6$7

5($',1* :5,7,1*
35$&7,&(7(676
$FROOHFWLRQRI6$7SUDFWLFHWHVWV
FRPSLOHGE\
085$'0$00$'29

3$57


TABLE OF CONTENTS

1 TEST-A 1
2 TEST-B 32
3 TEST-C 61
4 TEST-D 91
5 TEST-E 121
6 TEST-F 152
7 TEST-G 181
8 TEST-H 215
9 TEST-I 245
10 TEST-J 281
11 TEST-K 319

mr.mammadovmurad@gmail.com I +994556247606





TEST-A
R W

1
 1 1
Reading Test
65 MINUTES, 52 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).

Questions 1–10 are based on the following passage. renewed life. Delay? Why should there be delay? Amy
wished nothing but to become his wife. Idle to think
This passage is excerpted from George Gissing, New Grub
of his doing any more work until he sat down in the
Street. Originally published in 1891. Reardon was a newly
home of which she was mistress. His brain burned with
successful author and had married, but soon found himself
30 visions of the books he would henceforth write, but his
unable to write. Following a conversation with his wife,
hand was incapable of anything but a love-letter. And
he takes a walk and thinks about the time just before his
what letters! Reardon never published anything equal
wedding.
to those. ‘I have received your poem,’ Amy replied
And the words sang about him, filled the air with a to one of them. And she was right; not a letter, but a
mad pulsing of intolerable joy, made him desire to fling 35 poem he had sent her, with every word on fire.
himself in passionate humility at her feet, to weep hot The hours of talk! It enraptured him to find
Line tears, to cry to her in insane worship. He thought her how much she had read, and with what clearness
5 beautiful beyond anything his heart had imagined; her of understanding. Latin and Greek, no. Ah! but she
warm gold hair was the rapture of his eyes and of his should learn them both, that there might be nothing
reverent hand. Though slenderly fashioned, she was so 40 wanting in the communion between his thought and
gloriously strong. ‘Not a day of illness in her life,’ said hers. For he loved the old writers with all his heart;
Mrs. Yule, and one could readily believe it. they had been such strength to him in his days of
10 She spoke with such a sweet decision. Her ‘I love misery.
you!’ was a bond with eternity. In the simplest as in the They would go together to the charmed lands of
greatest things she saw his wish and acted frankly upon 45 the South. No, not now for their marriage holiday—
it. No pretty petulance, no affectation of silly-sweet Amy said that would be an imprudent expense; but as
languishing, none of the weaknesses of woman. And soon as he had got a good price for a book. Will not
15 so exquisitely fresh in her twenty years of maidenhood, the publishers be kind? If they knew what happiness
with bright young eyes that seemed to bid defiance to lurked in embryo within their foolish cheque-books!
all the years to come. 50 He woke of a sudden in the early hours of one
He went about like one dazzled with excessive light. morning, a week before the wedding-day. You know
He talked as he had never talked before, recklessly, that kind of awaking, so complete in an instant, caused
20 exultantly, insolently—in the nobler sense. He made by the pressure of some troublesome thought upon
friends on every hand; he welcomed all the world to the dreaming brain. ‘Suppose I should not succeed
his bosom; he felt the benevolence of a god. 55 henceforth? Suppose I could never get more than this
‘I love you!’ It breathed like music at his ears when
he fell asleep in weariness of joy; it awakened him on
25 the morrow as with a glorious ringing summons to CONTINUE

454 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

2
 1 1
poor hundred pounds for one of the long books which 4
cost me so much labour? I shall perhaps have children Which statement best describes a technique used to
to support; and Amy—how would Amy bear poverty?’ represent Amy’s desire to marry the narrator?
He knew what poverty means. The chilling of
A) The narrator describes in detail her youthful
60 brain and heart, the unnerving of the hands, the slow
enthusiasm as a major motivating factor.
gathering about one of fear and shame and impotent
wrath, the dread feeling of helplessness, of the world’s B) The narrator asks a hypothetical question that is
base indifference. Poverty! Poverty! immediately refuted.
C) The narrator applauds her decision as a reflection
of an inner strength that is unparalleled.
1
D) The narrator stresses her sincerity as proof of a
Which choice best describes a major theme of the dedication fostered by her maidenhood.
passage?
A) The internal battle between true love and self-
doubt 5
B) The unequivocal joy of wedded marital bliss As compared with his love letters, the narrator’s book
C) The destructive power of encroaching poverty writing is portrayed as being
D) The fear of never reaching one’s ultimate potential A) agreeable.
B) stalled.
C) fiery.
2
D) imaginative.
According to the narrator, when the woman he loved
learned of his feelings for her, she
A) pledged her undying affection in return. 6
B) dedicated herself to her maidenhood. In describing the relationship between Amy and
C) reconsidered her prior refusal of his advances. the narrator, the narrator highlights a distinction
between Amy’s
D) wrote her own book of poetry.
A) desire for marriage and his readiness.
B) beauty and his common appeal.
3 C) conventional education and his love of language.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the D) distaste for spending and his ability to write.
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 7–8 (“Though slenderly . . . strong”)
B) Lines 10–11 (“She spoke . . . eternity”) 7
C) Lines 26–27 (“Amy wished . . . wife”) Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
D) Lines 33–35 (“Amy replied . . . fire”)
A) Lines 4–7 (“He thought . . . hand”)
B) Lines 11–13 (“In the . . . it”)
C) Lines 38–41 (“Latin and . . . hers”)
D) Lines 45–47 (“No, not . . . book”)

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 455

3
 1 1
8 10
As used in line 40, “wanting” most nearly means What function does the last paragraph (lines 59–63)
A) lacking. serve in the passage as a whole?
B) requesting. A) It expands upon the overall theme of the narrator’s
never-ending love for Amy.
C) pleasing.
B) It lists the long-term effects that poverty could
D) desiring. have on the narrator’s relationship.
C) It provides evidence that the narrator cannot
support his wife by revealing his hysteria.
9
D) It intensifies the narrator’s growing concerns
The narrator uses the phrase “what happiness lurked about his ability to support his marriage.
in embryo” (lines 48–49) to present the publishers as
A) kind.
B) wealthy.
C) influential.
D) foolish.

CONTINUE

456 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

4
 1 1
Questions 11–21 are based on the following passage regions in the Northern Hemisphere. Its use declined
and supplementary material. in favor of the much finer accuracy of GPS after it
became available for civil use in 1995, but the U.S.
This passage is excerpted from Dan Glass, “What Happens if
45 Coast Guard continued working on an improved
GPS Fails?” © 2016 by The Atlantic.
system using the existing infrastructure. If adopted,
Despite its name, the Global Positioning System “Enhanced” LORAN, or eLoran, could provide
is not about maps; it’s about time. Each satellite in positioning accuracy comparable to GPS. Broadcast at
the constellation (24 are needed, plus the U.S. has hundreds of thousands of watts, the signal is virtually
Line several spares) has multiple atomic clocks on board, 50 un-jammable, and unlike GPS, can even be received
5 synchronized with each other and to Coordinated indoors, underwater, and in urban or natural canyons.
Universal Time (UTC)—the time standard used It also turns out that eLoran can provide a UTC time
across the world—down to the nanosecond. The signal with sub-microsecond time resolution across a
satellites continually broadcast their time and position large geographical area.
information down to Earth, where GPS receivers in 55 The technology is available—the Coast
10 equipment from iPhones to automated tractors acquire Guard demonstrated a working prototype last year—
signals and use the minuscule differences in their so why isn’t America using it? John Garamendi,
arrival time to determine an exact position. a California congressman, asked this question at
While GPS was initially conceived to aid a July 2015 congressional hearing on the Federal
navigation, globally synchronized time is now a much 60 Radionavigation Plan, the nation’s primary planning
15 more critical function of the system. Telecom networks document for position, navigation, and timing (PNT).
rely on GPS clocks to keep cell towers synchronized “There are two kinds of time,” he opened, “real time …
so calls can be passed between them. Many electrical and then federal time, which seems to be the forever
power grids use the clocks in equipment that fine- time. The eLoran system was identified as a backup 15
tunes current flow in overloaded networks. The finance 65 years ago, and here we are, federal time, not yet done.”
20 sector uses GPS-derived timing systems to timestamp Why is the sense of urgency among decision-
ATM, credit card, and high-speed market transactions. makers so out of sync? Could some of it be similar
Computer network synchronization, digital television to why people delay backing up their computers
and radio, Doppler radar weather reporting, seismic even though they’ve been telling themselves to for
monitoring, even multi-camera sequencing for film 70 weeks? How do we decide, when presented a risk with
25 production—GPS clocks have a hand in all. unknown odds, when it’s time to sacrifice time and
What if all these flying clock radios were wiped resources to prevent it?  
out, and everything on the ground started blinking Now is a critically important time to answer that
12:00? According to Mike Lombardi, a meteorologist question, as the world has actually been given odds on
at the National Institute for Standards and Technology, 75 another, even more catastrophic risk than GPS failure:
30 “Nobody knows exactly what would happen.” Since so destruction of the electrical power infrastructure itself.
many of these technologies were designed specifically On July 23, 2012, a billion-ton cloud of electrified gases
with GPS in mind, the unsettling truth, he says, is blasted off the far side of the sun at over six million
“there’s no backup.” miles per hour. According to professor Daniel Baker
The bulk of a more promising, comprehensive 80 at University of Colorado, this coronal mass ejection
35 backup system already exists, right here on the ground. (CME) “was in all respects at least as strong as the
After the sextant but before GPS, navigators around 1859 Carrington Event,” referring to the strongest
the world used Long Range Aids to Navigation, or solar storm ever recorded, which set fire to telegraph
“LORAN,” a terrestrial system of transmitters and stations and caused auroras down to Cuba. As was
receiving equipment first developed during WWII. 85 widely reported two years ago, if the 2012 CME had
40 By the mid-1990s, Loran “tower chains” provided occurred one week later, it would have hit Earth.
coverage for North America, Europe, and other

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 457

5
 1 1
Percent of Smartphone Users Who 12
Use Their Phones to get Location-Based Information, As used in line 13, “conceived” most nearly means
over Time, by Age
A) designed.
Percent of Smartphone

100 May-11 Feb-12

B) understood
80
60 C) absorbed.
Users

40
20 D) accepted.
0
18–29 30–49 50+
Age of Smartphone Users
13
Figure 1 The primary purpose of the question in lines 26–28
Data Source: Pew Research Center (“What if . . . 12:00?”) is to
A) introduce a problem.
Commercial GPS Equipment Revenues in North America
B) correct a misconception.
Timing/Synchro Aviation C) reconsider a perspective.
5% 4%
Machine Control D) undermine an idea.
5%
Precision Agriculture
6%
Automotive 14
Survey/Mapping 39%
8% Which of the following best characterizes Lombardi’s
Marine attitude toward “flying clock radios” (line 26)?
33% A) He is confident about their ability to handle a
multitude of tasks.
B) He is concerned about how they will interact with
Figure 2 the eLoran systems.
C) He is annoyed that no one knows exactly how they
work.
11 D) He is worried that they have no replacement
The main purpose of the passage is to systems in case of emergency.
A) present a problem with a current technology and
highlight a potential solution.
B) provide an overview of how clocks and satellites 15
determine distance and location. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
C) analyze the negative impacts of certain answer to the previous question?
technologies across various industries. A) Line 25 (“GPS clocks . . . all”)
D) praise developers for their ability to answer the B) Line 30 (“Nobody knows . . . happen”)
hard questions. C) Lines 30–33 (“Since so . . . backup”)
D) Lines 34–35 (“The bulk . . . ground”)

CONTINUE

458 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

6
 1 1
16 20
As used in line 34, “bulk” most nearly means Which statement is supported by figure 2?
A) dimensions. A) Less than a third of North American GPS revenue
B) mass. comes from the Automotive industry.

