SHUKOOR MATRIC HR SEC.

SCHOOL - AMBUR

9TH SCIENCE
UNIT 1
MEASUREMENT

I. Choose the correct answer. 5. One Celsius degree is an interval

1. Choose the correct one. of 1K and zero degree Celsius is
a. mm< cm < m < km 273.15 K.
b. mm > cm > m > km 6. With the help of vernier caliper we can have
c. km < m < cm < mm an accuracy of 0.1 mm and with screw gauge
we can have an accuracy of 0.01 mm.
d. mm > m> cm> km
IV. Match the following.
2. Rulers, measuring tapes
and metre scales are used to measure 1. Length kelvin
Mass metre
a. mass b. weight
Time kilogram
c. time d. length Temperature second
3. 1 metric ton is equal to 2. Screw gauge Vegetables
a. 100 quintals b. 10 quintals Vernier caliper Coins
c. 1/10 quintals d. 1/100 quintals Beam balance Gold ornaments
4. Which among the following is not a device Digital balance Cricket ball
to measure mass?
V. Assertion and reason type.
a. Spring balance b. Beam balance
c. Physical balance d. Digital balance Mark the correct answer as:
a. Both A and R are true but R is not the
II. Fill in the blanks. correct reason.
b. Both A and R are true and R is the
1. Metre is the unit of ________ correct reason.
2. 1 kg of rice is weighed by ______ c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
3. Thickness of a cricket ball is measured by
_________ 1. Assertion(A): The scientifically correct
expression is “ The mass of the bag is 10 kg”
4. Radius of a thin wire is measured by
Reason (R): In everyday life, we use the term
___________
weight instead of mass.
5. A physical balance measures small
2. Assertion (A): 0 °C = 273.16 K. For our
differences in mass up to ______
convenience we take it as 273 K after
III. State
  whether true or false. If false, rounding off the decimal.
correct the statement. Reason (R): To convert a temperature on the
Celsius scale we have to add 273 to the given
1. The SI unit of electric current is kilogram. temperature.
2. Kilometre is one of the SI units of 3. Assertion (A): Distance between two
measurement. celestial bodies is measured in terms of light
3. In everyday life, we use the term weight year.
instead of mass. Reason (R): The distance travelled by the
4. A physical balance is more sensitive than a light in one year is one light year.
beam balance.

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UNIT 2
I. Choose the correct answer.
III. State whether true or false. If false,
1. The area under velocity – time graph correct the statement.
represents the 1. The motion of a city bus in a heavy traffic
road is an example for uniform motion.
a) velocity of the moving object.
b) displacement covered by the moving 2. Acceleration can get negative value also.
object. 3. Distance covered by a particle never
c) speed of the moving object. becomes zero but displacement becomes
d) acceleration of the moving object. zero.
2. Which one of the following is most 4. The velocity – time graph of a particle
likely not a case of uniform circular falling freely under gravity would be a
straight line parallel to the x axis.
motion?
5. If the velocity – time graph of a particle
a) Motion of the Earth around the Sun.
is a straight line inclined to X-axis then
b) Motion of a toy train on a circular
its displacement – time graph will be a
track.
straight line.
c) Motion of a racing car on a circular
track. IV. Assertion and Reason Type Questions.
d) Motion of hours’ hand on the dial of Mark the correct choice as:
the clock.
a. If both assertion and reason are true
3. Which of the following graph represents and reason is the correct explanation of
uniform motion of a moving particle? assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but
a) b) reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c. If assertion is true but reason is false.
d. If assertion is false but reason is true.
c) d) 1. Assertion: The accelerated motion
of an object may be due to change in
magnitude of velocity or direction or
both of them.

4. The centrifugal force is Reason: Acceleration can be produced

only by change in magnitude of
a) a real force. the velocity. It does not depend the
b) the force of reaction of centripetal direction.
force.
c) a virtual force. 2. Assertion: The Speedometer of a car or a
d) directed towards the centre of the motor-cycle measures its average speed.
circular path.
Reason: Average velocity is equal to total
II. Fill in the blanks. displacement divided by total time taken.
1. Speed is a __________ quantity whereas 3. Assertion: Displacement of a body may be
velocity is a _________ quantity. zero when distance travelled by it is not zero.
2. The slope of the distance – time graph Reason: The displacement is the shortest
at any point gives __________ distance between initial and final position.
3. Negative acceleration is called ________
4. Area under velocity – time graph shows
____________

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V. Match the Following.

List I List II
1. Motion of a body
covering equal
distances in equal
interval of time
A
2. Motion with
non uniform
acceleration

B
3. Constant
retardation

C
4. Uniform
acceleration

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UNIT 3
I. Choose the correct answer. III. State
  whether true or false. If false,
1. The size of an air bubble rising up in water ­correct the statement.
(a) decreases 1. The weight of fluid displaced determines the
(b) increases buoyant force on an object.
(c) remains same 2. The shape of an object helps to determine
(d) may increase or decrease whether the object will float or not.
2. Clouds float in atmosphere because of their low 3. The foundations of high-rise buildings
(a) density (b) pressure are kept wide so that they may exert more
(c ) velocity (d) mass ­pressure on the ground.
4. Archimedes’ principle can also be applied to
3. In a pressure cooker, the food is cooked
gases.
faster because
5. Hydraulic press is used in the extraction of
(a) increased pressure lowers the boiling point.
oil from oil seeds.
(b) increased pressure raises the boiling point.
(c) decreased pressure raises the boiling point. IV. Match the following.
(d) increased pressure lowers the melting point. Density - hρg
4. An empty plastic bottle closed with an airtight 1 gwt - Milk
stopper is pushed down into a bucket filled Mass
Pascal’s law -
with water. As the bottle is pushed down, Volume
there is an increasing force on the bottom. Pressure exerted by a fluid - Pressure
This is because,
Lactometer - 980 dyne
(a) more volume of liquid is dispaced.
(b) more weight of liquid is displaced.
VII. Assertion and Reason.
(c) pressure increases with depth.
Mark the correct answer as:
(d) All the above.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
II. Fill in the blanks. and reason is the correct explanation of
1. The weight of the body immersed in a assertion.
liquid appears to be than its actual (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
weight. reason is not the correct explanation of
2. The instrument used to measure ­atmospheric assertion.
pressure is . (c ) If assertion is true but reason is false.
3. The magnitude of buoyant force acting on (d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
an object immersed in a liquid depends on 1. Assertion: To float, body must displace
of the liquid. liquid whose weight is equal to the actual
4. A drinking straw works on the existence of weight.
. Reason: The body will experience no net
downward force in that case.

