DATE : 14/10/2020 Test Booklet Code

W2
IMAIN

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Questions & Answers Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2020 (Phase-2)
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

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12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

1. The Mean Free Path  for a gas molecule 6. The equivalent resistance between A and B
depends upon diameter, d of the molecule as for the mesh shown in the figure is

1 1 4 8
(1)   (2)   2
d d
4 6 8
(3)   d (4)   d 2
A B

Answer (2) (1) 4.8  (2) 7.2 

(3) 16  (4) 30 
2. An intrinsic semiconductor is converted into
n-type extrinsic semiconductor by doping it Answer (3)
with 7. A wheel with 20 metallic spokes each 1 m
(1) Germanium (2) Phosphorous long is rotated with a speed of 120 rpm in a
(3) Aluminium (4) Silver plane perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.4
G. The induced emf between the axle and rim
Answer (2)
of the wheel will be (1 G = 10–4 T)
3. The half life of a radioactive sample (1) 2.51 V (2) 2.51 × 10–4 V
undergoing  – decay is 1.4 × 1017 s. If the
(3) 2.51 × 10–5 V (4) 4.0 × 10–5 V
number of nuclei in the sample is 2.0 × 1021,
the activity of the sample is nearly Answer (2)
(1) 103 Bq (2) 104 Bq 8. Out of the following which one is a forward
biased diode?
(3) 105 Bq (4) 106 Bq
Answer (2) 0V
(1) –3 V
4. The E.M. wave with shortest wavelength
–4 V
among the following is, (2) –2 V

(1) Microwaves 2V
(3) 5V
(2) Ultraviolet rays
(3) X-rays –2 V
(4) +2 V
(4) Gamma-rays
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
9. A n-p-n transistor is connected in common
5. For the circuit shown in the figure, the emitter configuration (see figure) in which
current I will be collector voltage drop across load resistance
2V 4V
(800 ) connected to the collector circuit is
1 1
0.8 V. The collector current is

800 
RB
IC 8V

I 4
IB
(1) 0.5 A
(2) 0.75 A
(3) 1 A (1) 0.2 mA (2) 2 mA
(4) 1.5 A (3) 0.1 mA (4) 1 mA
Answer (3) Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

10. Two solid conductors are made up of same 14. An ideal gas equation can be written as
material, have same length and same RT
P
resistance. One of them has a circular cross M0
section of area A1 and the other one has a
square cross section of area A 2. The ratio where  and M0 are respectively,
A1/A2 is (1) Number density, mass of the gas
(1) 2 (2) Mass density, mass of the gas
(2) 1.5 (3) Number density, molar mass
(3) 1
(4) Mass density, molar mass
(4) 0.8
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
15. The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in Wb) is
11. Two coherent sources of light interfere and given by the equation
produce fringe pattern on a screen. For
central maximum, the phase difference  = 5t2 + 3t + 16
between the two waves will be, The magnitude of induced emf in the coil at
the fourth second will be
(1) /2 (2) Zero
(1) 10 V (2) 33 V
(3)  (4) 3/2
Answer (2) (3) 43 V (4) 108 V

12. Time intervals measured by a clock give the Answer (3)

following readings : 16. The length of the string of a musical
1.25 s, 1.24 s, 1.27 s, 1.21 s and 1.28 s instrument is 90 cm and has a fundamental
frequency of 120 Hz. Where should it be
What is the percentage relative error of the
pressed to produce fundamental frequency of
observations? 180 Hz?
(1) 1.6%
(1) 80 cm (2) 75 cm
(2) 2%
(3) 60 cm (4) 45 cm
(3) 4%
Answer (3)
(4) 16%
17. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic
Answer (1) wave is given by,
13. For the circuit given below, the Kirchoff's loop By = 2 × 10–7 sin( × 103x + 3 × 1011t)T
rule for the loop BCDEB is given by the
Calculate the wavelength.
equation
i1 R2 i2 (1)  × 10–3 m (2)  × 103 m
A B C
(3) 2 × 10–3 m (4) 2 × 103 m
R1 Answer (3)
E1 E2
i3 18. A barometer is constructed using a liquid
F D (density = 760 kg/m 3 ). What would be the
E
E3 height of the liquid column, when a mercury
barometer reads 76 cm?
(1) –i2R2 + E2 + E3 + i3R1 = 0
(2) –i2R2 + E2 – E3 + i3R1 = 0 (density of mercury = 13600 kg/m3)

(3) i2R2 + E2 – E3 – i3R1 = 0 (1) 0.76 m (2) 1.36 m

(4) i2R2 + E2 + E3 + i3R1 = 0 (3) 13.6 m (4) 136 m

Answer (3) Answer (3)

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

19. The P-V diagram for an ideal gas in a piston 24. A light bulb and an inductor coil are
cylinder assembly undergoing a connected to an ac source through a key as
thermodynamic process is shown in the figure. shown in the figure below. The key is closed
The process is and after sometime an iron rod is inserted
into the interior of the inductor. The glow of
Initial the light bulb
state
Final
P state

V
(1) isothermal (2) adiabatic ~
(3) isochoric (4) isobaric (1) increases
Answer (4)
(2) decreases
20. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends
upon (3) remains unchanged

(1) the temperature of the source only (4) will fluctuate

(2) the temperature of the sink only Answer (2)
(3) the temperatures of the source and sink 25. Three identical spheres, each of mass M, are
(4) the volume of the cylinder of the engine placed at the corners of a right angle triangle
with mutually perpendicular sides equal to 2 m
Answer (3)
(see figure). Taking the point of intersection of
21. The electric field at a point on the equatorial the two mutually perpendicular sides as the
plane at a distance r from the centre of a origin, find the position vector of centre of

dipole having dipole moment p is given by, mass.