C) majority. B) GPS revenues for Surveying/Mapping are less than

GPS revenues for Precision Agriculture.
D) totality.
C) GPS devices are less important for the Aviation
industry than they are for the Marine industry.
17 D) The Automotive and Marine industries make
up a greater percentage of North American GPS
According to John Garamendi, the reason America revenues than the rest of the industries combined.
isn’t using the e-Loran system even though the
technology is available is that
A) the system doesn’t use real time. 21
B) government approval takes longer than the Which additional information, if presented in
development of the technology. figure 2, would be most useful in evaluating the
C) federal decision-makers are scared to change statement in lines 13–15 (“While GPS . . . system”)?
systems. A) The total number of GPS devices sold
D) solar storms threaten the system. B) The number of individuals in each industry using
GPS devices
C) The percentage of the industry that relies on the
18
GPS devices
Which choice provides the best evidence for the D) The amount of revenue in dollars for each
answer to the previous question? industry
A) Lines 48–51 (“Broadcast at . . . canyons”)
B) Lines 64–65 (“The eLoran . . . done”)
C) Lines 70–72 (“How do . . . it”)
D) Lines 73–76 (“Now is . . . itself ”)

19
According to figure 1, which group is closest in
percentage to the percentage of users 18–29 in May
2011 who got location-based information on their
smartphones?
A) Ages 50+ in Feb 2012
B) Ages 50+ in May 2011
C) Ages 30-49 in Feb 2012
D) Ages 18-29 in Feb 2012

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 459

7
 1 1
Questions 22–31 are based on the following 45 channels it into the King Abdullah Canal, constructed
passage. by USAID in the 1970s to provide irrigation for the
Jordan Valley; Syria takes out another 55 billion
This passage is excerpted from Joshua Hammer, “The Dying of
gallons. So what is the answer?
the Dead Sea.” © 2005 by Smithsonian Magazine.
Environmental activists say that one solution is to
A refuge over the millennia for messiahs, martyrs 50 eliminate the water subsidies altogether. “Unless water
and zealots, the Dead Sea region abounds with sites is priced at its real costs,” says Ra’ed Daoud, managing
sacred to Islam, Christianity and Judaism. Some director of ECO Consult, a water-use consulting firm,
Line Muslims believe that Moses, whom they regard as a “there’s no way you’re going to reduce agriculture.”
5 prophet, lies buried in a hilltop mosque just off the But because the region’s agricultural lobby is strong
main road from Jerusalem. Jesus Christ was said to 55 and the environmental movement weak, says Daoud,
have been baptized in the Jordan River after traveling there has been insufficient leverage for change. Israel’s
down to the Dead Sea from Galilee. And despite its water commissioner, Shimon Tal, recently spoke
name, the Dead Sea helps support one of the world’s publicly about the need to reduce some subsidies,
10 most complex and vibrant ecosystems. Fed by fresh but he admitted that it would be a long and difficult
water springs and aquifers, a half-dozen oases along 60 battle. Another approach is to encourage alternate
the shore harbor scores of indigenous species of plants, water sources. Friends of the Earth Middle East is part
fish and mammals, including ibex and leopards. About of a coalition of 21 environmental groups that has
500 million birds representing at least 300 species, developed proposals to conserve household water use
15 including storks, pelicans, lesser spotted eagles, lesser (about 133 billion gallons a year, as much as that used
kestrels and honey buzzards, take refuge here during 65 in agriculture) and to regulate the amount that can
a biannual great migration from Africa to Europe and be taken out of Israel’s springs. In addition, the Israeli
back again. Ein Feshka, a lush expanse of tamarisk, government is promoting the building of wastewater
papyrus, oleander and pools of crystal water, was treatment plants and desalination facilities; the first
20 used by the late king Hussein of Jordan as a private large one on the Mediterranean was completed this
playground in the 1950s and early ’60s. But as the Dead 70 past August. Over the next five years, the government
Sea recedes, the springs that feed the oases are moving says, these facilities will provide as much as 106 billion
along with it; many experts believe that Ein Feshka and gallons of fresh water annually for agricultural and
other oases could wither away within five years. domestic consumption.
25 One reason for the decline, according to Friends of the Earth is also taking its message to the
environmentalists and various government officials, is 75 farmers themselves—encouraging them to plant crops
a water policy on the part of Israel, Jordan and Syria that use less water and spelling out the advantages of
that encourages unrestricted agricultural use. From renewed tourism in the area. “Israeli agriculture is
the first years of Israel’s existence as a Jewish state, for incredibly mismanaged,” Friends of the Earth director
30 example, when collective farming transformed much Gidon Bromberg says. “The farmers here could be
of it into fertile vineyards and vegetable fields, both 80 planting olives, flowers and other crops like dates that
Labor and Likud governments have bestowed generous don’t require fresh water. They could be using treated
water subsidies on the nation’s farmers. The results sewage water and allow fresh water to flow back into
have been disastrous: today, agriculture accounts for the Jordan River.” Friends of the Earth cites a Haifa
35 just 3 percent of Israel’s gross national product and University study that argues that current uses of the
uses up to half of its fresh water. Recently, Uri Sagie, 85 Jordan River make no sense. “The potential tourism-
chairman of Israel’s national water company, told dollar return of a healthy river and a healthy Dead Sea
a conference of Israeli farmers that a growing and outweighs the little return that agriculture offers,” says
irreversible gap between production and consumption Bromberg.
40 looms. “The water sources are being depleted without
the deficit being restored,” he warned. Jordan lavishes
similar water subsidies on its farmers with similar
consequences: the kingdom takes about 71 billion
gallons of water a year from the Yarmouk River and CONTINUE

460 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

8
 1 1
22 26
The primary purpose of the passage is to According to the passage, water laws favor
A) discuss how the governments of Israel, Syria, and A) the tourism industry.
Jordan create water policy. B) government.
B) describe the many species of plants, fish, and C) environmental activists.
mammals that live in the Dead Sea region.
D) farmers.
C) explain the consequences of continuing current
water policy in the Dead Sea region.
D) discuss one cause of the decline of the Dead Sea 27
and outline a possible remedy.
What can reasonably be inferred about the agriculture
industry in the Dead Sea region?
23 A) Its use of water is disproportionate to its impact
on the economy.
As used in line 12, “harbor” most nearly means
B) It is an industry in decline.
A) nourish.
C) The agriculture lobby is the most powerful
B) shelter. influence on governments in the Dead Sea region.
C) entertain. D) It will soon use more than 100 billion gallons of
D) consider. water from treatment facilities.

24 28
The author mentions Ein Feshka primarily in order to Which choice provides the best evidence for the
A) describe a historical site in need of preservation. answer to the previous question?
B) transition from a description of the region to a A) Lines 34–36 (“today . . . water”)
discussion of a problem the region faces. B) Lines 54–56 (“But . . . change”)
C) identify a need for recreation areas in the Dead C) Lines 70–73 (“Over . . . consumption”)
Sea region. D) Lines 77–79 (“Israeli . . . says”)
D) indicate that environmental impacts vary with
different types of land use.
29
What does the author suggest about tourism?
25
A) It was most vibrant in the mid-20th century.
What is the most likely reason the author includes
“both Labor and Likud governments” in lines 28–33 B) Eco-tourism will be an important part of the
(“From . . . nation’s farmers”)? future economy in the region.
A) To describe the level of cooperation between C) Tourism may provide more benefit to the Dead
political parties in the Israeli government Sea region’s economy than agriculture currently
does.
B) To emphasize the popularity of current water
policy among all political parties D) Officials in the tourism and agriculture industries
should work together to create policy.
C) To indicate broad political support for water
subsidies
D) To criticize the politicization of natural resources
CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 461

9
 1 1
30 31
Which choice provides the best evidence for the What is the main idea of the final paragraph?
answer to the previous question? A) Farmers can adopt new practices to use less water
A) Lines 18–21 (“Ein Feshka . . . ’60s”) and help maintain the Dead Sea.
B) Lines 66–68 (“the Israeli . . . facilities”) B) Farmers should stop planting crops and focus on
C) Lines 79–81 (“The farmers . . . water”) tourism.

D) Lines 85–88 (“The potential . . . Bromberg”) C) Tourism will soon replace agriculture as the main
industry of the region.
D) In the absence of policy change, farmers are
adjusting their practices to conserve water.

CONTINUE

462 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

10
 1 1
Questions 32–41 are based on the following Passage 2
passages. It is clear, therefore, that the readjustment of
distribution must be effected through a readjustment
Passage 1 is adapted from James Platt, Poverty. Originally
of the ownership and management of the essential
published in 1884. Passage 2 is adapted from Will Reason,
45 factors of production. It is not possible to effect this
Poverty. Originally published in 1909. As societies became
readjustment on the basis of unrestricted competition,
more industrialized and urban in the late nineteenth century,
because in the case on the prime factor of production,
discussions arose regarding the root causes of poverty.
the land monopoly is caused, not by any artificial
Passage 1 arrangement, but by the simple natural fact that it is
The aim of charitable persons should not be so 50 essential and restricted in quantity. The only course
much the giving with money in hand, or religious that remains is to find some way of democratizing the
teaching on their lips, as the sympathetic, friendly monopoly value, so that everyone benefits by his due
Line intercourse of man with man, woman with woman, share of what has not been made by the industry of any
5 irrespective of class, and actuated by the desire to and is indispensable to the industry of all.
stimulate hope and energy, and to show the lowest 55 This cannot be effected by parceling it out to
outcast that the world, even to them, may be made individuals, for very obvious reasons. It would have to
more enjoyable, if they have the desire to live a life be continually redistributed, it would be impossible
more in harmony with the better part of their nature; to equate the value of the different parts, and such
10 and so in time, by degrees, as the child is taught to distribution would destroy its productive efficiency.
walk, step by step, we may improve the lowest types of 60 We therefore must look to some means of collective
humanity. ownership and use of these natural forces, and also of
To obtain better dwellings for the poor, it is all the value that accrues not from individual energy,
essential for the poorer class to feel a want for, and industry or skill, but from the conditions which society
15 a desire to have, houses better, cleaner, and more itself affords. “To deal with causes we must strike at
wholesome than those they now inhabit. Too many, 65 the error of distribution, by gradually substituting
at present, wantonly and maliciously, but more public ownership for private ownership of the means
frequently, through neglect and apathy, injure the of production. In no other way can we secure for each
houses in which they live. Many of them prefer to be worker in the hive the full reward of his labor. So long
20 uncomfortable. as between the worker and his just wage stands the
The man or men that are wanted to solve this 70 private landlord and the private capitalist, so long will
difficult question, the only true or real reformers, will poverty remain, and not poverty alone, but the moral
be those who study how to alter the character, estimate degradations which inevitably arise from the devotion
of life, the ideal of existence amongst the poor. From of labor to the service of waste,” [writes L.G. Chiozza in
25 the clergy of all denominations, from every man who “Riches and Poverty.”]
has influence over the masses, we want the moral 75 Here we touch the greatest controversy of the
courage to tell the poor not to marry until they are in a present time, and another volume would be needed to
position to support a wife and family, to be reasonably examine all the reasons for and against such a social
industrious, uniformly thrifty, and unswervingly sober. adjustment. But it is clear that unless some way of
30 The real reformer, the only savior of society, is the man effecting it is found, consistent with fairness to all,
who will tell the poor how they may become less so, by 80 poverty, undeserved and unavoidable, must be the
teaching them how to earn more or spend less, not by lot of many, while equally undeserved income will
robbing others of what they have. continue to be reaped, without conscious or intentional
We must raise the status of the poorer class, fraud on their part, by many others. As the poverty
35 improve their individuality, give them a higher reacts on the character for ill effect, so also it is to be
character, and thus prepare the way for a well- 85 feared that the unearned riches also produce qualities,
working humanity that should result in well-working of a different and more subtle nature, but equally
institutions. We must regenerate the entire social inimical to the true well-being both of the individuals
fabric, through the working of juster laws, purer aims, concerned and of the community.
40 nobler instincts—through individual cooperation of CONTINUE
the many, as one, in contributing to the welfare of all.

Practice Test 1 | 463

11
 1 1
32 36
As used in line 1, “aim” most nearly means Which choice provides the best evidence for the
A) focus. answer to the previous question?
B) shot. A) Lines 50–52 (“The only . . . value”)
C) gift. B) Lines 56–59 (“It would . . . efficiency”)
D) ability. C) Lines 60–64 (“We therefore . . . affords”)
D) Lines 75–78 (“Here we . . . adjustment”)

33
In Passage 1, Platt suggests that one way a society can 37
reduce poverty is to As used in line 69, “just” most nearly means
A) provide in-demand technical training to citizens A) only.
in need of marketable skills. B) strict.
B) redistribute wealth directly from certain types of C) equal.
rich men.
D) fair.
C) teach that the benefits of budgeting outweigh the
benefits of handouts.
D) instruct children in financial matters from a 38
young age.
Reason in Passage 2 would most likely characterize the
position taken by Platt in lines 19–20 (“Many of . . .
uncomfortable”) as
34
A) an accurate description of the root cause of the
Which choice provides the best evidence for the current economic situation of the poorer class.
answer to the previous question?
B) a flawed assumption that generalizes the negative
A) Lines 10–12 (“as the . . . humanity”) behavior of a few.
B) Lines 21–24 (“The man . . . poor”) C) a surprising but realistic statement consistent with
C) Lines 30–33 (“The real . . . have”) the economic trends of the times.
D) Lines 38–41 (“We must . . . all”) D) an offensive characterization of the rich that is not
applicable to other classes of society.