2. Assertion: Pascal’s law is the working

principle of a hydraulic lift.
Reason: Pressure is thrust per unit area.

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UNIT 4

I.  Choose the correct answer.

1. In current electricity, a positive charge II. Match the following.
refers to,
1. Electric charge (a) ohm
a) presence of electron
b) presence of proton 2. Potential difference (b) ampere
c) absence of electron 3. Electric field (c) coulomb
d) absence of proton
4. Resistance (d) newton per
2. Rubbing of comb with hair coulomb
a) creates electric charge
5. Electric current (e) volt
b) transfers electric charge
c) either (a) or (b)
III. State whether true or false. If false,
d) neither (a) nor (b) correct the statement.
3. Electric field lines from positive 1. Electrically neutral means it is either zero
charge and in negative charge. or equal positive and negative charges.
a) start; start b) start; end 2. Ammeter is connected in parallel in any
electric circuit.
c) start: end d) end; end
3. The anode in electrolyte is negative.
4. Potential near a charge is the measure of
4. Current can produce magnetic field.
its to bring a positive charge at
that point.
IV. Fill in the blanks.
a) force b) abiility
1. Electrons move from potential to
c) tendency d) work potential.
5. Heating effect of current is called, 2. The direction opposite to the movement
a) Joule heating b) Coulomb heating of electron is called current.
c) Voltage heating d) Ampere heating 3. The e.m.f of a cell is analogues to
of a pipe line.
6. In an electrolyte the current is due to the
4. The domestic electricity in India is an ac
flow of
with a frequency of Hz.
a) electrons
b) positive ions
c) both (a) and (b)
d) neither (a) nor (b)

7. Electroplating is an example for

a) heating effect b) chemical effect
c) flowing effect d) magnetic effect

8. Resistance of a wire depends on,

a) temperature b) geometry
c) nature of material d) all the above

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UNIT 5
I. Choose the correct answer. IV. State whether true or false. If false,
1. Which of the following converts electrical correct the statement.
energy into mechanical energy? 1. A generator converts mechanical energy
a) Motor b) Battery into electrical energy.
c) Generator d) Switch 2. Magnetic field lines always repel each
2. Transformer works on other and do not intersect.
3. Fleming’s Left hand rule is also known as
a) AC only b) DC only
Dynamo rule.
c) Both AC and DC
4. The speed of rotation of an electric motor
3. The part of the AC generator that passes can be increased by decreasing the area of
the current from the armature coil to the the coil.
external circuit is 5. A transformer can step up direct current.
6. In a step down transformer the number of
a) field magnet b) split rings
turns in primary coil is greater than that of
c) slip rings d) brushes
the number of turns in the secondary coil.
4. The unit of magnetic flux density is
a) Weber
b) weber/metre
c) weber/meter2
d) weber . meter2

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The SI Unit of magnetic field induction is
.
2. Devices which is used to convert high
alternating current to low alternating
current is .
3. An electric motor converts .
4. A device for producing electric current is
.

III. Match the following.

1. Magnetic material (a) Oersted

2. Non-magnetic material (b) Iron
3. Current and magnetism (c) Induction
4. Electromagnetic (d) Wood
induction
5. Electric generator (e) Faraday

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UNIT 6

2. The mirror used in search light is _____.

I. Choose the correct answer. 3. The angle of deviation of light ray in a
1. A ray of light passes from one medium prism depends on the angle of _______.
to another medium. Refraction takes 4. The radius of curvature of a concave
place when angle of incidence is mirror whose focal length is 5cm is
a) 0° b) 45° c) 90° _______.
5. Large _________ mirrors are used to
2. _____ is used as reflectors in torchlight.
concentrate sunlight to produce heat in
a) Concave mirror b) Plane mirror
solar furnaces.
c) Convex mirror
IV. Match the following.
3. We can create enlarged, virtual images
with Ratio of height of image Concave mirror
a) concave mirror b) plane mirror
to height of object.
c) convex mirror
4. When the reflecting surface is curved Used in hairpin bends Total internal
outwards the mirror formed will be in mountains. reflection
a) concave mirror b) convex mirror Coin inside water Magnification
c) plane mirror appearing slightly raised.
5. When a beam of white light passes
Mirage Convex mirror
through a prism it gets
a) reflected b) only deviated Used as Dentist’s mirror. Refraction
c) deviated and dispersed
6. The speed of light is maximum in V. Assertion & Reason.
a) vacuum  b)  glass  c)  diamond Mark the correct choice as:

II.  
State whether true or false. If false, a) If both assertion and reason are true and
­correct the statement. reason is the correct explanation.
1. The angle of deviation depends on the b) If both assertion and reason are true and
refractive index of the glass. reason is not the correct explanation.
2. If a ray of light passes obliquely from c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
one medium to another, it does not
d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
suffer any deviation.
3. The convex mirror always produces a
virtual, diminished and erect image of 1. Assertion: For observing the traffic at a
the object. hairpin bend in mountain paths a plane
4. When an object is at the centre of mirror is preferred over convex mirror
curvature of concave mirror the image and concave mirror.
formed will be virtual and erect. Reason: A convex mirror has a much
larger field of view than a plane mirror
5. The reason for brilliance of diamonds is
or a concave mirror.
total internal reflection of light.
2. Assertion: Incident ray is directed
III. Fill
  in the blanks. towards the centre of curvature of
1. In going from a rarer to denser medium, spherical mirror. After reflection it
the ray of light bends _____________. retraces its path.
Reason: Angle of incidence (i) = Angle of
reflection (r) = 0o.

