Q.1 Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic of cloud computing?

1. Storage
2. Application
3. CPU
4. All of the Above
Q.2 The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is referred to as:
1. Load performing
2. Load scheduling
3. Load balancing
Q.3 Point out the correct statement:
1. A client can request access to a cloud service from any location
2. A cloud has multiple application instances and directs requests to an instance based on
conditions
3. Computers can be partitioned into a set of virtual machines with each machine being
assigned a workload
4. All of the mentioned
Q.4 Which of the following software can be used to implement load balancing?
1. Apache mod_balancer
2. Apache mod_proxy_balancer
3. F6’s BigIP
Q.5 Which of the following network resources can be load balanced?
1. Connections through intelligent switches
2. DNS
3. Storage resource
4. All of the above
Q.6 Which of the following is a more sophisticated load balancer?
1. Rack server managers
2. Workload managers
 3. Workspace managers
Q.7 A ______ is a combination load balancer and application server that is a server placed between a
firewall or router.
1. ABC
2. ACD
3. ADC
Q.8 Which of the following service provider provides the least amount of built-in security?
1. SaaS
2. PaaS
3. IaaS
Q.9 Point out the correct statement:
1. Different types of cloud computing service models provide different levels of security
services
2. Adapting your on-premises systems to a cloud model requires that you determine what
security mechanisms are required and mapping those to controls that exist in your chosen
cloud service provider
3. Data should be transferred and stored in an encrypted format for security purpose
4. All of the above
Q.10 Which of the following services that need to be negotiated in Service Level Agreements?
1. Logging
2. Auditing
3. Regulatory compliance
4. All of the above
Q.11 Point out the wrong statement:
1. You can use proxy and brokerage services to separate clients from direct access to shared
cloud storage
2. Cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with Internet applications
 3. Any distributed application has a much greater attack surface than an application that is
closely held on a Local Area Network
Q.12 Which of the following area of cloud computing is uniquely troublesome?
1. Auditing
2. Data Integrity
3. E-Discovery for legal compliance
4. All of the above
Q.13 Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA?
1. Scalability
2. Portability and interoperability
3. Flexibility
Q.14 Which of the following is considered an essential element in cloud computing by CSA?
1. Multi-tenancy
2. Identity and access management
3. Virtualization
Q.15 Which of the following is used for Web performance management and load testing?
1. VMware Hyperic
2. Web metrics
3. Univa UD
4. Tapinsystems

Q.16 ____________is the delivery of on-demand computing services, from

applications to storage and processing power, typically over the internet
and on a pay-as-you-go basis.
1. Cloud computing
2. Cloud Infrastructure
3. Distributed system
4. None of these
Q.17. Which is not a characteristic of Cloud Computing?
1. On-demand self-service
2. Resource pooling
3. Rapid elasticity
 4. Private hardware centers
Q.18. Which is not the advantages of Cloud Computing?
1. Security
2. Work Without Internet
3. Scalability
4. Reliability
Q.19. Which is not a disadvantage of Cloud Computing?
1. Downtime
2. Limited control of infrastructure
3. One time costs
4. Vendor Lock-in

Q.20 Elasticity in Cloud Computing is:

1. Ability to scale up
2. Ability to scale down
3. A and B both
4. None of these
Chapter-2

Q.1  Broadly divide the cloud architecture into?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Explanation: We can broadly divide the cloud architecture into two parts : Front End and
Back End

Q.2 . 2. Cloud computing architecture is a combination of?

A. service-oriented architecture and grid computing

B. utility computing and event-driven architecture.
C. service-oriented architecture and event-driven architecture.
D. virtualization and event-driven architecture.

Explanation: Cloud computing architecture is a combination of service-oriented architecture

and event-driven architecture.

Q.3 . Which of the following refers to the client part of cloud computing
system?
A. back End
B. Front End
C. Infrastructure
D. Management

Explanation: The front end refers to the client part of cloud computing system. It consists of
interfaces and applications that are required to access the cloud computing platforms.

Q.4 What is the example of Front End?