35
In Passage 2, Reason implies that evenly distributing 39
wealth and property among individuals would have Both authors would most likely agree that any social
what consequence? changes undertaken to fight poverty would be
A) Neither the rich nor the poor would reap benefits. A) likely to completely solve the problems of financial
B) All parties to the economy would improve their inequality.
position. B) a stopgap measure needed to prevent the wealthy
C) The rich would take advantage to create their own from keeping their money.
monopolies. C) unsuccessful without a drastic change in the
D) The poor would be able to purchase property at mindset of the poor.
decreased value. D) partial solutions that would present new sets of
challenges.
CONTINUE

464 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

12
 1 1
40 41
Which choice best describes the way the two authors Based on Passage 1, Platt would most likely say that
characterize effective ways to reduce poverty? the “readjustment of distribution” Reason mentions in
A) Platt believes that financial education is the key lines 42–43 would have no effect unless
to reducing poverty in a society, while Reason A) property were owned collectively by all members
believes that financial education is irrelevant if of society.
individuals do not participate.
B) profits from property sales were evenly distributed
B) Platt believes that poverty will be reduced only if equally amongst all citizens.
those who are poor truly desire to lift themselves
C) those in poverty exhibited sufficient effort to
out of poverty, while Reason believes that
better themselves.
poverty will be reduced only if society’s wealth is
redistributed. D) the number of available jobs increased enough to
significantly lower unemployment.
C) Platt believes wage regulation from major industry
is a step in the right direction, while Reason
believes that such regulation will be ineffective.  
D) Platt believes training clergy to minister to the
poor is the most effective way of improving the
lives of those in poverty, while Reason believes
that unearned riches are a necessary feature of a
society.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 465

13
 1 1
Questions 42–52 are based on the following passage But what was the source of variation and what was
and supplementary material. the mechanism for passing change from generation
to generation? Darwin “didn’t know anything about
This passage is excerpted from Thomas Hayden, “What
45 why organisms resemble their parents, or the basis
Darwin Didn’t Know.” © 2009 by Smithsonian Magazine. 
of heritable variations in populations,” says Niles
[The] first public airing of Darwinian evolution Eldredge, a paleontologist at the American Museum of
caused almost no stir whatsoever. But when Darwin Natural History in New York City.
published his ideas in book form the following In Darwin’s era, the man who did make progress
Line year, the reaction was quite different. On the 50 on the real mechanism of inheritance was the Austrian
5 Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection, or monk Gregor Mendel. In his abbey garden in the late
the Preservation of Favoured Races in the Struggle 1850s and early 1860s, Mendel bred pea plants and
for Life soon sold out its first press run of 1,250 found that the transmission of traits such as flower
copies, and within a year some 4,250 copies were in color and seed texture followed observable rules. An
circulation. Allies applauded it as a brilliant unifying 55 offspring inherits a set of these genetic units from each
10 breakthrough; scientific rivals called attention to the parent. Since the early 1900s, those units of inheritance
gaps in his evidence, including what would come have been known as genes.
to be known as “missing links” in the fossil record; The objection certainly applied to the paucity
and prominent clergymen, politicians and others of ancestral human fossils in Darwin’s time. Years
condemned the work and its far-reaching implications. 60 of painstaking work by paleontologists, however,
15 In 1864 Benjamin Disraeli, later Britain’s prime have filled in many of the important gaps. There
minister, famously decried the idea—barely mentioned are many more extinct species to be discovered,
in Origin—that human beings too had evolved from but the term “missing link” has for the most part
earlier species. “Is man an ape or an angel?” he asked become as outdated as the idea of special creation
rhetorically at a conference. “I, my lord, I am on the 65 for each species. Anthropologists once depicted
20 side of the angels. I repudiate with indignation and human evolution as a version of the classic “March
abhorrence those newfangled theories.” of Progress” image—a straight line from a crouching
Darwin knew that plant and animal species could proto-ape, through successive stages of knuckle
be sorted into groups by similarity, such that birds draggers and culminating in upright modern
clustered into songbirds and raptors, say, with each 70 human beings. “It was a fairly simple picture, but it
25 group subdivided again and again down to dozens was a simplicity born of ignorance,” says biological
or hundreds of distinct species. He also saw that the anthropologist William Jungers of Stony Brook
individuals within any given species, despite many University in New York. “The last 30 years have seen an
similarities, also differed from one another—and some explosion of new finds.”
of those differences were passed from parents to their 75 Asked about gaps in Darwin’s knowledge, Francisco
30 offspring. And Darwin observed that nature had a Ayala, a biologist at the University of California at
brutally efficient method of rewarding any variation Irvine, laughs. “That’s easy,” he says. “Darwin didn’t
that helped an individual live longer, breed faster or know 99 percent of what we know.” Which may sound
leave more progeny. The reward for being a slightly bad, Ayala goes on, but “the 1 percent he did know was
faster or more alert antelope? The lions would eat 80 the most important part.”
35 your slower neighbors first, granting you one more
day in which to reproduce. After many generations
and a great deal of time, the whole population would
run faster, and with many such changes over time
eventually become a new species. Evolution, Darwin’s
40 “descent with modification through natural selection,”
would have occurred.

CONTINUE

466 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

14
 1 1
Human Fossil Discovery and Naming
*bars represent timespan between fossil discovery and initial
naming of species

Homo neanderthalensis, Germany

Homo erectus, Indonesia

Paranthropus boisei, Tanzania

Homo habilis, Tanzania

Paranthropus aethiopicus, Kenya

Australopithecus afarensis, Ethiopia

Australopithecus garhi, Ethiopia

Ardipithecus kadabba, Ethiopia

1800 1850 1900 1950 2000

On the Origin of Species, published 1859

42 44
Over the course of the passage, the main focus shifts Which choice provides the best evidence for the
from answer to the previous question?
A) a description of Darwin’s life to an overview of A) Lines 9–10 (“Allies applauded . . . breakthrough”)
Darwin’s published works. B) Lines 10–12 (“scientific rivals . . . record”)
B) detailed criticism of Darwin’s controversial theory C) Lines 15–18 (“In 1864 . . . species”)
to qualified support for that theory.
D) Lines 20–21 (“I repudiate . . . theories”)
C) Darwin’s explanation of a scientific mystery to a
summary of how other scientists facilitated that
mystery’s resolution.
45
D) the initial reception for Darwin’s work to a
broader discussion of how his findings continue to The main purpose of the reference to lions in line 34
guide scientific research. is to
A) disprove a questionable theory.
B) introduce a completely new idea.
43 C) reject a burgeoning controversy.
The author most strongly suggests that the largest D) provide a clarifying example.
reason Darwin’s intellectual competitors took issue
with his work was that it
A) didn’t present a complete explanation of the
hypothesized phenomenon.
B) presented ideas that didn’t match what the church
believed.
C) offended readers with its absurd questions.
D) unified what had been intentionally disparate
ideas. CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 467

15
 1 1
46 49
Which statement best describes the technique the As used in line 71, “born of” most nearly means
author uses to advance the main point of the third A) carried by.
paragraph (lines 42–48)?
B) generated from.
A) He ponders an unproven possibility to highlight
the utility of Darwin’s research. C) possessed by.
B) He poses a question that puzzled those of Darwin’s D) admitted to.
era to foreshadow a forthcoming finding.
C) He presents a criticism from an expert to disprove
50
the theory presented by Darwin.
D) He undermines the importance of Darwin’s theory What purpose does the graph serve in relation to the
by discussing the work of another scientist. passage as a whole?
A) It connects the genetic findings of Mendel with
the biological findings of Darwin.
47 B) It provides indisputable evidence to prove the
The author notes that those who criticized Darwin’s theories contained within Darwin’s On the Origin
work when it first came out were of Species.
A) misguided in attacking scientific discovery based C) It reinforces a statement from an expert that much
solely on the work of another scientist. more has been learned since Darwin’s scientific
era.
B) transparent in their jealous slander against his
success. D) It offers evidence that the fossils found by Darwin
and his contemporaries were different than the
C) inaccurate because other scientists had already fossils found in the next century.
proven what Darwin had not.
D) correct in their complaints that his theory lacked
sufficient supporting evidence.

48
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 4–8 (“On the . . . copies”)
B) Lines 49–51 (“In Darwin’s . . . Mendel”)
C) Lines 58–59 (“The objection . . . time”)
D) Lines 73–74 (“The last . . . finds”)

CONTINUE

468 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

16
 1 1
51 52
Which statement is best supported by the data Based on information from both the graph and the
presented in the graph? passage, the anthropologists’ depiction of the “March
A) Human fossils had been discovered in at least five of Progress”
locations by the time Darwin published On the A) fails to address the discoveries of a variety of
Origin of Species. fossils from numerous human species.
B) Human fossils discovered in Tanzania were named B) accurately depicts the linear origin of modern
more quickly than those found in Kenya. man.
C) Both Paranthropus species shown in the graph C) proves that Darwin’s research on Homo
were discovered in the same country. neanderthalensis was accurate.
D) The more recently a new type of fossil was D) undermines the importance of fossil discoveries
discovered, the less time it took scientists to name made around the world.
the species.

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

Practice Test 1 | 469

17
 2 2
Writing and Language Test
35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied
by one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make
revising and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.

Questions 1–11 are based on the following passage. 1

A) NO CHANGE
NEH: A Human-Centered Agency B) significance
The National Endowment for the Humanities (NEH) C) discipline
is an independent federal agency that was created in 1965 D) subject
to provide grants to humanities projects throughout the
United States. Funding for the agency has been the
2
1 protagonist of debate for many years. Some critics
A) NO CHANGE
2 think the money that goes to the NEH would be better
B) thought
spent on infrastructure or job creation, while others object
C) thinking
to the nature of some of the projects that receive funding.
D) would think

CONTINUE

470 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

18
 2 2
3
3 Therefore, the agency provides important services in
A) NO CHANGE
all fifty states and has had a notable impact on American
B) Likewise,
culture over the last fifty years.
C) However,
The NEH was founded as a direct response to an D) For instance,
explosion in scientific research in the middle years of the
20th century. There was concern, especially among those
4
in the fields of arts and humanities, that non-scientific
A) NO CHANGE
pursuits were in danger of getting left behind or
B) in being overlooked.
4 overlooked. The NEH addresses this concern by
C) of oversight.
distributing grant money in seven areas, including
D) to be overlooked.
preservation, research, education, and digital humanities.
Among the most notable projects that have been funded
by the NEH over the last 50 years are the Ken Burns 5
documentary The Civil War, the blockbuster A) NO CHANGE
Metropolitan Museum of Art exhibition “Treasures of B) Tutankhamen” and;
5 Tutankhamen”; and sixteen Pulitzer Prize-winning C) Tutankhamen,” and
books. D) Tutankhamen” and,

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 471

19
 2 2
Although some critics of the NEH argue that the 6
agency’s spending is frivolous in an age when our country A) NO CHANGE
is in desperate need of spending on more concrete things B) has
like infrastructure, NEH grant money 6 which has a C) having
positive impact on local economies. Grants that support D) to have
construction or renovation of facilities employ local
construction workers, and the construction or expansion
7
of a museum creates permanent jobs for staff. Preservation
A) NO CHANGE
funds 7 likewise similarly create jobs for archivists and
B) in the same way
technicians. One striking example is the NEH-funded
C) comparably
excavation of Historic Jamestown—the first permanent
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
English colony in America—which has resulted in the
creation of an entirely new local tourist industry. 8
8
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
Jamestown was thought to be lost for hundreds
of years—scholars knew where it should be, but
found no evidence of it.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it further explains why the discovery
of Jamestown was important.
B) Yes, because it reinforces the importance of the
NEH grant on the region’s economy.
C) No, because it blurs the paragraph’s focus on the
far-reaching economic effects NEH grants can
have.
D) No, because it undermines the idea that tourist
attractions can contribute to the local economy.

