Nokia 4A0-100

Nokia Scalable IP Networks

Version: 9.0
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Topic 1, Volume A

QUESTION NO: 1

You are configuring your Nokia 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface (CLI),
and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control
command allows you to do this quickly?

A.
Ctrl-z

B.
Ctrl-c

C.
Esc

D.
Shift-Page Down

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following best describes a repeater?

A.
A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any
signals.

B.
A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis
of the data.

C.
A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision
on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D.
A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision
on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 2

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3

How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or
traffic types on the same physical wire?

A.
ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical
separation of traffic.

B.
ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic
type on the same physical wire.

C.
ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create logical separation
of traffic.

D.
ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create
logical separation of traffic.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?

A.
Provides an universal addressing scheme

B.
Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.

C.
Provides reliable data transfers.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 3

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
Provides a physical interface to the network.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5

The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host
addresses will you obtain with this mask?

A.
4 subnets, 64 hosts

B.
64 subnets, 4 hosts

C.
4 subnets, 62 hosts

D.
64 subnets, 2 hosts

E.
6 subnets, 30 hosts

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6

What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?

A.
Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network.

B.
A list of other DHCP clients.

C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 4
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
IP addresses and their lease times.

D.
Server time information

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7

Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

A.
Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

B.
Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.
Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.
Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8

Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?

A.
The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.

B.
The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services

C.
The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 5

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG
or HTML.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9

Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?

A.
Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well
known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.

B.
Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535
and are assigned by IANA.

C.
Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1
to 1023 and are assigned by IANA.

D.
Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA
and can have any value.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10

Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?

A.
IBM.

B.
US Military.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 6

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
Nokia.

D.
NASA.

E.
Bell Labs

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11

Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?

A.
ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa
Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).

B.
The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks,
making an international network of networks.

C.
ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing
computer on the University of Hawaii campus.

D.
ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12

Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by
pioneering a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 7

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
Secure transmission of information.

B.
Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.

C.
Allowing remote logins.

D.
Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13

Which network was created to replace ARPANET?

A.
INWG

B.
ALOHANET

C.
IETF

D.
NSFNET

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14

Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?

A.
The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980’s following the US military’s adoption of
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 8
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
TCP/IP in 1983.

B.
The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.

C.
The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in
2000 when the world wide web was conceived.

D.
Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve
into research and education based networks.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15

Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?

A.
IEEE

B.
IETF

C.
NSFNET

D.
ITU-T

E.
APNIC

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 16

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 9

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers?

A.
A large corporation.

B.
An ISP.

C.
A home based business.

D.
A content provider.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 17

The IANA is responsible for:

A.
Intra-city ISP traffic

B.
Allocation of the global IP address space

C.
Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic

D.
Allocating North American IP addresses

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 18

Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two.)

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 10

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
Controls distribution of IP addresses.

B.
Simplifies protocol functionality.

C.
Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.

D.
Increases protocol operational efficiencies.

E.
Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

Answer: C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19

To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer?

A.
Application Layer.

B.
Transport Layer.

C.
IP Layer.

D.
Data Link Layer

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 20

Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 11

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
OSPF

B.
BGP

C.
X.500

D.
IS-IS

E.
Ethernet

Answer: C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 21

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the development of the OSI Reference
Model?

A.
OSI was developed as an alternative, open standard to IBMs SNA model.

B.
OSI protocols were no longer used after TCP/IP was developed.

C.
OSI model is much simpler than TCP/IP.

D.
OSI model is maintained exclusively by the IETF.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 12

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
The TCP/IP and OSI models of protocol are similar in that they both have:

A.
An application and session layer.

B.
A network layer that provides a universal and consistent forwarding service.

C.
A transport layer with two protocols.

D.
An applications services layer with similar layering and service definitions.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 23

How many of the front access card slots of the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router are dedicated for
redundant common equipment?

A.
1

B.
2

C.
7

D.
10

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24

Which of the following is not supported on the Nokia 7450 ESS?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 13
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
Support for IPv6.

B.
Support for POS.

C.
Upgrade path to the Nokia 7750 SR.

D.
Support for IS-IS

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 25

The TiMOS-m.n.Y.Z software image file is software that:

A.
Contains all the components required to configure and run protocols on the Nokia 7750 SR/7450
ESS.

B.
Loads the router configuration.

C.
Transfers the router configuration from the router to the network management system.

D.
Loads the router software image.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26

When entering a command on the Nokia 7750 SR from the Command Line Interface (CLI), what
would you use to list all the options for the command?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 14

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
?

B.
tab character

C.
space character

D.
info

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 27

Which of the following describes the Nokia 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)?

A.
Small optical module available in a variety of formats.

B.
Contains a CPU for managing the forwarding hardware in each flexible fast path.

C.
Converts traffic from an external standard format to an internal format.

D.
Contains the CPU that runs the routing protocol software as well as the switch fabric.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 28

A typical Nokia 7750 SR Media Dependent Adapter (MDA) interfaces with:

A.
A Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 15
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
The Central Processing Unit (CPU).

C.
The Control Plane.

D.
The Switch Fabric.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 29

Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)?

A.
The MDA contains the flexible fast path complex used for forwarding data.

B.
Excess data is discarded by the MDA and the remaining data forwarded for QoS processing.

C.
The MDA buffers data and applies Quality of Service (QoS) to classify and treat the data
appropriately.

D.
The MDA converts data from its incoming physical format into an internal format and provides
some minimal buffering.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 30

What is NOT a function of the IOM?

A.
It forwards the data to the switch fabric.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 16

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
It discards excess data packets.

C.
It converts the incoming data to an internal format.

D.
It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 31

Which compact flash on a control processing module (CPM) of a Nokia 7750 router stores the
runtime software image and the configuration file?

A.
CF 1

B.
CF 2

C.
CF 3

D.
Both A and B

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 32

One of the tasks of the boot options file (BOF) is to:

A.
Specify authorization information to control access to the router.

B.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 17
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Define an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port.

C.
Initialize the hardware.

D.
Set the date/time for the system.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33

Which of the following user interface sessions are accessible through Telnet and Secure Shell
(SSH) on the Nokia 7750 SR and 7450 ESS?

A.
Graphic User Interface (GUI).

B.
Node Management Terminal Interface (NMTI).

C.
Command Line Interface (CLI).

D.
All of the above.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 34

You are working from a particular Command Line Interface (CLI) context, and want to see the
commands available from your current context. What command can you issue to view this
information?

A.
view tree

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 18

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
tree

C.
info detail

D.
info

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 35

What is available for auto completion of commands within the CLI on the Nokia 7750 SR Service
Router?

A.
Type the first letters of the command, then press Ctrl C

B.
Type the first letters of the command, then press Esc

C.
Type the first letters of the command, then press Tab

D.
Type the first letters of the command, then type ?

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36

Which of the following is a File command in the File System context of the Command Line
Interface (CLI)?

A.
time-display

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 19

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
help

C.
type

D.
terminal

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 37

What must occur for a LAG to become operational?

A.
There must be multiple ports assigned to the LAG.

B.
All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same characteristics.

C.
Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG.

D.
All of the above.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38

If a 4-port LAG is configured with the option of 'port-threshold 2' and 'action down' what will
happen if the total operational links in the LAG is 2?

A.
If dynamic-cost is enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF.

B.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 20
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
If dynamic-cost is not enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF by dividing
the link bandwidth by 2.

C.
The LAG will be changed to an operational state of 'down'.

D.
The LAG will function with only 2 ports. There will be no change to the routing metric.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 39

An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram.

How many broadcast and collision domains are on this LAN?

A.
9 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 21

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
3 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

C.
3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains.

D.
1 broadcast domain, 9 collision domains.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40

As described by the CSMA/CD algorithm, what is the first thing to happen when Host A and Host
B begin transmitting data at the same time?

A.
Host A and B will generate a jam signal.

B.
Listening hosts will request retransmission.

C.
Host A or B will retry the transmission.

D.
A back-off timer is started by Host A or B.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41

(Click the Exhibit Button below) An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the following
components:

Four 24-port hubs & Two 16-port switches

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 22

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
How many broadcast domains are on this LAN?

A.
1

B.
2

C.
5

D.
32

Answer: A
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 23

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
QUESTION NO: 42

Which of the following best describes an Ethernet bridge?

A.
A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any
signals.

B.
A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its other ports, but does not do any Layer 2
analysis of the data.

C.
A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision
on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D.
A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision
on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43

What happens immediately after an Ethernet switch receives an Ethernet frame?

A.
It records the destination MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

B.
It records the source MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

C.
It floods the frame out of all its interfaces except the interface on which the frame arrived.

D.
It transmits the frame out of the appropriate interface.

Answer: B
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 24

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

QUESTION NO: 44

What is the behavior of a typical Ethernet switch when it receives a frame with a uncast
destination MAC address? (Choose two.)

A.
The switch floods the frame out of all ports except the port on which it was received.

B.
The switch looks in its FDB. If the source address is unknown it discards the frame.

C.
The switch looks in its FDB. If the destination address is known it forwards the frame out the
appropriate interface.

D.
The switch looks in its FDB. If the destination address is unknown it floods the frame out all ports
except the port on which it was received.

E.
The switch looks in its FDB. If the destination address is unknown it discards the frame.

Answer: C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 45

Which technologies can be used with Ethernet switches to achieve redundancy? (Choose two.)

A.
LAG

B.
OSPF

C.
RIP

D.
STP

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 25

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46

In what type of network is a broadcast storm likely to occur?

A.
An Ethernet network with redundant paths not running STP.

B.
An ATM network.

C.
A SONET network.

D.
All of the above.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 47

What problems was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve? (Choose two.):

A.
Providing path redundancy.

B.
Preventing loops.

C.
Handling collisions.

D.
Allowing flooding of multicast traffic.

Answer: A,B

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 26

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 48

Which of the following is a feature of a VLAN?

A.
A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single broadcast domain.

B.
A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single collision domain.

C.
A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different broadcast domains.

D.
A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different collision domains.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 49

What is required if devices on different VLANs wish to communicate with each other?

A.
Devices on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other.

B.
Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as they are connected to
the same switch.

C.
Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as the switches they are
attached to are connected to each other with an Ethernet connection.

D.
Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if there is an IP router to connect
the VLANs.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 27

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 50

A 24 port Ethernet switch is configured with VLAN 100 on ports 1 - 8, VLAN 200 on ports 9 - 16
and VLAN 300 on ports 17 - 24. Which of the following describes the behavior of the switch when
a broadcast frame is received on port 1?

A.
The switch will discard the broadcast frame because there is no specific destination address.

B.
The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all ports on which the switch has seen frames from
attached devices

C.
The switch will flood the broadcast frame on ports 2 to 8.

D.
The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all 24 ports.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 51

The method by which Ethernet frames are associated to a specific VLAN is referred to as:

A.
Segmenting

B.
Stacking

C.
Routing

D.
Tagging

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 28

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 52

What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple VLANs?