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UNIT 7
I. Choose the correct answer. III. Assertion and Reason type questions.
1. Calorie is the unit of Mark the correct choice as:
a. If both assertion and reason are true
a) heat b) work
and reason is the correct explanation of
c) temperature d) food assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but
2. SI unit of temperature is reason is not the correct explanation of
a) fahrenheit b) joule assertion.
c) celsius d) kelvin c. If assertion is true but reason is false.
d. If assertion is false but reason is true.
3. Two cylindrical rods of same length have 1. Assertion: Food can be cooked faster in
the area of cross section in the ratio 2:1. If vessels with copper bottom.
both the rods are made up of same material,
Reason: Copper is the best conductor of
which of them conduct heat faster?
heat.
a) Both rods b) Rod-2
c) Rod-1 d) None of them 2. Assertion: Maximum sunlight reaches
earth’s surface during the noon time.
4. In which mode of transfer of heat, molecules
pass on heat energy to neighbouring Reason: Heat from the sun reaches earth’s
molecules without actually moving from surface by radiation.
their positions? 3. Assertion: When water is heated up to
a) Radiation b) Conduction 100oC, there is no raise in temperature until
c) Convection d) Both B and C all water gets converted into water vapour.
5. A device in which the loss of heat due to Reason: Boiling point of water is 10°C.
conduction, convection and radiation is
minimized is
a) solar cell b) solar cooker
c) thermometer d) thermos flask
II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The fastest mode of heat transfer is .

2. During day time, air blows from
to .
3. Liquids and gases are generally
conductors of heat.
4. The fixed temperature at which matter
changes state from solid to liquid is called

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UNIT 8
I. Choose the correct answer.

1. W
hich of the following vibrates when a 4. Vibration of object produces _________ .
musical note is produced by the cymbals in a 5. Loudness is proportional to the square of the
orchestra? ____________ .
a) stretched strings 6. ____________ is a medical instrument used
b) stretched membranes for listening to sounds produced in the body.
c) air columns 7. The repeated reflection that results in
d) metal plates persistence of sound is called ____________ .
2. Sound travels in air: III. Match the following.
a) if
 there is no moisture in the atmosphere.
Tuning fork The point where density of air is
b) if
 particles of medium travel from one
maximum.
place to another.
Sound Maximum displacement from
c) if
 both particles as well as disturbance the equilibrium position.
move from one place to another. Compressions The sound whose frequency is
d) if disturbance moves. greater than 20,000 Hz.
3. A musical instrument is producing Amplitude Longitudinal wave.
continuous note. This note cannot be heard Ultasonics Production of sound.
by a person having a normal hearing range.
This note must then be passing through

a) wax b) vacuum
c) water d) empty vessel
4. The maximum speed of vibrations which
produces audible sound will be in
a) sea water b) ground glass
b) dry air d) human blood
5. The sound waves travel faster
a) in liquids b) in gases
c) in solids d) in vacuum

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Sound is a ____________ wave and needs a
material medium to travel.
2. Number of vibrations produced in one second
is ____________ .
3. The velocity of sound in solid is ____________
than the velocity of sound in air.

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UNIT 9

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Who proposed the heliocentric model of
the universe?
(a) Tycho Brahe (b) Nicolaus Copernicus
(c) Ptolemy (d) Archimedes
2. Which of the following is not a part of
outer solar system?
(a) Mercury (b) Saturn
(c) Uranus (d) Neptune
3. Ceres is a _______.
(a) Meteor (b) Star
(c) Planet (d) Astroid
4. 
The period of revolution of planet A
around the Sun is 8 times that of planet B.
How many times is the distance of planet A
as great as that of planet B?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 3
5. The Big Bang occurred _____ years ago.
(a) 13.7 billion (b) 15 million
(c) 15 billion (d) 20 million

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The speed of Sun in km/s is _______.
2. The rotational period of the Sun near its
poles is ________.
3. India’s first satellite is _______.
4. The third law of Kepler is also known as
the Law of ________.
5. The number of planets in our Solar System
is _______.

III. State
  whether true or false. If false,
­correct the statement.
1. ISS is a proof for international cooperation.
2. Halley’s comet appears after nearly 67 hours.
3. Satellites nearer to the Earth should have
lesser orbital velocity.
4. Mars is called the red planet.

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UNIT 10

™™ I. Choose the correct answer. III. Match the following.

