1.

It refers in determining the types of training needed in an organization as well as the extent to
which training is a practical means of achieving an organization's goals.

a. Training Analysis
b. Need Analysis
c. Goal Analysis
d. Process Analysis

2. As an HR personnel, you have decided to conduct a person analysis. Which of the following is
not part of it:

a. Performance Appraisal Evaluation

b. Interviews
c. Critical Incidents
d. Job Description

3. In developing a training program, the first thing that you should do is to:

a. Motivate employee to attend training

b. Determine who will conduct the training
c. Establish goals for the training
d. Determine where will the training be held

4. You planned to train employees by allowing them to work with equipments under actual
working conditions without the consequences of mistakes.

a. Simulation
b. Work Sample
c. Behaviour Modeling
d. Case Studies

5. An acquisition of skills to solve or handle problems or situations that you will encounter soon
when your position will be promoted is called

a. Development
b. Training
c. OJT
d, Practicing

6. The main difference of coaching and mentoring is that;

a. Coaching is more needed than mentoring

b. Mentoring needs perseverance than coaching
c. Coaching is more performace while mentoring is more on development
d. Coaching and mentoring are the same

7. A type of distance learning wherein the trainer and trainee can interact with each another.
a. Webcast
b. Podcast
c. Teleconference
d. Webinar

8. When an employee performs several different jobs within an organization, he\she is basically
doing?

a. Job Enlargement
b. Job Rotation
c. Job Enrichment
d. Job Exposure

9. As an evaluator, you want to determine whether the training was really applied in their job. It
is referred as;

a. Transfer of Learning
b. Transfer of Information
c. Transfer of Training
d. Training Results

10. In an evaluation form, one of the item is "I am satisfied with my learning on this training".
That test item is referring to a criterion called;

a. Behaviour Criterion
b. Learing Criterion
c. Results Criterion
d. Reaction Criterion

11. The most common training method?

a. Distance Learning
b. Classroom Instruction
c. Observation
d. Reporting

12. The following, except ____, are ways of making the training interesting.

a. Provide food
b. Provide incentive
c. Secure the best trainer in that particular training
d. Deduct the cost of training in the employees' salaries

13. When you are teaching a new employee during the work and working hours is considered as;

a. Apprenticeship
b. On the Job Training
c. Practicing
d. Overlearning

14. The most effective way for employees to acquire skills and knowledge in their current job is
through;

a. Development
b. Practicing
c. Training
d. Simulation

15. The following, except ____, are examples of Distance Learning.

a. Podcast
b. Webcast
c. Webinar
d. Teleconference

______________________________________________________________________________
____

RECRUITMENT AND SELECTION (Identification)

1. One of the problems with unstructured interview wherein the quote "first impression last" is
applicable.
2. A letter where you show off your potentials and market yourself during application process.
3. A type of test that tap the extent to which an applicant can learn or perform a job-related
skill.
4. A type of validity in which the test appears to be true in test-taker's perception.
5. Better known as "head hunters".
6. A method wherein posting job vacancy notices in places where customers or current
employees arelikely to see them.
7. A certain organization sends their group of people to college campuses to answer questions
about the same applicant at the same time.
8. A recruitment strategy wherein the recruiter tells an applicant an honest assessment of a job.
9. It's a style of an interview where multiple interviewers asking questions and evaluating
answers of the same applicant at the same time.
10. It is called a summary of an applicant's professional and eduational background.
11. A selection technique wherein the applicant performs actual job-related tasks.
12. Tina, as an HR practitioner, conducts the process of confirming the accuracy of information
provided by the applicant in his/her documents. Basically, Tina is doing...
13. For a company to know if a certain applicant has atendency to steal money or merchandise,
they could use test called.
14. It is common method to select employees where the recruiter assess the competencies
possessed by an applicant. This form of communication is called...
15. As an HR practitioner, you are responsible to attract potential candidates for a particular job
vacancy, a process called.
Give the 3 main categories of Validity;
16. Content Validity
17. Criterion Validity
18. Constrict Validity
19. It expression of an opinion, either orally or through a written checklist, regarding an
applicant's ability, previous performance, work habits, character, or potential for future success.
20. The ability of a certain test to give consistent results.
21. A website containing list of available job openings of different organization/companies.
22. A test used to measure individual's consistent pattern of thoughts, feelings, and behaviours.
23. One method of assessment center wherein the applicant is asked to demonstrate job
responsibilities in a given situation.
24. A type of interview wherein you describe a hypothetical job scenario or situation then ask
the interviewee how he or she will handle it.
25. It is called a systematic study about a certain job.