(r >> separation of two charges forming the

ĵ
dipole, 0 - permittivity of free space)
  M
 P  P
(1) E   (2) E 
4  0 r 3 4  0 r 3
2m
 
 2P  P
(3) E  3
(4) E   M
4  0 r 4  0 r 2
M î
2m
Answer (1)


4 ˆ ˆ
  
22. A liquid does not wet the solid surface if angle
of contact is (1) ij (2) 2 ˆi  ˆj
3
(1) zero (2) equal to 45°
(3) equal to 60° (4) greater than 90° (3)  ˆi  ˆj (4)
3

2 ˆ ˆ
i j 
Answer (4)
23. Three stars A, B, C have surface temperatures Answer (4)
TA, TB, TC respectively. Star A appears bluish,
26. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron
star B appears reddish and star C yellowish.
moving with kinetic energy of 144 eV is nearly
Hence,
(1) TA > TC > TB (2) TA > TB > TC (1) 102 × 10–2 nm (2) 102 × 10–3 nm
(3) TB > TC > TA (4) TC > TB > TA (3) 102 × 10–4 nm (4) 102 × 10–5 nm
Answer (1) Answer (2)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

27. The angle of 1 (minute of arc) in radian is 31. An object is placed on the principal axis of a
nearly equal to concave mirror at a distance of 1.5 f (f is the
(1) 1.75 × 10–2 rad focal length). The image will be at,

(2) 2.91 × 10–4 rad

(1) 3f
(3) 4.85 × 10–4 rad
(2) –3f
(4) 4.80 × 10–6 rad

Answer (2) (3) 1.5 f

28. The total energy of an electron in the n th
stationary orbit of the hydrogen atom can be (4) –1.5f
obtained by
Answer (2)
(1) En = –13.6 × n2 eV
32. The angular speed of the wheel of a vehicle is
13.6
(2) En  eV increased from 360 rpm to 1200 rpm in 14
n2
second. Its angular acceleration is,

13.6
(3) En   eV (1) 1 rad/s2
n2

(2) 2 rad/s2
1.36
(4) En   2 eV
n
(3) 28 rad/s2
Answer (3)
(4) 120 rad/s2
29. A wire of length L metre carrying a current of
l ampere is bent in the form of circle. Its
magnetic moment is Answer (2)

(1) I L2/4 A m2 33. The acceleration of an electron due to the

(2) I L2/4 A m2 mutual attraction between the electron and a
proton when they are 1.6 Å apart is,
(3) I L2/4 A m2

(4) 2I L2/ A m2
(me  9  10–31 kg, e  1.6  1019C )
Answer (1)

30. What is the depth at which the value of

1 9 2 2
1 (Take 4   9  10 Nm C )
acceleration due to gravity becomes times 0
n
the value that at the surface of earth? (radius
of earth = R) (1) 1025 m/s2

R R (2) 1024 m/s2

(1) (2)
n n2
(3) 1023 m/s2
R (n  1) Rn
(3) (4) (4) 1022 m/s2
n (n  1)

Answer (3) Answer (4)

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

34. What happens to the mass number and atomic 37. A point mass 'm' is moved in a vertical circle
number of an element when it emits of radius 'r' with the help of a string. The
-radiation? velocity of the mass is 7 gr at the lowest
(1) Mass number increases by four and point. The tension in the string at the lowest
atomic number increases by two. point is

(2) Mass number decreases by four and (1) 1 mg

atomic number decreases by two. (2) 6 mg
(3) Mass number and atomic number remain (3) 7 mg
unchanged.
(4) 8 mg
(4) Mass number remains unchanged while
atomic number decreases by one. Answer (4)

Answer (3) 38. A plano-convex lens of unknown material and

unknown focal length is given. With the help of
35. If the critical angle for total internal reflection a spherometer we can measure the,
from a medium to vacuum is 45°, then velocity
of light in the medium is, (1) refractive index of the material

(1) 3 × 108 m/s (2) focal length of the lens

(2) 1.5 × 108 m/s (3) radius of curvature of the curved surface

3 (4) aperture of the lens

(3)  108 m/s
2 Answer (3)

39. A parallel plate capacitor having cross-

(4) 2  108 m / s
sectional area A and separation d has air in
Answer (3) between the plates. Now an insulating slab of
same area but thickness d/2 is inserted
36. Calculate the acceleration of the block and between the plates as shown in figure having
trolly system shown in the figure. The dielectric constant K(= 4). The ratio of new
coefficient of kinetic friction between the capacitance to its original capacitance will
trolly and the surface is 0.05. (g = 10 m/s2, be,
mass of the string is negligible and no other
friction exists). d

Trolly
10 kg
K

2 kg
d/2
Block
(1) 4 : 1
(1) 1.00 m/s2
(2) 2 : 1
(2) 1.25 m/s2
(3) 1.50 m/s2 (3) 8 : 5

(4) 1.66 m/s2 (4) 6 : 5

Answer (2) Answer (3)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

40. The power of a biconvex lens is 10 dioptre 42. Which of the following gate is called universal
and the radius of curvature of each surface is gate ?
10 cm. Then the refractive index of the
material of the lens is, (1) NOT gate

3 4 (2) OR gate
(1) (2)
2 3
(3) AND gate
9 5 (4) NAND gate
(3) (4)
8 3
Answer (4)
Answer (1)
41. The variation of electrostatic potential with 43. Identify the function which represents a
radial distance r from the centre of a periodic motion.
positively charged metallic thin shell of radius
R is given by the graph (1) e–t

(2) et
V
(3) loge(t)
(1)
(4) sint + cost
r
Answer (4)
R
44. The wave nature of electrons was
experimentally verified by,