A. Amazon Web Services

B. Google Compute Engine
C. Cisco Metapod
D. Web Browser.
Explanation: web browser is the example of Front End.
Q.5 The back end is used by the?

A. Client
B. User
C. service provider
D. Stackholders

Explanation: The back end is used by the service provider. It manages all the resources that
are required to provide cloud computing services.

Q.6  Both front end and back end are connected to others through a?

A. Network
B. Database
C. Browser
D. Both A and B

Explanation: Both front end and back end are connected to others through a network,
generally using the internet connection.

Q.7 How many types of services Cloud computing offers?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Explanation: Cloud computing offers the following three type of services: SaaS, PaaS and
IaaS.

Q.8 Windows Azure and Force.com are example of?

A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS
D. All of the above

Explanation: Windows Azure, Force.com, Magento Commerce Cloud, OpenShift are

example of PaaS.
Q.9 __________ is an in-built back end component of cloud computing.

A. Service
B. Application
C. Storage
D. Security

Explanation: Security is an in-built back end component of cloud computing. It implements a

security mechanism in the back end.

Q.10 Who provide GUI (Graphical User Interface) to interact with the
cloud?
A. Client
B. Application
C. Client Infrastructure
D. Server
Explanation: Client Infrastructure is a Front end component. It provides GUI (Graphical User
Interface) to interact with the cloud.

Q.11 What type of computing technology refers to services and applications that
typically run on a distributed network through virtualized resources?

1. Distributed Computing

2. Cloud Computing

3. Soft Computing

4. Parallel Computing

Explanation: Cloud computing is a computing technique in which applications are

accessed by common internet protocols and networking standards.

Q.12 Which one of the following options can be considered as the Cloud?

a. Hadoop

b. Intranet

c. Web Applications

d. All of the mentioned

Explanation: Whenever any intranet becomes large enough in size that a diagram is
not able to differentiate the individual physical system, so at that stage intranet also
becomes known as a cloud. Hadoop can be considered as a cloud.

Q.13 Cloud computing is a kind of abstraction which is based on the notion of

combining physical resources and represents them as _______resources to
users.

a. Real

b. Cloud

c. Virtual

d. none of the mentioned

Explanation: Cloud Computing is a kind of new model for providing resources for

applications such as staging applications, platform-independent user access to services.

Q.14 Which of the following has many features of that is now known as cloud
computing?

a. Web Service

b. Softwares

c. All of the mentioned

d. Internet

Explanation: Internet provides the abstraction, runs through the same set of protocols
and standards, and uses the same operating system and applications.

Q.15 Which one of the following cloud concepts is related to sharing and pooling
the resources?

a. Polymorphism

b. Virtualization

c. Abstraction

d. None of the mentioned

Explanation: The application runs on physical systems that are not specified in real.
The information stored in the locations that are also not specified or unknown,
administration of the systems are outsourced to others and can be accessed by the
user.

Q.16 Which one of the following statements is not true?

a. The popularization of the Internet actually enabled most cloud computing

systems.

b. Cloud computing makes the long-held dream of utility as a payment possible for
you, with an infinitely scalable, universally available system, pay what you use.

c. Soft computing addresses a real paradigm in the way in which the

system is deployed.

d. All of the mentioned

Explanation: Cloud computing is distinguished by the notion that resources are virtual

and infinite and describe the physical systems on which software runs in the abstracted
manner from the user.

Q.17 Which one of the following can be considered as a utility is a dream that
dates from the beginning of the computing industry itself?

a. Computing

b. Model

c. Software

d. All of the mentioned

Explanation: Cloud computing takes the technology, services, and applications that

are similar to those on the Internet and turns them into a self-service utility.

Q.18 Which of the following is an essential concept related to Cloud?

a. Reliability

b. Abstraction

c. Productivity

d. All of the mentioned

Explanation: Cloud computing hides all the detail of system implementation from

users and developers.

Q.19 Which one of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?

 a. Azure

b. AWS

c. Cloudera

d. All of the mentioned

Explanation: Amazon web service is one of the most successful cloud-based

businesses, which offers infrastructure as a service and lets you rent virtual
computers on its own infrastructure.