______________________________________________________________________________
____

1. A method of performace evaluation wherein you opt to compared employees with one
another instead of rating them individually on a scale:

a. Employee Modification
b. Pairing Technique
c. Employee Comparison
d. Comparison Methodology

2. As an HR personnel, your task is to evaluate the performance of an employee by means of

his/her errors, which can be described as away from the standard.

a. Quantitiy of Work
b. Quality of Work
c. Statistics of Work
d. Work Measures

3. Supposed Dr. Lucas wanted to send applicants to an assessment center. Which of the
following is not a requirement for an assessment center?

a. Multiple Assessors
b. Multiple Assessment Exercises
c. Use of Interview
d. At least one simulation exercise

4. Julia is perceived by her manager, Zandrah, as the best assistant chef who ever worked for
her. Naturally, Julia's ratings on her performance appraisal are all high. Sam, on the other hand,
is an average chef, yet, after evaluating Julia, Zandrah's ratings of Sam are below average. This
type of rating error is referred to as:
a. Halo Error
b. Contrast Error
c. Proximity Error
d. Preference Error

5. In TDC company, machine operators while being trained are allowed to work with devices and
in an environment like that found in an actual machine operators. TDC Company provides:

a. Case Study
b. Work Sample
c. Simulation
d. Programmed Instruction

6. Annie uses help-wanted signs, job fairs, and direct mailing in her recruitement. These are all
examples of:

a. internal recruitment methods

b. methods used by employee agencies
c. external recruiment methods
d. the last expensive recruitment methods

7. Currently, the most commonly used performace appraisal method is:

a. 360 degree feedback

b. Collective Appraisal
c. Peer Appraisal
d. Supervisor Appraisal

8. Another term for a type of performance appraisal wherein employees' ratings are forcibly
placed on a normal distribution curved.

a. Rank and Yank

b. Rank Order Appraisal
c. Distribution Rating
d.Normalized Appraisal

9. Supervisors usually see the ____ while peers usually see the ____.

a. Behavior of an employee, Result of an employee

b. Results of an employee, Behavior of an employee
c. Behavior of an employee, Outputs of an employee
d. Attidues of an employee, Behavior of an employee

10. The following are true for job analysis, EXCEPT?

a. A good job analysis is usually only done once for every job in an organization
b. A good job analysis is a source of information for other personnel activities such as planning
or recruitment
c. A good job analysis specifies the required human characterisitics needed to perform a certain
job
d. A goof job analysis is the basis used to evaluate how much m oney a person gains from doing
cetain jobs.

11. Which of the following statements is MOST LIKELY advantage for costs in a company which
does internal recruitment?

a. More naturalistic information on strengths and weaknesses of employees over time

b. Higher retention and commitment to the company
c. High tendency to maintain the current status of the company and its employees
d. Less orientation and training required for employees recruited

12. This allows you to recall and chech for how frequent and employee is observed to perform
important work-related behaviors.

a. BOS
b. BARS
c. Rank Order
d. Narratives

13. Cynthia, a bookkeeper, was evaluated using a performance criteria related to mathematical
skills, ability to make clean-error free reports, a good social and relational conduct, and
knowledge of accounting procedures. As an expert in IO, you could say that:

a. There is criterion deficiency

b. There is criterion irrelevance
c. There is criterion contamination
d. There is criterion utility

14. A selection strategy in which applicants must meet or exceed the passing score on more
than one selection test.

a. Multiple Hurdle Approach

b. Multiple Regression Approach
c. Multiple Cutoff Approach
d. Multiple Averaging

15. Justin invents or lies in his resume. He has done what is called?

a. Resume Liability
b. Resume Libel
c. Resume Fraud
d. Resume Negligence

16. The field of Psychology involving the study and practice in such areas as analyzing jobs,
recruiting, selecting employees, determining salary increase, training employees, and evaluating
employee performance.
a. Industrial Psychology
b. Personnel Psychology
c. Organizational Psychology
d. Human Factors

17. The inner drive that directs a person's behavior towards goal attainment is known as:

a. Attitude
b. Performance
c. Skills
d. Motivation

18. It is considered as the most common type of rating scale:

a. Graphic Rating Scale

b. Forced Choice Rating Scale
c. Behavioral Checklist
d. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale

19. The following are the steps in conducting Job Analysis except for one;

a. Identify Task Performed

b. Determine the Salary
c. Write Task Statement
d. Determining KSAO's

20. Ms. Samantha administered a psychological test to evaluate the cognitive ability of the
applicant. She may utilized the following tests EXCEPT for one;

a. Otis Self Administering Test of Mental Ability

b. Culture Fair Intelligence Test
c. Raven's Progressive Matrices Test
d. Occupational Aptitude Survey

21. These are done by converting the tast statements in a job description (e.g "Type
correspondence") into performance /result statement (e.g "Correspondence is typed accurately
and does not contain spelling or grammatical errors") and asking the rater to give a score for
each statement

a. Graphic Rating Scale

b. Visual Analog Scale
c. Behavioral Checklist
d. Critical Incident Technique

22. Which of the following can be considered illegally terminated from his/her job?

a. Frank, who was terminated after his performance was repeatedly found unsatisfactory.
b. Angelie, whose contract was not renewed after her probationaly period.
c. Dino, who was the only one fired after violation the company's "No Noon Break" Policy
d. Analie, who was laid-off with other employees when the company announced bankruptcy

23. Only verbal intelligence tests were administered to a couple of applicants for a job at a
factory assemble line. One applicant was a high school graduate and other was elementary
drop-out. What is the ethical issue in this situation?

a. Intelligence tests are unreliable when used to identify employees for assembly line
b. The test is an unfair tool to the applicant who has a low reading level
c. There was no mention of the competence of the test administrator
d. The clients did not sign an inform consent

24. Which of the following employees is engaging in job crafting?

a. Wacky, who was assigned at the cash register last month and is now working tables
b. Lucky, who was just nominated by the board of directors to be team leader for a project
c. Macky, who was given a transcription job in addition to his record-keeping duties
d. Ruth, who made her own way of greeting the customers who come to the front desk