A.
VLAN tag.

B.
IP Header.

C.
FCS.

D.
Priority Value.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 53

Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one
customers traffic from that of another?

A.
The provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customers Layer 2
data.

B.
The PE switch replaces the customers VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag.

C.
The PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customers traffic on the carriers network.

D.
The PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customers traffic.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 29

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 54

What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

A.
The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into a frame for transmission on
the transmission media.

B.
The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into an IP header and routing the
packet.

C.
The Data Link Layer is responsible for formatting the packet for applications such as JPEG format.

D.
The Data Link Layer is responsible for timing of the signals on the transmission media

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 55

Which of the following is typically a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?

A.
Provides a universal addressing scheme to uniquely identify destinations in the network.

B.
The size of the Layer 2 frame cannot exceed 1518 bytes.

C.
Provides error checking of the frame contents after transmission.

D.
All the above.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 30

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Layer 2 protocol?

A.
POS

B.
IP

C.
ATM

D.
Frame Relay

E.
Ethernet

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 57

Why is the address field in a PPP header always set to "11111111"?

A.
PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a broadcast.

B.
PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a multicast.

C.
PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field is fixed.

D.
PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field can change dynamically since every

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 31

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
station is assigned a PPP address.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 58

Which ATM adaptation layer is commonly used for transporting IP datagrams or non-real time
data?

A.
AAL0

B.
AAL1

C.
AAL2

D.
AAL3/4

E.
AAL5

Answer: E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 59

Which of the following is a characteristic of ATM?

A.
Application data is transported in 53-byte cells.

B.
ATM circuits are identified by a VPI/VCI value.

C.
Provides enhanced QoS support with 5 classes of service.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 32
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
Ideal for multiple services on the same physical line.

E.
All of the above.

F.
None of the above

Answer: E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 60

What is the basic unit of framing in SONET and the bit rate for its transmission?

A.
STS-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.
STS-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.
STS-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.
STS-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61

What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

A.
STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.
STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 33
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.
STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 62

Which of the following are examples of Time Division Multiplexing (Choose two.)?

A.
Ethernet.

B.
Token-Ring.

C.
SONET/SDH.

D.
E1 carrier.

E.
PPP

Answer: C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 63

How many DS-3 frames can be transported in an OC-3 frame?

A.
1

B.
2
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 34
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
3

D.
4

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 64

Who was responsible for developing and publishing the original standard that was used for 10
Mbit/s Ethernet?

A.
Intel Corporation.

B.
Digital Equipment Corporation.

C.
DEC-Intel-Xerox.

D.
Apple Computer.

E.
IBM.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 65

Which Ethernet frame field does the receiver use to verify the integrity of the received bits?

A.
Destination address

B.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 35
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Frame check sequence

C.
Preamble

D.
Length field

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 66

How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 802.3?

A.
Ethernet 802.3 can only be used on point-to-point links, while Ethernet II can be used on
broadcast networks.

B.
In Ethernet II the 2 bytes after the source MAC address is used as a type indicator. In Ethernet
802.3 these two bytes indicate the length of the frame.

C.
In Ethernet 802.3, the 2 bytes after the source MAC address is used as a type indicator. In
Ethernet II these two bytes indicate the length of the frame.

D.
Ethernet II and Ethernet 802.3 are two different names for the same protocol

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 67

In MAC Address 00-20-60-CE-2B-28, which part is the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)?

A.
2B-28

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 36

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
00-20

C.
CE-2B-28

D.
00-20-60

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 68

Which of the following type of addressing scheme delivers information from one source to all
devices who are members of a specific group?

A.
Anycast.

B.
Multicast.

C.
Broadcast.

D.
Unicast.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 69

Which of the following is true of Ethernet half-duplex transmission?

A.
Half-duplex transmission is less efficient because the frame MTU is smaller.

B.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 37
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Half-duplex transmission is only 30-40% efficient because of collisions.

C.
Ethernet switches support half-duplex transmission only.

D.
All of the above.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 70

What is the meaning of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?

A.
The host will retransmit the frame if it detects a collision during transmission.

B.
The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host is
connected.

C.
The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting.

D.
The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry.

E.
The host will only transmit when it receives the token.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 71

What is the effective maximum rate of data transmission on a 10 Mbps full-duplex Ethernet link?

A.
5 Mbps.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 38
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
10 Mbps.

C.
15 Mbps.

D.
20 Mbps.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 72

Which of the following Ethernet rates requires an optical cable to operate?

A.
10 Mb/s Ethernet.

B.
100 Mb/s Ethernet.

C.
1000 Mb/s Ethernet .

D.
There are copper and optical versions possible for all of these Ethernet data rates.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 73

What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?

A.
100 m.

B.
500 m.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 39
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
1 Km.

D.
10 Km.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 74

Which of the following statements is TRUE of Layer 3 addressing?

A.
Internet devices on the same network can have the same Layer 3 address in different broadcast
domains.

B.
Every Host device must have a unique Layer 3 address in order to access the Internet.

C.
Internet devices need unique Layer 3 addresses to communicate directly with upper layers.

D.
A router must have only one address to allow it to be uniquely identified.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 75

Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?

A.
Provides an unreliable, connectionless data transmission service.

B.
Provides a mechanism for flow control.

C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 40
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Verifies the integrity of all received datagrams.

D.
Provides services equivalent to the OSI data link layer.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 76

The physical networks connecting two PCs to the internet are DSL and PPP respectively. Which
layer will enable the two PCs to communicate?

A.
Layer 1

B.
Layer 2

C.
Layer 3

D.
Layer 4

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 77

Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?

A.
Same host numbers.

B.
Same IP address.

C.
First two bits of the IP address are set to 01.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 41
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
Same network prefix.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 78

A Class C network is defined by a:

A.
32-bit network prefix.

B.
24-bit network prefix.

C.
16-bit network.

D.
8-bit network.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 79

Public IP address spaces are distributed by which of the following organizations?

A.
Network Solutions INC

B.
IANA

C.
IETF

D.
ITU-T
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 42
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
E.
IEEE

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 80

What characteristic of IP addressing creates a hierarchical network?

A.
All hosts on all networks must have unique host numbers.

B.
IP addresses identify a host and the network on which it resides.

C.
Clients are assigned 32-bit addresses and servers 64-bit addresses.

D.
Router, switch and host addresses are drawn from unique address classes.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 81

Which of the following is a private IP network address reserved by the IANA?

A.
172.30.0.0/16

B.
192.100.0.0/24

C.
172.0.0.0/16

D.
169.254.0.0/16
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 43
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
E.
11.0.0.0/8

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 82

Which type of IP address contains the network number and all 1s for the host address?

A.
Unicast address.

B.
Broadcast address.

C.
Multicast address.

D.
Anycast address.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 83

Complete the following sentence: The introduction of the subnet address added another:

A.
Layer of hierarchy in the addressing structure.

B.
Class to the classful addressing system.

C.
16-bit number to accompany the IP address.

D.
4,294,967,296 addresses to the IP address space.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 44
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 84

What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

A.
A string of 1s

B.
A string of 0s

C.
A string of alternating 10s

D.
There is no specific bit pattern to identify the network address.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 85

What is the purpose of the broadcast address?

A.
Provides an address that refers to all the devices in a given network.

B.
Provides an address to refer to a specific group of devices in a given network.

C.
Provides an address to refer to a group of devices having the same IP addresses in different Layer
2 networks.

D.
Provides an address to refer to a single device on a given network.

Answer: A
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 45
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 86

Which three of the following are important considerations when designing subnets? (Choose
three.)

A.
Number of subnetworks currently required.

B.
Type of physical connectivity used by each segment.

C.
Future network growth requirements.

D.
Number of hosts each subnetwork will support.

E.
Class of the network address to be used for the network.

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 87

Network address: 200.12.30.0

Network mask: 255.255.255.0

Use the information above. You need to create 12 subnetworks supporting 10 host addresses
each.

Which extended prefix will meet this requirement?

A.
/12

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 46

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
/24

C.
/26

D.
/28

E.
/30

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 88

Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?

A.
172.16.224.255/18

B.
255.255.255.255/32

C.
224.1.2.1/8

D.
192.168.24.59/30

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 89

A network administrator is creating a subnet plan for the address 172.16.0.0/16. The network must
support 459 hosts on each subnet while providing the maximum number of subnets. What subnet
mask should be used?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 47

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
255.255.0.0

B.
255.255.128.0

C.
255.255.224.0

D.
255.255.254.0

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 90

With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below are valid host
addresses? (Choose all that apply)

A.
17.23.119.63

B.
87.99.12.159

C.
95.11.22.93

D.
192.11.25.87

Answer: C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 91

Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which of the following is a valid host address when using
the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 48

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
116.14.17.16

B.
116.14.17.31

C.
116.14.17.192

D.
116.14.17.189

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 92

Given the following (Network address: 208.40.224.0, Network prefix: /28.) What is the address
range, including the network and broadcast addresses, for the fourth sub-network?

A.
208.40.224.0 208.40.224.255

B.
208.40.4.0 208.40.4.255

C.
208.40.224.16 208.40.224.31

D.
208.40.224.48 208.40.224.63

E.
208.40.227.0 - 208.40.224.255

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 93

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 49

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a /31 prefix?

A.
There is no broadcast address on the network.

B.
The address can only be used as a loopback address.

C.
This specifies a single host address.

D.
A /31 prefix is not supported on the SR and ESS platform.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 94

Which of the following is a characteristic of the system address?

A.
A physical interface address.

B.
A logical address on the router not corresponding to any specific interface.

C.
May have any prefix value.

D.
A management IP address.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 95

Address summarization reduces the routing table size by:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 50

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
Allowing a contiguous block of network addresses to be represented by one network prefix.

B.
Increasing the number of addresses in the routing table.

C.
Summarizing addresses in the network into smaller routing tables.

D.
Not advertising directly connected routes.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 96

What is the preference value in the routing table used for?

A.
It indicates the preferred egress interface.

B.
It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by the same protocol.

C.
It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by different routing protocols.

D.
It is used to differentiate local routes from remote routes.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 97

At what stage in the packet forwarding process, is the IP packet header examined?

A.
When the router first receives a frame from a LAN.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 51
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
After the forwarding table is checked.

C.
After the IP datagram is extracted from the L2 frame.

D.
Immediately before the IP packet is encapsulated for transmission.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 98

What happens next after an incoming packet is de-encapsulated from the Layer 2 frame in a Nokia
7750 router?

A.
The IP datagram is encapsulated in the appropriate Layer 2 frame by the MDA.

B.
The IP datagram passes through the switch fabric to reach the egress IOM.

C.
The IP datagram is passed to the IOM.

D.
A lookup is performed in the FIB to determine the egress interface.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 99

Which of the following IP header fields contains information that indicates whether routers are
allowed to fragment a packet?