V (1) Davisson and Germer

(2) (2) de Broglie

r
(3) Hertz
R
(4) Einstein

Answer (1)
V
45. A person sitting in the ground floor of a
building notices through the window, of height
(3)
1.5 m, a ball dropped from the roof of the
r building crosses the window in 0.1 s. What is
R the velocity of the ball when it is at the
topmost point of the window ? (g–10 m/s2)

(1) 20 m/s
V
(2) 15.5 m/s

(4) (3) 14.5 m/s

r
R (4) 4.5 m/s

Answer (3) Answer (3)

7
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

46. Which among the following salt solutions is 51. Match the coordination number and type of
basic in nature? hybridisation with distribution of hybrid
orbitals in space based on Valence bond
(1) Sodium acetate
theory.
(2) Ammonium chloride
Coordination Distribution
(3) Ammonium sulphate
number and of hybrid
(4) Ammonium nitrate
type of or bitals
Answer (1)
hybridisation in space
47. If 8 g of a non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in (a) 4, sp3 (i) trigonal
114 g of n-octane to reduce its vapour bipyramidal
pressure to 80%, the molar mass (in g mol–1)
of the solute is [Given that molar mass of (b) 4, dsp2 (ii) octahedral
n-octane is 114 g mol–1] (c) 5, sp3d (iii) tetrahedral
(1) 20 (2) 40 (d) 6, d2sp3 (iv) square planar
(3) 60 (4) 80 Select the correct option :
Answer (2) (1) (a)-(iii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(i)
48. Identify compound (A) in the following
reaction: (3) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)

CHO
(4) (a)-(iv) (b)-(i) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)
H2 Pd BaSO 4 Answer (3)
A
52. Match the element in column I with that in
(1) Benzoic acid (2) Benzoyl chloride column II.
(3) Toluene (4) Acetophenone Column I Column II
Answer (2) (a) Copper (i) Non-metal
49. Identify the incorrect statement from the (b) Fluorine (ii) Transition Metal
following : (c) Silicon (iii) Lanthanoid
(1) The overall decrease in atomic and ionic (d) Cerium (iv) Metalloid
radii from lanthanum to lutetium is called Identify the correct match :
lanthanoid contraction
(1) (a)-(i) (b)-(ii) (c)-(iii) (d)-(iv)
(2) Zirconium and Hafnium have identical
(2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(iii)
radii of 160 pm and 159 pm, respectively
as a consequence of lanthanoid (3) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(iii)
contraction (4) (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
(3) Lanthanoids reveal only +3 oxidation state Answer (3)
(4) The lanthanoid ions other than the type f0 53. In collision theory of chemical reaction, ZAB
and the f14 type are all paramagnetic represents
Answer (3) (1) the fraction of molecules with energies
50. The half-life for a zero order reaction having equal to Ea
0.02 M initial concentration of reactant is (2) the fraction of molecules with energies
100 s. The rate constant (in mol L–1 s–1) for the greater than Ea
reaction is
(3) the collision frequency of reactants, A and
(1) 1.0 × 10–2 (2) 1.0 × 10–4 B
(3) 2.0 × 10–4 (4) 2.0 × 10–3 (4) steric factor
Answer (2) Answer (3)

8
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

54. At standard conditions, if the change in the 58. A liquid compound (x) can be purified by
enthalpy for the following reaction is steam distillation only if it is
–109 kJ mol–1. (1) Not steam volatile, immiscible with water
H2(g) + Br2(g)  2HBr(g) (2) Steam volatile, immiscible with water
Given that bond energy of H 2 and Br 2 is (3) Not steam volatile, miscible with water
435 kJ mol–1 and 192 kJ mol–1, respectively, (4) Steam volatile, miscible with water
what is the bond energy (in kJ mol–1) of HBr?
Answer (2)
(1) 259 (2) 368
59. What is the role of gypsum, CaSO 42H 2O in
(3) 736 (4) 518 setting of cement? Identify the correct option
Answer (2) from the following :
55. The solubility product for a salt of the type AB (1) to slow down the setting process
is 4 × 10–8. What is the molarity of its standard (2) to fasten the setting process
solution?
(3) to provide water molecules for hydration
(1) 4 × 10–4 mol/L (2) 2 × 10–4 mol/L process
(3) 16 × 10–16 mol/L (4) 2 × 10–16 mol/L (4) to help to remove water molecules
Answer (2) Answer (1)
56. The potential energy (y) curve for H2 formation 60. Which of the following substituted phenols is
as a function of internuclear distance (x) of the strongest acid?
the H atoms is shown below. OH OH

a (1) (2)

yb CH3 NO 2
OH OH
c
x
The bond energy of H2 is (3) (4)
(1) (c – a) (2) (b – a)
OCH3 C 2H 5
(c – a) (b – a)
(3) (4) Answer (2)
2 2
61. Deficiency of which vitamin causes
Answer (2) osteomalacia?
57. Match the elements in Column I with methods (1) Vitamin E (2) Vitamin A
of purification in Column II.
(3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin K
Column I Column II
Answer (3)
(a) Boron (i) Van Arkel method 62. Which one of the following reactions does not
(b) Tin (ii) Mond's process come under hydrolysis type reaction ?
(c) Zirconium (iii) Liquation (1) P4 O10(s)  6H2 O(I)  4H3PO 4(aq)
(d) Nickel (iv) Zone refining
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) SiCl4(I)  2H2 O(I)  SiO2(s)  4HCl(aq)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3) Li3N(s)  3H2 O(I)  NH3(g)  3LiOH(aq)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (4) 2F2(g)  2H2 O(I)  4HF(aq)  O2(g)
Answer (2) Answer (4)

