QandA-RT RT STUDY QUESTIONS, 1. Although there may be other reasons for using calcium tungstate screens in industrial radiography, they are most usually used to: (A) improve contrast in radiographic images. (B) improve definition and resolution in radiographic images. (©) make films respond to multimillion volt radiation, (D) decrease exposure time. 2. An excellent radiograph is obtained under given conditions of exposure with the film located at a distance of 36 inches from the target of the X-ray tube. If the film is now placed only 18 inches from the target, and all exposure conditions except time are held constant, the new exposure time will be: (A) longer by approximately 80 percent. () only about 25 percent as long as the original exposure time, (C) shorter by approximately 55 percent. (D) unchanged. 3. An excellent radiograph is obtained under given exposure conditions with a tube current of S milliamperes and an exposure time of 12 minutes. If other conditions are not changed, what exposure time would be required if the X-ray tube current could be raised to 10 milliamperes? (A) 6 minutes (B) 3 minutes (©) 24 minutes (D) 12 minutes 4, In film radiography, penetrameters are usually placed: (A) on the source side of the test object. (B) between the intensifying screen and the film. (©) between the operator and the radiation source, (D) on the film side of the test object.Qand A- RT 5. When radiographing to the 2-2T quality level, an ASTM penetrameter for 1/2-inch thick 2024 aluminum alloy has a thickness of: (A) 12 inch, (B)2 mils. © Sails. (D) 10 mils. 6. The penetrating ability of an X-ray beam is governed by: (A) time. (B) source-to-film distance. (C) milliamperage. (D) kilovoltage or wavelength. 7. Cobalt-60 used in nondestructive testing emit (A) neutrons, (B) alpha particles (© Xtays. (D) gamma rays, 8. A densitometer is: (A) ameter used to meanure the density of a material (B) a meter used to measure tube current. (C) ameter used to measure X-ray intensity. (D) an instrument for measuring film density. 9. Three liquids which are essential to process an exposed film properly are: (A) developer, stop bath and water. (B) stop bath, acetic acid and water. (©) acetic acid, fixer and stop bath. (D) developer, fixer and water. 10. The two most common causes for excessively high-density radiographs are: (A) insufficient washing and overdevelopment. (B) contaminated fixer and insufficient washing. (©) overexposure and contaminated fixer. (D) overexposure and overdevelopment.Qand A-RT 11. The time required for one-half of the atoms in a particular sample of radioactive material to disintegrate is called: (A) acurie {B) the inverse square law. (© the exposure time. (D) a half-life. 12, What does the term R/hr refer to when speaking of intensity? (A) Roentgens per hour (B) Radiation limits for humans (© Radiation in hydrogen (D) X rays per hour 13, The ability to detect a small discontinuity or flaw is called: (A) radiographic density. (B) radiographic resolution (©) radiographic contrast. (D) radiographic sensitivity. 14, Movement, geometry and screen contact are three factors that affect radiographic: (A) unsharpness, (B) contrast. (©) density. (D) reticulation, 15. The difference between the densities of two areas of a radiograph is called: (A) subject contrast. (B) radiographic contrast. (©) definition. (D) film contrast 16. Upon completing an X-ray exposure and turning the equipment off: (A) personnel should wait for a few minutes before entering the exposure area. (B) perconnel should wear a lead-lined apron before entering the exposure area. (O personnel should enter the exposure area without fear of radiation exposure. (D) personnel should take a reading with a survey meter before entering the exposure area.Qand A- RT 17, The most widely used unit of measurement for measuring the rate at which the output of a gamma-ray source decays is the: (A) roentgen. (B) curie. (©mev. (D) halflife. 18, Exposure to X rays or gamma rays: (A) will be beneficial since they build up an immunity to radiation poisoning. (B) will have only a short-term effect on human tissues. (©) will have no effect on human beings. (D) may have a cumulative effect which must be considered when monitoring for maximum permissible dose. 19. Which dose would be dangerous, if not fatal, if applied to the entire body in a short period of time? (A) 1.5t0 ISR (B) 25 t070R (©) 200 to 800R (D) Alll of the above doses would most likely be fatal 20. When doing gamma-ray radiography with high-intensity emitters, the sources are best handled: (A) by remote hanating equipment. (B) by the same methods used for low-intensity emitters. (© directly by personnel with special protective clothing except when radiographs are being made. (D) directly by personnel equipped with special protective clothing. 21. Ifa film is placed in a developer solution and allowed to develop without any agitation: (A) the radiograph will not show proper contrast. (B) it will be impossible to fix the radiograph permanently. (©) there will be a general "fogging" condition over the entire radiograph, (D) there will be a tendency for each area of the film to affect the development of the areas immediately below itQand A-RT 22, The selection of the proper type of film to be used for the X-ray examination of a particular part depends on: (A) the thickness of the part (B) the material of the specimen. (C) the voltage range of the available X-ray machine. (D) all three of the above factors. 23. When radiographing a part which contains a large rack, the crack will appear on the radiograph as: (A) a dark, intermittent or continuous line. (B)a light, irregular line. (C) either a dark or light line (D) a fogged area on the radiograph. 24, A cobalt-60 source has a half-life of: (A) 6 months. {B) 1.2 years. (©) 75 days. (D) 533 years. 25, X-ray tube current is controlled by: (A) the current passing through me Mament. (B) the distance from the cathode to the anode. (©) the type of material used in the target. (D) the voltage and waveform applied to the X-ray tube, 26, The voltage and waveform applied to the X-ray tube by a high-voltage transformer primarily determines the: (A) penetrating ability (B) X-ray beam divergence. (© quantity of radiation (D) duration of exposure.Qand A- RT 27. Lead foil in direct contact with X-ray film: (A) decreases the contrast of the radiographic image. (B) intensifies the scatter radiation more than the primary radiation, (C) should not be used when gamma rays are emitted by the source of radiation. (D) intensifies the primary radiation more than the scatter radiation. 28. Fluorescent intensifying sereens are usually mounted in pairs in rigid holders called: (A) film racks, (B) cassettes. (©) emulsifiers. (D) diaphragms. 29, Radiographic sensitivity, in the context of the minimum detectable flaw size, depends on: (A) graininess of the film. (B) the unsharpness of the flaw image in the film, (O the contrast ofthe flaw image on the film (D) all three of the above. 30. In order to decrease geometric unsharpness: (A) radiation should proceed from as large a focal spot as other considerations will allow. (B) the distance from the anode to the material examined should be as small as is practical. (C) the film should be as far as possible from the object being radiographed, (D) radiation should proceed from as small a focal point as other considerations will allow. 31. As the kilovoltage applied to the X-ray tube is raised: (A) X rays of shorter wavelength and more penetrating power are produced. (B) X rays of longer wavelength and less penetrating power are produced. (©) X rays of shorter wavelength and less penetrating power are produced. (D) X rays of longer wavelength and more penetrating power are produced. 32. In order to increase the intensity of X-radiation: (A) the tube current should be increased. (B) the tube current should be decreased. (C) the test specimen should be moved further from the film, (D) a lower kilovoltage shouold be applied to the tube.Q and A- RT 33. Primary radiation which strikes a film holder or cassette through a thin portion of the specimen will ‘cause scattering into the shadows of the adjacent thicker portions producing an effect called: (A) spotting (B) radiation imaging (C) unsharpness, (D) undercut. 34, Scattered radiation caused by any material, such as a wall or floor, on the film side of the specimen is referred to as: (A) undercut (B) backscattered radiation. (O reflected scattering. (D) primary scattering 38. Which of the following materials is suitable for use in vessels or pails used to processing solutions? (A) Galvanized iron (B)Tin (© Stainless steel (D) Aluminum 36, Any of the body tissues may be i sensitive are: jured by excessive exposure to X or gamma rays but particularly (A) blood {B) lens of the eye (C) internal organs (D) all of the above 37. A general rule used to define the amount of radiation exposure that is excessive is: (A) any dose which causes a mid-range reading on a Geiger counter is escessive. {B) any unnecessary exposure to radiation is excessive. (©) although small amounts of radiation (0.4 R per week or less) are beneficial since they build up an immunity to these rays, anything above 0.4 R per week is excessive. (D) any dose over 5 R per week is excessive.Qand A-RT 38. X-ray exposure may be due to: (A) the direct beam from the X-ray tube target. (B) scatter radiation arising from objects in the direct beam. (©) both A and B above. (D) both A and B above plus residual radiation that exists for the first few minutes after the X-ray machine has been returned to the "off" position. 39. A general rule often employed for determi ing the kilovoltage to be used when X-raying a part i (A) the kilovoltage should be as high as other factors will permit. (B) the kilovoltage should be as low as other factors will permit. (© the kilovoltage is always a fixed value and cannot be changed, (D) the kilovoltage is not an important variable and can be changed over a wide range without affecting the radiograph. 40. If a piece of lead 1/2-inch thick is placed in the path of a beam of radiation emanating from cobalt-60, it will reduce the dose rate at a given location by: (A) one-quarter. (B) one-third (© three-quarters. (D) one-hal. 41, Excessive exposure of tm 10 1 ht prior to development of the film will most likely result in: (A) streaks. (B) yellow stain, (C) a foggy film, (D) poor definition. 42. White crescent-shaped marks on an exposed X-ray film are most likely caused by: (A) crimping film before exposure. (B) crimping film after exposure. (C) warm or exhausted fixer. (D) sudden extreme temperature change while processing,QandA-RT 43, Reticulation resulting in a puckered or netlike film surface is probably caused by (A) water or developer on unprocessed film. (B) excessive object-to-film distance. (©) crimping film afer exposure (D) sudden extreme temperature change while processing, 44, Frilling or loosening of the emulsion from the base of the film is most likely caused by: (A) water or developer on unprocessed film. {B) low temperature of processing solutions. (C) developer solution contamination. (D) warm or exhausted fixer solution, 45. [fan exposure time of 60 seconds was necessary using a 4-foot source-to-film distance for a particular exposure, what time would be necessary if a 2-foot source-to-film distance is used and all other variables remain the same? (A) 120 seconds (B) 30 seconds (C) 15 seconds (D) 240 seconds 46. One of the general rules concerning the application of geometric principles of shadow formation to radiography is: (A) the X rays should proceed from as large a focal spot as other considerations will allow. (D) the film should be as far as possible fiom the object being 1adivgtaplied. (©) the distance between the anode and the material examined should always be as great as possible (D) all three of the above are correct. 47. As a check on the adequacy of the radiographic technique, itis customary to place a standard test piece on the source side of the specimen. ‘This standard test piece is called a: (A) penetrameter. (B) illuminator. (C) reference plate. (D) lead screen,Qand A - RT 48, The duration of an exposure is usually controlled by: (A) controlling the milliamperage. (B) atimer. (C) controlling the source-to-film distance. (D)a choke coil in the filament transformer. 49, A penetrameter is used to indicate: (A) the amount of film contrast. (B) the quality of the radiographic technique. (C) the size of discontinuities in a part. {D) the density of the film. 50. A fluorescent intensifying screen will: (A) transform X-ray energy into visible or ultraviolet light to which a photographic emulsion is sensitive, (B) result in reticulation. (C) decrease the graininess of the image when using gamma rays. (D) increase the definition in a radiograph. 51. The three main steps in processing a radiograph are: (A) developing, fixation, and washing (B) developing, filling, and fixation, (©) developing, reticulating, an fixation. (D) exposure, developing, and fixation. 52, Lead foil screens are used in radiography: (A) to improve the quality of the radiograph by preferentially reducing the effect of scatter radiation. (B) to reduce the exposure time. (C) both A and B are reasons for using lead foil screens. (D) neither A nor B are reasons for using lead foil screens. 53. Kilovoltage exposure time, and source-to-film distance are three of the most important X-ray exposure factors that can be controlled. A fourth such exposure factor (A) filament-to-focal spot distance. (B) milliamperage. (© focal point size. (D) temperature,Qand A- RT 54, When the minute silver grains on which the X-ray film image is formed together in relatively large ‘masses, they produce a visual impression called: (A) reticulation, (B) filling (C)air bells {D) graininess. 55, To prevent excessive backscatter from reaching a radiographic film, one should: (A) back the exposure holder with a thick sheet of lead (at least 1/2 inch), (B) place a filter in the X-ray or gamma ray beam near the source or X-ray tube, (C) back the cassette with a sheet of lead, the thickness needed depending on the radiation quality. (D) place a mask between the specimen and the front surface of the film. 56, Static marks, which are black tree-like or ci ‘ular marks om a radiograph, are often caused by: (A) scratches on lead foil screens, (B) improper film handling techniques. (©) film being bent when inserted in a cassette or holder. (D) foreign material or dirt imbedded in screens, 57. The purpose of agitating an X-ray film during development is to: (A) disperse unexposed silver grains on the film surface. (B) prevent reticulation. (C) protect the film from excessive pressure. (D) renew the developer at the surface of the film, 58. When manually processing films, the purpose for sharply tapping hangers two or three times after the films have been lowered into the developer is to: (A) disperse unexposed silver grains on the film surface. {B) prevent filling (©) dislodge any air bubbles clinging to emulsion. (D) all of the above.Qand A-RT 59. The activity of the developer solution is maintai (A) avoiding contamination from the wash bath, (B) addition of replenisher. (©) constant agitation. (D) maintaining processing solutions within the recommended temperature range. 60. he purpose of fixation is: (A) to remove all the undeveloped silver salts ofthe emulsion. (B) to leave the developed silver as a permanent image. (©) to harden the gelatin (D) all of the above. 61, For best results when manually processing film, solutions should be maintained within a temperature range of: (A) 65 degrees C and 75 degrees C. (B) 65 degrees F and 75 degrees F. (C) 75 degrees C and 85 degrees C. (D) 75 degrees F and 85 degrees F. 62, Water spots on films ean be mini ized by: (A) immersing wet film for one oF v9 tines in a werting agent solution (B) by cascading water during the rinse cycle. (©) by using a fresh fixer solution. (D) rapid drying of wet film, 63. The small area in the X-ray tube from wl h the radiation emanates is called the: (A) focusing cup. (B) cathode. (©) diaphragm, (D) focal spot. 64. Unwanted inclusions in a part will appear on a radiograph as: (A) a light spot. (B) a dark spot. (C) either a dark or light spot or atea depending on the relative absorption ratio of the part material and the inclusion material, (D) a generalized gray area of varying contrastQand A-RT 65. The radiation quality of a gamma-ray source is: (A) determined by the isotope involved (B) is greater in iridium-192 than in cobalt-60. (©) can be varied by the operator. (D) determined by the size of the focal spot. 66. The most common material used to provide protection agai (A) an alloy of 70 percent steel and 30 percent copper. (B) high density brick. (C) lead. (D) tungsten, 67. A curie is the equivalent of: (A) 1,000 millicuries. (B) 0.001 millicusies, (C) 100 megacuries, (D) 1,000 megac 68. With a given exposure time and kilovoltage, a properly exposed radiograph is obtained with a 6 milliamp: (A) 12 milliamperes-minutes. (B) 24 milliamperes-minutes, {C)3 milliamperes-minutes. (D) 1.7 milliamperes-mimutes. 69. Very short wavelength electromagnetic radiation produced when electrons travelling at high speeds collide with matter is called: (A) X-radiation, (B) beta radiation. (C) gamma radiation. (D) none of the above. 70. The exposure of personnel to X- and gamma radiation can be measured or monitored by means of: (A) film badges. (B) dosimeters (C) radiation exposure survey meters (D) all of the above.QandA-RT 71, Assuming that a good radiograph is obtained at a setting of 10 milliamperes in 40 seconds, how much will be necessary to obtain one equivalent radiograph if the milliamperage is changed to 5 milliamperes (all other conditions remain constant)? (A) 20 seconds () 10 seconds (C) 80 seconds (D) 160 seconds 72. A graph showing the relation between material thickness, kilovoltage, and exposure is called: (A) a bar chart, (B) an exposure chart or technique chart, (C) a characteristic curve (D) an H & Dcurve, 73. A graph which expresses the relationship between the logarithm of the exposure applied to a photographic material and the resulting photographic density is called: (A) an exposure chart (B) a bar chart. (C) a logarithmic chart. (D) the characteristic curve. 74, Short wavelength electromagnetic radiation produced during the disintegration of nuclei of radioactive substances is ealled: (A) gamma radiation. (B) backscatter radiation. (C) scatter radiation. (D) X-radiation. 75. A photographic image recorded by the passage of X or gamma rays through a specimen onto a film is called a: (A) fluoroscopic image. (B) radiograph. (C) isotopic reproduction. (D) none of the above.Qand A-RT 76. The normal development time for manually processing X-ray film is: (A) 3 to 8 minutes in processing solutions at 60 degrees F. (B) 12 to 18 minutes in processing solutions at 75 degrees F. (C) 5 to 8 minutes in processing solutions at 68 degrees F. {D) 12 to 18 minutes in processing solutions at 68 degrees C. 77. In order to achieve uniformity of development over the area of an X-ray film during manual processing: (A) the developer should be agitated by means of mechanical stirrers or circulating pumps. (B) the film should be transferred directly from the developer to the fixer. (O) the film should be agitated while in the developer. (D) the film should be placed in a dryer after being developed. 78. When referring to a "2" or "4T" hole in the ASTM penetrameter, the T refers to: (A) the penetrameter thickness, (B) the time for developing. (C) the time of exposure, (D) the part thickness 79. A sheet of lead with an opening cut in the shape of the part to be radiographed may be used to decrease the effect of seattered radiation which undercuts the specimens. Such a device is called: (A) a filter. (B) a mask, (C)allead foil screen, (D) a backscatter absorber. 80. Two X-ray machines operating at the same nominal kilvoltage and milliamperage settings: (A) will produce the same intensities and qualities of radiation. (B) will produce the same intensities but may produce different qualities of radiation. (© will produce the same qualities but may produce different intensities of radiation (D) may give not only different intensities but also different qualities of radiation, 81. Fluoroscopy differs from radiography in that: (A) fluoroscopy is much more sensitive than radiography. (B) fluoroscopy uses a much lower kilovoltage than radiography. (C) fluoroscopy permits examination of thicker parts than does radiography. (D) the X-ray image is observed visually on a fluorescent screen rather than recorded on a film.Qand A-RT 82, An advantage of the pocket dosimeter type of ionization chamber used to monitor radiation received by personnel is: (A) it provides a permanent record of accumulated dosage. (B) it provides an immediate indication of dosage. (C) itis the most sensitive detector available. (D) all of the above are advantages. 83. The di ity difference between two selected port (A) unsharpnes (B) radiographic contrast. (C) specific activity (D) subject density 84. One requirement for keeping fluorescent screens in good condition is that they must: (A) be mounted in a rigid container at all times. (B) not be exposed to caustic fumes (C) be cleaned with a lint-free cloth each time they are used, (D) not be exposed to intense ultraviolet radiation, 85. In making an isotope exposure in an unshielded area, you find the dose rate 6 feet from the source is, 1200 mB/hr. What would be the dose rate at 24 feet? (A) 75 mRVhr (B) 100 mR/hr (©) 200 mR/ir (D) 300 mir 86. Phe intensity of X- or gamma radiation is measured in: (A) ergs. (B) roentgens. (C)H& Damits (D) roentgens per unit of time.Qand A-RT 87. When producing radiographs, if the kilovoltage is sreased: (A) the subject contrast decreases, (B) the film contrast decreases. (O the subject contrast increases. (D) the film contrast increases. 