1. Which of the following is not a duty of an Advocate to Court?

A. To not commit breach of Section 126 of Evidence Act.

B. To not to appear on behalf of any organisation of whose Executive Committee, he is a

member.

C. To not appear before a Court, Tribunal or Authority in which his near relation is a
member.

D. To conduct himself with dignity and self-respect during presentation of a case before a
Court and otherwise acting before a Court.

2. Which of the following rules of Chapter II of Part VI of the Bar Council Rules deal with
the duty of an Advocate in respect of any moneys received by him from Client:

A. Rule 25.

B. Rule 33.

C. Rule 24.

D. None of the above.

3. The provisions relating to dowry is given under:

A. Section 304-B of the IPC.

B. Section 304-A of the IPC.

C. Section 304 of the IPC.

D. Section 305-B of the IPC.

4. Which of the following section is designed to curb infanticide?

A. Section 317 of the IPC.

B. Section 313 of the IPC.

C. Section 318 of the IPC.

D. Section 315 of the IPC.

5. Which of the following is an infringement of a Registered Trade Mark?

A. Use of a mark identical to the Trade Mark in relation to goods without authorisation.

B. Advertising of that Trade Mark such that the advertisement is against the reputation of the
Trade Mark.

C. Use of that Trade Mark as a business name without authorisation.

D. All of the above.

6. A person undergoing life imprisonment, if attempts to commit murder and hurt is caused
thereby, he may be punished with:

A. Life imprisonment.

B. Death.

C. Imprisonment.

D. All of the above.

7. Residuary Powers in India may be exercised by

A. Parliament.

B. State Legislatures.

C. President.

D. Both A & B.

8. The Punishments to which offenders are liable under the provision of IPC are

A. Death and imprisonment for life

B. Rigorous imprisonment and simple imprisonment.

C. Forfeiture of property and fine.

D. All of the above.

9. M'Naghten Rule from the basis of the law of:

A. Infancy.

B. Insanity.
C. Ignorance of fact.

D. Mistake.

10. Ensuring the safety, health and welfare of the employees is the primary purpose of the

A. Payment of Wages Act, 1936.

B. Industrial Dispute Act, 1947.

C. Factories Act, 1948.

D. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.

11. In which case Supreme Court held that whether teachers are not workmen?

A. Dharangadhara Chemical Work Ltd. V/s State of Saurashtra, AIR 1957 SC 264.

B. University of Delhi V/s Ram Nath, AIR 1963 SC 1873

C. J.K. Cotton Spinning and Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. V/s L.T AIR 1964 SC 737

D. Sunderambal V/s Government of Goa, AIR (1988) SC 1700

12. Under Section 2 (cc) of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947, ‘Closure’ means:

A. The permanent closing down of a place of employment of part thereof.

B. The partly closing down of a place of employment or part thereof.

C. The temporary closing down of a place of employment or part thereof.

D. The short-term closing down of a place of employment or part of thereof.

13. It deals with the Internal Management and Affairs of company:

A. Prospectus.

B. Articles of Association.

C. Memorandum of Association.

D. Debenture.
14. Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in:

A. 1991.

B. 1993.

C. 1995.

D. 1997.

15. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory under

A. Indian Forest Act.

B. Air Act.

C. Wildlife Protection Act.

D. Environment Protection Act.

16. A reference can be made during the pendency of the case:

A. The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the letter’s opinion on a
question of law.

B. The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the letter’s opinion on a
question of evidence.

C. The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the letter’s opinion on a
question of fact.

D. The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the letter’s opinion on a
question of court procedure.

17. A person can apply for review of judgment when.

A. He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which an appeal is allowed, but no appeal has been
preferred.

B. He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which an appeal is allowed.

C. He is aggrieved by a decision on the reference from a Court of small causes.

D. All of the above.

19. Under which of the following sections of Cr.P.C. provisions relating to police report is
given?

A. Section 173 (2) (i).

B. Section 177.

C. Section 174 (2) (i).

D. Section 175.

20. Which one of the following provisions of Cr.P.C. deals with anticipatory bail?

A. Section 437.

B. Section 438.

C. Section 439.

D. None of the above.

21. The provision relating to cancellation of bond and bail bond is given under:

A. Section 446-A.

B. Section 446.

C. Section 447.

D. Section 450.

22. ‘Mesne Profits’ of property means:

A. Those profits by which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually
received or might have received there from, together with interest on such profits.