9
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

63. Which one of the following compounds shows 69. The minimum pressure required to compress
both, Frenkel as well as Schottky defects ? 600 dm3 of a gas at 1 bar to 150 dm3 at 40°C
is
(1) ZnS (2) AgBr
(1) 2.5 bar (2) 4.0 bar
(3) Agl (4) NaCl
(3) 0.2 bar (4) 1.0 bar
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
64. Which of the following is not true about 70. The number of angular nodes and radial
chloramphenicol ? nodes in 3s orbital are
(1) It is bacteriostatic. (1) 0 and 1, respectively
(2) It inhibits the growth of only gram positive (2) 0 and 2, respectively
bacteria. (3) 1 and 0, respectively
(3) It is a broad spectrum antibiotic. (4) 3 and 0, respectively
(4) It is not bactericidal. Answer (2)
71. Which of the following statement is correct
Answer (2)
about Bakelite?
65. The oxidation number of the underlined atom (1) It is a linear polymer
in the following species
(2) It is a cross linked polymer
(1) HAuCl4 is + 3 (3) It is an addition polymer
(2) Cu2O is –1 (4) It is a branched chain polymer
Answer (2)
(3) ClO3– is +5
72. Among the compounds shown below which
(4) K2Cr2O7 is +6 one revealed a linear structure?
Identify the incorrect option. (1) N2O (2) NO2

Answer (2) (3) HOCl (4) O3

Answer (1)
66. Which of the following will NOT undergo SN1
73. The reaction of concentrated sulphuric acid
reaction with OH ? with carbohydrates (C12H22O11) is an example
CH 2Cl of
(1) Sulphonation (2) Dehydration
(1) (2) CH2 = CH – CH2Cl
(3) Oxidation (4) Reduction
CH2CH2 Cl Answer (2)
(3) (CH3)3CCl (4) 74. Which of the following compound is most
reactive in electrophilic aromatic
Answer (4) substitution?
67. Reaction of propanamide with ethanolic OH Cl
sodium hydroxide and bromine will give
(1) Aniline (2) Ethylamine
(1) (2)
(3) Methylamine (4) Propylamine
Answer (2)
NO2
68. In which of the sols, the colloidal particles are
with negative charge?
(1) Hydrated Al2O3 (2) TiO2 (3) (4)
(3) Haemoglobin (4) Starch
Answer (4) Answer (1)

10
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

75. In a typical fuel cell, the reactant (R) and 80. Match the compounds of Xe in column I with
product (P) are the molecular structure in column II.
(1) R = H2(g) · N2(g) : P = NH3(aq) Column I Column II
(2) R = H2(g) · O2(g) : P = H2O2() (a) XeF2 (i) Square planar
(3) R = H2(g) · O2(g) : P = H2O() (b) XeF4 (ii) Linear
(4) R = H2(g) · O2(g) · Cl2(g) : P = HClO4(aq) (c) XeO3 (iii) Square pyramidal
Answer (3) (d) XeOF4 (iv) Pyramidal
76. Identify the wrongly match pair. (1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(iii)
Mo lecu le Shape or geometry (2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iii) (d)-(iv)
of molecule
(3) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(iii) (d)-(i)
(1) NH3 Trigonal pyramidal
(4) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(iv)
(2) PCl5 Trigonal planar
Answer (1)
(3) SF6 Octahedral
81. Which of the following statement is not true
(4) BeCl2 Linear about glucose?
Answer (2) (1) It is an aldopentose.
77. Which of the following statement is NOT true (2) It is an aldohexose.
about acid rain?
(3) It contains five hydroxyl groups.
(1) Its pH is less than 5.6
(4) It is a reducing sugar.
(2) It is due to reaction of SO2, NO2 and CO2
with rain water Answer (1)

(3) Causes no damage to monuments like Taj 82. Identify the correct statement from the
Mahal following.

(4) It is harmful for plants (1) Lithium chloride is deliquescent and

crystallises as a hydrate, LiCIH2O.
Answer (3)
(2) The order of hydration enthalpies of
78. Which of the following is a free radical
substitution reaction? alkaline earth cations

(1) Propene with HBr/(C6H5COO)2 Be2+ < Mg2+ < Ca2+ < Sr2+ < Ba2+

(2) Benzene with Br2/AlCI3 (3) Lithium and Magnesium show some
similarities in their physical properties as
(3) Acetylene with HBr they are diagonally placed in periodic
(4) Methane with Br2/hv table.
Answer (4) (4) Lithium is softer among all alkali metals.

79. If for a certain reaction  r H is 30 kJ mol–1 at Answer (3)

450 K, the value of  r S (in JK –1 mol –1) for 83. Identify the reaction from following having top
which the same reaction will be spontaneous position in EMF series (Std. red. potential)
at the same temperature is according to their electrode potential at 298 K.

(1) –70 (1) K+ + 1e–  K(s)

(2) 70 (2) Mg2+ + 2e–  Mg(s)

(3) –33 (3) Fe2+ + 2e–  Fe(s)

(4) 33 (4) Au3+ + 3e–  Au(s)

Answer (2) Answer (4)

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

84. Which of the following acid will form an (a) (d) The metal which (iv) Zinc
Anhydride on heating and (b) Acid imide on
in +1 oxidation
strong heating with ammonia?
state in aqueous
solution undergoes

(1) (2) disproportionation

Select the correct option :
(1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(i) (b)-(iv) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
(3) (4)
(4) (a)-(iii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii)
Answer (3)

Answer (2) B2H6

88. CH3CH2 CH  CH2 Z . What is
85. One mole of carbon atom weighs 12 g, the H2 O, H2 O2 ,OH–
number of atoms in it is equal to, (Mass of Z?
carbon-12 is 1.9926 × 10–23 g)
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH3
(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 1.2 × 1023
(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(3) 6.022 × 1022 (4) 12 × 1022
Answer (1) (3) CH3CH 2CHCH 3
86. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric in
OH
nature?
(1) CO2 (2) SnO2 (4) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(3) SiO2 (4) GeO2 Answer (2)
Answer (2) 89. Isotonic solutions have same
87. Match the following aspects with the (1) Boiling temperature
respective metal.
(2) Vapour pressure
Aspects Metal
(3) Freezing temperature
(a) The metal which (i) Scandium
reveals a (4) Osmotic pressure

maximum number Answer (4)

of oxidation states 90. How many (i) sp 2 hybridised carbon atoms
(b) The metal (ii) Copper and (ii)  bonds are present in the following
compound?
although placed
in 3d block is
C C COOCH3
considered not
as a transition
(1) 8, 5
element
(c) The metal which (iii) Manganese (2) 7, 5

does not exhibit (3) 8, 6

variable oxidation (4) 7, 6

states Answer (4)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

91. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was 96. Which of the following is the correct floral
proposed by formula of Liliaceae?

