PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HISTOPATHOLOGY AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS (PART 1)

1. Ideal amount of the fixative:

A. 1 – 2X the volume of the specimen C. 10 – 15X the volume of the specimen
B. 5 – 10X the volume of the specimen D. 10 – 20X the volume of the specimen
2. All of the following are microanatomical fixatives, EXCEPT:
A. 10% Formalin C. Bouin’s solution
B. Zenker’s solution D. Flemming’s fluid
3. Best fixative for the nervous system:
A. Formalin fixative C. Lead fixative
B. Permanganate fixative D. Chromate fixative
4. Fixative of choice for the preservation of fats:
A. Helly’s fluid C. Formalin
B. Newcomer’s fluid D. Newcomer’s fluid
5. Helly’s fluid is exactly the same as in Zenker’s fixative, but instead of GLACIAL ACETIC ACID, what component is
added:
A. Mercuric chloride C. Sodium sulfate
B. Potassium dichromate D. Formalin
6. Fixative recommended for fixing small pieces of liver, spleen, connective tissue fibers and nuclei:
A. Zenker’s fluid C. Heidenhain’s Susa solution
B. Orth’s fluid D. Regaud’s fluid
7. Excellent microanatomic fixative for pituitary gland, bone marrow and blood containing organs such as spleen and
liver:
A. Bouin’s solution C. Carnoy’s fluid
B. Helly’s fluid D. Flemming’s solution
8. All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse BLACK granules and these mercury deposits
must be removed BEFORE STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:
A. Saturated solution of iodine C. Distilled water
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Saturated solution of picric acid
9. Considered to be the MOST RAPID fixative/ recommended for fixing chromosomes, lymph glands and urgent
biopsies:
A. Gendre’s fixative C. Newcomer’s fluid
B. Carnoy’s fluid D. Flemming’s solution
10. Fixatives used mainly for acid mucopolysaccharides:
A. Lead fixatives C. Chromate fixatives
B. Mercurial fixatives D. Picric acid fixatives
11. Most widely used fixative for electron microscopy:
A. Acetone C. Osmium tetroxide
B. Zenker’s fluid D. Trichloroacetic acid
12. The process of decalcification is best performed:
A. Before fixation C. After impregnation
B. After fixation D. None of these
13. Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of decalcification:
A. Physical test C. X-ray or radiological test
B. Chemical test D. Adsorption test
14. The fastest chemical solution in decalcifying tissues is:
A. Trichloroacetic acid C. Formic acid
B. Nitric acid D. Versene
15. All of the following remove intracellular and extracellular water from the tissue following fixation, EXCEPT:
A. Alcohol C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Chloroform D. Dioxane
16. A TOXIC dehydrating agent, primarily employed for blood and tissue films and for smear preparation:
A. Ethyl alcohol C. Butyl alcohol
B. Methyl alcohol D. Isopropyl alcohol
17. Function/s of tetrahydrofuran:
A. Dehyrating agent C. Both of these
B. Clearing agent D. None of these
18. Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may
damage the bone marrow resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA:
A. Xylene C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Benzene D. Toluene
19. Process whereby the clearing agent is completely removed from the tissue and replaced by a medium that will
completely fill all the tissue cavities:
A. Embedding C. Blocking
B. Infiltration D. Casting
20. Simplest, most common and best embedding medium for routine tissue processing:
A. Paraffin wax C. Celloidin
B. Ester wax D. Carbowax
21. A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes:
A. Paraplast C. Ester wax
B. Bioloid D. Carbowax
22. The DRY celloidin embedding method is employed chiefly for the:
A. Bones and teeth C. Whole organs
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B. Large brain blocks D. Eyes

23. All of the following are substitutes for paraffin wax, EXCEPT:
A. Paraplast C. Malinol
