Valuation - Final Notes
Valuation - Final Notes
Valuation of Goodwill
Goodwill Means: Monetary Value of Advantage of Earning More Profits. Goodwill is based
Class Notes:
NO. OF YEARS PURCHASE – It will always be given in the question, if not given we will
NRR: It means normal rate of return expected in the same business. It is generally given
(Avg Dividends and Avg MPS is allowed) (NRR is considered Post Tax Always)
CALCULATION OF FMP is based on Projected profits method and past profits method.
1. Tax Expenses
2. Abnormal Items
Note: When NRR is given after Tax for both SH then FMP after Tax is to be considered.
When NRR is given for ESH then FMP after Tax after Pref. Dividend is considered.
Check Trend in NP ratios if these are available: Apply Weighted Avg if trend is
If NP ratios are not available then check trend in Adjusted Profits: Apply
Trend line average will be used only when asked in the question.
Trend Line average – Y = a + bx, where Y is future profit, a is simple average, b is growth
CAPITAL EMPLOYED: Capital employed means Shareholders fund (Eqt + Pref) applied in
Accounting Policy
excluded.
These are not Liabilities for the purpose of capital employed – Proposed Dividend
and Pref Share Capital. But if NRR given in question is for ESH then they are
deducted.
Assets.
Or
If Not Specified in the question, then we have to check the basis of FMP. If FMP is
based on Projected Profits, Trendline Avg. or Weighted Avg. then we may use
Closing Capital Emp. and if FMP is based on Simple Avg. then we may use Avg.
Capital Employed.
Note: Tangible Capital Employed means Closing Capital Employed excluding Intangible
Assets.
RPAT is the actual profit earned after rectifications since we take capital emp
after rectification also. Moreover RPAT also includes income on Non Trade
Abnormal Year is not to be considered in the valuation until and unless the loss due
If the Goodwill is shown in balance sheet and nothing is given in question about
We need to consider the additional provision of Tax due to increase in Tax Rate.
given which shows that there is wrong treatment in books. (Eg. Some trade
1996 21,70
1997 22,50
1998 23,70
1999 24,50
2000 21,10
On scrutiny it is found (i) that upto 1998, PPX Ltd. followed FIFO method of finished
stock valuation thereafter adopted LIFO method, (ii) that upto 1999 it followed straight
Determine future maintainable profit that can be used for valuation of goodwill.
Solution:
Past profits of PPX Ltd. showed an increasing trend excepting in year 2000. But the
effects of changes in accounting policies should be eliminated to ascertain the true nature
of trend. Since the company has adopted LIFO method of Inventory valuation and W.D.V
method of depreciation, profits may be recomputed applying these policies consistently in
all the past years. Recompilation of profits following uniform accounting policies are shown
below:
(Figures in Rs ‟000)
Year Books profit Effect of LIFO Profit after
effect of valuation elimination of the
of Inventory effect of change in
W.D.V. accounting policies
1996 2170 -460 -490 1220
1997 2250 +350 -395 2205
1998 2370 +150 -425 2095
1999 2450 -20 -290 2140
2000 2110 - - 2110
Profits were oscillating during the last four years excepting 1996. So a simple average may
be taken of the last 4 years profits to arrive at the future maintainable profits:
Future Maintainable Profit (‟000 Rs) = 22,05 + 20,95 + 21,40 + 21,10 / 4 = 21,37.50
Working Note:
Effect of LIFO Valuation:
1996: Increase in Inventory as per FIFO valuation 6,00
Less: Increase in Inventory per LIFO valuation (1,40)
Reduction in profit 4,60
1997: Increase in Inventory as per FIFO valuation 3,20
Increase in Inventory as per LIFO valuation 6,70
Q2. B K Ltd. gives the following profit figures for the last five years:
1996 37,20
1997 42,00
1998 47,50
1999 53,50
2000 57,20
Since past profits show increasing trend, time series trend may be used to determine
future maintainable profit. Applying Linear trend equation three to five years profit may
be predicated and average of such future profits may be taken as future maintainable
Year X Y XY X2
1998 0 47,50 0 0
0 237,40 51,50 10
Y = 4748 + 515 X
1. Capital employed
Shareholders Fund
Non-Current Liabilities
Current Liabilities
Creditors 60,000
6,25,000
Assets Amount
Non-Current Assets
Goodwill, 30,000
Current Assets
The current market value of the plant included in fixed assets is Rs. 15,000 more. The
average profit of the company (after deductions for interest on debentures and
Case – 2 If Tax rate is to be calculated – Tax Rate 22.73%, FMP – 64752, Goodwill
- 143260
Balance Sheet
Equity & Liabilities Rs. '000
Shareholders Fund 50,00
Reserve 32,00
(5) The company wants to switch over towards maintaining gratuity provision on actuarial
calculation rather than accounting on payment basis.
