MCQ for practice

1. Tangentiality

a. same as circumstantiality
b. is pathognomonic of schizophrenia
c. is a disorder or thought
d. characteristic of mania
e. described by Goldstein

2. Transient Global Amnesia

a. there is loss of identity

b. is a dissociative phenomenon
c. memory deficits are global
d. confabulation is common
e. attention span is normal

3.  Buspirone

a. is a cyclopyrrolone compound
b. side effect includes sedation
c. can cause hyperprolactinaemia
d. is contraindicated in epilepsy
e. is useful in the treatment of panic disorder

4. Depressive Position

a. is described by Melanie Klein

b. is a basis of depression in adult life
c. develops before paranoid position
d. child realizes world is not perfect
e. refers to splitting & isolation
 

5. Tests of Fontal lobe function include:

a. Wechsler memory test

b. trail making test
c. Wisconsin card sorting test
d. repertory test
e. Stanford Binet test

6. Erik Erikson

a. was an id  psychologist

b. has described psychological stages of development
c. initiative vs. guilt corresponds to Freud's anal stage of development
d. discarded Freud's three levels of consciousness
e. described archetypes 

7. According to the principles of perceptual organization,

a. cocktail party situation is an example of figure-ground

b. the whole is a greater than the sum of its parts
c. closed figures are  more easily perceived than open ones
d. accommodation is a non-pictorial depth cue
e. law of closure is one of the principle

8. Bowlby's attachment theory:

a. mothering is almost useless if delayed until after 21/2 to 3 yr

b. highlighted equal importance to attachment with father
c. accepts that young children develop multiple attachments
d. describes 'hospitalism'
e. describes separation anxiety

 
9. The following conditions are suggested by a finding of irritability at
interview

a. depression
b. Huntington chorea
c. general paresis of insane 
d. hypomania
e. Gilles de la Tourette

10. The GABA - A receptor complex

a. is associated with a calcium channel

b. diazepam is a selective agonist
c. has a steroid binding site
d. is inhibited by picrotoxin
e. baclofen is a selective agonist

11. Cotard's syndrome

a. has an acute onset

b. occurs mostly in elderly age group
c. more common in females than males
d. involves delusions of religion
e. common in depression

12. The following are involuntary movements

a. mannerism
b. hemiballismus
c. chorea
d. athetosis
e. stereotypy

 
13.  Following antipsychotics do not cause hypertension

a. risperidone
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. amisulpride
e. clozapine

14. Confabulation

a. is a disorder of memory
b. is the diagnostic feature of Korsakoff's syndrome
c. occurs in clear consciousness
d. suggestibility is a prominent feature of confabulation
e. is a form of malingering

15. The following are good interview skills

a. maintaining continuous eye contact

b. the use of non verbal methods of communication
c. asking direct questions during the interview
d. being empathetic rather than sympathetic
e. premature assurances are helpful

16. Factors predisposing to interpersonal attraction include

a. physical attractiveness
b. self image
c. proximity
d. perceived competence
e. equal financial state

17.  Night terrors

 a. occurs in stage 2 of sleep
b. there is usually complete amnesia for the event
c. is a dissociative state
d. violent behavior has been reported
e. a family history is frequently present

18. Late onset psychosis

a. can be associated with blindness

b. visual hallucinations a characteristic feature
c. associated with larger cerebral ventricles
d. commonly associated with lower social classes
e. family history of schizophrenia is often seen

19. A 3 old girl will be scared of

a. death
b. monsters
c. heights
d. loud noises
e. strangers

20. The following are examples of compulsions

a. nymphomania
b. trichotillomania
c. hypomania
d. kleptomania
e. counting rituals

21. Higher order conditioning

a. is synonymous to latent conditioning

 b. trace and simultaneous are types
c. in delayed or forward conditioning half second interval produces
stronger learning
d. advertisements generally use backward conditioning
e. variable ratio is the most resistant to extinction

22. The following are mature defense mechanisms

a. sublimation
b. isolation
c. splitting
d. humor
e. altruism

23. The following are involved in the genesis of agoraphobia

a. flooding 
b. escape conditioning
c. avoidance conditioning
d. selective abstraction
e. catastrophisation