(1) Watson and Crick (1) K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)

(2) Sutton and Boveri

(2) % C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1
(3) Bateson and Punnet
(4) T.H. Morgan (3) K(5) C(5) A5 G (2)

Answer (2) (4) Br P(3+3) A3+3 G (3)

92. Which of the following is incorrect about Answer (4)

Cynobacteria?
97. Male and female gametophytes do not have an
(1) They have chlorophyll A similar to green independent free living existence in:
plants (1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes
(2) They are photoautotrophs (3) Algae (4) Angiosperms
(3) They lack heterocysts Answer (4)
(4) They often form blooms in polluted water 98. In the following in each set a conservation
bodies approach and an example of method of
Answer (3) conservation are given
(a) In situ conservation – Biosphere
93. The impact of immigration on population
Reserve
density is
(b) Ex situ conservation – Sacred groves
(1) Positive
(c) In situ conservation – Seed bank
(2) Negative
(d) Ex situ conservation – Cryopreservation
(3) Both positive and negative
Select the option with correct match of
(4) Neutralized by natality approach and method:
Answer (1) (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
94. Which of the following statements is (3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
incorrect? Answer (3)
(1) RuBisCO action requires ATP and NADPH 99. Inhibitory substances in dormant seeds cannot
(2) RuBisCO is a hifunctional enzyme be removed by subjecting seeds to:

(3) In C4 plants, the site of RuBisCO activity is (1) Chilling conditions

mesophyll cell (2) Gibberellic acid
(4) The substrate molecule for RuBisCO (3) Nitrate
activity is a 5-carbon compound
(4) Ascorbic acid
Answer (3) Answer (4)
95. Inclusion bodies of blue-green, purple and 100. In some plants thalamus contributes to fruit
green photosynthetic bacteria are formation. Such fruits are termed as:
(1) Microtubules (1) Parthenocarpic fruit
(2) Contractile vacuoles (2) False fruits
(3) Gas vacuoles (3) Aggregate fruits
(4) Centrioles (4) True fruits
Answer (3) Answer (2)
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

101. The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in: 106. In a mitotic cycle, the correct sequence of
(1) Nucleolus (2) Ribosomes phases is
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Microbodies (1) G1, G2, S, M (2) S, G1, G2, M
Answer (1) (3) G1, S, G2, M (4) M, G1, G2, S,

102. Match the following techniques or instruments Answer (3)

with their usage:
107. Embryological support for evolution was
(a) Bioreactor (i) Separation of DNA proposed by
fragments (1) Alfred Wallace
(b) Electrophoresis (ii) Production of large (2) Ernst Heckel
quantities of
(3) Karl Ernst vol Baer
products
(4) Charles Darwin
(c) PCR (iii) Detection of
pathogen, based on Answer (2)
antigen-antibody
reaction 108. Phycoerythrin is the major pigment in
(1) Brown algae (2) Red algae
(d) ELISA (iv) Amplification of
nucleic acids (3) Blue green algae (4) Green algae
Answer (2)
Select the correct option from following:
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) 109. According to Alexander von Homboldt

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (1) Species richness goes on increasing with
increasing area of exploration
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) Species richness decreases with
increasing area of exploration
Answer (3)
(3) Species richness increases with
103. Large, empty colourless cells of the adaxial increasing area, but only up to limit
epidermis along the veins of grass leaves are
(4) There is no relationship between species
(1) Bulliform cells (2) Lenticels richness and area explored.
(3) Guard cells (4) Bundle sheath cells
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
110. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a
104. In a mixture, DNA fragments are separated by nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of
(1) Polymerase chain reaction
(1) 1 C pentose sugar
(2) Bioprocess engineering
(2) 2 C pentose sugar
(3) Restriction digestion
(3) 3 C pentose sugar
(4) Electrophoresis
(4) 5 C pentose sugar
Answer (4)
Answer (1)
105. Which of the following is incorrect for wind-
pollinated plants? 111. During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, when
(1) Pollen grains are light and non-sticky electrons are lost from the reaction centre at
PS II, what is the source which replaces these
(2) Well exposed stamens and stigma
electrons?
(3) Many ovules in each ovary
(1) Light (2) Oxygen
(4) Flowers are small and not brightly
coloured (3) Water (4) Carbon dioxide
Answer (3) Answer (3)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

112. In Recombinant DNA technology antibiotics 117. The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material
are used was used by
(1) As selectable markers (1) Mendel (2) Franklin

(2) To keep medium bacteria-free (3) Meischer (4) Chargaff

(3) to detect alien DNA Answer (3)