88. The accidental movement of the specimen or film during exposure or the use of a focus-film distance that is too small will: (A) result in unsharpness of the radiograph, (B) result in a fogged radiograph. (©) produce a radiograph with poor contrast. (D) make it impossible to detect large discontinuities. 89. A properly exposed radiograph that is developed in a developer solution at a temperature of 58 degrees F for 5 minutes will probably be: (A) underdeveloped. (B) overdeveloped. (©) damaged by filling, (D) fogged. 90. A good radiograph is obtained using a milliamperage of 15 milliamperes and an exposure time of 1/2 minute, What exposure time will be necessary to produce an equivalent radiograph if the milliamperage is, changed to 5 milliamperes and all other conditions remain the same? (A) 112 minutes (B) 4 12 minutes (©) 1/6 minute (D) 3 minutes 91. Lead sereens in contact with the film during exposure: (A) increase the photographie action on the film largely by reason of the electron emission and partly by the secondary X rays generated in the lead, (B) absorb the shorter wavelength scattered radiation more than the long wavelength primary radiation. (C) intensify the photographic effect of the scatter radiation more than that of the primary radiation (D) none of the above.QandA- RT 92. The sharpness of the outline in the image of the radiograph is a measure of: (A) radiographic definition. {B) film contrast. (©) radiographic contrast. (D) subject contrast 93. An unshielded isotope source gives a dosage rate of 900 mR per hour at 10 feet. What would the unshielded dosage rate be at 30 feet? (A) 300 mBvhr (B) 600 mRvhr (C) 100 mR/hr (D) 2700 mR/he 94, Which has the shortest wavelengths? (A) 100 kilovolt peak X rays (B) Infrared radiation (© Visible light (D) Microwaves 95, Beta particles are: (A) neutrons. (B) protons. (C) electrons (D) positrons. 96. A radioactive source with an activity of one curie has: (A) 1,000 disintegrations per second taking place. (B) 1,000,000 disintegrations per second taking place. (C) 1,000,000,000 disintegrations per second taking place. (D) 3.7 X 10 10? disintegrations per second taking place, 97. The formula for determining permissible accumulated personnel dose i (A) 12 (N-18). (B) 188 +N), (C)5(N- 18) {D) 12 (N #18).Q and A-RT 98. The metal that forms the image on an X-ray film is: (A) silver, (B) iron. (©) tungsten. (D) tin. 99, Unexposed boxes of X-ray film should be stored: (A) on edge or end, (B) flat (C) it doesn't matter. {D) ina pile. 100, The lead symbol "B" is attached to the back of the film holder to determine: (A) sensitivity (B) whether excessive backscatter is present (©) radiographic contrast. (D) density. 101. Penetrameters for —— are considered Group 1 Materials and need not have an identification noteh, (A) Inconel (B) Nickel (O) Stainless Steet (D) Aluminum bronze 102. The purpose of a dated deeay eurve is to: (A) calculate shielding requirements. (B) mark the date and length of time for each exposure. (C) determine the source strength (activity) at any time. (D) determine the source size at any time. 103. Why is cobalt-60 used as a radiation source for medium-weight metals of thickness ranges from 1.5 to 9 inches? (A) Because of its short half-life (B) Limited amount of shiclding required (C) Because of its penetrating ability (D) None of the above.Qand A - RT 104, The cause for poor image definition could be: (A) too short source-to-film distance. (B) screens and film not in close contact. (C) film graininess. (D)all of the above. 105. During manual film processing, the purpose of the stop bath is to: (A) change the exposed silver salts to black metallic silver. (B) neutralize the developer and stop the developing process. (C) eliminate most water spots and streaks. (D) none of the above. 106, A thin metallic sheet (brass, copper, aluminum, ete.) placed at the source to reduce effects of softer radiation is known as: (A) an electron inducer. (B) a focusing cup. (©) an intensifying screen. (D) a filter. 107. The reason a "shim" is used in radiographic setup is (A) reduce diffraction. (B) improve the penetrameter image. (C) intensify the image. (D) simulate weld reinforcement 108, The focal spot size of an X-ray machine must be known in order to determine: (A) milliamperage settings. (B) exposure time. (©) the geometric unsharpness value. (D) kilovolt peak output.QandA-RT 109. A section with a significant increase in thickness variation is required to be shown on a single radiograph within a desired film density range. This may be accomplished by: (A) increasing kilovoltage, (B) using a coarser grain film. (C) both A and B are correct. (D) neither A nor B is correct. 110. The density of a radiograph image refers to: (A) the thickness of the film. (B) the thickness of the specimen, (©) the weight of the film (D) the degree of film blackening. 111. A beam of radiation consisting of a single wavelength is known as: (A) fluoroscopic radiation, (B) microscopic radiation. (C) monochromatic radiation. (D) characteristic radiation, 112, The image of the required penetrameter and hole on the radiograph indicates that the radiograph has the requir (A) definition. {B) contrast. (©) latitude, (D) sensitivity 113. The primary parts of an atom are: (A) photon, electron, neutron. (B) proton, electron, neutron. (C) proton, nutrino, electron. (D) proton, electron, gamma ray.Qand A-RT 114, X rays and gamma rays always travel: (A) in pairs. (B) orbital spheres, (C) straight lines. (D) none of the above. 115, A large source size can be compensated for by: (A) addition of lead screens (B) increasing the source-to-specimen distance. (C) increasing penumbra, (D) increasing the specimen-to-film distance. 116, Radiation arising directly from the target of an X-ray tube or an accelerator, or from a radioactive souree, is usually referred to a (A) secondary radiation. (B) primary radiation (©) backscatter. (D) inherent rediation, 117. The extent to which X rays can be suecessfully utilized in nondestructive testing upon: largely dependent (A) the intensity of the X rays generated. (B) their wavelengths (C) the dimensions of the area from which they are emitted. (D) the duration of their emission (B) all of the above. 118. To produce X rays, electrons are accelerated to a high velocity by an electrical field and then suddenly stopped by a collision with a solid body. The body is called: (A) cathode. (B) filament (C) target. {D) generator.Q and A- RT 119, The best X-ray efficiency is produced when the target material has: (A) a low atomic number. (B) a high atomic number. (C)a low hardness, (D)ahigh hardness, 120, What is sometimes used to change the alternating current from the high voltage transformer to direet currect for the purpose of increasing the X-ray machine output? (A) Rectifier (B) Cathode X-ray tubes (©) Gas X-ray tube (D) Vacuum X-ray tube 121. In a fluoroscopic inspection system using a 15-inch source-to-material distance and 2-inch, material-to-sereen distance, transverse vibration of which item will cause the most image blurring? (A) Source vibration (B) Sercen vibration (C) Material vibration (D) Equal effects 122. If a fluorescent screen is accidentally exposed to unattenuated X rays, which of the following occurs? (A) Screen blackens due to overexposure (B) Intense heat generated in the screen will permanently destroy the screen crystals, (C) Screen sensitivity and light level will be permanently reduced (D) The screen is essentially undamaged of the following is an advantage of a fluoroscopic system when compared to a radiograph (A) Live image presentation for immediate viewing (B) Screens do not absorb scattered radiation so the image density is enhanced (C) The equipment is normally not portable (D) Scteen sysems exhibit superior sensitivity and resolution to filmsQandA-RT 124, A fluoroscopic installation utilizing fluorescent sereen requi (A) a sereen support with lead foil screens to control scatter (B) lead glass, mirrors, or other means for transmitting the fluorescent image without subjecting the operator to X-radiation. (©) both of the above. (D) neither of the above. 125. In performing fluoroscopic examination of a part, it is important to control: (A) geometry. (B) scatter radiation. (©) source kilovoltage and milliamperage. (D) al of the above. 126. In X-radiography, the ability to penetrate the test object is governed by (A) time, (B) milliamperage. (©) kilovoltage, (D) source-to-film distance. 127. Which of the following types of radiation is emitted by cobalt-60 and used in nondestructive testing? (A) X rays (B) Alpha particles (C) Neutrons (D) Gamma rays 128. The term used to describe the loss of excess energy by the nucleus of radioactive atoms is called: (A) ionization. (B) decay (disintegration), (C) activation. (D) scintillation. 129. X rays, gamma rays, and alpha particles all have one thing in common - they are all: (A) microwave radiations. (B) ionizing radiations. (©) particulate radiations, (D) electromagnetic radiations.Q and A-RT 130. The term used to express the number of curies of radioacti per gram or ounce of source weight is: (A) decay. (B) emissivity. (O) specific activity. (D) source output. 131, Atoms, molecules, and various subatomic particles which carry either a positi charge are called: (A) ions. (B) compounds, (©) photoelectrons (D) photons. 132, Gamma and X-radiation interact with matter and may be absorbed by: (A) photoelectric absorption. (B) Compton scattering, (© pair production. (D)all of the above. 133. Approximately what percent of the original radioactivity is left after six half-lives? (A) 0.005 (B) 10 (333 (D)2 134, The velocity of all electromagnetic radiation is: (A) 18,600 miles per second, (B) 186,000 miles per second. (C) 1,860 miles per second. (D) 186,000 miles per second. 135. The ra (A) increases with time. (B) decreases with time. (C) is not affected as time elapses. {D) none of the above.Qand A-RT 136. Low voltage X-ray tubes are generally fitted with windows made of: (A) beryllium. (B) lead (C) glass. {D) plastic. 137. A monochromatic X-ray bea (A) is a beam containing only characteristic X-radiation (B) is a beam consisting of a single wavelength. (©) is a narrow beam used to produce high-contrast radiographs, (D) is also referred to as a heterogeneous X-ray beam. 138. The general method of producing X-rays involves the sudden deceleration of high velocity electrons in a solid body called a: (A) focus cup. (B) filament. (C) target (D) cathode. 139. If it were necessary to radiograph a 7-inch thick steel product, which of the following gamma-ray sources would most likely be used? (A) Thulium-170 (B) Cobali-60 (C) Cesium-137 (D) Iridium-192 140. A cobalt-60 gamma-ray source has an approximate practical thickness li (A) 4 inches of steel or its equivalent. (B) 2 1/2 inches of steel or its equivalent. (©) 11 inches of stee! or its equivalent. (D) 9 inches of steel or its equivalent.QandA-RT 141. The absorption of gamma rays from a given source when passing through matter depends on: (A) the Poisson's ratio value of the matter, (B) the specific activity value of the source. (C) the atomic number, density and thickness of the matter. (D) the Young's modulus value of the matter. 142, The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation, ionize and become electrical conductors make them useful in: (A) Xray tubes. (B) radiation detection equipment. (©) masks. (D) X-ray transformers, 143, The velocity of electrons striking the target in an X-ray tube is a function of: (A) the atomic number of the cathode material (B) the atomic number of the filament material. (C) the voltage difference between the cathode and anode. (D) the current flow in the rectifier eirouit. 144. The uneven distribution of developed grains within the emulsion of a processed X-ray film causes the subjective impression of: (A) graininess (B) streaks. {C) spots. (D) white scum, 145, Cobalt-60 is reported to have a half-life of 53 years. By how much should exposure time be increased (over that used initially to produce excellent radiographs when the cobalt-60 source was new) when the source is two years old? (A) No change in exposure time is needed. (B) Exposure time should be about 11 percent longer: (C) Exposure time should be about 31 percent longer. (D) Exposure time should be about 62 to 100 percent longer.QandA-RT 146, A source of iridium-192, whose half-life is 75 days, provides an optimum exposure of a object today in a period of 20 minutes. Five months from now, what exposure time would be required for the same radiographic density, under similar exposure conditions? (A) 10 minutes (B) 20 minutes (©) 1 hour and 20 minutes (D) 6 hours 147. OF the following,the source providing the most penetrating radiation i (A) 15 MeV X-ray betatron, (B) electrons from iridium-192. (C) cobalt-60. (D) 220 kVp X-ray tube. 148. The gamma-ray Intensity at one foot from a one curie source of radioactive cobalt-60 is nearest: (A) 1,000 roentgens per hour. (B) 15 roentgens per hour. (©) 10 milliroentgens per day. (D) 1 roentgen per minute, 149. The focal spot in an X-ray tube: (A) is maintained ata high negative voltage during operations. (B) is inclined at an angle of 30 degrees from the normal to the tube axis (C) should be as small as possible without unduly shortening the life of the tube. (D) sliould be as large as possible to ensure a narrow beam of primary radiation. 150. In an X-ray tube, the filament and focusing cup are the two essential parts of the: (A) rectifier (B) X-ray transformer. (C) anode. (D) cathode.Qand A-RT 151. The quantity of radiation which will produce, by means of ionization, one electrost: electricity in 0.001293 grams of dry air is known as: unit of (A) a millicurie. (B)a gamma (C) a roentgen, (D) acurie. 152. The specific activity of an isotopic source is usually measured in: (A) cuties per gram. (B) counts per minute (©) roenigens per hour (D) million electron volts. 153. Which of the following isotopes has the longest half-life? (A) Iridium-192 (B) Cesium-137 (C) Thulium-170 (D) Cobatt-6o 154, The primary form of energy conversion when electrons strike a target in an X-ray tube results in the production of: (A) primary X rays. (B) secondary X rays (©) short wavelength X rays. (D) heat. 155. The slope of a straight line joining two points of speci is known as the: jc curve of a film (A) average gradient. (B) density. (C) speed of the curve. (D) latitude,Qand A-RT 156. An X-ray film having wide latitude also has, by definition: (A) poor definition, (B) low contrast (© high spet (D) none of the above. 157. The purpose for circulating oil in some types of X-ray tubes is: (A) to absorb secondary radiation (B) to lubricate moving parts (©) to dissipate heat (D) to decrease the need for high current. 158, An X-ray tube with a small focal spot is considered better than one with a large focal spot when it is desired to obtain: (A) less contrast. (B) greater film density (C) greater penetrating power: {D) better definition. 159, One method of reducing radiographic contrast is to: (A) decrease the distance between the object and the film (B) increase the distance between the radiation source and the object. (C) increase development time within manufacturer's recommendations. (D) decrease the wavelength of the radiation used. 160, Thin sheets of lead foil in because: ate contact with X-ray film dun ease film density (A) they fluoresce and emit visible light which helps expose the film. (B) they absorb the scattered radiation. (C) they prevent backscattered radiation from fogging the film. (D) they emit electrons when exposed to X- and gamma radiation which help darken the film.QandA-RT 161. X-ray tubes are often enclosed a shockproof casing in order to: (A) protect the operator from high-voltage shock, (B) dissipate heat. (C) increase the efficiency of the rectifier. (D) shield the tube from secondary radiation. 162, An X-ray tube is rated for a maximum of 250 kVp. This tube may be operated at a maximum of: (A) 250 kV effective voltage. (B) 250,000 volts peak voltage {C) 250 kV average voltage (D) 250,000,000 volts rms voltage. 163. A voltage selector cou at various points on the wi ‘ing of an iron core transformer with a single winding having a series of taps ing is called: (A) filament transformer. (B) a high-voltage transformer. (C) apower transformer. (D) an autotransformer. 164, In X-ray radiography, alternating current must be changed to pulsating direct current in order to satisfy the need for unidireetional current. This change may be accomplished by: (A) rectifiers, (B) transformers, (C) cathodes. (D) anodes. 165, When radiographing to the 2-2T quality level, an ASTM penetrameter for 2. thickness of: (A) 5 mils. (B) 50 mils. (C) one-half inch. {D) 2.5 mils.Qand A-RT 166. Valve tubes used in X-ray equipment to: (A) activate and deactivate the X-ray tube. (B) adjust the size of the target. (C) heat the filaments in the X-ray tube, (D) provide necessary rectification. 167. A good cobalt-60 radiograph is made on a 3-inch steel casting using an exposure time of 10 minutes and a source-to-film distance of 36 inches. It is necessary to change the source-to-film distance to 24 inches, what exposure time would produce a similar radiograph if all other conditions remain the same? (A) 6.4 minutes (B) 8.8 minutes, (C) 1.6 minutes, (D) 4.4 minutes, 168. When sharp, black, bird-foot shaped marks which are known not (o correspond with any discontinuities appear at random on radiographs, they are probably caused by: (A) exposure of the film by natural cosmic ray showers during storage. (B) prolonged development in old developer. (C) inadequate rinsing after fixing, {D) static charges caused by friction, 169. The adjustment of tube current in conventional X-ray tube cireuits is made by: (A) adjusting the target-to-cathode distance. () opening the shutter on the X-ray tube port. (C) inserting resistance in the anode lead. (D) adjusting the filament heating current. 170. In comparison with lower-voltage radiographs, h-energy radiographs show: (A) greater contrast. (B) greater latitude. (C) greater amounts of scatter radiation relative to primary beam intensity. (D) none of the above.Qand A-RT 171, Filters used at the port of the X-ray tube: (A) filter short wavelength X-ray beams to provide "softer" radiation, (B) intensify the X-ray beam by contributing secondary radiation, (C) filter out "soft" radiation to provide a more homogeneous X-ray beam. (D) provide the most readily adjusted means of modifying X-ray intensity. 172. An ASTM penetrameter for use when inspecting a one-half inch thick steel plate to the 2-2T quality level using a 15-inch source-to-film distance would be made of: (A) 50 mil thick aluminum or steel. (B) 5 mil thick aluminum. (C)2 mil strip of any metallic material (D) 10 mil thick steel 173. The kilovoltage applied to an X-ray tube affects: (A) the quality of the beam, (B) the intensity of the beam. (C) both A and B above. (D) neither A nor B above. 174, Filters placed between the X-ray tube and specimen tend to reduce scatter radiation undercutting the specimen: (A) by absorbing the shorter wavelength components of the primary beam. (B) by absorbing the longer wavelength components of the primary beam, (C) by decreasing the intensity of the beam. (D) by absorbing backscatter radiation, 175. Besides serving as a filter, screens of high atomic number, such as lead and lead antimony, also: (A) provide some image intensifying action. (B) decrease the source-to-film distance needed for a proper radiograph, (C) decrease the graininess in a radiograph, (D) permit the use of higher speed film.QandA-RT 176. The range of thickness over which densities are obtained that are satisfactory for interpret: measure of the: nisa (A) sensitivity of a radiograph, (B) subject contrast of a radiograph. (C) definition ofa radiograph. (D) latitude of a radiograph 177, Almost all gamma radlography Is performed with: (A) iridium-192 or cobalt-60. (B) natural isotopes. (C) thulium- 170 (D) radium, 178. The amount of unsharpness or blurt 1g of a radiograph is: (A) directly proportional to the size of the focal spot and inversely proportional to the source-to-objeet distance. (B) directly proportional to the object-to-film distance and inversely proportional to the size of the focal spot. (C) inversely proportional to the size of the focal spot and the object-to-film distance. (D) inversely proportional to the object-to-film distance and directly proportional to the sourve-to-object distance. 179, Images of diseontinui ies close to the source side of the specimen become less clearly defined as: (A) the thickness of the specimen iner (B) source-to-object distance increases. (C) the thickness of the specimen decreases. (D) the size of the focal spot decreases. 180. The inherent filtration of an X-ray tube is a function of: (A) the source-to-object distance. (B) the material used as a target. (©) the thickness and composition of the X-ray tube port. (D) the voltage setting of the instrument. 181. X-ray films with large grain size: (A) have slower speeds than those with a relatively small grain size. (B) will produce radiographs with better definition han film with siall grain size (C) will take longer to expose properly than film with relatively small grain size. (D) have higher speeds than those with a relatively small grain size.QandA-RT 182, As the effective energy of the radiation increases up to about 250 KV: (A) film graininess decreases. (B) film graininess increases, (C) film speed decreases, (D) radiographic definition increases, 183. The specific activity of cobalt-60 depends on: (A) the fime the material has been in the reactor. (B) the atomic number of the material (©) the gamma ray flux to which it was exposed. (D) the Young's modulus value of the material. 