25. Which of the following is most appropriate to use when assessing the skills of a person with
disability who wants to apply for the position of online article writer?

a. Intelligence Test
b. Referrals
c. Simulations
d. Work Samples

26. When you want to estimate the percentage of future employees who will be successful on
the job if an organization uses a particular test, you should use the?

a. Taylor-Russell Tables
b. Lawshe Tables
c. Brodgen-Cronbach-Glaser Utility Formula
d. Reliability

27. Supposed you are going to do a paired comparison technique in evaluating employee
performance and you have at least 6 employees, how many paired comparisons will you
achieve?

a. 20
b. 15
c. 18
d. 10

28. "Crime preventation, arrest procedures, and use of vehicle" are an examples under what
type of performance dimensions?
a. Goal-focused
b. Trait-focused
c. Competency-focused
d. Task-focused

29. It contains 400 questions covering tools and equipment, perceptual and physical
requirement, mathematic requirement, communication requirements, etc.

a. Job Components Inventory

b. Fleishman Job Analysis Survery
c. Threshold Trait Analysis
d. Job Elements Inventory

30. A soap Company opens a new vacant position. Since the said vacancy is new, the first thing
thye should do is to

a. Determine its external pay equity

b. Hire qualified applicants for the position
c. Conducts job analysis
d. Announce the hiring for job vacancy

31. He wrote the book Psychology and Industrial Efficiency and concern on finding the best
possible person to produce the best possible work.

a. Frederick Taylor
b. Walter Dill Scott
c. Frank Gilbreth
d. Hugo Munsterberg

32. The seasoned employee only performs well in his work activities when the boss is around.
His behavior could be explained by Hawthorne Effect as:

a. Changing of his behavior is unpredictable

b. His behavior is constant even in the absence of his boss's presence
c. He is really dedicated in his job
d. The change in his behavior is influenced by social and cognitive factors

33. "People are always there to serve and admire me" is a test item under what specific
personality test for psychopathology

a. Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

b. Histrionic Personality Disorder
c. Antisocial Personality Disorder
d. Paranoid Personality Disorder

34. If one could not pass the first test, he/she could not proceed to the next level.

a. Multiple cut-off
b. Multiple Hurdle
c. Multiple Regression
d. Multiple Scorer

35. Measuring if how much sales does the employee have in a week is under what type of
objective measures?

a. Category of Work
b. Quality of Work
c. Organization of Work
d. Quantity of Work

______________________________________________________________________________
____

1. You are scheduled for an interview today. When the HR personnel had interviewed you, she
advised you to comeback at her office tomorrow for you will be interview by the supervisor. This
type of interview is called:

a. Panel Interview
b. Return Interview
c. Multiple Interview
d. Group Interview

2. As you are preparing your resume, you have decided that you arrange you work experiences
from most to least recent.

a. Psychological Resume
b. Functional Resume
c. Chronological Resume
d. Fixed Resume

3. It is a type of personnel selection wherein the candidate demonstrate proficiency on a task

representative of the work performed in the job.

a. Assessment Center
b. Interview
c. Work Sample
d. Reference Check

4. As you are done with the recruitment process, the next step that you should do is to choose
the best applicant fit for the job. This process is called:

a. Employee Observation
b. Employee Selection
c. Employee Recruitment
d. Employee Attraction
5. Executive Search Firms are known to be "head hunters" because:

a. Children of the supervisors are automatically accepted in the company

b. These search firms' targeted qualified applicants for higher positions
c. They produce applicants for entry level jobs
d. They targeted the heads of people to apply in the company

6. When your company has a job vacancy, the HR specialist asked you if know someone who is
qualified to be in that position or who wants to apply. This method is known as:

a. Executive Search Firms

b. Interviews
c. Assessment Centers
d. Employee Referral

7. When a certain company posts a job notice and instead revealing their company's name, they
will encourage you to send your resume in a box called.

a. Blind Box
b. Bird Box
c. Mystery Box
d. Magical Box

8. You have used a Point of Purchase method because you believe that:

a. it is more fashionable and common

b. Your advertisement will attract more qualified applicants
c. It is easy to do
d. it is highly recommended

9. A document wherein you show off your abilities, potentials, and experiences and marketing
yourself in the best way that you could.

a. Reference Letter
b. Business Letter
c. Technical Letter
d. Cover Letter

10. When multiple applicants are answering questions during the same interview, it refers as:

a. Group Interview
b. Panel Interview
c. Serial Interview
d. One-on-one Interview

11. In making hiring decisions based on test results, when the name of top 3 high scorers are
given to the personnel who conducts the hiring process, it refers as:
a. Magical 3 Strategy
b. Top 3 Selection
c. The Best 3
d. Rule of 3

12. The applicant is asked to demonstrate a certain problem that could be possibly part of his
job and how to handle it.

a. Simulation
b. Leaderless Group Discussion
c. Work Sample
d. Interview

13. The following, except ____, are the possible results of unstructured interview.

a. Primacy Effects
b. Contrast Effects
c. Poor Instuitive Ability
d. Hawthorne Effect

14. "People should do better, try harder" is a test item under what specific personality test for
psychopathology.

a. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

b. Histrionic Personality Disorder
c. Antisocial Personality Disorder
d. Paranoid Personality Disorder

15. If one could not pass the first test, he/she could not proceed to the next level. This refers as:

a. Multiple cut-off
b. Multiple Hurdle
c. Multiple Regression
d. Multiple Scorer

16.