(4) To impart disease-resistance to the host 118. Select the incorrect statement.
plant (1) Elements most easily mobilized in plants
Answer (2) from one region to another are :
phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen and
113. Which of the following statements is potassium
incorrect?
(2) Transport of molecules in phloem can be
(1) Energy content gradually decreases from bidirectional
first to fourth trophic level
(3) Movement of minerals in xylem is
(2) Biomass decreases from first to fourth unidirectional
trophic level
(4) Unloading of sucrose at sink does not
(3) Energy content gradually increases from involve the utilization of ATP
first to fourth trophic level
Answer (4)
(4) Number of individuals decreases from
first trophic level to fourth trophic level 119. The number of contrasting characters studied
by Mendel for his experiments was
Answer (3)
(1) 7 (2) 14
114. Attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores
(3) 4 (4) 2
of chromosomes becomes evident in
Answer (1)
(1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase
120. Vegetative propagule in Agave is termed as
(3) Telophase (4) Prophase
(1) Eye (2) Rhizome
Answer (1)
(3) Bulbil (4) Offset
115. Correct position of floral parts over thalamus
in mustard plant is Answer (3)

(1) Gynoecium is situated in the centre, and 121. Identify the statement which is incorrect.
other parts of the flower are located at (1) Tyrosine possesses aromatic ring in its
the rim of the thalamus, at the same level. structure
(2) Gynoecium occupies the highest position, (2) Sulphur is an integral part of cysteine
while the other parts are situated below
(3) Glycine is an example of lipids
it.
(4) Lecithin contains phosphorus atom in its
(3) Margin of the thalamus grows upward,
structure
enclosing the ovary completely, and other
parts arise below the ovary. Answer (3)
(4) Gynoecium is present in the centre and 122. A species which was introduced for
other parts cover it partially. ornamentation but has become a trouble-
some weed in India :
Answer (2)
(1) Trapa spinosa
116. After about how many years of formation of
earth, life appeared on this planet? (2) Parthenium hysterophorus

(1) 50 billion years (2) 500 billion years (3) Eichhornia crassipex

(3) 50 million years (4) 500 million years (4) Prosopis juliflora

Answer (4) Answer (3)

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

123. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during 127. In Glycine max, the product of biological
aerobic respiration requires : nitrogen fixation is transported from the root
nodules to other parts as
(1) Magnesium (2) Calcium
(1) Ureides (2) Ammonia
(3) Iron (4) Cobalt
(3) Glutamate (4) Nitrates
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
124. Identify the correct features of Mango and
Coconut fruits. 128. Which of the following statements about cork
(i) In both fruit is a drupe cambium is incorrect?

(ii) Endocarp is edible in both (1) It is a couple of layers thick

(iii) Mesocarp in Coconut is fibrous, and in (2) It forms secondary cortex on its outerside
Mango it is fleshy (3) It forms a part of periderm
(iv) In both, fruit develops from (4) It is responsible for the formation of
monocarpellary ovary lenticels
Select the correct option from below : Answer (2)
(1) (i) and (ii) only 129. Match the following
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (a) Aquaporin (i) Amide
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (b) Asparagine (ii) Polysaccharide
(4) (i) and (iv) only (c) Abscisic acid (iii) Polypeptide

Answer (2) (d) Chitin (iv) Carotenoids

125. Match the items in Column I with those in Select the correct option
Column II : (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Column I Column II (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(a) Herbivores-Plants (i) Commensalism (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(b) Mycorrhiza-Plants (ii) Mutualism
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(c) Sheep-Cattle (iii) Predation
Answer (2)
(d) Orchid-Tree (iv) Competition
130. Which of the following statements is incorrect
Select the correct option from following : about gymnosperms?
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (1) Their seeds are not covered
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (2) They are heterosporous
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (3) Male and female gametophytes are free
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) living

Answer (3) (4) Most of them have narrow leaves with

thick cuticle
126. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
was amended in 1987 to include among Answer (3)
pollutants 131. Which of the following elements helps in
(1) Particulates of size 2.5 micrometer or maintaining the structure of ribosomes?
below
(1) Molybdenum
(2) Vehicular exhaust
(2) Magnesium
(3) Allergy causing pollen
(3) Zinc
(4) Noise
(4) Copper
Answer (4) Answer (2)
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

132. Match the following concerning the activity/ 137. Match the following group of organisms with
function and the phytohormone involved. their respective distinctive characteristics and
select the correct option
(a) Fruit ripener (i) Abscisic acid
Organisms Characteristics
(b) Herbicide (ii) GA3
(a) Platyhelminthes (i) Cylindrical body
(c) Bolting agent (iii) 2, 4-D
with no
(d) Stress hormone (iv) Ethephon
segmentation
Select the correct option from following (b) Echinoderms (ii) Warm blooded
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) animals with
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) direct
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) development
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (c) Hemichordates (iii) Bilateral symmetry
Answer (4) with incomplete
133. Who coined the term 'Kinetin'? digestive system
(1) Kurosawa (2) Skoog and Miller (d) Aves (iv) Radial symmetry
(3) Darwin (4) Went with indirect
Answer (2) development
134. Which of the following statements is incorrect (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
regarding the phosphorus cycle? (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(1) It is sedimentary cycle (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) Phosphates are the major form of (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
phosphorus reservoir
Answer (2)
(3) Phosphorus solubilising bacteria facilitate
138. Which is the basis of genetic mapping of human
the release of phosphorus from organic genome as well as DNA finger printing?
remains
(1) Polymorphism in RNA sequence
(4) There is appreciable respiratory release
(2) Polymorphism in DNA sequence
of phosphorus into atmosphere
(3) Single nucleotide polymorphism
Answer (4)
(4) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence
135. First discovered restriction endonuclease
Answer (2)
that always cuts DNA molecule at a particular
point by recognising a specific sequence of 139. The best example for pleiotropy is:
six base pairs is (1) ABO Blood group
(1) Hind II (2) Skin colour
(2) EcoR I (3) Phenylketoneuria
(3) Adenosine deaminase (4) Colour Blindness

(4) Thermostable DNA polymerase Answer (3)

