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PAKET Modul 2-C

+ Composing Skill
 Part I Listening Comprehension

A. Numbers 1 – 10 test your ability to under-stand short statements in English. Each

statement will be spoken just once. The statements you hear will not be written out for
you. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your booklet.

1. A. Identification card cannot be used to borrow book from the library.

B. To borrow book from the library, student need to bring their identification card with
them.
C. The librarian needs to borrow the student identification card to pay the book.
D. Scholarship student needs identification card to return their allowance.

2. A. She lives close to the dormitory.

B. She has moved out of the dormitory.
C. She owns a department store.
D. She no longer lives in an apartment.

3. A. I'll go to bed now and finish my chemistry in the morning.

B. I have to stay up to finish my chemistry.
C. I went to bed before I finished my chemistry.
D. I should finish my chemistry before midnight.

4. A. There were four games at the party.

B. I can't name the date of the party.
C. It's hard for me to remember a person's name at a party.
D. I forget the name of the party those people belong to.

5. A. You have an appointment, right?

B. I hope you gave me Bill's correct address.
C. I think Bill lives in the building on the right.
D. You're wearing a bright dress, aren't you?

6. A. There are many stores on this street.

B. Small gifts are available at the store.
C. That shop is the only nice one on the street.
D. There is a gift shop nearby.

7. A. Doesn't the snack bar sell fresh fruit?

B. The fruit at the snack bar isn't fresh.
C. Is the fruit at the snack bar ripe?
D. The snack bar is to the right of the fruit stand.

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8. A. The employees in Charlie's department are going sailing this week.
B. Charlie's store is going up for sale this week.
C. Charlie told us about the sales in the stores downtown.
D. The big sails are being stores in Charlie’s basement.

9. A. It has been cloudy since noon.

B. It's sunny day today.
C. It's not at all crowded inside.
D. I thought it would rain this afternoon.

10. A. The student finished her painting before class.

B. Only one student in the class knows anything about painting.
C. Nobody in the class has ever had any painting lessons.
D. There are no students registered for the painting course.

B. In this part you will hear five short talks. After each talk, two questions will be asked
based on the information given. Answer the questions following the talk, by choosing
A, B, C, or D which best answers the questions. Remember, you are not allowed to
take notes or write in your test book.

11. A. Problem with your English terminology.

B. Moving to a new shock.
C. Different building and food.
D. Culture shock.

12. A. They do not want to speak English.

B. They are not feeling to try new food.
C. They are entering an unfamiliar place.
D. They do not bring food from their country.

13. A. A line drawing.

B. An oil painting.
C. A wood carving.
D. A stone sculpture.

14. A. Highly functional.

B. Both abstract and realistic.
C. Brightly colored.
D. Large but lightweight.
3
15. A. The seal.
B. The caribou.
C. The polar bear.
D. The white whale.

16. A. White snow.

B. Survival skills.
C. A tasty food.
D. An artist's model.

17. A. Close up shots.

B. Full shots.
C. Long shots.
D. Action shots.

18. A. Film producer.

B. Movie critic.
C. Stuntman.
D. Actor.

19. A. 1898.
B. 1903.
C. 1905.
D. 1908.

20. A. To shock Griffith contemporaries.

B. To show who Annie Lee was thinking about.
C. To indicate when Annie Lee's husband would return.
D. To avoid criticism of the close up shot.

4
 Part II. Vocabulary

A. For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes
each blank space in the text.

In my former life, I often taught first-year composition: a course that supposedly taught
students the writing…1…. they needed for college. The main focus of the course was the
college essay. Now, freshmen usually had no…2… with the form of the essay; they just
struggled with the…3…. Grammar issues aside — these would usually work themselves
out during the term — the main focus would be…4.... an argument in a logical way. This
fact usually separates the high-school essay from the college one: the amount of
analysis…5…to an argument.

1. A. skills
B. prowess
C. power
D. system

2. A. hasles
B. trouble
C. difficulty
D. palaver

3. A. style
B. theme
C. content
D. subject matter

4. A. pushing
B. producing
C. composing
D. creating

5. A. pushed
B. dictated
C. alloted
D. devoted

5
Chemical substances (also called pure …..6…..) may well be defined as "any material
with a definite chemical composition". According to this definition, a chemical substance
can either be a pure chemical element or a pure chemical …..7….. But, there are
exceptions to this definition; a pure substance can also be defined as a form of ….8….that
has both definite composition and distinct properties. The chemical substance index
published by CAS also includes several alloys of uncertain composition. Non-……9……
compounds are a special case (in inorganic chemistry) that …..10…… the law of constant
composition, and for them, it is sometimes difficult to draw the line between a mixture and
a compound, as in the case of palladium hydride.

6. A. materials
B. substances
C. elements
D. purifiers

7. A. compound
B. sulphur
C. material
D. combined compound

8. A. life
B. matter
C. content
D. chemical

9. A. Combined
B. stoichiometric
C. physical
D. chemical

10. A. disobeys
B. violates
C. flouts
D. disregards

6
Dogs were one of the first animals to be domesticated. Although they all fall to the same
species, they ........ 11 ........ more in size and appearance than any other animal, and are
now ........12....... wherever there are human beings. They all have good hearing and an
excellent sense of smell. ........13 ........ the differences between breeds, all dogs are
........14 ........ from the same ancestor, the grey wolf. Wolves enjoy hunting and are ready
to run ........15......... prey, which is why dogs today like energetic games and plenty of
exercise.