CONTINUE

472 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

20
 2 2
[1] As federal funding for scientific research and 9
the military continues to increase, we should not forget Which choice most effectively sets up the quote that
Seaborg’s words. [2] In the early 1960s, Glenn Seaborg, follows in this sentence?
then head of the Atomic Energy Commission, expressed A) NO CHANGE

his support for establishing the NEH by 9 cautioning B) emphasizing the importance of science over
humanities:
against an over-reliance on technology: “Science and
C) lobbying for increased funding for computer
technology are providing us with the means to travel research:
swiftly. But what course do we take? This is the question D) arguing for the importance of public art:
that no computer can answer.” [3] The issue should
not be 10 weather to fund the NEH but how much.
10
[4] NEH grants help inform the kind of cultural awareness
A) NO CHANGE
that is vital to our roles as good citizens in a global
B) weather too
community. 11
C) whether to
D) whether too

11
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 1
should be placed
A) where it is now.
B) after sentence 2.
C) after sentence 3.
D) after sentence 4.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 473

21
 2 2
Questions 12–22 are based on the following passage 12
and supplementary material.
A) NO CHANGE
B) commonplace,
Tuition Reimbursement: A Mutual Benefit
C) commonplace
All employers want a well-educated workforce, and
D) commonplace—
one way to accomplish that goal is to provide tuition
assistance benefits to employees. Tuition assistance
programs are 12 commonplace; a 2013 study showed 13
that 61% of U.S. employers offered undergraduate tuition A) NO CHANGE
assistance as a benefit—but their goals and guidelines B) seeing
vary widely. Companies that offer tuition assistance C) have seen
13 see it as a benefit both to employees and to the D) sees

company. Whether employees are taking classes that

are related to their careers or not, tuition assistance 14
programs result in improved morale, 14 also better job A) NO CHANGE
performance, and retention. B) job performance,
C) job performance too,
D) additionally job performance,

CONTINUE

474 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

22
 2 2
Those who are skeptical of tuition assistance 15
programs argue that 15 the programs cost a lot and Which choice best establishes the argument that
provide very little return on the investment. Some firms follows:
have instituted a requirement that employees receiving A) NO CHANGE

tuition benefits must stay with the company for a specific B) companies should place restrictions on the types
of courses employees can be reimbursed for.
amount of time after completing their educations. 16 In
C) taking classes while working spreads employees
any case, such clauses are hard to enforce, and research too thin, resulting in lower productivity.
shows that they aren’t necessary. Over 80% of workers D) an employee may use the benefit to seek a position
who receive tuition benefits from their employers feel an at a different company.
increased sense of loyalty stemming from the investment,
and they are in fact less likely to 17 leave—than the
16
average employee is.
A) NO CHANGE
B) Consequently,
C) However,
D) Additionally,

17
A) NO CHANGE
B) leave;
C) leave,
D) leave

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 475

23
 2 2
Increased employee loyalty is not the only way that 18
employers benefit from offering tuition assistance. The A) NO CHANGE
programs can also be powerful recruiting tools. Employers B) borrow money through educational loan
from the U.S. Armed Forces to Starbucks are able to programs.

attract workers who are interested in earning an C) go into debt by financing their educations with
student loans.
education while they earn money, without having to
D) take on the risky proposition of borrowing loan
18 take out loans. Most companies require employees money that would leave them with a significant
to earn a minimum grade in their classes, but student debt burden.
employees often find it easier to maintain their grades
when they feel a responsibility to the company paying
19
for their education, not just to themselves. Managers can
A) NO CHANGE
also use tuition assistance programs to evaluate their
B) goes, then he
employees. If an employee takes advantage of the optional
C) goes; then he
benefit, the thinking 19 goes then he or she is likely to be
D) goes. Then he
a highly motivated and productive worker.

CONTINUE

476 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

24
 2 2
Some companies are increasing the value of their 20
investment in tuition assistance programs by restricting A) NO CHANGE
the benefit to classes that will provide their employees B) By contrast,
with necessary or helpful job skills. 20 In addition, C) In other words,
some employers have even gone so far as to create custom D) DELETE the underlined portion and begin the
degree or certification programs. The figure shows sentence with a capital letter.
the ways in which a company can leverage its tuition
assistance program to 21 make a killing on the company’s 21
investment in the program. As shown in the figure, the A) NO CHANGE
most effective programs will 22 start with a strategy to B) provide the best return
manage the workforce necessary for a particular field, C) make a whole lot of dough
which will lead to a secure workforce, will provide a D) earn a pile of money
reliable source of talent, and will ultimately make talent
development proceed productively.
22
Benefits of Employee Tuition Assistance Programs Which choice makes the writer’s description of the
figure most accurate?
A) NO CHANGE
Workforce B) start with productive talent development, which
Strategy will lead to strategies for managing the workforce
necessary for a particular field, and will ultimately
Productive Talent lead to a more stable source of talent and also a
Development secure workforce.
C) start with productive talent development, which
will create a secure workforce with a reliable
source of talent, which will ultimately align with
Secure Workforce
strategies for managing the workforce necessary
for a particular field.
D) start with a reliable source of talented workers,
Reliable Source of Talent which will contribute to a secure workforce, will
productively develop that workforce, and will
ultimately lead to strategies for managing the
workforce necessary for a particular field.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 477

25
 2 2
Questions 23–33 are based on the following passage. 23
A) NO CHANGE
The Changing Face of Fast Food B) have been
Over the last two decades there 23 are a number of C) will be
studies that have shown a strong correlation between the D) had been
rise of fast food restaurants in the United States and the
rise of obesity. Partly in response to this epidemic, a new
24
trend has taken off in the restaurant business: “fast casual”
Which choice most effectively reinforces the definition
food. It’s difficult to precisely define what fast casual is, but of fast casual given earlier in the paragraph?
it generally refers to restaurants that offer the traditional A) NO CHANGE
quick preparation and counter service of fast food at a B) emphasize the higher quality and freshness of
slightly higher price point, with a focus on fresh, high- their ingredients.
quality ingredients. Though many fast casual restaurants C) serve salads as well as burgers and fries.
have menus that focus on a particular healthy type of food, D) may contribute to the obesity epidemic.
such as salads or vegan foods, others offer the traditional
burgers-and-fries fast food fare. But even fast casual burger
25
joints 24 are often still cheaper than going to a sit-down
A) NO CHANGE
restaurant.
B) quickly: driven
It is generally agreed that Chipotle Mexican Grill C) quickly, driven
started the fast casual trend when it opened its first D) quickly; driven
restaurant in Denver in 1993. The chain grew 25 quickly.
Driven by customers who were attracted to its fresh menu 26
and sustainably sourced ingredients. Many within the fast
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
food industry took notice—McDonald’s even became a following sentence.
major investor—and the fast casual movement was It is somewhat unclear where the term fast casual
born. 26 came from—two different people are generally
credited with coining the term, but it was
trademarked in 1995 by Horatio Lonsdale-Hands.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it provides important background
for the information presented in the following
paragraph.
B) Yes, because it clarifies the origins of the term “fast
casual.”
C) No, because it blurs the paragraph’s focus on the
beginnings of the fast casual movement.
D) No, because it distracts from the paragraph’s main
idea by introducing a figure whose role in the
movement is unclear.
CONTINUE

478 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

26
 2 2
Fast casual’s focus on high-quality ingredients is 27
working. During the 2007–2009 recession, spending in the A) NO CHANGE
restaurant business declined for two 27 unbending years. B) linear
28 In fact, during that same period, fast casual business C) even
grew by double digits. Traditional fast food restaurants D) straight
are changing in response. McDonald’s, which is now a
competitor of 29 Chipotle, having sold its interest in
28
the burrito business in 2006, announced recently that it is
A) NO CHANGE
making the switch from frozen burger patties to fresh meat
B) Unsurprisingly,
for its Quarter Pounders at most of its restaurants. This
C) In other words,
comes after the company recently eliminated high fructose
D) In contrast,
corn syrup from 30 they’re buns and announced a plan to
transition to using only eggs from cage-free chickens.
29
A) NO CHANGE
B) Chipotle having sold its interest in the burrito
business in 2006
C) Chipotle, having sold its interest in the burrito
business in 2006
D) Chipotle having sold its interest, in the burrito
business in 2006,

30
A) NO CHANGE
B) their
C) it’s
D) its

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 479

27
 2 2
While the move to cage-free eggs has the potential to 31
make a big impact on how chicken farms are run, it does A) NO CHANGE
nothing to address one of the bigger problems of fast food: B) indeed,
31 therefore, its lack of nutritional value. Critics also C) for instance,
32 question whether increasingly fast casual restaurants D) specifically,
are actually healthy? The typical meal from Chipotle,
for example, contains over 1,000 calories and a full-day’s
32
allowance of sodium. But 33 change is slowly coming.
A) NO CHANGE
The pressure that fast casual restaurants are putting on
B) increasingly question whether fast casual
their more traditional counterparts as well as the growing restaurants are actually healthy?
number that truly do serve healthy food are indications C) question whether increasingly fast casual
that consumers are paying more attention to what they restaurants are actually healthy.
put in their mouths and that the restaurant industry is D) increasingly question whether fast casual
restaurants are actually healthy.
responding.

33
A) NO CHANGE
B) slow changes are starting to arrive.
C) changes that take a long time are beginning to
come.
D) arriving soon are those changes that never happen
quickly.

CONTINUE

480 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

28
 2 2
Questions 34–44 are based on the following passage. 34
Which choice most effectively combines the sentences
Did the Rite Cause a Riot? at the underlined portion?
It is commonly understood that at the premiere of A) choreography, which was uncharacteristic through
its lack of
Igor Stravinsky’s The Rite of Spring on May 29, 1913, the
B) choreography that lacked
shocking nature of the ballet caused a riot to break out in
C) choreography, because of it lacking in conveyance of
the audience. The music started with an unnaturally high
D) choreography through which Nijinsky tried not to
bassoon solo, which elicited shouts and jeers from the convey
audience almost immediately. The furor only rose when
the dancers from the Ballets Russes took the stage and
35
began the jerky, convulsive movements of Vaslav Nijinsky’s
A) NO CHANGE
34 choreography. The choreography was shocking
B) brought up among
because it was not characteristic of the grace and fluidity
C) broke out among
typically expected from ballet. A fight soon 35 broke
D) broke out between
up amidst the spectators, the orchestra was pelted with
vegetables thrown by outraged audience members, and the
police were called to restore order. 36
Which choice best establishes the main idea of the
There are many theories 36 as to what caused the paragraph?
audience of The Rite of Spring to react so strongly. It may A) NO CHANGE
have been the dissonant nature of Stravinsky’s music, with B) about why Stravinsky composed such a
its constantly changing rhythms and jarring percussion, controversial piece of music.
or the purposefully awkward, ungraceful movements of C) regarding the role of the police in the uproar.
the dancers. The theme of the ballet 37 itself was a pagan D) surrounding which Russian folk traditions
Stravinsky drew his inspiration from.
ritual in which a virgin sacrifices herself to the god of
spring, may also have upset some viewers. The negative
reception was summed up by a 38 review, in Le Figaro, 37
that proclaimed “We are sorry to see an artist such as M. A) NO CHANGE
Stravinsky involve himself in this disconcerting adventure.” B) itself, being
C) itself
D) itself,

38
A) NO CHANGE
B) review, in Le Figaro that proclaimed,
C) review in Le Figaro that proclaimed,
D) review in Le Figaro, that proclaimed

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 481

29
 2 2
Although several dozen eyewitness accounts of the 39
evening exist, they are often contradictory and do little A) NO CHANGE
39 to sort of exactly what happened in the Theatre des B) to sort out
Champs-Elysees that night. In fact, if one makes a timeline C) for sort out
of first-person accounts of the Rite’s premiere, descriptions D) for sort of
of the level of disruption and violence increase as the
accounts get further away from the actual event. 40 On
40
the other hand, it’s likely that stories of the riot have gotten
A) NO CHANGE
exaggerated over time.
B) As a result,
C) At the same time,
D) In other words,

CONTINUE

482 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

30
 2 2
[1] Scholars have also recently begun to suspect that 41
the uproar may have been planned. [2] It is possible that The writer wants to add a supporting detail to explain
he actually planted someone to start shouting, but more the different views of the traditionalists and the
modernists. Which choice best accomplishes this goal?
likely he simply set up an expectation for controversy.
A) NO CHANGE
[3] There was impassioned debate in Paris in the early
B) still going on today: The Rite of Spring remains a
years of the 20th century between traditionalists and controversial piece of music in many circles.
modernists that was 41 exemplified by the debate over C) not limited to music: people also argued over
the Eiffel Tower: modernists saw it as a mark of progress visual arts, architecture, and literature.
while traditionalists saw it as a monstrosity. [4] Diaghilev D) nothing new: there have always been people who
likely caused members of both groups 42 that believed will be upset by innovation of any kind, and there
always will be.
that others would react strongly to The Rite of Spring.
[5] Serge Diaghilev, the founder of the Ballets Russes, was
a savvy entrepreneur who understood that any publicity is 42
good publicity. [6] From such charged expectations, it is A) NO CHANGE
43 not unsurprising that controversy arose. 44 B) believing
C) who believed
D) to believe

43
Which choice most effectively signals that the result
the author mentions was expected?
A) NO CHANGE
B) surprising
C) not surprising
D) unusual

44
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5
should be placed
A) where it is now.
B) before sentence 2.
C) before sentence 3.
D) before sentence 4.

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

Practice Test 1 | 483

31


TEST-B
R W


32
 1 1
Reading Test
65 MINUTES, 52 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).