______________________________________________________________________________
____

1. When engaging in succession planning for high-potential employees, these might be things to
consider EXCEPT?

a. Preference for those who have completed an elite program or have consistent high
performace
b. Exposure to various jobs and speciall assignments
c. An evaluation of the person's personality characteristics and fit of organizational cultur
d. Duration of extensive training where 4-5 years should be the set limit
2. one of the major disadvantages with making applicants answer integrity tests is that...

a. it is very vulnerable to faking good.

b. Stealing is always a personal tendency
c. It might provide lesser information than interest inventories
d. None of the above is TRUE

3. When creating dimensions for your performance appraisal, which of the following dimensions
provide the poorest kind of feedback?

a. Goal-focused Dimension
b. Competency-focused Dimension
c. Trait-focused Dimension
d. Task-focused Dimension

4. Because a new system has been introduced to the company, an analysis was needed to
determine training needs that could help address additional skills and types of support the
employees would need. This was also used to determine whether the company itself was ready
for training. This is an example of:

a. Task Analysis
b. Organizational Analysis
c. System Analysis
d. Person Analysis

5.

______________________________________________________________________________
____

1. Tina passes the information to her boss, then her boss relayed it to her supervisor, then her
boss relayed it to her supervisor, then her boss's supervisor relayed it to the board of directors.
This is an example of:

a. Memo
b. Attitude Surveys
c. Serial Communication
d. Chain Communication

2. When you want to inform every employee in the organization about the important
information coming from the management, the most appropriate measure that you will do is
through:

a. Grapevine
b. Memos
c. Job Posting
d. Informal Communication
3. Research indicates that the average employee spends average of ____ hours, attending 3.34
meetings each week:

a. 4.35, 3.34
b. 4.35, 5.00
c. 1.25, 3.00
d. 4.55, 3.35

4. Jones passes the message to only a select group of people. Notice that with this pattern only
one person passes the message along, and not everyone has a chance to receive, or will receive
it.

a. Sing Strand Grapevine

b. Gossip Grapevine
c. Probability Grapevine
d. Cluster Grapevine

5. During lectures and seminars, the most common space that could be observed between the
encoder and receiver ranges from 12-25 feet away is considered as:

a. Intimacy Zone
b. Social Distance Zone
c. Public Distance Zone
d. Seen Zoned

6. When the employee experiences communication overload, he sometimes do conscious

decision not to process certaint types of information. This scenario is referred as:

a. Escape
b. Gatekeeper
c. Error
d. Omission

7. Jack is only listens to the speaker when he delivers his speech in a fashionable manner with
correct usage of grammar and articulation. As an IO expert, you could say that Jack'slistening
could be fall under:

a. Leisure Listening
b. Stylistic Listening
c. Technical Listening
d. Empathic Listening

8. It is considered as the act of transferring information from one place, person, or group to
another:

a. Communication
b. Studying
c. Modeling
d. None of the above

9. Which of the following statements is accurate?

a. Communication only involves the receiver

b. Written composition should be readable
c. Most of the information from communication are useless
d. None of the above

10. Organizations are always looking for employees with excellent communication skills.

a. False
b. True
c. Neither A or B
d. Both A and B are invalid

11. The secretary always place the information or communication on a waiting line since the
only prioritizes information that are important. That refer as:

a. Organizational Development
b. Escape
c. Queuing
d. Grapevine

12. The following, except ___, are example of Downward Communication

a. Memo
b. Emails
c. Business Meetings
d. Attitude Survey

13. This pattern of grapevine is much similar with the children's game of telephone.

a. Single Strand Grapevine

b. Hello Grapevine
c. Cluster Grapevine
d. Probability Grapevine

14. A certain gossip is circulating around the institution. However, when the gossip reaches
Mark's ears, he chose not to pass it onto others for he thinks it is a waste of time. As an expert in
studying organizational communication, you could say that Mark is considered as:

a. Isolates
b. Dead-Enders
c. Liaison
d. Problematic
15. It is a type of communication wherein the information come from the subordinates until it
reaches the management.

a. Informal Communication
b. 360 degree feedback
c. Upward Communication
d. Downward Communication

16. When a company encourages practicing a task even after it has been mastered in order to
retain learning is called:

a. Massed Practice
b. Overlearning
c. Development
d. Training

17. When talking about Herzberg's Theory, these are the factors that come from the
environment and not from the job itself;

a. Job Satisfaction
b. Mativators
c. Assets
d. Hygiene Factors

18. A method of performance appraisal wherein each employee is paired with every other
employee and supervisor decides who of the two is superior is known as:

a. Rank-order Method
b. Forced Distribution
c. Graphic Rating Scale
d. Paired Comparison

19. Currently, the most commonly used performance appraisal method is:

a. 360-degree Feedback
b. Collective Appraisal
c. Peer-Appraisal
d. Supervisor Appraisal