A.
Header checksum.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 52

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
Fragmentation offset.

C.
Flags.

D.
Identification.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 100

What is the main purpose of IP fragmentation?

A.
To limit the number of the IP addresses in the network.

B.
To improve the efficiency of transmissions over the network.

C.
To reduce the number of resources required to send a large frame over the network.

D.
To allow IP datagrams to be carried over Layer 2 networks with varying MTU sizes.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 101

Which of the following is a characteristic of Port Address Translation?

A.
Resolves a MAC address given a specific IP address.

B.
Allows a single public IP address to represent multiple private IP addresses simultaneously.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 53
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
Maps a private address to a well known port number.

D.
Provides a one to one mapping from a private to a public address.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 102

Which of the following describes an IP filter on the Nokia 7750 SR?

A.
An IP filter is used to examine an IP packet and its contents.

B.
An IP filter is applied to allow or deny IP packets into a network.

C.
Multiple ingress and egress filter policies can be applied to a network interface.

D.
Once an IP filter is applied it cannot be modified.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 103

Which of the following command lines would be found in a list of commands designed to permit
only certain type of traffic from exiting router RTR-A to router RTR-B?

A.
RTR-A>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1

B.
RTR-B>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1

C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 54
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
RTR-B>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1

D.
RTR-A>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 104

What is the sequence of messages sent by a host when it attempts to ping a destination for which
it has no Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache entry?

A.
ICMP echo request, ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo reply.

B.
ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply.

C.
ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply, ARP request, ARP reply.

D.
ICMP echo request, ARP reply, ARP request, ICMP echo reply.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 105

Which of the following best describes the function of an ARP cache within the same subnet?

A.
Used by IP to map an unknown IP address to the known hardware address of the distant host.

B.
Adds only an IP address entry for an unknown device on the same subnet.

C.
Transmits ICMP messages to multiple hosts with unknown IP addresses.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 55
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
Resolves the MAC address of a host device given its IP address.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 106

What is the sequence of events for a client to receive an IP address from the server in the DHCP?

A.
Discover, offer, request, acknowledgement.

B.
Request, offer, discover, acknowledgement.

C.
Discover, request, offer, acknowledgement.

D.
Request, acknowledgement, discover, offer.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 107

Which of the following statements is TRUE about ICMP?

A.
An IP datagram is encapsulated within an ICMP header.

B.
ICMP messages can only be generated by routers.

C.
ICMP messages are encapsulated within an IP datagram.

D.
ICMP guarantees delivery of a message.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 56
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 108

What protocol is used by ping to verify IP network reachability?

A.
DCHP

B.
ICMP

C.
ARP

D.
NAT

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 109

What does a device do when it receives an ICMP Echo request message that is destined for itself,
it then:

A.
Estimates the round trip-time.

B.
Generates an echo reply message.

C.
Calculates the data loss statistics.

D.
Verifies the data field of the message.

Answer: B
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 57
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 110

What ICMP message type will a router use to indicate to a host that an IP datagram sourced from
that host cannot be delivered?

A.
Echo Request.

B.
Destination Unreachable.

C.
Router redirect.

D.
Echo Reply.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 111

A set of tasks that move a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network.
This describes:

A.
IP routing.

B.
IP protocol.

C.
IP encapsulation.

D.
IP tunneling.

Answer: A
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 58
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 112

Which field in the IP routing table contains the name or address of the neighbour that advertised
the prefix to the router?

A.
Preference.

B.
Metric.

C.
Dest prefix.

D.
Next hop.

Answer: D
Explanation:

Topic 2, Volume B

QUESTION NO: 113

What is the function of the Routing Table Manager?

A.
Based on the metrics of the routing protocol, find the best path to the destination network and
install it in the routing table.

B.
Provide a CLI interface to allow the operator to configure the dynamic routing protocol on the
router.

C.
Based on the routing protocol preference values, chose the route with the lowest preference and
install it in the routing table.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 59

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
Provide a CLI interface to allow the network operator to install static routes in the routing table.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 114

Which of the following is characteristic of a static route?

A.
Responds in real time to network failures.

B.
Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system.

C.
Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.

D.
Explicitly defines the next hop based on operator input.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 115

Which of the following describes a static default route?

A.
An entry included in the default configuration of the router that is used if no dynamic routing
protocols or static routes are configured.

B.
A wildcard entry used when the destination network is not specifically defined in the routing table.

C.
An entry selected based on the route that has the least cost to the destination (path with the most
physical bandwidth)

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 60

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
An entry used by the routing protocol when it is unable to calculate the best route to the
destination.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 116

Based on the network diagram (click on the exhibit), what is the command to use on R1 to setup a
static route to the network on CR1

A.
config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.
config router static-route 10.2.3.1 next-hop 192.168.2.0

C.
config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1

D.
config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 192.168.2.0

Answer: C
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 61

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

QUESTION NO: 117

Based on the network diagram, (click on exhibit) what is the command to use on CR1 to setup a
default static route to R1?

A.
config router static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.
config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.
config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.
config router default-route 10.2.3.2

E.
config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 118

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 62

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Based on the network diagram (click on exhibit), R2 wants to connect to the networks behind CR1
using a static-route. What is the correct syntax given the choices below? R1 has a valid static-
route defined for networks behind CR1.

A.
config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.
config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.1.1.1

C.
config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1

D.
config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.1.1.2

E.
none of the above

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 119

Based on the network diagram (click on exhibit), Router 1 installs the network D in its routing table,
based on a dynamic routing update from Router 2. Which of the following describes the
information that will be installed in the routing table?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 63

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.1

B.
172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.2

C.
172.16.9.0.24 next-hop 10.10.10.3

D.
Any of the above

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 120

What are the tasks of the Routing Table Manager (RTM)? (Choose two.)

A.
RTM selects the best route from among multiple routing protocols.

B.
RTM selects the best route using the metric as criteria

C.
RTM sends its best route to all its directly connected neighbors.

D.
RTM installs its best route in the routing table.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 64

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 121

Choose two true statements that characterize Distance Vector Routing?

A.
Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

B.
Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.
Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.
Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 122

What metric does a link state protocol use to choose the best path to a destination network?

A.
Link bandwidth.

B.
Round trip time.

C.
Hop count.

D.
Route preference.

Answer: A

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 65

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 123

You need to implement an interior gateway routing protocol for your network that supports
scalability, fast convergence and VLSM. Which routing protocol would best serve your needs?

A.
RIPv1.

B.
RIPv2.

C.
OSPF.

D.
BGP.

E.
Static routes.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 124

Which of the parameters in Hello messages exchanged between two OSPF neighbors must be the
same to keep the adjacency alive in OSPF? (Choose four.)

A.
Interface MTU.

B.
Area ID.

C.
Authentication password.

D.
Hello interval.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 66
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
E.
Dead interval.

F.
Router priority.

Answer: B,C,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 125

Which of the following are TRUE statements about the router ID in OSPF? (Choose two.)

A.
A router ID is not required by OSPF.

B.
The system address is used as the router ID if router-id is not set.

C.
The router ID is used to uniquely identify every OSPF router.

D.
On the Nokia 7750 SR, the router ID is set to the highest logical IP address if router-id is not
explicitly set.

Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 126

Which of the following are FALSE statements about the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.
OSPF is a link state protocol with fast convergence.

B.
OSPF supports hierarchy with multiple areas.

C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 67
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
The default metric for OSPF is hop count.

D.
OSPF does not support VLSM.

E.
OSPF supports neighbor authentication.

Answer: C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 127

Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events in the forming of an OSPF
adjacency?

A.
Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates.

B.
DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates, Hello exchange.

C.
Link state requests and updates, Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange.

D.
Hello exchange, Link state requests and updates, DB descriptor exchange.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 128

In the diagram, R7 receives a new LSA from R3 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms.
later it receives another copy of the LSA with the same sequence number from R8. What does R7
do with the LSA received from R8?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 68

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
R7 silently discards the LSA received from R8.

B.
R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.
R7 discards the LSA received from R8 and sends an ACK to R8.

D.
R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R8 and floods a
copy to its neighbors.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 129

In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from R7 and then receives
another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA
from R1?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 69

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

B.
R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.
R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

D.
R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a
copy to its neighbors.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 130

In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with sequence number 112 from R7 and installs it in its link
state database. 10 ms. Later it receives a copy of the same LSA with a sequence number of 111
from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 70

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

B.
R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.
R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

D.
R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a
copy to its neighbors.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 131

Which of the following best describes an autonomous system?

A.
An autonomous system is a network or group of networks operating under one administrative
authority.

B.
An autonomous system is another term for the collection of routers that make up the Internet

C.
An autonomous system is a network or group of networks from many organizations running
different IGP routing protocols, but all running BGP.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 71

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
An autonomous system is a loosely defined term that can refer to any organization that has a
connection to the Internet.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 132

Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering
session with other BGP speakers?

A.
TCP port 179.

B.
UDP port 179.

C.
TCP port 22.

D.
UDP port 22.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 133

What are some of the characteristics of BGP? (Choose three.)

A.
BGP is an exterior gateway protocol.

B.
BGP routing is based on distance vector.

C.
BGP sends periodic updates to its neighbors.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 72

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
A router running BGP protocol needs an Autonomous system number

Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 134

Which is the public AS in the diagram?

A.
65001

B.
65003

C.
2002

D.
All of the above.

E.
None of the above.

Answer: C
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 73

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
QUESTION NO: 135

In the diagram, what type of BGP session is established between the routers of AS 2002?

A.
IGP

B.
IBGP

C.
EBGP

D.
EGP

E.
BGP cannot be run between routers in the same AS.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 136

In the diagram, what type of BGP session is established between the routers of AS 65001 and AS
2002?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 74

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
IGP

B.
IBGP

C.
EBGP

D.
EGP

E.
BGP cannot be run between routers in different ASs.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 137

Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the Transport Layer in the TCP/IP
stack?

A.
Provides a data transport service to higher protocol layers.

B.
Provides a data transport service for routing and control protocols such as OSPF and ICMP.

C.
Provides a universal address plan to uniquely identify every device in the network.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 75

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
Defines a standard method for framing data for transmission on the physical network medium.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 138

Which of the following is NOT a function of TCP?

A.
Maintaining the ordering of data transmitted across the network.

B.
Ensuring the reliable transmission of data across the network.

C.
Providing the receiver with a flow control mechanism.

D.
Defining the method for routing data across the network.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 139

What must occur before two hosts can exchange data using TCP?