Answer (1) 140. The total Lung Capacity (TLC) is the total
volume of air accomodated in the lungs at the
136. Which of the following is associated with end of a forced inspiration. This includes:
decrease in cardiac output?
(1) RV (Residual Volume);
(1) Adrenal medullary hormones
ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume);
(2) Sympathetic nerves
TV (Tidal Volume); and
(3) Parasympathetic neural signals
IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume)
(4) Pneumotaxic centre
(2) RV; IC (Inspiratory Capacity);
Answer (3)
EC (Expiratory Capacity); and ERV
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

(3) RV; ERV; IC and EC 146. The phenomenon of evolution of different

(4) RV; ERV; VC (Vital Capacity) and FRC species in a given geographical area starting
from a point and spreading to other habitats is
(Functional Residual Capacity)
called
Answer (1)
(1) Adaptive radiation
141. Hormones stored and released from (2) Saltation
neurohypophysis are
(3) Co-evolution
(1) Prolactin and Vasopressin
(4) Natural selection
(2) Thyroid stimulating hormone and Oxytocin
Answer (1)
(3) Oxytocin and Vasopressin
(4) Follicle stimulating hormone and 147. E. Coli has only 4.6 × 106 base pairs and
Leutinizing hormone completes the process of replication within 18
Answer (3) minutes; then the average rate of
polymerisation is approximately
142. According to Central Pollution Control Board (1) 1000 base pairs/second
[CPCB] what size (in diameter) of particulate
is responsible for causing greater harm to (2) 2000 base pairs/second
human health? (3) 3000 base pairs/second
(1) 3.0 micrometers (2) 3.5 micrometers (4) 4000 base pairs/second
(3) 2.5 micrometers (4) 4.0 micrometers Answer (2)
Answer (3)
148. The size of Pleuropneumonia - like organism
143. Cyclosporin A, used as immunosuppression (PPLO) is
agent, is produced from
(1) 0.1 m (2) 0.02 m
(1) Trichoderma polysporum
(3) 1 – 2 m (4) 10 – 20 m
(2) Monascus purpureus
Answer (1)
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
149. Intrinsic factor that helps in the absorption of
(4) Penicillium notatum
vitamin B12 is secreted by
Answer (1)
(1) Chief cells (2) Goblet cells
144. For the commercial and industrial production (3) Hepatic Cells (4) Oxyntic cells
of Citric Acid, which of the following microbes
is used? Answer (4)

(1) Clostridium butylicum 150. Match the following columns with reference to
cockroach and select the correct option:
(2) Aspergillus niger
Column-I Column-II
(3) Lactobacillus sp
(a) Grinding of the (i) Hepatic caecal
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
food particles
Answer (2)
(b) Secrete gastric (ii) 10th segment
145. All vertebrates are chordates but all juice
chordates are not vertebrates, why? (c) 10 pairs (iii) Proventriculus
(1) All chordates possess notochord (d) Anal Cerci (iv) Spiracles
throughout their life.
(v) Alary muscles
(2) Notochord is replaced by vertebral column
in adult of some chordates (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) Ventral hollow nerve cord remains (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
throughout life in some chordates. (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii)
(4) All chordates possess vertebral column. (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

151. The increase in osmolarity from outer to inner 155. A Hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891,
medullary interstitium is maintained due to : now extinct, having cranial capacity of about
(i) Close proximity between Henle's loop and 900 cc was
vasa recta
(1) Australopithecus (2) Homo erectus
(ii) Counter current mechanism
(3) Neanderthal man (4) Homo sapiens
(iii) Selective secretion of HCO3– and hydrogen
ions in PCT Answer (2)
(iv) Higher blood pressure in glomerular
capillaries 156. The protcolytic enzyme rennin is found in :

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) Only (ii) (1) Pancreatic juice (2) Inteatinal juice
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) Bile juice (4) Gastric juice
Answer (1) Answer (4)

152. Select the correct statement : 157. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate correct option :
activates JG cells to release renin.
(2) Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases the Column - I Column - II
blood pressure. (a) Dragonflies (i) Biocontrol agents of
(3) Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator. several plant
(4) Counter current pattern of blood flow is pathogens
not observed in vasa recta. (b) Bacillus (ii) Get rid of Aphids
Answer (1) thuringiensis and mosquitoes

153. Which of the following STDs are not curable? (c) Glomus (iii) Narrow spectrum
(1) Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis B insecticidal
applications
(2) Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection
(3) Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts (d) Baculoviruses (iv) Biocontrol agents of
lepidoteran plant
(4) HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis
pests
Answer (2)
(v) Absorb phosphorus
154. Match the following columns and select the from soil
correct option :
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), c-(v), (d)-(iii)
Column-I Column-II
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), c-(iv), (d)-(i)
(a) Smooth (i) Protein synthesis
endoplasmic (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), c-(iii), (d)-(iv)
reticulum
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), c-(iv), (d)-(v)
(b) Rough (ii) Lipid synthesis
endoplasmic Answer (1)
reticulum
158. Select the incorrectly matched pair from
(c) Golgi complex (iii) Glycosylation
following :
(d) Centriole (iv) Spindle formation
(1) Ostcocytes - Bone cells
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) Chondrocytes - Smooth muscle cells
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) Neurons - Nerve cells
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (4) Fibroblast - Areolar tissue

Answer (2) Answer (2)