20. The following are true for job analysis, EXCEPT?

a. A good job analysis is usually only done once for every job in an organization
b. A good job analysis is a source of information for other personnel activities such as planning
or recruitment
c. A good job analysis specifies the required human characteristics needed to perform a certain
job
d. A good job analysis is the basis used to evaluate how much money a person gains from doing
a certain jobs
21. Julia is perceived by her manager, Zandrah, as the best assistant chef who ever worked for
her. Naturally, Julia's ratings on her performance appraisal are all high. Sam, on the other hand
is an average chef, yet, after evaluating Julia, Zandrah's ratings of Sam are below average. This
type of rating error is rederred to as:

a. Halo Error
b. Contrast Error
c. Proximity Error
d. Preference Error

22. Which of the following statements is the MOST LIKELY advantage for costs in a company
which does internal recruitment?

a. More naturalistic information on strengths and weaknesses of employees over time

b. High retention and commitment to the company
c. High tendency to maintain the current status of the company and its employees
d. Less orientation and training required for employees recruited

23. These are done by converting the task statements in a job descriptions (e.g "Types
correspondence") into performance/result statement (e.g, "Correspondence is typed accurately
and does not contain spelling or grammatical errors") and asking the rater to give a score for
each statement:

a. Graphical Rating Scale

b. Visual Analog
c. Behavioral Checklist
d. Critical Incident Technique

24. Which of the following is most appropriate to use when assessing the skills of a person with
disability who wants to apply for the position of online article writer?

a. Intelligence Test
b. Referrals
c. Simulations
d. Work Samples

25. Ms. Samantha administered a psychological test to evaluate the cognitive ability of the
applicant. She may utilize the following tests EXCEPT for one:

a. Otis Self Administering Test of Mental Ability

b. Culture Fair Intelligence Test
c. Raven's Progressive Matrices Test
d. Occupational Aptitude Survey

26. Measuring if how much sales does the employee have in a week is under what type of
objective measures?
a. Category of Work
b. Quality of Work
c. Organization of Work
d. Quantity of Work

27. The process of confirming the accuracy of resume and job application information is called
as:

a. Referral Service
b. Referrence Check
c. Recruitment
d. Referent Power

28. The idea that organizations tend to promote good employees until they reach the level at
which they are not competent:

a. Galathea Effect
b. Hawthorne Principle
c. Peter Principle
d. Primacy Effect

29. Assuming you are a manager and your employee is already intrinsically motivated, what you
should rather do:

a. Provide more challenging task

b. Give rewards
c. Raise Pay
d. Treat the employee

30. If one could not pass the first test, he/she could not proceed to the next level.

a. Multiple Cut-Off
b. Multiple Hurdle
c. Multiple Regression
d. Multiple Scorer

31. "Crime prevention, arrest procedures, and use of vehicle" are an examples under what type
of performance dimensions?

a. Goal-Focused
b. Trait-Focused
c. Competency-Focused
d. Task-Focused

32. Supposed you are going to do a paired comparison technique in evaluating employee
performance and you have at least 6 employees, how many paired comparisons will you
achieve?
a. 20
b. 15
c. 18
d. 10

33. You are scheduled for an interiew today. When the HR personnel had interviewed you, she
advised you to comeback at her office tomorrow for you will be interview by the supervisor. This
type of interview is called:

a. Panel Interview
b. Return Interview
c. Multiple Interview
d. Group Interview

34. As you are preparing your resume, you have decided that you arrange you work experience
from most to least recent.

a. Psychological Resume
b. Functional Resume
c. Chronological Resume
d. Fixed Resume

35. A document wherein you show off your abilities, potentials, and experiences and marketing
yourself in the best way that you could.

a. Reference Letter
b. Business Letter
c. Technical Letter
d. Cover Letter

36. The following are the steps in conducting Job Analysis except for one.

a. Identify Task Performed

b. Determine the Salary
c. Write Task Statements
d. Determing KSAO's

37. In making hiring decisions based on test results, when the name of top 3 high scorers are
given to the personnel who conducts the hiring process, it refers as:

a. Magical 3 Strategy
b. Top 3 Selection
c. The Best 3
d. Rule of 3

38. As you are done with the recruitment process, the next step that you should do is to choose
the best applicant fit for the job. This process is called.
a. Employee Observation
b. Employee Selection
c. Employee Recruitment
d. Employee Attraction

39. The applicant is asked to demonstrate a certain problem that could be possibly part of his
job and how to handle it.

a. Simulation
b. Leaderless Group Discussion
c. Work Samples
d. Interview

40. Which of the following can be considered illegally terminated from his/her job?

a. Frank, who was terminated after his performance was repeatedly found unsatisfactory
b. Angelie, whose contract was not renewed after her probationary period
c. Dino, who was the only one fired after violating the company's 'No Noon Break' Policy
d. Analie, who was laid-off with other employees when the company announced bankruptcy.