A.
Nothing. The two hosts can send data to each other at any time.

B.
The two hosts must negotiate a path MTU to be used for the data exchange.

C.
The two hosts must perform a 3-way handshake before transmitting data.

D.
The two hosts must exchange encryption keys before transmitting data.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 76
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 140

Host A is transmitting data to host B on a TCP connection. What is the purpose of the ACK sent by
host B?

A.
The ACK tells the host A that host B wishes to establish a session.

B.
The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the segment that was just received by host B.

C.
The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the next segment that host B expects to see.

D.
The ACK is flow control from host B and tells host A to reduce its transmission rate.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 141

Host A receives a TCP SYN/ACK segment. What does this signify?

A.
Host A has received a request to establish a TCP session.

B.
Host A has received a request to close a TCP session

C.
A TCP session is now established to host A.

D.
The TCP session has been terminated due to a timeout.

Answer: C
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 77
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 142

What is the purpose of the source and destination ports in the TCP header?

A.
These ports identify the physical location of the sender and the receiver on the IP router.

B.
These ports are used as addresses to communicate with the IP layer.

C.
TCP does not use source or destination ports.

D.
These ports are used as an address to identify the upper layer application using the TCP
connection.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 143

Which of the following is NOT a field in a TCP header?

A.
Source port.

B.
MTU.

C.
Sequence number.

D.
Acknowledgement number.

E.
Window size.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 78

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 144

Which of the following fields is not a field in the TCP header used for the establishment and
termination of a TCP connection?

A.
TTL

B.
ACK

C.
FIN

D.
SYN

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 145

The sequence numbers are used by TCP to ensure that the data receive is provided to the
application in the correct order.

A.
TRUE

B.
FALSE

Answer: A
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 79

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
QUESTION NO: 146

What happens in a TCP session if a segment is not acknowledged within a certain time period?

A.
The missing segment is retransmitted.

B.
The TCP session is terminated.

C.
The sender sends the next segment.

D.
An ICMP destination unreachable message is sent.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 147

What is the purpose of TCP flow control?

A.
It restricts the sender from sending too much data when there is congestion in the network.

B.
It allows the receiver to control the rate at which the sender transmits data.

C.
It forces the sender to send only one segment at a time.

D.
It allows the receiver to drop segments without the sender having to retransmit.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 148

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 80

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Which field in the TCP header is used by the receiver to indicate how many segments it can
receive?

A.
Checksum

B.
SYN

C.
Destination port

D.
Window size

E.
MTU

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 149

What must the sender do when it receives a window size of 0 from the receiver?

A.
Stop transmitting.

B.
Terminate the TCP session.

C.
Send the next segment.

D.
Retransmit the previous segment.

Answer: A
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 81

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
QUESTION NO: 150

Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of UDP (Select two)?

A.
Provide a connectionless delivery service.

B.
Provide a connection oriented delivery service.

C.
Provide an unreliable transmission service.

D.
Provide a reliable transmission service.

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 151

Why does UDP have less overhead than TCP?

A.
UDP has less overhead because it is only used for transmission of small amounts of data.

B.
UDP has less overhead then TCP because there is no checksum field in UDP.

C.
UDP overhead is the same as TCP because it uses the same fields in the header.

D.
UDP has less overhead because there is no requirement for acknowledgment or retransmission.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 152

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 82

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Which application below would be likely to use UDP?

A.
Real-time audio application such as VoIP.

B.
Web browser.

C.
Email application.

D.
Telnet.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 153

How does the Transport Layer identify which application is to receive the data?

A.
Using the IP address of the packet.

B.
Using the MAC address of the frame.

C.
Using port numbers.

D.
Using Connection Identifier Numbers (CIN).

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 154

What capability of TCP/IP allows two hosts to have multiple TCP sessions to each other
simultaneously?
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 83
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
The combination of IP source and destination address and TCP source and destination port
uniquely identifies each session.

B.
The combination of IP source and destination address and the IP protocol field uniquely identifies
each session.

C.
The hosts can identify the sessions using each others MAC addresses.

D.
Two hosts can not have multiple TCP sessions simultaneously.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 155

What operation is performed by an LSR when it receives an MPLS labeled packet?

A.
The LSR refers to its routing table and forwards the packet to the next LSR or LER without altering
the MPLS label.

B.
The LSR refers to its MPLS label table, swaps the label and forwards the packet to the next LSR
or LER.

C.
The LSR refers to its MPLS label table forwards the packet to the next LSR or LER without altering
the MPLS label.

D.
The LSR refers to its MPLS label table, pops the label and forwards the packet to the next IP
router.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 156

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 84
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
What is the function of an LSR?

A.
Label Switching Routers make switching decisions based on the original MAC Header.

B.
Label Switching Routers make routing decisions based on the original IP Header.

C.
Label Switching Routers make forwarding decisions based on the MPLS label.

D.
Label Switching Routers make decisions based on ATM header information.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 157

In an MPLS network, which device is responsible for taking an unlabeled packet and
encapsulating it with an MPLS label?

A.
Ingress Label Edge Router

B.
Egress Label Edge Router

C.
Label Switching Router

D.
Next Hop Router

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 158

Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels (Choose three.)?
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 85
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
A series of labels from one LER to another LER represent a logical tunnel known as an LSP.

B.
Labels used for a LSP may be static but are usually signaled dynamically with an MPLS label
signaling protocol.

C.
Labels are locally significant to the MPLS router which means its possible for two routers on the
LSP path to use the same label.

D.
Labels are globally significant to the MPLS network which means all labels on the LSP path must
be unique.

E.
Labels used for an LSP must be statically assigned by the service provider.

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 159

Which device is responsible for removing the MPLS label before the packet reaches the CE
device?

A.
The CE device removes the MPLS label.

B.
The last LSR on the LSP removes the MPLS label.

C.
MPLS labels are not removed until they reach the final destination.

D.
The egress LER removes the MPLS label.

Answer: D
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 86

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
QUESTION NO: 160

Which two protocols are used for the dynamic signaling of MPLS labels (Choose two.)?

A.
RSVP-TE

B.
CSPF

C.
PNNI

D.
LDP

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 161

How does LDP select the path used for an LSP?

A.
LDP monitors the available bandwidth on all links and signals the LSP based on this information.

B.
LDP uses the shortest hop-count between two endpoints for the LSP.

C.
LDP must be configured hop-by-hop by the service provider.

D.
LDP follows the path chosen by the IGP.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 162

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 87

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A CE device has a physical connection to which device in the service providers MPLS network?

A.
CE always connects to a PE router.

B.
CE always connects to a P router.

C.
CE always connects to another CE device.

D.
The CE does not connect to the service provider network.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 163

Which of the following are accurate statements about the PE device in a service providers MPLS
network? (Select three)

A.
A PE router only connects to CE devices.

B.
A PE router only connects to P routers.

C.
A PE router connects to at least one P router.

D.
A PE router connects to at least one CE device.

E.
PE routers support many different interface types connecting to CE devices.

F.
PE routers only support Ethernet interfaces connecting to the CE.

Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 88

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

QUESTION NO: 164

Where would you expect to find a P router in a service provider's network?

A.
At the edge of the provider's network facing the customer.

B.
At the edge of the customer's network facing the provider.

C.
In the core of the provider's network.

D.
On the customer premises.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 165

Which of the following are considered Virtual Private Networks? Choose all that apply.

A.
IES

B.
VPWS

C.
VPLS

D.
VPRN

Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 89

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
QUESTION NO: 166

Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Nokia 7750 SR?
(Choose two.)

A.
VPWS Virtual Private Wire Service

B.
VPLS Virtual Private LAN Service.

C.
VPRN Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D.
MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol

E.
VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Answer: D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 167

Which statement best describes a SAP?

A.
The Service ATM Point is used for ATM connections to a PE.

B.
The Service Access Point is defined on the PE device and is the customers access to the service.

C.
The Service Access Point is defined on the P device and is the customers access to the service.

D.
The Service Access Point is defined on the CE device and is the customers access to the service.

Answer: B
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 90

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

QUESTION NO: 168

Multiple SAPs may be defined on the same physical port and may be used for different services.

A.
True

B.
False

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 169

SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a port with
a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.

A.
True

B.
False

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 170

Which statement best describes an SDP?

A.
Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the
service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 91

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the
connection of the service to CE device. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

C.
Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the
service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

D.
Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the
service to CE device. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 171

Which statement best describes a VPRN service?

A.
From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected by the same set of dark
fibers.

B.
From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private switched network
administered by the service provider.

C.
From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private routed network
administered by the service provider.

D.
From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites have public internet access administered by
the service provider.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 172

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 92

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
How does a VPRN service avoid the problem of overlapping IP addresses from different
customers?

A.
You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its customers
are all using discrete IP address space.

B.
Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate
customer routing information.

C.
A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which are always
unique.

D.
A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the
service provider.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 173

How does a VPRN service avoid the problem of overlapping IP addresses from different
customers?

A.
You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. Customers must change their IP address assignment.

B.
Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate
customer routing information. This allows for overlapping addresses.

C.
A VPRN ignores IP addressing information and uses MAC addressing instead, which are always
unique.

D.
A VPRN translates customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the
service provider.

Answer: B

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 93

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 174

A VPWS service maintains a MAC Forwarding Database (FDB) for Ethernet SAPs.

A.
True

B.
False

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 175

Which of the following mediums can be used in a VPWS when defining SAPs (Select three)?

A.
Ethernet.

B.
ATM.

C.
Frame Relay.

D.
Token Ring.

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 176

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 94

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
If a customer requires a point-to-point layer 2 VPN service between two locations which VPN
service would be typically suited for this customer?

A.
Virtual Private Wire Service .

B.
Virtual Private LAN Service.

C.
Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D.
Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 177

Which of the following statements is FALSE when describing a Virtual Private LAN Service?

A.
A VPLS emulates a virtual switch or bridge.

B.
The VPLS performs MAC learning on MAC addresses seen from SAPs and SDPs.

C.
When a VPLS receives a frame with an unknown MAC destination, the frame will be dropped.

D.
MAC address forwarding database (FDB) is maintained for each VPLS.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 178

If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations which
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 95
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
VPN service is best suited for this customer?

A.
Virtual Private Wire Service

B.
Virtual Private LAN Service

C.
Virtual Private Routed Networks

D.
Virtual Private Dark Fibre Service

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 179

What does a VPLS solution look like from a customers perspective?

A.
To the customer, it appears as if all sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.
To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.
To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single router.

D.
To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point
connections.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 180

Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 96
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies
which transport tunnel to use.

B.
Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies
which transport tunnel to use.

C.
Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies
the specific service the data belongs to.

D.
Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies
the specific service the data belongs to.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 181

In regards to the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router, how many of the front access card slots are dedicated
for Control Processors?

A.
1

B.
2

C.
7

D.
10

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 182

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 97
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
From the CE perspective, how does a VPLS operate?

A.
A VPLS operates as if 2 sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.
A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.
A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single router.