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159. The yellowish fluid "colostrum" secreted by 164. Match the following columns and select the
mammary glands of mother during the initial
correct option :
days of lactation has abundant antibodies
(lgA) to protect the infant. This type of Column-I Column-II
immunity is called as :
(a) Ovary (i) Human chorionic
(1) Autoimmunity (2) Passive immunity
Gonadotropin
(3) Active immunity (4) Acquired immunity
Answer (2) (b) Placenta (ii) Estrogen &
Progesterone
160. Select the correct option of haploid cells from
the following groups: (c) Corpus (iii) Androgens
(1) Primary spermatocyle, Secondary
luteum
spermatocyte, Second polar body
(2) Primary oocyte, Secondary oocyte, (d) Leydig cells (iv) Progesterone only
Spermatid (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) Secondary spermatocyte, First polar
body, Ovum (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(4) Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte, (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Spermatid
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
161. During Meiosis I, in which stage synapsis
takes place? 165. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Leptotene (2) Pachytene correct option :
(3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene
Column-I Column-II
Answer (3)
(a) Pituitary hormone (i) Steroid
162. Select the correct statement from the
following (b) Epinephrine (ii) Neuropeptides
(1) PCR is used for isolation and separation
(c) Endorphins (iii) Peptides, proteins
of gene of interest
(2) Gel electrophoresis is used for (d) Cortisol (iv) Biogenic amines
amplification of a DNA segment (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) The polymerase enzyme joins the gene of
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
interest and the vector DNA
(4) Restriction enzyme digestions are (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
performed by incubating purified DNA
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
molecules with the restriction enzymes of
optimum conditions Answer (3)
Answer (4)
166. The laws and rules to prevent unauthorised
163. Spooling is
exploitation of bio-resources are termed as -
(1) Collection of isolated DNA
(1) Biopiracy
(2) Amplification of DNA
(3) Cutting of separated DNA bands from the (2) Biopatenting
agarose gel (3) Bioethics
(4) Transfer of separated DNA fragments to
(4) Bioengineering
synthetic membranes
Answer (1) Answer (3)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

167. Match the following column and select the 171. In Human beings, at the end of 12 weeks(first
correct option : trimester) of pregnancy, the following is
Column - I Column - II observed :

(i) Typhoid (a) Haemophilus (1) Movement of the foetus

influenzae (2) Eyelids and eyelashes are formed

(ii) Malaria (b) Wuchereria (3) Most of the major organ systems are
bancrofti formed
(iii) Pneumonia (c) Plasmodiam vivax (4) The head is covered with fine hair
(iv) Filariasis (d) Salmonella typhi Answer (3)
(1) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c) 172. Progestogens alone or in combination with
(2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b) estrogens can be used as a contraceptive in
(3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a) the form of

(4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) (1) Pills only

Answer (2) (2) Implants only

168. RNA interference is used for which of the (3) Injections only
following purposes in the field of (4) Pills, injections and implants
biotechnology?
Answer (4)
(1) to reduce post harvest losses
173. Which of the following options does correctly
(2) to develop a plant tolerant to abiotic
represent the characteristic features of
stresses
phylum Annelida?
(3) to develop a pest resistant plant against
(1) Diploblastic, mostly marine and radially
infestation by nematode
symmetrical.
(4) to enchance the mineral usage by the
(2) Triploblastic, unsegmented body and
plant
bilaterally symmetrical.
Answer (3)
(3) Triploblastic, segmented body and
169. The rate of decomposition is faster in the
bilaterally symmetrical.
ecosystem due to following factors EXCEPT :
(4) Triploblastic, flattened body and
(1) Detritus richer in lignin and chitin
acoelomate condition.
(2) Detritus rich in sugars
Answer (3)
(3) Warm and moist environment
174. Inbreeding depression is
(4) Presence of aerobic soil microbes
(1) Reduced fertility and productivity due to
Answer (1)
continued close inbreeding
170. Which of the following conditions cause
(2) Reduced motility and immunity due to
erythroblastosis foetalis?
close inbreeding
(1) Both mother and foetus Rh+ve
(3) Decreased productivity due to mating of
(2) Mother Rh+ve and foetus Rh–ve superior male and inferior female
(3) Mother Rh–ve and foetus Rh+ve (4) Decrease in body mass of progeny due to
(4) Both mother and foetus Rh–ve continued close inbreeding
Answer (3) Answer (1)

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-W2)

175. Match the following columns and select the (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
correct option : (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Column - I Column - II (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
(a) Rods and Cones (i) Absence of (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
photoreceptor cells
Answer (3)
(b) Blind Spot (ii) Cones are densely
packed 178. Match the following columns and select the
correct option :
(c) Fovea (iii) Photoreceptor
Column-I Column-II
cells
(a) Aptenodytes (i) Flying fox
(d) Iris (iv) Visible coloured
portion of the eye (b) Pteropus (ii) Angel fish
(c) Pterophyllum (iii) Lamprey
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(d) Petromyzon (iv) Penguin
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Answer (2)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
176. Match the following columns and select the
correct option : Answer (4)
Column-I Column - II 179. In cocroach, identify the parts of the oregut in
(a) Pneumotaxic (i) Alveoli correct sequence :

Centre (1) Mouth  Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop

Gizzard
(b) O2 Dissociation (ii) Pons region of brain
(2) Mouth  Oesophagus Pharynx  Crop
curve brain
Gizzard
(c) Carbonic (iii) Haemoglobin
(3) Mouth Crop Pharynx  Oesophagus
Anhydrase  Gizzard
(d) Primary site (iv) R.B.C. (4) Mouth  Gizzard Crop Pharynx 
of exchange Oesophagus
of gases Answer (1)
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) 180. Match the following events that occur in their
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) respective phases of cell cycle and select the
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) correct option :
(a) G1 phase (i) Cell grows and
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
organelle
Answer (3) duplication
177. Match the following columns and select the (b) S phase (ii) DNA replication
correct option :
and chromosome
Column - I Column - II duplication
(a) Gout (i) Decreased levels of (c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth
estrogen
(d) Metaphase in (iv) Alignment of
(b) Osteoportosis (ii) Low Ca++ ions in the M-phase chromosomes
blood
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(c) Tetany (iii) Accumulation of
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
uric acid crystals
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(d) Muscular (iv) Auto immune
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
dystrophy disorder
Answer (1)
(v) Genetic disorder
  

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