provide an adequate margin above the low speed
buffet and transonic speeds. If the mass increases from 285,000 kg to 320,000 kg and 1.3 VS1g is
180 kts CAS at 285,000 kg, the new 1.3 VS1g is:

A) 201 kts; drag will increase and nm/kg will decrease, fuel flow will increase
B) 191 kts; drag will increase and nautical mile per kg will decrease, fuel flow will increase
C) 201 kts; drag will remain the same and nm/kg will increase, fuel flow will decrease
D) 191 kts; drag will increase and nm/kg will increase, fuel flow will increase

640. The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the:

A) strength of the fuselage

B) allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tanking
C) strength of the wing root

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D) total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing

641. Which combination of weight and CG position will produce the highest stalling speed?

A) Low weight and forward CG

B) Heavy weight and aft CG
C) Low weight and aft CG
D) Heavy weight and forward CG

642. The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by:

A) bearing strength of the taxiway pavement

B) tyre speed and temperature limitations
C) structural considerations
D) taxi distance to take - off point

643. An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a high altitude
airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the
following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take - off mass?

A) maximum certificated take - off mass

B) maximum zero fuel mass
C) altitude and temperature of the departure airfield
D) en route obstacle clearance requirements

644. When determining the mass of fuel/oil and the value of the SG is not known, the value to use is:

A) determined by the operator

B) determined by the aviation authority
C) set out in JAR OPS - 1 Section 1
D) determined by the pilot

645. For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on board, other than
unusable quantities, is:

A) a fixed value which is stated in the Aeroplane Operating Manual

B) a variable value which may limit the payload carried
C) a variable value which is governed by the payload carried
D) a fixed value which will limit the amount of fuel carried

646. Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's maximum
range), the traffic load is normally limited by:

A) The maximum landing mass

B) The maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass
C) The maximum zero fuel mass
D) The maximum take-off mass

647. When standard mass values are being used, infants occupying separate passenger seats must be
considered as:

A) adults
B) children
C) the same if below 2 years of age

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D) infants after being weighed

648. The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:

A) high gross mass and forward centre of gravity

B) low gross mass and aft centre of gravity
C) high gross mass and aft centre of gravity
D) low gross mass and forward centre of gravity

649. Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off fuel, the traffic
load is normally limited by:

A) Maximum landing mass

B) Actual landing mass
C) Maximum take-off mass
D) Maximum zero fuel mass

650. The operating mass of an aircraft is:

A) The empty mass plus the trip fuel mass

B) The dry operating mass plus the take-off fuel mass
C) The empty mass plus crew, crew baggage and catering
D) The empty mass plus the take-off fuel mass

651. With reference to mass and balance calculations (on an aeroplane) a datum point is used. This
datum point is:

A) a fixed point from which all balance arms are measured. It may be located anywhere on the
aeroplane's longitudinal axis or on the extensions to that axis
B) the point through which the sum of the mass values (of the aeroplane and its contents) is assumed
to act vertically
C) a point near the centre of the aeroplane. It moves longitudinally as masses are added forward and
aft of its location
D) a point from which all balance arms are measured. The location of this point varies with the
distribution of loads on the aeroplane

652. The Maximum Structural Take-off Mass is:

A) the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass for take-off subject to the limiting conditions at the
departure airfield
B) the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass for take-off but excluding fuel
C) the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass at the start of the take-off run
D) the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass on completion of the refuelling operation

653. The Arm is the _____ (i) distance of a load as measured from the aircraft _____ (ii).

A) (i) horizontal (ii) forward limit

B) (i) lateral (ii) datum
C) (i) vertical (ii) aft limit
D) (i) horizontal (ii) datum

654. The chemical fluids used to charge the aircraft’ s toilets are counted as?

A) part of the basic empty mass

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B) part of the under load

C) part of the variable load
D) part of the payload

655. For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is
defined as:

A) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel and
traffic load
B) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel
C) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic load
D) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and crew
baggage

656. Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less:

A) traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals

B) usable fuel
C) usable fuel and traffic load
D) usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals

657. The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:

A) Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel

B) Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load
C) Operating Mass plus all the traffic load
D) Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded

658. The Regulated Take-off Mass:

A) is the higher of the maximum structural zero fuel mass and the performance limited takeoff mass
B) is the lower of maximum structural take-off mass and the performance limited take-off mass
C) the maximum performance limited take-off mass subject to any last minute mass changes
D) the maximum structural take-off mass subject to any last minute mass changes

659. Traffic load is the:

A) Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass

B) Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass
C) Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load
D) Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load

660. By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a specific flight
(catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get:

A) take-off mass
B) landing mass
C) Dry operating mass
D) zero fuel mass

661. What is the zero fuel mass?

A) The mass of the aircraft at the start of the taxi (at departure from the loading gate)
B) The mass of an aeroplane plus standard items such as: unusable fuel and liquids; lubricating oil in

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engine & other auxiliary units; fire extinguishers; pyrotechnics; emergency oxygen equipment;
supplementary equipment
C) The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no useable fuel mass
D) D.O.M plus traffic load but excluding fuel

662. The Basic Empty Mass is the:

A) Operating mass minus the crew and fuel load

B) MZFM minus both traffic load and the fuel load
C) Landing mass less traffic load
D) Take-off mass minus the traffic load and the fuel load

663. While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aeroplane, the term 'Empty Mass'
applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus:

A) all the consumable fuel and oil, but not including any radio or navigation equipment installed by
manufacturer
B) unusable fuel and full operating fluids
C) all the oil and fuel
D) all the oil, fuel, and hydraulic fluid but not including crew and traffic load

664. The CG envelope is the distance between the point furthest _____ (i) that a CG has been
approved to act to the point furthest _____ (ii) that a CG has been approved to act.

A) (i) aft (ii) forward

B) (i) right (ii) left
C) (i) up (ii) down
D) (i) port (ii) starboard

665. In mass and balance calculations the " index" is:

A) the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane unsafe to
fly
B) an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken
C) the moment divided by a constant
D) a location in the aeroplane identified by a number

666. You require 63,000 kg of fuel for your flight, the aircraft currently has 12,000 kg indicated on the
gauges. How many US gallons of fuel do you request if the density is 0.81?

A) 16,660 US gallons
B) 10, 910 US gallons
C) 41, 310 US gallons
D) 62,960 US gallons

667. 5600 USG is equivalent to how many Imperial gallons?

A) 4848 imp
B) 4366 imp
C) 4663 imp
D) 6338 imp

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668. The determination of the centre of gravity in relation to the mean aerodynamic chord:

A) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean
aerodynamic chord and the trailing edge
B) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the
aerodynamic centre of pressure
C) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the
aerodynamic convergence point
D) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean
aerodynamic chord and the leading edge

669. 125 USG of Avgas in Litres is?

A) 358 L
B) 473 L
C) 460 L
D) 37 L

670. The weighing machine used for passenger weighing shall have a capacity of at least _____ and
shall be displayed at minimum graduations of _____ .