D.
A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point routed
connections.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 183

Which of the following is a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?

A.
Provides a universal addressing scheme to uniquely identify destinations in the network

B.
Size of frame cannot exceed 1518 bytes.

C.
Provides error checking of the frame contents on ingress.

D.
All of the above.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 184

The statement below describes which of the following activities?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 98
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
"A set of tasks that moves a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP
network."

A.
IP forwarding

B.
IP decapsulation

C.
IP encapsulation

D.
IP tunneling

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 185

Which of the following are considered Virtual Private Network (VPN) technologies? (Choose
three.)

A.
BGP

B.
VPWS

C.
VPRN

D.
ISP

E.
VPLS

Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 99

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
QUESTION NO: 186

The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host
addresses will be obtained with this mask?

A.
4 subnets, 64 hosts

B.
64 subnets, 4 hosts

C.
4 subnets, 62 hosts

D.
64 subnets, 2 hosts

E.
6 subnets, 30 hosts

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 187

What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

A.
Inability to perform switch to switch redundancy using multiple connections at Layer 2.

B.
Missing protocol field in Ethernet II required to identify redundancy protocols at Layer 2.

C.
Missing packet sequencing in Layer 2 Ethernet required to re-order packets on arrival.

D.
Inability to forward multicast frames without a routing protocol.

Answer: A
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 100

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

QUESTION NO: 188

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button).

R2 wants to connect a host on 192.168.2.0/24 behind CR1. What is the correct next-hop to use,
assuming R1 is configured correctly?

A.
10.2.3.2

B.
10.1.1.1

C.
10.2.3.1

D.
10.1.1.2

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 189

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 101

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what is the next-hop used on R1 to setup
a static route to the network on CR1?

A.
next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.
next-hop 192.168.2.1

C.
next-hop 10.2 3.1

D.
next-hop 192.168.2.0

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 190

Which field in the Routing Information Base (RIB) determines the direction frames will egress the
node?

A.
Preference

B.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 102
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Metric

C.
Dest prefix

D.
Next-hop

E.
Cost

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 191

Which of the following applications would be likely to use UDP?

A.
Real-time audio application, such as VoIP

B.
Web browser

C.
Email application

D.
Telnet

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 192

What are the tasks of a Routing Table Manager (RTM)? (Choose two.)

A.
To select the best route from among multiple routing protocols.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 103

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
To select the best route using the metric as criteria.

C.
To send its best route to all its directly connected neighbors.

D.
To install its best route in the routing table.

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 193

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what are the prefix, mask, and next-hop
used on CR1 to setup a default static route to R1?

A.
0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2 3.2

B.
0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.
10.2.3.2/32 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.
0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.2.0
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 104
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 194

Which bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

A.
A string of consecutive 1's.

B.
A string of consecutive 0's.

C.
A string of alternating 10's.

D.
The network address is determined by masking the source address with a port's if Index binary
representation.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 195

Which of the following are important to consider when designing IPv4 subnets? (Choose three.)

A.
The number of subnetworks currently required.

B.
The version of the Ethernet used by each segment.

C.
Future network growth requirements.

D.
The number of hosts each subnetwork will support.

E.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 105

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
The class of the IP address assigned to an organization.

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 196

Which of the following statements regarding TCP is TRUE?

A.
Sequence numbers are used to ensure that the data received is offered to the application in the
correct order.

B.
The SYN flag is used to identify congestion in the network.

C.
The NACK flag is set on confirmation segments to acknowledge FCS errors.

D.
The window size is transmitted in all TCP segments to communicate MTU limitations of lower layer
protocols to upper layer applications.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 197

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding IP addressing?

A.
Classful IP addressing provides hierarchy based on variable subnet masks.

B.
Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on a variable length subnet mask.

C.
Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on fixed subnet masks of /24. /16 and/8.

D.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 106
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
IP addresses provide hierarchy based on the country code and regional identifier.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 198

Which of the following statements best characterize Distance Vector Routing? (Choose two.)

A.
Routers periodically send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors.

B.
Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.
Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.
Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 199

Which of the following describes a static default route?

A.
A routing entry, included in the RIB by default, that forwards packets with an unknown destination
to the CPM for inspection.

B.
A manual entry used when the destination address of a network is not specifically listed in the
routing table.

C.
A manual entry that matches a specific /32 host address using the least cost to the destination.

D.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 107
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A default entry in the FIB used when forwarding multicast and broadcast packets.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 200

Which of the following is a characteristic of a static route?

A.
Responds in real time to network failures.

B.
Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system.

C.
Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.

D.
Explicitly defines the next-hop based on operator input.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 201

Which of the following are functions of VLANs? (Choose two.)

A.
VLANs can group ports on multiple switches into unified broadcast domains

B.
VLANs allow multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single collision domain

C.
VLANs can separate ports on the same switch into different broadcast domains

D.
VLANs can group ports on the same switch into different collision domains

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 108

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 202

Which of the following information can be seen within the FILE context of the SR 7x50? (Choose
two.)

A.
File sizes

B.
Port statistics

C.
Log-id 100 files

D.
TiMOS image files

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 203

Which of the following best describes a repeater?

A.
A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. It does not generate or amplify any
signals.

B.
A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports but does not do any Layer 2 analysis
of the data.

C.
A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision
on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 109

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 204

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a VPWS service?

A.
VPWS is a point-to-multipoint service.

B.
VPWS requires MAC learning in order to forward frames to the correct destination

C.
A Spanning Tree Protocol must be enabled when deploying a VPWS.

D.
VPWS treats multicast traffic similar to unicast traffic.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 205

Public IP addresses are globally coordinated by which organization?

A.
Network Solutions INC

B.
IANA

C.
IETF

D.
ITU-T
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 110
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
E.
IEEE

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 206

Which of the following protocols belongs to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two.)

A.
OSPF

B.
BGP

C.
X.500

D.
IS-IS

E.
Ethernet

Answer: C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 207

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Ethernet half-duplex transmission?

A.
Half-duplex transmission is less efficient because the frame MTU is smaller.

B.
An end-station connected to a hub will always be half-duplex.

C.
Ethernet switches only support half-duplex transmission.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 111
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
All of the above.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 208

What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for transmission?

A.
STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s.

B.
STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s.

C.
STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s.

D.
STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 209

Which of the following SAP types can be associated to a VPWS? (Choose three.)

A.
Ethernet

B.
ATM

C.
Token Ring

D.
Frame Relay
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 112
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 210

Which of the following statements are TRUE about the Nokia SR 7750? (Choose two.)

A.
It can boot without a compact flash in the CF3 slot.

B.
It cannot boot without a compact flash in the CF3 slot.

C.
It can operate without a compact flash in the CF3 slot once it has booted.

D.
It cannot operate without a compact flash in the CF3 slot once it has booted.

Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 211

Which answer reflects the correct message sequence used when a source attempts to ping a
destination for which it has no Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache entry?

A.
ICMP echo request, ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo reply

B.
ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply

C.
ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply, ARP request, ARP reply

D.
ICMP echo request. ARP reply, ARP request, ICMP echo reply

Answer: B
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 113
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 212

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding SONET/SDH? (Choose two.)

A.
They are deployed over point-to-point physical topologies to allow sub-50ms convergence.

B.
An ADM (Add Drop Multiplexer) is used to connect various sites to the infrastructure.

C.
IP datagrams are encapsulated in a PPP frame for transmission over an SDH network,

D.
IP datagrams are encapsulated in an Ethernet frame for transmission over a SONET network.

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 213

How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 802.3?

A.
Ethernet II can be used on broadcast networks where as 802.3 was designed for point-to-point
networks.

B.
Ethernet II identifies its payload type where as 802.3 indicates the frame length.

C.
Ethernet II identifies its frame length while 802.3 indicates the payload type.

D.
Ethernet II and Ethernet 802.3 are two different names for the same protocol.

Answer: B

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 114

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 214

Which of the following statements best characterize Link State Routing? (Choose two.)

A.
Routers periodically send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors.

B.
Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.
Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.
Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 215

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button). Router 1 installs network D in its routing
table following a dynamic routing update from Router 2. Which of the following describes the
information that will be installed in the routing table?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 115

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.1

B.
172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.2

C.
172.16.9.0.24 next-hop 10.10 10 3

D.
0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 172.16.9.1

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 216

Which of the following statements best describe the purpose of UDP? (Choose two.)

A.
Provides a connectionless delivery service.

B.
Provides a connection oriented delivery service

C.
Provides an unreliable transmission service,

D.
Provides a reliable transmission service.

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 217

Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels? (Choose three.)

A.
A sequence of label actions from one LER to another LER represents a logical tunnel known as an
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 116
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
LSP.

B.
MPLS labels must be dynamically signaled.

C.
Labels are globally significant to the MPLS network.

D.
MPLS labels may be dynamically signaled or statically assigned by the service provider.

E.
Labels are locally significant to the MPLS router.

Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 218

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding IP-filters? (Choose two.)

A.
IP-filters may be applied on interface ingress, egress, or both.

B.
Multiple IP-filters can be applied in each direction.

C.
An IP-filter may only be applied to a single interface if the scope is set to template.

D.
An IP-filter may have multiple match criteria per entry.

E.
The default-action of an IP-filter is always drop.

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 219

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 117

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
What must occur before a LAG becomes operational?

A.
There must be multiple ports assigned to the LAG.

B.
All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same speed and duplex settings.

C.
Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG.

D.
The duplex setting on all the ports must be forced to half.

E.
Auto-negotiation must be set to limited or disabled on at least one member port.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 220

What is the function of a Routing Table Manager (RTM)?

A.
To find the best path to the destination network and install it in the routing table - based on the
metrics of the routing protocol.

B.
To provide a CLI interface that allows the operator to configure the dynamic routing protocol on the
router.

C.
To choose the route with the lowest preference and install it in the routing table - based on the
routing protocol preference values.

D.
To provide a CLI interface that allows the network operator to install static routes in the routing
table.

Answer: C
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 118

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

QUESTION NO: 221

Which field in the TCP header is used by the receiver to indicate the number of segments it can
receive?

A.
Checksum

B.
SYN

C.
Destination port

D.
Window size

E.
MTU

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 222

TCP is sending data in 5 segments with SEQ numbers 27000, 27500.28000, 28500, and 29000
respectively. During transmission, the segment with SEQ=28500 is dropped in the network. How
does TCP handle this situation?

A.
The receiving end station sends an ACK flag with SEQ=28000 to indicate it has received a
segment out of order.

B.
The receiving station sends a NACK frame with SEQ=28500 requesting that the frame be
retransmitted

C.
Once the reciever's window is full. TCP assembles the payload and determines that SEQ=28500
is missing. At this point, the reciever sends the RST flag with SEQ=28500 to Request Single
Transmission of the missing segment.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 119
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
TCP will collect the segments and forward them to the application layer where the SEQ numbers
will be processed and a retransmit request will occur for the entire packet.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 223

Which of the following is NOT an advantage pf TCP/IP layering?