184. The most commonly used target material in an X-ray tube is: (A) copper. {B) carbon, (©) carbide. (D) tungsten. 185. The purpose for including a dise-shaped target that rotates rapidly during operation in some X-ray tubes is to: (A) increase the intensity of X-radiation. (B) decrease the voltage needed for a specific quality of radiation. (C) increase the permissible load (D) none of the above answers is correct. 186. A device which is basically a combination of magnet and transformer designed to guide and aceelerate electrons in a cireular orbit to very high energies is called a: (A) linear accelerator. (B) electrostatic belt generator. (C) toroidal electromagnetic-type X-ray tube, (D) betatron.Qand A- RT 187. Two isotopic sources of a given strength have two different specific activity values. The source with the higher specific activity value will: (A) be of smaller physical size than the source with a lower specific activity (B) have a shorter half-life than the source with a lower specific activity. (©) produce harder gamma rays than the source with a lower specific activity. (D) be of larger physical size than the source with the lower specific activity. an elect 188. A gas-filled region locates sal field ereated by electrodes across which a potential difference is applied forms the major portion (A) a low voltage X-ray ibe (B) a megeer (©) a hot-cathode X-ray tube, (D) an ionization chamber 189. Two serious obstacles to sensitivity fluoroscopy are: (A) the inability to reproduce results and the need for periodic replacement of screens (B) the limited brightness and large grain size of fluoroscopic screens. (C) cost and slow speed. {D) the need for using long wavelength X rays and the lack of X-ray intensity associated with this method, 190, In general, the quality of fluoroscopic equipment is best determined by: (A) penetrameter sensitivity measurements. (B) reference standards. (C) discontinuity area measurements. (D) densitometer readings, ic testing, a fundamental difficulty is the relative low brightness level of the images. One g brightness utilizes one of the following which converts light energy from the phosphor surface to electrons which are accelerated and focused onto a smaller fluorescent screen. (A) Electron amplifier (B) Electrostatic belt generator (C) Image amplifier or intensifier (D) BetatronQand A-RT 192, A general rule governing the application of the geometric principles of shadow formation states that: (A) the distance between the radiation source and the material examined should be as small as practical. (B) the X rays should proceed from as large a focal spot as other consideration will allow. (C) the central ray should be as nearly perpendicular to the film as possible, to preserve spatial relationships. (D) the film should be as far as possible from the object being radiographed, 193. In order to utilize the principles of geometric enlargement (placing the film at a distance from the specimen): (A) the source-to-specimen distance must be one-half the source-to-film distance. (B) the source of radiation must be extremely small. (©) a magnetic focusing coil must be used near the port of the X-ray tube. (D) the specimen must be of uniform thickness. 194, The X-ray absory ion of a specimen depends on: (A) the thickness and density of the material. (B) the atomic number of the material. (©) both A and B above. {D) neither A nor B. 195. The radiographic absorption of a material will tend to become less dependent upon the composition of (A) the source-to-film distance is decreased. (B) the kilovoltage is increased. (C)a filter is used, {D) the kilovoltage is decreased. 196. The formula (milliamperes X time) ? distance? is: (A) used to determine radiographic contrast. (B) the exposure factor. (©) used to calculate film gradient (D) the reciprocity law.Qand A-RT 197. The load that can be handled by an X-ray tube focal spot is governed by: (A) the composition of the cathode. {(B) the size of the focal spot and the efficiency of the cooling system of the anode, (©) the distance from the anode to the cathode. (D) the high-voltage waveform. 198, X-ray exposure holders and cassettes often incorporate a sheet of lead foil in the back which is not in intimate contact with the film. The purpose of this sheet of lead fo (A) to act as an intensifying screen. (B) to protect the film from backscatter, (C) both A and B above. (D) neither A nor B above. 199. A lead sheet containing a pinhole may be placed halfway between the X-ray tube and the film in order ww: (A) determine the approximate size of the focal spot. (B) measure the intensity of the central ray (C) filter scatter radiation. (D) soften the X-radiation, 200. The most common way of cooling the anode of a high-power X-ray tube is: (A) cooling by radiation, in which a solid tungsten anode attains such high temperatures that it radiates an appreciable amount of heat. (B) cooling by meaus of circulating evuled ait (C) cooling by circulation of water or oil in the anode. (D) cooling by means of external finned radiators, 201. In certain cases, it may be advantageous to pack lead shot around a specimen. The purpose for d this is: (A) to prevent movement of the specimen. (B) to increase the subject contrast, (C) to generate smaller wavelength X-radiation, (D) to decrease the effect of scattered radiation undercutting the specimen.Qand A- RT 202. The mottling caused by diffraction when radiographing fairly large-grained metallic specimens can be ‘educed and in some cases eliminated by: (A) raising the kilovoltage and using fluorescent screens. (B) lowering the kilovoltage and using lead foil screens. (C) raising the kilovoltage and using lead foil screens. (D) lowering the kilovoltage and using fluorescent screens, 203. When radiographing steel with a thickness less than one inch: (A) 4250 k V X-ray machine would give greater radiographic sensitivity than cobalt-60. (B) cobalt-60 would give greater radiographic sensitivity than a 250 k V X-ray machine. (©) the use of lead foil soreens will require a shorter exposure time than will fluorescent soreens, (D) the use of fluorescent screens would result in a radiograph of better quality than would lead foil screens, 204. A radiograph made with an exposure of 12 mA per minute has a density of 0.8 in the region of maximum (A) 9.12 mA per minute (B) 21.12 mA per minute (C) 69.6 mA per minute (B) 16 mA per minute 208. The absorption of radiation by a material varies: (A) directly with the thickness of the material (B) directly with the square of the distance fiom the source (C) in an approximately exponential manner with the thickness of the material (D) inversely with the amount of scattering in the material, 206. In the microradiographic technique: (A) soft X rays are usually employed. (B) a kilovoltage range of 5 to 50 k V is usually employed. (C) the photographic material is often finer grained than an ordinary X-ray film, (D) al three of the above choices are correct.QandA-RT 207. In order for a radiograph to have a penetrameter sensitivity of 2-2T or better: (A) the radiographic procedure has to be able to differentiate a 2 percent difference in specimen thickness. (B) the radiographic procedure must be able to define the 2T hole in a penetrameter which is 2 percent of the thickness of the specimen, (©) the radiograph must be able to distinguish a discontinuity with a length equivalent to 2 percent of the specimen thickness. (D) none of the above choices are correct 208. For practical purposes, the shape of the characteristic curve of an X-ray film: (A) is drastically changed when the quality of X-ray radiation is changed, (B) is primarily determined by the subject contrast. (C) is independent of the type of film used (D) is independent of the quality of X- or gamma radiation 209, The term which describes the total absorption of the useful beam caused by the X-ray tube wall, the wall of the tube housing, and any material between the tube and housing is: (A) characteristic filtration (B) inherent filtration. (C) stray absorption (D) source absorption 210, The interval between the time a film is placed in a fixer solution and the time when the original diffuce, yellow milkiness disappears is known as: (A) fixing time. (B) clearing time, (C) oxidation time. (D) hardening time. 211. Excessive subject contrast caused when the thickness range in the test specimen is too great for the radiation quality used may be corrected by: (A) increasing the kilovoltage. (B) using a filter at the X-ray tube and increasing the exposure time. (C) both A and B are methods for correcting excessive subject contrast (D) decrease the exposure time.Qand A- RT 212, Improper geometric factors, poor contact between film and lead foil sereens, and graininess of film are possible causes of (A) high film density. (B) poor definition, (© fogged film, (D) low film density 213. In fluoroscopy the most common means for minimizing operator fatigue Is to: (A) place a filter over the viewing screen (B) equip operators with special glasses, (C) change operators periodically. (D) vary the intensity of the background light. 214. Which of the following X-ray generators would produce the narrowest cone of X-radiation? (A) 15 Mev (B) 10 MeV (C) 1 Mev (D) 25 Mev 215. A radiograph is taken at a voltage of $00 kV. If the voltage isi the eneray of radiation while all other conditions remain the same: creased with a resultant increase in (A) the graininess of the film will decrease significantly ifa low-speed film is used, {B) the graininess of the film will increase significantly if high-speed film is used. (©) there will be little significant change in the graininess of the film. (D) the graininess of the film will increase significantly if a Class I film is used. 216, A radiograph of a steel weldment is made using a 15 MeV betatron. When the radiograph is developed, there is an overall film mottling. A possible eause for such mottling (A) incorrect exposure time. {B) excessive object-film distance. (C) failure to use a lead screen during exposure. (D) excessive exposure to ultraviolet rays.QandA-RT 217. A basic difference between a radiograph \d a fluoroscopic image (A) the fluoroscopic image is brighter. (B) there is no basic difference between the two, (C) the fluoroscopic image is more sensitive. (D) the fluoroscopic image is @ positive whereas the radiograph is a negative transparency. 218. The quantity of ra jon st unit area of film: (A) is the intensity per unit of time. (B) varies exponentially with time and direetly with intensity. (C) is directly proportional to intensity and inversely proportional to time. (D) is the product of radiation intensity and time. 219. Which of the following factors will not mat ally infuence the image density of a radiograph? (A) The size of the film (B) The type of film used (C) the intensifying action of the screen (D) the total amount of radiation emitted by the X-ray or gamma ray source 220. A 1,000 kVp X-ray machine used in conjunetion with a lead foil screen has an approximate practical thickness limit of: (A) 3 inches of steel or its equivalent. (B) 1 1/2 inches of steel or its equivalent. (C) 16 inches of steel or its equivalent. (D) 5 inches of stee! or its equivalent. 221. Because of geometrical factors such as source size, source-to-specimen distance and specimen-to-film. distance, there can be a lack of perfect sharpness at the edges of indications. The unsharpness caused by ‘geometrical factors may be referred to as the: (A) astigmatic effect. (B) penumbral shadow, (©) focus variation, (D) none of the aboveQandA-RT 222. Two factors which greatly affeet the suitability of the target material in an X-ray tube are: (A) melting point and magnetic strength. (B) tonsile strength and yield strength. (©) atomic number and melting point. (D) electrical resistance and tensile strength. 223. The reason the exposure time must be increased by a factor of four when the source-to-film distance is double, (A) the quality of radiation is inversely proportional to the square root of the distance from the source to the film (B) the intensity of radiation decreases at an exponential rate when the source-to-film distance is increased. (C) the scattered radiation effect is greater as the source-to-film distance increases. (D) the intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source to the film. 224. The most important factor for determining the amount of X-ray absorption of a specimen is the: (A) thickness of the specimen. (B) density of the specimen. (© atomic number oif the material (D) Young's modulus of the material 225, The approximate radiographic equivalence factors for steel and copper at 220 kV are 1.0 and 1.4 respectively. If it is desirable to radiograph a 0.5-inch plate of copper. what thickness of steel would require about the same exposure characte (A) 0.7 inches of steel (B) 0.35 inches of steel (C) 1.4 inches of steel (D) 1.0 inches of steel 226. Which of the following technique variables is most commonly used to adjust subject contrast? (A) Milliamperage (B) Focal point size (©) Kilovoltage (D) Source-to-film distanceQand A-RT 227. Films that are left between lead sercens too long in a high- temperature and high-humidity atmosphere may: (A) become mottled. (B) show tree-shaped light areas in the finished radiograph, (C) show increased speed but decreased quality characteristics. (D) become fogged. 228. The quantitative measure of film blackenin| (A) definition. (B) photographic density (© film contrast. (D) radiographic contrast 229, A curve relating density with the logarithm of exposure or of relative exposure is called: (A) a sensitivity curve (B) a density-exposure curve. (C)an H& D curve. (D) X-ray intensity curve. 230, Subject contrast is affected by: (A) thickness differences in specimen. (B) radiation quality (O) scattered radiation. (D) all of the above, 231. The Code of Federal Regulations requires that all shipping containers for radioisotopes: (A) be fire resistant. (B) contain provisions for sealing the lid of the container. (C) be twive as thick as normal storage containers. (D) be shockproof,QandA-RT 232. Which of the following instruments would exhibit the best sensitivity and most likely be used to detect small leaks in a radition barrier? (A) A fountain pen type of ionization chamber (B) A dosimeter (C)A Geiger counter (D)A film badge 233, At voltages above 400 KV, the use of lead to provide protection may present serious problems. If this should be a serious problem, which of the following materials would most likely be used as a substitute? (A) Steel (B) Boron (© Aluminum (D) Concrete 234. A qualitative term often used to indicate the size of the smallest detail which can be seen in a radiograph is: (A) radiographic definition (B) subject contrast. (©) radiographic contrast. {D) radiographic oensitivity 28 ‘The slope (steepness) of a characteristic curve is a measure of: (A) radiographic detinition {B) film contrast (C) radiographic contrast. (D) subject contrast. 236. A special radiographic method requiring two radiographs taken during separate exposures from two different positions to give the visual impression of a three-dimensional display when viewed in an optical device simultaneously is referred to as: (A) stereoradiography. (B) parallel radiography. (© fluoroscopy (D) zero-radiography.Qand A-RT 237. The depth of a discontinuity may be estimated by making two exposures on a single film from two different positions of the X-ray tube. The depth of the discontinuity is computed from the shift in the shadow of the discontinuity with respect to the images of fixed markers on the front and back of the specimen, The method is referred to as: (A) zero-radiography. (B) stereoradiography. (C) the parallax method of depth location. (D) fluoroscopy. 238. Constant agitation of the developer during the development process by means of mechanical stirrers or circulating pumps may: (A) help replenish the developer. (B) speed the developing cycle. (©) cause reticulation, (D) cause undesirable, preferential flow of developer along ce in paths. 239, The ac y of the fixer diminishes after being used for a period of time because: (A) the active ingredients evaporate (B) the active ingredients are absorbed by the radiograph. (C) the fixer solution accumulates soluble silver salts. (D) the active ingredients cottle to the bottom af the tank, 240. In processing radiographs, the hourly flow of water in the wash tank should be: (A) four to eight times the volume of the tank (B) two to three times the volume of the tank. (©) varied continuously in proportion to the number of radiographs being developed. (D) at least 40 gallons per hour. 241. Attenuation of gamma rays in the energy range commonly used for testing takes place through: (A) photoelectric absorption. {B) Compton absorption. (C) both A and B. {D) neither A nor B.QandA-RT 242. A zine cadmium sulfide fluoroscopic screen which is continually exposed to bright day or other sources of ultraviolet radiation will: ‘ht, sunlight, (A) need to be recharged to regain its original fluorescence. (B) become discolored and lose some of its brilliance. {C) require a higher kilovoltage setting of the X-ray generator to produce a satisfactory image. (D)all of the above answers ate correct. 243. Increasing the X-ray or gamma-ray energy will: (A) significantly decrease the average gradient of a characteristic curve, (B) significantly increase the average gradient of a characteristic curve. (C) increase the slope of a characteristic curve (D) have little effect on the shape of a characteristic curve 244, As the development time increases: (A) the characteristic curve remains the same in shape but moves to the left. (B) there is little effect on the characteristic curve. (O) the characteristic curve grows steeper and moves to the lef. {D) the characteristic curve grows steeper and moves to the right 245. A distinctive characteristic of high-voltage radiography is: (A) it results in comparatively high subject contrast. (B) it results in comparatively high radiographic contrast. (C) itis applicable to comparatively thick or highly absorbing specimens, (D) all of the above are distinctive characteristics of high-voltage radiography. 246, Lead sereens are used for almost all exposures when using: (A) the fluoroscopic technique. (B) low-voltage radiography. (©) high-voltage radiography. (D) zeroradiography.Qand A- RT 247. The fact that each solid crystalline substance produces its own characteristic X-ray pattern is the basis for: (A) zeroradiography, (B) fluoroscopic testing. (©) polymorphic testing, (D) X-ray powder diffraction examination. 248. The funetion of a film interpreter is to: (A) find perfect parts which contain no discontinuities. (B) reject parts. (O identify discontinuities and manufacturing deviations which do not meet the applicable ende or specification standards. (D) determine if the proper technique has been used during an exposure. (E) both C and D. 249, Which of the following glasses would most likely be used as an X-ray barrier window on fluoroscopic equipment? (A) Lead glass (B) Barium oxide glass (©) Optical glass (D) Pyrex 250. The maximum pi tical speed of scanning a test object for conventional fluoroscopic inspection has been estimated to be (A) about 1 inch per second. (B) about 7 inches per second (©) about 3 inches per second (D) about 12 inches per secondQandA- RT 251. When other operating conditions are held constant, a change in tube current causes a change in radiation intensity emitted from an X-ray tube, the intensity being approximately proportional to tube current, What is the primary factor that prevents this from being exactly proportional? (A) Current cannot be changed at a linear rate {B) Scatter radiation does not vary at a proportional rate. (©) The voltage and voltage waveform of an X-ray machine transformer varies with load. (D) Wavelength changes are not exactly proportional, 252, When viewing a radiograph, an image of the back of the cassette superimposed on the image of the specimen is noted. This is most likely due to: (A) undercut. (B) overexposure. (C) X-ray intensity too high, (D) backscatter. 253. A special form of scatter due to X-ray diffraction effects in a specimen with large grains will result (A) a badly fogged radiograph. (B) a radiograph with poor resolution. (C) a radiograph with poor contrast. (D) a radiograph of mottled appearance 254, The half-value layer of lead for cobalt-60 is approximately 0.5 inch. If the radiation level on the source side of a 1.5 inch lead plate is 64 R/hr, the radiation level on the opposite side (A) 21.13 Behr. (B) 32 Rehr. (C) 10.23 Retr. (D) 8 Rh, Which of the following is not a factor in determi ig subject contrast? (A) The radiation quality used (B) Nature of the specimen (C) Intensity and distribution of the seattered radiation (D) Type of film usedQandA- RT 256, If an exposure time of 60 seconds and a source-to-film distance of 4 feet is necessary for a particular ‘exposure, what exposure time would be needed for an equivalent exposure if the source-to-film distance is changed to 5 feet? (A) 75 seconds (B) 94 seconds (©) 48 seconds (D) 38 seconds 257. In order to vie ease latitude so that thick and thin portions may be radiographed at reasonable ing densities simultaneously (A) a fluorescent screen should be employed. (B) the film cassette may be loaded with two separate films with one film placed on top of the other. (C) the film cassette may be loaded with two films of different speeds (D) none of the above are practical means of inereasing latitude. 