1. The separation of denser particles from lighter
particles done by rotation at high speed is Element Settles down on standing
called _____________ Compound Impure substance
a) Filtration b) sedimentation
Colloid Made up of molecules
c) decantation d) centrifugation
2. Among the following ___________ is a Suspension Pure substance
mixture
Mixture Made up of atoms
a) Common Salt b)  Juice
c) Carbon dioxide d)  Pure Silver IV. Fill in the blanks.
3. When we mix a drop of ink in water we get 1. A ________________ mixture has no
a ________________ distinguishable boundary between its
a) Heterogeneous Mixture  b)  Compound components.
c) Homogeneous Mixture   d)  Suspension 2. An example of a substance that sublimes
4. ________________ is essential to perform is ________________
separation by solvent extraction 3. Alcohol can be separated from water by
method. _________________
a) Separating funnel b) filter paper 4. In petroleum refining, the method of
b) centrifuge machine    d)  sieve separation used is ______________
5. __________ has the same properties 5. Chromatography is based on the principle
throughout the sample of ______________
a) Pure substance  b)  Mixture
c) Colloid d) Suspension

II. State
  whether true or false. If false,
­correct the statement.
1. Oil and water are immiscible in each
other.
2. A compound cannot be broken into
simpler substances chemically.
3. Liquid – liquid colloids are called gels
4. Buttermilk is an example of heterogeneous
mixture.
5. Aspirin is composed of 60% Carbon, 4.5%
Hydrogen and 35.5% Oxygen by mass.
Aspirin is a mixture.

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UNIT 11

III. Fill in the Blanks.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
1. Calcium and Argon are examples of a pair
I. Choose the correct answer. of _________________
1. Among the following the odd pair is 2. Total number of electrons that can be
a) b) accommodated in an orbit is given by
,
______________
c) d)
3. _____________ isotope is used in the
2. Change in the number of neutrons in an nuclear reactors.
atom changes it to
4. The number of neutrons present in is
a) an ion. b) an isotope.
___________
c) an isobar. d) another element.
5. The valency of Argon is ___________
3. The term nucleons refer to
a) protons and electrons
IV. Match the following.
b) only neutrons
c) electrons and neutrons a) Dalton 1. Hydrogen atom model
d) protons and neutrons
b) Chadwick 2. Discovery of nucleus
c) Rutherford 3. First atomic theory
4. The number of protons,
neutrons and electrons d) Neils Bohr 4. Plum pudding model
present respectively in 5. Discovery of neutrons
are
a) 80, 80, 35
b) 35, 55,80
c) 35, 35, 80
d) 35, 45, 35

5. The correct electronic configuration of

potassium is
a) 2,8,9 b) 2,8,1
c) 2,8,8,1 d) 2,8,8,3

II. State whether true or false. If false,

correct the statement.
1. In an atom, electrons revolve around the
nucleus in fixed orbits.
2. Isotopes of an element have different atomic
numbers.
3. Electrons have negligible mass and charge.
4. Smaller the size of the orbit, lower is the
energy of the orbit.
5. The maximum number of electron in L Shell
is 10.

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UNIT 12

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. If
 Dobereiner is related with ‘law of triads’, 2. Metals can gain electrons.
then Newlands is related with
3. 
Alloys bear the characteristics of both
a) Modern periodic law b) Hund’s rule
metals and nonmetals.
c) Law of octaves
d) Pauli’s Exclusion principle 4. Lanthanides
 and actinides are kept at
2. M
 odern periodic law states that the physical the bottom of the periodic table because
and chemical properties of elements are the they resemble each other but they do not
periodic functions of their resemble with any other group elements.
a) atomic numbers b) atomic masses 5. Group 17 elements are named as Halogens.
c) similarities d) anomalies
V. Assertion
  and Reason.
3. Elements
 in the modern periodic table are
arranged in groups and periods. Statement: Elements in a group generally
a) 7, 18 b) 18, 7 c) 17, 8 d) 8, 17 possess similar properties but elements along a
period have different properties.
II. Fill in the blanks. Reason: The difference in electronic
1. In
 Dobereiner’s triads, the atomic weight of configuration makes the element differ in their
the middle element is the of the chemical properties along a period.
atomic masses of 1st and 3rd elements. a) Statement is true and reason explains the
statement.
2. Noble
 gases belong to group of
b) Statement is false but the reason is correct.
the periodic table.
3. The
 basis of the classifications proposed by
Dobereiner, Newlands and Mendeleev was
.
4. Example for liquid metal is .

III. Match the following.

Triads Newlands
Alkali metal Calcium
Law of octaves Henry Moseley
Alkaline earth metal Sodium
Modern Periodic Law Dobereiner

IV. State
  whether true or false. If false,
­correct the statement.
1. Newlands’
 periodic table is based on atomic
masses of elements and modern periodic
table is based on atomic number of elements.

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UNIT 13

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Number of valence electrons in carbon is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5

2. Sodium having atomic number 11, is

ready to ___________________ electron/
electrons to attain the nearest noble gas
electronic configuration.
a) gain one b) gain two
c) lose one d) lose two

3. The element that would form anion by

gaining electrons in a chemical reaction
is _______________
a) potassium b) calcium
c) fluorine d) iron

4. Bond formed between a metal and non

metal atom is usually __________
a) ionic bond b) covalent bond
c) coordinate bond

5. ______________ compounds have high

melting and boiling points.
a) Covalent  b) Coordinate  c) Ionic
6. Covalent bond is formed by __________
a) transfer of electrons
b) sharing of electrons
c) sharing a pair of electrons
7. Oxidising agents are also called as
___________ because they remove
electrons form other substances.
a) electron donors  b) electron acceptors
8. Elements with stable electronic
configurations have eight electrons in
their valence shell. They are ___
a) halogens b) metals
c) noble gases d) non metals

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UNIT 14

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl2 + …↑(H2, O2, CO2)
2. Apple contains malic acid. Orange contains
(citric acid, ascorbic acid).
3. Acids in plants and animals are organic
acids. Whereas Acids in rocks and minerals
are (Inorganic acids, Weak acids).
4. Acids turn blue litmus paper to
(green, red, orange).
5. Since metal carbonate and metal bicarbonate
are basic, they react with acids to give salt
and water with the liberation of
(NO2, SO2, CO2).