A.
It provides a standardized method of communication.

B.
It simplifies complex procedures.

C.
It reduces protocol overhead.

D.
It isolates layers and defines how they should interact.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 224

Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for providing the user’s interface to the network?

A.
the application services layer

B.
The transport layer

C.
The Internet protocol layer

D.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 120
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
The network interface layer

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 225

Which tier of Internet service providers provides transit services to other ISPs?

A.
Tier 1 and Tier 2 ISPs

B.
Tier 1 and Tier 3 ISPs

C.
Tier 2 and Tier 3 ISPs

D.
Tier 3 ISP

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 226

Which of the following is IANA responsible for?

A.
The allocation of enterprise IP address space

B.
The allocation of residential IP address space

C.
The allocation of global IP address space

D.
The allocation of North American IP address space

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 121

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 227

Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor on a Nokia 7750 SR stores the runtime image
and the running configuration?

A.
SF 1

B.
SF 2

C.
SF 3

D.
Both CF1 and CF2

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 228

On the Nokia 7750 SR, which key displays all command options and their descriptions?

A.
?

B.
Tab

C.
Space bar

D.
Return

Answer: A
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 122
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 229

With which of the following log destinations does an event log disappear when you log off a Nokia
7750 SR?

A.
Console

B.
Session

C.
Memory

D.
File

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 230

Which of the following Nokia 7750 SR components is NOT part of the data plane?

A.
The Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)

B.
The Input/ Output Module (IOM)

C.
The Switch Fabric (SF)

D.
The Control Processor Module (CPM)

Answer: D

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 123

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 231

Which of the following ports can be used to access a Nokia 7750 SR that has not been
configured?

A.
CPM management Ethernet port

B.
CPM console serial port

C.
Port 1/1/1

D.
Any port on an installed MDA

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 232

An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram. How
many collision domains are on this LAN?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 124

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
1

B.
2

C.
5

D.
6

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 233

Which of the following best describes an Ethernet switch?

A.
A passive device used to connect cables without signal amplification.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 125

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
A device that receives and retransmits data without Layer 2 header inspection.

C.
A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 2 destination address.

D.
A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 234

Which ATM adaptation layer is usually used for connectionless data service?

A.
AAL1

B.
AAL2

C.
AAL3/4

D.
AAL5

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 235

What must be configured before a LAG becomes operational?

A.
The cost must be statically configured on all ports in the LAG.

B.
The speed and duplex setting on all ports in the LAG must be the same.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 126
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG.

D.
The duplex setting on all the ports in the LAG must be forced to half.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 236

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Ethernet?

A.
It is a broadcast technology that can send frames to all devices attached to shared media.

B.
It uses a passive, wait-listen protocol called Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection
(CSMA/ CD).

C.
It uses IP addresses to identify interfaces on the common network media.

D.
It is part of the network interface layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 237

What is the function of Layer 2?

A.
Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating packets into frames for transmission on physical media.

B.
Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating packets into IP datagrams and routing them.

C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 127
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating application data into TCP/UDP messages.

D.
Layer 2 is responsible for the timing of the signals on physical media.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 238

What type of MAC address is 01:00:5e:01:01:01?

A.
Unicast

B.
Multicast

C.
Broadcast

D.
Anycast

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 239

A switch with the MAC FDB shown in the exhibit receives an Ethernet frame with source MAC
address 00:00:8c:01:00:0a and destination MAC address ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff. On which ports is the frame
forwarded?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 128

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
Only on port 1/1/1.

B.
On all ports except 1/1/1.

C.
On all four ports.

D.
On none of the ports.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 240

Which of the following statements about the IP forwarding process is TRUE?

A.
It uses the forwarding table to find a match for the source IP address.

B.
It uses the ARP table to find a match for the source MAC address.

C.
It uses the ARP table to find a match for the destination MAC address.

D.
It uses the forwarding table to find a match for the destination IP address.

Answer: D

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 129

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 241

Which of the following if a Layer 3 protocol?

A.
Ethernet

B.
TCP

C.
IP

D.
FTP

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 242

A given network with address 200.12.30.0 and network mask 255.255.255.0 is divided into 16
equal-sized subnetworks. How many hosts does each subnetwork support?

A.
6

B.
14

C.
30

D.
62

Answer: B

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 130

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 243

Which of the following involves grouping a number of routes with common prefixes into a single
route advertisement?

A.
Hierarchical IP Addressing

B.
IP Address Subnetting

C.
Variable Length Subnet Masking

D.
IP Address Summarization

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 244

Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a prefix length of /32?

A.
The subnet has only one address reserved for a loopback interface or the system interface.

B.
The subnet has a broadcast address.

C.
The subnet is configured for a point-to point link.

D.
The subnet is reserved for a multicast address groups.

Answer: A

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 131

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 245

Which of the following statements about IP addressing is TRUE?

A.
IP addresses are assigned by IEEE to vendors.

B.
Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on a variable length subnet mask.

C.
Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on fixed subnet masks of /24, /16, and /8.

D.
IP addresses provide hierarchy based on the country code and regional identifier.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 246

What is the most specific aggregate prefix for the following 4 subnets?

100.1.1.4/30

100.1.1.8/30

100.1.1.12/30

100.1.1.16/30

A.
100.1.1.0/25

B.
100.1.1.0/26

C.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 132

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
100.1.1.0/27

D.
100.1.1.0/28

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 247

Network 201.148.104.0/21 is subnetted using a /23 mask. How many subnets and host addresses
per subnet will be obtained with this mask?

A.
2 subnets, 1022 hosts

B.
4 subnets, 510 hosts

C.
2 subnets, 2048 hosts

D.
4 subnets, 512 hosts

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 248

A network with address 208.40.224.0/24 is divided into /28 subnets. What is the host address
range of the fourth subnetwork?

A.
208.40.224.17 – 208.40.224.30

B.
208.40.224.33 – 208.40.224.46

C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 133
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
208.40.224.49 – 208.40.224.62

D.
208.40.224.65 – 208.40.224.78

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 249

Which of the following about the displayed IP filter is TRUE?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 134

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
TCP (protocol 6) packets with source IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number between 666
and 999 are forwarded.

B.
TCP (protocol 6) packets with source IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number between 666
and 999 are dropped.

C.
TCP (protocol 6) packets with source IP address 1.2.3.0/24 or source port number between 666
and 999 are forwarded.

D.
TCP (protocol 6) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number between
666 and 999 are forwarded.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 250

Router R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from router R4 and then receives
another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from router R2. What does router R3 do
with the LSA from R2?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 135

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
R3 discards the LSA received from R2 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R2.

B.
R3 installs the LSA received from R2 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.
R3 discards the LSA received from R2 and sends an ACK to R2.

D.
R3 installs the LSA received from R2 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R2, and floods a
copy to its neighbors.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 251

Router R5 receives four route updates for the same prefix 10.10.10.1/32. Which of the four routes
will be installed in R5’s routing table?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 136

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
Route learned from router R1.

B.
Route learned from router R2.

C.
Router learned from router R3.

D.
Route learned from router R4.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 252

Which of the following egress interfaces is used to forward a packet with destination IP address
140.10.0.110?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 137

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
System interface

B.
Interface “toC1”

C.
Interface “toP1”

D.
Interface “toP2”

Answer: C
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 138

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

QUESTION NO: 253

Which of the following is a characteristic of Link State protocols?

A.
Routers send a copy of their entire routing table to their neighbors.

B.
Routers send frequent periodic updates to the entire network.

C.
Routers know the entire network topology.

D.
Routers use hop-count to calculate their routing tables.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 254

Which of the following describes an IP filter on the Nokia 7750 SR?

A.
An IP filter is used to discard packets with checksum errors.

B.
An IP filter can allow IP packets into a network or deny IP packets from entering a network.

C.
Multiple ingress and egress filter policies can be applied to a network interface.

D.
Once an IP filter is applied, it cannot be modified.

Answer: B
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 139

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
QUESTION NO: 255

Which of the following statements about OSPF routing protocol is FALSE?

A.
It is a link state protocol.

B.
It supports hierarchy using multiple areas.

C.
It supports VLSM and address aggregation.

D.
It uses hop-count for route selection.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 256

Which of the following protocols can be used to force traffic from router R2 to use the direct link to
router R4?

A.
Static routing

B.
IS-IS

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 140

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
OSPF

D.
eBGP

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 257

What next-hop should be used on CR1 to configure a default route to router R1?

A.
10.2.3.2

B.
10.2.3.1

C.
192.168.2.0

D.
10.1.1.1

Answer: A

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 141

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 258

Which of the following routing protocols SHOULD NOT be used between routers R1 and R2?

A.
Static Routing

B.
Default Routing

C.
OSPF

D.
BGP

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 259

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 142

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

What type of BGP sessions does router R2 need to establish in order to reach networks
192.168.1.0/27 and 192.168.5.0/27?

A.
eBGP peering sessions with routers R1, R3 and R4

B.
iBGP peering sessions with routers R1 and R5

C.
An eBGP peering session with router R1, and iBGP peering sessions with routers R3 and R4

D.
An iBGP peering session with router R1, and an eBGP peering session with router R4

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 260

What is the next-hop for network 172.16.1.0/24 installed in router 2’s routing table?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 143

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
10.10.10.0

B.
10.10.10.1

C.
10.10.10.2

D.
10.10.10.3

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 261

On what type of device/router is a Service Access Point (SAP) defined?

A.
The SAP is defined on the CE device.

B.
The SAP is defined on the PE device.

C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 144
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
The SAP is defined on the P device.

D.
The SAP is defined on both CE and PE devices.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 262

Which of the following is TRUE regarding routers R2 and R3 in the pictured MPLS network?

A.
Router R2 pushes labels for LSP A, and R3 swaps labels for LSP A.

B.
Router R2 swaps labels for LSP A, and R3 pops labels for LSP A.

C.
Router R2 and R3 swap labels for LSP A and LSP B.

D.
Router R2 and R3 push labels for LSP A and LSP B, respectively.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 145
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 263

Which of the following statements about router R1 is TRUE?

A.
Router R1 is an iLER for both LSPs.

B.
Router R1 is an eLER for both LSPs.

C.
Router R1 is an iLER for LSP A and an eLER for LSP B.

D.
Router R1 is an iLER for LSP B and an eLER for LSP A.

Answer: C
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 146

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

QUESTION NO: 264

Which of the following is TRUE about a PE router within a service provider’s MPLS network?

A.
It resides on the customer premises.

B.
It is not aware of the VPN services provided by the service provider.

C.
It should connect to at least one other PE router.

D.
It should connect to at least one CE device.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 265

What type of VPN service does a VPRN provide?