11 A. transform
B. alter
C. change
D. vary

12 A. general
B. average
C. common
D. ordinary

13 A. Despite
B. Although
C. However
D. While

14 A. emerged
B. linked
C. descended
D. related

15 A. away
B. after
C. into
D. over

7
B. Choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D that best collocates (combines) with each of
the underlined words or phrases in the following sentences.

8
 Part III. Grammar and Structure

A. Sentence Completion
For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes
each of the following sentences.
1. Resin is a substance that ____in water.
A. does not dissolve
B. do not dissolve
C. not dissolving
D. not dissolved

2. ______hardiness, daylilies can be cultivated particularly easily.

A. Their
B. Since their
C. It is their
D. Because of their

3.A biologist does not merely describe organisms, but tries to learn ____act as they do.
A. what cause them to
B. causes them to what
C. what to cause them
D. what does to them

4.Vaporization in connection with general _____has a marked effect on long – term

climate.
A. atmospheric conditions that
B. conditions are atmospheric
C. are atmospheric conditions
D. atmospheric conditions

5. The oldest city in the state, ______

A. the Hudson's Bay Company founded Vancouver, Washington, in the early nineteenth
century
B. the founding of Vancouver, Washington, by the Hudson's Bay Company in the early
nineteenth century
C. Vancouver, Washington, was founded by the Hudson's Bay Company in the early
nineteenth century
D. In the early nineteenth century with the founding of Vancouver, Washington, by the
Hudson's Bay Company

9
6. _______raw materials into useful products is called manufacturing.
A. Transform
B. Transforming
C. Being transformed
D. When transforming

7. Alexander Graham Bell once told his family that he would rather be remembered as a
teacher of the deaf _____of the telephone.
A. than inventing
B. than as the inventor
C. the invention
D. as the inventor

8. Because its leaves remain green long after being picked, rosemary ____ associated
with the idea of remembrance.
A. and becomes
B. became
C. becoming
D. to become

9. _____that of iron construction, the technology for constructing buildings with

reinforced concrete developed rather rapidly.
A. Dissimilar
B. Different
C. Not likely
D. Unlike

10.Although adult education in the United States began in colonial times, ____chief
growth has taken place since the 1920's.
A. its
B. so it
C. but its
D. it is

11. Hot objects emit ____ do cold objects.

A. rays more than infrared
B. rays are more infrared than
C. more than infrared rays
D. more infrared rays than

12.An Olympic marathon is 26 miles and 385 yards, approximately ____from Marathon
to Athens.
A. the distance is

10
B. that the distance is
C. is that the distance
D. the distance

13. Although ___ rigid, bones exhibit a degree of elasticity that enables the skeleton to
withstand considerable impact.
A. apparently
B. are apparently
C. apparently their
D. are they apparently

14. One of the oldest types of aesthetic theory is that of formism, ______
A. reference to the imitation theory is popular
B. the imitation theory is popularly referred to
C. is the reference to the popular imitation theory
D. popularly referred to as the imitation theory

15. A panda's primary activity is sleep, ____ its waking hours looking for food.
A. that it spends
B. and it spends
C. for spending
D. will spend

B. Cloze Test
For questions 16 – 25, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best
completes each blank space in the text.

The Chinese follow the Lunar calendar and as such the Chinese New Year date varies
from year to year. However, it usually ___16___ between the third week of January and
the middle of February. This is the most important festival for the Chinese and lasts
for 15 days. It begins with a ___17___ dinner on New Year's Eve and, traditionally,
every member of the family ___18___.
At this time, spirits are appeased and offerings of oranges and prayers are ___19___
to the gods and ancestors. On New Year's Day, cookies and cakes are offered to
guests. However, with a multiracial society, times have changed and some Chinese
have followed the Muslim Hari Raya ___20___ and offer spicy Malay food as well.

16. A. drops 20. A. tradition

B. calls B. traditional
C. falls C. traditionally
D. lies D. traditionalism

11
17. A. unity
B. united
C. disunited
D. reunion

18. A. attends
B. appears
C. detains
D. agrees

19. A. make
B. makes
C. made
D. making

Apartments and flats can be seen all around us these days. They are more commonly
___21___ in busy areas where space is scarce and land is ___22___ valuable than in
rural areas. An partment ___23___ will provide accommodation for a large number
___24___ people at a comparatively low price.

21. A. find 25. A. was

B. founded B. were
C. finding C. have
D. found D. must

22. A. so
B. more
C. mostly
D. most

23. A. built
B. builds
C. builder
D. building

24. A. of
B. at
C. with
D. in

12
C. Error Identification
For questions 26 – 40, choose the word or phrase A, B, C, or D which is wrong.

26. The first United States citizen to become a professional sculptor was Patience Lovell
A B
Wright, which works were executed in wax.
C D

27. A electric current can consist of charges that are positive, negative, or both.
A B C D

28. Progress in the field of optically and new kinds of glass have made it possible to construct
A B C
photographic lenses with a minimum number of materials.
D

29. In nature, the distributive of plants is obviously related to climate.

A B C D

30. The United States Constitution requires that the President be a natural-born citizen,
A B
thirty-five years of age or be older, who has lived in the United States for a minimum of
C D
fourteen years.

31. How many people realize that Marjorie Kinnan Rawlings The yearling is a minor literary
A B C
classic and an important contribute to regional literature?
D

32. Ensuring an adequate water supply have been a concern ever since people began to live
A B C D
in towns and cities.

33. The most substances expand in volume when they are heated.
A B C D

34. Due to sophisticated transportation networks, people can now buy the same types of
A B
perishable goods in Toronto like in New York City.
C D

13
35. Glaciers that develop nearly the North and South Poles advance into the sea, break into
A B C D
pieces, and become icebergs.