Q.20  Which of the following statement is not true?

a. Through cloud computing, one can begin with very small and become big in a
rapid manner.

b. All applications benefit from deployment in the Cloud.

c. Cloud computing is revolutionary, even though the technology it is built on is

evolutionary.

d. None of the mentioned

Explanation: A variety of issues, such as issues with latency, security, and

regulatory compliance, all are subject to concern. AWS is one of the most
successful cloud-based businesses, which is a type of infrastructure as a service
and lets you rent virtual computers on its own infrastructure.
Chapter 3

Q.1 In the Planning Phase, Which of the following is the correct step for
performing the analysis?

a. Cloud Computing Value Proposition

b. Cloud Computing Strategy Planning

c. Both A and B

d. Business Architecture Development

Explanation: In the planning phase, we actually analyze the strategy related

problems which customers might face. There are usually two steps to perform the
analysis: Cloud Computing Planning and Cloud Computing Value Proposition.

Q.2 In which one of the following, a strategy record or Document is created

respectively to the events, conditions a user may face while applying cloud
computing mode.

a. Cloud Computing Value Proposition

b. Cloud Computing Strategy Planning

c. Planning Phase

d. Business Architecture Development

Explanation: Cloud Computing Strategy Planning: The establishment of the strategy is

based on the above step's analysis result. In this phase, a strategy document is
prepared according to the conditions faced by the customer while implementing the
cloud computing mode

Q.3 What is Business Architecture Development?

a. We recognize the risks that might be caused by cloud computing

application from a business perspective.

b. We identify the applications that support the business processes and the
technologies required to support enterprise applications and data systems.
 c. We formulate all kinds of plans that are required to transform the current
business to cloud computing modes.

d. None of the above

Explanation: Business Architecture Development: In this phase, we identify the risks

that can be caused by a cloud computing application from a business point of view.

Q. 4. Which one of the following refers to the non-functional requirements like

disaster recovery, security, reliability, etc.

a. Service Development

b. Quality of service

c. Plan Development

d. Technical Service

Explanation: Quality of service refers to the non-functional requirements such as

reliability, security, disaster recovery, etc.

Q.5 Which one of the following is a phase of the Deployment process?

a. Selecting Cloud Computing Provider

b. IT Architecture Development

c. Business Architecture Development

d. Transformation Plan Development

Explanation: Deployment phase: This phase focuses on both steps. It consists of the

following two steps: Selecting a cloud computing provider, maintenance and technical
service.

Q.6 This phase involves selecting a cloud provider based on the Service Level
Agreement (SLA), which defines the level of service the provider receives.

a. Maintenance and Technical Service

b. Selecting Cloud Computing Provider

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

Explanation: This phase involves selecting a cloud provider based on the Service Level
Agreement (SLA), that defines the level of service the provider receives.
Q.7 In which one of the following phases, IT Architecture Development came?

a. Strategy Phase

b. Planning Phase

c. Deployment Phase

d. Development Phase

Explanation: IT Architecture Development steps in Planning Phase

Q.8 Which of the model involves the special types of services that users can
access on a Cloud Computing platform?

a. Service

b. Planning

c. Deployment

d. Application

Explanation: The service model contains the specials types of services that users
can access on a cloud computing platform.

Q.9 Which one of the following is related to the services provided by Cloud?

a. Sourcing

b. Ownership

c. Reliability

d. PaaS
e. Explanation: Insourced or Outsourced means whether the service is provided
by the customer or the service provider.

Q.10 How many phases are present in Cloud Computing Planning?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5
 Explanation: In Cloud Computing Planning, there are usually three phases that
are Strategy Phase, Planning Phase, and Deployment Phase.

Q.11 Cloud computing architecture is a combination of?

a. service-oriented architecture and grid computing

b. Utility computing and event-driven architecture.

c. Service-oriented architecture and event-driven architecture.

d. Virtualization and event-driven architecture.

Explanation: Cloud computing architecture is a combination of service-oriented

architecture and event-driven architecture.