______________________________________________________________________________
____

Chapter 10

1. Job satisfaction is most related to:

a. Absentism
b. Organizational Commitment
c. Performance
d. Tenure

2. Which of the following is not a component of a core self-evaluation?

a. self-esteem
b. self-monitoring
c. locus of control
d. self-efficacy

3. Clay is very intelligent and Joshua is not very bright. On the basis of the meta-analysis by
Griffeth, Hom, and Gaertner (2000), we would expect Clay to be ___ with his job and Joshua to
be ___ with his job.

a. satisfied / satisfied
b. dissatisfied / satisfied
c. intelligence is not related to job satisfaction
d. satisfied / dissatisfied
4. According to ___ "new" employees who work with highly satisfied "old" employees are more
likely to be highly satisfied themselves.

a. consistency theory
b. social information processing theory
c. individual differences theory
d. McClelland's needs theory

5. According to a meta-analysis by Colquitt and his colleagues, ___ justice is most related to
performance

a. All three are eqully related to performance

b. interactional
c. procedural
d. distributive

6. Which theory hypothesizes that enriched jobs are the most satisfying?

a. two-factor
b. job characteristics model
c. equity
d. ERG

7. Which of the following is NOT a measurement for job satisfaction?

a. JDI
b. ERG
c. MSQ
d. JIG

8. According to a meta-analysis by Griffeth and his colleagues (2000), absenteeism and turnover
are:

a. highly correlated (r = .76).

b. almost perfectly correlated (r = .95).
c. moderately correlated (r = .21).
d. not really related (r = .03).

9. To help employees cope with stress and personal problems, ___ employers provide employee
assistance programs (EAPs).

a. some (36%)
b. very few (5%)
c. almost all (92%)
d. most (73%)

10. You would like to hire employees who will not miss work. Your best bet would be to hire
applicants who score high on the personality dimension of;
a. Neuroticism
b. Extroversion
c. Agreeableness
d. Conscientiousness

11. Helen is an employee of the Red Cross. She likes her coworkers and her boss, share the
altruistic goals of this organization, and realize that her efforts will results in better
organizational performance. What motivational facet of organizational commitment does Helen
have?

a. Effective Commitment
b. Continuance Commitment
c. Normative Commitment
d. Affective Commitment

12. Mica is an employee of a BPO company who hates her job and want to leave, but realizes
that no other organization would hire her or give her the salary she desires. What motivational
facet of organizational commitment does Mica have?

a. Effective Commitment
b. Continuance Commitment
c. Normative Commitment
d. Affective Commitment

13. Elle is an employee who was given her first job by an organization, was mentored by her
manager and was trained at great cost to the organization. She feels that she is ethically
obligated to remain with the organization because of its extensive investment in her. What
motivational facet of organizational commiment does Mica have?

a. Effective Commitment
b. Continuance Commitment
c. Normative Commitment
d. Affective Commitment

14. Rhonda recently met with a career adviser to chart a new course for her life. She hates her
current job and has hated every job she has ever had. On the other hand, David loves his job and
can't wait to get to work in the morning. He loves to work, loves his current job, and has loved
every job he has ever had. What theory of job satisfaction might explain why David has been
satisfied at every job he has had, whereas Rhonda has neven been satisfied with a job?

a. Dispositions Theory
b. Individual Difference Theory
c. Personal Choice Theory
d. Perspectives Theory

15. True or Fasle. Job satisfaction not only may be fairly stable across jobs but also may be
genetically determined.
a. True
b. False

16. According to Judge, Locke, and Durham (1997)'s hypothesis, four personality variables are
related to people's predisposition to be satisfied with life and with their job. Which one does not
belong?

a. Self-esteem
b. Self-efficacy
c. Maturity
d. External Locus of Control

17. Which theory postulates that if there is a discrepancy between the needs, values, and
expectations and the reality of the job, employees will become dissatisfied and less motivated?

a. Discrepancy Theory
b. Inconsistency Theory
c. Difference Theory
d. Disenchantment Theory

18. According to Kristof-Brown, Zimmerman, & Johnson (2005), there are five aspects of fit
when employees consider how well they "fit" with a job or an organization. Which one does not
belong?

a. Organization
b. Coworkers
c. Supervisors
d. Atmosphere
e. Vocation

19. Needs/supplies fit is the extent to which:

a. employees' values, interest, personality, lifestyle, and skills match those of their vocation
b. the rewards, salary, and benefits received by employees are perceived to be consistent with
their efforts and performance
c. employees engage in organizational citizenship behaviors.
d. there is no such thing as needs/supplies fit

20. What theory postulates that employees observe the levels of motivation and satisfaction of
other employees and then model those levels and thus, if an organization's older employees
work hard and talk positively about their jobs and their employer, new employees will model
this behavior and be both productive and satisfied.

a. Classical Conditioning Theory

b. Shared Beliefs Theory
c. Social Information Processing Theory
d. Positive Feedback Theory
21. What theory is based on the premise that our levels of job satisfaction and motivation are
related to how fairly we believe we are treated in comparison with others?

a. Equity Theory
b. Equality Theory
c. Judicial Theory of Job Satisfaction
d. Theory of Impartiality

22. Interactional justice is the perceived fairness of the interpersonal treatment employees
receive. Procedural justice is the perceived fairness of the methods used to arrive at the
decision. Distributice justice is:

a. The perceived fairness in implementation of rules

b. The perceived fairness of the actual decisions made in an organization
c. The perceived fairness in the delineation of authority
d. The perceived fairness in terms of leadership power

______________________________________________________________________________
____

Chapter 13

1. POWs who were isolated from other prisoners had a lower need to live than POWs housed
with older soldiers. This negative emotional reaction demonstrates the need for:

a. Power
b. Affliation
c. Control
d. Common Interests

2. The East Barbarians softball team in the Great White North Softball League has continually
improved its record over the nine years it has been in the league. Most recently, the East
Barbarians, with the same team members as in the previous eight years, won the league
championship for the first time. In this scenario, winning the championship probably BEST
exemplifies the effects of:

a. the group's homogeneity

b. group communication structure
c. the stability of group membership
d. group status

3. Julie provides information to Temea who provides information to Juan who provides
information to Julie. This is an example of which type of communication network?

a. Chain
b. Circle
c. Open
d. Centralized

4. Four bank tellers are working side-by-side. This arrangement will result in:

a. Social Inhibition
b. Coaction Effects
c. Social Facilitation
d. Audience Effects.