Questions 1–10 are based on the following passage. His relations to Yan may be seen in one incident.
Yan had been crawling about under the house
This passage is excerpted from Two Little Savages by Ernest
in the low wide cobwebby space between the floor
Thompson Seton, originally published 1903. Yan, a twelve-
beams and the ground. The delightful sensation of
year-old boy interested in the outdoors, is at home with his
30 being on an exploring expedition led him farther
older brother, Rad. The narrator recounts a story about the
(and ultimately to a paternal thrashing for soiling
two brothers’ relationship.
his clothes), till he discovered a hollow place near
Yan had many brothers, but only those next to one side, where he could nearly stand upright. He at
him in age were important in his life. Rad was two once formed one of his schemes—to make a secret,
years older—a strong boy, who prided himself on his 35 or at least a private, workroom here. He knew that if
Line “common sense.” Though so much older, he was Yan’s he were to ask permission he would be refused, but
5 inferior at school. He resented this, and delighted in if he and Rad together were to go it might receive
showing his muscular superiority at all opportunities. favourable consideration on account of Rad’s self-
He was inclined to be religious, and was strictly asserted reputation for common sense. For a wonder,
proper in his life and speech. He never was known 40 Rad was impressed with the scheme, but was quite sure
to smoke a cigarette, tell a lie, or say “gosh” or “darn.” that they had “better not go together to ask Father.” He
10 He was plucky and persevering, but he was cold and “could manage that part better alone,” and he did.
hard, without a human fiber or a drop of red blood Then they set to work. The first thing was to deepen
in his make-up. Even as a boy he bragged that he had the hole from three feet to six feet everywhere, and
no enthusiasms, that he believed in common sense, 45 get rid of the earth by working it back under the floor
that he called a spade a spade, and would not use two of the house. There were many days of labour in this,
15 words where one would do. His intelligence was above and Yan stuck to it each day after returning from
the average, but he was so anxious to be thought a school. There were always numerous reasons why
person of rare sagacity and smartness, unswayed by Rad could not share in the labour. When the ten- by
emotion, that nothing was too heartless for him to 50 fourteen-foot hole was made, boards to line and floor
do if it seemed in line with his assumed character. He it were needed. Lumber was very cheap—inferior,
20 was not especially selfish, and yet he pretended to be second-hand stuff was to be had for the asking—and
so, simply that people should say of him significantly Yan found and carried boards enough to make the
and admiringly: “Isn’t he keen? Doesn’t he know how workroom. Rad was an able carpenter and now took
to take care of himself?” What little human warmth 55 charge of the construction. They worked together
there was in him died early, and he succeeded only in evening after evening, Yan discussing all manner of
25 making himself increasingly detested as he grew up. CONTINUE

552 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

33
 1 1
plans with warmth and enthusiasm—what they would 3
do in their workshop when finished—how they might It can reasonably be inferred from the passage
get a jig-saw in time and saw picture frames, so as to that Yan initially asked for Rad’s help because Yan
60 make some money. Rad assented with grunts or an believed that
occasional Scripture text—that was his way. Each day
A) Rad’s carpentry skills would be helpful in building
he told Yan what to go on with while he was absent.
the workshop.
The walls were finished at length; a window placed
in one side; a door made and fitted with lock and key. B) working together would bring them closer and
65 What joy! Yan glowed with pleasure and pride at the end their rivalry.
triumphant completion of his scheme. He swept up the C) he would need Rad’s greater strength to complete
floor for the finishing ceremony and sat down on the the project.
bench for a grand gloat, when Rad said abruptly: D) their father perceived Rad as more practical than
“Going to lock up now.” That sounded gratifyingly Yan.
70 important. Yan stepped outside. Rad locked the door,
put the key in his pocket, then turning, he said with
cold, brutal emphasis:
4
“Now you keep out of my workshop from this on.
You have nothing to do with it. It’s mine. I got the The author’s descriptions of Rad suggest that he is
75 permission to make it.” All of which he could prove, notable for his
and did. A) unwillingness to do physical labor.
B) superior performance as a student.
C) seeming yet deceptive self-regard.
1 D) dedication to supporting his family.
Over the course of the passage, the main shift in focus
is from
A) a history of rivalry to a series of events that led to 5
a greater understanding between siblings. Which situation is most similar to the one introduced
B) a comparison of two children to an account of an in lines 35–42 (“He knew . . . did”)?
incident that changed both for the worse. A) A teacher spreads rumors about a coworker at
C) an introduction of a protagonist to a dialogue their school.
about a shared experience. B) A university passes over a qualified candidate and
D) a description of a character to a revealing admits a less qualified applicant.
interaction between two characters. C) A principal attempts to settle a dispute between
two students.
D) A colleague agrees to recommend a co-worker
2 for a job but instead secretly applies for the job
As used in line 10, “cold” most nearly means herself.
A) frozen.
B) gloomy. 6
C) unfeeling. As used in line 38, “consideration” most nearly means
D) unprepared. A) courtesy.
B) judgement.
C) reward.
D) generosity. CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 553

34
 1 1
7 9
Which choice best reflects Yan’s perspective regarding Which choice best supports the conclusion that
the project he undertakes with his brother? Yan does not anticipate what Rad will do when the
A) He is strongly optimistic, because he believes workroom is finished?
they will be successful and will continue working A) Lines 33–35 (“He at . . . here”)
together.
B) Lines 60–61 (“Rad . . . way’”)
B) He is falsely cheerful, because he foresees the
C) Lines 65–66 (“What . . . scheme”)
potential for betrayal by his brother.
D) Lines 70–75 (“Rad . . . it”)
C) He is somewhat resentful, because Rad frequently
leaves him to work alone.
D) He is doggedly hopeful, because he is certain he 10
can break through his brother’s cold demeanor.
The passage indicates that Rad viewed the idea to
build a workroom as
8 A) an opportunity that he could use to his own
advantage.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question? B) a way to demonstrate his muscular superiority
over Yan.
A) Lines 1–2 (“Yan had . . . life”)
C) a typical example of Yan’s impractical schemes.
B) Lines 15–19 (“His intelligence . . . character”)
D) a sensible plan for a business partnership with his
C) Lines 55–60 (“They worked . . . money”)
brother.
D) Lines 61–62 (“Each day . . . absent”)

CONTINUE

554 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

35
 1 1
Questions 11–20 are based on the following passage The continuing discovery that birds and mammals
and supplementary material. do a great deal of their learning socially, rather than
individually, has important implications for how
This passage is adapted from Nathan H. Lents, “In Humans
human intelligence evolved. It is well known that
and Animals, Social Learning Drives Intelligence.” © 2018 by
50 the explosion of innovation and creativity in our
Sussex Publishers, LLC.
lineage began well after our species had adopted our
The human capacity to learn exceeds that of any current anatomical form, including brain size, and is
other animal. Indeed, our massive memories and largely attributed to the acquisition of language and
impressive computing power are the engines of all that symbolic thinking around 65,000 years ago. From this
Line makes us different from other animals, rooted mostly, 55 point forward, each generation of humans inherited
5 but not entirely, in language. However, the way that the collected knowledge of the previous generation,
humans and animals learn may not be as different as which was transmitted socially through language. This
many people think. steady accumulation of knowledge led to the eventual
We all know that humans do most of their learning development of agriculture and everything else flowed
socially, that is, we learn from others rather than 60 from that.
10 discovering things ourselves through trial-and-error. If we consider that our ape ancestors were already
Formal schooling is entirely based on social learning. learning a great deal from each other, the evolutionary
Even so-called self-directed learning and discovery is drive toward cognitive capacity was really just a drive
actually social because when we discover information for “more of the same.” The great conundrum of
in a book, someone else put it there. 65 language and symbolic thought is that humans had to
15 Because animals do not go to school, we often have evolved the capacity for these skills before they
think of their learning as entirely different. When we were actually used. You can’t do something until you
see a bird building a nest, for example, we assume that have the means to do it. When it comes to language
birds must have a built-in instinct to build nests and and symbolism and culture, it could be that the means
then learn to do it through trial-and-error. That may 70 to do it was social learning pure and simple. Over the
20 be right, but there may also be a social component to last seven million years (and even going much further
animal learning. back than that, truth be told), the selective pressure
It has long been known that most social animals was for increasing sociality, social cooperation, and
that are reared artificially in captivity will be deficient social learning. If we view human evolution as a rising
in many skills that adult animals of that species are 75 tide of social learning, the emergence of language
25 generally proficient at. For example, chimpanzees seems almost inevitable.
raised without adult chimpanzees do not know how Of course, natural selection is involved in shaping
to build nests or care for young when they become anything and everything about us, and of course
parents themselves. Ring-tailed lemurs raised some animals really do have genetically programmed
artificially do not show the “normal” food preferences 80 behaviors that are complex, such as a beaver building a
30 that wild lemurs display and instead will eat a larger dam, a behavior that appears to be almost completely
variety of food. innate. But we are expecting too much of natural
Cross-fostering experiments, in which animals selection to think that all of the complex behaviors we
are raised by members of a different species, have also see in animals are the product of pure genetics and
revealed the effects of social learning. For example, 85 “survival of the fittest.”
35 Frans de Waal and Denise Johanowicz allowed some Social learning resolves this conundrum. Animal
young rhesus macaques, which don’t normally engage species didn’t have to sit around and wait for random
in social reconciliation following a conflict, to spend mutation to give them the innate knowledge of where
five months of their young lives with stump-tailed to find food. They learned from their parents and
macaques, which are much more prone to reconciling 90 others. The role of evolution, then, was to continually
40 disputes peacefully. These fostered rhesus macaques select for better learners, and better social learners
learned the behavior of reconciliation, and it stuck specifically, at least in some lineages.
with them even after they were placed back with other
rhesus macaques. Surprisingly, this more conciliatory CONTINUE
approach to conflict resolution remained even after
45 other habits they had picked up faded.
Practice Test 2 | 555
36
 1 1
13
Relative Size of Prey Obtained by Adult Birds
Relative Size of Prey

Based on the passage, which choice best describes

0.35 Birds raised by the same species what happened when the rhesus macaques in de Waal
0.3 Birds raised by another species
0.25 and Johanowicz’s experiment were raised by stump-
0.2 tailed macaques?
0.15
0.1 A) The rhesus macaques developed a behavior their
0.05
0 species does not normally demonstrate.
Smaller bird Larger bird B) The rhesus macaques became more violent when
species species
dealing with conflicts between members of their
group.
Adapted from Tore Slagsvold and Karen L. Wiebe, “Social learning in birds
and its role in shaping a foraging niche.” ©2011 by The Royal Society.
C) The rhesus macaques became indistinguishable
from the stump-tailed macaques that raised them.
Birds were either raised by their own species or cross-fostered by another D) The rhesus macaques became more intelligent and
species. When the birds reached adulthood, researchers measured the size
creative with their learned behaviors.
of prey obtained by the birds for their own offspring.

14
11 Based on the passage, de Waal and Johanowicz’s
The main purpose of the passage is to experiment most likely ruled out which potential
A) chronicle the evolution of human intelligence claim about social learning?
through social learning. A) Habits an animal learns from another species will
B) provide evidence from human and animal last only as long as they remain in close contact
observations to help explain knowledge and skill with that other species.
development across generations. B) Individuals that are better at learning behaviors
C) propose that humans are more intelligent than socially are more likely to pass on their beneficial
animals due to the different ways they learn. traits to the next generation of their species.
D) show how birds and mammals learn social C) Individuals that are raised by a different species
behaviors that humans do not understand. are more likely to be ostracized by members of
their own species.
D) Animals that learn behaviors from their own or
12 a different species can pass those behaviors on to
their offspring in the next generation of their own
Which choice best represents the different meanings species.
of “back” as used in line 42 and line 72?
A) In exchange; behind
B) Earlier; dishonestly
C) Incorrectly; formerly
D) Again; previously

CONTINUE

556 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

37
 1 1
15 18
Which choice provides the best evidence for the The author uses the terms “random mutation” and
answer to the previous question? “innate knowledge” in the last paragraph of the
A) Lines 22–25 (“It . . . proficient at”) passage most likely to
B) Lines 43–45 (“Surprisingly, this . . . faded”) A) bring attention to the importance of natural
selection for species survival.
C) Lines 46–49 (“The continuing . . . evolved”)
B) stress the uncertainty with which the author views
D) Lines 82–85 (“But we . . . fittest”)
the benefits of social learning.
C) reinforce the contrast between genetic traits and
social learning.
16
D) convey a serious tone regarding the scientific
As presented in the passage, the author would most
nature of socially learned behaviors.
likely agree that human beings
A) have achieved the best methods of social learning
possible by this time.
19
B) require a large brain size to retain their knowledge
According to the graph, what was the relative size of
of learned behaviors.
prey caught by the smaller birds that were raised by
C) are able to extend their creativity with the support another species?
of language.
A) More than 0.25 but less than 0.3
D) should be learning behaviors from other species to
B) More than 0.2 but less than 0.25
improve their survival.
C) More than 0.15 but less than 0.2
D) More than 0.1 but less than 0.15
17
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question? 20
A) Lines 49–54 (“It is . . . ago”) Information about which of the following is presented
in the graph but NOT discussed in the passage?
B) Lines 54–57 (“From this . . . language”)
A) Social learning within a species
C) Lines 64–67 (“The great . . . used”)
B) Social learning from another species
D) Lines 77–82 (“Of course . . . innate”)
C) Cross-fostering birds
D) Animal feeding behaviors

CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 557

38
 1 1
Questions 21–31 are based on the following 40 be impossible to definitively show that there are never
passages. any new neurons in the adult hippocampus.
The absence of neurogenesis in the human brain
Passage 1 is adapted from Nicholas Weiler, “Birth of New
may not be a bad thing, the researchers point out, but
Neurons in the Human Hippocampus Ends in Childhood.”
instead point the way to understanding what makes
© March 2018 by University of California San Francisco.
45 the human brain distinct from other animals and set
Passage 2 is adapted from “Even Old Brains Can Make New
researchers on a better path to developing treatments
Neurons.” © April 2018 by Columbia University.
for human brain diseases.
Passage 1
One of the liveliest debates in neuroscience over the Passage 2
past half century surrounds whether the human brain Previous studies of animal brains have led many
renews itself by producing new neurons throughout neuroscientists to conclude that the capacity for
Line life, and whether it may be possible to rejuvenate the 50 neurogenesis, or the production of new neurons,
5 brain by boosting its innate regenerative capacity. declines with age and virtually ceases in the mature
Now UC San Francisco scientists have shown that brain. “In mice, researchers have shown that
in the human hippocampus—a region essential for neurogenesis drops pretty dramatically after middle
learning and memory and one of the key places where age,” said the study’s lead author Maura Boldrini, MD,
researchers have been seeking evidence that new 55 PhD, a research scientist in psychiatry and a member
10 neurons continue to be born throughout the lifespan of the Columbia Stem Cell Initiative. A recent study of
—neurogenesis declines throughout childhood and is human brains was also unable to find new neurons in
undetectable in adults. adult brains.
The lab’s new research, based on careful analysis of The brain’s hippocampus, which is responsible
59 samples of human hippocampus from UCSF and 60 for memory and learning, has been a major focus
15 collaborators around the world, suggests new neurons of studies on neurogenesis and stem cell biology.
may not be born in the adult human brain at all. Although neuroimaging studies of humans show
In the new study, Shawn Sorrells, PhD, a senior that continued growth in this structure occurs in
researcher in the Alvarez-Buylla lab, and Mercedes adulthood, many scientists have argued that this
Paredes, PhD, a UCSF assistant professor of 65 represents existing neurons growing larger, or an
20 neurology, led a team that collected and analyzed expansion of blood vessels or other internal support
samples of the human hippocampus. structures, rather than the addition of new neurons.
The researchers found plentiful evidence of To address the question, investigators dissected
neurogenesis in the dentate gyrus during prenatal and examined a representative sample of human
brain development and in newborns, observing 70 hippocampi from healthy people of different ages after
25 an average of 1,618 young neurons per square they died.
millimeter of brain tissue at the time of birth. But Scientists at Columbia were able to pursue this
the number of newborn cells sharply declined in research by setting up a brain bank and collecting
samples obtained during early infancy. postmortem and extensive clinical information on the
“In young children, we were able to see that 75 donors, said J. John Mann, MD, the senior author on
30 substantial numbers of new neurons continue to the new paper.
be made and integrated into the dentate gyrus, In this new work, Boldrini and Mann’s team used
but neurogenesis fades away completely by early a combination of molecular probes and mathematical
adolescence,” Paredes said. “The fact that we could modeling to track neurogenesis in brains from 28
compare newborn brains, where new neurons 80 healthy donors ranging in age from 14 to 79 years old.
35 were clearly present, to the adult, where we saw Based on the prevailing view in the field, they expected
no evidence for young neurons, gave us added to see neurogenesis decline with age. It didn’t.
confidence that what we were seeing was correct.”
The authors acknowledge that however
comprehensively and carefully they searched, it would
CONTINUE

558 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

39
 1 1
“It does appear to be the case that neurogenesis in 23
the hippocampus is remarkably preserved in human Which choice provides the best evidence for the
85 beings,” said Mann. answer to the previous question?
“We found there were on the order of thousands
A) Lines 1–4 (“One of . . . life”)
of neuroprogenitor cells and immature neurons both
in the youngest and the oldest people analyzed,” said B) Lines 11–12 (“neurogenesis declines . . . adults”)
Boldrini. However, the analysis revealed that the older C) Lines 22–26 (“The researchers . . . birth”)
90 brains had less vascular development, and the neurons
D) Lines 39–41 (“it would . . . hippocampus”)
in older hippocampi expressed lower levels of proteins
associated with plasticity, or the formation of new
neural connections.
24
The results point to a new model of brain aging,
95 in which older brains retain the ability to make Which choice best supports the idea that the study
new neurons but may become less able to form new discussed in Passage 1 may have implications beyond
connections between them and keep them supplied showing whether or not new neurons form later in
with oxygen. life?
A) Lines 13–16 (“The lab’s . . . all”)

21 B) Lines 26–28 (“But the . . . infancy”)

According to Paredes in Passage 1, the researchers C) Lines 29–33 (“In young . . . adolescence”)
had further confidence in their findings because they D) Lines 42–47 (“The absence . . . diseases”)
were able to
A) collect brain samples from around the world.
25
B) prove no neurons are ever developed in the adult
hippocampus. Based on Passage 2, Boldrini would most likely agree
with which of the following statements about the
C) compare the brains of newborns to the brains of
adults. brains of mice?
A) Age is negatively correlated with neuron
D) observe 1,618 young neurons per square
development in mice brains.
millimeter.
B) Studying mice brains can eliminate the need to
study human brains.
22 C) The cells of mice brains are different from those of
The authors of the study in Passage 1 concede to other animal brains.
which shortcoming in their study? D) The cells in mice brains deteriorate more rapidly
A) They failed to measure a specific trait in all than those in human brains.
humans.
B) They could not completely rule out the presence of
a certain biological structure.
C) Their sample size was smaller than it should have
been for completely accurate results.
D) The lab conditions were not representative of the
natural world.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 559

40
 1 1
26 29
In Passage 2, the phrase “prevailing view” (line 81) The primary purpose of both passages is to discuss
mainly serves to studies that
A) indicate the results of the study were as expected. A) examine whether or not human brains continue to
B) contrast the expected results of the study with the create certain cells as they age.
actual results. B) describe the way the human brain creates new
C) provide an example of a previous study for cells.
comparison. C) provide evidence to contradict current beliefs.
D) present the results retrieved from a majority of the D) compare the brain activity of newborns to the
specimens. brain activity of older adults.

27 30
When Boldrini describes finding neurogenesis “both Based on the description of Paredes’s study in
in the youngest and the oldest people analyzed,” Passage 1 and that of Boldrini’s study in Passage 2,
(lines 87–88), she is most likely suggesting that with which claim would both authors most likely
A) new neurons form in the brains of only the very agree?
young and the very old. A) There is no clear answer as to whether or not adult
B) the study focused on individuals at the beginning brains develop new neurons.
or end of their lives. B) Comparing the brains of the very young with the
C) the research sample was incomplete. brains of the aging is an effective way to study
brain development.
D) researchers found new neurons in a wide range of
ages. C) Improved vascular health and increased protein
intake can help adult brains continue to produce
neurons.
28 D) Learning about neuron development can help
spur advancements in other areas of brain health
In Passage 2, lines 89–93 (“However . . . connections”)
and disease.
mainly serve to
A) suggest that previous research about neuron
development was incomplete. 31
B) prove the hippocampus is less able to form In the passages, Paredes and Boldrini support their
neurons as it ages.
conclusions with
C) present a new explanation for the negative effects A) experiments that replicate conditions in the
of aging on the brain human body.
D) offer a way to prevent the loss of neural B) data gathered from various textbooks and
development in older age. journals.
C) observations of human behavior in controlled
settings.
D) scientific analysis of human tissue.

CONTINUE

560 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

41
 1 1
Questions 32–42 are based on the following Instead of strutting about as formerly, with his three-
passage. cornered hat on one side, flourishing his cudgel, he
now goes about whistling thoughtfully to himself, with
This passage is from Washington Irving, The Sketchbook of
his head drooping down, his cudgel tucked under his
Geoffrey Crayon, Gent. Originally published in 1819. “John Bull”
45 arm, and his hands thrust to the bottom of his breeches
is a satirical figure used to personify England, particularly the
pockets, which are evidently empty.
English middle class.
Such is the plight of honest John Bull at present; yet
A stranger who wishes to study English for all this the old fellow’s spirit is as tall and as gallant
peculiarities may gather much valuable information as ever. If you drop the least expression of sympathy
from the innumerable portraits of John Bull, as 50 or concern, he takes fire in an instant; swears that he
Line exhibited in the windows of the caricature-shops. I is the richest and stoutest fellow in the country; and
5 cannot resist the temptation to give a slight sketch of talks of laying out large sums to adorn his house or buy
him, such as he has met my eye. another estate with a valiant swagger and grasping of
John Bull, to all appearance, is a plain downright his cudgel.
matter-of-fact fellow, with much less of poetry about 55 I confess I cannot look upon John’s situation
him than rich prose. There is little of romance in his without strong feelings of interest. He may not be so
10 nature, but a vast deal of strong natural feeling. He wonderfully fine a fellow as he thinks himself, but
excels in humor more than in wit; is jolly rather than he is at least twice as good as his neighbors represent
gay; melancholy rather than morose. He is a boon him. His virtues are all his own; all plain, homebred,
companion, and he will stand by a friend in a quarrel, 60 and unaffected. His very faults smack of the raciness
with life and purse, however soundly he may be of his good qualities. His extravagance savors of his
15 cudgeled1. In this last respect, he has a propensity to be generosity; his quarrelsomeness of his courage; his
somewhat too ready. He is a busy-minded personage, credulity of his open faith; his vanity of his pride;
who thinks not merely for himself and family but for all and his bluntness of his sincerity. They are all the
the country round, and is most generously disposed to 65 redundancies of a rich and liberal character. All that
be everybody’s champion. He is continually volunteering I wish is that John’s present troubles may teach him
20 his services to settle his neighbors’ affairs. Though more prudence in future. That he may cease to distress
really a good-hearted, good-tempered old fellow, he is his mind about other people’s affairs; that he may give
singularly fond of being in the midst of contention. up the fruitless attempt to promote the good of his
The secret of the matter is that John has a great 70 neighbors and the peace and happiness of the world by
disposition to protect and patronize. He thinks dint of the cudgel; that he may remain quietly at home;
25 it indispensable to the dignity of an ancient and that he gradually get his house into repair and long
honorable family, to be bounteous in its appointments enjoy, on his paternal lands, a green, an honorable, and
and eaten up by dependents. The consequence is that a merry old age.
like many other venerable family establishments,
his manor is encumbered by old retainers whom he
30 cannot turn off, and an old style which he cannot lay 32
down. Owls have taken possession of the dovecote, but The author’s descriptions of John Bull most directly
they are hereditary owls, and must not be disturbed. support which larger claim?
In short, John has such a reverence for everything that A) Withdrawing from the public stage would only
has been long in the family that he will not hear even weaken an already threatened estate.
35 of abuses being reformed, because they are good old
B) It is more difficult to abdicate a position of power
family abuses.
than to safeguard it.
All those whims and habits have concurred
woefully to drain the old gentleman’s purse. What C) Financial stability is incompatible with ruling
is worst of all is the effect which these pecuniary compassionately and maintaining shared traditions.
40 embarrassments have had on the poor man himself. D) Having an overextended sphere of influence can
1
jeopardize personal welfare.
A cudgel is a club-like stick.
CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 561

42
 1 1
33 36
During the course of the passage, the central focus Which choice provides the best evidence for the idea
shifts from that John Bull’s core values include caring for others?
A) describing a symbolic figure to sounding a call A) Lines 9–10 (“There . . . feeling”)
for caution and consideration regarding future
B) Lines 16–19 (“He . . . champion”)
conduct.
C) Lines 47–49 (“yet . . . ever”)
B) celebrating the merits of a relatable hero
to denouncing that hero as a national D) Lines 59–60 (“His . . . unaffected”)
embarrassment.
C) making light of a character’s flaws to casting doubt
on his ability to improve a situation. 37
D) condemning a character for his unwise familial As used in line 35 and line 36, “abuses” most nearly
attitudes to mourning his fall from prominence. means
A) violations.
B) assaults.
34
C) invasions.
According to the passage, there is a distinct contrast
D) impositions.
between
A) having well-meaning intentions and acting in
one’s best interest. 38
B) the responsibility to protect family and the duty to The repeated references to a “cudgel” throughout the
volunteer for one’s country.
second half of the passage mainly emphasize John
C) growing up a part of the aristocracy and earning a Bull’s
position of influence. A) physical stature and fortitude.
D) respecting ancestral traditions and choosing to B) reputation of power and authority.
neglect one’s modern obligations.
C) capacity for violence and retaliation.
D) renown as a champion of England.
35
As used in line 5, “sketch” most nearly means
39
A) account.
As used in line 56, “interest” most nearly means
B) farce.
A) suspicion.
C) cartoon.
B) care.
D) impersonation.
C) amusement.
D) curiosity.

CONTINUE

562 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

43
 1 1
40 42
It can reasonably be inferred that John Bull suffers The author would most likely describe the public’s
financial hardship primarily because attitude toward John Bull as
A) his family members feel entitled to their A) bitterly disappointed that he could not maintain
extravagances and refuse to economize. financial stability.
B) his pursuit of restoring his family’s social standing B) affectionately nostalgic over his generous service
leads him into bad investments. to their communities.
C) his support of local charities and community C) overly critical of his faults.
groups outpaces his diminished resources. D) coolly indifferent to his success or failure.
D) his pride in his family’s holdings compromises his
ability to manage them well.