36. As inevitably as human culture has changed with the passing of time, so does the
A B C D
environment.

37. For some purposes it is convenient to think of a surface as the locus generated when a line
A B
straight or a curve moves through space in a prescribed manner.
C D

38. A significant proportions of the plants and animals of Hawaii exists nowhere else in the
A B C
World
D

39. Mass advertising is employed when person – to – person selling is impractical,

A B
impossible, or simply inefficiency.
C D

40. Mexican jumping beans are actually seeds in which contain moth larvae whose activity
A B C D
causes the seeds to "jump."

14
 Part IV. Reading Comprehension

Choose the best answer to each question based on the information which is stated or
implied in the text.

Scientists estimate that about 35,000 other objects, too small to detect with
radar but detectable with powerful Earth-based telescopes, are also circling the
Earth at an altitude of 200 to 700 miles. This debris poses little danger to us on the
Earth, but since it is traveling at average relative speeds of six miles per second, it
can severely damage expensive equipment in a collision. This threat was
dramatized by a cavity one-eighth of an inch in diameter created in a window of a
United States space shuttle in 1983. The pit was determined to have been caused
by a collision with a speck of paint traveling at a speed of about two to four miles
per second. The window had to be replaced.
As more and more nations put satellites into space, the risk of collision can
only increase. Measures are already being taken to control the growth of orbital
debris. The United States has always required its astronauts to bag their wastes and
return them to Earth. The United States Air Force has agreed to conduct low-
altitude rather than high-altitude tests of objects it puts into space so debris from
tests will reenter the Earth's atmosphere and burn up. Extra shielding will also
reduce the risk of damage. For example, 2,000 pounds of additional shielding is
being considered for each of six space-station crew modules. Further, the European
Space Agency, an international consortium is also looking into preventive
measures.

1. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. The Problem of Space Debris
B. The Space Shuttle of 1983
C. The Work of the European Space Agency
D. A Collision in Space

2. It can be inferred from the passage that, debris was harmful to one of the space
shuttles because the debris was
A. large
B. moving very fast
C. radioactive
D. burning uncontrollably

3. What effect did orbital debris have on one of the space shuttles?
A. It removed some of the paint
B. It damaged one of the windows
15
C. It caused a loss of altitude
D. It led to a collision with a space station

4. The word 'them’ in line 11 refers to which of the following?

A. Astronauts
B. Wastes
C. Tests
D. Crew modules

5. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by the information in the

passage?
A. How can small objects orbiting the Earth be seen?
B. What is being done to prevent orbital debris from increasing?
C. Why is the risk of damage to space equipment likely to increase?
D. When did the United States Air Force begin making tests in space?

Scattered through the seas of the world are billions of tons of small plants and
animals called plankton. Most of these plants and animals are too small for the
human eye to see. They drift about lazily with the currents, providing a basic food
for many larger animals.
Plankton has been described as the equivalent of the grasses that grow on the
dry land continents, and the comparison is an appropriate one. In potential food
value, however, plankton far outweighs that of the land grasses. One scientist has
estimated that white grasses of the world produce about 49 billion tons of valuable
carbohydrates each year, the sea's plankton generates more than twice as much.
Despite its enormous food potential, little effort was made until recently to farm
plankton as we farm grasses on land. Now. marine scientists have at last begun to
study this possibility, especially as the sea's resources loom even more important as
a means of feeding an expanding world population.
No one yet has seriously suggested that "planktonburgers" may soon become
popular around the world. As a possible farmed supplementary food source,
however, plankton is gaining considerable interest among marine scientists.
One type of plankton that seems to have great harvest possibilities is a tiny
shrimplike creature called krill. Growing to two or three inches long. krill provide
the major food for the giant blue whale, the largest animal ever to inhabit the Earth.
Realizing that this whale may grow to 100 feet and weigh 150 tons at maturity, it is
not surprising that each one devours more than one ton of krill daily.

16
 Krill swim about just below the surface in huge schools sometimes miles wide,
mainly in the cold Antarctic. Because of their pink color, they often appear as a
solid reddish mass when viewed from a ship or from the air. Krill are very high in
food value. A pound of these crustaceans contains about 460 calories-about the
same as shrimp or lobster to which they are related. If the krill can feed such huge
creatures as whales, many scientists reason, they must certainly be contenders as a
new food source for humans.

6. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of the passage?
A. The author presents the advantages and disadvantages of plankton as a food source.
B. The author quotes public opinion to support the argument for farming plankton.
C. The author classifies the different food sources according to amount of
carbohydrate.
D. The author makes a general statement about plankton as a food source and then
moves to a specific example.

7. According to the passage, why is plankton considered to be more valuable than land
grasses?
A. It is easier to cultivate
B. It produces more carbohydrates
C. It does not require soil
D. It is more palatable

8. Why does the author mention "planktonburgers" in line 13?

A. To describe the appearance of one type of plankton
B. To illustrate how much plankton a whale consumes
C. To suggest plankton as a possible food source
D. To compare the food values of beef and plankton

9. Blue whales have been known to weigh how much at maturity?

A. One ton
B. Forty tons
C. One hundred and fifty tons
D. Four hundred and sixty tons

10. What is mentioned as one distinguishing feature of krill?

A. They are the smallest marine animals.
B. They are pink in color.
C. They are similar in size to lobsters.
D. They have grass-like bodies.