5. Mary notices that none of the other members of her group are working hard so she decides to
lower her effort. Her behavior supports the ___ theory of social loafing.

a. Distraction
b. Sucker-Effect
c. Individual Dominance
d. Free-Rider

6. Which of the following should a leader NOT do to reduce groupthink?

a. Promote open discussion

b. Appoint someone as a devil's advocate
c. Apply pressure on members to conform
d. Elicit outside information

7. ____ teams consist of representatives from various departments within an organization.

a. Homogeneous
b. Customer-Service
c. Parallel
d. Self-Directed Work

8. The barriers to interpersonal communication that can cause conflict are:

a. physical/cultural/psychological
b. jurisdictional/resource/physical
c. gender/status/cultural
d. status/psychological/cultural

9. A person who ignores conflict and hopes it will go away is using a ___ style.

a. Avoiding
b. Collaborative
c. Accommodating
d. Forcing

10. ____ refer(s) to having a neutral outside party listen to the arguments of both sides in a
conflict and reaching a decision as to how to resolve the conflict that both sides must agree to.
a. Nonbinding Arbitration
b. Nonbinding Mediation
c. Binding Mediation
d. Binding Arbitration

11. Gordon (2001) has four criteria before a collection of people to be called a group. Which one
is not included?

a. All members have a common goal

b. An event that effects one group member affects all group members
c. Membership is rewarding for each individual in the group
d. One member perceives herself as a unit

12. One reason that a person might join a particular group, especially if the group is informal, is
because they live or work nearby

a. Work Assignment
b. Physical Proximity
c. Affiliation
d. Common Interests

13. It is the extent to which group members like and trust one another, are committed to
accomplishing a team goal, and share a feeling of group pride.

a. Emotional Support
b. Group Homogeneity
c. Group Cohesiveness
d. Stability of Membership

14. When we believe that someone is trying to intentionally influence us to take some particular
action, we often react by doing the opposite. This kind of pressure by outside forces tend to
make a group highly cohesive. To some degree, this response to outside pressure can be
explained by the phenomenon called:

a. Golem Effect
b. Galatea Effect
c. Psychological Reactance
d. Self fulfilling prophecy

15. The effect on behavior when two or more people are performing the same task in the
presence of one another is called:

a. Coaction
b. Audience Effect
c. Social Facilitation
d. Social Inhibition

16. Judgement by others that causes differential effects of social facilitation is called
a. Evaluation Apprehension
b. Comparison
c. Distraction
d. Introversion

17. Whereas the social facilitation versus social inhibition theory explains increases and
decreases in performance when others are present and either watching the individual or
working with her, what theory considers the effect on individual performance when people
work together on a task?

a. Social Malingering Theory

b. Social Loafing Theory
c. Social Learning Theory
d. Social Contagion Theory

18. This term was coined by Janis (1972) wherein members become so cohesive and like-minded
that they make poor decisions despite contrary information that might reasonably lead them to
other options.

a. Group Cohesion
b. Group Homogeneity
c. Group Decision
d. Groupthink

19. This type of team is typically formed to produce goods, provide service, or increase the
quality and cost-effectiveness of a product or system.

a. Parallel Teams
b. Project Teams
c. Work Teams
d. Management Teams

20. Moderate levels of conflict can stimulate new ideas, increase friendly competition, and
increase team effectiveness is called:

a. Beneficent Conflict
b. Practical Conflict
c. Purposeful Conflict
d. Functional Conflict

______________________________________________________________________________
____

Chapter 12 Leadership

1. Meta-analysis indicate that several traits differentiate excellent leaders from poor leaders
intelligence is one of the traits and __ is another.
a. Cooperation
b. Masculinity
c. Calmness
d. Extraversion

2. The Job Choice Exercise measures needs for:

a. socialization and acceptance.

b. power, affiliation, and achievement
c. power, affiliation and acceptance
d. leadership

3. Leaders who are high in task orientation and low in person orientation will have:

a. High grievance rate

b. Low performance
c. A low grievance rate
d. low turnover

4. ___ leaders are insecure and seldom rock the boat or cause trouble.

a. obsessive-compulsive
b. Paranoid/passive-aggressive
c. High likability floater
d. Narcissistic

5. According to your text, ___ is probability the only training program in the country
concentrating on changing the situation rather than the leader.

a. contingency training
b. lead now!
c. lead or follow!
d. leader match

6. A manager who is most effective in a climate of disorganization has a leadership __ style.

a. Affiliation
b. Tactical
c. Position
d. Coercive

7. According to the Path-Goal Theory of Leadership, a manager who organizes and controls the
activities of employees has a(n) ___ style of leadership.

a. Instrumental
b. Supportive
c. Achievement-Oriented
d. Participative

8. A new manager is assigned a staff who is unsure about a task but are willing to do it. She
should use a ___ approach.

a. Coaching
b. Delegating
c. Directing
d. Supporting

9. A manager in an office is well liked and respected. The manager is likely to have ___ power.

a. Reward
b. Expert
c. Referent
d. Legitimate

10. A one-sided argument is better than a two sided argument when the person being
persuaded:

a. has no opinion about the idea.

b. is positive and receptive about and idea.
c. has no information about the idea.
d. is negative and unaccepting of an idea.