24. Theory of emotion

a. the James Lang theory explain cognitive basis of emotion

b. according to the Cannon-Bard theory, ANS responds in the same way
to all\emotion stimuli
c. cognitive labeling theory is essentially based on attributional
principles
d. according to Lazarus cognitive processing is an integral feature of all
emotional states
e. include Plutchick model

 
25. Gustatory hallucinations can occur in

a. temporal lobe epilepsy

b. lewy body dementia
c. panic disorder
d. histrionic personality disorder
e. schizophrenia

26. The following drugs are lipophillic

a. lithium
b. haloperidol
c. nortriptyline
d. propranolol
e. diazepam

27. The following are true

a. Afro-Caribbean men when depressed may instead complain of erectile

dysfunction
b. South Asians rarely complain about mental health problems
c. schizophrenia is over diagnosed in Afro-Caribbean's
d. myriachit is a similar disease to Latah
e. susto is an acute anxiety state

28. The following pairs are true

a. Anna Freud : play therapy

b. Margaret Mahler : separation-individuation
c. Carl Jung : analytical psychotherapy
d. Erik Erikson : transactional analysis
e. Charcot : hysteria

 
29. The following benzodiapines have active metabolites

a. lorazepam
b. diazepam
c. oxazepam
d. flurazepam
e. nitrazepam

30. Depersonalization

a. is always associated with derealization

b. can be a pleasant experience
c. can be present in schizophrenia
d. may be drug induced
e. may be seen in both depression and mania

31. The following differentiate dementia from pseudodementia

a. the word 'WORLD' backward

b. nominal aphasia
c. associated depression
d. motor skills intact
e. the digit span test

32. Transference

a. is a form of ego strengthening

b. prevents patients from gaining insight
c. is the patients emotional response to the therapist
d. only seen in psychiatric setting
e. rarely seen in psychoanalysis

33. Thurston’s scale

 a. measures social interaction
b. it is an 11 point scale
c. time consuming
d. it is a bipolar visual analogue scale
e. poor reliability

34. Defense mechanisms of OCD include

a. magical thinking 
b. denial
c. undoing
d. isolation
e. projection

35. Delirium tremens

a. paregoric illusions are often prodromal in delirium tremens

b. often associated with pleasure as compared to other visual
hallucinations
c. hallucinations often involve the patients occupation
d. aphasia is common
e. patients are highly suggestible

36. Mental state examination

a. facial appearance provides information about mood

b. social behavior of the patient is not important
c. the cooperation of the patient is essential
d. visual hallucinations cannot be assessed
e. should always be carried out after completing history taking

37. Frequent wrist cutting can be seen

 a. in anankastic personality disorder
b. in schizophrenia
c. to reduce tension
d. in depression
e. in borderline personality

38. Multiple personality

a. commonly associated with more than two personality

b. predominantly seen in developing countries
c. commonly associated physical/sexual abuse in childhood
d. often associated with depression
e. alternate personalities are mainly children

39. Pharmacokinetics

a. biological half life is the time taken for the activity if the drug to
decrease by half
b. drug administration is proportional to plasma level if the enzyme is
not saturated
c. in first order elimination, the plasma level falls exponentially
d. protein binding enhances drug distribution      
e. the use of loading dose is more suitable for drugs with a short half life

40. International classification of diseases

a. is available only in English

b. it uses operational criteria
c. includes social consequences of the disorder
d. uses term mental disorder
e. neurasthenia is classified under dissociated disorder

41. Anorexia
 a. does not occur in mania
b. can be associated with bulimia
c. incidence is 20 times higher in females as compared to males
d. may be due to tuberculosis
e. growth hormone is raised

42. Alpa-2 receptor blockade is associated with

a. priapism
b. postural hypotension
c. clonidine
d. trazodone
e. risperidone

43. Clinically significant depression is associated with the following

a. Parkinson’s disease
b. treatment with flupenthixol
c. unemployment
d. multiple sclerosis
e. early stages of dementia

44. ICD 10

a. reliability of schizophrenia is high

b. reliability of histrionic personality disorder is low
c. reliability of obsessive compulsive disorder is high
d. time factor is included in diagnosis
e. only allow for psychiatric diagnosis