17
 The most interesting architectural phenomenon of the 1970's was the
enthusiasm for refurbishing older buildings. Obviously, this was not an entirely new
phenomenon. What is new is the wholesale interest in reusing the past, in
recycling, in adaptive rehabilitation. A few trial efforts, such as Ghirardell Square
in San Francisco, proved their financial viability in the 1960's, but it was in the
197U S, with strong government support through tax incentives and rapid
depreciation, as well as growing interest in ecology issues, that recycling became a
major factor on the urban scene.
One of the most comprehensive ventures was the restoration and transformation
of Boston's eighteenth century Faneuil Hal' and the Quincy Market. This section
had fallen on hard times, but beginning with the construction of a new city hall
immediately adjacent, it has returned to life with the intelligent reuse of these fine
old buildings under the design leadership of Benjamin Thompson. He has provided
a marvelous setting for dining, shopping, professional offices, and simply walking.
Butler Square, in Minneapolis, exemplifies major changes in its complex of
offices, commercial space, and public amenities carved out of a massive pile
designed in 1906 as a hardware warehouse. The exciting interior timber structure
of the building was highlighted by cutting light courts through the interior and
adding large skylights.
San Antonio, Texas, offers an object lesson for numerous other cities combating
urban decay. Rather than bringing in the bulldozers. San Antonio's leaders
rehabilitated existing structures, while simultaneously cleaning up the San Antonio
River, which meanders through the business district.

11. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. During the 1970's, old buildings in many cities were recycled for modern use.
B. Recent interest in ecology issues has led to the cleaning up of many rivers.
C. The San Antonio example shows that bulldozers are not the way to fight urban
decay.
D. Strong government support has made adaptive rehabilitation a reality in

12. What is the space at Quincy Market now used for?

A. Boston's new city hall
B. Sports and recreational facilities
C. Commercial and industrial warehouses
D. Restaurants, offices, and stores

13. According to the passage, Benjamin Thompson was the designer for a project in
A. San Francisco
B. Boston
C. Minneapolis
D. San Antonio
18
14. When was the Butler Square building originally built?
A. In the eighteenth century
B. In the early nineteenth century
C. In the late nineteenth century
D. In the early twentieth century

15. What is the author's opinion of the San Antonio project?

A. It is clearly the best of the projects discussed.
B. It is a good project that could be copied in other cities.
C. The extensive use of bulldozers made the project unnecessarily costly.
D. The work done on the river was more important than the work done on the
buildings.

The classic Neanderthals, who lived between about 70,000 and 30,000 years
ago, shared a number of special characteristics. Like any biological population,
Neanderthals also showed variation in the degree to which those characteristics
were expressed. Generally, they were powerfully built, short and stocky, with the
lower parts of their arms and legs short in relation to the upper parts, as in modern
peoples who live in cold environments. Neanderthal skulls were distinctive,
housing brains even larger on average than those of modem humans, a feature that
may have had more to do with their large, heavy bodies than with superior
intelligence. Seen from behind, Neanderthal skulls look almost spherical, but from
the side they are long and flattened often with a bulging back.
The Neanderthal face, dominated by a projecting and full nose, differed
clearly from the faces of other hominids; the middle parts appear to be pulled
forward (or the sides pulled back), resulting in a rather streamlined face shape.
This peculiarity may have been related to the greater importance (in cultural
activities as well as food processing) of the front teeth, which are large and part of a
row of teeth that lies well forward in the head; it may reflect a reduction in
importance of certain jaw muscles operating at the sides of the face; or it may
reflect an adaptation to cold. Whether it results from any or all of these three
factors or from other, undiscovered causes, this midfacial projection is so
characteristic that it unfailingly identifies a Neanderthal to the trained eye.
Neanderthal teeth are much more difficult to characterize; the front teeth are large,
with strong roots, but the back teeth may be relatively small. This feature may have
been an adaptation to cope with heavy tooth wear

19
16. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The eating habits of the Neanderthals
B. A comparison of various prehistoric populations
C. The physical characteristics of the Neanderthals
D. The effect of climate on human development

17. The author describes the Neanderthal as being all of the following EXCEPT
A. short
B. swift
C. strong
D. stocky

18. Which of the following most likely accounts for the fact that the Neanderthal brain
was larger than that of the modern human?
A. The relatively large size of the Neanderthal's body
B. The superior intelligence of the Neanderthal.
C. The swelling behind the Neanderthal's head
D. The Neanderthal's midfacial projection

19. Where in the passage does the author specifically stress the contrast between the
Neanderthal face and that of other biologically related populations?
A. Lines 1-4
B. Lines 7-9
C. Lines 10-11
D. Lines 18-20

20. Which of the following explanations is NOT cited as a possible explanation of the
Neanderthal’s streamlined face shape?
A. Some jaw muscles had limited use.
B. The facial features were well adapted to the cold.
C. The front teeth were particularly important.
D. The nose was set far back

21. The phrase "the trained eye" in line 18 most likely refers to which of the following
professionals?
A. An optometrist
B. A dentist
C. An anthropologist
D. A photographer

22. In line 20, the author uses the expression "heavy tooth wear" to imply that the
Neanderthals
20
A. had unusually heavy teeth
B. used their teeth extensively
C. regularly pulled out their teeth
D. used teeth for ornamentation

There are two ways to create colors in a photograph. One method, called
additives, starts with three basic colors and adds them together to produce some
other color. The second method, called subtractive, starts with white light (a
mixture of all colors in the spectrum) and, by taking away some or all other colors,
leaves the one desired.
In the additive method, separate colored lights combine to produce
various other colors The three additive primary colors are green, red, and blue
(each providing about one - third of the wavelengths in the total spectrum). Mixed
in varying proportions, they can produce all colors. Green and red light mix to
produce yellow: red and blue light mix to produ9e magenta; green and blue mix to
produce cyan. When equal parts of all three of these primary - colored beams of
light overlap, the mixture appears white to the eye.
In the subtractive process, colors are produced when dye (as in paint or color
photographic materials) absorbs some wavelengths and so passes on only part of the
spectrum. The subtractive primaries are cyan (a bluish green), magenta (a purplish
pink), and yellow; these are the pigments or dyes that absorb red, green, and blue
wavelengths, respectively, thus subtracting them from white light, These dye colors
are the complementary colors to the three additive primaries of red, green, and
blue. Properly combined, the subtractive primaries can absorb all colors of light,
producing black. But, mixed in varying proportions, they too can produce any color
in the spectrum. Whether a particular color is obtained by adding colored lights
together or by subtracting some light from the total spectrum, the result looks the
same to the eye. The additive process was employed for early color photography.
But the subtractive method, while requiring complex chemical techniques, has
turned out to be more practical and is the basis of all modern color films.