258. Developer solution should be discarded when the quantity of replenisher added equals: (A) 60 to three times the original quantity of developer. (B) the original quantity of devetoper. (C) ten times the original quantity of developer. (D) five to six times the original quantity of developer. 259, If a specimen were radiographed at 40 kV and again at 50 kV with time compensation to give the iiographs the same density, whieh of the following statements would be true? (A) The 40 kV exposure would have a higher contrast and a greater latitude than the SO kV exposure (B) The 50 kV exposure would have a higher contrast and greater latitude than the 40 kV exposure (©) The 50 kV exposure would have a lower contrast and a greater latitude than the 40 kV exposure (D) the 40 kV exposure would have a lower contrast and a greater latitude than the 50 kV exposure 260. A 250 kVp X-ray machine used in conjunction with a lead foil screen has an approximate practical thickness limit of: (A) 2 inches of stee! or its equivalent. (B) 1107 inches of steel or its equivalent. (C)7 1 inches of steel or its equivalent. (D) 6 inches of steel or its equivalentQand A- RT 261. The degree of concentration of the radioactive material in a gamma-ray souree is referred to as: (A) the quality of the source. (B) the half-life of the souree. (O) the atomic weight of the source (D) the specific activity of the source 262. In million-volt radiography, filtration at the tube: (A) decreases the generation of short wavelength X rays. (B) increases the generation of short wavelength X rays. (C) offers no improvement in radiographic quality. (D) improves the radiographic quality by decreasing seatter radiation 263. The energy of gamma rays is expressed by which of the following units of measurement? (A) Half-life (B) Kiloelectron volt (keV) or million electron volt (MeV) (©) Carie {D) Roentgen 264. Film selection for an X-ray exposure depends on: of the part (8) the material of the specimen (© the voltage range of the X-ray machine. {D) all of the above. 265. While using an X-ray {ube for radiography, the operator wishes to increase the radiation intensity. To do so, the: (A) tube current should be inereased. {B) kilovoltage should be lowered, (C) tube current should be decreased, (D) test specimen should be moved further from the film. 266. Lead sereens are put in direct contact with the film to: (A) increase the photographic action on the film. (B) absorb the longer wavelength scattered radiation, (C) intensify the photographic effect of the primary more than the scattered radiation. (D) all of the above.Qand A- RT 267, Mottling due to diffraction can be reduced and in some cases eliminated by: (A) raising the kilovoltage. (B) using lead foil screens. (©) both of the above (D) none of the above. 268. Because of geometrical factors such as source size, source-to-specimen distance, and specimen-to-film distance, there can be a lack of perfect sharpness at the edges of indications. The unsharpness caused by these factors may be referred to as the: (A) astigmatic effect. (B) penumbral shadow. (©) focus variation, (D) none of the above. 269. The main purpose of the X-ray generator controls on the equipment is: (A) to enable the operator to obtain the intensity, quality, and duration of exposure desired. (B) to maintain the direction and width of the X-ray beam. (©) to change alternating current to increase X-ray intensity. (D) to allow the operator to adjust Film Focal Distance remotely. 270. Fluaraceopie coreonc, as mounted and used, are easily damaged by which of the follos (A) Exposure to ultraviolet radiation or sunlight (B) Washing with a soft cotton cloth (©) X-radiation (D) Poor handling 271, When X rays, gamma rays, light, or electrons strike the photographic emulsion, a change takes place in the silver halide crystals. This change is referred to as: (A) latent image, (B) characteristic curve. (©) photographic density. (D) photographic sensitivity,Qand A- RT 272, If one curie of iridium-192 produces a dose rate of 5900 mR per hour at one foot, how many mR will ten curies produce at the same distance? (A) 590,000 (B) 59,000 (59 () 590 273. With respect to quality, what three factors must be considered in selecting a source-to-film distance? (A) Source activity, size of film, thickness of material (B) Source activity, type of film, type of screens (© Source size, specimen thickness, geomettic unsharpuess, (D) Source size, source activity, specimen-to-film distance 274. On a radiograph of a pipe weld there is a very light irregularly-shaped small image in the weld. This image would most likely be due to the presence of: (A) porosity. (B) slag inclusion, (©) tungsten inclusion. (D) inadequate buildup. 275. A larger physical size source may produce an equivalent quality radiograph if: (A) more backing lead is used (B) the source-to-film distance is increased, (©) exposure time is decreased. (D) a fester film is used 276. A light Image of a backing "B" on a processed radiograph Is probably caused by: (A) backscatter. (B) excessive density. (C) poor film handling, (D) kilovoltage set too low.QandA-RT 277. Cobalt-59 becomes cobalt-60 when it is placed in a nuclear reactor where it captures: (A) a neutron, (B) an electron. (C) contamination. (D) a proton. 278. When a faster speed film is substituted for a slower one to improve the economies of the exposure, which of the following conditions occur? (A) The film must receive special processing (B) The definition will improve (C) The image resolution will be reduced (D) None of the above will be experienced 279, For a given change in the radi ‘ion exposure, film contrast is the inherent ability to show: (A) no graininess (B) a difference in density (C) no appreciable change in density. (D) graininess 280. The abi tease of a material to block or partially block the passage of X rays and gamma rays is referred (A) absorption. (B) latitude. (C) penetration. (D) absolution, 281. Source size, specimen thickness, and source-to-specimen distance are the three factors that determine the: (A) exposure of the radiograph, (B) density of the radiograph. (©) unsharpness recorded on the radiograph, (D) film size.Qand A- RT 282. The range of specimen thicknesses that can be adequately recorded on the radiograph is referred to as me: (A) latitude of the radiograph (B) sensitivity of the radiograph. (C) intensity of the source. (D) accuracy of the radiograph. 283. Approximately how long would it take for a 10 curie cobalt-60 source to decay to 2 1/2 curies? (A) 5.3 days (B) 5.3 years (©) 10.6 years (D) None of the above 284. The "photoelectric" effect involves: (A) the visible electromagnetic spectrum, (B) an electric camera. (C) complete absorption of a photon, (D) all of the above. 285. Radiographic undercu ig is caused by (A) side scatter. (B) poor geometry. (C) lead screens. (D) free electrons, 286, The developer solution is: (A) alkaline. (B) colloidal. (© saline. (D) acid 287. A general rule governing the application of the geometric principles of shadow formation states that: (A) the X rays should proceed from as large a focal spot as other considerations will allow (B) the distance between the radiation source and the material examined should be as small as practical. (C) the film should be as far as possible from the object being radiographed. (D) the central ray should be as nearly perpendicular to the film as possible, to preserve spatial relationships.Qand A- RT 288. An iridium-192 gamma-ray source has an approximate practical thickness limit of: (A) 7 1/2 inches of steel or its equivalent. (B) 11 inches of steel or its equivalent. (C)3 inches of steel or its equivalent, (D)4 inches of steel or its equivalent. 289. The half-life of radioactive cesium-137 is nearest: (A) 6 years (B) 536 days. (030 years (D) 36 days. 290. The slope of the H & D curve of a radiographic film is called: (A) latitude. (B) speed. (©) density. (D) gamma or gradient. 291, An X-ray film having wide latitude also has, by defi (A) poor definition. {B) low contrast (©) high speed. (D) none of the above. 292. The projected area of the target of an X-ray tube is called: (A) focal spot. (B) focus. (C) effective focal spot. {D) geometric unsharpness 293. The relationship between frequency, velocity, and wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is normally expressed as: where f= frequency § = wavelength © = speed of light (A) §=fe (B)§ ()f= gc (D)c= fhQandA-RT 294. The correct equation for determining geometric unsharpness Ug is: where d = souree-to-object distance t= object-to-film distance f= size of radiation source (A) Ug=duf (R) lig = Ald (C)Ug=fitd (D) f= Ua 295. An exposure technique is established to obtain a 2.0 density using type "D" film and automatic processing at 81 degrees F. In order to obtain comparable results using manual processing at 68 degrees F and 5 minute development time, it would be necessary for the original exposure time to be: (A) increased by approximately 30 percent. (B) reduced by approximately 99 percent. (© reduced by approximately 30 percent (D) increased by approximately 99 percent. 296. Atoms of the same element having different numbers of neutrons are called ----- of the element. (A) isotopes. (B) isomers. (C) isotones. (D) molecules, 297. The number of positive charges on the nucleus of an atom equals: (A) the atomic number. (B) the number of neutrons (C) the atomic weight (D) the number of photons. 298. Unlike beta and alpha particles, neutrons have no: (A) mass. (B) charge. (©) hale lite. (D) spin.Qand A- RT 299. Which of the following is a secondary effect that plays an important role in the radiation observed from certain radioisotopes? (A) Annihilation radiation (B) Internal conversion (C) Spontaneous decay (D) Aand B 300. Radiation scattering inereases a (A) the energy of the incident radiation decreases. (B) the size of the radiation field increases. (©) the angle of scatter decreases, (D) all of the above 301. It has been found from experiment that a homogencous radiation beam of intensity I passing through a thickness of material (2) “x undergoes a decrease in intensity (?)I. This ean be expressed by the equation (2) “I =-(2)1*x where (2) is a constant of proportionality. This expresses which of the following phenomena? (A) Absorption (B) Half-value thickness (©) Photoelectric effect (5) Compwn scauering 302. The number of ion pairs produced per centimeter of track in air is called: (A) total ionization. (B) secondary ionization, (C) roentgen. (D) specific ionization. 303. Which of the following particles or rays have the highest ionizing effect in air? (A) Neutrons (B) Gamma and X rays (©) Alpha particles (D) Beta particlesQand A- RT 304. The intensity of a monoenergetic radiation after passing through a material may be calculated by the formula = 1 (2)oeut. This formula do (A) buildup. (B) linear absorption. (C) attenuation, (D) half-value layer thickness.Q and A - RT 305. A cobalt-60 source has an intensity of 1600 mEU/hr at a distance of 6 feet. Workmen need to be at that distance from the source but should receive only 2 mR/hr approximately. How much steel shieldin; required? (Figure 3 may be used to determine the correct answer.) FIGURE 3 Broad-Beam Shielding for Absorption of ‘Gamma Rays in Iron (A) 2.8 inches (B) 6.9 inches (©) 83 inches (D) Cannot be determined from data given 306. Pair production occurs when electromagnetic radiation consists of photons in what energy range? (A) 30 to 50 eV (B) 0.025 to 0.1 MeV. (C)0.1 to 1.0 meV (D) 1.02 or greater MeVQand A- RT 307. In the photoelectric interaction process: (A) electrons are emitted. (B) characteristic X rays are emitted, (©) secondary photons are emitted, (D) all of the above. 308. The Compton interaction process is characterized b; (A) no transfer of energy upon interaction, (B) absence of secondary radiation. (C) partial transfer of energy upon collision. (D) production of an electron-positron pair. 309. The "build-up" faetor in radiation attenuation (A) the absorption coefficient divided by the half-value layer. (B) the ratio of broad-beam intensity to narrow-beam intensity at a particular absorber thickness. (© the percentage of radiation absorbed in unit thickness of material (D) the ratio Iu in It = loe-ux 310. The major component of seatter is the low-energy electromagnetic radiation produced by photons weakened in the: (A) Compton process. (B) photoelectric process. (C) ionization process. (D) pair production process. 311. The increase in radiation passing through matter due to scatter in the forward direction is known (A) reduction factor. (B) build-up. (C) bremsstrahlung. (D) backscatter. 312. High-energy photons of 1.02 MeV or greater typically interact with matter by which one of the following: (A) pair production process (B) thermionic process. (C) photoelectric process. (D) Compton process.Qand A- RT 313. In which of the following processes will some energy of the interacting photon be used to dislodge the electron from its orbit and the remainder used to give the electron kinetic energy? (A) Compton process (B) Photoelectric process (OQ) Ionization process (D) Pair production process 314, Radiation particles and photons lose their energy prim: through which of the follo 1g processes? (A) Radioactive decay (B) Ionization (©) Atomic absorption (D) Thermionie emission ing to accepted theory, the spots at which the latent image is localized an the emulsion are local cations of: (A) silver bromide, (B) silver nitrate (O) silver iodide. (D) silver sulfide. 316, The Bunsen-Roscoe reciprocity law, which states that the developed film density depends only on the product of radiation intensity times exposure duration, fails for: (A) fluorescent screen exposures. (B) direct gamma-ray exposures, (C) direct X-ray exposures. {D) lead screen exposures. 317. In photofluorography where a fluoroscopic screen is used for radiographic imaging, it is important to chose a screen that has a visible light emission that is relatively high at the X-ray wavelengths to be used: (A) and that matches the wavelength sensitivity of the human eye. (B) and that has a minimum decay time. (©) and that can be viewed directly without the use of leaded glass or mirrors. (D) and that matches the wavelength sensitivity of the particular image detector being employed.Qand A- RT 318. When comparing fluorescent intensifying sereens, ith Lead foil sereens, their primary advantage lies (A) markedly decreased exposure times. (B) relative insensitivity to scattered radiation, (C) improved image resolution. (D) markedly increased exposure times. 319, Fluoroscopy of a specimen using a 140 kVp-10mA X-ray source results in an intensity of 66R per minute at the screen surface, Of the screen brightness values and approximate screen colors below (for the stated radiation level), which represents the most desirable sereen for use in direet viewing fluoroscopy? (A) Brightness -.91 footcandles; color ~ green (B) Brightness ~.79 footcandles; color ~ yellow (© Brightness ~ 65 footcandies; color - blue (D) Drightness ~ 43 footcandles; color — green 320. Unlike other commercially available X-ray intensification systems, the direct X-ray pick-up tube: (A) converts the X-ray image directly into an electrical signal. (B) converts X rays to light and light to electrical signals. (C) has quantum energy losses exceeding a factor of 500, (D) has extremely low sensitivity. 321. A fundamental difficulty of fluorescent imaging is the relatively low brightness level of the images. Electronic fluoroscopy can help to eliminate this problem by all but which one of the following? (A) Using an image tube (B) Using the X-ray television system (C) Using X-ray tubes of greater effective loading {D) Using X-ray tubes of lower operating potential 322, The roentgen is defined as: (A) the amount of X- or gamma radiation that will produce one electrostatic unit of charge in one cubic centimeter of dry air at standard temperature and pressure. (B) the amount of X- or gamma radiation absorbed by one cubic centimeter of water at O degrees C and 760mm of mercury. (©) the amount of radiation emitted by one curie of iridium-192 at a distance of one meter. (D) the amount of X- or gamma radiation of one erg of energy in one gram of dry air at a standard temperature and pressure,Qand A-RT 323. The rad (radiation absorbed dose) is defined a (A) the amount of radiation energy absorbed by one gram of material (B) the amount of radiation energy absorbed by one cubic centimeter of material (©) the amount of radiation energy representing the absorption of 100 ergs of energy per gram of material, (D) the amonnt af radiation energy representing the absorption af 100 ergs af energy per cubic centimeter of ‘material. 324. The need for the concept of the rem(roentgen equivalent man) arises from the fact that: (A) there is no way to accurately measure the production of ions in ar. (B) the unit of roentgen represents such a small amount of energy as to be cumbersome in calculations used in radiography applications. (© the amount of energy required to produce an ion pai in animal tissue differs from (he amount of energy required to produce an ion pair in air (D) the roentgen incorporates the effect of neutron and electron radiation in air while it does not incorporate the effect of X rays in animal tissue, 325, The rem is defined as: (A) the quantity of radiation absorbed by one cubic centimeter of animal tissue. (B) the quantity of radiation absorbed by one gram of animal tissue. (C) the quantity of radiation necessary to absorb one erg of energy by one gram of animal tissue. {D) the quality of radiation of any type which, when absorbed by any animal tissue, produces a physiological effect equivalent to that produced by the absorption of one roentgen of X or gamma rays. 326, X-ray generators built to provide X rays at very low energy levels are used in special areas in nondestructive testing. The single section X-ray tubes in these low voltage units are usually built with thin windows of what material to permit soft X rays to emerge from the vacuum envelope? (A) Germanium (B) Beryllium (C) Pyrex glass (D) SeleniumQandA-RT 327. The meter which typically shows the beam current is: =i “ ie a ef” artinet eA ® Ae gating oy npn Oe (Dd (B)B cc (D)FQand A- RT 328. The filament transformer is depicted by: oes hye yoke Tea e~ pearenremere WL wr moc (DGQand A- RT 329. The autotransformer is depicted by: ee (W Kilooe bye my eat Taupe ned Sec ee ] Teal rraune« (AG (B)I oc DEQandA- RT 330. The kilovoltage selector is shown on the schematic as: ue hee yee (AVA (ot (OD (D)FQand A-RT 331. The timer is shown on the schematic as: (kaos hye Teal~ runes (A)F (3) 1 Ol OH 332. The beam current in an X-ray tube is critically dependent upon which of the following? (A) Target material (B) Filament voltage (C) Distance between anode and cathode (D) All of the above 333, The focal spot should be as small as conditions peri in order to obtain which of the following? (A) Sharpest possible definition (B) Minimum size of the unit (©) Maximum energy density (D) None of the aboveQand A- RT 334. The focusing cup of the eathode in an X-ray tube acts as an electrostatic lens determining the size of the electron beam by: (A) limiting the maximum amperage of the filament current (B) controlling the electric field hetween the anode and eathode (C) reducing the negative charge on the glass walls of the tube caused by secondary electrons scattered by the target (D) capturing stray electrons emitted by the filament. 335. The most common source of electrons in high-vacuum X-ray tubes is: (A) the heated cathode, (B) reflection from the anode. (© the tungsten target. (D) the heated anode. 336. The most common technique for releasing electrons in gas X-ray tubes is: (A) increasing the kilovoltage. (B) reflection from the target in the anode of the tube. (C) heating a filament. {D) positive ion bombardment of the cold cathode. 227. The most commonly used cathode type for industrial Xray tubes ies (A) hot cathode, (B) solid rectangular cathode. (C) rotating disk cathode. (D) cold cathode. 338. What is the effect of a higher temperature of the filament? (A) Greater emission of electrons (B) Less efficient unit (C) The tube current is larger (D) A and CQand A- RT 339. The design and spacing of the electrode and the degree of vacuum are such that no flow of electrical charge between the cathode and anode is possible until which of the following is accomplished? (A) Filament is heated (B) High-voltage waveform reached 180 degrees (©) Circulation system is operated (D) None of the above 340. The type of X-ray generator illustrated in Figure 5 is a: seconoany wooing ———t ~ uernacames oeay TUBE fra acme $= Macnee Facusme cow Leas cot Ls¢ —— enc STEW on COLD ANOOE: FIOURE § (A) resonant transformer generator. (B) electrostatic generator. (C) tank type generator. (D) linear accelerator. 