B. Embeddol D. Tissue Mat
24. Melting point of ester wax:
A. 56-57oC B. 46-48oC C. 54-58oC D. 50-54oC
25. The last container through which tissue pass through in an automatic tissue processor contains:
A. Paraffin C. Formalin
B. Xylol D. Alcohol
26. Microtome knife recommended for frozen sections or for cutting extremely hard and tough specimens embedded in
paraffin blocks, using a base-sledge type or sliding microtome:
A. Plane-concave knife C. Biconcave knife
B. Plane-wedge knife D. None of these
27. Removal of gross nicks on the knife edge:
A. Honing B. Stropping C. Both of these D. None of these
28. Removal of “burr” or irregularities on the knife edge:
A. Honing B. Stropping C. Both of these D. None of these
29. Angle formed between the cutting edge of the microtome knife (27 o-32o):
A. Bevel angle C. Both of these
B. Clearance angle D. Neither of these
30. Angle formed between the surface of the block and the cutting edge of the knife (0 o-15o):
A. Bevel angle C. Both of these
B. Clearance angle D. Neither of these
31. This type of microtome easily cuts large blocks and serial sections can be obtained with ease because larger knives
can be used:
A. Sliding C. Rocking
B. Rotary D. Freezing
32. The cryostat is an apparatus used in fresh tissue microtomy. It consists of a microtome, kept inside a cold chamber
which has been maintained at a temperature of:
A. 20oC B. -20oC C. 4oC D. -4oC
33. A tissue exposed to short burst of CARBON DIOXIDE for a few minutes will:
A. Freeze C. Dehydrate
B. Harden D. Fix
34. Fat cells and enzymes are best demonstrated in:
A. Paraffin section C. Celloidin section
B. Plastic embedded section D. Frozen section
35. When trimming tissue block, they must be surrounded by at least __ of wax.
A. 1 mm B. 2 mm C. 3 mm D. 4 mm
36. Thickness of paraffin sections for routine histologic procedures:
A. 10-15  B. 4-6  C. 0.5  D. 5-10 
37. The following methods are done for drying sections on slide, EXCEPT:
A. On a hot plate at 45-55oC for 30-45 minutes
B. On a Bunsen flame
C. In an incubator at 37oC for 3 hours
D. In a wax oven at 56-60oC for 2 hours
38. Most probable cause when clearing agent turns milky as soon as the tissue is placed in it:
A. Incomplete fixation C. Incomplete dehydration
B. Prolonged fixation D. Prolonged dehydration
39. It is added to Mayer’s egg albumin to prevent the growth of molds:
A. Sodium chloride C. Thymol crystals
B. Glycerol D. Powdered starch
40. Adhesive added to the water in the floating-out bath – most convenient alternative to direct coating of slides:
A. Plasma B. Gelatin C. Starch paste D. Dried albumin
41. To avoid distortion of the image, the refractive index of the mountant should be near as possible to that of the glass
which is:
A. 1. 581 B. 1.185 C. 1.518 D. 1.155
42. Deparaffinization of tissue sections is accomplished by passing through:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
43. Coverslips from slides may be removed by immersion in:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
44. Process by which sections are stained with simple aqueous or alcoholic solutions of the dye:
A. Progressive staining C. Direct staining
B. Regressive staining D. Indirect staining
45. A tissue-mordant-dye complex is needed in:
A. Progressive staining C. Direct staining
B. Regressive staining D. Indirect staining
46. With this staining technique, the tissue is first overstained, and the excess stain is removed or decolorized from
unwanted part of the tissue:
A. Progressive staining C. Direct staining
B. Regressive staining D. Indirect staining
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47. The regressive staining method employs this procedure:

A. Deparaffinization C. Differentiation
B. Clearing D. Dehydration
48. Accelerate or hasten the speed of the staining power and selectivity of the dye:
A. Oxidizing agents C. Accentuators
B. Acid differentiators D. Mordants
49. Substances which aid in attaching a stain or dye to the tissue:
A. Oxidizing agents C. Accentuators
B. Acid differentiators D. Mordants
50. This technique entails the use of specific dyes, which differentiate particular substances by staining them with a color
that is different from that of the stain itself:
A. Orthochromatic staining C. Counterstaining
B. Metachromatic staining D. Vital staining
51. All of the following are metachromatic stains, EXCEPT:
A. Thionine C. Safranin
B. Toluidine blue D. Eosin
52. Stain used for demonstrating mitochondria during intravital staining:
A. Victoria blue C. Benzidine
B. Acridine orange D. Janus Green B
53. Application of a different color or stain to provide contrast and background to the staining of the structural component
to be demonstrated:
A. Orthochromatic staining C. Counterstaining
B. Metachromatic staining D. Vital staining
54. The routine stain for surgical tissue section is:
A. Gram’s stain C. Pap’s stain
B. Wright’s stain D. H&E stain
55. Routinely used in histopathology as a counterstain/background fro contrasting stain because it gives a pleasing and
colorful contrasts to nuclear stains:
A. Eosin C. Methylene blue
B. Toluidine blue D. Crystal violet
56. In the hematoxylin-eosin stain (H&E), this stain acts as the acid dye:
A. Hematoxylin C. Either of these
B. Eosin D. Neither of these
57. In routine H&E, most fixatives can be used, EXCEPT:
A. Zenker’s formol C. Osmic acid
B. Formaldehyde D. Picric acid
58. Only substance in histopathology that can fix, differentiate or stain tissues all by itself:
A. Osmic acid C. Trichloroacetic acid
B. Picric acid D. Acetic acid
59. The active dye (coloring agent) in hematoxylin solution is:
A. Hematin B. Hematein C. Hematoxylin D. Hematoxylon
60. All of the following are chemical oxidizing agent/ripening agent for hematoxylin, EXCEPT:
A. Sodium iodate C. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Mercuric oxide D. Ammonium alum
61. Ripening agent for Harris’ hematoxylin:
A. Sodium iodate C. Potassium permanganate
B. Mercuric oxide D. Hydrogen peroxide
62. Function of ammonium alum in the Harris hematoxylin formula:
A. Oxidizing agent C. Dye solvent
B. Mordant D. Dye
63. Staining of the nuclei by alum hematoxylin is enhanced by the addition of:
A. Alum C. Glacial acetic acid
B. Ethanol D. Mercuric oxide
64. Glacial acetic acid added to hematoxylin will:
A. Inactivate stain C. Enhance cytoplasmic staining
B. Decrease nuclear staining D. Enhance nuclear staining
65. A sheen of oxidized dye on the surface of hematoxylin solution indicates:
A. Stain is concentrated C. Stain has to be filtered
B. Stain is contaminated by bacteria D. Stain has to be discarded
66. Acid alcohol used in routine H&E acts as:
A. Mordant C. Bluing agent
B. Stain D. Differentiator
67. The acid used in combination with alcohol in an acid alcohol solution:
A. Acetic acid C. Nitric acid
B. Oxalic acid D. Hydrochloric acid
68. Staining result in the routine hematoxylin and eosin method:
A. Nuclei pink, cytoplasm blue to blue-black
B. Nuclei blue to blue-black, cytoplasm pink
C. Nuclei and cytoplasm pink
D. Nuclei and cytoplasm blue-black
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69. A common BASIC NUCLEAR STAIN for plasma cells and may also be employed in cytological examination of fresh
sputum for malignant cells:
A. Eosin C. Crystal violet
B. Methylene blue D. Aniline blue
70. PAS positive substances are stained:
A. Blue C. Green
B. Brown-black D. Magenta red
71. Staining method for glycogen:
A. PAS technique C. Best Carmine method
B. Langhan’s iodine stain D. All of these
72. Tubercle bacilli in Ziehl-Neelsen stain:
A. Bright red C. Green
B. Grayish blue D. Blue
73. Feulgen’s reaction is the most reliable and most specific histochemical staining technique for:
A. RNA B. DNA C. Both D. Neither
74. In the Masson-Fontana ammoniacal silver reaction, melanin and argentaffin cell granules are stained:
A. Brown B. Red C. Black D. Blue