45. Following drugs induce their own biotransformation

a. chloral hydrate
 b. phenopthiazine
c. carbamazepine
d. caffeine
e. primidone 

46. Reliability of psychiatric diagnosis

a. increased by training psychiatrists

b. increased by semi structured interviews
c. has been tested internationally
d. not important if validity guaranteed 
e. increased with operational definition

47. Obsessive compulsive disorder

a. cannot be diagnosed in the presence of delusions and hallucinations

b. is related to oedipal fixation
c. is commonly associated with obsessional personality
d. there is decreased blood flow in the frontal lobe
e. motor behavior precedes thoughts

48. With opiates following is true

a. withdrawal symptoms rarely threaten life of someone who is in

reasonable health
b. heroin is often used to replace naltrexone
c. clinical effects include restlessness abdominal pain and piloerection
d. it can cause an amotivational state 
e. also known as ice

49. Postpartum disorder

a. pregnant teenagers carry high risk of suicide

 b. sulpiride should be avoided in breast feeding mothers
c. ECT is contraindicated
d. pueperal schizophrenia is rare
e. the onset of pueperal psychosis is rarely in first two days

50. Organic causes of anxiety include

a. pheochromocytoma
b. hyperglycemia
c. hyperthyroidism
d. porphyria
e. hyperventilation

1. Schneider's first rank symptoms include

a. thought block
b. somatic Passivity
c. second person hallucinations
d. thought echo
e. delusional perception

2. The following are characteristically accompanied by impaired

consciousness

a. alcoholic hallucinations
b. Korsakoff's psychosis
c. Wernicke's encephalopathy
d. delirium tremens
e. acute alcoholic hepatitis
 

3. Features of organic confessional state include

a. improve at night
b. misidentification
c. worse in the evenings
d. visual hallucinations
e. hyperventilation

4. Wernicke's encephalopathy presents with

a. opthalmoplegia
b. nystagmus
c. ataxia
d. abnormal pupil reaction
e. altered consciousness

5. Fugue states

a. arise suddenly and dramatically

b. rarely last more than two weeks
c. are associated with intermittent amnesia
d. are often precipitated by an emotional event
e. disorientation is a recognized feature

6. The following are found in normal subjects

a. depersonalization
b. déjà vu
c. déjà vu
d. encapsulated delusions
e. ideas of reference

 
7. Agoraphobia

a. occurs in women mainly before the age of 35

b. does not occur in men
c. is specific to open spaces
d. is associated with marital difficulties
e. frequently associated with overvalued ideas

8. Features of the history which are of particular importance in phobia

patients include

a. marital history
b. social class
c. school attainment
d. detailed account of onset
e. alcohol intake

9. The following observations would be useful in differentiating dementia

from depression in a 70 year old

a. memory loss
b. visual hallucinations
c. don't know answers
d. catastrophic reaction
e. psychomotor retardation

10. The following is true of phobias

a. they are entirely irrational

b. worse in trains than in cars
c. commoner in women
d. can be explained by preparedness
e. avoidance leads to incubation

 
11. Characteristic features of the history in an alcoholic include

a. a tendency to exaggerate drinking

b. absenteeism on Fridays
c. a family history of schizophrenia
d. reinstatement after abstinence
e. wanting an eye opener

12. Suicide is associated with

a. High I.Q.
b. social class
c. suicidal ideas
d. alcoholism
e. OCD

13. The following would suggest a diagnosis of mania rather than

schizophrenia

a. irritability
b. brief episodes of depression
c. delusions of grandiosity
d. somatic passivity
e. stereotype

14. over inclusive thinking

a. can be demonstrated with card sorting tasks

b. is a feature of mania
c. is a recognized feature of thought disorder
d. is a feature of frontal lobe pathology
e. can be found in normal people

 
15.  Following occur in auras with a temporal lobe focus

a. micropsia
b. paredolia
c. tinnitus
d. a smell of burning rubber
e. xanthopsia

16.  Hallucinations may be caused by

a. acute anxiety
b. cataracts
c. alcohol
d. sensory deprivation
e. sleep deprivation

17.  Dissociative states include

a. automatic writing
b. fugues
c. night terrors
d. autoscopy
e. Royal Free Disease