341. The betatron accelerates electrons in a circular path by: (A) radio frequency energy. (B) magnetic induction, (C) use of a nonconducting charging belt. (D) resonating the high voltage to the frequency of the AC power.Qand A-RT 342. What method is used for generation of X rays in the multimillion volt range? (A) Electrostatic generator (B) Betatron (C) Linear accelator {D) All of the above 343. Ina betatron, electrons are accelerated by which one of the following? (A) Changing magnetic field of an AC electromagnet (B) Field emission (©) Accelerating magnets (D) High-frequency electrical wave 34. In a linear accelerator, the elecrons are accelerated by which of the following? (A) Accelerating magnets (B) Changing magnetic fields of an AC electromagnet (C) Neutron bombardment (D) High-frequency electrical wave 345. In a high-voltage generator of the Van de Graaff type, by which method are the particles accelerated? (A) Accelerating magnets (B) high-frequency electrical waves (©) Static negative charges (D) None of the above 36, Flash X-ray tubes are usually designed to produce electrons for acceleration by which one of the following methods? (A) Field emission (B) High-frequency electrical waves (C) Changing magnetic field of a trans (D) Hot emissionQand A- RT 347. Tungsten is the preferred target material for X-ray tubes used in industrial X-ray machines because it provides a double advantage. One of the advantages Is: (A) low melting point (B) high curie point. (efficiency of the tungsten material in the production of X rays is inversely proportional to its atomic number. (D) efficiency of the tungsten material in the production of X rays is proportional to its atomic number. 348. Gold and platinum are also used in X-ray tubes for radiography, but targets made of these metals (A) be able to withstand increasing pressure. (B) have low thermal conductivity. (©) be more effectively heated than targets made of tungsten. (D) be more effectively cooled than targets made of tungsten, 349. Tungsten is the most commonly used target material in X-ray tubes. Which one of the following materials, although not common, is commercially used for industrial X-ray tube targets? (A) Beryllium, (B) Gold (C) Germanium (D) Molybdenum 350. The efficiency of the target material in the production of X rays is proportional to which of the following? {A) Kilovoltage (B) Spacing of electrodes (©) Atomic number (D) Avogadro's number 381. In choosing a suitable metal for a target material, the principal properties to be considered are all but which one of the followi (A) High atomic number (B) High melting point (C) High thermal conductivity (D) High vapor pressureQand A-RT 352, When X rays are not emitted with the same intensit all directions from the foeal spot, this is referred to as: (A) angle of emergence. (B) astigmatism. (C) heel effect (D) screen effect. 353. An anode in which the target is located at the bottom of an opening or "pocket" is frequently used in industrial X-ray tubes for improving the distribution of the high voltage field. This type of anode is referred to as a: (A) rotating anode, (B) hot anode. (C) hooded anode. (D) line-focus anode. 354, High-voltage electrostatic generators of the Van de Graaff type are typically insulated with: (A) nitrogen/carbon dioxide. (B) trichloroethane. (©) argon/oxygen. (D) trichloroethylene. 355. The most significant consideration of X-ray tubes, based on the low efficiency of X-ray production, (A) focal spot size, (B) target angle, (C) heat dissipation. (D) accelerating voltage. cl ble metal for an X-ray tube target, which one of the following is not a property which is normally considered? (A) Melting point (B) Atomic number (C) Thermal conductivity (D) Mass attenuation coefficientQand A- RT 357. When the high-voltage transformer is connected directly to the X-ray tube, the arrangement is known (A) linear accelerator unit. {(B) tank-type unit (O) self-rectified unit. (D) fall rectified unit . In X-ray equipment design, shielding placement and the angle of the coverage of the X-ray beam is not (A) target angle. (B) filament. (©) X-ray tube port size (D) geometry of the focal spot. 359. A high-vacuum environment for X-ray tube elements is necessary for which of the following? (A) To prevent oxidation of the electrode materials {B) To permit ready passage of the electron beam without ionization of gas within the tube (©) To provide electrical insulation between the electrodes (D) Allof the above 360. Which of the following is a major factor affecting the duty eyele of X-ray equipmen (A) Thickness of specimen (B) KV rating of equipment (C) Size of focal spot (D) Rate of anode cooling ‘wo factors that limit the electric power that can be absorbed by X-ray tubes are the cooling system used for the anode and: (A) tube grounding. {B) geometrical size of the focal spot. (C) ahigh screen effect. (D) the vacuum between cathode and anode.Qand A- RT 362, The efficiency of X-ray production is given by the following expression: E = 1.4 X 10(2) target of tungsten-coated copper and a tube voltage of 300 kV, determine the percent efficiency where E Is in percent. Element Zz Hydrogen 1 Aluminum 13 Copper 29 Tungsten ™ (A) 88% (B) 3.11% (©)0.31% (D) 1.22% 363. Which of the following is a class of neutron radiography (A) Direct exposure method (B) Compton exposure method (C) Transfer exposure method (D) A and C 364. Because itis frequently supplied as a water-soluble compound, which of the following is considered to have an additional radiological hazard potential associated with it? (A) Cobalt-60 (B) Thulium-170 (C) Iridium-192 (D) Cesium-137 365, Thuli m-170 emits which of the following gamma-ray energies? (A) 0.310 and 0.470 MeV (B) 0.110 and 0.150 Mev (©) 1.33 and 1.17 MeV (D) 0.084 and 0.052 MeVQand A- RT 366. Which on ‘specimen 0.374 of the following radioisotope sources would be the best choice for radiography of a steel ich thick from an energy standpoint? (A) Thutium-170 (B) Cobait-60 (©) Californium~ (D) Iridium-192 367. The half-life is a useful characteristic of a radioisotope. After six half-i atoms is reduced to approximately what percent of the amount at the be es, the amount of decaying Aon (B) 1% (2% ()3% 368. Generally, sources of high specific a jty are more desirable because they have ——~ self-absorption. (A) The same (B) Higher (No (D) Lower 369, Radiation output, also known as dosage rate or characteristic intensity, is usually expressed as effective output in what unit per curie? (A) Rhr (B) RHM (C) mRhr (D) ms 370, Cobalt-60 emits gamma rays of: (A) 1.09 and 1.29 Mev (B) 1.36 and 2.75 Mev. (C) 1-17 and 1.33 MeV. (D) 0.66 Mev.Q and A- RT 371. The principle gamma rays emitted by iridium-192 are: (A) 0.31, 0.47, 0.60 MeV. (B) 0.15, 1.12, 0.18 MeV. (©) 0.08, 0.05, 0.66 MeV. (9) 0.66, 0.84, 0.91 MeV 372. Which of the following is an advantage of radiography with gamma rays as compared to X rays? (A) Simplicity of apparatus (B) Compactness of the radiation source (C) Independence from outside power (D) Allof the above 373. For a particular radioisotope, source strength is proportional to which of the following? (A) Atomic weight (B) Number of curies (©) Mass of source (D) Physical size 374, Which of the following is true for a smaller isotope source of higher specific activity? (A) Suffers less from self-absorption of its own gamma radiation (B) Less geometric unsharpness in the radiograph (©) Allows shorter source-to-film distances (D) All of the above 375. In radioisotope decay, the nuclei of these isotopes disintegrate by which of the following methods? (A) Emission of particles (B) K capture (C) Annihilation radiation (D) Aand B 376. Gamma-ray sources emit which of the following? (A) Broad continuous spectrum of wavelengths (B) Limited wavelengths between 0.010 and 4 MeV (©) One or more discrete wavelengths (D) Aand BQand A- RT 377. Of the isotopes listed below, which occurs as the result of splitting an atom in a nuclear fission reactor? (A) Cobalt-60 (B) Cesium-137 (©) lridium-192 (D) Thulium-170, 378, Caution should be exercised to avoid removing film too rapidly from cartons, exposure holders, or settes. This would help to eliminate objectionable circular or tree-like black marks caused by: (A) static electricity. {B) scratches, (©) crimp, (D) reticulation, 379. Extra-fine grain and high-contrast film used to obtain the highest quality from high-voltage X-ray equipment or for light metals is: (A) Class 1 {B) Class I. (C) Class I. (D) Class IV. 380, The agent that actually exposes a photographie grain (film) is: (A) gamma and/or X-ray quantum, (B) alpha particles. (C) electrons, (D) protons. 381. Which of the following Is governed by the distance travelled by the scattered electrons through the emulsion, and consequently depends on the energy of the impinging radiations? (A) Rediographio contrast (B) Effective graininess (©) Geometric unsharpness (D) Inherent unsharpnessQand A- RT 382, Suppose a radiograph is made using film whose H & D graph is shown in Figure 6. ‘The film is exposed for 12 mA per minute and has a density of 0.8 in the area of i density to 2.0. What milliamperage per minute would produce such a change? 49) a5 oes 10S ao So tne peuanve extosune FIGURE 6 (ayer (B) 19 (©) Impossible to determine from date (D) 50Qand A- RT 383. Fluoroscopic screens of zine cadmium sulfide find occasional use in industrial applications. These sereens normally are not subject to wear or deterioration from exposure to long term X rays. Which one of the following will severely degrade this type of screen? (A) Cleaning of the soreen with grain alcohol solvent (B) Prolonged storage in a low-humidity environment will cause the crystal to hydrolyze. (©) Exposure to ultraviolet radiation sources (D) Contamination with nickel as little as one part per million will create severe afterglow problems. 384. When using a constant potential X-ray source for fluoroscopic inspection, an optimum kilovolta said to exist for each material thickness. This optimum kilovoltage is: (A) independent of the material area or curvature. (B) selected such that the part thickness to be X-rayed is 5 half-value layers. (C) selected on the basis of exposure time desired. {D) selected as a function of the permissible X-ray tube current, with higher kilovoltage required for lower currents, 385. A fluoroscopic system for the inspection of welds in one-inch thick steel has the following features: 1, X-ray source-to-image plane spacing of 17 inches. 2. X-ray focal spot size of 4 mm. 3. steel (weld) to image plane spacing of 3 inches. 4. image plane length of 9 inches in vertical sean direction of TV system used to vi 5, TV system with 525 line sean, with image fully focused on image tube. During tests, it is found that this fluoroscopic system does very poorly in resolving wire penetrameters and in sw image plane. (A) Decrease the steel weld-to-image plane spacing to 2 inches (B) Change to an X-ray source having a 1 mm focal spot (C) Increase the TV scan rate to 1029 lines, with an appropriate increase in frequency response (D) Increase the X-ray source-to-image plane spacing to 20 inchesQand A- RT 386. In the past, several companies have designed TV cameras with large faceplates and phosphors that direc (A) In comparison to systems using image orthicons with screens or with image intensifier systems, the image presented is noisier (B) The quantum energy losses associated with converting the X rays to electrical signals is improved over other systems hy 2 factor of as much as 500 times (© The extreme sensitivity of this system allows display of 2 percent penetrameters over the range of 40-300 kVp (D) The extreme simplicity of this system and need for few controls or adjustments makes maintenance easier than other types of systems utilizing intermediate conversion 387. The speed of counting obtainable with a scintillation counter is limited fundamentally by: (A) the intensity of the incident radiation. (D) the energy level of the incident radiation. (©) the spatial distribution of the incident quanta. (D) the afterglow of the phosphor 388. The scintillations (light photons) emitted by a radiation detection phosphor are converted to electri pulses by: (A) an ionization chamber. (B) a photomultiplier tube, (C)a light pulse amplifier. (D) a selenium photoelectric cell 389. One di ‘able property for a gas to be used in an ionization detectoi (A) a density approximately equivalent to the density of the chamber walls. (B) a density equivalent to that of air at standard temperature and pressure. (©) a low saturation potential at which recombination of positive ions with electrons becomes negligible. (D) a low ionization potential. 390, The greatest problem which arises in the routine use of a pocket dosimeter is: (A) its relatively flat response to radiation of different energies. {(B) its inherently inconsistent sensitivity (C) electrical leakage which tends to discharge the electrometer and give false high readings. (D) negative drift caused by changes in atmospheric conditions (temperature, humidity, etc.)Qand A- RT 391. As a portable radiation survey instrument, the main disadvantage of a Geiger counter is its: (A) large size and deticate construction (B) nonlinear response with changes in radiation energy. (©) warm-up drift during the first few minutes of operation. (D) poor sensitivity to low radiation levels 392, Air-filled proportional counters are used extensively for monitoring: (A) fast neutron activities. (B) gamma-ray activity. (© alpha/beta dose rates (D) slow neutron activities 393, An amplifier to be used in a survey instrument designed to measure have the following characteristics: levels of radi jon should (A) a fast rise time and a linear response. (B) a fast rise time and an exponential response. (C) a slow rise time and a linear response. (D) a slow rise time and an exponential response. 394, Which of the following detectors would be most suitable for use with a gamma- or X-ray energy epectrum analyzer? (A) An ionization detector (B) A scintillation detector (©) A proportional detector (D) A Geiger-Muller counter 395. Which of the following radiation measurement instruments does not employ gas detection as its operation mechanism? (A) Ionization chamber (B) Geiger-Muller counter (© Proportional counter (D) Semiconductor detectorQand A- RT 396. A system of X-ray thickness gaging in which X ra are collimated and projected through a test item and the quantity of unabsorbed radiation is measured referred to as: (A) fluorescence method. (R) absorption differential method (attenuation "buildup" method, (D) transmission method, 397. Generally, the sensi ity and accuracy of thickness gaging of homogeneous materials by reflection methods is: (A) superior © Muorescence methods (B) approximately the same as with transmission gaging, (©) inferior to transmission gaging. (D) superior to transmission gaging. 398. The two types of detectors used most commonly in X-ray thickness gages are: (A) proportional counters and geiger counters. (B) fluorescent screens and ionization chambers. (C) fluorescent screens and phosphor-photomultipliers. (D) phosphor-photomultipliers and ionization chambers ion level of 100 mR/hr is noted at the perimeter of your posted high radiation area. This 10 feet from the exposed source. Approximately how far away from the source should the radiation area signs be posted for the 2 mR/hr line? (A) 40 feet (B) 100 feet (©) 70 feet (D) 125 feet 400. Which one of the following is not a characteristic to be given major consideration in sele radiographic survey instrument? (A) Dose rate range(s) (B) Window thickness-radiation detected (©) Battery supply (D) Time constantQand A- RT 401. With appropriate controls, the allowable radiation limits in unrestricted areas should not exceed: (A) 0.500 rem per calendar year. (B) 2 millirems in any one hour. {C) 100 millirems in seven const (D) all of the above. cutive days. 402. A "leaking" source of radioactive material is considered a potentially hazardous situation. At what removable activity level is a sealed radiography source, by regulation, considered to be leaking? (A) 0.0500 microcuries (B) 0.5000 microcuries (©) 0.005 microcuries (D) 0.0005 microcuries 403, Sources of radinactive material nsed for radiography are required by regulation to be leak tested at intervals not to exceed: (A) 3 months (B) 6 months. (©) 24 months. (D) 12 months. 404. Distance is an effective means of external radiation protection because: (A) radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of the distance. (B) air absorption reduces the radiation intensity (C) the wavelength of the photons is decreased by their interaction with matter. (D) X rays and gamma rays have a finite range, 405, X-ray photons differ from gamma photons of the same energy only in their: (A) interaction, (B) wavelength. (C) biological effect. {D) origin,Qand A- RT 406. Filters of different thicknesses of material are often incorporated into film badges used for beta-gamma dosimetry. The purpose of these filters is to: (A) increase the sensitivity of the film to low energy radiation. (R) altennate the higher energy radiation. (C) permit evaluation of the type and energy of the radiation. (D) ensure that no alphas reach the film 407. The half-life of a radioactive substance is equal to: (A) the average lifetime of an atom in the substance, (B) the reciprocal of the disintegration constant. (C) the number of awins present divided by the rate of decay. (D) the time required for one-half of the original atoms to disintegrate, 30 years old. According to the $(N-18) formula and the "bai concept" far determining exposure, this individual may receive a maximum permissible dose (A) 65 rem, (B) 245 rem, (©) 270 rem (D) 60 rem. 409. A tenth value thickness for a specific gamma source is one inch of lead. The radiation intensity is 500 Rihr at 24 inches from the source. How many inches of lead would be required to reduce the intensity to ‘SmR/hr at 24 inches? (A) 10 inches (B) 4 inches (C)2 inches (D) 5 inches 410, Permissible personnel radiation exposure rates are based upon which of the following? (A) Banking concept (B) Radiation equivalent man (©) Dose absorption rate (D) Physical attributesQand A- RT 411, Radioisotope radiographic exposure devices, measuring less than four inches from the sealed source storaage position to any exterior surface, shall have a dose rate at 6 inches from the surface of no greater than: (A)2 mie (B) 50 mRiw. (©) 10 mB. (D) 200 mR. 412, Survey instruments used to monitor gamma radiation must be capable of measuring radiation in the range of: (A) 0-2000 mR. (B) 2 mR/br-10,000 mR. (©) 0-200 mR. (D) 2 mB/hr-1000 mPvhr. 413. A radiation area refers to any area accessible to personnel in which radiation exists such that an individual could receive in any one hour a dose exceeding: (A) 2 millirems, (B) 100 millirems. (©) 5 milirems, (D) 500 millirems, 414, Radiographie sensitivity depends on the combined effects of two independent factors. One is radiographic contrast and the other is: (A) penetrameter image. (B) definition (©) radiation quality (D) density.Qand A- RT 415, Using the equation above: Determine penetrameter thickness: «= 100 ¥ Th/2 where x a = 2.0% percent equivalent penetrameter sensitivity x = 1.25 in, = section thickness to be radiographed T= penetrameter thickness h = 1/16 in. = hole diameter (A) 0.020 inches (B) 0.030 inches, (C) 0.018 inches (D) 1.6 inches 416, Ra )graphic sensitivity (A) only a measure of the contrast properties of the radiographic system. (B) a general or qualitative term referring to the size of the smallest detail which can be seen on a radiograph. (C)a term which reflects film speed and contrast properties. (D)a term usually applied to the contrast properties of the radiographic system. 417. Radiographic sensitivity is totally controlled by: (A) film and sereen combinations. (B) those factors which control radiographic contrast and definition. (©) kilovoltage and milliamperage. (D) kilovoltage and film processing. 418. The visibility of a certain penetrameter hole on the radiograph may mean that: (A) a cavity of the same diameter will be visible. (B) a cavity one-half the hole diameter will be visible. (C)a cavity of the same diameter may be invisible. (D) the hole and cavity will have equal detectability. 419. The penetrameter is used to: (A) determine the crack depths that can be detected. (B) determine the size of cracks and poses that cau be detevied, (©) indicate the quality of the radiograph technique. (D) determine critical flaw size.Qand A- RT 420, The sensitivity requirement 2-2T represents: (A) penetrameter thickness 2 X the specimen thickness with the required penetrameter hole 2 percent of the specimen thickness. (B) penetrameter thickness 2 percent of specimen thickness with the required penetrameter hole 2X the penetrameter thickness (©) penetrameter thickness 2 percent of the specimen thickness with the required penetrameter hole 2 percent of the specimen thickness. (D) penetrameter thickness 2 percent of the specimen thickness with the required penettameter hole 4 percent of the penetrameter thickness. 421. The term radiographic sen: discontinuities. In practice, sensitivity sually refers to the ability of a radiographic technique to detect is specified as: (A) the measurable unsharpness on a radiograph, (B) the ratio of the smallest thickness difference visible on the radiograph to the thickness of the material being examined. (©) density difference between two areas. (D) degree of concentration of a radioactive source. 422, The image quality i icator (penetrameter) should not be used to: (A) determine film/screen combinations adequacy, (B) judge the adequacy of part-to-film distance. {C) judge the size or establish acceptance limits of discontinuities (D) judge the adequacy of a radiographic exposure. 423. Radiography sensitivit ie affected by: (A) subject contrast (B) geometric and film graininess factors. (C) film contrast {D) all of the above. 424, Which of the following parameters do not directly affect radiographic defi (A) Focal spot or source size (B) Density (©) Type of screen (D) Radiation qualityQand A - RT 425. Using a filter at the X-ray tube, masking to lessen the thickness range, and a multiple-film technique are ways of correcting: (A) low density. (B) low latinide. (C) poor definition, (D) low radiographic contrast. 