Q.12 In how many parts we can broadly divide the architecture of the Cloud?

a. 4

b. 3

c. 2

d. 5

Explanation: The architecture of the Cloud can broadly be divided into two main
parts that are Back-end and Front-end.

Q.13 Which one of the following refers to the user's part of the Cloud Computing
system?

a. back End

b. Management

c. Infrastructure

d. Front End

Explanation: It is the front-end that refers to the user's part of the cloud computing
system. It includes many applications and interfaces that are required to access or use
the cloud computing platform.

Q.14 Which one of the following can be considered as the example of the Front-
end?

a. Web Browser

b. Google Compute Engine

 c. Cisco Metapod

d. Amazon Web Services

Explanation: From the following given options, we can consider the Web-browser

as the perfect example of the Front-end.

Q.15 By whom is the backend commonly used?

a. Client

b. User

c. Stockholders

d. service provider

Explanation: It is commonly used by the service provider in order to manage all

resources required to provide the Cloud Computing Services.

Q.16 Through which, the backend and front-end are connected with each other?

a. Browser

b. Database

c. Network

d. Both A and B

Explanation: Typically using an internet connection, both the front and back end
are connected to the others through a network.

Q.17 How many types of services are there those are offered by the Cloud
Computing to the users?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 3

d. 5

Explanation: Usually, Cloud Computing offers three types of services to the

users that are Platform as a service (or PaaS), Application as a service (or AssS),
and Software as a service (or SaaS).

Q.18 The Foce.com and windows Azure are examples of which of the following?
 a. IaaS

b. PaaS

c. SaaS

d. Both A and B

Explanation : Both Force.com and Windows Azure are examples of the Platform as a
service

Q.19 Which of the following is one of the backend's built-in components of cloud
computing?

a. Security

b. Application

c. Storage

d. Service

Explanation: Security is one of the back-end's built-in components of cloud

computing.

Q.20 Which of the following provides the Graphic User Interface (GUI) for
interaction with the cloud?

a. Client

b. Client Infrastructure

c. Application

d. Server

Explanation: The Client Infrastructure is one of the front-end components that

provide the way of communication in the form of a Graphic User Interface to
communicate with the Cloud.

Q.21 Which one of the following a technology works behind the cloud computing
platform?

a. Virtualization

b. SOA

c. Grid Computing

d. All of the above

 Explanation: Several technologies work behind the Cloud Computing platforms,
which provide features like Flexibility, reliability, and usability to cloud computing.

22) Which one of the following is a kind of technique that allows sharing the
single physical instance of an application or the resources among multiple
organizations/customers?

a. Virtualization

b. Service-Oriented Architecture

c. Grid Computing

d. Utility Computing

Explanation: Virtualization is a kind of technique that allows us to share the single

physical instance of a resource or application between several organizations/users.

Q.23 In Virtualization, which architecture provides the virtual isolation between

the several tenants?

a. IT Architecture

b. Multitenant

c. Deployment

d. Business Architecture

Explanation: The Multitenant architecture provides us the virtual isolation in

between several tenants. Hence the organization can easily use and also modify
their application as they each have their instances running.

Q.24 On which one of the following utility computing is based?

a. Grid Computing Model

b. SOA Model

c. virtual isolation Model

d. Pay-per-Use model

Explanation: Utility computing is based on the pay-what-you use model.

Q.25 Which one of the following statement is true about the Service-Oriented
Architecture?
 a. It is possible to exchange data between applications from different vendors
without using additional programming.

b. It provides computational resources on-demand as a metered service.

c. Service-Oriented Architecture allows using the application as a service for other

applications.

d. Both A and C

Explanation: The service-oriented architecture helps to be used as a service for

other applications regardless of vendor, product, or technology type. Therefore,
it is possible to exchange data between different vendors' applications without
changes in additional programming or services.

Q.26 In Grid Computing, which types of computer resources are there?

a. heterogeneous dispersed.

b. geographically dispersed.

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

Explanation: In grid computing, heterogeneous types of resources are used

that are geographically dispersed.