B. The profits due to improvements made by person in wrongful possession.

C. Both A & B.

D. None of the above.

23. Which of the following is not a legal representative?

A. Executor and administrators.

B. Hindu coparceners.

C. Creditor.

D. Intermeddler.

24. Which order has been specially enacted to protect the interest of Minors and Unsound
Mind:

A. Order 31.

B. Order 32.

C. Order 33.

D. Order 34.

25. Which order of the CPC lays down general rules governing pleadings in a court?

A. Order 6.

B. Order 7.

C. Order 8.

D. Order 9.

26. Second appeal under Section 100 is applicable:

A. Substantial question of law as formulated by the High Court.

B. Substantial question of law as not formulated by the High Court.

C. An appellate decree passed Ex Parte.

D. All of the above.

27. ‘A’ places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells ‘Z’ that they will fire at
‘Z’ if ‘Z’ attempts to leave the building. ‘A’:

A. Wrongfully restrains Z.

B. Wrongfully confines Z.

C. Both A & B.
D. None of the above.

28. ‘A’ incites a dog to spring upon ‘Z’ without Z’s consent. If ‘A’ intends to cause injury,
fear or annoyance to ‘Z’:

A. ‘A’ uses force to ‘Z’.

B. ‘A’ assaulted ‘Z’.

C. ‘A’ uses criminal force to ‘Z’.

D. None of the above.

29. ‘A’ causes cattle to enter upon the field belonging to ‘Z’, intending to cause and knowing
that he is likely to cause damange to ‘Z’s’ crop. ‘A’ has committed:

A. Mischief.

B. Criminal Trespassing.

C. Criminal Breach of Trust.

D. Extortion.

30. Which of the following provisions of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the power of
Bar Council of India to withdraw to itself, any proceedings for disciplinary action pending
before any State Bar Council:

A. Section 35.

B. Section 37.

C. Section 36 (2).

D. None of the above.

31. Which court or Authority has the power to punish any person for contempt of the
National Company Law Tribunal.

A. Supreme Court.

B. High Court.

C. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal.

D. National Company Law Tribunal.

32. Which of the following is not a vested interest?

A. ‘A’ stipulates that title in a property shall pass to ‘C’ on his death.

B. ‘A’ stipulates that title in a property shall pass to ‘C’ on the death of ‘B’.

C. ‘A’ stipulates that title in a property shall pass to ‘C’ if he marries ‘B’.

D. ‘A’ stipulates that title in a property shall pass to ‘C’ after ten years.

33. Which of the following is wrong in respect of the law of copyright?

A. Copyright protects only the expression and not idea.

B. There is no copyright in respect of a fact.

C. There is no copyright in the government work.

D. Copyright does not require registration.

34. Public Interest Litigation is relaxation of which of the following requirements:

A. Jurisdiction.

B. Locus Standi.

C. Both A & B.

D. None of the above.

35. Which of the following is not a case of Public Interest Litigation?

A. Kesavananda Bharti V. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461

B. Vincent Narayan V. Union of India, AIR 1988 SC 889

C. Union of India V. Association for Democratic Reforms, AIR 2002 SC 2112

D. Vincent Panikurlangara V. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 990

36. Which of the following can be done by a Senior Advocate in accordance with the Rules
of Bar Council of India?

A. Make concessions on behalf of client on instructions from junior advocate.

B. Accept instructions to draft a pleading.

C. Accept brief directly from a client.

D. None of the Above.

37. Under which one of the following Sections of Cr.P.C., police officer is under obligation
to inform the accused ground of the right to bail.

A. Section 49.

B. Section 50.

C. Section 57.

D. Section 60.

38. Under what circumstance court can issue an order for the attachment of property of
person absconding:

A. Where the person to whom proclamation is issued is about to dispose of the whole of his
property.

B. Where the person to whom proclamation is issued is about to dispose of any part of his
property.

C. Where the person to whom proclamation is issued is about to remove the whole or any part
of his property from the local jurisdiction of the court.

D. All of the above.

39. Inherent Power under Section 482 Cr.P.C. can be exercised by.

A. The Supreme Court.

B. The Court of Session.

C. The High Court.

D. All of the above.

40. If it is proved that a man has not been heard of for ______ by those who would naturally
have heard of him if he were alive, the presumption under Section 108 of the Indian Evidence
Act is that he is dead:

A. 5 years.

B. 7 years.

C. 15 years.

D. 20 years.

41. A dumb witness given his evidence in writing in the open court, such evidence would be
treated as,

A. Oral evidence.

B. Documentary evidence.

C. Secondary evidence.

D. Primary evidence.

42. Which of the following is not a public document?

A. Bank Books.

B. Post-mortem Report.

C. Judgment of the High Court.

D. Registered Sale Deed.

43. The liability under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 is,

A. Strict liability.

B. Vicarious liability.

C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’.