426. Poor definition can be improved by doing all but one of the following: (A) change from Class I to Class I film. (B) change from lead to fluorescent screens, (C) increase source-to-film distance. (D) use a smaller physical source size.QandA- RT 427. Based on the characteristic curves of the films shown in Figure 7, which film provides the highest contrast? 4.0) 3.0) g B29 Fm Fimy 10. 00) ° . 2 3 Lag ralatve Exposure (Exposure Tima) — FIGURE 7 (ac (B) Cannot be determined from the curves a (DB 428, Subject contrast depends on: (A) nature of the specimen, radiation quality (kV) and the intensity and distribution of the scattered radiation, (B) Lambert's law. (©) milliamperage, source etrength, distance and film type. (D) film-screen type.Qand A- RT 429, Film contrast refers to: (A) the steepness (slope) of the characteristic curve. (B) minimum perceptible density change. (O) the ratio of X-ray or gamma ray intensities transmitted by two selected portions of a specimen. (D) the density difference in two adjacent regions of film. 430. In general, the contrast of radiographic films (except those designed for use with fluorescent screens): (A) increases continuously with film density in the usable density range. (B) decreases as the density is increased. (©) remains practically unchanged for different density levels (D) is inversely proportional to film density. 431. The graininess of all films: (A) decreases as the kilovoltage is increased. (B) 1 totally controlled by Lamberts law. (C) is not dependent on kilovoltage. (D) increases as the kilovoltage is increased. 432. Which of the following is not a factor in radiographic contrast? (A) Film type (B) Radiation quality (C) Degree of film development (D) None of the above 433. Specimens with uniform thickness and composition by definition have: (A) good definition {B) low subject contrast (C) high film contrast. (D) high subject contrast 434, The sharpness of outline in a radiographic image is referred to as: (A) sensitivity, (B) definition. (C) contrast. (D) latitude.Qand A-RT 435. Poor radiographic definitions could be the result of: (A) focal spot size. (B) source-to-film distance, (C) poor film-screen contact. (D) all of the above 436. Another term frequently used to describe geometrical unsharpnes: (A) penumbral shadow. (B) radiographic distortion, (©) geometric enlargement, (D) radiographic enlargement.Q and A- RT 437. Using Figure 8, determine the geometrical unsharpness under the following conditions. Maximum specimen thickness is 1.5 inches, source-to-film distance is 40 inches, and the focal spot size is 1 mm. The geometrical unsharpness (A) 0.100 mm (B) 0.25 mm. (©)0.04 mm. (D) 0.010 mm. 438. Which of the following is not a factor to be considered to reduce geometric unsharpness? (A) Object-to-film distance (B) Source size (C) Source strength (D) Source-to-film distanceQand A- RT 439. In the following eq! Ug- Fd tion for geometric unsharpness, what does Ug represent? (A) Penumbra (B) Image size (©) Specimen-to-film distance (D) Source-to-film distance 440. The size of the penumbral shadow can best be reduced by: (A) using a larger diameter source. (B) using a faster speed film. (C) inoreasing the source-to-film distance. (D) increasing the spevimen-to-filu distance. 441. Deviation from the true shape of an object as exhil (A) definition, (B) latitude. (©) contrast. (D) distortion. d in its shadow image is called: 442, Which of the following rules of shadow formation is not true? (A) The effective focal spot or sontee size should he as small as practical. (B) The distance between the focal spot or source and the test object should be as great as practical. (C) The central ray should be as nearly perpendicular to the film as possible to preserve spatial relations, (D) The test object's plane of maximum interest should be perpendicular to the plane of the film. 443. Given an iridium-192 source 0.125 inches in diameter, a geometrical unsharpness of 0.021 a material thickness of 2.5 inches, determine the minimum source-to-object distance. (A) 12.6 inches (B) 246 inches {C) 15.6 inches (D) 18-1 inches 444. Geometrical enlargement resulting from increased object-to-film distance is useful in: (A) increasing definition. (B) reducing physical source size. (C) reducing scattered radiation. (D) macroradiography.Qand A- RT 445. Magnification and geometric unsharpness: (A) are actually the same thing, (B) can be distinguished as follows: magnification refers to the degree of enlargment and unsharpness refers to the penumbra, (C) are not directly related. (D) can be combined to yield total unsharpness. 446, Geometric unsharpness (Ug) is obtainable from: where F = source size, d = source-to-object distance, t ihject-to-film distance (A) Ug= Fuld (B) Ug- are 447. Using the form 3.0 millimeters, ¢ 0 inches, and d = 43.0 inches, Ug is approximateh (A) 0.020 inches (B) 0.028 inches, (©) 0.014 inches. (D) 0.006 inches. 448. mage distortion rofors to: (A) a combination of geometric unsharpness and magnification. (B) deviation from the true shape of the object. (C) magnification minus geometric unsharpness. (D) a combination of graininess, unsharpness, and magnification. 449. The most commonly used intensif 1g material in fluorescent screens for industrial radiography is: (A) zine sulfide, (B) calcium sulfide (C) cesium iodide (D) caleium tungstateQand A-RT 450. Fluorometallic intensifying sereens compared with lead foil sereens can reduce the exposure time by factors up to: (A) 100. (B) 10. (©) 500. (Dy 1. 451. The Bunsen-Roscoe reciprocity law states that the product of a photochemical reaction is dependent only upon the product of the radiation intensity and the duration of exposure and is independent of the absolute values of either of these quantities separately. This law is invalid for which of the following? (A) X rays (B) Gamma rays, (C) Fluorescent screens, {D) Leal foil screens 452. The quality of the radiation necessary to obtain an appreciable intensification from lead screens depends upon all the following except: (A) film type. (B) kilovoltage. {C) milliamperage. (D) thickness and material of test object. 453. An alloy of 6 percent antimony and 94 percent lead should be used for s because it provides: ‘eens instead of pure lead (A) greater definition. (B) less mottling effect. (©) better wear resistance. (D) ahigher intensification factor. 454. The intensifyi ng action of a lead foil sereen is caused by: (A) the addition of 6 percent antimony to the lead. (B) the electrons emitted under gamma or X ray excitation, (C) preferential absorption by the lead screens (D) characteristic and scattered radiation originating in the screen.Qand A- RT 455. In comparison to radiographs made with lead screens, radiographs made using fluorescent screens would show: (A) better contrast (B) good definition. (C) higher density. (D) poor definition 456. Variation in the thi kness of lead screens from 0,005 inch to 0.010 inch: (A) has very slight effect on intensification. (B) has very significant effect on intensification (C) actually has no effect un intensification. (D) only serves to increase geometric unsharpness, 457. Scatter radiation eaused by the specimen heing radiographed is usually referred to as: (A) backscatter. (B) side scatter. (©) undercut (D) forward scatter. 458. The major component of scatte process? the low-energy rays represented by photons weakened in what (A) Photoelectric (B) Pair productive (C) Compton scattering (D) ionization 459. The Influence of low energy seatter from the film holder is most noticeable just inside the borders of the image. (A) inherent unsharpness. (B) undercut. (©) geometric unsharpness, (D) mottlingQandA-RT 460. The difference in narrow-beam and broad-beam conditions is that: (A) narrow-beam conditions imply that both scattered and unscattered radiation reach the detector, while broad-beam conditions imply that only the unscattered radiation reaches the detector (B) narrow-beam conditions imply that only the unscattered radiation reaches the detector, while broad-beam conditions imply that both scattered and unseattered radiation reach the detector (© narrow and broad-beam conditions relate only to source size. (D) both terms depend on film and screen combination. 461. Which is generally the greater source of scatter radi (A) Lead foil screens (B) Lead backing plate (©) Floor or wall (D) The specimen under examination 462. Short wavelength photons are normally used on thick sections of steel rather than long wavelength photons because: (A) short wavelength photons are hard rays and have greater penetrating ability (B) short wavelength photons create a greater secondary radiation and help improve image contrast (C) long wavelength photons are hard rays and have greater penetrating ability (D) they both have equal penetrating ability 463. A lead sheet is usually placed behind the film cassette to: (A) intensify the film image and shorten the exposure time, (B) prevent bending and crimping of the film. (©) reduce forward scatter and absorb unwanted radiation to prevent it from reaching the film (D) minimize radiation scattered from the floor, walls, equipment and other items from reaching the back of the film 464. The larger the activity (in curies) and the larger (physically) the source is, the emitted gamma-ray intensity per curie becomes: (A) lower. (B) higher. (C) unaffected. (D) increases inversely to activity.Qand A- RT 465, When radiographing a speimen with a radiographic source, it is found that it is desirable to lengthen the souree-to-film distance. With the source at the new location, the amount of radiation reaching the film will: (A) vary inversely with the square of the distance. (B) vary equally with the square of the distance. (© will not change. (D) vary inversely with the distance 466, Which one of the following is not a specific condition which applies to a given exposure chart? (A) X-ray machine used (B) Film type (C) Processing conditions (D) Radiation intensity (E) Film density on which the chart is based 467. Exposure charts are fairly adequate for determining exposures in the radiography of: (A) complicated structural items, (B) uniform plate (©) step wedges. 468. A gamma-ray exposure chart differs from an X-ray exposure shart corresponding to: that thore (A) thickness (B) milliamperage. (C) kilovottage. (D) film density 469, An exposure chart is a graph showing the relation between all but which one of the followi (A) Exposure (B) Density (C) Kilovoltage (D) Material thicknessQand A- RT 470. In manual processing, the ideal temperature is 68° F (20°C). At what temperature would the chemical action be retarded, resulting in underdevelopment? (A) 70°F (B) 60° F (C) 90° F (D) None of the above 471. The shape of the film character quality but is affected by changes in the: curve is relatively insensitive to changes in X- or gamma radiation (A) geometric factors, {(B) film graininess (©) subject contrast. (D) degree of development. 472. Light crimp marks appearing on a developed radiograph are the result of: (A) static marks, (B) seratches on lead foil screen, (C) poor handling before exposure. (D) poor handling after exposure. 473. Physical damage to the film emulsion caused by sudden extreme temperature change is referred to as: (A) reticulation, (B) felling (C) blisters. {D) streaks 474, The frequency with which a developer solution needs replacement is dependent on the rate and density of films processed but as a rule the solution should be replaced: (A) whenever the density of processed films is consistently too great. (B) when the quantity of developer replenisher used equals two to three times the original quantity of developer, or every three months, whichever is shorter. (C) every six months, (D) whenever the processed films show streaking due to uneven development.Qand A- RT 475, When using following reasons? id to make the stop bath mixture, the acid is added slowly to the water for which of the (A) To produce a more uniform mixture. (B) To prevent rapid oxidation resulting in a eloudy stop bath. (C) To prevent a rapid rise of the solution temperature (D) To prevent the acid from spattering, 476. Certain materials cause contamination and result in fog in the radiograph. Which one of hte following should not be used as a material for holding processing solutions? (A) AISI Type 316 stainless steel (B) Enamelware (C) Aluminum (D) Plastic 477. Processing tanks should be periodically cleaned and sterilized. Which of the following agents in solution is recommended? (A) Sodium hypochlorite (B) Acetone (©) Household detergent (D) Hydrochione acic (diluted) 478. The most commonly used acid in preparing stop baths to arrest the development process is: (A) sulphurie (B) glacial acetic (C) muriatic (D) hydrochloric 479. In manual processi 2, if it is not possible to use a stop bath, films should be: (A) placed directly in the fixer solution (B) placed directly in the fixer solution with a one-minute reduction in development time. (© rinsed in running water for at least two minutes before fixing. (D) rinsed in running water for at least two minutes with a one-minute reduction in development time before fixingQand A-RT 480. The primary reason why visual (under safelight conditions) development of radiographs should be avoided (A) it is difficult to discern the image with the light output provided by a safelight. (B) the appearance of a developed but unfixed radiograph will be different in the dried state. (C) removal of the film from the developer will affect the development time. (D) film type and speed affect the appearance of images when exposed to a safelight. 481. Better quality radiographs can be obtained when expertly done by manual processing rather than by automatic processing, but most processing is performed automatically becau (A) manual processing is time consuming. (B) itis difficult to train and keep manual processing personnel. (©) automatic processors are easier to maintain, (D) chemical temperatures and solutions are difficult to maintain in darkrooms where manual processing is practiced, 482. The function of the developer is to: (A) stop the process (B) harden the emulsion, (© recover silver. (D) change exposed silver halide crystals to metallic silver. 483. The best method of arresting the development process is to place the film (A) an acid stop bath, (B) a fixer solution. (C) a.water rinse. (D) a wetting solution, 484. The most important function of the fixer is to: (A) neutralize alkali from developer. {B) remove undeveloped silver salt (C) increase density. (D) harden the emulsion.Qand A- RT 485, Wetting agents are used primarily as a deterent for: (A) reticulation, (B) changes in density (©) water spots (D) felling, 486. In automatic processing, if the film emulsion becomes swollen, soft, or sticky, the result may be: (A) slowdown of the transport system and overiap. (B) film sticking on a roller. (C) film wrapping around a roller. (D)all of the above. 487. Ideally after processing, radiographs should be stored at a relative humidity of: (A) 10 percent. {B) 30 to 50 percent. (©) 70 to 80 percent. (D) relative humidity is not an important consideration, 488, In manual processing, the "cascade method" of washing film is desirable. To be effective, the hourly flow of water should be: (A) 1 to 2 times the volume of the tank. (B) water flow rate has no bearing on film washing (C) 12 to 16 times the volume of the tank. (D)4 to 8 times the volume of the tank, 489. Holding all other paramenters constant, an increase in time of development of a given film will result in a characteristic curve showing: (A) increased contrast and increased speed. (B) increased contrast and decreased speed. (C) decreased contrast and increased speed, {D) decreased contrast and decreased speed.Qand A- RT 490. Which of the following is not a requirement for illuminators used in the interpretation of radiographs? (A) A light source of sufficient intensity to view the area of interest of the radiograph (B) Sufficient masking to avoid glare from the edges of the radiograph (C) A foot-operated on-off switch (D) None of the above 491. For the routine viewing of high-density film, a hi lluminator with an adjustable light source should be used. Such a viewer should allow viewing of densities at least up to: (A)1SH&D. (B)25H&D. (40HeD. (D) 100H&D 492. When viewing radiographs, the film viewer should provide light of an intensity that is evenly distributed with an adjustment to vary the intensity. In addition the film viewer should have: (A) a viewing surface at a 90-degree angle. {B) fresh bulbs. (C) diffusing medium, (D) light green color. 493. To prevent damage to films, which of the following should be provided when viewing radiographs? (A) Masks or screens (B) Foot switch (C) Heat filter (D) Opal glass 494. The contrast sensitivity of the human eye is greatest when the surroundings compared to the area of interest on a radiograph are: (A) about the same brightness, (B) ofa lower brightness. (C) of a higher brightness, (D) brightness is not a factor in contrast sensitivity.Qand A-RT 495. For best contrast sensitivity, the film viewing room should have lighting: (A) as dark as possible. (B) approximately 38 lumens. (©) approximately 70 lumens. (D) as light as the area of interest in the film being reviewed, 496. When iewing film, background lighting should: (A) be virtually eliminated. (B) not reflect on the film under examination. (C) be carefully filtered, (D) be approximately 20 lumens. 497. A stereoscops (A) a device which projects the contents of a pair of stereoradiographs on a screen giving spatial resolution to indications in the radiographs. (B) a device which permits each eye to see only one of a pair of stereoradiographs. (©) a device which, by exposing two film cassettes simultaneously from different angl of radiographs. (D) a device which allows accurate measurements of the shift of an image in a set of stereoradiographs made for the punpose of parallax. enables the production 408. The donsity of any radiographic image is primarily dependent upon: (A) the kilovoltage of the source of radiation. (B) the amount of radiation absorbed by the emulsion of the film. (C) both of the above. {D) none of the above. 499, Lead sereens are used to improve the quality of radiographs by (A) controlling scatter radiation from the specimen, (B) minimizing backscatter radiation. (©) both of the above. {D) none of the above,Qand A-RT $00. Incident light of intensity of 200 footcandles on an area of film of 1.3 density transmits an intensity of 10 foot-candles. What is the intensity transmitted in the area of the film measuring 2.3 density? (A) 5 footcandles (B) 05 footcandle (C) 1 footcandle (D) 0.1 footcandle 501. The relationship between film exposure and the resulting film density of any particular film is: (A) the unsharpness. (B) the film contra (C) the subject contrast. (D) none of the above. 502. As the kilavoltage i increased, the subject contrast: (A) increases. (B) decreases, (C) remains the same. (D) inceases directly with E* 503. Radiographic image quality may be adversely affected by poor subject contrasts this may be caused by: (A) insufficient absorption differences in the specimen, (B) excessive radiation energy for the application. (C) scatter. (D) alll of the above. 504. The film contrast for the specimens being radiographed may be determined from the: (A) size of film. (B) radiation quality. {C) slope of the characteristic curve for the film, (D) ll of the above.Qand A- RT 505, Which of the following is independent, for most practical purposes, of the wavelength and distribution of the radiation reaching the fil (A) Subject contrast (B) Radiographic contrast (©) Film contrast (D) Definition 506. By increasing the source-to-film distance in a given exposure, the image sharpness is: (A) increased (B) decreased. (©) wtaffected (D) decreased by a negligible amount 307. What is the effect of the sensitivity of a radiograph when the phy increased without changing any other exposure factors? ical size of a gamma source is (A) Sensitivity and geometric unsharpness are increased (B) Geometric sharpness and definition are increased (©) Physical source size does not affect sensitivity (D) Geometric sharpness is increased and sensitivity is decreased 508. The image sharpness of an object may be affected by: (A) type of film. (B) type of screen. (C) radiation quality. (D) all of the above ‘509. When a lead screen radiogr 1ph of an object shows a poorly defined image of the object, one course of action to correct this may be: (A) change to 2 course-grain file. (B) use an X-ray tube of larger focal spot. (C) increase source-to-film distance. (D) change to fluorescent screens.Qand A- RT 510. During the loading of a film cassette, the lead foil screens are scratched. The resulting radiograph would show: (A) no change since deep scratches are not related to the film. (B) broad fuzzy light lines corresponding to the seratches. (C) defined dark lines corresponding to deep scratches. (D) random film indication due to scatter caused by scratches. S11, Deep seratehes in lead screens result in dark lines on the radiograph. These are due to: (A) loss of absorbing characteristic of the lead foil resulting in more of the X-ray source reaching the film. (B) the scratch resulting in a greater surface area of lead, causing a larger electron emission area which affects exposure of the film. (©) air gap between the deep scratch and film. (D) none of the above, 512. The appearance of colored stains on a processed radiograph could be caused by: (A) neutralizaton of the acid in the fixer solution. (B) neutralization of the alkaline content in the fixer solution. (C) acidification of the fixer solution. (D) underdevelopment. 