23.What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Recent developments in camera technology
B. How to make white light
C. The additive and subtractive methods of producing color
D. The discovery of the spectrum

24 The word "one" in line 4 refer to

A. color
B. method
C. mixture
D. light
21
25. The picture below represents the addition of the red, green, and blue light. What
color would be expected in the region marked "X"
A. White
B. Black
C. Yellow
D. Magenta

26. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the phrase "passes on" as used in
line 12 ?
A. judges
B. lets through
C. dies
D. goes over

27.What color filter would absorb red wave-lengths?

A. Red
B. Cyan
C. Magenta
D. Yellow

28.Which of the following is NOT a pair of additive and subtractive primary colors?
A. Yellow and blue
B. Magenta and green
C. Black and white
D. Cyan and red

29.What explanation is given for the use of the subtractive method in modern color
films?
A. Subtractive colors are more realistic.
B. The subtractive process is more efficient.
C. Additive chemical techniques are too complex.
D. The additive process is still being developed.

30.How is the passage organized?

A. The reasons for a choice are explained in depth.
B. A general statement is justified by a series of historical examples.
C. Two basic causes are compared.
D. Related processes are described one after the other.

22
 Both Mercy Warren and Abigail Adams admired Catharine Macaulay, the
radical author of A History of England (1763), who supported the cause of the
American patriots. Under Macaulay's influence Mercy Warren conceived her plan
to write a history of the American Revolution, living to complete it in 1805. Abigail
Adams rejected literary ambitions for herself and never lost her sense of inferiority
about her poor spelling and ignorance of Latin. Yet her letters, rather than Warren's
plays and verse, have become the greater source in documenting signs of a dawning
feminist consciousness.
Abigail Adams welcomed every advance for women and foresaw more than
could be realized in her lifetime. She urged her husband, the second President of
the United States, to "remember the ladies" in the new code of laws, and to give
married women protection from tyrannical husbands. As she pointed out the
terrible deficiencies in education for women at all levels, she finally made the
significant request to her husband, that the new constitution "be distinguished for
Learning and Virtue," and suggested that "if we mean to have Heroes. Statesmen
and Philosophers, we should have learned women." This awareness of education's
value, rooted in the Enlightenment faith in human potentiality, had feminist
implications before there was a feminist ideology.
A younger contemporary of similar background gave the reading public an
explicit feminist argument for the education of women. The views of Judith Sargent
Murray (1751-1820) reflected both personal and family experience. Murray's
Cleaner essays published in the 1790's transcended the boundaries of her world in
recognizing the need for training women to earn their own living. Although, like
Mercy Warren and Abigail Adams, she was brought up with the values of gentility,
she knew through personal hardship that even women of her class might be forced
to be self - supporting: education could provide independence for women in need,
whether they were unmarried women or widows or wives.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Abigail Adams' life
B. Women historians
C. Early sources of feminist thinking
D. The literary ambitions of Judith Sargent Murray

32. What does the author mean by the statement that Abigail Adams "foresaw more
than could be realized in her lifetime" (lines 8~9)?
A. No progress was made during her life.
B. She made predictions that eventually came true.
C. Her life was very short.
D. She didn't want to become a public figure.

23
33. Which of the following statements best expresses Judith Sargent Murray's position?
A. Women should be well educated in order to support themselves.
B. Women's rights must be protected by new laws.
C. The accomplishments of women are ignored in most historical documents.
D. Women need to become more active in political affairs.

34. Where in the passage does the author mention Abigail Adams' position regarding
education for women?
A. Lines 1-2
B. Lines 4-5
C. Lines 11 - 14
D. Lines 21-24

35. What did Mercy Warren, Abigail Adams, and Judith Sargeant Murray have in
common.
A. They all wrote books.
B. They were all responsible for the financial support of their families.
C. They were all interested in women's accomplishments.
D. They al had influential families.

Some cacti, like the saguaro, grow to tree size, but true trees need more
moisture than most desert environments can supply, so they are scarce on deserts.
Close to streambeds, cottonwoods can sometimes be found. Though these streams
are dry most of the year, water flows there longest and is usually available fairly
close to the surface. Elsewhere, trees must send taproots deep into the hard-baked
desert soil to draw on underground water. Perhaps the most widespread family of
trees on the world's deserts is the acacia, whose taproots drill down as far as 25 feet
(7.5 meters). The mesquite, common on North American deserts in both tree and
shrub forms, does not begin to grow above ground until its root system is completely
developed, ensuring the plant a supply of moisture.
The roots of shrubs and trees help to hold the desert soil in place. Their
stalks and branches also act as screens to keep the wind from sweeping great drifts
of sand along the surface. These services are vital if a desert is to support life.
Scientists estimate that a desert needs year - round plant cover over 20 to 40
percent of its surface. If shrubs are too far apart-separated by a distance greater
than five times their height-soil around them is likely to blow away. Without the
shelter of established shrubs, new seedlings will have difficulty getting a start. On
the other hand, plants that are too close together may compete for underground
moisture. To protect themselves from this competition, some shrubs give off a
substance that kills young plants that sprout too close to them.
24
 In addition to a few varieties of trees and tough shrubs, most deserts have
grasses, herbs, and other annual plants. These do not compete for moisture with the
longer - lived growth. They spring up quickly after rains, when the surface is moist.
Then, for a brief time, the desert can be literally carpeted with color. Almost as
quickly as they appeared, these small plants die away. But they have developed
special ways of ensuring the life of another generation when rains come again.

36. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The effect of extreme heat on plants
B. Difficulties of survival in the desert
C. The regeneration of annual plants
D. Water sources in the desert

37. What can be inferred about cottonwoods from the passage?

A. They are a kind of cactus
B. They produce a soft wood
C. They are true trees
D. They grow only in the desert

38. The root system of which of the following grows before the upper part?
A. A cottonwood
B. An acacia
C. A mesquite
D. A saguaro

39. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a function of trees and
shrubs in the desert?
A. Their roots keep the earth in place
B. They shelter new seedlings
C. Their branches and stalks prevent soil from drifting
D. They provide shelter to animals

40. Shrubs that are each 1 foot high should be how far apart from each other?
A. Less than 5 feet
B. Approximately 10 feet
C. Between 20 and 40 feet
D. More than 40 feet

25
 Part V Composing Skills

In this section of the test, you are required to demonstrate your ability to paraphrase
sentences and to recognize language that is not appropriate for standard written English.
There are five parts to this section, with special direction for each part.

A. Numbers 1 – 10 contain complete and correct sentences. For each number, you are
required to choose the most appropriate paraphrased sentence closest in meaning to
the original one.

1. She didn't eat anything but small pieces of bread and butter.
A. She ate small pieces of bread and butter but didn't like them.
B. She only ate some small pieces of bread and butter.
C. She didn't eat anything, not even the bread and butter.
D. She didn't touch the bread and butter, but she ate other things.

2. I can't stand his talking foolishly when everybody talks about something in a serious
way.
A. I can't understand him when he talks foolishly.
B. Everybody talks seriously when he talks foolishly.
C. I hate him talking foolishly when people talk seriously.
D. Everybody hates him talking foolishly.

3. Choose the correct sentence. Choose one answer.

A. After graduating from the St. Louis University in just three years, Sharon was
quickly hired by a major corporation.
B. After graduating from St. Louis University in just three years, Sharon was quickly
hired by a major corporation.
C. After graduating from St. Louis University in just three years, Sharon was quickly
hired by the major corporation.
D. After graduating from a St. Louis University in just three years, Sharon was quickly
hired by major corporation.

4. Choose the correct sentence. Choose one answer.

A. Picasso was one of the most important artists of the twentieth century, but Dali and
Braque are my favorites.
B. Picasso was one of the most important artists of the twentieth century, but the Dali
and Braque are my favorites.
C. Picasso was one of the most important artists of the twentieth century, but a Dali
and a Braque are my favorites.
D. Picasso was the one of the most important artists of the twentieth century, but Dali
and Braque are my favorites.
26
5. If we cooperate together by dividing up the booty, we shall be able to work together
smoothly in the future.
A. If we cooperate together by dividing up the booty, we shall be able to work together
smoothly in the future.
B. If we cooperate by dividing up the booty, we shall be able to work together smoothly
in the future.
C. If we cooperate by dividing up the booty together, we shall be able to work together
smoothly in the future.
D. If we cooperate with each other by dividing the booty, we shall be able to work
together smoothly in the future.

6. The process by which the community influences the actions of its members is
known as social control
A. The process by which the community influences the actions of its members is
known social control.
B. The process by which the community influence the actions of its members is known
as social control.
C. The process by which the community goes about influencing the actions of its
members is known as social control.
D. The process by which the community influences the actions of its members is
known as social control.

7. Sherry, a little girl with little talent for cooking, enjoys preparing Fried Rice.
A. Sherry, a little girl with little talent for cooking, enjoys preparing Fried Rice.
B. Sherry, is a little girl who has little talent for cooking but she enjoys preparing
Fried Rice.
C. Sherry, a little girl who has little cooking talent, enjoys preparing Fried Rice.
D. Sherry, a girl with little talent for cooking, enjoys preparing Fried Rice.

8. Of all the persons I have ever met, Arjit is the most remarkable person.
A. Of all the persons I have ever met, Arjit is the most remarkable person.
B. Arjit is the most remarkable person of all the persons I have ever met.
C. Of all the persons I have ever met, Arjit is the most remarkable person.
D. Of all the persons I have ever met, Arjit is the most remarkable.

27
 9. Using it wisely, leisure promotes health, long life, efficiency, and happiness.
A. Using it wisely, leisure promotes health, long life, efficiency, and happiness.
B. If used wisely, leisure promotes health, long life, efficiency, and happiness.
C. Having used it wisely, leisure promotes health, long life, efficiency, and happiness.
D. If it is used wisely, leisure promotes health, long life, efficiency, and happiness.

10. In the course of journey there, they were able to absolve a lot of local cultures
A. In the course of there journey, they were able to absolve a lot of local cultures
B. In the coarse of their journey, they were able to absorb a lot of local culture
C. In the course of their journey, they were able to observe a lot of local culture’s
D. In the course of their journey, they were able to observe a lot of the local culture

B. Numbers 11 – 20 contain incorrect sentences. The incorrect part of the sentence has
been identified for you. You are required to find the correct option to replace the
underlined part.