D. None of the above.

44. The objectives of Land Acquisition Act, 1894 are-

A. An Act to amend the law for the acquisition of land for public purposes and for industry.

B. An Act to amend the law for the purchase of land for public purpose and for business.

C. An Act to amend the law for the possessions of land for public purpose and for
manufacturing.

D. An Act to amend the law for the acquisition of land for public purposes and for
companies.

45. Effect of ‘not negotiable’ crossing is mentioned under

A. Section 125.

B. Section 130.

C. Section 131.

D. Section 128.

46. Section 16 of Negotiable Instrument Act defines

A. Restrictive endorsement.

B. Conditional endorsement.

C. Indorsement “in full” and indorsement “in blank.”

D. All of the above.

47. The Land Acquisition Act, 1894, came into force on-

A. First Day of January, 1894.

B. First Day of February, 1894.

C. First Day of March, 1894.

D. First Day of April, 1894.

48. Which of the following sentences can the Court of Session pass:
A. Death Sentence.

B. Rigorous imprisonment.

C. Simple Imprisonment.

D. Any sentence authorised by law but death sentence must be confirmed by the High Court.

49. Which of the following is not a requirement for a foreign judgment to the conclusive:

A. It must be given on merits of the case.

B. It must be pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction.

C. It was not obtained by fraud.

D. It is by a court in an enemy country.

50. Which one is a Foreign Award-

A. An award in an arbitration where at least one part is non-Indian.

B. An award passed in a foreign seated arbitration.

C. An award passed in an arbitration where both the parties are non-Indian.

D. None of the above.

51. If a man marries a girl who is within his prohibited relationship and his custom does not
permit such marriage, such a man would be punished under:

A. Section 17 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

B. Section 18 (a) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

C. Section 18 (b) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

D. No punishment for such marriages.

52. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides that a child from a void
marriage would be legitimate?

A. Section 11.

B. Section 13 (a).
C. Section 12.

D. Section 16.

53. Under which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, Parliament is
empowered to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in National Interest?

A. Article 249.

B. Article 250.

C. Article 252.

D. Article 253.

54. In which of the following cases, the court has laid down the ‘Right to Life’ does not
include ‘Right to Die’?

A. State Vs Sanjay Kr. Bhatia.

B. Smt. Gian Kaur Vs State of Punjab

C. R. Vs Holiday

D. P. Rathinam Vs UOI

55. The question whether a bill is a money bill or not is decided by?

A. The Prime Minister.

B. The Finance Minister.

C. The President.

D. The Speaker, Lok Sabha.

56. Decision under 10th Schedule is taken by?

A. President.

B. Chief Justice of India.

C. Prime Minister.

D. Presiding officers of Houses.

57. Which one of the following sections of Cr.P.C. deals with irregularities which vitiate
proceeding?

A. Section 460.

B. Section 461.

C. Section 462.

D. Section 468.

58. Which of the following is not an essential element of a decree?

A. Conclusive determination of the rights of the parties.

B. Formal expression of adjudication.

C. An adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order.

D. The adjudication must have been given in a suit before the court.

59. Which of the following fact is not relevant in civil and criminal cases under Section 8 of
the Indian Evidence Act?

A. Motive.

B. Attempt.

C. Conduct.

D. Preparation.

60. BATNA stands for

A. Bilateral agreement to negotiation and arbitration.

B. Best alternative to a negotiated agreement.

C. Bilateral Trade negotiated agreement.

D. None of the above.

61. Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals which,
A. Interim measures by the court.

B. Discretionary powers of the court.

C. Both A & B.

D. None of the above.

62. The case of Muhammad Allahdad Khan Vs. Muhammad Ismail Khan is related to:

A. Pre-emption.

B. Gift.

C. Mahr.

D. Acknowledgement of paternity.

63. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court was in 2017 declared
pronouncements of talaq three times at a time by a Muslim husband as unconstitutional?