519. Prolonged washing of film in water above 68° F has a tendency to: (A) crystalize the gelatin, (B) soften the gelatin. (D) cause the image to fade. 514, When using lead foil intensifying sereens, a fuzzy radiographic image is a sign: (A) of oil or grease on the screens. (B) that tin coating was used on the screens. (©) of poor sereen-to-film contact. (D) of foreign material between the screen and the film, 515. A mottled radiograph can be caused by: (A) not removing the paper interleaving before the exposure. (B) using tin-coated lead screens. (C) X-ray diffraction effects. (D) all of the above.Q and A- RT 516. Using the formula given above, calculate the equivalent sensitivity of an ASTM #20 penetrameter ‘showing the 2T hole on a 1.25- specimen. Image Quality Indicators Given «= 100_, (TR where x = Material thickness (inches) T = Penetrameter thickness (inches) 1 = Essential hole diameter (inches) a = Equivalent sensitivity (percent) (A) 2.0% (B) 1.6% (©) 18% (D) 1.4% 517. Using the formula given above, calculate the specimen thickness if the equivalent sensitivity is percent based on seeing the 4T hole in an ASTM #40 penctrameter. Image Quality Indicators 100 Q_ (TR where x = Material thickness {inches) ® 1 = Penetrameter thickness (inches) hi ~ Bovential hole diameter (inches) = Equivalent sensitivity (percent) (A) 1.35 inches (B)3.17 inches (C) 2.56 inches (D) 2.17 inches 518. The DIN type penetrameter is which type of image quality indicator? (A) A plaque type (B) A stepped type (CA wire type (D) An indirect imaging typeQand A-RT 519. A procedure requires a quality level of 4-4T and the use of penetrameters based on ASTM E142 design. What shape of penetrameter would be used on a 41/2-inch thick specimen? (A) Rectangular (B) Triangular (©) Circular (D) Stepped 520. 01 ion of the stop bath or rinsing of the film may cause: (A) streaking of the film (B) yellow staining of the film (© logging of the film. (D) filling of the emulsion. 521. In automatic processing, poor drying of film can be attributed to which of the following if the drying ‘temperature and air circulation in the drying section are found to be acceptable! (A) Underreplenishment of the fixer solution (B) Infrequent use of the processor (©) Roller alignment in the wash section (D) Overdevelopment 522, In automatic processing, streaks on the film can be attributed to: (A) a long interval between feeding of films. (B) clogged developer recirculation system. (C) dirty dryer tubes, (D) all of the above. ‘523. A milky-appearing fixer solution could be caused by: (A) the fixer being too warm when mixed, (B) a sudden change in temperature, (C) use of a carbonate developer. (D) use of fine-grained film.Qand A - RT 524. If am exposure time of one minute was necessary using a 6-foot source-to-film distance fora particular.exposure, what time would be necessary if a 3-foot source-to-film distance is used and all other variables remain the same? (A)? minutes (B) 15 seconds (©)4 minutes (D) 30 seconds 525. The mathematical rule of exposure which governs the time-distance relation of the basie exposure calculator is: (A) the exposure time (T) required for a given exposure is directly proportional to the square of the source-to-film distance (D) (B) the exposure time (T) required for a given exposure is inversely proportional to the square of the source-to-film distance (D) (C) the exposure time (T) required for a given exposure is inversely proportional to the milliamperage (M). (D) none of the above. 526. Assume that a radioisotope source has an e is used, determine the dosage rate at 2 feet. (a) 4800 men (B) 1200 mR/hr (©) 533 mR/hr (D) 300 mBvhr $27. The primary function of a filter is to: (A) reduce the penetrating ability of the radiation, (B) absorb scatter radiation. (C) reduce exposure time. (D) eliminate most of the undercut caused by scatterQand A- RT 528. Which of the following materials typically used for filtration purposes in industrial radiography at energies of 150-400kV? (A) Aluminum/magnesium (B) Leadicopper (© Stainless steel/steel (D) Cadmium/zine 529. A filter in the X-ray tube beam has the effect of: (A) hardening the radiation beam. (B) softening the radiation beam. (© dispersing the radiation beau (D) increasing the beam intensity. 4530, Scattered radiation originating in matter outside the specimen is most serious for specimens which have high absorption for X rays. One of the most satisfactory arrangements for combining effectiveness and convenience to reduce seatter when radiographing steel is to: (A) cut out diaphragms from lead sheet. (B) pack barium clay around the specimen, (©) use a liquid absorber. (D) surround the object with copper or steel shot. 531. Filtering an X-ray beam is analogous to: (A) decreasing the kilovoltage. (B) increasing the kilovoltage. (C) decreasing the milliamperage. (D) increasing the milliamperage. 532, The primary purpose of using two or more films of unequal speed in the same cassette (A) to eliminate retakes due to incorrect exposure time. (B) to eliminate retakes due to artifacts on the film. (Oto cover a wide range of thickness in one exposure. (D) to reduce the scatter to the total image.Q and A - RT 533. When two different films are selected for a multifilm technique, their speeds must be such that on their characteristic curves: (A) there is some overlap on the density axis. (B) there is no overlap on the density axis (O there is some overlap on the log E axis. (D) there is no overlap on the log E axis 534, If the thickness range of a specimen is too great for a single exposure, a multifilm technique may be used. If two films of different speeds are selected for this example, the log relative exposure range for these two films is: (A) the difference in log exposure between the value at the high-density end of the faster film and the low-density end of the slower film curve. (B) the difference in log exposure between the value at the low-density end of the faster film and the high density end of the slower film. (C) the difference in log exposure between the value at the low-density end of the slower film and the high-density end of the faster film. (D) the difference in log exposure between the value at the high-density end of the slower film and the low-density end of the faster flr 535. Select the one advantage stereoradiographs have over films produced by parallax method. (A) rermtt correct spatiat retation (B) Use inexpensive viewing devices (© Require special reading glasses (D) Utilize two films, 536, A setup by which an arrangement of prisms or mirrors permits each eye to see but a single one of a pair of radiographs is known as: (A) stroboradiography. (B) parallax radiography. (C) Stereoradiography. (D) autoradiography.Q and A-RT 537. Using the parallax method for triangulation with the film in contact with the object and shifting the source equal distance in two directions from its original position for location of a flaw, it is revealed that the flaw shift is less than one-half the shift of the source side marker. The flaw is: (A) nearer the film plane, (B) nearer the source side. (C) on the source side surface. {D) on the film side surface. 538. A discontinuity was found by radiography in a 3-inch thick weld. The source-to-film distance was 20 inches. A second exposure was made with the source shifted 4 inches parallel to the film plane. It was noted that the discontinuity image moved 5/8 inch as compared with the original exposure. Determine the distance of the flaw above the film. (A) 3.24 inches (B) 1.25 inches (©)2.70 inches (0) 0.27 inches 539. Radiography performed using high intensity X-ray beams with microsecond exposures is: (A) microradiography. (B) autoradiography. (C) stroboradiogtaphy. (D) flash radiography. 540. The optimum maguification to obtain optimum image clarity in a dynamie fluoroseopie system is determined using the equation above. For a system with a screen unsharpness of 0.5 mm and a 0.7 mm. focal spot, determine the optimum geometric magnification. M, = 1+ (U/FP? (A) 2.0 (B) 1.6 (C) 1.06 (p26Qand A - RT S41. One of the main disadvantages of fluoroscopic systems is (A) extensive operator training required. (B) high image brightness on sereen, (©) flaw image enlargement. (D) limited ability to see fine detail 542. Which one of the following is not a common method of viewing a fluoroscopic image? (A) Through a phosphor-coated lead glass screen {B) Mirror projection of the image (©) Via use of an imaging orthicon (D) Through a calcium tungstate soreen 543. Electron radiography is primarily used for radi graphy of: (A) high atomic number (Z) materials (B) thin metallic specimens. (C) very thin nonmetallic specimens. (D) combination of high and low atomic number materials, 544. An electron emission radiograph shows surface details only; in this regard it is similar to: (A) a macroradiograph. (B) a microradiograph, (©) photomicrograph. (D) tomography, The principle of electron emission radiography is based on: (A) differential absorption. (B) diffraction caused by crystalline structure. (C) differences in electron emission from an irradiated specimen resulting from greater emission from higher atomic number materials, (D) differences in film density caused by the differential penetrating ability of the various energy electrons. 546. Which one of the following is not a commonly accepted use of microradiography? (A) Determination of segregation of constitutents in thin alloy sections (B) Detection of minute discontinuities (C) Study of biological sections (D) Study crystalline structureQand A-RT 547, X-ray devices used in microradiography typically operate at potentials up to: (A) 50 KV, (B) 100 kV. (C) 150 KV, {D) 200 KV. 548. Filters and screens are devices used by radiographers to control diffraction effeets. If spurious indications appear in the finished radiograph and diffraction is suspect, what technique aids or corrections can be made to the technique to eliminate suspect diffraction patterns? (A) Raise the kilovoltage (B) Lower the kilovoltage (C) Change the radiation center 5 inches from previous location (D) Change class and type of film used from type 1 to type 2 549, X-ray diffraction patterns appearing in a radiograph are typically observed in the radiography of: (A) thick castings at greater than 1 MeV. (B) thin metallic specimens with large grain size. (C) thin metallic specimens with fine grain size (D) thick metallic specimens with low atomic number (Z). 550. The radiographic appearance of diffraction pattorns is mottled of the following sets of indications? 1d may bo confused with which one (A) Porosity or segregation (B) Oxidation or bum through (C) Porosity or burst (D) Misruns or porosity 581. A method for distinguishing between diffraction mottling and other causes of mottling (A) re-expose the film using a much lower exposure factor. (B) change the angle of incidence of the beam by I to 5° and re-expose (C) lower the kilovoltage and re-expose. (D) re-expose, without using lead screensQand A- RT 552, In routine thickness gaging setups using gamma-ray sources, which one of the following radiation detectors is most commonly used? (A) Anthracene erystal (B) Ionization chamber (© Sodium iodide crystal (D) Geiger-Miiller tube 553. OF the following, which gaging application is most suitable for use of gamma rays? (A) Cigarette density gaging (B) Thickness gaging of thin foils stich as condenser papers (©) Paper thickness gage (D) Liquid density gage 554, In a system using a high-resolution screen and low-light level TV, real-time imaging must be conducted on 0.5-inch steel at 20 fpm. The motion unsharpness must be held to 0.2 mm. Source-to-object, distance - 16 inches and focal spot is 0.7 mm. Using the formula Um = w/L determine the width of the radiation beam in the direction of motion. (A) 64 inches (B) 32 inches (€)0.25 inches (p) 2.5 mm 555. In comparing electronic image intens systems that use TV presentation with those employing solid-state sereens and high-sensitiv closed-circuit TV systems, which of the following statements is fale~? (A) The overall gain of an image intensifier/TV combination usually exceeds that of the sereew/TV combinations. (B) the overall resolution of the intensifier/TV combination usually exceeds that of the screen/TV combination. (C)as the area of the viewed screen increases for either, the overall system gain must also increase. (D) the single erystal scintillating screens and the fine-grain fluorescent screens have better resolution than the electronic image intensifier tubes but much lower light output,Qand A- RT 586, Using geometric enlargement principles, determine the image size if the object is 6 inches in diameter, ‘the source-to-film distance is 36 inches, and the source-to-object distance is 30 inches. (A) 7.2 inches (B) 5 inches (C) 144 inches (D) 10 inches 557. The focal spot should be as small as possible, because the size and which of the following? is a definite relationship between focal spot (A) Radiographic contrast (B) Total radiation output (C) Subject contrast (D) Radiographic definition 558. Which of the following influences the amount of radiation that falls on the recording plane in the umbral region of the image? (A) Absorption characteristics of the test piece (B) Angle of the incident radiation (C) Size of the recording plane (D) Thnckness of the recording plane 559. A consequence of insufficient heat or the presence of scale on the fusion face of the weld bevel may be: (A) incomplete penetration, (B) root concavity. (©) excessive root reinforcement. (D) lack of fusion, 560. A weld made with an excessive number of passes or inadequate speed of travel could result in: (A) root concavity. (B) oxidation. (C) excessive root reinforcement (D) incomplete penetrationQand A - RT 561. Steels that cont more than 0.30 percent carbon if welded are prone to which type of discontinui (A) Heat-affected zone cracking (B) Porosity (©) Lack of fasion (D) Slag formation 562. A discon or lack of preh nuity in welds caused by gas entrapment in the molten metal, moisture, improper cleaning, is referred to as: (A) dross. (B) lack of penetration, (©) porosity. (D) slag inclusion. 563. A discontinuity consisting of one or several parallel fissures caused by the internal rupture or fracture of material while in the hot semiplastic state is calle (A) lack of fusion (B) tear (©) unfused chaplet. (D) hot crack. 564. Cracks or fractui contraction i s formed in a casting prior to completion of solidification because of restricted indicative of a: (A) shrinkage cavity. (B) hot tear. (C) misrun, {D) cold shut 565. A discontinuity that may be the result of improper pouring temperature or alloy composition is indicative (A) gas porosity. (B) shrinkage porosity (C) dispersed discontinuities. (D) unfused chaples.Qand A- RT 566. A discontinuity caused by gas released during solidification or by the evaporation of moisture or volatile material from the mold surface is indicative of: (A) microshrinkage, (B) shrinkage porosity. (C) inclusion, (D) gas porosity, 567. lure of the metal to fill the mold cavity, thus ereating a casting that is not complete, is (A) core shift (B) cold shut. (©) misrun, (D) buckles that exists hecause of imperfect fusion af two streams of metal that have (A) misrun (B) cold shut (©) rattails (D) buckles 569. Voids in a casting caused by inadequate feeding to compensate for the volumetric shrinkage that, ‘occurs during sol i (A) shrinkage cavities. (B) shift (C) hot tears. (D) blowholes. 570. Particles of fo material such as sand or slag that are embedded in the east metal are: (A) ges holes. (B) buckles. (©) rattails (D) inclusions.Qand A- RT 571. An indication on a casting radiograph that appears as distinet dark lines or a band of variable length. and width, with a definite smooth outli jcative of: (A) shrinkage. (B) segregation. (©) cold shuts {D) tears 572. Voids that are readily recognizable as smooth, dark, round or oval-shaped spots with radiographic contrast varying directly with thei (A) gas porosity (B) shrinkage porosity. (©) segregation, (D) core shift 573, An uneven wall thickness in an internal passage of a casting as viewed in a radiog, (A) misruns. (B) segregation, (©) unfused chaplets (D) core shift. 574, If an elongated dark area of varying length and width which is either continuous or intermittent appears in the center of a radiograph of a weldment, it is indicative (A) cracks. (B) incomplete penetration. (C) inclusions. (D) shrinkage. 575, An indication or indications on a radiograph that appear as dark, ragged lines of variable widths and numerous branches with no definite line of continuity are indicative of: (A) cold cracks, (B) cold shuts. (©) hot tears (D) core shift.Qand A-RT 576, A dark line of varying width on a radiograph which follows the edge of the fusion zone of a weld is indicative of: (A) undereutting. (B) incomplete fusion. (©) porosity (D) shrinkage. 577. An indication appearing on a radiograph as a dark, elongated area of varying length or width located at the center of a weld would probably be classified as: (A) aligned porosity. (B) slag line, (C) wagon tracks (D) lack of penetration. 578, An oval or circular dark spot with smooth edges appearing on the radiograph would most probably be indicative of: (A) bum through. (B) crater crack. (C) porosity. (D) lack of fusion intermittent or continuous dark line found at the edge of the weld groove or bevel would probably (A) aligned porosity. (B) slag line. (C) root concavity. (D) crater cracking. ‘580. A narrow, dark Ine traveling in Irregular directions would generaUy indicate the presence of: (A) aorack. (B) slag line (©) aligned porosity. (D) lack of fusionQand A - RT 581. A very thin. straight, dark line, either continuous or intermittent, located parallel to and normally on ‘one side of a weld would be indicative of: (A) slag inclusion, (B) suck-up (C) aligned porosity (D) lack of fusion 582. Indications appearing singly or as clusters of small, light spots in a GTA weld would most probably be classified as: (A) weld spatter (B) nonmetallic inclusion, (©) tungsten inclusion. (D) gas holes. ‘583. The term used to describe the reduction in the base metal thickness where the last weld bead is fused to the surface is called: (A) convexity, (B) undercut. (C) lack of fusion. () concavity. 584, A term used to deseribe the oxides and other solids which are shown radiographicaUly as elongated or rounded inclusions is: (A) slag (B) porosity. (C) suck-up. (D) worm holes.Q and A - RT *** ANSWER KEY *** wobourras BSRSRRESSE POUWOREoFOD ° 22.DSIA 52. 53.B 54. 55. 56.B 57.D 58.C 59. B 60. 61. B 62.4 63.D 64. OSA 66. 67.4 68. B OA 70.D Cc 2B 73.D TAA 5.B 16. me TBA 79.B 80.D s1.D 82. B 83.B 34. S.A. 86.D 87.4 88. 89.4 90.4 OLA 92.4 93. 94.4 95. 96. D 97. 98. A 99.8 100.B 101.C 102.C 103.C 104. 105. B 106. D 107.108. C 109. A 110. D 111. 112. 113. B 114.¢ 115.B 116.B I7.E 118. 119. B 120. 121. 122.D 123.4 124.B 128.D 126. 127.D 128.B 129.B 130.€ 1B. A 132. D 133.D 134. B 135.B 136.A 137.B 138, ¢ 139. B 140. D 141. 12. B 143.C 144.4 145.C 146.C 147. 148. B 149.CBOSE AE ODOT UUOO EAU NOOO ROFOC OPE OOO TOREOEAS O336. D 337.4 338. D 339.4 340. A 341. B 342. D 343. A 344. D 345. C 346.4 347. 348. 349. B 350. C 351.D 352.C 353.C asa. A 455. C 356. D 357.€ 358. B 389.D 360.D 361. B 362. B 363. D 364. 365.D 266. A 367.C 368. D 369. B 370. 37. A 372.D 373.B 374.D 375.D 376.C 377.B 378.4 379.8 380. C 381.D 382.D 383. C 384. B 385. B 386.C 387.D 388. B 389. 390. 391. B 392. B564. B 565. B 366. D 567. 568. B 569.4 570.D 571.C 572. 