Q.27 Managed IT services are based on the concept of which one of the
following?

a. Virtualization

b. Utility Computing

c. Grid Computing

d. SOA

Explanation: In Cloud Computing, managed IT services and grid computing are

based on the concept of Utility Computing.

Q.28 Which one of the following refers to the Distributed Computing, in which
several sets of computers distributed on multiple geographical locations and are
connected with each other to achieve a common goal?

a. Virtualization

b. SOA
 c. Grid Computing

d. Utility Computing

Explanation: Grid Computing refers to the Distributed Computing, in which several

sets of computers distributed on multiple geographically dispersed, and are
connected with each other to achieve a common goal.

Q 29. Which one of the following statement is true about Grid Computing?

a. Pieces combine small tasks into complex tasks

b. The subscription tier plays an important role in grid computing.

c. Breaks complex tasks into small operations

d. Both A and C

Explanation: Grid computing breaks down complex tasks into smaller pieces,

which are distributed to the CPU residing within the grid.

Q.30 Which one of the following given programs provides the isolation
(abstraction) and partitioning?

a. System hypervisor

b. Software hypervisor

c. Hardware hypervisor

d. Virtualization hypervisor

Explanation: The virtualization hypervisor program provides the isolation

(abstraction) and partitioning

Q.31  On which one of the following hypervisor runs directly on the underlying
host system, it is also known as________?

a. Bare metal hypervisor

b. Hosted Hypervisor

c. Native Hypervisor

d. Both A and C
e. Explanation: The Hypervisor runs directly on the underlying host system, and
sometimes it is also known as "Native Hypervisor" or "Bare metal hypervisor."
Q.32 Which of the following behaves like the monitor's entry point and reroutes
the instructions of the virtual machine?

a. Dispatcher

b. Allocator

c. Interpreter

d. Both A and B

Explanation: The Dispatcher acts as the monitor's entry point and reruns the
instructions (statements) of the virtual machine instance to one of the other two
modules.

Q.33 Which one of the following is also known as a Hypervisor?

a. VMA

b. VMM

c. VMS

d. VMR

Explanation: A Virtual Machine Monitor (or VMM) is sometimes also known as the
Hypervisor.

Q.34 How many kinds of Hypervisor are there?

a. 4

b. 3

c. 2

d. 5

Explanation: There are only two kinds of Hypervisors that are Type1-Hypervisor

and Type2-Hypervisor.

Q.35 Which one of the following is not an example of the Type1-Hypervisor?

a. VMware ESXi

b. Citrix XenServer

c. Microsoft Hyper-V hypervisor

d. VMware Player
 Explanation: VMware Player is one of the examples of Typ2-Hypervisor not of
the Type1-Hypervisor

Q.36 How many main modules are needed to coordinate in order to emulate the
underlying hardware?

a. 3

b. 2

c. 4

d. 5

o Explanation: In order to emulate the underlying hardware, there are three main
modules needed to coordinate, which are as follows:
o Interpreter

o Allocator

o Dispatcher

Q.37 Which one of the following is used to call the allocator?

a. INTERPRETER

b. TYPE-2 Hypervisor

c. Both A and B

d. DISPATCHER

Explanation: Each time when the virtual machine wants to execute an operation or

instruction, it will result in allowing in changing the machine's resources associated
with the virtual machine. Hence the allocator is called by the Dispatcher.

Q.38 The Parallels Desktop can be considered as the example of which of the
following?

a. TYPE-2 Hypervisor

b. DISPATCHER

c. TYPE-1 Hypervisor

d. INTERPRETER
 Explanation: Parallels Desktop or VMware Player is one of the examples of the
Type2-Hypervisor. Almost all the hosted hypervisors are usually found on endpoints
such as PCs.

Q.39 Which one of the following statements is not true?

a. Whenever a command begins a process, immediately the process virtual

machine gets instantiated.

b. Usually, the guest operating systems are mores faster in full virtualization as
compared to other virtualization schemes.

c. It is necessary for the full virtualization that the host OS (Operating

System ) offers a Virtual Machine Interface for the guest operating
system by which the guest operating system can access the hardware
through the host VM.

d. All of the above

Explanation: The statement give in the option c is not true at all.