A. Shayara Bano V/s Union of India

B. Shassnim Ara V/s State of U.P.

C. Baitahira V/s Ali Hasan

D. Danial Latifi V/s Union of India

64. Which one of the following is true about Latin Maxim “ubi jus ibi remedium”?

A. Where there is right, there is remedy.

B. Where there is remedy, there is right.

C. Both A & B.

D. None of the Above.

65. The Latin word “Injuria Sine Damnum” literally means:

A. Infringement of legal right without damages.

B. Damages without infringement of legal right.

C. Both A & B.

D. All of the above.

66. The provision relating to claims tribunal is given under _______ of Motor Vehicles Act:

A. Section 165-175.

B. Section 175-180.

C. Section 170-175.

D. Section 171-177.

67. From which of the following countries, the Constitution of India has borrowed the ‘Power
of Judicial Review’?

A. Canada.

B. United Kingdom.

C. USA.

D. Ireland.

68. Enforcement of which of the following articles of the Constitution of India cannot be
suspended even during the proclamation of emergency?

A. Articles 14 and 19.

B. Articles 20 and 21.

C. Articles 23 and 24.

D. Articles 21 and 22.

69. For the first time in India, Income Tax was introduced by Sir James Wilson in the year:

A. 1886.

B. 1868.

C. 1860.

D. None of the above.

70. In which case, Justice J. C. Shah of S.C. observed “Since by the exercise of the power, a
serious invasion is made upon the rights, privacy and freedom of the tax payer, the power
must be exercised strictly in accordance with law and only for the purpose for which law
authorises it to be exercised.”

A. Director of Inspection Vs Pooranmal

B. ITO Vs Seth Brothers

C. P.R. Metrani Vs CIT

D. None of the above.

71. Which of the following statements are true?

i. Minor’s contract can be ratified on attaining majority.

ii. Minor’s contact be ratified on attaining majority.

iii. Minor’s contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties to the contract.

iv. Minor is not liable under minor’s contract.

A. (i) and (iii).

B. (ii) and (iv).

C. (i) and (ii).

D. (ii) and (iii).

72. Under which one of the following Sections of Cr.P.C., police officer can arrest an accused
without warrant?

A. Section 40.

B. Section 41.

C. Section 42.

D. Section 43.

73. Which one of the following courts, under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 can try an
murder case,
A. Judicial Magistrate of 1st Class.

B. Chief Judicial Magistrate.

C. Court of Sessions.

D. None of the above.

74. The authentication to be affected by the use of asymmetric crypto system and hash
function is known as:

A. Public Key.

B. Private Key.

C. Digital Signature.

D. Electronic Governance.

75. Punishment for Cyber Terrorism under Section 66F shall be punishable:

A. With imprisonment which may extend to three years or with fine not exceeding two lakh
rupees or with both.

B. With imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to
fine.

C. With imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life.

D. With imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years and
shall also be liable to fine.

76. Section 2 (j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defines “Industry” means any,

i. Business trade, undertaking

ii. Manufacture or calling of employers

iii. Included any calling, service, employment, handicraft.

iv. Industrial occupation of workmen.

A. (i) and (ii).

B. (i), (ii) and (iii).

C. (iii) and (iv).

D. All of the above.

77. One of the following statements is not true, which one is that:

A. A confession by one co-accused implicating other co-accused would be proved.

B. A confession to a police-officer cannot be proved.

C. A confession by a person in the custody of a police officer to any person in the presence of
magistrate can be proved.

D. If the confession of a person leads to recovery of a thing it can be proved.

78. The Kashmira Singh Vs. State of MP is a leading case on:

A. Dying declaration.

B. Admission.

C. Confession to police officer.

D. Confession of a co-accused.

79. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 comes into effect on.

A. 24th August 1986.

B. 15th April 1986.

C. 24th May 1986.

D. 24th December 1986.

80. Which one of the following sections of Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines the term
‘Consumer’?

A. Section 2(1)(a).

B. Section 2(1)(b).

C. Section 2 (1)(c).

D. Section 2(1)(d).
81. The principle of Law of Taxation that “No tax shall be levied or collected except by
authority of law.” It is contained under

A. Article 265 of the constitution.

B. Article 300 of the constitution.

C. Article 19(1)(g) of the constitution.

D. Article 285 of the constitution.

82. Under which Section of Income Tax Act, “income of other persons is included in
assessee’s total income.”

A. Sections 56-58.

B. Sections 139-147.

C. Sections 246-262.

D. Sections 60-65.

83. Which one of the following sentence is correctly method?

A. In India, consideration must follow from promisee only.

B. In India, consideration must follow from only promisor or only promisee.

C. In India, consideration must follow from promisor or any other person.

D. In India, consideration must follow from promisee or any other person.

84. Assertion (A): Collateral transactions to wagering are valid.

Reason (R): Only wagering agreements are declared void under Section 30 of the Indian
Contract Act.