573.D 574. B 875.C 576.4 577.D 578.C 579.B 580. A 581.D 582.C 583. B 584. A.Study Guide Level II] RT RT LEVEL Ill STUDY GUIDE, 1. Emission of an alpha particle decreases the mass of the nucleus by and the atomic number by (a4 (B)4,2 (€)2.2 (24 ®21 2. Emissic of an alpha particle is most likely from what kind of a nucleus? (A) Large (B) Small (C) Neutron-rich_ (D) Neutron-poor (E) None of the above 3. Emission of a beta particle is most likely from what kind of nucleus? (A) Large (B) Small (C) Noutron-rich (D) Neutron-poor (B) None of the above 4, Emi ofa gamma ray is most likely from what kind of a nucleus? (A) Large (B) Small (©) Neutron-rich (D) Neutron-poor (E) None of the above 5. Emission of a neutron is most likely from what kind of a nucleus? (A) Large (B) Small {C) Neutron-rich (D) Neutron-poor (B) None of the aboveStudy Guide Level III RT 6. Gamma emission is usually preceded by emission of. . (A) an alpha particle (B) a beta particle (©) aneutron (D) a neutrino (B) either an alpha or a beta particle 7. Which of the following reactions is most often used to produce a radioactive material for radiography? (A) Neutron in, proton out (B) Neutron in, two neutrons out (C) Neutron in, helium nucleus out (D) Neutron in, gamma out (E) Neutron in, neutron out 8. Gamma and X-ray photons are part of the (A) periodic chart (B) chart of the nuclides (C) electromagnetic radiation spectrum (D) particulate emission from the nucleus (B) companion emission with neutrons 9, X-ray tubes produce (A) monochromatic energy photons (B) white radiation (C) all types of radiation (alpha, beta, gamma) (D) only high-energy photons (B) only low-energy photons 10, Most of the electrons accelerated in an X-ray tube produce - (A) X-rays (B) alpha particles, (C) beta particles (D) gamma rays, (E) heatStudy Guide Level III RT 11. Alpha particles interact prineipally by (A) ionization and excitation (B) photoelectric effect (©) Compton scatter (D) pair production (B,C, and D 12, Beta particles interact principally by (A) ionization and excitation (B) photoelectric effect (C) Compton scatter (D) pair production (®)B,C, and D 13. Gamma photons interact principally by (A) ionization and excitation (B) photoelectric effect (C) Compton scatter (D) pair production (E) B,C, and D 14, Low-energy photons interact principally by (A) ionization and excitation (B) photoelectric effect (C) Compton scatter (D) pair production (©) B,C, and D 15. Moderate-energy photons interact principally by (A) ionization and excitation (B) photoelectric effect (©) Compton scatter (D) pair production ()B,C, and DStudy Guide Level Ill RT 16, High-energy photons interact prineipally by : (A) ionization and excitation (B) photoelectric effect (C) Compton scatter (D) pair production (©)B,C, and D 17. Which of the following radiations cannot be described by an absorption equation of the form I = Bloe-kd (A) Alpha particles (B) Beta particles, (©) Neutrons (D) X-rays (E) Gamma rays 18. Which of the following formulas best describes the inverse square law? (A) IDI = 1202 (B) I1Di squared = 2D2squared (©) HsquaredD1 = 2squaredD2 (D) (ID I)squared = (12D2) squared 19. If one-eighth of a sample of a radioisotope remains after 24 years, what is the half-life of the radioisotope? (A)3 years. (B) 4 years (C)6 years (D) 8 years (E) 12 years 20. A curie is : (A) 2.22 x (10)12 dps (B) 3.7 x (10)12 dps (©) 3.7.x (10)10 dpm (D) 2.22 x (10)10 dpm (B) 3.7 x (10)10 dpsStudy Guide Level Ill RT 21. The probability for absorption of any particular radiation type and energy with a specific element is referred to as the : (A) attenuation (B) buildup factor (C) cross section (D) atomic coefficient (E) probability index 22, Which of the following is not a form for expressing attenuation coefficients? (A) Atomic (B) Rayleigh (C) Linear (D) Mass 23, Ifa specific material had a linear attenuation coefficient of 0.20 em”, what would the half-value layer be in that mater (A) 0.56 in (B) 136m, (©) 1-44 in (D) 3.45 in. (©) 2.05 in. 24. A material with a 9.83 in. tenth-value layer has a half-value layer of. (A) 0.983 in {B) 2.95 in, (©) 4.915 in (D) 3.24 in, (E) 1.60 in.Study Guide Level III RT 25. If the intensity of a radiation source was initially 100 R/h and it was desired to reduce this intensity to 10 mR/h, what thickness shield would be required? Assume that the linear attenuation coefficient for the specific energy is 0.90 em"-1. (A) 9.6em (B) 10.2em (©) 2.55 em (D) 828 em (E)2.2cm 26. What would be the facility workload for a busy exposure cell with the following average techniques (f7 in blank from list below)? 110 exposures/wk @ 10 mA-min 500 exposures/wk @ 22 mA-min r ) 1,150 exposures/wk @ 5 mA-min ( ) (A) 34,600 mA-min/wk (B) 7,850 mA-min/wk (C) 17,850 mA-miniwk (D) 2,550 mA-min/day (E) 71,400 mA-min/month 27. An occupancy factor commonly used for design purposes of uncontrolled sidewalk areas is (A) /4 (By Us (©) 16 (@)1 (E) 10 28, The permissible weekly exposure factor P used in facili design equations for controlled areas is (A) 10 mR (B)O.1R (COR (D) 2mk ()5mRStudy Guide Level Ill RT 29. X-rays may be produced when high-speed are stopped by a high-atomic-number target. (A) electrons (B) protons (©) hydrogen ions (D) helium ions (B) all of the above 30. What naturally occurring radioisotope has been used for radiography? (A) Co-60 {B) C137 (ir (D) Raz (E) all of the above 31. Neutron activation produces radioisotopes by : (A) excitation of the nuclei of the target atoms by neutrons (B) loss of electrons, caused by neutron bombardment, from the target atoms (©) capture of a neutron by the target atoms {D) toss of a neutron by the target atoms (E) rapid acceleration of the neutron to release gamma rays 32. Which of the following may be produced by neutron activation? (A) Co-60 (B) Cs-137 (©) fr-192, (D) A and B above (E) A and C above 33. Which of the following may be produced as a fission fragment? (A) Co-60 (B) Cs-137 (C) 1-192 (D) Ra-226 (EB) Band D aboveStudy Guide Level Ill RT M4, Which of the following has the most penetrating gamma rays? (A) Co-60 (B) Cs-137 (C) tr-192 (D) Tm-170 (E) Radiographic sources are encapsulated to Radiographic sources are encapsulated to (A) improve the gamma ray output (B) harden the radiation beam (C) increase the cost of the sources (D) prevent lass of the radioactive material (B) collimate the gamma ray beam 36. The acceptable modern radiographic exposure device may be : (A) a radiographic source suspended from a pole by a string (B) a radiographic source on a cylinder of shielding material rotating in a larger cylinder of shielding material (C) a radiographic source on a flexible cable that may be driven out of a shield through a guide tube to a remote location (D) aradiographic source that may be removed from a shield by long tongs or pliers so that it can be placed for exposure (E) Band C only 37. The acceptable modern radiographic exposure device uses as the shielding material. (A) lead (B) depleted uranium (C)steel (D) tungsten (©) aluminum 38. In the doughnut-shaped tube of a betatron, electrons are accelerated to high speeds through (A) RF power phasing (B) uniform voltage distribution (C) magnetic induction (D) an insulated charging beltStudy Guide Level Ill RT 39, Electrostatic generators (Van de Graaf) for radiography operate in the range of. . (A) 1-2 MeV (B) 5-10 Mev (C) 10-15 Mev (D) 15-25 MeV 40. The high-frequency waves of energy generated by the magnetron in a linear accelerator are in which band of the frequency spectrum? (A) L-band (B) M-band (©) K-band (D) S-band 41. The efficiency of target material in the production of X-rays is to its atomic number. (A) equal (B) proportional (C) indirectly proportional (D) conversely equal 42. The critical difference between the operation of detectors in the ionization, Geiger proportional isthe jiller, and (A) pulse duration (B) voltage applied to the center electrode (C) specific ionizaton of the chamber gas (D) amperage of the chamber circuit (B) resistance of the electrode 43. All other design parameters being equal, which of the following operates at the highest applied voltage? (A) Geiger-Miiller detector (B) Ionization chamber detector (C) Proportional counter detector {D) Photomultiptier tube (E) All operate at the same voltageStudy Guide Level Ill RT 44, The minimum amount of energy required to produce an ion pair in air is approximately (A) 100 eV (B) 68 keV (C)0.510Mev (D) 1.02Mev (E) 34eV 45. Survey instruments used to monitor radiography operations should have a range of at least (A) 1-2,000 mR/h (B) 2-10,000 mR/h (C) 2-2,000 mh (19) 7-1,000 mR/h (E) 1-300 mR/a 46, At what lo jons on the instrument range would you be checking in the above situation? A survey instru (A) 250 and 1,150 mRvh (B) 250 and 850 mRV/h (C) 85 and 1,150mR/h {D) 115 and 850 mB (E) 150 and 850 mR/h 47. What is the distance from the calibration source to the instrument detector to obtain the calculated inten: (A) 61.9% (B) 20.6ft (C) 13.24 {D) 39.0tt (E) None of the above 48, In the above situati ication was +30 percent of the required lower level reading, it (A) 325 mvh (B) 150 mR/h (C) LL mR/h (D) 195 mR’ (E) 130 mPv/hStudy Guide Level Ill RT 49. The graphic presentation that depicts the relationship between exposure and the resulting photographic density for a particular film type is commonly referred to as a (A) linear curve (B) characteristic curve (C) spectral curve (D) logarithmic curve (B) all of the above 50. A commonly used material for the luminescent phosphor in fluoroscopic screens is (A) zine sulfide (B) cesium iodide (©) sodium iodide (D) selenium oxide (E) cadmium oxide 51. The photoconduetive material used in xeroradiography is (A) iridium — powdered (B) cesium oxide — spheres (© zine sulfide — crystalline (D) selenium — vitreous (B) sodium — powdered 52. The detection efficiencies of scintillation detectors over gas ionizatis approximately : chambers for photons is (A) (10)6 times greater (B) (10)3 times greater (©) (10)4 times greater (D) (10)9 times greater (B) (10)12 times greaterStudy Guide Level Ill RT 53. Which of the following survey instrument types is usually considered least susceptible to moisture and. physical shock? (A) Proportional counter instruments (B) Ionization chamber instruments (©) Geiger-Muller tube instruments (D) Bonner sphere instruments (E) Germanium detector instruments 54, If an individual is 32 years old on June 1, 1985, what is the maximum permissible lifetime dose allowed under the NCRP radiation banking concept through July 1, 1985? (A) 70rem, (B) 68.5 rem (C) 260 rem (D) 90 rem (E) 65 rem 55. By regulation, a sealed source of radioactive material is considered leaking when the amount of removable contamination reaches : (A) 0.005 nck {B) 0.160 pei (C) 0.050 Ci (D) 1.000 Ci (E) 0.001 wei 56, Which one of the following radioisotopes is not naturally occurring? (A) Cesium-137 (B) Radium-226 (C) Potassium-40 (D) Carbon-14 (E) Hydrogen-3,Study Guide Level Ill RT 57. Which of the following human cell eategories is the most sensitive to radiation exposure? (A) Granulocytes (B) Basal cells (© Bile duct cells, {D) Muscle cells (E) Lymphocytes 58. If a radiation exposure of 5.8 R is received by dose equivalent? n incident, what is the individual's (A) 5.8 rem (B) 2.9 rad (C) 23.2 rem (D) 11.6 rem (E) 11.6 rad 59. When using film as the method for neutron personnel monitoring, what filter material is used to produce an (n,y) reaction, which will inerease the film density after neutron exposure? (A)Tin (B) Mylart™ (C) Cadmium (D) Brace (B) Lead 60, Specific areas of the Code of Federal Regulations used frequently by radiography licensees are (A) 10CFR20 (B) 10CFR34 (©) 10CFRS0 (D) 10cFR70 (E) both A and B 61. In accordance with DOT regulations, radioactive materials are classified into which two categories? (A) Hazardous and nonhazardous (B) Normal and special (C) Penetrating and nonpenetrating (D) Type I and Type I (E) Flammable and nonflammableStudy Guide Level III RT 62. If an exposure of approximately 300 rem of gamma radiation was received to the whole body of an individual, which one of the following woujd notj2e likely? (A) White cell count increase (B) Vomiting (©) Diarrhea (D) Death, 63. Release of hydrogen ions during film development. . (A) decreases the pH of the solution (B) increases the pH of the solution (C) fixes the latent image (D) catalyzes the reduction of silver halide (B) is accompanied by release of carbon dioxide gas 64, From a chemical viewpoint, the effect of the latent image on film development is : (A) latent (B) catalysis, (C) fixation (D) neurosis (B) none of the above 65. Fixation of an unexposed film will result in (A) film having a milky appearance (B) milky fixer solution (C) formation of a negative image {D) aclear film (E) none of the above 66, Addition of replenisher to a developing solution (A) is not recommended (B) causes streaking on the film (©) must be done at an elevated temperature to assure dissolution of the reducing agent {D) should not be done more often than once a week (B) is subject to none of the aboveStudy Guide Level III RT 67. is (are) widely used as a film developing agent. (A) Trinitrotoluene (B) Acetosalicylic acid (C) Parahydroxybenzene (D) Carboxymethy! cellulose (E) Both A and C (68, As compared with film typically exposed to a density of 2.5, film exposed to an average overall density oft (A) requires a special stop bath for proper fixation (B) will exhaust the developer solntian more quickly (C) is especially difficult to dry (D) requires both A and C (B) requires none of the above 69. Use of a stop bath (A) prevents filling of the image {B) inhibits fixation (C) allows a shorter developing time (D) neutralizes the acid fixer (E) results in none of the above 70. It is recommended that, as film is being removed from the developing t: drained back into the developer solution because ks, the excess developer not be (A) the developer clinging to the film is too exhausted to contribute to the developer solution (B) tiny particles of emulsion released during the developing process will only contaminate the solution (O) the developer residing on the film is needed to maintain a balanced stop bath concentration (D) of both A and B (E) of both B and CStudy Guide Level III RT 71. If the incident light intensity on a film is 30 units, and the measured transmitted light inter units, what would the film density be? is 1.20 (A) 3.2 (B) 18.5 (C) 1.39 (D)2.3 ®lo 72. Using the characteristic curve in Figure 6.3 what is the exposure correction factor for film Z when i film density from 0.5 to 1.75 density? 73, Which one of the following is not a component of a typical developer solution? (A) Phenidone (B) Sodium carbonate (C) Acetic acid (B) Hydroguinone (E) Sodium sulfide 74, Development temperature in most automatic processors is in the range of. : (A) 81-85 °F (B) 68-70 °F (C) 74-78 °F (D) 90-91 °F (B) 95-98 °F 75. Contamination of developer with as little as fixer can result in serious developer malfunction. (A) 10.0 percent (B) 10 percent (C) 0.025 percent (D) 0.05 percent (E) 5.0 percentStudy Guide Level III RT 76. In general, when using the composite film viewing technique, each film should have a minimum density of (Ay LS (B18 (2.0 (B13 (B) none of the above 77. If an acceptable 2.5 density is obtained using a 30 mA-min technique at an SED of 24 in., what would the exposure time be at 36 in, SFD using 5 mA-min to obtain the same film density? (A) 45 minutes (B) 13.5 minutes (C) 9 minutes (D) 30 minutes (E) 22.5 minutes 78. Various radiographic techniques will require special consideration to reduce scatter radiation reaching the film, Which of the following does not constitute a good masking material? (A) Lead acetate/lead nitrate in water (B) Stoel shot (©) Aluminum (D) Barium clay 79. When radiographing a steel specimen 3/4 in. thick with 275 kV peak X-ray, the use of a copper filter of the specimen thickness is recommended (if more latitude is necessary). (A) 20% (B) 10% (4% (D) 15% 80. A multifilm technique may be necessary when radiographic inspection is to be performed on a (A) butt weld between 2 in. thick plates (B) consumable insert weld on small-diameter pipe (C) long seam weld on a storage tank (D) large-vessel nozzle weldStudy Guide Level Ill RT 81. One of the major benefits of the use of a radiographic enlargement technique is that it (A) increases the focal spot size (B) reduces scatter radiation {C) decreases geometric unsharpness (D) decreases exposure time 82, In stereoradiography, the shift of the X-ray tube for the required second exposure is based on the (A) thickness of the part (B) type of indication being evaluated (C) type of prisms used in the stereoscope (D) normal interpupillary distance 83. he triangulation method to determine the depth of a flaw is based on the relationship. (A) source-to-film distance (B) similar-triangle (©) markersto-film (D) shift-to-time 84. When using the rigid formula for triangul image shift ar . portant to remember that the flaw height and (A) linear (B) proportional (C) nonlinear (D) critical 85. The relative position of a flaw between the outside and inside surfaces ean be obtained by linear interpolation when using the . (A) double-marker formula (B) step-down technique (C) single-marker formula (D) rigid formulaStudy Guide Level III RT 86. In flash radiography various sourees of high-energy electrons are available. Which of the following is not a source of these electrons? (A) Gas discharge tubes (B) Vacuum discharge (C) Field emissions (D) Gamma ray sources 87. When using flash radiography techniques, care must be taken when selecting the correct combination of radiographic variables, Which of the following is not considered as important as the other three? (A) Sonree of. (B) Exposure time (C) Film speed (D) Screen combination 88. The technique for in-motion radiography is essentially the same as conventional techniques except the exposure time is based on (A) source-to- (B) DIT ratio (©) speed of travel (D) geometrio unsharpneas considerations lm distance 89. There are currently three in-motion radiographie techniques used in industry. Which of the following listed techniques is not an in-motion radiographic technique? (A) Linear motion (B) Rotary motion (©) Stereographic motion (D) Synchronous radiograph 90. A higher percentage loss of usable radiation is expected during in-motion radiographic techniques as the result of, : (A) collimation (B) filtration (©) speed of travel (D) absorptionStudy Guide Level III RT 91. In considering the use of a fluoroscopic technique to evaluate electrical components, the is still considered a disadvantage. (A) source of radiation {B) low brightness level of the screen (©) exposure of personnel to radiation (D) manipulating device 92. The electron radiographic technique utilizes in lieu of X-rays when using either the electron transmission or electron emission procedure. (A) photoelectrons (B) photomicrons (C) scattered secondary radiation (D) secondary photoelectrons 93. X-ray diffraction and the resultant patterns recorded on the inspection medium are of pri when radiographing (A) thick sections of steel specimens (B) aluminum specimens (C) bimetallic weld samples (D) grainy metallic specimens 94. If the panoramic technique of radiography jered is the is selected, one of the most important factors to be (A) material composition (B) thickness uniformity (C) film type (D) penetrameter requirements 95, Real-time systems employ fluorescent sercons or semiconductive material that affect the image quality. Factors that affect the system contrast are listed below. Select the factor that does not affect system contrast. (A) Quantum fluctuation (B) Gamma of screens (©) Intensifiers (D) Television monitorsStudy Guide Level Ill RT 96. Image-analysis techniques convert analog TV images into a digitized image that is further quantized in (A) time and space (B) space and intensity (C) distance and time (D) brightness and clarity 97. Image-enhancement techniques currently used include three of the four apy Identify the no/nmage-enhancement technique. (A) Edge enhancement (B) Spatial filtering (C) Pseudocolor enhancement (D) Statie radiography 98. In high-energy radiographic applications, screens vary depending on the energy used. When using an 8 ‘MeV Linatron, which of the following thieknesses would be the most appropriate front screen thickness? (A) 0.030 in. Pb (B) 0.125 in. Pb (C) 0.010 in. Pb (D) 0.250 in. AL 99. Proper interpretation of a radiograph requires that the film interpreter has an understanding of (A) film speed (B) configuration and manufacturing variables (©) exposure time (D)all the above 100. W of the discontinuities listed below would not be cla ied as a welding discontinuity? (A) Lack of fusion (B) Incomplete penetration (C) Slag inclusion {D) Cold shutStudy Guide Level Ill RT 101. Generally speaking, rounded or spherical voids resul would be identified as . during the welding process (A) slag inclusion (B) wagon tracks (©) porosity (D) tungsten inclusion 102. Nonadhesion between successive passes or along the edge of a weld preparation is called (A) lack of fusion (B) incomplete penetration (C) cracks (D) root concavity 103. Localized contrat n of cast metal as it s jes and cools may result in : (A) gas voids (B) cold shuts (O) shrinkage (D) cracks 104, Dark irregular images of varying length, density, and width on a radiograph of a submerged are-welded joint would probably be the result of. . (A) lack of fusion (B) trapped slag (C) incomplete penetration (D) hot tears 105, An area of nonfusion at the root area of a weld, which normally occurs when there is a problem with heat input, improper joint design, poor fit-up, or improper electrode selection, is generally referred to as (A) lack of fusion (B) wagon tracks (C) slag lines (D) incomplete penetrationStudy Guide Level III RT 106. A very light (almost white) indication detected in a piping joint that was welded using the tungsten inert gas process would probably be - (A) crater pits (B) porosity (C) weld spatter (D) tungsten inclusion 107. Porosity in a weld may not be critical. Which of the following porostty conditions fs not normally considered detrimental to welds? (A) Its present in large quantities (B) Itis randomly dispersed and less than 1/64 in, diameter. (C) It contains sharp tails. (D) Itis aligned in short distances. 108. All welding processes have three common variables. Which of the following is not one of those variables? (A) Souree of heat (B) Source of shielding (©) Size of electrodes (D) Sourse of chemical slementa 109, and reinforcement requirements are important determining if the proper penetrameter(s) were used. (A) Surface finish, (B) Welding (©) Thickness (D) Heat treatment 110. One of the factors that affeets the s ication of cast material is the (A) pour temperature (B) material composition (©) clasticity (D) root opening.Study Guide Level III RT 111, ——— in alll forms are considered the most detrimental because their sharp extremities act as stress concentrators. (A) Slag inclusions (B) Tungsten inclusions (C) Oxides (D) Cracks 112. The ——___— will normally provide the film interpreter with some indi types of discontinuities would be expected. (A) thickness (B) welding process (©) type of component (D) preheat temperatureStudy Guide Level Ill RT ** ANSWER KEY *** Breeenereere BOomamOhe eee) Bah boa 18.B 19.D 20.E 2. 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.8 26.C 27. 28.B 20.5 30.D 31. 32.E 23.8 34.4 35.D 36.E 37.B 38.C 39.4 40.D 4B 2B BA 44. 45.D 46.D 41.B 48.B 49.8 50.4POWEOPEEEEND OD 52. 53, 54. 55, 56. 37. 58, 59. 60. 61. 62. 63.108. C 109.C 110. A 11.D 112.B