6. The hydrated salt of copper sulphate has

colour (red, white, blue).

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UNIT 15

I. Choose the correct answer.

1  A phenomenon in which an element III. Match the following.
exists in different modification in same Alkyne - Bucky Ball
physical state is called Andre Geim - Oxidation
(a) isomerism (b) allotropy C60 - Graphene
(c) catenation (d) crystallinity Thermocol - Triple bond
2 Carbon forms large number of organic Combution - Polystyrene
compounds due to
(a) Allotropy (b) Isomerism
(c) Tetravalency (d) Catenation
3 
Nandhini brings his lunch every day to
school in a plastic container which has resin
code number 5. The container is made of
(a) Polystyrene (b) PVC
(c) Polypropylene (d) LDPE
4 Plastics made of Polycarbonate (PC) and
Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene (ABS) are
made of resin code _______
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
5 Graphene is one atom thick layer of carbon
obtained from
(a) diamond (b) fullerene
(c) graphite (d) gas carbon
6 
The legal measures to prevent plastic
pollution come under the _____________
Protection Act 1988.
(a) Forest (b) Wildlife
(c) Environment (d) Human rights
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. _____________ named carbon.
2. 
Buckminster Fullerene contains ______
carbon atoms.
3. Compounds with same molecular formula
and different structural formula are known
as ___________.
4. _______________ is a suitable solven for
Sulphur.
5. There are ________ plastic resin codes.

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I. Choose the correct answer.
UNIT 16
1. One Nanometre is
III. Match the following.
(a) 10-7 metre (b) 10-8 metre
(c) 10-6 metre (d) 10-9 metre Antipyretics - Large surface area
2. The antibiotic Penicillin is obtained from Corrosion prevention - Iodine-131
______________ Hyperthyroidism - Fever
(a) plant (b) microorganism
Nanoparticle - Body building
(c) animal (d) sunlight
Proteins - Electroplating
3. 1% solution of Iodoform is used as
(a) antipyretic (b) antimalarial
(c) antiseptic (d) antacid
4. The cathode of an electrochemical
reaction involves ___________
(a) oxidation (b) reduction
(c) neutralisation (d) catenation
5. The age of a dead animal can be determined
by using an isotope of ______________
(a) carbon (b) iodine
(c) phosphorous (d) oxygen
6. Which of the following does not contain
natural dyes?
(a) Potato (b) Beetroot
(c) Carrot (d) Turmeric
7. This type of food protect us from
deficiency diseases.
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Vitamins
(c) Proteins (d) Fats
8. Radiochemistry deals with
(a) oxidants (b) batteries
(c) isotopes (d) nanoparticles
9. The groups responsible for the colour of
an organic compound is called
(a) isotopes (b) auxochrome
(c) chromogen (d) chromophore
10. Chlorinated hydrocarbons are used as
(a) fertilizers (b) pesticides
(c) food colourants (d) preservatives

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. _____________ is an electrochemical
cell which converts electrical energy into
chemical change(Reaction).
2. Painkiller drugs are called __________
3. Indigo is a _______________ dye.
4. ________, ________ and _________ are
macronutrients required for plant growth.
5. ______________ is a chemical used in
finger print analysis.
17
 MS CENTRE 9791366374
UNIT 17
I. Choose
  the correct answer. 10. Water vascular system is found in
1. Find the group having only marine (a) Hydra (b) Earthworm
members. (c) Star fish (d) Ascaris
(a) Mollusca (b) Coelenterata
II. Fill in the blanks.
(c) Echinodermata (d) Porifera
2. Mesoglea is present in 1. The skeletal framework of Porifera is
______________.
(a) Porifera (b) Coelenterata
2. Ctenidia are respiratory organs in
(c) Annelida (d) Arthropoda
______________.
3. Which one of the following pairs is not
3. Skates are ______________ fishes.
a poikilothermic animal?
(a) Fishes and Amphibians 4. The larvae of an amphibian is
______________.
(b) Amphibians and Aves
5. _________ are jawless vertebrates.
(c) Aves and Mammals
6. __________ is the unique characteristic
(d) Reptiles and Mammals
feature of mammal.
4. Identify the animal having four 7. Spiny anteater is an example for
chambered heart. ______________ mammal.
(a) Lizard (b) Snake
(c) Crocodile (d) Calotes III. State
  whether true or false. If false,
­correct the statement.
5. The animal without skull is
1. Canal system is seen in coelenterates.
(a) Acrania (b) Acephalia
2. Hermaphrodite animals have both male
(c) Apteria (d) Acoelomate and female sex organs.
6. Hermaphrodite organisms are 3. Trachea are the respiratory organ of
Annelida.
(a) Hydra, Tape worm, Earthworm,
Amphioxus 4. Bipinnaria is the larva of Mollusca.
(b) Hydra, Tape worm, Earthworm, 5. Balanoglossus is a ciliary feeder.
Ascidian 6. Fishes have two chambered heart.
(c) Hydra, Tape worm, Earthworm, 7. Skin of reptilians are smooth and moist.
Balanoglossus
(d) Hydra, Tape worm, Ascaris, 8. Wings of birds are the modified
Earthworm forelimbs.
9. Female mammals have mammary
7. Poikilothermic organisms are glands.
(a) Fish, Frog, Lizard, Man
IV. Match the following.
(b) Fish, Frog, Lizard, Cow
(c) Fish, Frog, Lizard, Snake PHYLUM EXAMPLES
(d) Fish, Frog, Lizard, Crow (A) Coelenterata (i) Snail
8. Air sacs and Pneumatic bones are seen (B) Platyhelminthes (ii) Starfish
in
(C) Echinodermata (iii) Tapeworm
(a) fish (b) frog
(c) bird (d) bat (D) Mollusca (iv) Hydra