Codes:

A. (a) is true, but (r) is false.

B. (a) is false, but (r) is true.

C. Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r) is not correct explanation of (a).
D. Both (a) and (r) are true, and (r) is correct explanation of (a).

85. Term ‘holder’ includes

A. The payee.

B. The bearer.

C. The endorsed.

D. All of the above.

86. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that an International Commercial
Arbitration is one which has its juridical or legal seat of arbitration outside India:

A. Bhatia International V. Buk Trading S.A. (2002) 4 SCC 105.

B. Bharat Aluminium Company V. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Services Inc. (2012) 9 SCC
552.

C. Booz Allen and Hamilton Inc. V. SBI Home Finance Limited (2011) 5 SCC 532.

D. Vimal Kishore Shah V. Jayesh Dinesh Shah (2016) 8 SCC 788.

87. Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 lays down for the
escheat:

A. Section 25.

B. Section 26.

C. Section 27.

D. Section 29.

88. Under the Indian Evidence Act, the character of a person is not relevant in which of the
following cases

A. Previous good character of an accused in criminal case.

B. Previous bad character in reply to good character in criminal case.

C. Character to prove conduct imputed in civil case.

D. Character affected the amount of damage in civil case.

89. Which one of the following is primary evidence

A. Document produced for the inspection of the court.

B. Copies made from original.

C. Certified copies of the document.

D. Photostat copies of a document.

90. Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 incorporate the fault
theory of divorce?

A. Section 13(1).

B. Section 11.

C. Section 13B.

D. Section 13(2).

91. Under the Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956, which of the both following
circumstances can a dependent enforce his right to maintenance against a transferee of an
estate out of which he has a right to receive maintenance:

A. Only when the transferee has notice of such right.

B. Only when the transfer is gratuitous.

C. Both A & B.

D. None of the above.

92. Which of the following Courts/Tribunals cannot entertain a Public Interest Litigation?

A. Supreme Court.

B. High Court.

C. Central Administrative Tribunal.

D. None of the Above.

93. Writ of Certiorari can be issued against

A. Judicial and quasi-judicial bodies.

B. Quasi-judicial and administrative bodies.

C. Administrative bodies only.

D. None of the above.

94. Supreme Court of India held that it is permanent obligation of every member of medical
profession either government or private to give medical aid to every injured person brought
for treatment immediately without waiting for procedural formalities in the case of-

A. Common Cause V/s Union of India (1996) 1 SC 753.

B. Peoples Union of India, AIR 1983 SC 339.

C. Parmanand Katara V/s Union of India, AIR 1989 SC 2039

D. Lakshmi Kant Pandey V/s Union of India (1984) 25 SC 244.

95. The Supreme Court of India has issued the direction to make the CBI independent agency
so that it can function more effectively and investigate crimes and corruptions at high places
in public life in the case of-

A. Union of India V/s Association For Democratic Reforms, AIR 2002 SC 2112.

B. Bangalore Medical Trust V/s B.S. Muddappa (1991) 45 SC 54.

C. Vincent Panikurlangra V/s Union of India (1987) 2 SC 165.

D. Vincent Narayan V/s Union of India, AIR 1998 SC 889.

96. ‘Rule of Law’ means

A. Equality before the Law.

B. Supremacy of the Law.

C. Predominance of legal spirit.

D. All of the above.

97. The purpose of Writ of ‘Quo Warranto’ is?

A. To compel public authority to perform duty.

B. To restraint public authority to do illegal act.

C. To oust illegal occupant of a public post.

D. All of the above.

98. Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, a Muslim wife can seek
Dissolution of Marriage if the husband fails to perform marital obligation for:

A. 2 years.

B. 3 years.

C. 4 years.

D. 5 years.

99. The Concept of ‘Curative’ Petition was introduced by the Supreme Court of India in the
case of.

A. Rupa Ashok Hura V/s Ashok Hura, AIR 2002 SC 1771.

B. M.C. Mehta V/s Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1087

C. Krishna Swami V/s Union of India, (1992) 45 SC 605

D. Sheela Barse V/s Union of India, (1986) 35 SC 5962

100. Right to Fare Legal Aid was recognised as a Fundamental Right under Art 21 of Indian
Constitution in the case of-

A. Hussainara Khatoon Vs State of Bihar, AIR 1979 SC 1360.

B. M.H. Hoskot V/s State of Maharashtra, AIR 1978 SC 1548

C. Madhu Mehta V/s Union of India (1989) 4 SC 1548

D. Rudal Shah V/s State of Bihar (1983) 45 SC 14