11. Robert didn’t have either no money or a ride to the party so he stayed home, invited
some neighborhood friends over and played board games.
A. didn’t have either no money or a ride to the party
B. had neither money nor a ride to the party
C. didn’t have neither money or a ride to the party
D. had no money nor a ride to the party

12. Mrs. Baker is the lady which has the annoying dog who likes to jump up on people
and lick their faces.
A. which has the annoying dog who likes to jump up on people
B. who has the annoying dog who likes to jump up on people
C. that has the annoying dog who likes to jump up on people
D. who has the annoying dog that likes to jump up on people

13. Natalie had no intention of to go to the ceremony to receive her award to swimming
because she had won by default and felt as if she didn’t deserve it.
A. no intention of to go to the ceremony to receive her award to swimming
B. no intention of going to the ceremony for receiving her award to swim
C. no intention of to go to the ceremony to receive her award for swimming
D. no intention of going to the ceremony to receive her award for swimming

28
14. Because he was angry with the team, Aaron failed to play his best during the game
and everyone knew he was capable to play better.
A. failed to play his best during the game and everyone knew he was capable to play
better
B. failed playing his best during the game and everyone knew he was capable of playing
better
C. failed playing his best during the game and everyone knew he was capable to play
better
D. failed to play his best during the game and everyone knew he was capable of playing
better

15. Charlotte and Annie shopped so long that they barely had no time left for to arrive at
the concert before it started.
A. they barely had no time left for to arrive
B. they barely had any time left to arrive
C. they barely have any time left to arrive
D. they barely had no time left arriving

16. Had Mr. Michaels taken the earlier train, he could have avoided the lengthy delay
due to the severe storm that flooded the crossing.
A. taken the earlier train, he could have avoided
B. took the earlier train, he could had avoided
C. had took the earlier train, he could have avoided
D. taken the earlier train, he could have to avoid

17. Mr. Tuttle, along with five other teachers, are driving to the convention themselves
instead of taking the bus like most of the others.
A. are driving to the convention themselves
B. is driving to the convention himself
C. are driving to the convention himself
D. is driving to the convention themselves

18. Johnny has been practicing very hard to compete in the band solo competition and of
that Mark has been practicing too.
A. of that Mark has been practicing too
B. practices very hard is Mark also
C. also Mark is practicing too
D. Mark has been practicing hard also

29
19. Located on the North Sea coast of Scotland, Lauriston Castle was the stronghold of
Gregory the Great which was the last one of the Pictish kings.
A. which was the last one of the Pictish kings
B. who was the last one of the Pictish kings
C. who was one of the last Pictish kings
D. who was a Pictish king being the last

20. Monday’s test was said to be very difficult, so not only Matt but too his friends had to
study all weekend instead of hanging out.
A. so not only Matt but too his friends had to study
B. so not only Matt but also his friends have to study
C. so too Matt and also his friends they needed studying
D. so not only Matt but also his friends had to study

C. Numbers 21 – 30, Choose the most appropriate and correct sentence.

21. A. Some of the dessert was left by the end of the birthday party.
B. Some of the dessert were left by the end of the birthday party.
C. Some of the desserts was left by the end of the birthday party.
D. Some desserts was left by the end of the birthday party.

22. A. The papa bear thought that all of his porridge were missing.
B. The papa bear thought that none of his porridge were missing.
C. The papa bear thought that some of his porridge were missing.
D. The papa bear thought that some of his porridge was missing.

23. A. Your brilliant excuses almost makes up for your tardiness.

B. Your brilliant excuses almost make up for your tardiness.
C. Your brilliant excuses makes up for your tardiness.
D. Your brilliant excuses has made up for your tardiness.

24. A. Neither Jackson nor Jenna have played hooky.

B. Neither Jackson nor Jenna are playing hooky.
C. Neither Jackson nor Jenna is playing hooky.
D. Neither Jackson nor Jenna were playing hooky.

30
25. A. Neither Jackson nor I am playing hooky.
B. Neither Jackson nor I is playing hooky.
C. Neither Jackson nor I are playing hooky.
D. Neither Jackson nor I were playing hooky.

26. A. Either of us were capable of winning.

B. Either of us are capable of winning.
C. Either of us have been capable of winning.
D. Either of us is capable of winning.

27. A. All of the class is willing to take part in the prank.

B. All of the classes is willing to take part in the prank.
C. All of the class are willing to take part in the prank.
D. All of the classes has been willing to take part in the prank.

28. A. Some of the candies is on the table.

B. Some of the candies has been on the table.
C. Some of the candies was on the table.
D. Some of the candies are on the table.

29. A. One-third of the voters tend not to cast their ballots in national elections.
B. One-third of the voters tends not to cast their ballots in national elections.
C. One-third of the voters tends not to cast its ballots in national elections.
D. One-third of the voters tends not to cast its ballot in national elections.

30. A. Here is the paper clips you requested.

B. Here's the paper clips you requested.
C. Here are the paper clips you requested.
D. Here are the box of paper clips you requested.

31
D. Numbers 31 – 36 contain jumbled sentences. One of the sentences has been
underlined. You are required to choose the next sentence which logically follows the
underlined one.