A) 200 kgs; 500 g

B) 100 kgs; 1 kg
C) 250 kgs; 1 kg
D) 150 kgs; 500 g

671. The mass of 16 858 kg in Lbs is?

A) 37 166 lbs
B) 36 330 lbs
C) 7 822 lbs
D) 7 645 lbs

672. he CG position is:

A) able to exist within a range

B) set by the pilot
C) set by the manufacturer
D) fixed

673. The aircraft basic mass and CG position is found in:

A) The weighing schedule in the Aircraft Flight Manual and the aeroplane must be re-weighed if
equipment change causes a change in mass or balance
B) The loading manifest and is DOM - traffic load
C) The weighing schedule in the Aircraft Flight Manual and is adjusted to take account of any mass
changes
D) In the loading manifest and is ZFM - useful load

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PERFORMANCE OF AEROPLANE
674. The scheduled landing distance required is the distance:

A) From a screen of a designated height to the point at which the aircraft has come to a complete
stop
B) From the point at which the aircraft is 50 metres above the runway to the point at which the
aircraft has come to a complete stop
C) From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft has decelerated to a speed of 20kts
D) From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft has come to a complete stop

675. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Gross take-off distance is less than net take-off distance

B) Gross acceleration is net acceleration minus 9.81m/s2
C) Gross landing distance is greater than net landing distance
D) Gross gradient is less than net gradient

676. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Gross take-off distance is less than net take-off distance

B) Gross acceleration is net acceleration minus 9.81m/s2
C) Gross landing distance is greater than net landing distance
D) Gross gradient is less than net gradient

677. The speed VS is defined as

A) safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway

B) speed for best specific range
C) design stress speed
D) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable

678. The rate of climb:

A) Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100

B) Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
C) Is the downhill component of the true airspeed
D) Is angle of climb times true airspeed

679. Gross performance is:

A) The maximum performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained
and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual
B) 65 percent of net performance
C) The average performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained
and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual
D) The minimum performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained
and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual

680. 4mm of rain is covering a runway. The runway is:

A) Contaminated
B) Flooded

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C) Wet
D) Damp

681. Density altitude is the:

A) Height above the surface

B) Altitude reference to the standard datum plane
C) Altitude read directly from the altimeter
D) Pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature

682. Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

A) When the altimeter setting is 1013" Hg

B) At standard temperature
C) When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg
D) When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter

683. Pressure altitude is:

A) The altimeter indication when QNH is set on the sub-scale

B) The altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub-scale
C) The altitude above sea level
D) The altimeter indication when 1013.25 Hpa is set on the sub-scale

684. The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:

A) Rate of climb to true airspeed

B) True airspeed to rate of climb
C) The increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage
D) The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage

685. Which of the equations below expresses approximately the un-accelerated percentage climb
gradient for small climb angles?

A) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100

B) Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100
C) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
D) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100

686. The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in
landing configuration is abbreviated as

A) VS
B) VS1
C) VSO
D) VMC

687. What are the standard temperature and pressure values at sea level?

A) 59 degrees Fahrenheit and 29.92 millibars

B) 59 degrees Celsius and 1013.2 millibars
C) 15 degrees Celsius and 1013.25 hPa
D) 0 degrees Celsius and 1013 hPa

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688. The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by

A) increasing the angle of attack

B) increasing the CAS
C) increasing the TAS
D) decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting

689.The absolute ceiling is defined as:

A) The outer boundary of our galaxy

B) The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0 ft/minute
C) The altitude where a certain maximum rate of climb (e.g. 100 ft/min) is attained
D) The altitude where the rate of climb is maximum

690. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:

A) Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface
B) Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed)
C) Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have
made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off
D) Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or
discontinue the take-off

691. For a single engine class B aeroplane, V2 may not be less than:

A) 1.2Vs
B) not applicable
C) 1.5Vs
D) 1.15Vs

692. What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

A) 15° C and 29.92" Hg

B) 0° C and 1013.2 bar
C) 59° C and 1013.2 millibars
D) 59° F and 29.92 millibars

693. The C of G is:

A) The point on the aircraft from where the dihedral angle is measured
B) The point on the aircraft where the lift acts through
C) The point on the aircraft where the datum is located
D) The point on the aircraft through which gravity appears to act

694. Take-off distance available is:

A) the distance from brake release point to 35ft screen height

B) TORA
C) TORA plus clearway
D) TORA plus stopway

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695. The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on:

A) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane

B) the radius of the turn and the bank angle
C) the bank angle only
D) the true airspeed and the bank angle

696. The gross take off distance required for a single engine Class B aircraft is the distance:

A) from the start of the run to the point at which the wheels are just clear of the ground
B) from the start of the run to a screen height of 50 feet
C) from the start of the run to a screen height of 35 feet
D) from the start of the run to the point at which the wheels are just clear of the ground multiplied by
a factor of 1.25

697. The Density Altitude:

A) is equal to the pressure altitude

B) is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains
C) is used to determine the aeroplane performance
D) is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude

698. The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is:

A) On the " back side" of the drag curve

B) The point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve
C) At stalling speed (VS)
D) The lowest point of the drag curve

699. For a piston engine aircraft the Critical Altitude is:

A) The maximum altitude at which it is possible to maintain a specified power

B) The maximum altitude at which, in standard atmosphere, it is possible to maintain a specified
power or a specified manifold pressure
C) The maximum altitude at which it is possible to maintain a specified manifold pressure
D) The minimum altitude at which, in standard atmosphere, it is possible to maintain a specified
power or a specified manifold pressure

700. Total air temperature is defined as:

A) The static air temperature plus isobaric compression rise

B) The highest temperature in a specified volume
C) The static air temperature plus adiabatic compression rise
D) The static air temperature plus isothermal compression rise

701. The International Standard Atmosphere defines an atmosphere where Sea level temperature (i)
Sea level pressure (ii) Sea level density (iii) temperature lapse rate (iv) are:

A) (i) 15° C (ii) 1013 mb (iii) 1.225 kg/m3 (iv) 6.5° C/1000 m
B) (i) 15° C (ii) 1013 mb (iii) 1.225 kg/m3 (iv) 1.98° C/1000m
C) (i) 15° C (ii) 29.92 in.Hg (iii) 1013 kg/m3 (iv) 1.98° C/1000 ft
D) (i) 0° C (ii) 1.013 Bar (iii) 1225 g/m3 (iv) 1.98° C/1000 ft

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702. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Landing distance required on a grass runway will be shorter than on tarmac because of the rougher
surface
B) Deployment of lift dumpers will increase the effectiveness of the wheel brakes
C) Wheel braking is most effective when the wheels are locked
D) A reduced flap setting for landing will give a shorter landing distance, as a result of reduced lift and
greater load on the wheels

703. The two requirements for take-off with which compliance is necessary are (single engine class B):

A) obstacle and climb gradient requirements

B) field-length and climb gradient requirements
C) field length and brake energy requirements
D) tyre speed and brake energy requirements

704. Decreasing take off flap from 15° to 0° will probably result in a _____ Vlof.

A) increased
B) reduced
C) greatly reduced
D) unchanged

705. The effect of a decrease in air density is to:

A) increase the take-off distance and increase the rate of climb

B) decrease the take-off distance and reduce the rate of climb
C) decrease the take-off distance and increase the rate of climb
D) increase the take-off distance and reduce the rate of climb

706. At the moment of lift off:

A) lift is greater than mass

B) lift and drag are equal to zero
C) lift is equal to weight
D) rolling resistance is a maximum

707. The landing distance required must not exceed (single engine class B):

A) 70 percent of the landing distance available at a destination aerodrome, and 60 percent of the
landing distance available at an alternate aerodrome
B) 60 percent of the landing distance available at destination and alternate aerodromes
C) 60 percent of the landing distance available at a destination aerodrome, and 70 percent of the
landing distance available at an alternate aerodrome
D) 70 percent of the landing distance available at destination and alternate aerodromes

708. An upward runway slope:

A) increases the take-off distance required

B) decreases the accelerated-stop-distance available
C) decreases the take-off distance required
D) increases the accelerated-stop-distance available

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709. Which of the following combinations will produce the best take-off performance in a normal
atmosphere?