9. Excretory organ of tape worm is

(a) flame cells (b) nephridia
(c) body surface (d) solenocytes
18
 MS CENTRE 9791366374
UNIT 18
1. The tissue composed of living thin walled
polyhedral cell is IV. State whether true or false. If false,
correct the statement.
a. parenchyma b. pollenchyma
c. pclerenchyma d. None of above 1. Epithelial tissue is protective tissue in
animal body.
2. The fibres consists of
2. Bone and cartilage are two types of areolar
a. parenchyma b. sclerenchyma
connective tissues.
c. collenchyma d. None of above 3. Parenchyma is a simple tissue.
3. Companion cells are closely associated with 4. Phloem is made up of tracheids.
a. sieve elements b. vessel elements 5. Vessels are found in collenchyma.
c. trichomes d. guard cells.
4. Which of the following is a complex tissue?
a. Parenchyma b. Collenchyma
c. Xylem d. Sclerenchyma
5. Aerenchyma is found in
a. epiphytes b. hydrophytes
c. halophytes d. xerophytes
6. Smooth muscles occur in
a. uterus b artery
c. vein d. All of the above.

7. Nerve cell does not contains

a. axon b. nerve endings
c. tendons d. dendrites
II. Match the following.
Sclereids Chlorenchyma
Chloroplast Sclerenchyma
Simple tissue Collenchyma
Companion cell Xylem
Trachieds Phloem

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. tissues provide mechanical
support to organs.
2. Parenchyma, collenchyma, Sclerenchyma
are type of tissue.
3. and are complex tissues.
4. Epithelial cells with cilia are found in
of our body.
5. Lining of small intestine is made up of
.

19
 MS CENTRE 9791366374
UNIT 19 c) transpiration  d)  nastic movement

I. Choose the correct answer. 9. Transpiration takes place through

_____________.
1. The tropic movement that helps the
a) fruit  b) seed  c) flower  d) stomata
climbing vines to find a suitable support is
__________. II. Fill in the blanks.
a. phototropism  b.  geotropism 1. The shoot system grows upward in
c. thigmotropism  d.  chemotropism response to ___________
2. __________ is p osit ively
2. The chemical reaction occurs during hydrotropic as well as positively
photosynthesis is _____________. geotropic.
a. CO2 is reduced and water is oxidized 3. The green pigment present in the plant is
b. water is reduced and CO2is oxidized __________
c. both CO2 and water are oxidized 4. The solar tracking of sunflower in
d. b
 oth CO2 and water are produced accordance with the path of sun is due to
___________.
3. The bending of root of a plant in response to 5. The response of a plant part towards
water is called __________. gravity is __________.
a. Thigmonasty  b.  Phototropism 6. Plants take in carbondioxide for
photosynthesis but need __________ for
c. Hydrotropism   d.  Photonasty
their living.
4. A growing seedling is kept in the dark III. Match column A with column B.
room. A burning candle is placed near it
for a few days. The tip part of the seedling Column A Column B
bends towards the burning candle. This is
an example of ____________. Roots growing Positive
downwards into soil. phototropism
a) Chemotropism  b)  Geotropism
Shoots growing Negative
c) Phototropism  d)  Thigmotropism towards the light. geotropism
5. The root of the plant is __________. Shoots growing Negative
i) positively
  phototropic but negatively upward. phototropism
geotropic Roots growing Positive
ii)  
positively geotropic but negatively downwards away geotropism
phototropic from light.
iii)  
negatively phototropic but positively IV. State whether true or false. If false,
hydrotropic correct the statement.
iv)  negatively hydrotropic but positively 1. The response of a part of plant to the
phototropic chemical stimulus is called phototropism.
a) (i) and (ii) b) (ii) and (iii) 2. Shoot is positively phototropic and
c) (iii) and (iv) d) (i) and (iv)
     negatively geotropic.
3. When the weather is hot, water evaporates
6. The non-directional movement of a plant
lesser which is due to opening of stomata.
part in response to temperature is called
________. 4. Photosynthesis produces glucose and
carbon dioxide.
a) Thermotropism  b) Thermonasty
5. Photosynthesis is important in releasing
c) Chemotropism  d)  Thigmonasty oxygen to keep the atmosphere in balance.
7. Chlorophyll in a leaf is required for
6. Plants lose water when the stomata on
__________.
leaves are closed.
a) photosynthesis  b)  tropic movement
20
 MS CENTRE 9791366374

UNIT 20

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Which of the following is not a salivary gland?
a. Sublingual b. Lachrymal 2. The muscular and sensory organ which
c. Submaxillary d.  Parotid helps in mixing the food with saliva is
2. Stomach of human beings mainly digests ________.
__________ 3. Bile, secreted by liver is stored temporarily
a. carbohydrates b. proteins in __________.
c. fat d. sucrose 4. The longest part of alimentary canal is
____________
3. To prevent the entry of food into the trachea,
5. The human body functions normally at a
the opening is guarded by ____________
temperature of about ________.
a. epiglottis b. glottis
6. The largest cell in the human body of a
c. hard palate d. soft palate female is _________.
4. Bile helps in the digestion of _____________
III. State whether true or false. If false,
a. proteins b. sugar
­correct the statement.
c. fats d. carbohydrates
1. Nitric acid in the stomach kills
5. The structural and functional unit of the microorganisms in the food.
kidney is _____________
2. During digestion, proteins are broken
a. villi b. liver down into amino acids.
c. nephron d. ureter 3. Glomerular filtrate consists of many
6. Which one of the following substance is not substances like amino acids, vitamins,
a constituent of sweat? hormones, salts, glucose and other essential
substances.
a. Urea b. Protein
c. Water d. Salt IV. Match the following.