18.  Following are sedative antidepressants

a. Clomipramine
b. Phenelzine
c. Dothiepine
d. Mianserine
e. Imipramine

19.  Drugs which interact significantly with MAOI include

 a. Inhalational anesthetics
b. L-Dopa
c. Tyramine
d. Tryptophan
e. Pethidine

20.  Tricyclic Antidepressants

a. are contraindicated in patients with cataract

b. are safer than ECT in men with a history of myocardial infarction
c. potentiate the pressor response to NA
d. can be the combined with carbamazepine in depression
e. should never be combined with MAOI

21.  Drugs which interact significantly with tricyclics include

a. cold cures
b. morphine
c. propranolol
d. isoprenaline
e. clozapine

22.  Haloperidol produces following side effects

a. cholestatic jaundice
b. tardive dyskinesia
c. akathesia
d. postural hypotension
e. impotence

23.  Gilles de Tourette's syndrome is characterized by

a. coprophagia
 b. subjective sudden release of tension
c. tics
d. paralysis of limbs
e. choreiform movements

24.  Ideas of reference

a. are delusions
b. occur in alcoholics
c. can lead to isolation
d. are always pathological
e. may improve spontaneously

25.  Morbid Jealousy

a. is present in 10- 15% of violent patients

b. is more common in men than women
c. can occur in dementia
d. a characteristic feature of Wernicke's encephalopathy
e. is usually a separate diagnostic entity

26.  The punch drunk syndrome is associated with

a. cerebral atrophy
b. aphasia
c. ataxia
d. personality change
e. unresponsive facies

27.  Disorientation in place is a characteristic feature of

a. confessional states
b. severe anxiety
 c. Wernicke's encephalopathy
d. Korsakoff's psychosis
e. acute manic episode

28.  Depressive psychosis is associated with

a. visual hallucinations
b. persecutory delusions
c. delusions of punishment
d. ideas of harming others
e. nocturnal worsening

29.  The following remarks by a patient during a psychiatric interview

suggests that he is suffering from a psychotic illness

a. the noise in my left ear is like the sea flowing over the roof
b. they are taking the thoughts away from my mind and leaving it empty
c. unwanted thoughts keep coming in to my mind
d. my dead wife sometime appears  just before I go to sleep
e. I have heard my name called out, although there was none there

30.  Following are important interactions

a. propranolol and tricyclics

b. isoprenaline and tricyclics
c. alcohol and metranidazole
d. haloperidol and lithium
e. venlafaxine and lithium

31.  Effects of diazepam include

a. fits on withdrawal
b. fast waves on ECG
 c. selective increase in REM sleep
d. potentiation of the effect of TCA
e. amnesia

32.  Classical signs of grief include

a. protest
b. manic defense
c. bargaining
d. denial and numbness
e. recrimination

33.  Schneider's first rank symptoms

a. are primarily psychological phenomena from which all others are

derived
b. are found in psychosis associated with epilepsy
c. occur in most autistic children
d. predict decline in social functioning
e. may lead to secondary delusions

34.  Spatial orientation may be impaired in

a. puerperal psychosis
b. depersonalization
c. right parietal lobe lesions
d. hysterical fugue
e. post ictal states

35.  Recognized feature of catatonia

a. motor blocking
b. cataplexy
 c. stereotypes
d. psychological pillow
e. stupor

36.  The following are good discriminating features between major

depression and primary anorexia nervosa

a. constipation
b. early morning awakening
c. cold extremities
d. distorted body image
e. low self esteem

37.  The following are commonly associated with motor neuron disease

a. fasciculation of the upper limbs

b. dysphagia
c. dysarthria
d. amnesia
e. uncontrolled weeping

38.  Extinction

a. tends to occur with non-reinforcement of a conditioned response

b. is a part of the death instinct
c. tends to occur with the repetition of the conditioned stimulus in the
absence of unconditioned stimulus
d. is usually followed by spontaneous recovery when the conditioned
stimulus recurs
e. is best inhibited by random reinforcement

39.  Following statements about token economy are correct

 a. it has been used effectively in mentally handicapped patients
b. it attempts to induce socially acceptable behavior through the use of
tokens
c. there is conclusive evidence that improvement by it is maintained
outside the institution
d. emphasis is on the immediate reinforcement of adaptive behavior
e. the technique is based on the principles of operant conditioning