41
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 12–16 (“He . . . ready”)
B) Lines 27–31 (“The . . . down)
C) Lines 42–46 (“he now . . . empty”)
D) Lines 61–65 (“His extravagance . . . character”)

CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 563

44
 1 1
Questions 43–52 are based on the following passage attention. Instead, it only affected the default mode
and supplementary material. 45 network—a group of brain regions that’s associated
with spontaneous unfocused mental activity, like
This passage is adapted from Ed Yong, “Why We Sleep Badly
daydreaming or mind-wandering. These results fit with
on Our First Night in a New Place.” © 2018 by The Atlantic
the idea of the first-night brain as a night watchman,
Monthly Group.
in which the left default mode network is more
When you check into a hotel room or stay with a 50 responsive than usual.
friend, is your first night of sleep disturbed? Do you To test this idea, Sasaki asked more volunteers
toss and turn, mind strangely alert, unable to shut to sleep in a normal bed with a pair of headphones.
Line down in the usual way? If so, you’re in good company. Throughout the sessions, the team piped small
5 This phenomenon is called the first-night effect, and beeps into one ear or the other, either steadily or
scientists have known about it for over 50 years. “Even 55 infrequently. They found that the participants’ left
when you look at young and healthy people without hemispheres (but not the right) were more responsive
chronic sleep problems, 99 percent of the time they to the infrequent beeps (but not the steady ones) on
show this first-night effect—this weird half-awake, the first night (but not the second). The recruits were
10 half-asleep state,” says Yuka Sasaki from Brown also better and quicker at waking up in response to the
University. 60 beeps when the sounds were processed by their left
Other animals can straddle the boundaries between hemispheres.
sleeping and wakefulness. Whales, dolphins, and This shows how dynamic sleep can be, and how
many birds can sleep with just one half of their brains attuned it is to the environment. The same applies to
15 at a time, while the other half stays awake and its many animals. In 1999, Niels Rattenborg from the Max
corresponding eye stays open. In this way, a bottlenose 65 Planck Institute for Ornithology found that ducks at
dolphin can stay awake and alert for at least five days the edge of a flock sleep more asymmetrically than
straight, and possibly many more. those in the safer center. “In this way, sleeping ducks
Sasaki wondered if humans do something similar, avoid becoming sitting ducks,” he says.
20 albeit to a less dramatic degree. Maybe when we enter Lino Nobili from Niguarda Hospital in Milan adds
a new environment, one half of our brain stays more 70 that these results fit with a “relatively new view of
awake than the other, so we can better respond to sleep” as a patchwork process, rather than a global one
unusual sounds or smells or signs of danger. Maybe that involves the whole brain. Recent studies suggest
our first night in a new place is disturbed because half that some parts can sleep more deeply than others, or
25 our brain is pulling an extra shift as a night watchman. even temporarily wake up. This might explain not only
“It was a bit of a hunch,” she says. “Maybe we’d find 75 the first-night effect but also other weird phenomena
something interesting.” like sleepwalking or paradoxical insomnia, where
She invited 11 volunteers to spend a few nights at people think they’re getting much less sleep than they
her laboratory. They slept in a hulking medical scanner actually are.
30 that measured their brain activity, while electrodes on To confirm the night watch hypothesis, Sasaki now
their heads and hands measured their brain waves, eye 80 wants to use weak electric currents to shut down the
movements, heart rate, and more. left default mode network to see if people sleep faster
While they snoozed, team members Masako in new environments. That would certainly support
Tamaki and Ji Won Bang measured their slow-wave her idea that this region is behind the first night effect.  
35 activity—a slow and synchronous pulsing of neurons It won’t help people sleep better in new places,
that’s associated with deep sleep. They found that this 85 though. To do that, Sasaki tries to stay in the same
slow activity was significantly weaker in the left half of hotel when she travels, or at least in the same chain.
the volunteers’ brains, but only on their first night. And “I’m flying to England tomorrow and staying at
the stronger this asymmetry, the longer the volunteers a Marriott,” she says. “It’s not a completely novel
40 took to fall asleep. environment, so maybe my brain will be a little more
The team didn’t find this slow-wave asymmetry 90 at ease.”
over the entire left hemisphere. It wasn’t noticeable
in regions involved in vision, movement, or CONTINUE

564 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

45
 1 1
Mean brain response to deviant sounds 44
during slow-wave sleep
In the third paragraph (lines 19–27), the author uses
Left the words “wondered” and “hunch” primarily to
−8 Right suggest that Sasaki and her colleagues
Amplitude (μV)

−6 A) believed that the first-night effect would be most

apparent in people who had greater awareness of
−4 their surroundings when going to sleep.
−2 B) had not previously discovered evidence that part
of the human brain responds to environmental
0 stimuli when sleeping in a new place.
Day 1 Day 2
C) questioned whether the link between animal sleep
Figure 1 patterns and the first-night effect in humans was
related to similarities in their environment.
D) did not predict that slow-wave brain activity
Response to deviant sounds during would have such a great influence on quality of
slow-wave sleep over time sleep in various locations.

Left hemisphere
45
Amplitude (μV)

−8
Which statement regarding subjects who had weaker
−4
left hemisphere slow-wave activity during the first
0 night in the medical scanner can be most reasonably
Day 1 inferred from the passage?
4 Day 2
A) They are more wakeful when presented with
0 500 1,000
environmental stimuli while sleeping in a new
Time from sound (ms) place.
B) They are more restless sleepers overall and have
Figure 2 trouble falling asleep in places other than their
homes.
Figures adapted from Tamaki Masako, Ji Won Bang, Takeo Watanabe,
and Yuka Sasaki, “Night Watch in One Brain Hemisphere during Sleep C) They are more likely to suffer from afflictions such
Associated with the First-Night Effect in Humans.” ©2016 by Elsevier Ltd. as sleepwalking or paradoxical insomnia.
D) They are not able to sleep through the night unless
the surroundings are silent.
43
The primary purpose of the passage is to
A) describe a study on how slow-wave sleep activity 46
causes sleep disorders.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
B) analyze the neural underpinnings of slow-wave answer to the previous question?
sleep activity.
A) Lines 38–40 (“And the . . . asleep”)
C) propose solutions for difficulties sleeping in new
B) Lines 58–61 (“The recruits . . . hemispheres”)
places.
C) Lines 74–78 (“This might . . . are”)
D) discuss research on a common phenomenon in
sleep. D) Lines 79–82 (“To confirm . . . environments”)

CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 565

46
 1 1
47 50
According to the passage, which statement best According to figure 1, the mean amplitude of brain
explains the hypothesis that Sasaki’s group tested in responses to deviant sounds in the right hemisphere
their experiment with headphones? on Day 1 was closest to which value?
A) Reducing left default mode network activity using A) 8
an electric current can help individuals fall asleep. B) 6
B) Slow-wave brain activity during sleep depends on C) 4
the ability to fall asleep quickly in a new place.
D) 2
C) Brain activity in the left hemisphere default mode
network is related to sleep disturbances during the
first night in a new place.
51
D) Slow-wave asymmetry in the left default mode
network only enhances neural responses to Figure 2 supports which statement about the relative
auditory stimuli. amplitudes of left hemisphere brain responses to
deviant sounds on Days 1 and 2?
A) They reached their most negative points 1,000 ms
48 after sound onset.
The main purpose of the last paragraph is to B) They began to be increasingly negative 700 ms
after sound onset.
A) emphasize that the scientists could not provide
useful applications for their sleep research. C) They returned to their previous levels 1,000 ms
after sound onset.
B) suggest that people might be able to influence the
severity of the first-night effect. D) They became more negative between 400 ms and
700 ms after sound onset.
C) urge individuals to consider sleeping only in
familiar places when they travel.
D) question the general significance of the first-night 52
effect with regard to the new findings.
Based on the passage and figures 1 and 2, how would
the plotted points in figure 1 most likely change if the
left hemisphere data was focused on responses 400ms
49
after sound onset?
As used in line 84, “new” most nearly means
A) The point for the left hemisphere on Day 1 only
A) pristine. would be more positive.
B) singular. B) The points for the right hemisphere would be
C) inventive. more negative.
D) unfamiliar. C) The points for the left hemisphere would be more
positive.
D) The points on Day 2 would be greater than zero.

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test. CONTINUE

566 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

47
 2 2
Writing and Language Test
35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied
by one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make
revising and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.

Questions 1–11 are based on the following passage. 1

A) NO CHANGE
The Dirt on Growing Plants Without Soil
B) Diouf former Director-General
With an average annual increase of approximately 83 C) Diouf former Director-General,
million people, the current global population of over 7.5 D) Diouf, former Director-General,
billion represents a severe strain on the finite resources
available on the planet. According to Jacques 1 Diouf,
2
former Director-General of the United Nations’ Food and
A) NO CHANGE
Agriculture Organization, by 2050, the world will need to
B) pressing
produce 70% more food to feed the additional 2.3 billion
C) unusually significant
people expected by that year. And yet, this increase in
D) constantly thought about
food production could come at a great cost: conventional
agriculture is one of the top contributors to water scarcity.
One solution to this 2 more or less important issue is
hydroponics, a method of growing plants without the use
of soil.
CONTINUE

568 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

48
 2 2
Hydroponic systems use up to 10 times less water 3
than conventional methods. When crops are planted A) NO CHANGE
in fields, the water 3 of the plants runs off into the B) for the plants runs
environment, whereas in hydroponic systems, the water C) from the plants running
is captured and used again. Hydroponic systems come in D) within the plants runs
several varieties, including ones in which the plant roots
are submerged in nutrient-filled water and others in which
4
a wick or pump provides water to the roots. 4
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
[1] In addition to being stingy with water, hydroponic following sentence.
systems provide other benefits. [2] These systems use space Lettuces, endives, and fresh herbs are a few
types of produce that grow well with the use of
more efficiently than do crop fields, so they can produce hydroponics.
more fruits and vegetables per square foot and can even be
Should the writer make this addition here?
built in cities. [3] Furthermore, indoor hydroponic systems A) Yes, because it provides examples that support the
can be used in almost any climate to grow plants year- previous point.
round, which enhances access to fresh, local produce for B) Yes, because it contradicts a statement made
people living in colder climates. [4] An added bonus is that earlier in the passage.

since 5 there grown without soil, these plants are more C) No, because the information is given elsewhere in
the passage.
visually appealing. [5] This reduces the environmental
D) No, because it is not relevant to the main point of
impact of transporting fruits and vegetables across the the paragraph.
country from warmer regions. 6

5
A) NO CHANGE
B) their
C) they’re
D) its

6
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5
should be placed
A) where it is now.
B) after sentence 1.
C) after sentence 2.
D) after sentence 3.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 569

49
 2 2
Although a few companies have had success 7
producing and marketing hydroponic foods, the method A) NO CHANGE
still accounts for only a small part of American produce. B) are using
Even though these systems 7 used less space, that space C) had used
is more expensive in cities as compared to the relatively D) use
cheap farmland available in rural areas. And because the
plants are grown in water with added nutrients instead 8
of soil, some in the organic food industry 8 criticize A) NO CHANGE
hydroponics for being “unnatural” and claim that B) criticize and condemn
hydroponic produce has an inferior taste as compared to C) criticize and also condemn
9 conventional farms. Hydroponic operations can also D) criticize and complain about
be more energy intensive, 10 requiring specific types of
building materials. Nonetheless, seeing as water scarcity 9
was listed by the World Economic Forum in 2015 as the A) NO CHANGE
largest global risk over the next decade, 11 hydroponics B) produce from conventional places.
farmers will likely fight to maintain the organic status of C) farms that use soil.
their produce. D) conventionally-grown produce.

10
Which choice most effectively supports the idea in the
first part of the sentence?
A) NO CHANGE
B) since indoor systems may require a great deal of
electricity for artificial lighting.
C) allowing different types of produce to grow in the
same building.
D) since urban zoning laws may not allow for their
construction.