7. The common passage meant for transporting Organ Elimination

urine and sperms in male is ______ Skin a. Urine
a. ureter b. urethra Lungs b. Sweat
c. vas deferens d. scrotum Intestine c. Carbon dioxide
Kidneys d. Undigested food
8. Which of the following is not a part of
female reproductive system? V. Differentiate the following.
a. Ovary b. Uterus a. Excretion and Secretion
c. Testes d. Fallopian tube b. Absorption and Assimilation

II. Fill in the blanks. c. Ingestion and Egestion

1. The opening of the stomach into the d. Diphyodont and Heterodont

intestine is called _________. e. Incisors and Canines

21
 MS CENTRE 9791366374

UNIT 21
I. Choose the correct answer. III. State whether true or false. If false,
1. The nutrient required in trace amounts correct the statement.
to accomplish various body functions is
1. Iron is required for the proper
_______________
functioning of thyroid gland.
a) carbohydrate b) protein
2. Vitamins are required in large quantities
c) vitamin d) fat for normal functioning of the body -
2. The physician who discovered that
scurvy can be cured by ingestion of 3. Vitamin C is a water soluble vitamin
citrus fruits is _______________ 4. Lack of adequate fats in diet may result
a) James Lind b) Louis Pasteur in low body weight
5. ISI mark is mandatory to certify
c) Charles Darwin d) Isaac Newton
agricultural products.
3. The sprouting of onion and potatoes
can be delayed by the process of IV. Match the following.
_______________
Column A Column B
a) freezing b) irradiation
1. Calcium a. Muscular fatigue
c) salting d) canning
2. Sodium b. Anaemia
4. Food and Adulteration Act was enforced
3. Potassium c. Osteoporosis
by Government of India in the year
4. Iron d. Goitre
_______________
5. Iodine e. Muscular cramps
a) 1964 b) 1954
VII. Assertion and Reason.
c) 1950 d) 1963
Direction: In the following question, a
5. An internal factor responsible for statement of a Assertion is given and a
spoilage of food is _______________ corresponding Reason is given just below it.
a) wax coating Of the statements given below, mark the
b) contaminated utensils correct answer as:
c) moisture content in food a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and
d) synthetic preservatives the Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion
II. Fill in the blanks. b. If both Assertion and Reason are true but
1. Deficiency diseases can be prevented by Reason is not the correct explanation of
taking _______________ diet. Assertion
2. The process of affecting the natural c. If Assertion is true but Reason is false
composition and the quality of food d. If both Assertion and Reason is false
substance is known as _______________
1. Assertion: Haemoglobin contains
3. Vitamin D is called as _______________
iron.
vitamin as it can be synthesised by the
body from the rays of sunlight. Reason: Iron deficiency leads to
anaemia
4. Dehydration is based on the principle of
removal of _______________. 2. Assertion: AGMARK is a quality
control agency
5. Food should not be purchased beyond
the date of _______________ Reason: ISI is a symbol of quality

6. AGMARK is used to certify ______________

and _______________ products in India.

22
 MS CENTRE 9791366374
UNIT 22
I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Which of the following is transmitted
through air?
II. Fill in the blanks.
a. Tuberculosis b. Meningitis
1. __________ break down organic matter
c. Typhoid d. Cholera and animal waste into ammonia.
2. One of the means of indirect transmission 2. Typhoid fever is caused by __________.
of a disease is
3. H1N1 virus causes __________.
a. sneezing b. coughing
4. __________ is a vector of viral disease
c. vectors d. droplet infection dengue.
3. Diptheria affects the 5. __________ vaccine gives considerable
a. lungs b. throat protection against tuberculosis.
c. blood d. liver 6. Cholera is caused by __________ and malaria
is caused by __________.
4. The primary organ infected during
tuberculosis is III. Expand the following.
a. bone marrow b. intestine 1. ORS 2. HIV 3. DPT
c. spleen d. lungs 4. WHO 5. BCG
5. Microbes that generally enter the body
IV. Pick out the odd one.
through nose are likely to affect
i) AIDS, Retrovirus, Lymphocytes, BCG,
a. gut b. lungs ii) Bacterial disease, Rabies, Cholera,
c. liver d. lymph nodes Common cold and Influenza.
6. The organ affected by jaundice is
a. liver   b. lungs  c. kidney  d. brain V. State whether true or false. If false, correct
7. Poliomyelitis virus enters the body through the statement.
a. skin b. mouth and nose 1. Rhizobium, associated with root nodules of
c. ears d. eye leguminous plants fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
2. Non- infectious diseases remain confined to
the person who develops the disease and do
not spread to others.
3. The process of vaccination was developed
by Jenner.
4. Hepatitis B is more dangerous than
Hepatitis A.

VI. Match the following.

Swine flu Human Papilloma virus
Human Immunodeficiency
Genital warts
Virus
AIDS Mycobacterium
Tuberculosis Influeuza virus H1N1

23
 MS CENTRE 9791366374
UNIT 23
I. Choose the correct answer. II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The production and management of fish 1. Quinine drug is obtained from _________.
is called
2. Carica papaya leaf can cure __________
a. Pisciculture b. Sericulture disease.
c. Aquaculture d. Monoculture
3. Vermicompost is a type of soil made by
2. Which one of the following is not an __________ and microorganisms.
exotic breed of cow? 4. __________ refers to the culture of prawns,
a. Jersey b. Holstein-Friesan pearl and edible oysters.
c. Sahiwal d. Brown Swiss
5. The largest member in a honey bee hive is
3. Which one of the following is an Italian is the ___________.
species of honey bee? 6. ___________ is a preservative in honey.
a. Apis mellifera b. Apis dorsata 7. __________ is the method of culturing
c. Apis florae d. Apis cerana different variety of fish in a water body.