A.
Layer 3 direct internet access service

B.
Layer 3 IP routed service

C.
Layer 2 point-to-point service

D.
Layer 2 multipoint service

Answer: B
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 147

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
QUESTION NO: 266

From a customer’s perspective, how does a VPRN service operate?

A.
All sites are connected to a single wire.

B.
All sites are connected to a switched network.

C.
All sites are connected to a routed network.

D.
All sites are connected to the Internet.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 267

What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers?

A.
An Internet content provider

B.
An Internet service provider

C.
An enterprise

D.
A regional Internet registry

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 268

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 148

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
What types of addresses are part of encapsulation at the transport layer?

A.
Source and destination MAC addresses

B.
Source and destination IP addresses

C.
Source and destination port numbers

D.
Source and destination email addresses

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 269

Which statement describes the primary purpose of TCP?

A.
To establish reliable communication for the application services layer.

B.
To provide low overhead communication for the application services layer.

C.
To route IP packets for the application services layer.

D.
To transmit packets over the physical infrastructure.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 270

Which of the following is used for the auto completion of CLI commands in a Nokia 7750 SR?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 149

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
Type the first few letters of the command, then press Ctrl C.

B.
Type the first few letters of the command, then press Esc.

C.
Type the first few letters of the command, then press Tab.

D.
Type the first few letters of the command, then type ?.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 271

Which of the following shows a typical data packet flow when ingressing a Nokia 7750 SR?

A.
SFP -> IOM -> MDA -> SF/CPM

B.
SFP-> MDA-> IOM -> SF/CPM

C.
SFP -> SF/CPM -> MDA -> IOM

D.
IOM -> MDA -> SF/CPM -> SFP

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 272

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to
the compact flash?

A.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 150
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Console

B.
Session

C.
Memory

D.
File

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 273

Which of the following tasks can be performed in the boot options file (BOF)?

A.
Specifying authorization information to control access to the router.

B.
Defining an IP address for the management port.

C.
Provisioning the IOM cards.

D.
Setting the date and time for the system.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 274

What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple VLANs?

A.
The VLAN tag

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 151

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
The IP Header

C.
The VID

D.
The Priority Value

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 275

How do ATM and Frame-Relay protocols differentiate multiple customers or traffic types on the
same physical wire?

A.
They use virtual circuits to create a logical separation of traffic.

B.
They use subnetting to create a logical separation of traffic.

C.
They use VLANs to create a logical separation of traffic.

D.
They use IP header information to create a logical separation of traffic.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 276

Which Ethernet frame field allows the transmitter and receiver to synchronize communications?

A.
Preamble

B.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 152
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Start Frame Delimiter

C.
Length/Type

D.
Frame Check Sequence

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 277

Which of the following is required if devices on different VLANs wish to communicate with each
other?

A.
Devices on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other.

B.
Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if they are connected to the same
switch.

C.
Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if the switches are connected using
a single high-bandwidth port.

D.
Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if there is a router to connect the
VLANs.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 278

In what type of network is a broadcast storm likely to occur?

A.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 153

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
An MPLS network with multiple LSPs to the same LER.

B.
An OSPF network with equal cost multiple paths.

C.
A SONET network with a ring topology.

D.
An Ethernet network with redundant paths not running STP.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 279

Which of the following best describes a hub?

A.
A passive device used to connect cables without signal amplification.

B.
A device that receives and retransmits data without Layer 2 header inspection.

C.
A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 2 destination address.

D.
A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 280

What is the purpose of a multicast address?

A.
To provide an address that refers to all devices in a network.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 154

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
To provide an address that refers to a specific group of devices in a network.

C.
To provide an address that refers to a group of devices with the same IP address in different Layer
2 networks.

D.
To provide an address that refers to a single device in a network.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 281

What is the sequence of events that must occur for a client to receive an IP address using DHCP?

A.
Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledgement

B.
Request, Offer, Discover, Acknowledgement

C.
Discover, Acknowledgement, Request, Offer

D.
Request, Acknowledgement, Discover, Offer

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 282

How many subnets and host addresses are obtained by subnetting network 201.148.26.0/24 using
a /26 subnet mask?

A.
4 subnets, 64 hosts per subnet

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 155

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
8 subnets, 32 hosts per subnet

C.
4 subnets, 62 hosts per subnet

D.
8 subnets, 30 hosts per subnet

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 283

Which of the following statements about ARP request and ARP response messages is TRUE?

A.
Both ARP request and response messages are unicast messages.

B.
Both ARP request and response messages are broadcast messages.

C.
An ARP request is a broadcast message, while an ARP response is a unicast message.

D.
An ARP request is a unicast message, while an ARP response is a broadcast message.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 284

Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?

A.
Provides a connectionless data transmission service.

B.
Provides physical interconnection of network devices.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 156
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
Provides reliable transfers of data.

D.
Provides services equivalent to the OSI data link layer.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 285

Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a /31 prefix?

A.
There is no broadcast address on the network.

B.
The address is only used as a loopback address.

C.
This specifies a single host address.

D.
The address is only used for router IDs.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 286

Given network address 200.12.30.0 with network mask 255.255.255.0, which subnet mask can be
used to create 12 subnetworks? Each subnetwork must support 10 host addresses.

A.
/25

B.
/26

C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 157
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
/28

D.
/30

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 287

Which bit pattern represents a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0?

A.
11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000

B.
11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000

C.
11111111.11111111.11000000.00000000

D.
11111111.11111111.00000000.00000000

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 288

How does address summarization reduce the routing table size?

A.
By allowing a block of routes to be represented by one route.

B.
By only keeping best routes in the routing table.

C.
By rejecting duplicate route advertisements.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 158

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
By not advertising directly connected routes.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 289

A network with address 208.40.224.0/24 is divided into /28 subnets. What is the network address
of the third subnet?

A.
208.40.224.16/28

B.
208.40.224.32/28

C.
208.40.224.48/28

D.
208.40.224.64/28

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 290

Which of the following IP header fields defines the way packets should be queued?

A.
Type of Service

B.
Identification

C.
Flags

D.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 159
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Protocol

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 291

Which of the following statements about packet forwarding is FALSE?

A.
The router consults the forwarding table on the ingress IOM.

B.
The router looks for a longest match to the destination IP address.

C.
The router resolves the next-hop address of the matching route to a physical interface.

D.
If there is no match in the forwarding table, the router sends a “No route to destination” notification.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 292

What is the most specific aggregate prefix for the following 4 subnets?

136.160.17.192/29

136.160.17.200/29

136.160.17.208/29

136.160.17.216/29

A.
136.160.17.128/25

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 160

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
136.160.17.192/26

C.
136.160.17.192/27

D.
136.160.17.192/28

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 293

Which of the following protocols is used to exchange routes between routers R1 and R2, and
between routers R4 and R5?

A.
RIPv2

B.
IS-IS

C.
OSPF

D.
BGP

Answer: D

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 161

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 294

What type of BGP sessions does router R2 need to establish in order to reach network
192.168.5.0/27?

A.
An iBGP peering session with router R5, and an eBGP peering session with router R4

B.
iBGP peering sessions with routers R3 and R4

C.
An eBGP peering session with router R4

D.
An iBGP peering session with router R5

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 295

Which of the following statements about IP filters on a Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?

A.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 162
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
IP filters can be applied on inbound traffic, outbound traffic, or both.

B.
IP filters can be created to filter based on IP and MAC addressing.

C.
By default, no IP filter is applied to an interface.

D.
The default action of an IP filter is to forward packets.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 296

What is the next-hop address used on router R1 to configure a static route to the network on CR1?

A.
10.2.3.2

B.
10.1.1.1

C.
10.2.3.1

D.
192.168.2.0

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 163

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 297

Which of the following routing protocols cannot be used between routers R2 and R4?

A.
Static Routing

B.
IS-IS

C.
OSPF

D.
iBGP

E.
eBGP

Answer: E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 298

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 164

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
What is the next-hop for network 172.16.2.0/24 installed in router 1's routing table?

A.
10.10.10.0

B.
10.10.10.1

C.
10.10.10.2

D.
10.10.10.3

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 299

Router R5 receives four route updates for the same prefix 10.10.10.1/32. Which of the four routes
will be installed in R5's routing table?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 165

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
Route learned from router R1.

B.
Route learned from router R2.

C.
Route learned from router R3.

D.
Route learned from router R4.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 300

Which of the following statements about the OSPF HELLO message is TRUE?

A.
It is used to maintain adjacency between neighbors.

B.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 166
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
It is used to request link state updates from neighbors.

C.
It is used to deliver link state updates to neighbors.

D.
It is used to confirm delivery of updates between neighbors.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 301

Which of the following about the displayed IP filter is TRUE?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 167

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
UDP (protocol 17) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and destination port number
between 200 and 300 are forwarded.

B.
UDP (protocol 17) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and destination port number
between 200 and 300 are dropped.

C.
UDP (protocol 17) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 or destination port numbers 200
or 300 are dropped.

D.
UDP (protocol 17) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number
between 200 and 300 are dropped.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 302

What is the preference value in the routing table used for?

A.
To select from routes with different next-hops.

B.
To select from routes with different costs.

C.
To select from routes learned from different routing protocols.

D.
To select from routes with different prefixes.

Answer: C
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 168

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
QUESTION NO: 303

Which of the following statements about SDPs is FALSE?

A.
The same SDP ID can be used on multiple routers.

B.
Each service requires a unique SDP.

C.
SDPs are not configured on P routers.

D.
SDPs are not configured on CE devices.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 304

Which of the following statements about VPWS service on a Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?

A.
VPWS is a simple point-to-point service.

B.
VPWS emulates a Layer 2 connection between two customers.

C.
VPWS does not perform MAC learning.

D.
VPWS encapsulates Layer 2 frames into IP datagrams.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 305

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 169

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Which of the routers is the iLER for LSP B?

A.
Router R1

B.
Router R2

C.
Router R3

D.
Router R4

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 306

What type of VPN service does a VPWS provide?

A.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 170

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Layer 3 direct internet access service

B.
Layer 3 IP routed service

C.
Layer 2 point-to-point service

D.
Layer 2 multipoint service

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 307

What operation is performed by an egress Label Edge Router (eLER) when it receives an MPLS
labeled packet?

A.
It forwards the packet to the next LSR without altering the MPLS label.

B.
It swaps the MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next LSR.

C.
It pushes a new MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next LSR.

D.
It pops the MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next IP router.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 308

What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

A.
Broadcast storms caused by redundancy in Layer 2 networks.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 171

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
Missing protocol field in the Ethernet header.

C.
Missing sequence number in the Ethernet header.

D.
Unreliable data transfer in Layer 2 networks.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 309

What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?