Q.40. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. Load balancing virtualizes systems and resources by mapping a logical

address to a physical address

b. Multiple instances of various Google applications are running on different hosts

c. Google uses hardware virtualization

d. All of the above

Explanation: Google performs the load balancing for distributing the processing

load in order to achieve high utilization rates.

Q.41 Which one of the following can be considered as the example of the Type2
Virtual Machine monitors?

a. KVM

b. Microsoft Hyper V

c. Parallels Desktop

d. All of the above

 Explanation: KVM, Microsoft Hyper V, and Parallels Desktop for Mac are examples
of the Type2 Virtual Machine Monitors.

Chapter -4

Q1. Aneka is based on which service model?

1. Iaas
2. PaaS
3. SaaS
4. BPaaS

Q.2 Which feature of Aneka provide scalabilty of the resources?

1. Manage
2. Provisioning
3. Accelerate
4. Build

Q.3 Which one is a private vendor of Cloud Computing?

1. Rackspace
2. Go Grid
3. AWS
4. Eucalyptus

Q.4 Which AWS Service provides user identity?

1. AMI
2. IAM
3. EC2
4. Cloud Front

Q.5 Which of the is not an advantage of cloud?

1. No worries about running out of storage

2. Immediate access to computing resources
3. Easier to maintain a cloud network
4. paying only for what you use.

Q.6 __________ is a complete operating environment with applications, management,

and the user interface.

1. IaaS
2. PaaS
3. SaaS
 4. All of the mentioned

Q.7 Which of the following is not a PAL service in Aneka?

1. Application
2. Fabric
3. Managing
4. Foundation

Q.8 What is the full form of SLA?

1. Service Level Association

2. Service Layer Agreement
3. Service Level Agreement
4. Software Level Agreement

Q.9  If you store your data in the cloud, your data are saved locally?

1. Yes
2. No

Q.10 . AWS is which type of Cloud Computing distribution model?

1. PaaS
2. IaaS
3. SaaS
4. FaaS

Q.11. Hazards and Disasters are mainly classified as

a. Physical and chemical

b. Natural and Human induced

c. Physical and Human

d. Social and cultural

Q.12. A hazard is a situation where there is

a. Threat of natural calamity

b. Threat to property and lives from calamities

c. Threat for consequences of disaster

d. All of the above

Q.13. Disaster is an event arising out of

a. Result of hazard event

b. Causes of hazard event

c. Causes of disaster event

d. All of the above

Q.14. The typical examples of man-made disasters are

a. Chemical explosion

b. Leakage of toxic waste

c. War and civil strife

d. All of the above

Q.15. What are the consequences of disaster on a society?

a. Loss of life

b. Damage to property

c. Environmental Damages

d. All of the above

Q.16. The scientific study of earthquake is called

a. Seismograph

b. Seismology

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Q.17. What is the name of instrument used for measuring earthquake intensity?

a. Modified Mercalli Scale

b. Metrological scale

c. Vernier scale

d. Barometer

Q.18. The basic elements of website is

a) Home page

b) Web page

c) Links & banners

d) All of the above

Q.19. Which one is not an offline payment mode?

a) Cash on delivery

b) Cash before delivery

c) Demand draft

d) E-cheque

Q.21. Which one is not online payment mode?

a) Cash on delivery

b) Debit card

c) Credit card

d) E-cheque

Q.22. Which of the following elements are not parts of e-marketing?

a) Marketing over IP

b) Interactive marketing

c) Mobile marketing

d) Print media marketing

Ch-5

Q.1 Building long-term relationships with customers is essential for any business.
The application of technology to achieve CRM is a key element of e-business but
what does CRM stand for?

1. Customer retailing management

2. Consumer relationship management
3. Customer resource management
4. Customer relationship management

Q.2 There are different techniques to both initiate and build relationships with
customers by using a combination of online and offline techniques. What is the
'customer life cycle' though?