Find out value of goodwill. It may be assumed that super profit, if any, is maintainable for
5 years. 20% should be the appropriate discount factor.
Q6.
The Balance Sheet of D Ltd. on 31st March, 2017 is as under:
Liabilities Rs Assets Rs
1,25,000 shares of Rs 1,25,00,000 Goodwill 10,00,000
100 each fully paid up Building 80,00,000
Bank overdraft 46,50,000 Machinery 70,00,000
Trade Payables 52,75,000 Inventory 80,00,000
Provision for taxation 12,75,000 Trade receivables (all 50,00,000
considered good)
Profit and loss account 53,00,000
2,90,00,000 2,90,00,000
In 2000, when the company started its activities the paid up capital was the same. The
Profit/Loss for the last five years is as follows:
2012-2013: Loss (13,75,000), 2013-2014: Profit Rs 24,55,000, 2014-2015: Profit Rs
29,25,000, 2015-2016: Profit Rs 36,25,000, 2016-2017: Profit Rs 42,50,000.
Income-tax rate so far has been 40% and the above profits have been arrived at on the
basis of such tax rate. From 2016-2017, the rate of income-tax should be taken at 45%.
10% dividend in 2013-2014, 2014-2015 and 15% dividend in 2015-2016 and 2016-2017 has
been paid. Market price of this share on 31st March, 2017 is Rs 125. With effect from 1st
April, 2017, the Managing Directors remuneration will be Rs 20,00,000 instead of Rs
15,00,000. The company has secured a contract from which it can earn an additional Rs
10,00,000 per annum for the next five years.
Calculate the value of goodwill at 3 years purchase of super profit. (For calculation of
future maintainable profits weighted average is to be taken).
Answer
(i) Future Maintainable Profit
Year Profit (P) Rs Weight (W) Products (PW) Rs
2013-2014 24,55,000 1 24,55,000
2014-2015 29,25,000 2 58,50,000
2015-2016 36,25,000 3 1,08,75,000
2016-2017 42,50,000 4 1,70,00,000
10 3,61,80,000
Weighted average annual profit (after tax)= 3,61,80,00010/10 = Rs 36,18,000
Q7. The following is the Balance Sheet (as at 31st December, 2006) of Sun Ltd:
Equity & Liabilities Rs.
Shareholders Fund
(9) Current income tax rate is 50%, expected income tax rate will be 40%.
From the above, ascertain the ex-dividend and cum-dividend intrinsic value for different
categories of Equity shares. For this purpose goodwill may be taken as 3 years purchase of
super profits, Depreciation is charged on machinery @ 10% on reducing system.
Q8. The summarized Balance Sheet of M/s Indus Ltd. as on 31.03.2013 is as follows:
(3) In the year 2012-13 asset having book value of Rs. 80000 was sold for Rs. 65,000
only.
(4) In the year 2010-11 company paid Rs. 25,000 against failure to comply with the
rules as per the environment pollution control board.