40.  Operant conditioning

a. is useful in training mentally handicapped children

b. is same as classical conditioning
c. extinguished more rapidly when build up under partial reinforcement
d. of value in the treatment of addictions
e. based oh techniques derived from hypnosis

41. Classical conditioning

a. is also called Skinnerian

b. is the same as operant conditioning
c. is sometimes called the method of stimulus substitution
d. cannot account for novelty in behavior
e. stimulus generalization is a recognized feature

42.  Primary delusions

a. may be secondary to auditory hallucinations

b. frequently systematized to secondary delusions
c. characteristically persecutory
d. are frequently preceded by delusional mood
e. can occur in normal people

43.  Defense mechanisms include

 a. denial
b. splitting
c. identification with the aggressor
d. sublimation
e. humor

44.  Neurofibrillary tangles are seen in

a. Alzheimer's disease
b. Downs syndrome
c. Pick's disease
d. Lewy body dementia
e. punch drunk syndrome

45.  An elderly patient could present in confusion due to following illness

a. cerebro- vascular accident

b. hypothyroidism
c. hyperglycemia
d. Benzodiazepine use
e. Pick's disease

46.  Parietal lobe lesions could produce

a. superior quadrant hemianopia

b. left right disorientation
c. topagnosea
d. alexia with agraphia
e. sensory dissociation

47.  in heroin addiction

a. inspection of the limbs could reliably exclude intravenous heroin use

 b. the sated amount of consumption by the patient is a reliable estimate
c. HIV testing is mandatory
d. tricuspid endocarditic is a recognized complications
e. Is a known cause of drug induced psychosis

48.  In psychoanalytic theory ego strength

a. is a good predictor of outcome in psychotherapy

b. is a major feature of obsessive compulsive personality
c. is poor in borderline personality disorder
d. weakening leads to psychotic illness
e. is preserved by defense mechanisms

49.  Anxiety in psychoanalytic theory

a. is due to threats from superego forces

b. is due to threats from id forces
c. is a warning from ego
d. is always due to castration fear
e. improves with age

50.  Obsessive compulsive phenomena in psychoanalytic theory

a. are understood as dramatization

b. are always due to oedipal conflict
c. reduce anxiety
d. reflect undoing
e. projecting mechanism

 
51.  Explanations in psychoanalytic theory for the contents of dreams
include

a. condensation
b. sublimation
c. idealization
d. displacement
e. dissociation

52.  Counter transference

a. is the therapist's emotional reaction to the patient

b. can give useful information about the emotional state of the patient
c. should be explained to the patient
d. is therapeutically useful in chronic rehabilitation
e. is a reason why therapist should have his own analysis

53.  In a psychotherapy group the leader should

a. promote the establishment of a small ideal democratic society

b. enhance interpersonal learning
c. only intervene if things get out of hand
d. stop the development of a group culture
e. prevent self idealization

54.  In psychoanalytic terms, hysterical conversion symptoms

a. serve to reduce conscious anxiety

b. are a symbolic expression of neurotic conflict
c. are produced by unconscious mechanisms
d. occur only in hysterical personality
e. are mediated through the autonomic nervous system

 
55.In psychoanalytic therapy resistance is suggested by

a. ventilation
b. forgetfulness
c. evasion
d. free association
e. denial

56.  Transference phenomena

a. should always be interpreted

b. only occur in psychoanalysis
c. are ignored in Malan's brief psychotherapy
d. are widespread in professional caring relationships
e. never occur in behavior therapy

57.  Ankle jerk and knee jerk both characteristically lost in

a. infectious polymyalgia
b. Motor neuron disease
c. tabes dorsalis
d. Fredrik’s ataxia
e. cervical spine lesion

58.  Posterior column lesion results in loss of

a. pain
b. light touch
c. vibration
d. proprioception
e. discriminatory touch

59.  In EEG
 a. closure of eyes attenuates alpha rhythm
b. tracing can be abolished in hepatic precoma
c. tracing is maximal in the occipital lobes
d. amplitude can be asymmetrical normally
e. alpha rhythms are continual throughout sleep

60.  The optic reflex depends upon

a. optic radiation
b. Edinger Westphal nucleus
c. optic cortex
d. occulomotor nerve
e. cilliary muscle

  