A.
MAC address of the default gateway.

B.
IP addresses of other DHCP clients.

C.
IP addresses offered to the client.

D.
IP addresses of all DHCP servers.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 310

Which tier of Internet service providers can reach any part of the Internet without having to
purchase transit services from other Internet service providers?

A.
A Tier 1 ISP

B.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 172

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A Tier 2 ISP

C.
A Tier 3 ISP

D.
Tier 1 and Tier 2 ISPs

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 311

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Internet protocol layer?

A.
It provides a unique addressing scheme to identify hosts.

B.
It provides a user interface to the network.

C.
It uses routing protocols for path determination.

D.
It provides end-to-end forwarding of datagrams.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 312

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Internet?

A.
The Internet is a global and distributed network.

B.
The Internet is a network owned by Tier 1 service providers.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 173

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
The Internet is an open network of networks.

D.
The Internet is a network that is advertised across the globe.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 313

Which of the following is NOT a function of the control plane?

A.
Building routing tables using dynamic routing protocols.

B.
Building forwarding tables for the IOMs.

C.
Handling router configuration and management functions.

D.
Processing and forwarding user application traffic.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 314

Which of the following is NOT a valid log source in a Nokia 7750 SR?

A.
Main

B.
Security

C.
Syslog
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 174
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
Debug

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 315

What happens when a switch receives an Ethernet frame with unknown source and destination
MAC addresses?

A.
The frame is silently discarded.

B.
The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is discarded.

C.
The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is flooded to all ports except
the receiving port.

D.
The source and destination MAC addresses are saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is flooded
to all ports.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 316

A switch with the MAC FDB shown receives an Ethernet frame with source MAC address
00:00:8c:01:00:0a and destination MAC address 00:00:8c:01:00:0c. On which port is the frame
forwarded?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 175

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
1/1/1

B.
1/1/2

C.
1/1/3

D.
1/1/4

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 317

If a 5-port LAG is configured with the option of ‘port-threshold 2 action down’, and dynamic-cost is
enabled, what will happen if the total number of operational links in the LAG is 2?

A.
The LAG cost is equal to the link cost divided by 3.

B.
The LAG cost is equal to the link cost.

C.
The LAG is operationally down.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 176

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
The LAG cost is equal to the link cost divided by 5.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 318

What type of MAC address is ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff?

A.
Unicast

B.
Multicast

C.
Broadcast

D.
Anycast

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 319

Which of the following statements about IP filters on a Nokia 7750 SR is TRUE?

A.
Multiple ingress IP filters can be used on a single interface.

B.
An IP filter can be applied to the management port.

C.
The same IP filter can be used on multiple interfaces.

D.
Only one IP filter can be defined per router.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 177
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 320

Which of the following about the displayed IP filter is TRUE?

A.
TCP (protocol 6) traffic between addresses 1.2.3.0/24 and 2.3.4.0/24 is dropped.

B.
TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 1.2.3.0/24 to destination address 2.3.4.0/24 is
forwarded.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 178
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 2.3.4.0/24 to destination address 1.2.3.0/24 is
dropped.

D.
TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 1.2.3.0/24 to destination address 2.3.4.0/24 is
dropped.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 321

Which of the following routing protocols provides routing between routers R1 and R2?

A.
BGP

B.
RIPv2

C.
OSPF

D.
IS-IS

Answer: A

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 179

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 322

What next-hop address should router R2 use to reach a host on 192.168.2.0/24?

A.
10.2.3.2

B.
10.1.1.1

C.
10.2.3.1

D.
10.1.1.2

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 323

Which of the following is a characteristic of Link State protocols?

A.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 180
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Routers send a copy of their entire routing table to their neighbors.

B.
Routers send frequent periodic updates to the entire network.

C.
Routers know the entire network topology.

D.
Routers use hop-count to calculate their routing tables.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 324

When forwarding a packet, which field in the following table determines the egress interface?

A.
Preference

B.
Metric

C.
Next-hop

D.
Cost

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 325

Which of the following statements about router R3 is TRUE?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 181

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A.
Router R3 is the iLER for LSP B.

B.
Router R3 is the eLER for LSP A.

C.
Router R is an LSR for both LSP A and LSP B.

D.
Router R3 is LSR for LSP A and an LER for LSP B.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 326

Which device is responsible for removing the MPLS label before the packet reaches the
customer?

A.
The ingress LER
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 182
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
The CE device

C.
The P router

D.
The egress LER

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 327

Which of the MPLS routers is responsible for pushing new labels for LSP A and LSP B?

A.
Router R1 pushes labels for both LSP A and LSP B.

B.
Router R4 pushes labels for both LSP A and LSP B.

C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 183
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Router R1 pushes labels for LSP A, while router R4 pushes labels for LSP B.

D.
Router R4 pushes labels for LSP A, while router R1 pushes labels for LSP B.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 328

From the CE perspective, how does a VPWS operate?

A.
Two sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.
Two sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.
Two sites are connected through a public routed network.

D.
Two sites are connected through a private routed network.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 329

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Internet layer in the TCP/IP model?

A.
Unique network addressing scheme to identify hosts globally

B.
Orderly access to the transmission medium

C.
Routing protocols for path determination

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 184

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
End-to-end forwarding of datagrams

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 330

Which of the following is a function of the Link layer?

A.
It is responsible for encapsulating packets into frames for transmission on physical media

B.
It is responsible for encapsulating packets into IP datagrams and routing them

C.
It is responsible for encapsulating application data into TCP/UDP messages

D.
It is responsible for the timing of the signals on physical media.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 331

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

A.
Each customer’s traffic is isolated from other customers.

B.
Service providers utilize a shared infrastructure to support multiple VPNs.

C.
Customer data is altered as it traverses a VPN.

D.
A VPN is created specifically to meet the requirements of each customer.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 185
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 332

Which of the following Nokia 7750 SR components is NOT part of the data plane?

A.
The Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)

B.
The Input/ Output Module (IOM)

C.
The eXpandable Media Adapter (XMA)

D.
The Control Processor Module (CPM)

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 333

Which of the following about transactional configuration is FALSE?

A.
Configuration changes are stored in a candidate configuration datastore.

B.
A router uses the running configuration datastore for its operation.

C.
Configuration changes are activated by committing the candidate configuration.

D.
A running configuration datastore consists of multiple candidate configuration datastores.

Answer: D

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 186

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 334

Which configuration edit mode does NOT give you access to the global candidate configuration?

A.
Private

B.
Global

C.
Read-only

D.
Exclusive

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 335

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to
the compact flash?

A.
Console

B.
CLI

C.
Memory

D.
File

Answer: D

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 187

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 336

Which of the following best describes a hub?

A.
A device used to connect cables with signal amplification.

B.
A device that receives and replicates data without Layer 2 header inspection.

C.
A device that receives and forwards data based on the MAC destination address.

D.
A device that receives and forwards data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 337

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 188

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam

A network consists of the components shown in the diagram. Assuming there are no VLANs, how
many broadcast and collision domains are on this network?

A.
9 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains

B.
3 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains

C.
3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains

D.
1 broadcast domain, 9 collision domains

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 338

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 189

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Which of the following enables service providers to support multiple customers with the same
VLAN ID over the same backbone?

A.
VLAN Trunking

B.
VLAN Stacking

C.
VLAN Tagging

D.
VLAN Routing

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 339

In which of the following types of network would STP be used?

A.
An MPLS network with multiple LSPs to the same LER.

B.
An Ethernet network with redundant paths.

C.
An OSPF network with multiple equal-cost paths.

D.
An eBGP network with multiple ASes.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 340

What is the purpose of the broadcast IP address?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 190
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
A.
To provide an address that refers to all the IP devices in a given subnetwork.

B.
To provide an address that refers to a specific group of devices in a network.

C.
To provide an address that refers to a group of devices having the same IP address in different
Layer 2 domains.

D.
To provide an address that refers to a single device on a given subnetwork.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 341

Which organization co-ordinates global public IP addresses?

A.
IANA

B.
IETF

C.
RIR

D.
IEEE

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 342

Which of the following statements about IP address subnetting is TRUE?

A.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 191
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Subnetting adds a layer of hierarchy in the addressing structure.

B.
Subnetting helps routers make faster forwarding decisions.

C.
Subnetting increases routing advertisement stability.

D.
Subnetting reduces the number of route entries advertised by the router.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 343

Which of the following statements about route summarization is FALSE?

A.
It reduces the number of routes advertised by the router.

B.
It allows a single route table entry to represent multiple subnetworks

C.
It can reduce the size of the routing table in neighboring routers.

D.
It advertises more specific routes for routing advertisement stability.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 344

Which of the following statements about router interfaces on a Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?

A.
They can be used by routers to interconnect subnets.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 192

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
B.
They can be used in pairs on the same subnet for redundancy.

C.
They can be logical or physical.

D.
The system interface exists by default.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 345

Which of the following is a characteristic of the system IP address?

A.
It is used as a L3 broadcast address.

B.
It is a logical interface address.

C.
It can have any prefix value.

D.
It is used for layer-2 forwarding.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 346

Which of the following is part of the IP forwarding process?

A.
The router does a longest prefix match lookup.

B.
The router checks the source address in the MAC FDB.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 193
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
C.
The router assigns a cost to each of its interfaces.

D.
The router advertises routes to its neighbors.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 347

Which of the following describes a default route?

A.
It is used when forwarding control plane data to the local CPM.

B.
It is used when there is no other known route for a given packet’s destination.

C.
It matches a specific /32 host address with the least cost to the destination.

D.
It is used when forwarding multicast and broadcast packets.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 348

Which of the following does a link-state protocol use when choosing the best path to a destination
network?

A.
Cost

B.
Round-trip time

C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 194
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
Hop-count

D.
Route preference

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 349

Which of the following is a characteristic of Distance Vector protocols?

A.
Routers periodically send a copy of their table to their neighbors.

B.
Routers send triggered updates to the entire network.

C.
Routers know the entire network topology.

D.
Routers use Shortest Path First algorithm to calculate the optimum paths.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 350

Which of the following best describes an Autonomous System (AS)?

A.
A group of routers that are under one administrative authority.

B.
A group of networks that make up the Internet.

C.
A group of networks from different organizations exchanging routes using IGP routing protocols.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 195

 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
D.
Any organization that has a connection to the Internet.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 351

Which of the following is the location where an ISP aggregates its customer connections and
connects them to the Internet?

A.
A demarcation point

B.
An Internet exchange point

C.
A regional Internet registry

D.
A point of presence

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 352

On what type of device is a Service Access Point (SAP) defined?

A.
On the CE device.

B.
On the PE device.

C.
On the P device.

D.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 196
 Nokia 4A0-100 Exam
On both CE and PE devices.

Answer: B
Explanation:

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 197