1. Techniques to encourage customers to increase their involvement with an organization

2. The stages each customer will go through in a long-term relationship with a supplier
3. An approach to building and sustaining long-term business with a customer
4. The answers above are all correct

Q.3 The four marketing activities within the customer relationship management
include customer selection, customer acquisition, customer retention, plus:

1. Customer extension
2. Customer referrals
3. Customer Up-sell
4. Customer re-sell
5. Customer cross-sell

Q.4 Using digital communications technologies to maximise sales to existing

customers and encourage continued usage on online services is known as:

1. Personalisation
2. Sense and respond communications
3. Customer-centric marketing
4. Electronic customer relationship management
5. Mass customization

Q.5 Using the Internet for relationship marketing involves integrating the customer
database with websites to make the relationship targeted and personalised.
Through doing this there are many benefits to be gained but which of the below is
not an advantage?

1. Lower costs
2. Targeting more effectively
3. Achieve mass customisation of the marketing messages
4. Minimises breadth, depth and nature of relationship
Q.6 Accepting that a customer has agreed to opt-in to receive further information,
with customer profiling the minimum amount of online information that needs to
be collected is an e-mail address. What is really required though to decide if the
customer is a good potential target for further communications?

1. A qualified lead
2. Permission marketing
3. Interruption marketing
4. Opt-out facilities to be removed

Q.7 RACE is a practical framework to help marketers manage and improve the
commercial value gained from digital marketing. The term stands for Reach, Act,
C, Engage. What does 'C' refer to?

1. None of the below

2. Collaborate
3. Consolidate
4. Collect
5. Convert

Q.8 Companies that understand how customers use digital media in their purchase
decision buying can develop integrated communications strategies to support their
customers at each stage in the buying process. Customers have individual
preferences in the ways they use the web depending upon why they need to use it
and this web use is known as:

1. Directed buyers
2. Directed-information seekers
3. Undirected information-seekers
4. Searching behaviors

Q.9 E-commerce managers aim to deliver the most effective mix of

communications to drive traffic to their e-commerce sites. The different
techniques can be characterised as:

1. Online marketing communications

2. Offline marketing communications
3. Digital media channels
4. All of the above

Q.10 A marketing campaign will not be successful if the costs of acquiring site
visitors and customers are too high. The term used to describe the cost of
acquiring a new customer is known as:

1. Cost per acquisition

2. Allowable cost per acquisition
3. Bounce rate
4. Referrer cost

Q.11 The use of online and offline promotion techniques to increase the audience
of a site is known as a:

1. Traffic building campaign

 2. Search engine optimization
3. Quality score
4. Search engine marketing

Q.12 Online public relations (or e-PR) should aim to maximise favourable mentions
of companies, products, brands, etc which are likely to be visited by target
audiences. Which of the following activities fall within the remit of e-PR?

Link building including reciprocal links

1. Blogs and podcasts
2. Communicating with media (journalists) online
3. Social networks and online communities
4. All of the above

Q.13 Social media (e.g. Facebook, Twitter) usage has become so widespread that
to discount a social media strategy would be a mistake best avoided. Social
customer relationship management (Social CRM) is a relatively new term which
helps to define the broad scope of social media across the customer life cycle and
value chain. The Altimeter report (2010) provides a framework for reviewing
strategy implementation and is known as:
1. Social media CRM framework
2. The 5Ms
3. Social CRM modeling
4. None of the above

Q.14 Online marketing communications include the development on online

partnerships and are regarded as an important part of a marketing mix. There are
three key types of online partnerships; link building, affiliate marketing, and one
other:

1. Interactive advertising
2. Ad serving
3. Online sponsorship
4. Media multiplier

q.15 E-mail marketing has to make strategic plans regarding outbound and
inbound e-mails. E-mail is most widely used as a prospect conversion and
customer retention tool. A database of customer names, email addresses and
profile information used for e-mail marketing is usually known as:

1. Customer and prospect database

2. Viral marketing email directory
3. House list
4. Customer profiles

q.16 A strength of social media and viral marketing is:

1. It is possible to reach a large number at relatively low cost

2. Highly targeted with controlled costs
3. Cannot be ignored in user's inbox
4. Considered credible