75. Lipids in Sudan IV are stained:
A. Black B. Blue black C. Red D. Deep blue to violet
76. Positive reaction for cholesterol in Schultz Method:
A. Blue-black C. Pale pink
B. Grayish-blue D. Blue-green
77. The method of choice for staining in exfoliative cytology:
A. Pap’s stain C. H&E stain
B. Wright’s stain D. Giemsa stain
78. Components of the EA-50 stain, EXCEPT:
A. Eosin Y C. Light green
B. Orange green D. Bismarck brown
79. All of the following are fixative used for cytologic smears, EXCEPT:
A. Equal parts of 95% ETOH and ether C. 10% Formalin
B. 95% Ethyl alcohol D. Carnoy’s fluid
80. BEST fixative for virtually all diagnostic cytology studies but flammable and volatile:
A. Equal parts of 95% ETOH and ether C. 10% Formalin
B. 95% Ethyl alcohol D. Carnoy’s fluid
81. All of the following are examples of good adhesive agents for cytologic method, EXCEPT:
A. Egg albumin C. Pooled human serum or plasma
B. Celloidin ether alcohol D. Leuconostoc culture
82. Smears prepared for cytologic examination from cut surfaces of lymph nodes can be obtained by:
A. Spreading C. Touch preparation
B. Pull-Apart D. Streaking
83. Organisms found in the normal vaginal flora that stain BLUE to lavander with Pap’s method:
A. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Doderlein bacilli
B. Streptococci D. Acid fast bacilli
84. Clue cells are diagnostic of what infection:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. HSV-II
B. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Candida albicans
85. Cells found in a vaginal smear which are thick and round to oval in shape (similar to fried fresh eggs with sunny-side
up) with strongly basophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nucleus:
A. Superficial cells C. Parabasal cells
B. Intermediate cells D. Basal cells
86. Increase in size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in number of cells:
A. Hypertrophy B. Necrosis C. Hyperplasia D. Atrophy
87. Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control causes an overgrowth of tissue or tumor cells:
A. Anaplasia B. Hyperplasia C. Neoplasia D. Dysplasia
88. The dissolving of cells by enzymatic action is:
A. Rotting B. Decay C. Autolysis D. Putrefaction
89. A malignant tumor is least characterized by:
A. Metastases C. Encapsulation
B. Mitotic figures D. Invasion of adjacent tissues
90. A medical laboratory technician to be registered must have obtained a grade within this range (Medical Technology
Board Exam):
A. 65-74.5% C. 60-74.9%
B. 70-74.9% D. 73-73%
91. RA 5527 was approved on:
A. June 21, 1969 C. June 21, 1968
B. July 21, 1969 D. June 11, 1978
92. The Blood Banking Law:
A. RA 4224 C. RA 1517
B. RA 4688 D. RA 5527
93. National Blood Services Act of 1994:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 7719
B. RA 8504 D. RA 8981
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94. Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 7719
B. RA 8504 D. RA 8981
95. Newborn Screening Act of 2004
A. RA 9288 C. RA 9165
B. RA 8504 D. RA 7719
96. All services are done on a primary category laboratory except: (A.O. 2007-0027)
A. Routine urinalysis C. Routine chemistry
B. Routine hematology D. Blood typing
97. Who are the members of the Medical technology Board?
A. Pathologist, medical technologist and medical technician
B. Secretary of health, dean and president of PAMET
C. One internist, one pathologist and one medical technologist
D. A registered pathologist and two registered medical technologist
98. Sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534:
A. 3, 8, 13 C. 11, 16, 29
B. 16, 21, 22 D. 11, 21, 29
99. In order to pass examination (MT), a candidate must obtain a general average of:
A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 75%
100. The penalty of revocation of certificate of registration may be imposed by the board if there is:
A. Majority vote B. Unanimous vote C. Either of these D. Neither of these

END OF THE EXAM