(5) 60% of the Investments are non-trade investments and market value of the trade
investments is 15% below the book value. The investments realize an interest of 8%
p.a. whether trade or not. The Non trade investments were purchase on 01.04.2012.
(6) The company has been paying managerial remuneration of Rs. 1,00,000 p.a. but as
per the companies Act, the amount eligible is Rs. 80,000 only for the past four
years.
(7) The goodwill in the books has been purchased in the year 2009-10.
(8) 60% of the Secured loan was availed from US which was recorded at a rate of $1 =
Rs. 50 where the closing rate was $1= Rs. 55.
(9) The company wishes to revalue Assets on the realizable value as under:
Land & Building 5,50,000
Plant & Machinery 5,00,000
Vehicles 2,50,000
Debtors 80,000
(ignore the change in depreciation due to change in value of Assets)
The rate of Tax on companies is 30% and the rate of return on capital employed is
15% p.a. Calculate Goodwill based on four years purchase of Super Profit. Make
appropriate assumption wherever required. (16 Mark, November 2013)
Q10. Find out Leverage effect on Goodwill from the following information:
(i) Average capital employed (Equity Approach) Rs. 11,50,000
(ii) FMP on equity fund (After Tax) Rs. 1,80,000
(iii) 10% Long Term Loan Rs. 4,50,000
(iv) Tax Rate 40%
(v) Normal Rate of return
On equity capital employed 15%
On Long term capital employed 12%
(May18 & Nov15, 6 Marks)
Solution:
Rs.
A Profit available for equity fund after tax 1,80,000
B Profit (as per long term fund approach)
Profit for equity fund 1,80,000
Add: Interest on long term loan (net of tax
4,50,000×{10%×(1-0.4)] 27,000 2,07,000
C Capital employed (by Equity approach) 11,50,000
D Capital employed as per long term fund approach
Capital employed (by Equity approach) 11,50,000
Add: 10% long term loan 4,50,000 16,00,000
E Value of goodwill
(a) By equity approach
Capitalized value of profit as per equity approach
(1,80,000/15×100) 12,00,000
Less: capital employed as per equity approach (11,50,000)
value of Goodwill 50,000
(b) By long term fund approach
Capitalized value of profit as per long-term fund
approach (2,07,000/12×100) 17,25,000
Less: capital employed as per long term fund
approach 16,00,000
Value of Goodwill 1,25,000
Leverage effect on Goodwill:
Adverse leverage effect on goodwill is Rs 75,000 (i.e. Rs 1,25,000 – Rs 50,000)
Q11: The summarised Balance Sheet of Domestic Ltd. as on 31st March, 2017 is as under:
Intrinsic Value Method: (also called Net Asset method, Book value method,
It shows the expected return or refund per share if the company is being liquidated.
It is calculated as under:
Dividend)
Key Points:
- If the equity shares are of different face values then we will use Total Equity
Earning Rate means - Earnings available for ESH ÷Equity paid up capital x 100
Ke = NRR
Key Points:
ECM is generally used for large lot of shares and DCM is used for Small lot of
Shares.
For DCM, future expected dividend rate will be given or prior years dividend rate
will be given.
For the calculation of Dividend rate in DCM, sometimes question mentions “transfer
distributed and hence this is also the maximum possible dividend rate.
NRR of the industry for the similar class of shares in which the company operates.
It is to be calculated as under:
share
gearing ratio
NRR of Company
(a) The above 0.5% is the risk premium which the shareholder expects from a company
for taking higher risk and these 0.5% are assumed figures, they might change
(b) Asset Backing Ratio – calculated for Equity Share valuation only. Higher the better.