A) Low altitude, low ambient temperature

B) High altitude, low ambient temperature
C) High altitude, high ambient temperature
D) Low altitude, high ambient temperature

710. If a runway is wet, the landing distance required for a dry runway (single engine class B):

A) must be increased by 50 percent

B) may be used un-factored
C) must be increased by 5 percent
D) must be increased by 15 percent

711. What is the effect of flap extension on Vx and Vy?

A) Vx decreases and Vy decreases

B) Vx increases and Vy decreases
C) Vx increases and Vy increases
D) Vx decreases and Vy increases

712. For a single engine class B aeroplane, take-off distance should be increased by... percent for
each... percent upslope.

A) 2, 5
B) 3, 1
C) 5, 1
D) 1, 2

713. How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run? The thrust

A) increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up

B) decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up
C) varies with mass changes only
D) has no change during take-off and climb

714. Compared to still air conditions, if an aircraft takes off with a headwind:

A) clearance of obstacles will not be affected and the MAT limit mass will increase
B) clearance of obstacles will be increased and the MAT limit mass will be increased
C) clearance of obstacles will not be affected and the MAT limit mass will not be affected
D) clearance of obstacles will be increased and the MAT limit mass will not be affected

715. What is the effect of an increased flap angle on the optimum lift-to-drag ratio?

A) The optimum lift-to-drag ratio will decrease initially, but will increase at higher flap settings
B) The optimum lift-to-drag ratio will increase
C) None
D) The optimum lift-to-drag ratio will decrease

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716. For an aeroplane nn Performance Class B the net take-off flight path begins at a height of _____
and ends at a height of _____ .

A) 35 feet; 1500 feet

B) 50 feet; 1000 feet
C) 50 feet; 1500 feet
D) 35 feet; 1000 feet

717. For an aeroplane in Performance Class B the following factors must be applied in determining the
take off distance from dry grass and wet pavement respectively:

A) 1.3 & 1.2

B) 1.2 & 1.0
C) 1.3 & 1.15
D) 1.2 & 1.15

718. Runway 30 is in use and the threshold elevation is 2139 feet, threshold elevation of runway 12 is
2289 feet.
Take-off run available is 1720 metres and clearway is 280 metres. What is the slope of the runway in
use?

A) 1.86% downhill
B) 2.53% per minute
C) 2.65% uphill
D) 1.49% uphill

719. If the flap angle is reduced below the optimum take-off setting, the field limited take-off mass...
and the climb gradient limited mass...

A) increases, increases
B) decreases, decreases
C) increases, decreases
D) decreases, increases

720. With the flaps in the take-off position, compared to the clean configuration, the climb gradient...
and the speed for best climb angle...

A) increases, increases
B) increases, decreases
C) decreases, increases
D) decreases, decreases

721. A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on
take-off performance:

A) A reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

B) An increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
C) An increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
D) A reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

722. The effect of increased weight on a glide descent in a normal atmosphere is:

A) Forward speed decreased, rate of descent increases

B) Forward speed decreased, rate of descent decreases

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C) Forward speed increases, rate of descent decreases

D) Forward speed increases, rate of descent increases

723. For a grass runway, the landing distance required for a paved runway should be (Class B single
engine):

A) increased by 15%
B) increased by 5%
C) increased by 20%
D) decreased by 5%

724. Given that the control requirement is met, the speed at the 50ft. screen must not be less than
(single engine class B):

A) 30 percent above the stalling speed with flaps up

B) 50 percent above the stalling speed with flaps up
C) 20 percent above the stalling speed with landing flaps
D) 30 percent above the stalling speed with landing flaps

725. The maximum angle of bank permitted after take-off below 50 feet for an aeroplane in
Performance Class B is:

A) 15°
B) 0°
C) 5°
D) 10°

726. Consider the field length requirements for a class B aircraft where no stopway or clearway is
available. In this case, the take-off distance must not exceed:

A) 1.15 x TORA
B) 1.15 x TODA
C) 1.25 x TORA
D) 1.25 x TODA

727. Other factors being equal , an increase in take-off weight will

A) increase lift off speed and stalling speed remains

B) increase lift off and stalling speed
C) weight has no effect on take-off speed or lift-off speed
D) increase lift off speed and decrease stalling speed

728. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on
take-off performance:

A) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

B) an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
C) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
D) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

729. The forces acting on an aircraft during the take-off run are:

A) lift, weight, aerodynamic drag, thrust and mechanical friction

B) lift, weight, aerodynamic drag and thrust

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C) weight, thrust and drag

D) lift, thrust and aerodynamic drag

730. To obtain the optimum descent distance the TAS must:

A) Remain the same regardless of the wind component

B) Be decreased only for a constant IAS descent in a head wind
C) Be increased in a head wind
D) Be decreased in a head wind

731. For a single engine class B aeroplane, if there is no clearway or stopway, the gross take-off
distance should be multiplied by:

A) 1.3
B) 1.15
C) 1.2
D) 1.25

732. The landing distance required will be increased as a result of all of the following:

A) decreased temperature, decreased pressure altitude, uphill runway slope

B) increased temperature, increased pressure altitude, downhill runway slope
C) increased temperature, decreased pressure altitude, downhill runway slope
D) increased temperature, increased pressure altitude, uphill runway slope

733. What percentages of the headwind and tailwind components are taken into account when
calculating the take- off field length required?

A) 100% headwind and 100% tailwind

B) 150% headwind and 50% tailwind
C) 50% headwind and 150% tailwind
D) 50% headwind and 100% tailwind

734. Descending at a constant IAS the gradient of descent in a normal atmosphere will:

A) Decrease in a head wind

B) Decrease progressively
C) Increase progressively
D) Remain unchanged

735. Which of the following will probably result in the greatest increase in take-off distance?

A) Tailwind; upslope; high surface temperature

B) Headwind; downslope; high surface temperature
C) Headwind; downslope; low surface temperature
D) Tailwind; downslope; high surface temperature

736. Which of the following statements is true (single engine class B)?

A) If the runway has an uphill slope of 1 percent, the landing distance required should be decreased
by 5 percent
B) For planning purposes the landing distance required should be based on the ISA temperature
appropriate to the pressure altitude
C) The landing distance required is not affected by temperature

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D) The landing distance required is not affected by weight as the effect of the increased speed is
cancelled by the increased braking effect

737. If for aeroplane in Performance Class B the intended take-off flight path requires track changes of
more than 15° , with the pilot unable to maintain visual navigation accuracy according to Appendix 1
of JAR OPS, the clearance of obstacles within _____ of track need be considered.

A) 900 m
B) 500 m
C) 300 m
D) 600 m

738. What happens to the field limited take off mass with runway slope?

A) It increases with an uphill slope

B) It is unaffected by runway slope
C) It increases with a downhill slope
D) It decreases with a downhill slope

739. When landing on a dry paved runway (class B performance aircraft) with a downhill slope of 2
percent, what factorisation must be used?