11
The writer wants to conclude the passage by restating its
main idea. Which choice best accomplishes this goal?
A) NO CHANGE
B) scientists will adjust the nutrients added to the
water to create produce with a better taste.
C) the savings in water alone make hydroponics
worthy of strong consideration.
D) experts predict that there may even be a world war
related to the use of water.
CONTINUE

570 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

50
 2 2
Questions 12–22 are based on the following passage. 12
A) NO CHANGE
Singing for Justice
B) will perform
In early 1939, Marian Anderson, a well-known C) perform
African American singer, was invited by Howard D) performing
University to come to Washington, D.C. and 12 have
performed as part of the university’s concert series.
13
Because Anderson was so popular, the university
A) NO CHANGE
attempted to hold the performance at Constitution Hall,
B) size
the largest auditorium in the city, with a 13 volume of
C) quantity
4,000. This venue was owned by the Daughters of the
D) capacity
American Revolution (DAR), an organization of female
descendants of those involved in the Revolutionary War.
The DAR refused to allow an African American artist to 14
perform at the venue, 14 thrusting Anderson into the The writer wants to introduce one of the main ideas
spotlight in the struggle against racial prejudice. of the passage. Which choice best accomplishes this
goal?
A) NO CHANGE
B) despite the fact that the organization would have
earned money from the performance.
C) even though Anderson had just completed a very
successful European tour.
D) which is something that unfortunately had
happened to Anderson before.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 571

51
 2 2
15
15 Furthermore, First Lady and DAR member
A) NO CHANGE
Eleanor Roosevelt, who had previously invited Anderson
B) Nevertheless,
to sing at the White 16 House resigned from the
C) In addition,
organization in protest of its refusal to host Anderson.
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
Thousands of other DAR members followed suit, but the
group did not relent. Roosevelt, along with the President
16
and others, 17 are able to arrange for the concert to
A) NO CHANGE
be held on the steps of the Lincoln Memorial on Easter
B) House:
Sunday.
C) House—
18 Anderson was a modest and quiet person who D) House,
valued community and wanted to bring people together.
She believed that her pride and talent as a singer could 17
eliminate prejudice. However, the change to an outdoor A) NO CHANGE
venue, as well as the publicity generated by the controversy, B) were
meant that Anderson would be performing for a much C) was
larger crowd than she had ever sung for before. Terrified, D) have been
she even called her manager the night before, asking
19 did she really have to go through with the
18
performance.
The writer is considering deleting the underlined
sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
A) Kept, because it supports the other claims made in
the paragraph.
B) Kept, because it introduces an idea that the author
later refutes.
C) Deleted, because it contradicts the author’s claim
that Anderson was a talented singer.
D) Deleted, because it provides information that is
not relevant to the main idea of the paragraph.

19
A) NO CHANGE
B) whether she really had to go through with the
performance.
C) did she really have to go through with the
performance?
D) whether she really had to go through with the
performance?

CONTINUE

572 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

52
 2 2
On the day of the concert, the crowd numbered over 20
75,000 and reached from the Lincoln Memorial all the way A) NO CHANGE
to the Washington Monument. Despite her fears, Anderson B) songs and,
went ahead with the concert, which included a patriotic C) songs, and
song, two classical 20 songs; and several spirituals. Her D) songs, and,
performance was highly 21 acclaimed. She was praised
for her rich and beautiful voice and for her powerful stand
21
representing all those who faced racial discrimination.
Which choice most effectively combines the sentences
Not wanting to take attention away from Anderson, at the underlined portion?
Eleanor Roosevelt chose not to be publicly affiliated A) acclaimed; she was praised for her
with the concert and in fact did not attend it due to B) acclaimed, both for her
other obligations. However, the two remained friends C) acclaimed, having a
throughout their lives. Anderson’s performance made D) acclaimed, being praised by her

her an international celebrity, and she is hailed for her

role in cutting down barriers for African American 22
performers. Later, the DAR changed its rules and The writer wants to add a conclusion that reinforces
apologized, and Anderson did eventually perform at the idea that Anderson focused on her singing
Constitution Hall. 22 as a way to fight intolerance. Which choice best
accomplishes this goal?
A) She rarely spoke of her Lincoln Memorial
performance and didn’t express anger toward
the injustice she had experienced that day and
throughout her life, preferring to influence people
through the power of her singing.
B) As a result of her 1939 performance, Anderson
won the Spingarn Medal for outstanding
achievement by an African American and later
sang the National Anthem at President Kennedy’s
inauguration.
C) She paved the way for and inspired other African
American artists such as singers Leontyne Price
and Jessye Norman, the latter of whom performed
at an anniversary concert in Anderson’s honor in
2014.
D) She was a contralto, which is a type of classical
singing voice that uses the lowest female vocal
range, and while she was a talented singer even as
a child, she did not have formal lessons until age
fifteen.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 573

53
 2 2
Questions 23–33 are based on the following passage 23
and supplementary material.
A) NO CHANGE

Good Counsel for Now and Later B) Acting as a specialist who combines
C) They who are specialists who combine
23 Specialists who combine counseling training
D) A specialist who combines
with financial planning acumen, a credit counselor can
advise about issues such as student loans, mortgage
payments, small business operations, and bankruptcy. 24
Struggles with debt are common in American A) NO CHANGE
24 society—the 2018 Consumer Financial Literacy B) society: the 2018 Consumer Financial Literacy
Survey
Survey, revealed that one in four Americans admits to not
C) society, the 2018 Consumer Financial Literacy
paying all of his or her bills on time, while eight percent of
Survey,
respondents now have debts in collection. While a credit
D) society; the 2018 Consumer Financial Literacy
counselor’s primary task may be to advise a client about Survey,
resources that 25 mite help eliminate personal debt, this
feedback can still involve many aspects of the client’s life.
25
A) NO CHANGE
B) might help eliminate
C) mite help illuminate
D) might help illuminate

CONTINUE

574 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

54
 2 2
26
26 Academic research provides insights into
Which choice provides the best introduction to the
how people develop difficulties with debt. For example,
main idea of the paragraph?
some individuals struggle to make regular house or car
A) NO CHANGE
payments while also trying to repay longstanding credit
B) Struggles with debt can arise for people from all
card or student loan debts. Credit counselors work with socioeconomic backgrounds.
these individuals to assess their current situations, create C) It is particularly important for people to find a
budgets, and strategize about paying off existing debts. credit counselor who won’t take advantage of their
financial vulnerabilities.
When individuals with more than one source of financial
A) Credit counseling can be particularly effective
concern “come to credit counseling early in that process, when people face multiple complicated financial
there are more options at their disposal,” explains Peter situations at the same time.
Klipa, vice president of creditor relations at the National
Foundation for Credit Counseling. A counselor may
27
propose 27 explanations that include a debt management
A) NO CHANGE
plan, which involves paying a certain monthly amount
B) answers
toward the total sum owed.
C) solutions
Evidence suggests that when individuals go through D) insights
financial counseling, the experience can affect both
28 resolutions of current debt crises and the habit’s
28
shaping future spending and credit use. For example, a
A) NO CHANGE
2016 study that analyzed the financial health outcomes
B) resolution’s of current debt crises and the habit’s
associated with financial counseling indicates that those
C) resolutions of current debt crises and the habits
who don’t receive credit counseling end up making their
D) resolution’s of current debt crises and the habits
bad financial habits worse over time. The participants who

CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 575

55
 2 2
didn’t receive counseling had, on average, not just failed to 29
decrease their debt but had instead increased their overall Which choice provides accurate information from the
debt levels 29 by $2,808 during the same period. table to support the point made in the sentence?
30 Despite the possible stigma of seeking counseling, A) NO CHANGE
clients who received counseling had, on average, decreased B) by a ratio of 0.26
their total debt by almost $9,000 in the eighteen months C) to a total of $72,526
after receiving that counseling. While both counseled and D) by more than $8,533
non-counseled individuals experienced an increase in their
so-called open credit ratio, which measures how easily a 30
person can pay off current debt obligations using currently Which choice provides the best transition from the
available assets, the study found that people who received previous sentence?
counseling experienced a greater bump: 31 on average, A) NO CHANGE
their final open credit ratio was 0.48. B) Although such counseling is not always successful,
D) Because personal finances are so complicated,
D) As proof of the success of credit counseling
Financial Outcomes for Clients programs,
Who Did and Did Not Receive
“Sharpen Your Financial Focus” Counseling
31
Pre-
18 Months Which choice best uses information from the table to
Study Group Counseling
Later illustrate the claim made earlier in the sentence?
+ Financial (at the Change
(at the end
Situation beginning A) NO CHANGE
of the study)
of the study) B) these clients’ open credit ratio increased by 0.26.
Counseled C) there was an overall debt decrease of $8,533.
Individuals’
0.31 0.57 +0.26 D) their pre-counseling ratio was already higher than
Open Credit
Ratio that of the non-counseled group.
Non-
Counseled
Individuals’ 0.30 0.48 +0.18
Open Credit
Ratio
Counseled
Individuals’ $81,059 $72,526 –$8,533
Total Debt
Non-
Counseled
$84,130 $86,938 +$2,808
Individuals’
Total Debt

*Adapted from “Evaluation of Outcomes: The NFCC’s Sharpen Your

Financial Focus Program,” National Foundation for Credit Counseling, 2018.

CONTINUE

576 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

56
 2 2
While a credit counselor may not be able to resolve 32
an individual’s financial difficulties 32 overnight; A) NO CHANGE
nevertheless, financial counseling provides valuable B) overnight, but
insights for people struggling with monetary C) overnight,
commitments. Beyond helping individuals get out of D) overnight; instead,
33 close-up financial distress, counselors also advise
people on more sustainable budgeting and spending
33
strategies for the future. That combination results in higher
A) NO CHANGE
financial literacy and greater confidence moving forward.
B) cutting
D) immediate
D) fierce

CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 577

57
 2 2
Questions 34–44 are based on the following passage 34
and supplementary material.
A) NO CHANGE

Protecting the People B) instituted

C) begun the institution
In 1976, Congress passed the Toxic Substances
D) instituted by enacting
Control Act (TSCA), which gave the Environmental
Protection Agency (EPA) authority to regulate the
manufacture and sale of chemicals for the purpose of 35
preventing “unreasonable risk to human health or the A) NO CHANGE
environment.” The act has 34 instituted and begun B) however,
regulation of six dangerous chemicals since its inception, C) for example,
but this number is tiny in comparison to the more than D) DELETE the underlined portion.
82,000 chemicals currently on the EPA chemical registry.
Testing chemicals for toxicity is an expensive process, the 36
burden of which is currently placed on the EPA rather A) NO CHANGE
than on the chemical manufacturers, and the EPA has B) have been
extremely limited resources for testing. If the TSCA is to C) being
truly protect US citizens from toxic chemicals, 35 and D) is
remove dangerous substances from the environment, the
EPA must be provided with additional resources to ensure
37
that chemicals are adequately tested for potential risk.
Which choice best introduces the topic of this
A company that manufactures new chemicals sentence?
36 are required only to register the chemicals with the A) NO CHANGE
EPA. Registration includes basic information about a new B) The EPA can only regulate a new chemical if it can
chemical, but toxicity data is only required if it is already prove that the chemical poses “unreasonable risk,”
but
known; companies are not required to make such studies.
C) Because there is controversy over which tests can
37 Critics of the TSCA say that companies should best determine whether a chemical is safe,
be required to test new chemicals before they can be D) It’s hard to know whether the lack of regulation
approved; in order to do so, it has only 90 days to perform is more the fault of the TSCA, or the EPA itself
needs reform, and
extensive testing. As a result, the EPA has very little
practical power to regulate any chemicals.

CONTINUE

578 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

58
 2 2
Many states in the US, frustrated by the federal 38
government’s lack of action on toxic chemicals, have A) NO CHANGE
38 passed stricter legislation that specifically targets B) passed on
chemicals in products designed for vulnerable populations, C) had a passing of
such as children and pregnant women. For example, the D) passed by
EPA regulates lead-based paints but does not place any
restrictions on the use of lead 39 in other products.
39
Such products might include toys or children’s jewelry.
Which choice most effectively combines the sentences
Seventeen 40 states’ have passed additional restriction’s at the underlined portion?
on lead to further reduce children’s exposure. In what A) in other products, such as
could be seen as evidence that there should be a federal B) in other products:
policy regarding toxic chemicals, 41 over half of the fifty C) in
states have existing or pending legislation regulating the D) in products such as
use of mercury.

Chemicals regulated by US states beyond TSCA guidelines 40

A) NO CHANGE
US states US states US states
with with without B) states have passed additional restrictions’
regulatory pending regulatory C) states have passed additional restrictions
policies policies policies D) states’ have passed additional restrictions
Mercury 24 6 20
Lead 14 3 33
Fire Retardants 12 4 34 41
Bisphenol-A (BPA) 11 5 34 Which information from the table provides the
Cadmium 7 3 40 strongest evidence in support of the paragraph’s main
point?
Phthalates 3 4 43
A) NO CHANGE
Formaldehyde 1 3 46
Triclosan 1 2 47 B) ten states have existing or pending legislation
regulating cadmium.
C) forty-six states have not yet taken any action to
regulate formaldehyde.
D) at least eight chemicals are more strictly regulated
by states than at the federal level.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 2 | 579

59
 2 2
The TSCA could be strengthened by 42 additional 42
funding. The California Environmental Protection Agency Which choice best introduces the discussion in the
(CalEPA), a state agency established in 43 1991 has rest of the paragraph?
created a Green Chemistry Initiative that combines the A) NO CHANGE

efforts of lawmakers, the people of California, and the B) employing a cooperative model.

chemistry industry to create a market in which all products C) a reorganization of the EPA.

are evaluated for their impact on human health and the D) more rigorous chemical testing.

environment. The US government could 44 become

a trendsetter in environmental regulation by creating a 43
similar, preemptive national initiative, rather than waiting A) NO CHANGE
for a substance to be proven toxic before restricting its use. B) 1991,
C) 1991;
D) 1991—

44
Which choice best introduces the argument made in
the final sentence of the paragraph?
A) NO CHANGE
B) appease state regulatory agencies
C) better protect its citizens and environment from
toxic chemicals
D) save valuable taxpayer funds

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

580 | For more free content, visit PrincetonReview.com

60