Q12. The Balance Sheet of Mulyan Ltd. as on 31st December, 2016 is as follows:
Liabilities Rs Rs Assets Rs
Share Capital:
Equity shares of Rs 10 each 5,00,000 4,90,000 Fixed Assets:
less, calls in arrear (Rs 2 10,000 Machinery 2,30,000
for final call) Factory shed 3,00,000
8% Preference shares of 2,00,000 Vehicles 60,000
Rs 10 each fully paid Furniture 25,000
Reserve and Surplus: Investments 1,00,000
General Reserve 1,50,000 Current
Assets:
Profit & Loss A/c 1,40,000 Inventory 2,10,000
Current Liabilities: Trade 3,50,000
Receivables
Trade Payables 2,70,000 Cash at bank 75,000
Bank Loan 1,00,000
13,50,000 13,50,000
Additional Information:
(i) Fixed assets are worth 20% above their actual book value, depreciation on
appreciated portion of fixed assets is to be ignored for valuation of goodwill.
(ii) Of the investments, 80%, is non-trading and the Balance is trading. All trade
investments are to be valued at 20% below cost. A uniform rate of dividend of
10% is earned on all investments.
(iii) For the purpose of valuation of shares, Goodwill is to be considered on the basis
of 6 year‟s purchase of the super profits based on simple average profit of the
last 3 years. Profits after tax @ 50%, are as follows:
Year Rs
Rs
Total adjusted profit for three years (1,90,500 + 1,95,550 + 6,31,645
2,45,595)
Adjusted Average profit (Rs 6,31,645/3) 2,10,548
3. Normal Profit: 20% on capital employed i.e. 20% on Rs 10,27,748 = Rs 2,05,550
Q13. (Homework)
From the following data, compute the „Net Assets‟ value of each category of equity shares
of Smith Ltd.:
Shareholders’ funds-
10,000 „A‟ Equity shares of Rs 100 each, fully paid
10,000 „B‟ Equity shares of Rs 100 each, Rs 80 paid
10,000 „C‟ Equity shares of Rs 100 each, Rs 50 paid
Retained Earnings Rs 9,00,000
Answer
(i) Computation of Net assets
Q14. The following is the summarized Balance Sheet of N Ltd. as on 31st March, 2017:
Balance Sheet
Liabilities Rs Assets Rs
4,00,000 Equity shares of Rs 10 40,00,000 Building 24,00,000
1,47,04,276
Less: Outside liabilities
Bank loan 12,00,000
Trade Payables 37,00,000
(49,00,000)
Preference share capital (20,00,000)
Net assets for equity shareholders 78,04,276
3. Valuation of equity shares
Value of equity share = Net assets available to equity shareholders / Number of equity
shares
= Rs 78,04,276 / 4,00,000 = Rs 19.51
Note:
1. Depreciation on the overall increased value of assets (worth 30% more than book value)
has not been considered. Depreciation on the additional value of only plant and
machinery has been considered taking depreciation at 10% on reducing value method
while calculating average adjusted profit.
2. Loss on sale of furniture has been taken as non-recurring or extraordinary item.
3. It has been assumed that preference dividend has been paid till date.
Q15.
The directors of a public limited company are considering the acquisition of the entire
share capital of an existing company X Ltd engaged in a line of business suited to them.
The directors feel that acquisition of X will not create any further risk to their business
interest.
The following is the summarized Balance Sheet of X Ltd., as at 31st December, 2016:
Liabilities Rs Assets Rs
Share Capital: Fixed assets 6,00,000
4,000 equity shares of Rs 100 4,00,000 Current assets: 2,00,000
each fully paid-up Inventory
General reserve 3,00,000 Trade Receivables 3,40,000
Bank overdraft 2,40,000 Cash and bank 1,00,000
balances
Trade Payables 3,00,000
12,40,000 12,40,000
X‟s financial records for the past five years were as under:
2016 Rs 2015 Rs 2014 Rs 2013 Rs 2012 Rs
∗ it has been assumed that estimated bad debts would not be relevant for estimating
values under bases (a) and (b).
Ans.: Earning 53900, earning rate 5.39% NRR 13% Value of Share 4.15 paid up
value assumed Rs.10.