4. Which one of the following is not an

Indian major carp? III. Say
  true or false. If false, correct the
statement.
a. Rohu b. Catla
c. Mrigal d. Singhara 1. Mycorrhiza is an algae.

5. Drones in the honey bee colony are 2. Milch animals are used in agriculture and
formed from transport.

a. unfertilized egg b. fertilized egg 3. Apis florea is a rock bee.

c. parthenogenesis d. both b and c 4. Ongole is an exotic breed of cattle.
5. Sheep manure contains high nutrients
6. Which of the following is an high milk
yielding variety of cow? than farm yard manure.

a. Holstein- Friesan b. Dorset IV. Differentiate the following.

c. Sahiwal d. Red Sindhi
a. Exotic breed and Indigenous breed
7. Which Indian variety of honey bee is b. Pollen and Nectar
commonly used for apiculture? c. Shrimp and Prawn
a. Apis dorsata  b. Apis florea d. Farmyard manure and Sheep manure
c. Apis mellifera  d. Apis indica
V. Match the following.
8. __________ is the method of growing
plants without soil. Column A Column B
a) Horticulture b) Hydroponics Lobsters Marine fish
c) Pomology d) None of these. Catla Pearl
Sea bass Shell fish
9. The symbiotic association of fungi and
Oysters Paddy
vascular plants is
Pokkali Fin fish
a) Lichen b) Rhizobium
Pleurotus sps Psoriosis
c) Mycorhizae d) Azotobacter
Sarpagandha Oyster mushroom
10. The plant body of mushroom is
Olericulture Reserpine
a) Spawn b) Mycelium Wrighta tinctoria Vegetable farming
c) Leaf d) All of these

24
 MS CENTRE 9791366374

UNIT 24

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. All the factors of biosphere which affect the 4. Earthworms use the remarkable high
ability of organisms to survive and reproduce frequency system called echoes.
are called as ___________________. 5. Aestivation is an adaptation to overcome
a. biological factors  b. abiotic factors cold condition.
c. biotic factors d. physical factors
IV. Give reason for the following.
2. The ice sheets from the north and south
1. Roots grow very deep and reach the layers
poles and the icecaps on the mountains,
where water is available. Which type of
get converted into water vapour through
plants develops the above adaptation? Why?
the process of__________________.
a. evaporation b. condensation 2. Why streamlined bodies and presence
c. sublimation d. infiltration of setae is considered as adaptations of
earthworm?
3. The atmospheric carbon dioxide enters
3. Why is it impossible for all farmers to
into the plants through the process of
construct farm ponds it in their fields?
_______________.
a. photosynthesis b. assimilation
c. respiration d. decomposition
4. Increased amount of _______________
in the atmosphere, results in greenhouse
effect and global warming
a. carbon monoxide
b. sulphur dioxide
c. nitrogen dioxide
d. carbon dioxide
II.  Match the following.
Microorganism Role Played
Nitrosomonas Nitrogen fixation
Azotobacter Ammonification
Pseudomonas species Nitrification
Putrefying bacteria Denitrification

III. Say
  true or false. Correct the false state-
ments
1. Nitrogen is a greenhouse gas.
2. Poorly developed root is an adaptation of
mesophytes.
3. Bats are the only mammals that can fly.

25
 MS CENTRE 9791366374
UNIT 25

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. ____________ is an electronic device which
stores data and information.
a) Telescope b) Television
c) Computer d) Radio
2. _________ belongs to the generation IV of
the computer
a) Microprocessor
b) Artificial intelligence
c) Transis tor
d) Vaccum Tubes
3. Data processing involves _______ steps.
a) seven b) four
c) six d) eight

II. Match the following.

III generation computer - Integrated circuit
Text, number - Information
Transistor - Father of computer
Directly used - Data
Charles Babbage - II generation

26
 MS CENTRE 9791366374

UNIT 26

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Which one of the following is an output

device?
a) Mouse b) Keyboard
c) Speaker d) Pendrive

2. Name the cable that connects CPU to the

Monitor.

a) Ethernet b) VGA
c) HDMI d) USB

3. Which one of the following is an input

device?
a) Speaker b) Mouse
c) Monitor d) Printer

4. Which one of the following is an example

for wireless connections?
a) Wi-Fi b) Electric wires
c) VGA d) USB
5. Pen drive is a / an device.
a) output b) input
c) storage d) connecting cable

II. Match the following

VGA - Input device

Bluetooth - Connecting cable
Printer - LDMI
Keyboard - Wireless connection
HDMI - Output device

27
 MS CENTRE 9791366374
UNIT 27
I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Find out the part that is not found in CPU?
a. Mother Board b. SMPS
c. RAM d. Mouse
2. Which of the following is correct?
a. Free and Open source
b. Free and Traditional software
c. Passive and Open source
d. Passive and Traditional source
3. LINUX is a
a. Paid Software
b. Licensed Software
c. Free and Proprietary software
d. Free and Open source software
4. Find out the Paid and Proprietary software
from the given list.
a. Windows b. MAC OS
c. Adobe Photoshop d. All the above

5. is an Operating System.
a. Android b. Chrome
c. Internet d. Pendrive

II. Match the following.

MAC OS - Free and Open source Software
Software - Paid and Proprietary Software
Hardware - Input Device
Keyboard - RAM
LINUX - Geogebra

28