A) 1.1
B) 1.2
C) 1.4
D) 1.3

740. If there is an increase in atmospheric pressure and all other factors remain constant, it should
result in:

A) decreased take off distance and decreased climb performance

B) decreased take off distance and increased climb performance
C) increased take off distance and increased climb performance
D) increased take off distance and decreased climb performance

741. The effect of increasing aircraft mass on the landing distance is:

A) screen speed increases, brake drag increases, landing distance increases

B) screen speed decreases, brake drag decreases, landing distance decreases
C) screen speed decreases, brake drag increases, landing distance decreases
D) screen speed increases, brake drag decreases, landing distance increases

742. To determine the landing distance required (Class B single engine):

A) the reported wind components do not have to be factored

B) the reported headwind component must be factored by 1.5 and the reported tailwind component
by 0.5
C) the reported headwind component must be factored by 0.5 and the reported tailwind component
by 1.5
D) the reported wind components must be factored by 1.5

743. Descending at a constant IAS and a constant gradient of descent, the pitch angle must be:

A) Increase rapidly

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B) Progressively decreased
C) Kept constant
D) Progressively increased

744. Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap
10° selected:

Runway limit: 5 270 kg

Obstacle limit: 4 630 kg
Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg

Considering a take-off with flaps at:

A) 20° , the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
B) 5° , the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
C) 20° , both limitations are increased
D) 5° , both limitations are increased

745. Given that control requirements are adequate, the speed at the screen must not be less than
(single engine class B):

A) 10 percent above the stall speed

B) 25 percent above the stall speed
C) 30 percent above the stall speed
D) 20 percent above the stall speed

746. Which airspeed provides the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after
takeoff?

A) Vx
B) Vy
C) Va
D) Vc

747. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on
landing performance:

A) An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

B) A reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
C) An increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
D) A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance

748. Which of the following combinations will give the most limiting takeoff weight if identical slope
and wind component values exist?

A) An up-sloping runway with a tailwind component

B) An up-sloping runway with a headwind component
C) A down-sloping runway with a headwind component
D) A down-sloping runway with a tailwind component

749. A frangible obstacle is classed as:

A) An obstruction in the take off path that limits the length of the stopway

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B) An obstruction in the take off path that is a minimum hazard to an aircraft

C) An obstruction that must be taken into account for performance calculations
D) An obstruction that must be removed from any part of the manoeuvring

750. V1 has to be:

A) equal to or higher than V2

B) equal to or higher than VMCA
C) higher than VR
D) equal to or higher than VMCG

751. Reference zero is a point 35ft vertically beneath the aircraft at the end of:

A) TODA
B) TORA
C) ASDA
D) TODR

752. With which conditions would one expect Vmc to be the lowest?

A) Cold temp, high altitude, low humidity

B) Cold temp, low altitude, low humidity
C) Hot temp, high-pressure altitude, high humidity
D) Hot temp, low-pressure altitude, high humidity

753. The airspeed at which the main wheels of an aircraft leave the ground during take-off is called:

A) VLOF
B) VR
C) V2
D) Vmc

754. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:

A) lift off speed

B) take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft
C) critical engine failure speed
D) take-off decision speed

755. Which denotes the stall speed in the landing configuration?

A) VS1
B) VS1G
C) VSO
D) VS

756. The take-off decision speed V1 is:

A) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted
B) sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR
C) not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed
D) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted

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757. ASDA is defined as:

A) TORA plus clearway

B) TORA plus stopway
C) the same as TODA
D) TODA plus stopway

758. The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :

A) the accelerate-stop distance available

B) the landing distance available
C) the take-off distance available
D) the take-off run available

759. A clearway:

A) Provides an area over which an aeroplane can safely transit from lift off to the required height
B) All of the above
C) May be water
D) Need not have the same weight bearing qualities as the runway with which it is associated

760. For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:

A) that which gives the minimum value of drag

B) that which gives the maximum value of lift
C) that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio
D) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration

761. To determine the flight path after take-off (multi engine class B), if the cloud base at the
aerodrome is 1000 ft, it must be assumed that:

A) an engine fails at 1500 ft

B) an engine fails at 950 ft
C) an engine fails at 1000 ft
D) an engine fails at 50 ft

762. The most efficient angle of attack is:

A) 4°
B) 15°
C) 8°
D) 12°

763. Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?
(Ignore compressibility effects.)

A) Mass and altitude

B) Configuration and angle of attack
C) Altitude and configuration
D) Configuration and mass

764. If level flight is maintained but the air density decreases then this would cause:

A) The lift/drag ratio to increase

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B) Little overall change to drag

C) Available power to improve
D) Lift to decrease

765. If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the
landing distance must be increased by:

A) 20 %
B) 15 %
C) 5%
D) 10 %

766. The coefficient of lift may be increased by lowering the flaps or by:

A) increase of TAS
B) reducing nose up elevator trim
C) increase of CAS
D) increase of angle of attack

767. The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:

A) Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting

B) Not change
C) Smaller
D) Larger

768. The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:

A) The maximum range for a jet aeroplane

B) The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane
C) The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane
D) The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane

769. Runway 05 is in use and the forecasted wind is 100/45. Calculate the headwind and crosswind
components during take-off.

A) HW -7 kts; CW 38 kts
B) HW 28 kts; CW 34 kts
C) HW 34 kts; CW 29 kts
D) Additional information is required

770. Large flap settings:

A) Reduced stalling speed considerably and increase drag

B) Increase both drag and stalling speed
C) Reduce stalling speed slightly but increase drag considerably
D) Affect neither drag nor stalling speed

771. What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?

A) All of the above

B) It decreases aeroplane performance
C) It has no effect on aeroplane performance
D) It increases aeroplane performance

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772. When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:

A) the " balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the " all engine take-off distance"
B) the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass
C) the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point
D) the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1

773. The take-off distance required increases:

A) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation

B) due to slush on the runway
C) due to lower gross mass at take-off
D) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack

774. In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:

A) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance

B) the take-off must be continued
C) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF
D) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR

775. The effect on a too late rotation will be an:

A) decrease both the ground roll and climb ability

B) decrease the ground roll but increase the climb ability
C) increase the ground roll but climb ability will be good
D) increase the ground roll and decrease the climb ability

776. Wet snow is comprised of:

A) loose snow in the form of large flakes

B) snow which has been compressed
C) a mixture of water and snow
D) loose hard snow in the form of pellets

777. If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:

A) decrease the required take-off distance

B) increase the maximum mass for take-off
C) decrease the maximum mass for take-off
D) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off

778. The Take off Distance Required on a dry runway is :

A) the distance to reach 35 ft with all engines operating

B) 115% of the distance to 35 ft the critical engine having failed at VEF
C) the greater of the distance to reach 35 ft with the critical engine having failed at VEF and 115% of
the distance to reach 35 ft with all engines operating
D) the distance to reach 15 ft with the critical engine having failed at VEF

779. For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?

A) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance

B) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a

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few values are verified by flight tests

C) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be
decreased to compensate for decreasing friction
D) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for
contaminated runway is available

780. Assuming identical runway slope and wind component values, which of the following
combinations will give the most limiting take-off mass?

A) a downhill slope runway and a tailwind component

B) an uphill slope runway and a tailwind component
C) an uphill slope runway and a headwind component
D) a downhill slope runway and a headwind component

781. When operating with anti-skid inoperative:

A) neither take-off nor landing performance will be affected

B) only take-off performance will be affected
C) both take-off and landing performance will be affected
D) only landing performance will be affected

782. The vertical clearance of obstacles required on the take off flight path is:

A) 35 ft for all flight paths

B) 50 ft for all flight paths
C) 35 ft for the net flight path, and 50 ft for the gross flight path
D) 35 ft, or 50 ft during a turn in which the bank exceeds 15°

783. If takeoff weight is limited by Climb Requirements (A/C weight > 5700kg), then it means:

A) That a higher weight at constant climb cannot be maintained up to 5000 feet pressure altitude
B) That the A/C will not be able to climb to its filed cruising level at a higher weight (all engines
operating)
C) That at higher T/0 weight certain climb gradients during the T/O climb cannot be attained in case
of an engine failure
D) That the presence of obstacles along the departure flight path is limiting the T/O weight