61.  Creutzfeld-Jacob Disease

a. is rare under the age of 40

b. is commoner in rural areas
c. shows characteristic EEG changes
d. has only been transmitted to experimental animals via brain tissue
from an infected subject
e. is one of the "spongiform encephalopathies"

62.  Features of pseudo-bulbar palsy include

a. brisk jaw jerk

b. emotional labiality
c. fasciculating tongue
d. absent gag reflex
e. dysphagia
 

63.  An adequate system of classification in psychiatry

a. would be based on etiology, if it is known

b. would be purely descriptive
c. could be pentaxial
d. would be mutually inclusive and jointly exclusive
e. would be both reliable and valid

64.  Visual illusions

a. may occur in normal people

b. may be influenced by the prevailing emotional tone
c. occur in those totally blind from birth
d. occur in those suffering sudden blindness in middle age
e. are more common in dim light than in bright conditions

65.  In standard psychiatric history and MSE

a. occupational history is taken to asses work suitability

b. proverb interpretation is a test to demonstrate concrete thinking
c. cognitive testing is not indicated if a full and clear history is obtained
d. MSE should always be conducted in the same recommended sequence
e. it is possible to draw hypothesis about family dynamics from the
family history

66.  Patients suffering from acute organic brain syndrome

a. show fluctuations in their level of consciousness

b. should be nursed in a quiet darkened room
c. are frequently excitable
d. are often preoccupied with internal themes
e. are suggestible
 

67.  Common side effects of Tricyclic anti depressants include

a. fine tremor
b. urinary retention
c. ileus
d. postural hypotension
e. blurring of vision

68.  Features of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome include

a. hypertonia
b. autonomic labiality
c. hyperpyrexia
d. cerebral metastatic deposits
e. symptoms which respond to anti-cholinergic medication

69.  Features of Post Traumatic Stress Syndrome include

a. flash-backs
b. ideas of reference
c. emotional numbing
d. hyper vigilance
e. patchy amnesia

70. With long term neuroleptic treatment

a. lower doses are needed for prophylaxis than for acute illness
b. intermittent treatment can lead to higher total dosages
c. relapse is unlikely to occur if drugs are withdrawn after two years
d. males are more likely to suffer tardive dyskinesia
e. treatment should not be started after a first episode of schizophrenic
illness
 

71. The following are sedating antidepressants

a. clomipramine
b. phenelzine
c. dothiepin
d. mianserin
e. imipramine

72.  Computerized axial tomography of the head

a. is the initial investigation of choice in subarachnoid hemorrhage

b. demonstrates nigro-striate degeneration in Parkinson’s disease
c. is often normal within six hours of large infarct
d. fresh blood shows up as dark areas on the scan
e. demonstrates all space occupying lesions.

  

73. Magnetic resonance imaging of the head

a. is not very sensitive in multiple sclerosis

b. claustrophobia is a relative contraindication
c. a pacemaker is an absolute contraindication
d. demonstrates calcification better than CT
e. is useful in temporal lobe epilepsy

74. Lumbar puncture

a. is always contraindicated if papilloedema is present

b. is safe if a frontal lobe mass is present
c. is safe if a posterior fossa mass is present
d. is safe in benign intracranial hypertension
 e. can be diagnostic in subarachnoid hemorrhage

75. Emotional labiality is seen in

a. severe depression
b. pseudo bulbar palsy
c. simple schizophrenia
d. hysteria
e. delirium

76. Following may present as obsessions in OCD

a. mental images
b. primary slowness
c. hallucinations
d. delusions
e. panic attacks

77. Following lend weight to a diagnosis of schizophrenia

a. perseveration
b. visual hallucinations
c. autoscopy
d. asyndeton thinking
e. olfactory hallucinations

78. Patients with alexithymia have

a. difficulty in reading
b. lack of empathy
c. reduced fantasy thinking
d. reduced symbolic thinking
e. difficulty distinguishing between somatic and psychological feelings
 

79. Characteristic features of Wernicke's encephalopathy include

a. ataxia
b. diplopia
c. confusion
d. peripheral neuropathy
e. dysphasia

80. Following distinguish between organic and functional disorders

a. disorientation
b. visual hallucinations
c. poor performance of the serial sevens test
d. dysphasia
e. poor registration