11. It is the idea that people who become leaders possess traits or characteristics different from
people who do not become leaders.

a. Inherent Leaders
b. Leadership Distinction
c. Leadership Emergence
d. Leader Difference

12. People with this kind of leadership motivation become leaders because they enjoy being in
charge and leading.

a. Non calculative Motivation

b. Social-Normative Motivation
c. intrinsic Motivation
d. Affective Identity Motivation

13. People who are motivated to become leaders for an increase in status or pay have what kind
of leadership motivation?

a. Non calculative Motivation

b. Social-Normative Motivation
c. Intrinsic Motivation
d. Affective Identity Motivation
14. If a faculty member agrees to chair a committee out of a sense of commitment to the
university, it is said that he has what kind of leadership motivation?

a. Non calculative Motivation

b. Social-Normative Motivation
c. Intrinsic Motivation
d. Affective Identity Motivation

15. Which of the following is not person-oriented leader?

a. Consideration
b. Country Club Leaders
c. Theory Y leaders
d. Theory X leaders

16. Who is the proponent who believed that an individual's leadership style is the result of a
lifetime of experiences and ths is extremely difficult to change?

a. Situation Favorability
b. Fiedler's Cotingency Model
c. Alfred Adler
d. Fred Fiedler

17. This kind of tasks have goals that are clearly stated and known by group members, have only
a few correct solutions to a problem, and can be completed in only a few ways.

a. Structured Tasks
b. Managerial Tasks
c. Subordinates Tasks
d. Unstructured Tasks

18. The leader who has an informational style provides information in a climate of ___ where
important information is missing from the group.

a. Anxiety
b. Ignorance
c. Crisis
d. Disorganization

19. A leader with a ___ style leads through energy and optimism and is effective only in a
climate of despair, which is characterized by low morale.

a. Position
b. Tactical
c. Magnetic
d. Coercive
20. A followoer who is able and confident to do a task would most effectively benefit by what
leaders behavior?

a. Directing
b. Coaching
c. Supporting
d. Delegating

______________________________________________________________________________
____

1. When organizations undergo change, the final stage employees go through is called:

a. Internalization
b. Defense
c. Discarding
d. Denial

2. To create a good atmosphere for change, it is important for an organization to create:

a. dissatisfaction with the current system

b. a sense of the "good old days"
c. a way to hide the change from doubters.
d. none of the three is a good idea

3. A manager is about to make a decision about work schedules. He has been with the company
for 20 years and has all of the information needed to make the decision. Though work schedules
are a touchy issue, the manager is well thought of by his employees. How should he make the
decision?

a. Have his employees make the decision

b. Make the decision himself
c. Give the employees options and let them vote
d. ask for employee input and then decide

4. What is the highest level of employee input and control; also called empowerment?

a. advisory
b. ownership of own product
c. following
d. absolute

5. Which of the following is true about employees' desire for empowerment?

a. some want empowerment and some don't

b. most employees want empowerment
c. very few employees want to be empowered
d. all employees want to be empowered
6. Which of the following methods of adjusting work schedules to avoud layoffs is used by the
most number of organizations?

a. job sharing
b. use of payless holidays
c. reduced employee pay
d. restricted overtime

7. Which of the following services is NOT needed by layoff victims?

a. emotional counseling
b. all three are needed
c. career assessment
d. financial counseling

8. According to research, employees who work 12-hours shifts are ___ than those working
8-hour shifts.

a. Healthier
b. Less Productive
c. more likely to leave the organization
d. more fatigued

9. Research indicates that flexible working schedules are associated with each of the following
criteria except:

a. less absenteeism
b. higher level of fatigue
c. slight increases in productivity
d. higher job satisfaction

10.An employee who works only the morning shift each day has what kind of shift schedule?

a. Rotating
b. Gliding
c. Flexible
d. Fixed

11. According ___ new employee's who work highly satisfied old employee's are likely to be
highly satisfied themselves.

a. consistency theory
b. social information processing theory
c. individual difference theory
d. McClelland's Need theory
12. According ___ new employee's who work highly satisfied old employee's are likely to be
highly satisfied themselves.

a. consistency theory
b. social information processing theory
c. individual difference theory
d. McClelland's Need theory

13. You would like to hire employees who will not miss work. Your best bet would be to hire
applicants who score high on the personality dimension of,

a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
c. agreeableness
d. conscientiousness

14. According to meta-analyses by Colquitt and his colleagues ___ justice is most related to
performance.

a. all three are equally related to performance

b. interactional
c. procedural
d. distributive

15. Mica is an employee of a BPO company who hates her job and want to leave, but realizes
that no other organization would hire her or give her the salary she desires. What motivational
facet of organizational commitment does Mica have?

a. effective commitment
b. continuance commitment
c. normative commitment
d. affective commitment
______________________________________________________________________________
____