784. If a V1 in excess of the calculated value is used for take-off then:

A) The continued take-off option is not permitted

B) The abandoned take-off option is not permitted
C) Both continued and abandoned take-off options are not permitted
D) VR will also be increased

785. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off
B) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end of the
permanent runway surface
C) An under run is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off
D) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an
aborted take-off

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786. Take off run required for a jet aircraft, with one engine inoperative is:

A) brake release point to 35ft

B) brake release point to midpoint between VLOF and 35ft
C) brake release point to 15ft
D) the same as for all engines

787. Which of the following will not cause the climb limited take-off weight to decrease:

A) Increased aerodrome pressure altitude

B) Increased flap setting angle
C) Increased ambient temperature
D) Increased headwind component

788. Runway 02 has a threshold elevation of 230 ft and runway 20 has a threshold elevation of 260ft.
If the TORA is 1200m calculate the slope of runway 02:

A) 1.56% down
B) 1.56% up
C) 0.76% down
D) 0.76% up

789. What will be the effect on an aeroplanes performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is
decreased?

A) It will increase the take-off ground run

B) It will decrease the take-off distance required
C) It will increase the take-off distance required
D) It will increase the accelerate stop distance

790. Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect
allowable take-off mass?

A) Allowable take-off mass increases

B) Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA
C) Allowable take-off mass decreases
D) There is no effect on allowable take-off mass

791. Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?

A) the climb limited take-off mass

B) the field limited take-off mass
C) the take-off run
D) the obstacle limited take-off mass

792. The take-off mass could be limited by:

A) the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only

B) the take-off distance available (TODA) only
C) the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with
one engine inoperative
D) the maximum brake energy only

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793. If the balanced field length required for a given weight is less than the balanced field length
available :

A) Take off may not be made at that weight

B) there will be a range of V1 speed available
C) the V1 must be decreased below the balanced field V1
D) the V1 must be increased above the balanced field V1

794. The speed V1 may never exceed:

A) the maximum braking energy speed (Vmbe)

B) the rotation speed (Vr)
C) the minimum control speed ground (Vmcg)
D) both 2 and 3

795. What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off?

A) The climb limited take-off mass is the highest

B) The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest
C) The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest
D) The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest

796. Balanced V1 is selected:

A) if it is equal to V2
B) for a runway length limited take-off. with a stopway to give the highest-mass
C) for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass
D) if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance

797. The time delay included in take-off calculations for the recognition and reaction to an engine
failure during the take-off run is:

A) 2 seconds
B) 4 seconds
C) 3 seconds
D) 1 seconds

798. The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:

A) the point half way between V1 and V2

B) the lift-off point
C) the point where V2 is reached
D) the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point

799. Water equivalent depth is:

A) the depth of water in the contaminant

B) the contaminant depth x specific gravity
C) the measured depth of the contaminant
D) the contaminant depth x 0.5

800. Reduced take-off thrust:

A) has the benefit of improving engine life

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B) is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT)

C) can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt
D) can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass

801. What is the effect of a negative runway slope?

A) VR decreases
B) V1 increases
C) VR increases
D) V1 decreases

802. Putting in 16500 litres of fuel with an SG of 780 kg/m3, and writing 16500 kg of fuel on the load
sheet will result in:

A) TOD and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast
B) TOD and ASD remaining constant, if the calculated speeds are used
C) TOD and ASD increasing, if the calculated speeds are used
D) TOD increasing and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast

FLIGHT PLANNING
803. Given the following:
True Course: 315°
Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots

What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)

A) +6° / 425
B) -6° / 425
C) -6° / 415
D) +6° / 415

804. VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than:

A) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
B) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft
C) 500 ft above the highest obstacle
D) the highest obstacle

805. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?

Given:
Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa
Temperature = ISA
1 hPa = 30 ft

A) 7800 ft
B) 6300 ft
C) 6600 ft
D) 6000 ft

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806. The measured course 042° T

The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm
The deviation is 4° W
In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:

A) 052°
B) 058°
C) 044°
D) 040°

807. Using the following data, determine the maximum fuel load:

DOM: 2800 kg
Trip: 300 kg
Payload: 400 kg
MTOM: 4200 kg
MLM: 3700 kg

A) 800 kg
B) 1000 kg
C) 700 kg
D) 500 kg

808. Given(vvi)(july 2012 dgca exam)

Dry operating mass (DOM) = 33510 kg
Load = 7600 kg
Final reserve fuel = 983 kg
Alternate fuel = 1100 kg
Contingency fuel = 102 kg

The estimated landing mass at alternate should be:

A) 42195 kg
B) 42093 kg
C) 42210 kg
D) 42312 kg

809. The route fuel is 270 lb, contingency fuel is 7.5% of the route fuel, alternate fuel is 12 lb, final
reserve fuel is 25 lb, and taxi fuel is 25 lb, the take off fuel is:

A) 327.25 lb
B) 312.55 lb
C) 352.25 lb
D) 292 lb

810. A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US
gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip
fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according
to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that
fuel consumption does not change. Which statement is right?

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A) At destination the required reserves remain intact

B) At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons
C) At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks
D) The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact

811. For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:

Flight time: 2h42min

Taxi fuel: 9 kg
Block fuel: 136 kg
The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel.

How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?

A) 33 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel

B) 23 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel
C) 25 kg trip fuel and 8 kg reserve fuel
D) 33 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel

812. During an IFR flight in a Beech Bonanza the fuel indicators show that the remaining amount of
fuel is 100 lbs after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate
fuel, 30 lbs is necessary.
The planned fuel for taxi was 13 lbs. Final reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow remains
the same, how many minutes can be flown to the destination with the remaining fuel?

A) 44 minutes
B) 63 minutes
C) 4 minutes
D) 12 minutes

813. For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:

Flight time: 3h06min

Taxi fuel: 8 kg
Block fuel: 118 kg
The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel

814.How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?

A) 39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel

B) 39 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel
C) 30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel
D) 27 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel

815. ATC require a descent from FL270 to FL160 to be level 6 NM before a VOR. If rate of descent is
800 feet per minute, mean groundspeed is 256 kts, how far out from the VOR must descent be
started?

A) 65 nm
B) 59 nm
C) 150 nm
D) 144 nm

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816. Given:
TAS: 273 kts
Distance NGM: 30
Time: 6 minutes
Calculate Wind component, Ground speed and NAM:

A) +20 kts; 293 kts; 33 NAM

B) -20 kts; 253 kts; 27 NAM
C) +27 kts; 300 kts; 27 NAM
D) -27 kts; 300 kts; 33 NAM

817. Given:
IAS: 110 kt
Temperature deviation: -4° C
Cruise altitude: FL120
W/C: -29 kt
Leg distance: 164 NM
Leg fuel required: 102 lb
The fuel flow for the leg is:

A) 61.3 lb/hr
B) 64.15 lb/hr
C) 69.27 lb/hr
D) 59.8 lb/hr

818. A descent is planned from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a VORTAC. With
a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is
started is:

A) 30,2 NM
B) 11,7 NM
C) 27,1 NM
D) 15,0 NM

819. After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the
airfield of departure. You will arrive after:

A) 24 min
B) 10 min 40 sec
C) 20 min
D) 16 min

820. An aircraft flying at 7500 ft is cleared to descend to be level at 1000 ft, 6 NM before reaching a
beacon. If ground speed is 156 kt and Rate of Descent is 800 fpm, how many miles before the beacon
should descent begin?

A) 11.1
B) 15.0
C) 30.2
D) 27.1

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821. Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included). Assume the
groundspeed on this trip is constant. When the aeroplane has done half the distance the remaining
fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a nearby alternate necessary?

A) Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because the reserve fuel has not been used
completely
B) Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because it is allowed to calculate without reserve
fuel
C) Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the captain decides to continue on his own
responsibility
D) Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not sufficient

822. At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of useable fuel remaining. Alternate fuel required is
12 USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate
acceptable?

A) 21.3 USG/Hr
B) 30.3 USG/Hr
C) 33.0 USG/Hr
D) 37.9 USG/Hr

823. Given:
Ground Speed: 150 kts
Wind component: -30 kts
Distance NGM: 86

Calculate NAM and TAS:

A) 69 NAM; 180 kts

B) 103 NAM; 180 kts
C) 69 NAM; 120 kts
D) 103 NAM; 120 kts

824. Given:
Wind Component: -30 kts
Distance NAM: 89
Time: 42.5 minutes

Calculate NGM:

A) 68 NGM
B) 110 NGM
C) 89 NGM
D) 76 NGM

825. Given:
Wind Component: +35 kts
Distance NAM: 170
Time: 85 minutes

Calculate NGM:

A) 135 NGM

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B) 220 NGM
C) 205 NGM
D) 120 NGM

826. Given:
Wind Component: +30 kts
Distance NGM: 153
Time: 73 minutes

Calculate NAM:

A) 189 NAM
B) 183 NAM
C) 123 NAM
D) 117 NAM

827. Given:
Wind component: +40 kts
Distance NGM: 150
Time: 19 minutes

Calculate NAM:

A) 163 NAM
B) 190 NAM
C) 110 NAM
D) 137 NAM

828. Given:
Wind Component: -10 kts
Ground Speed: 125 kts
Distance NAM: 46
Time: 21 minutes

Calculate TAS and NGM:

A) 125 kts; 49 NGM

B) 135 kts; 49 NGM
C) 135 kts; 43 NGM
D) 125 kts; 43 NGM

829. In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly
overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is
negligible, temperature is standard. The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of:

A) 140 NM
B) 130 NM
C) 110 NM
D) 120 NM

830. Given:
Ground Speed: 210 kts
TAS: 180 kts

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Distance NAM: 74

Calculate NGM and wind Component:

A) 86 NGM; +30 kts

B) 62 NGM; +30 kts
C) 86 NGM; -30 kts
D) 62 NGM; -30 kts

831. A VFR flight is planned for a Piper Seneca III. At a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable
fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The alternate fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the
remaining flight time is 1h35min.
Calculate the highest rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip:

A) 21.3 US gallons/hour
B) 30.3 US gallons/hour
C) 37.9 US gallons/hour
D) 33.0 US gallons/hour

832. During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a distance of 750
NM from the groundstation and at flight level 350. The frequency to be used is:

A) 1136 kHz
B) 5649 kHz
C) 17286 kHz
D) 123.9 MHz

833. For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular basis on at least:

A) 20 occasions
B) 50 occasions
C) 10 occasions
D) 30 occasions

834. A CURRENT flight plan is a:

A) filed flight plan

B) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and
ATC
C) flight plan with the correct time of departure
D) filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included

835. For which flights are Flight Plans required?

i. IFR flights
ii. IFR and VFR flights
iii. Flights crossing national boundaries
iv. Flights over water
v. Public transport flights

A) ii, iii, iv
B) i, iii
C) ii, iii, iv, v
D) i, iii, v

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836. In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable
transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is:

A) B
B) P
C) C
D) A

837. On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as H for HEAVY:

A) has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg

B) requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass
C) is of the highest wake turbulence category
D) has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg

838. For a flight plan received from an aircraft in flight the time used in Item 13 is:

A) The estimated or actual time over the first point of the route to which the flight plan applies
B) EOBT
C) The time of requesting the flight plan
D) Actual time of departure

839. For a flight plan received from an aircraft in flight the time used in Item 13 is:

A) The estimated or actual time over the first point of the route to which the flight plan applies
B) EOBT
C) The time of requesting the flight plan
D) Actual time of departure

840. The navigation plan reads:

Trip fuel: 100 kg
Flight time: 1h35min
Taxi fuel: 3 kg
Block fuel: 181 kg

The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:

A) 1h 35min
B) 2h 04min
C) 2h 49min
D) 2h 52min

841. An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take-off
mass 135000 kg.
In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence category is:

A) medium plus (M+)

B) heavy/medium (H/M)
C) medium (M)
D) heavy (H)

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842. Flights certified as complying with MNPS and RVSM should insert, after S in item 10 of their ICAO
Flight Plan, the letter:

A) X
B) XR
C) W
D) XW

843. If a flight is subject to ATFM the flight plan should be filed:

A) 60 minutes
B) 180 minutes
C) 120 minutes
D) 30 minutes

844. You have filed a flight plan for an uncontrolled flight and suffer a delay prior to departure.
After how long a delay must you restate your OBT?

A) 90 mins
B) 60 mins
C) 40 mins
D) 30 mins

845. Track 348° T, drift 17° left (port), variation 32° W, deviation 4° E.
What is the required compass heading?

A) 339°
B) 329°
C) 033°
D) 344°

846. In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B, the final
reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to:

A) 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B

B) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B
C) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome A
D) 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A

847. Find the airfield pressure height given:

Elevation: 397 ft
QNH: 1023 hPa
OAT: +22° C

A) 397 ft
B) 127 ft
C) 291 ft
D) 97 ft

848. Given an airfield elevation of 900 ft and a QNH of 1019 hPa, determine the aerodrome pressure
altitude:

A) 720 ft
B) 750 ft

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C) 450 ft
D) 780 ft

849. At an airfield where the Relative Humidity is high the:

A) The landing performance of an aircraft will be improved

B) Take-Off performance of an aircraft will be enhanced
C) There will be no change in performance of the aircraft
D) The climb performance of an aircraft will be degraded

850. Airfield Elevation: 1075 feet

Temperature: +16° C
QNH: 995 hPa
(assume 1 Hpa = 30ft)

The Density Altitude is closest to:

A) 771 ft
B) 2130 ft
C) 1075 ft
D) 1444 ft

851. An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum
obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is almost at
sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15° C, the minimum flight level will be:

A) 150
B) 140
C) 130
D) 120

852. According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The
meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20° C at FL 85. The QNH, given by a
meteorological station at an elevation of 4000ft, is 1003 hPa. What is the minimum pressure altitude
which should be flown according to the given MOCA?

A) 12800 ft
B) 8200 ft
C) 8500 ft
D) 8800 ft

853. If the pressure altitude is 5,000 feet and the ambient outside air temperature is ISA +20° C what
is the density altitude?

A) 8,700 feet
B) 6,500 feet
C) 5,600 feet
D) 7,800 feet

854. Given a leg distance of 650 NGM, with a TAS of 400 kts and wind component of – 30 kts.
Calculate the NAM:

A) 550

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B) 604
C) 650
D) 703

855. Given:
Maximum authorised Take-off Mass: 45,000 kg
DOM: 24,500 kg
Maximum authorised Zero Fuel Mass: 36,500 kg
Mean TAS: 425 kts
Maximum fuel capacity: 13,300 kg
Mean fuel consumption: 2400 kg/h
Reserve fuel (assume unused): 1300 kg
Maximum Landing Mass: 39,500 kg

Assuming still air conditions determine the maximum range of this aircraft (assume reserve fuel
unused).