Q17. The Capital Structure of XYZ Ltd., on 31st March, 2017 was as follows:
Rs.
Equity Capital – 18,000 Shares of Rs 100 each 18,00,000
Q18.(Homework)
The capital structure of M/s Global Ltd. on 31st March, 2015 was as follows:
Equity share capital (25000 shares of Rs. 100 each) Rs. 25,00,000
12% Preference Share capital (7000 shares of Rs. 100 each) Rs. 7,00,000
12% Secured Debentures Rs. 7,00,000
Reserves Rs. 5,00,000
PBIT during the year was Rs. 9,90,000
Tax Rate was 40%
Additional Information:
(1) The profit after tax covers fixed interest and fixed dividend at least 4 times.
(2) The debt equity ratio is at least 2.
(3) The rate of return on equity shares of this type of industry is 15%.
(4) Yield on shares is calculated at 60% of distributed profit and 10% of undistributed
profits.
(5) The company has been paying regularly an Equity dividend of 15%
(6) The risk premium for dividends is generally assumed at 2%.
You are required to find out value of Equity Shares of the Company.
Solution:
(Debts) are lower as compared to shareholders‟ funds. Therefore, the risk is less for
Q19. Following information is given of the two companies for the year ended 31st March,
2017:
Particulars Company A Rs in Company B Rs in
lakhs lakhs
Equity shares of Rs 100 each 12.00 15.00
10% Preference shares of Rs 100 each 9.00 6.00
Profit after tax 4.50 4.50
Assuming market expectation is 15% and 80% of the profits are distributed, what would
you pay for the equity shares of the company, if
(i) You are buying in a small lot?
(ii) You are buying controlling interest in the company?
Answer
(i) Buying a small lot of equity shares: If the purpose of valuation is to provide data
base to aid a decision of buying a small lot (non-controlling position) of the company,
dividend capitalization method is most appropriate. Under this method, value of an
equity share will be:
Dividend per share/Market capitalization rate × 100
Company A: (24/15) × 100 = Rs 160 per eq. share
Company B: (20.80/15) × 100 = Rs 138.67 per eq. share
(ii) Buying controlling interest in the company: If the purpose of valuation is to
provide data base to aid a decision of buying controlling interest in the company,
EPS method is most appropriate. Under this method, value of an equity share will
be:-
Earnings per share/Market capitalization rate x 100
Company A: (30/15) x 100 = Rs 200 per eq. share
Company B: (26/15) x 100 = Rs 173.33 per eq. share
Working Note:
Calculation of dividend
Company A Rs in Company B Rs in
lakhs lakhs
Profit after tax 4.50 4.50
Less: Preference dividend 0.90 0.60
3.60 3.90
No. of shares 12,000 15,000
Earnings for equity share holders 30.00 26.00
Dividend (80%) 24.00 20.80
Q22. Yogesh Ltd. showed the following performance over 5 years ended 31st March, 2015:
and 10-11
The net worth of the business as per balance sheet of 31st march, 2010 is Rs. 6,00,000
backed by 10,000 fully paid equity shares of Rs. 10 each. Reserves and surplus constitute
the balance net worth. Yogesh Ltd. has not declared any dividend till date.
(iii) Differential weight of 1 to 5 given for 5 years starting on 1.04.2010 for the
(b) Net Asset basis as per corrected balance sheets for each of the Six years ended
31.03.2015
Looking to the performance of the company over 5 years period, would you invest in the
(Answer: 184/- on yield basis and (46.50, 69, 97.5, 127.5, 172.5 and 213 on net
asset basis)
Solution:
Note: Return on net worth may also be calculated on the basis of average net worth
during the relevant year.