31. (1). According to the Australian Institute of family studies in 2014 a 11-year-old boy
was unable to live with his family, due to child abuse.
(2). Children like him involve in child protective services were shown to have
consistently low average math and reading standardized test scores.
(3). But upbringing in the foster care system means he has no-one to help him. It’s not
his fault, yet he is being penalised for something he can’t change.
(4). One of the recommendations was to send him to his relatives who was willing to
take care until he was 18. This resulted a positive outcome in academic
achievement.
(5). He went to two schools while he was in foster care and one was Barr Beacon
School, formerly Barr Beacon Language College, is a mixed comprehensive for
foster children.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

32. (1). Liberal is conservative in a moderate Midwestern kind of way which is changing
fast due to big National Beef Packing plant which relies on Hispanic migrants
and thus four-fifths of the children in Liberal’s public-school system are
Hispanic.
(2). Liberal’s mayor, Joe Denoyer, who was raised in a Democratic family near
Chicago and moved to Liberal in search of work.
(3). This should make the town receptive to Democrats, but Mr Trump easily won the
county of which it forms part.
(4). Mr Denoyer voted for Mr Trump by being impressed by his promise, though he
thinks it unlikely that the president will keep his promises.
(5). The town of Liberal is said to have been named for an early settler famous
among travellers for being free with drinking water.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
32
33. (1). Put another way, although experimental work on the creation of false memories
may raise doubt about the validity of long-buried memories, such as repeated
trauma, it in no way disproves them.
(2). Of course, because we can implant false childhood memories in some individuals in
no way implies that all memories that arise after suggestion are necessarily false.
(3). This is a classic example of source confusion, in which the content and the
source become dissociated.
(4). False memories are constructed by combining actual memories with the content
of suggestions received from others.
(5). During the process, individuals may forget the source of the information.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

34. (1). Since independence, every political party has played communal card whenever
election time draws near.
(2). In fact, the caste and communal cards have been fine-tuned to an art form in the
political games that are played in this country.
(3). This was seen when the Youth Congress(I) goons were given a free hand to
terrorise Sikhs all over the country after Indira Gandhi's assassination.
(4). When each party carefully selects political candidates on the basis of religion or
caste, it is encouraging and continuing the divide-and-rule tactics of its colonial
masters
(5). And no political party can absolve itself on this count; worse, political parties
take on board hoodlums and gangsters who use their clout in political circles to
settle scores and extract money.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

33
 35. (1). Teacher preparation must ensure development of commitment amongst
teachers.
(2). With all the limitations and deficiencies inherent in our educational system
has to be achieved only through combined effort of teachers and community.
(3). It is tough proposition when most of the other sectors are influenced by self-
interests and material pursuits everywhere.
(4). A value-based approach must form the backbone of educational system and
also the teacher education system.
(5). However, teacher education needs to emphasise that teachers alone can kindle
the value-based growth.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

36. (1). In the US about 12 million people are homeless and one-third of the people cannot
afford primary health care.
(2). In capitalism, wealth is concentrated in the hands of a few.
(3). In the West, men are only capable of seeing the external aspects of things.
(4). The resultant deprivations are variable even in the developed countries.
(5). The domination of the capitalist class today is justified in the name of economic
growth and population efficiency.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

34
E. Numbers 37 – 40 contain jumbled sentences. You are required to identify the correct
order to form a good paragraph.

37. (1). Then a series of highly visible ecological problems created a groundswell of
support for strict government regulation.
(2). The environmental revolution has been almost three decades in the making, and
it has changed forever how companies do business.
(3). In the United States, Lake Erie was dead. In Europe, the Rhine was on fire. In
Japan, people were dying of mercury poisoning.
(4). In the 1960s and 1970s, corporations were in a state of denial regarding their
impact on the environment.
(5). Today many companies have accepted their responsibility to do no harm to the
environment.

A. 1-3-5-4-2
B. 1-4-5-2-3
C. 5-3-4-1-2
D. 5-1-3-4-2

38. (1). It was once approved for weight loss but was withdrawn after concerns arose that
medication could increase the risk of heart attacks.
(2). Dietary supplements can appear to be a healthful option for treating certain
health conditions.
(3). But over the past several years, regulators have detected prohibited substances in
some of these products that aren't included on the labels.
(4). The drug Sibutramine is one of these substances.
(5). Their labels list herbs or other natural ingredients that consumers assume are
safe to take.

A. 5-3-5-2-1
B. 5-4-1-3-2
C. 4-3-5-1-2
D. 4-1-5-3-2

39. (1). At present, these proposals are working their way through the legislative process.
(2). A lopsided, ideological approach that focuses exclusively on border security
while ignoring migrant workers (or vice versa) is bound to fail.
(3). However, to achieve results, immigration reform must be comprehensive.

35
 (4). In 2005, immigration policy received far more genuine attention on Capitol
Hill, and Members of Congress from both sides of the aisle are now considering
what to do about immigration policy.
(5). Their various efforts have focused on a wide variety of changes in current policy,
including improving border security, strengthening employer verification of
employment, establishing a new temporary guest worker program, and offering
some level of amnesty to illegal immigrants currently living in the United States.

A. 3-2-5-4-1
B. 3-4-5-1-2
C. 5-3-4-1-2
D. 5-1-4-3-2

40. (1). There are numerous examples of this, dating from the Greek philosophers to the
present day. One common mistake is to ignore or rule out data which do not
support the hypothesis.
(2). In that case, there may be a psychological tendency to find "something wrong",
such as systematic effects, with data which do not support the scientist's
expectations, while data which do agree with those expectations may not be
checked as carefully.
(3). Ideally, the experimenter is open to the possibility that the hypothesis is correct
or incorrect.
(4). Sometimes, however, a scientist may have a strong belief that the hypothesis is
true or feels internal or external pressure to get a specific result.
(5). The lesson is that all data must be handled in the same way.

A. 2-3-5-4-1
B. 2-4-5-1-3
C. 5-3-4-1-2
D. 5-1-3-4-2

36