A) 2210 NM
B) 2355 NM
C) 2125 NM
D) 1985 NM

856. What is Decision Point Procedure?

It is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel carried on a flight by:

A) reducing trip fuel to only that required from Decision Aerodrome to Destination
B) reducing contingency fuel to only that required from Decision Point to Destination
C) reducing trip distance
D) reducing contingency fuel from 10% to 5% of trip fuel

857. Which is true regarding a balanced field?

A) Distances will remain equal, even if engine failure speed is changed

B) Take off distance will always be more than stopping distance
C) Provides largest gap between net and gross margins
D) Provides minimum field length required in the case of an engine failure

858. The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane:

Standard taxi fuel: 600 kg

Average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h
Holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8 000 kg/h
Flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours
Fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg

The minimum ramp fuel load is:

A) 77 800 kg
B) 77 200 kg
C) 79 800 kg
D) 74 800 kg

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859. Flying from C to D:

Track 125° (T)
TAS 245 Kts
Distance 1547 NM
W/V 225/45

If an aircraft departs C at 0915 Z the ETA at the PET is:

A) 1300 Z
B) 1200 Z
C) 1215 Z
D) 1230 Z

860. Total fuel available overhead X (excluding reserves): 24,000 kg

Distance X to Y: 850 NM
Mean TAS (4 engines): 310 kt
Mean TAS (3 engines): 275 kt
Mean F/F (4 engines): 6500 kg/hr
Mean F/F (3 engines): 6350 kg/hr
Mean wind component out: -45 kt
Mean wind component home: +35 kt

The distance to the all engine operating Point of Equal Time between X and Y is:

A) 509 NM
B) 370 NM
C) 460 NM
D) 481 NM

870. A twin engine aircraft is to fly from C to D:

Track 035° (T)

Distance 884 NM
W/V 135/45
2 engine TAS 220 Kts
1 engine TAS 185 Kts

871.If the ETD is 1100 Z the ETA at the 1 ENG INOP PET (CP) is:

A) 1314 Z
B) 1354 Z
C) 1334 Z
D) 1254 Z

872. An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is
based upon the use of a VOR is not lower than:

A) 200ft.
B) 250ft.
C) 300ft.
D) 150ft.

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873. When a destination alternate is not required for a turbojet engined aeroplane, the fuel and oil
carried must be at least sufficient to:

A) fly 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above the flight planned aerodrome at standard
conditions and to have an additional amount of fuel to cater for increases consumption due to any
of the contingencies specified by the operator.
B) fly to the aerodrome of destination specified in the operational flight plan.
C) fly to the flight planned destination and then remain airborne for 45 minutes.
D) take into account all the contingencies specified by the operator.

874. A destination alternate aerodrome must be specified for:

A) any flight where a take-off diversion has been planned.

B) any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainty that at the ETA a visual approach can be made.
C) an IFR flight, if enroute VMC conditions are expected.
D) any flight for public transport over 40km.

875. Mach meters are required to be carried in aeroplanes:

A) when the critical Mach-number is low.

B) where speed limitations are expressed in Mach-number.
C) when there is only one airspeed indicator installed.
D) for flights above FL 100.

876. The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any
aircraft of more than 5.700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least:

A) 15 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 60 minutes.
D) 2 hours.

877. A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:

A) 20000kg.
B) 5700kg.
C) 7000kg.
D) 10000kg.

878. An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is
based upon the use of an NDB is not lower than:

A) 300ft.
B) 250ft.
C) 200ft.
D) 150ft.

879. When calculating the length of the runway available (TODA):

A) the clearway has to be taken into account.

B) the distance lost in lining up the aircraft does not have to be taken into account.
C) the stopway has to be taken into account.
D) the runway slope has to be taken into account.

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880. When a destination alternate is required to be nominated for a propeller driven aeroplane, the
fuel and oil carried must be at least sufficient to:

A) fly to the aerodrome of intended landing, then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate
specified in the operational flight plan, and then remain airborne for a further 45 minutes.
B) fly to the flight planned destination and then remain airborne for 45 minutes.
C) land at the destination with the unusable fuel in the tanks.
D) fly to the alternate destination without performing an approach and missed approach at the
destination aerodrome.

881. Who is responsible for approving methods of calculating minimum flight altitudes?

A) The JAA.
B) The Operator.
C) The State of the Operator.
D) The ICAO Council.

NAVIGATION EXTRA
882. Directions are stated:

A) As a reference direction and a number of degrees.

B) In degrees with reference to True North when plotted with reference to the latitude/longitude grid
on a chart.
C) In degrees in a 360( system, starting out clockwise from the reference direction).
D) All 3 answers are correct.

883. he term departure used in navigation also have the following meaning:

A) Angular distance along a parallel of latitude.

B) Distance in direction East/West, given in nautical miles.
C) Angular distance along a meridian.
D) Distance North/South.

884. Kilometre is defined as:

A) the mean length of a 1/40000 part of the Equator.

B) 0,454 Nautical mile.
C) a 1/10000 part of the meridian length from Equator to the pole.
D) 0,621 Statute mile.

885. Deviation is:

A) a correction to be added to magnetic heading to obtain compass heading.

B) an error to be added to compass heading to obtain magnetic heading.
C) an error to be added to magnetic headings.
D) a correction to be added to compass heading to obtain magnetic heading.

886. Track = 090 (T), TAS = 460 knots, W/V = 360 (T) / 100, Variation = 10 E, Deviation = -2.
What is compass heading and groundspeed?

A) 070 455 knots

B) 069 450 knots

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C) 068 460 knots

D) 079 470 knots

887. Given: Position A is N00° E100° , Position B is 240° (T), 200 NM from A. What is the position of
B?

A) N01° 40 E097° 07
B) N01° 40 E101° 40
C) S01° 40 E101° 40
D) S01° 40 E097° 07

888. The equivalent of 70 m/sec is approximately:

A) 35 kt
B) 145 kt
C) 136 kt
D) 210 kt

889. Given: GS = 105 kt. Distance from A to B = 103 NM. What is the time from A to B?

A) 00 HR 59 MIN.
B) 00 HR 57 MIN.
C) 01 HR 01 MIN.
D) 00 HR 58 MIN.

890. Given: True course from A to B = 090° , TAS = 460 kt, W/V = 360/100kt, Average variation =
10° E, Deviation = - 2° . Calculate the compass heading and GS?

A) 078° - 450 kt
B) 070° - 453 kt
C) 068° - 460 kt
D) 069° - 448 kt

891. An aircraft is flying TAS 180 knots and tracking 090° T. The W/V is 045/50. How far can the
aircraft fly out from its base and return within 1 hour?

A) 102 nm
B) 74 nm
C) 85 nm
D) 111 nm

892. Groundspeed is 540 knots. 72 nm to go. What is time to go?

A) 12 mins
B) 9 mins.
C) 18 mins.
D) 8 mins.

893. Airfield elevation is 1000 feet. The QNH is 988. Use 27 feet per millibar. What is pressure
altitude?

A) 675
B) 325
C) 1675

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D) 825

894. For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt. VAR
is 13° E.
Calculate the cross wind component?

A) 15 kt
B) 20 kt
C) 26 kt
D) 22 kt

826. Given:
Magnetic heading = 255°
VAR = 40° W
GS = 375 kt
W/V = 235° (T) / 120 kt
Calculate the drift angle?

A) 9° left.
B) 16° right.
C) 7° right.
D) 7° left.

827. Given:
TAS = 250 kt
HDG (T) = 029°
W/V = 035/45kt
Calculate the drift and GS?

A) 1L - 265 kt.
B) 1R - 295 kt.
C) 1R - 205 kt.
D) 1L - 205 kt.

828. Given:
Runway direction 305° (M)
Surface W/V 260° (M)/30 kt
Calculate the cross-wind component?

A) 18 kt.
B) 24 kt.
C) 27 kt.
D) 21 kt.

829. Given:
TAS = 140 kt
HDG (T) = 005°
W/V = 265/25kt
Calculate the drift and GS?

A) 9R - 140 kt.
B) 11R - 140 kt.
C) 10R - 146 kt.

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D) 11R - 142 kt.

830. Given:
TAS = 155 kt
Track (T) = 305°
W/V = 160/18kt
Calculate the HDG (° T) and GS?

A) 309 - 170 kt
B) 309 - 141 kt
C) 305 - 169 kt
D) 301 - 169 kt

831. The reported surface wind from the control tower is 240° /35 kt.
Runway 30 (300° ). What is cross-wind component?

A) 27 kt
B) 30 kt
C) 24 kt
D) 21 kt

832. What is the final position after the following rhumb line tracks and distances have been followed
from position 60° 00N 030° 00W?
South for 3600 NM
East for 3600 NM
North for 3600 NM
West for 3600 NM
The final position of the aircraft is:

A) 59° 00N 060° 00W

B) 60° 00N 030° 00E
C) 60° 00N 090° 00W
D) 59° 00N 090° 00W

833. You are flying at FL 80 and the air temperature is ISA 15. What CAS is required to make TAS 240
Kt?

A) 226 Kt
B) 220 Kt
C) 214 Kt
D) 206 Kt

834. With 60° difference between runway and wind direction, if the minimum headwind required is
10kts and the maximum crosswind is 35kts what are the maximum and minimum winds speeds?

A) 40 and 15.
B) 40 and 20.
C) 45 and 20.
D) 45 and 15.

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835. An aircraft was over A at 1435 hours flying direct to B. Given:

Distance A to B 2900 NM
True airspeed 470 kt
Mean wind component OUT +55 kt
Mean wind component BACK -75 kt
Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN
The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is:

A) 2844 NM.
B) 2141 NM.
C) 1611 NM.
D) 1759 NM.

836. An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a track of 090° (T),
W/V 130° / 20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure before sunset, the furthest
distance which may be travelled is:

A) 97 NM
B) 105 NM
C) 84 NM
D) 115 NM

837. What do you understand by the term white-out?

A) When the terrain is covered with snow and the horizon blend with the sky, visual visual
determination of height becoming difficult.
B) Taking off from a snow-covered lake.
C) Flying in heavy snow.
D) Flight conditions when you suddenly enter a cloud and all get white outside the cockpit windows.

838. During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an aircraft. The time
between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:

A) position.
B) drift.
C) track.
D) groundspeed.

839. Under which circumstances will an aircrafts radius of action be greatest?

A) Direct tail wind outbound.

B) Direct head wind outbound.
C) Wind at 45° to track.
D) Direct cross wind outbound.

840. A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME station: radial 180° +/- 1° , distance =
200 NM. What is the approximate error?

A) +/- 2 NM.
B) +/- 1 NM.
C) +/- 3.5 NM.
D) +/- 7 NM.

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841. RIX (N56° 53.8 E023° 58.0) 164° (RMI)/ 48 NM DME. The position of the aircraft is:

A) 57° 42N 023° 50E

B) 57° 50N 023° 38E
C) 57° 48N 023° 43E
D) 57° 42N 023° 40E

842. An aircraft leaves A at 1400, flying at Mach 0.84 (OAT – 58° C). The ETA B is 1436 and the
distance between A and B is 300 nm. At what time must a speed adjustment be made if the arrival
time is changed to 1438:

A) 1426.5
B) 1428.5
C) 1427.5
D) 1425.5

843. Given: Distance A to B is 100 NM, Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of course. What
heading alteration must be made to reach B?

A) 9° Right.
B) 15° Right.
C) 6° Right.
D) 18° Right.

844. An aeroplanes flies from A (59° S 142W) to B (61° S 148W) with a TAS of 480 kt.
The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial Navigation System in which AB track is active.
On route AB, true track:

A) increases by 5°
B) varies by 10°
C) varies by 4°
D) decreases by 6°

845. When using NDBs night effect is most likely to be greatest at:

A) night.
B) awn.
C) dusk.
D) dawn or dusk.

846. The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075° (T), Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right. The relative bearing
to maintained on the radio compass to reach GDV is

A) 007 Relative.
B) 353 Relative.
C) 000 Relative.
D) 183 Relative

847. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:

A) at both the VOR and aircraft.

B) at the aircraft location.
C) at the VOR.
D) at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station.

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848. The basic principle of operation of the VOR is by:

A) phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal.

B) pulse difference between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal.
C) phase comparison between a 63 Hz reference signal and a 63 Hz variable signal.
D) phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 63 Hz variable signal.

849. The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by:

A) phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a frequency modulated
variable signal.
B) phase comparison between a 108 Mhz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal.
C) phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an amplitude modulated
variable signal.
D) phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 108 Mhz variable signal.

850. An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270° (M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left
deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station:

A) SW
B) NE
C) NW
D) SE

851. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090° . From/To indicator
indicates TO. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?

A) 095
B) 275
C) 085
D) 265

852. For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090 deg would be achieved by flying ... from the
beacon.

A) north
B) south
C) west
D) east

853. The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR:

A) Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre the aircraft towards or
from the CDI needle.
B) Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR.
C) Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication.
D) Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR.

854. If you correctly tuned in a VOT situated to your east, your RMI should read ... and your OBS
would read...

A) 000; 000 with needle central and FROM indicated.

B) 090; 090 with needle central and FROM indicated.

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C) 090; 090 with needle central and TO indicated.

D) 000; 000 with needle central an TO indicated.

855. Using a VOR outside the DOC may result in interference from:

A) other aircraft.
B) ground waves.
C) other beacons.
D) skywaves.

856. In the DME system:

A) The aircraft equipment is called a transponder.

B) The receive and the transmit frequency is always split by 63 MHz.
C) The operation is similar to a primary radar system.
D) The channels are referred to as " X" channels paired with VORs and " Y" channels paired with ILS
localizers.

857. During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station
located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:

A) range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM.

B) aeroplane is circling around the station.
C) altitude is too high.
D) aeroplane is below the line of sight altitude.

858. When can an ILS back beam be received in the:

A) when flying in the area forward the localiser aerial

B) only at installations where this facility exists.
C) never.
D) when flying in the area behind the localiser aerial.

859. DME distinguishes between its signals returning from the ground equipment and signals reflected
from the ground because:

A) they are differently modulated.

B) they carry a unique coding sequence.
C) the time delay between transmitted and received signals is incorrect.
D) they are at different frequencies.

860. For reliable navigational information the approximate coverage of a 3° glideslope is:

A) 1.35° to 5.25° from the horizontal and 8° either side of the localiser.
B) 0.7° above and below the glidepath and 8° either side of the localiser.
C) 0.45° from the horizontal to 1.75° above the glidepath and 8° either side of the localiser.
D) 3° above and below the glidepath and 10° either side of the localiser.

861. Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit
display represent:

A) 0.5 degrees.
B) 2.5 degrees.
C) 1.5 degrees.

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D) 2.0 degrees.

862. On a localizer the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz. Which of the following statements is
correct?

A) The 90 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line.

B) The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line.
C) When both modulations are received, the aeroplane will be on the centre line.
D) If the 150 Hz modulations predominates, the needle on the CDI moves to the right of centre.

863. An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the
approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:

A) can expect signals to give correct indications.

B) may receive false course indications.
C) will not normally receive signals.
D) will receive signals without identification coding.

BEST OF LUCK
CHANDAN KUMAR
CAPT_CHANDAN@YAHOO.COM
DGCA QUESTION BANK FOR AIR
NAVIGATION

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