Q23. A Company Q is willing to sell its business. The purchaser has sought professional
advice for the valuation of the goodwill of the company. He has the last audited financial
statements together with some additional information. Help him to ascertain the correct
price for the purpose of purchase:
The extract of the Balance Sheet as on 31-3-2016 is as under:
Liabilities Rs Assets Rs
Equity Share Capital 9,50,000 Land & Building 5,45,000
(shares of Rs 100 each)
8% Preference Share 2,25,000 Plant & Machinery 4,55,000
Capital (shares of Rs 100 Investments in 4,85,000
each) shares
Inventories 3,80,000
Reserves & Surplus 7,50,500 Trade Receivables 4,25,620
(net)
9% Debentures 5,60,000 Cash & Bank balance 5,20,520
Current Liabilities 3,25,640
28,11,140 28,11,140
(1) The purchaser wants to acquire all the equity shares of the company.
(2) The Debentures will be redeemed at a discount of 25% of the value in Balance Sheet
and investments in share will be sold at their present market value which is quoted as
Rs 4,95,200. The above will be prior to the purchase of the equity shares.
For the purpose of pricing of Goodwill:
(3) The normal rate of return on net assets for equity shares is 10%.
(4) Profits for the past three years after debenture interest but before Preference
Share Dividend have been as under:
31-3-2016 Rs 2,95,000
31-3-2015 Rs 4,99,000
31-3-2014 Rs 3,25,000
(5) Goodwill is valued at three years purchase of the adjusted average super profit.
(6) In the year 2015, 20% of the profit mentioned above was due to non-recurring
transaction resulting in increase of profit.
VALUATION OF BUSINESS
Q24. Jayadev Ltd. has earned a PAT of Rs. 48 lakhs for the year ended 2013. It wants
you to ascertain the value of its Business, based on the following information:
(b) The company‟s equity shares are quoted at Rs. 120 at the Balance Sheet date. The
company had an equity share capital of Rs. 100 lakhs, dividend into shares of Rs. 50 Each.
(c) Profits for the year 2013 have been calculated after considering the following in the
(i) Subsidy of Rs. 2 lakhs received from the Government towards fulfillment of certain
social obligations. The govt. has withdrawn this subsidy and hence this amount will not be
received in future.
(ii) Interest of Rs. 8 lakhs on term loan. The final installment of this term loan was fully
Rs. 6 lakhs in the overall managerial remuneration from the next year onwards.
Solution:
Q25. The summarized Balance Sheet of R Ltd. for the year ended on 31st March, 2015,
2016 and 2017 are as follows:
(Rs in thousands)
Liabilities 31.3.2015 31.3.2016 31.3.2017
3,20,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each, fully 3,200 3,200 3,200
paid
General reserve 2,400 2,800 3,200
Profit and Loss account 280 320 480
Trade Payables 1,200 1,600 2,000
7,080 7,920 8,880
Assets
Goodwill 2,000 1,600 1,200
Building and Machinery less, depreciation 2,800 3,200 3,200
Inventory 2,000 2,400 2,800
Trade Receivables 40 320 880
Bank balance 240 400 800
7,080 7,920 8,880
Additional information:
(a) Actual valuations were as under
Building and machinery less, depreciation 3,600 4,000 4,400
Inventory 2,400 2,800 3,200
Net profit (including opening balance after 840 1,240 1,640
writing off depreciation, goodwill, tax
provision and transferred to general
reserve)
(b) Capital employed in the business at market value at the beginning of 2014-2015 was Rs
73,20,000 which included the cost of goodwill. The normal annual return on average
capital employed in the line of business engaged by R Ltd. is 12½%.
(c) The balance in the general reserve on 1st April, 2014 was Rs 20 lakhs.
(d) The goodwill shown on 31.3.2015 was purchased on 1.4.2014 for Rs 20 lakhs on which
date the balance in the Profit and Loss account was Rs 2,40,000. Find out the average
capital employed in each year.
Q27.(Homework)
From the following information of Aries Ltd. ascertain the Value of Business:
(1) The company‟s equity share capital is Rs. 200 lakhs divided into shares of Rs. 50
each.
(2) The company earned a profit of after tax of Rs. 60 Lakhs for the year ended
March 2016
(3) Tax rate for the year 2016 is 40%. Future tax rate is estimated at 45%
(4) The company‟s equity shares are quoted at Rs. 120 at the Balance Sheet date.
(i) Subsidy of Rs. 4 lakhs is received from the Government towards fulfillment of
certain social obligations. The Government has withdrawn this subsidy and
hence, the amount will not be received in future.
(ii) Interest Rs. 10 lakhs is on term loan. The final installment of this term loan is
fully settled in this year.
(iii) Managerial remuneration is Rs. 18 lakhs. The shareholders have approved an
increase of Rs. 8 lakhs in the overall managerial remuneration, from the next
year onwards.
(iv) Loss on sale of fixed assets amounting to Rs. 10 lakhs.
(May 16 - 8 Marks)
Solution:
BRAND VALUATION
Brand may be SELF GENERATED or ACQUIRED.
Promotion Cost)
PAT xxx
Q28. From the Following, determine the possible value of brand as per potential earning
model:
Rs. In Lakhs
Answer
Calculation of possible value of brand
Rs in lakhs
Profit after Tax 2,500
Less: Profit allocated to tangible assets [18% of Rs 10,000 ] (1,800)
Profit allocated to intangible assets including brand 700
Capitalisation factor 25%
Capitalised value of intangibles including brand [700/25×100] 2,800
Less: Identifiable intangibles other than brand (1,500)
Brand value 1,300
Q29. Zed Ltd. is a FMCG player in the range of Men‟s cosmetics and deals in both Branded
and Unbranded products. The Branded products are sold under brand of „Zed‟ and are full
outsourced from third party manufacturers. The Company‟s unbranded products are
Earnings before interest and Tax from Sale of 5100 7500 9900
Products
Other Income – Royalty from partial use of Zed 190 135 225
Brand
tangible assets
The average annual fund‟s used in the company‟s operations is Rs. 5200 lakhs of which Rs.
2800 lakhs is in respect of the branded business. The company‟s tax rate is 33.33% and
has an average cost of funds of 17% after considering tax shelter on cost of borrowed
funds. You are required to determine the value of Brand Zed considering a capitalization
Solution:
Q30.
Agile Limited is a manufacturer-cum-dealer of „R Tuff‟ brand of trousers. With passage of
time, its brand has been well accepted in the market. The company has been approached by
a foreign company engaged in the same trade to enter as partner in its business. Agile, in
order to negotiate the deal wants to get its brand valued. The following information based
on market research is available:
(i) Garment industry of which Agile is a constituent, is expected to grow by 9% per
annum during the next five years. The present market size of the industry is Rs
7,500 crores.
(ii) There are other brands both national and international in the market. The
existence of duplicate brands is unavoidable. The share of such players is
estimated to be 63% of the total industry market. The market share of other
national brands will increase @ 0.25% year on year basis in the next 5 years. The
share of international brands is expected to grow 1.5 times of national brands. But
the existence of duplicate brands is to fall by 2.5% over the period of next 5
years, spread equally.
(iii) The expected foreign partner needs the production line of the company to be re-
engineered which will lead to an increase in the yield of the company by 3% after
one year over the present yield of 10% followed thereafter by further increase of
5% year on year.
Following the market oriented approach, determine the brand value to be used for
negotiation with the foreign company, considering the discount factor for 1st five years as
0.909; 0.826; 0.751; 0.683 and 0.621 (Monetary values in crores to be rounded off to
nearest 2 decimal places).
Answer
Market Share of Agile Ltd.
Calculation of last year’s market share = 100% –63% = 37%
Increase or decrease in market share of other players [0.25+(.25 x 150%)-2.5/5] = 0.125%
i.e. increase in others‟ market share every year over the period of 5 years. Hence, market
Brand Value of Agile Ltd. under Market Oriented Approach is Rs 2,443.43 crores.
Important Notes: