St.

Joseph’s College of Engineering

St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology
(St. Joseph’s Group of Institutions)
OMR, CHENNAI -600 119.
Department of Electronics and Communication Engineering
EC6801 -WIRELESS COMMUNICATION

Multiple Choice Question Bank

S.No Unit-1 WIRELESS CHANNELS Ans

wer
1 Among the listed type of fading, which one is not considered to be small scale fading? b &
a. Flat fading d
b. Path loss.
c. Frequency Selective fading.
d. Shadowing.
2 A cellular communication system is operating at the carrier frequency of 2 GHz. What b
should be the range of distance over which the average received signal power should
be computed to calculate path loss exponent?
a.0.1m-10 m
b. 0.75m-6m
c. 20m-100m
d. Greater than 100m

Detailed Solution: Carrier frequency (fc) = 2 GHz. Thus, wavelength of operation = λ =

c/ fc = 3×108 2×109 = 0.15 meter. The average received signal power should be computed
by averaging signal measurements over a measurement track of 5λ to 40λ to calculate path
loss exponent . So the designated range is: (5 × 0.15) meter to (40 × 0.15) meter i.e. 0.75
meter to 6 meter.
3 Following are statements related to large scale and small scale fading: d
(i) Large scale fading deals with the average signal strength
(ii) Small scale fading deals with the average signal strength
(iii) Large scale fading deals with the instantaneous signal strength
(iv) Small scale fading deals with the instantaneous signal strength
a. (ii) and (iii) are correct.
b. All are correct.
c. (i) and (ii) are correct.
d. (i) and (iv) are correct.
4 Which of the following is not the part of the small scale fading: d
a. Time Selective Fading
b. Frequency Selective Fading
c. Fast Fading
d. Path Loss
5 Received Power given by large scale propagation models are influenced by, d
a. Reflections
b. Scattering

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 c. Diffraction
d. All of the above
6 The path loss can be given as, PL(d) = 128.1 + 37.6 log10(d) Where,P L(d) is in dB & b
d is in Km. respectively. If the transmitted power, PT X = 100watts. What will be
received power at the distance of 10 Km.?
a. -134.38 dBm.
b. -115.7 dBm.
c. 50.3 pico watt.
d. 45.6 femto watt.

7 For a Rayleigh faded channel consider the Doppler frequency (fm) = 100Hz. Find the c
approximate level crossing rate for threshold level (ρ)) = 1.2
a.102 crossings/s.
b. 54 crossings/s.
c. 91 crossings/s.
d. 67 crossings/s.

Detailed solution:

8 With increase in velocity of the receiver, (the correct statements are), b

i. Coherence time decreases.
ii. Level crossing rate increases.
iii. Average envelope fade duration increases.
iv. Coherence bandwidth decreases.
a. ii only.
b. i and ii.
c. iii and iv.
d. ii and iii.
9 A mobile station is moving at the speed of 150 meter per seconds. It is using the carrier c
frequency of 2.4 GHz. What is the 50% coherence time?
a. 0.173 ms.
b. 0.246 ms.
c. 0.149 ms.
d. 0.131 ms.

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10 The power delay profile of a channel is given below, c

The mean delay is given as,

a. 3.78ns.
b. 4.35ns.
c. 5.01ns.
d. 6.89ns.

Detailed Solution:

11 The RMS delay spread in the previous problem is obtained as, b

a.1.453 ns.
b. 1.968 ns.
c. 2.786 ns.
d. 2.564 ns.

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 Detailed Solution:

12 For a Rayleigh faded channel the average fade duration is observed to be 37.65 ms. d
Calculate the maximum Doppler frequency (fm) assuming threshold level (ρ) = 1.4
a.35.76 Hz.
b. 61.23 Hz.
c. 89.75 Hz.
d. 46.16 Hz.

13 If a transmitter operating at 1800 MHz frequency, produces 80 watts of power. Find c

the received power in dBm at a free space distance of 100m & 10 Km respectively.
Consider, Gt = Gr = L = 1
a. -52.5, -92.5
b. -52.5, -12.5
c. -28.8, -68.8
d. -28.8, +11.5
Detailed Solution:

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14 The Path loss models are given in column A and path loss exponents are given in b
column B. Match the path loss model to corresponding path loss exponent:

Where d is the distance between TX & RX and f is the carrier frequency. Which is the
correct option?
a. A1-B3, A2-B1, A3-B2, A4-B4.
b. A1-B4, A2-B2, A3-B3, A4-B1.
c. A1-B3, A2-B1, A3-B4, A4-B3.
d. A1-B4, A2-B2, A3-B1, A4-B3.

15 Among the statements written below, which are the key assumptions that have to be b
made for derivation of probability distribution function (pdf) of multipath wireless
channel envelope in Rayleigh distribution?
(i) No. of multipath (N) has to be high enough (> 6) so that CLT can be applicable.
(ii) The amplitude associated with n th multipath (Cn) follows exponential
distribution. (iii) Phase associated with n th multipath φn(t) follows uniform
distribution between [0, 2π].
Which of the following combinations are most suitable?
a. (i) and (ii) are true.
b. (i) and (iii) are true.
c. (ii) and (iii) are true.
d. All of these.
16 Consider a channel with Rayleigh fading and average received power is 20 dBm. a
Probability that the received power is below 5 dBm is:-
a. 0.03113.
b. 0.2219.
c. 0.4347.
d. 0.2711.

Detailed solution:

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17 Consider a cellular system with carrier frequency fc = 900 MHz. A mobile station a
situated in a moving train at a speed of 150kmph. The coherence time(50%) of such
link is,
a.3.381 ms
b. 2.52 ms
c. 10 ms
d. 4.2 ms

18 Consider the following keywords related to Small scale fading: b

(i) LOS.
(ii) Ricean fading.
(iii) Rice factor (K) =0.
(iv) NLOS.
(v) Rayleigh fading.
(vi) Rice factor (K) = ∞
Which of the following combinations are most suitable to characterize Small
scale fading?
a. ((i), (iii), (v)) and ((iv), (ii)) are true.
b. ((i), (ii)) and ((iii), (iv), (v)) are true.
c. ((i), (ii), (iii)) and ((iv), (v), (vi)) are true.
d. None of the above.
19 If the transmit power of a transmitter is 30 watts. Then the value in dBW and dBm d
respectively is,
a. 13.01, 43.01

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 b. 16.02, 46.02
c. 30, 60
d. 14.77, 44.77

20 Four transmitters with same transmit power of 100W are operating in a region with b
carrier frequencies of 5 GHz, 1800 MHz, 2.4 GHz and 900 MHz. The average received
power measured at a distance 10 km from the transmitters are P1, P2, P3 and P4
respectively. Given the Path loss expression as,
𝑃. 𝐿 = 𝐾 + 10𝑙𝑜𝑔10(𝑓𝑐(𝐻𝑧)) + 10𝑛𝑝𝑙𝑜𝑔10(𝑑(𝑘𝑚))
Then,
a. P1 > P2 > P3 > P4
b. P4 > P2 > P3 > P1
c. P4 > P3 > P2 > P1
d. P1 > P3 > P2 > P4

S.No Unit- 2– CELLULAR ARCHITECTURE Answer

1 Why neighbouring stations are assigned different group of channels in cellular a
system?
a) To minimize interference
b) To minimize area
c) To maximize throughput
d) To maximize capacity of each cell
2 What is the main reason to adopt hexagon shape in comparison to square and a
triangle?
a) Largest area
b) Simple design
c) Small area
d) Single directional
3 For a cellular system, if there are N cells and each cell is allocated k channel. What a
is the total number of available radio channels, S?
a) S=k*N
b) S=k/N
c) S=N/k
d) S=kN

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4 What is a frequency reuse factor for N number of cells in a system? d
a) N
b) N2
c) 2*N
d) 1/N
5 In fixed channel assignment strategy, each cell is allocated a predetermined set of a
_______
a) Voice channels
b) Control channels
c) Frequency
d) base stations
6 What is a borrowing strategy in fixed channel assignments? a
a) Borrowing channels from neighbouring cell
b) Borrowing channels from neighbouring cluster
c) Borrowing channels from same cell
d) Borrowing channels from other base station in same cell
7 RSSI stands for ________ c
a) Radio System Signal Indicator
b) Restricted Signal Strength Indicator
c) Received Signal Strength Indicator
d) Restricted System Software Indicator
8 What is the drawback of dynamic channel assignment? d
a) Decrease channel utilization
b) Increase probability of blocked call
c) Cross talk
d) Increase storage and computational load on system
9 What are co-channel cells? d
a) Cells having different base stations
b) Cells using different frequency
c) Cells using adjacent frequency
d) Cells using same frequency
10 Co-channel interference is a function of _________ a
a) Radius of cell
b) Transmitted power
c) Received power
d) Frequency of mobile user
11 Co-channel reuse ratio is define by _________ b
a) Q=D*R
b) Q=D/R
c) Q=D^R
d) Q=1/R
12 Co-channel ratio in terms of cluster size is defined as _________ a
a) 3N
b) N
c) 3N
d) N
13 What is the cluster size for CDMA? c
a) N=10
b) N=100

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 c) N=1
d) N=50
14 What is breathing cell effect? b
a) Fixed coverage region
b) Dynamic and time varying coverage region
c) Large coverage region
d) Very small coverage region
15 Adjacent channel interference occurs due to _______ d
a) Power transmitted by Base station
b) MSCs
c) Same frequency of mobile users
d) Imperfect receiver filters
16 Which of the following problem occur due to adjacent channel interference? c
a) Blocked calls
b) Cross talk
c) Near-far effect
d) Missed calls
17 What is the concept for accommodating a large number of users in a limited radio b
spectrum?
a) Grade of service
b) Trunking
c) Multiplexing
d) Multitasking
18 One Erlang represents _________ b
a) One call- hour per hour
b) One call-minute per hour
c) One call- hour per minute
d) Many calls- hour per hour
19 GOS is typically given as a likelihood that a ________ b
a) Call is in progress
b) Channels are busy
c) Call is blocked
d) Channel are free
20 Average duration of a typical call is called ________ a
a) Holding time
b) Dwell time
c) Set up time
d) Run time
21 Blocked calls delayed formula is also known as _______ c
a) Erlang A
b) Erlang B
c) Erlang C
d) Erlang D
22 Which of the following techniques do not help in expanding the capacity of cellular b
system?
a) Sectoring
b) Scattering
c) Splitting
d) Microcell zone concept

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23 Which of the following increases the number of base stations in order to increase a
capacity?
a) Cell splitting
b) Sectoring
c) Repeaters
d) Micro cell zone concept
24 Which of the following is not an advantage of micro cell zone technique? d
a) Reduced co channel interference
b) Improved signal quality
c) Increase in capacity
d) Increasing number of base stations
25 Which of the following technology distributes the coverage of the cell and extends d
the cell boundary to hard-to-reach places?
a) Cell splitting
b) Scattering
c) Sectoring
d) Micro cell zone concept

S.NO Unit-3 - DIGITAL SIGNALING FOR FADING CHANNELS Answer

1 The technique that may be used to reduce the side band power is C.
a. MSK
b. BPSK
c. Gaussian minimum shift keying
d. BFSK
2 In MSK, the difference between the higher and lower frequency is B.
a. Same as the bit rate
b. Half of the bit rate
c. Twice of the bit rate
d. Four time the bit rate
3 Minimum shift keying is similar to A
a. Continuous phase frequency shift keying
b. Binary phase shift keying
c. Binary frequency shift keying
d. QPSK
4 Which modulation scheme uses nonlinear transponders? C
a) MSK
b) Offset QPSK
c) MSK & Offset QPSK
d) None of the mentioned
5 Which modulation has lower side lobe levels? D
a) QPSK
b) OQPSK
c) BPSK
d) MSK
6 To reduce the need for linearity, π/4 DQPSK uses: B
a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees
b. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees

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 c. angles of π/4, 2π/4, 3π/4, and 4π/4
d. double phase-shift angles
7 The guard interval is provided in OFDM D
a. To eliminate the need of pulse shaping filter
b. To eliminate ISI
c. High symbol rate
d. Both a) and b)
e. Both b) and c)
8 Why is a cyclic prefix required in an OFDMA? B
a) To ensure symbol time is an integer number
b) To help overcome multipath and ISI
c) To maintain orthogonality
d) To make OFDMA scalable
9 What processing step combines multiple OFDM subcarriers into a single B
signal for transmission?
a) FFT
b) IFFT
c) RF combining
d) Channel mapping
10 Consider a delay spread of approximately 3 s. What is the minimum number D
of subcarriers necessary in an OFDM system over a bandwidth of 10 MHz to
overcome ISI
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 30
11 When we divide band of Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing C
(OFDM) into sub bands, it diminishes effects of __________
a) noise
b) collision
c) interference
d) signals absence
12 The main advantage of offset QPSK over standard QPSK is C
a.It restricts the masimum phse change to ∏/2
b. reduces the width of side lobes.
c.both a and b
d.none of the above
13 The bandwidth of OQPSK is _______ to QPSK. A
a) Identical
b) Twice
c) Half
d) Four times
14 The modulation scheme commonly used for transmission from GSM mobile D
terminals is
a 4-QAM
b) 16-PSK
c) Walsh-Hadamard orthogonal codes
d) Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying (GMSK)
15 Which is not an advantage of non Linear Modulation D
A. Low out of band radiation achieved
B. Immunity against random FM noise and signal fluctuations
C. Lower efficient class c amplifiers can be used
D. bandwidth efficiency is more than power efficiency

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16 Speed at which symbols are transmitted in a digital communication system is D
called
A. Bit rate
B. Data rate
C. Symbol rate
D. Baud rate
17 Which is not a feature of QPSK A.
A. Helps in the generation of side lobes and spectral widening
B. The staggered alignment of nature of the spectrum will save the bandwidth
effectively.
C. Performs better than QPSK in noisy environment.
D. Less ISI
18 Why MSK is called fast FSK? D.
A. The main lobe of MSK is wide
B. Self-synchronizing capability
C. Constant envelope
D. none of these
19 The side lobe levels of the spectrum are further reduced by passing a modulating C.
NRZ data to the Gaussian Pulse Shaping Filter. This is called
A. QPSK
B. FSK
C. GMSK
D. None of these
20 Which is the advantage of using OFDM? A
A Spectrum efficiency
B. Self-synchronizing capability
C. Less ISI
D. will save the bandwidth effectively.
21 Which is a constant envelope modulation scheme? A
A. MSK
B. BFSK
C. QPSK
D. all the above
22 Which is not true of OFDM ? B .
A. Suited for high-data-rate transmission in delay-dispersive environments.
B Converts a low-rate data stream into a number of high-rate streams that are
transmitted over narrowband channels that can be easily equalized.
C.OFDM splits a high-rate data stream into N parallel streams
D. None of these
23 What is not true of source coder? D.
A Reduces the amount of source data to be transmitted.
B. Data are encrypted in order to prevent unauthorized listening
C. Reduces the source data rate from 64 Kbit/s to 13 Kbit/s
D. adds redundancy in order to protect data against transmission errors
24 Which is not a component of QPSK Transmitter? A.
A. Carrier recovery circuit
B. LPF
C. BPF
D. Serial to parallel converter
25 The bit error probability of GMSK is given by A

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 A.

1 𝐸𝑏
B . 𝑃𝑒 = 𝑒𝑥𝑝(𝑁𝑜)
2

C.

D. None of theses
26 Which is not true of Cyclic prefix? C and D
A. Remove the Inter Block Interference (IBI)
B Remove the Inter Carrier Interference. (ICI)
C allows the transmit power amplifier to operate efficiently
D.Each multipath component is extracted by using a single correlator
27 In OFDM, cyclic prefix is added to B
a. Avoid inter symbol interference
b. Avoid inter block interference
c. To reduce subcarrier bandwidth
d. To increase size of IFFT
28 What is the need of Gaussian filter in GMSK? C
A. The spectral efficiency of MSK is further enhanced by filtering the baseband
signal of square pulses
B. To reduce the transmitted bandwidth of the signal.
C. Smooth the phase trajectory of MSK signal and stabilizes the instantaneous
frequency variation over time.
D. Increases Side lobe levels
29 Difference between multi-carrier modulation (MCM) and Orthogonal B
frequency division multiplexing (OFDM) is
a. Multi-carrier transmission
b. IFFT/ FFT operation
c. MCM does not overcome Intersymbol Interference
d. MCM can only be used for a large bandwidth
30 OFDM involves which of the following steps D
a. FFT operation at the transmitter
b. IFFT operation at the receiver
c. Removal of cyclic prefix at transmitter
d. Addition of cyclic prefix at transmitter

S.No Unit-4 - MULTIPATH MITIGATION TECHNIQUES Answer

1 In time diversity C
a. Signal is transmitted with different polarization
b. The signal is transmitted using multiple channels
c. Multiple versions of signals are transmitted at different time instants
4. All of the above

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2 The performance of algorithms for Adaptive Equalization are given by B
1. Rate of convergence
2. Computational complexity
3. Numerical properties
4. Frequency change

a. 1 and 2 are correct

b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
3 Which is more effective and commonly preferred technique? B
a) Time diversity
b) Spatial diversity
c) Frequency diversity
d) None of the mentioned
4 Diversity technique A
a) Provides significant link improvement
b) Needs training overhead
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
5 The methods used for non linear equalization are B
a. Decision Feedback Equalization
b. Maximum Likelihood Symbol Detection
c. Maximum Likelihood Sequence Estimation
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. None of the above
6 Rake receiver does C
a) Counter effects multi-path fading
b) Resembles equalizer
c) Resembles equalizer & Counter effects multi-path fading
d) None of the mentioned
7 Channel’s phase response must be a linear function of B
a) Time
b) Frequency
c) Time & Frequency
d) None of the mentioned
8 The maximum likelihood sequence estimator adjusts _______ according to _____ A
environment.
a) Receiver, transmitter
b) Transmitter, receiver

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 c) Receiver, receiver
d) None of the mentioned
9 Transversal equalizers are ________ and decision feedback equalizers are ______ A
a) Feed forward, feed back
b) Feed back, feed forward
c) Feed forward, feed forward
d) Feedback, feedback
10 The RAKE receiver involves the steps D
a. estimation of transmitted signal, correlator, demodulation, bit decision
b. estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, correlator, bit decision
c. estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, bit decision, correlator
d. Correlator, estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, bit decision
11 Search window of a RAKE receiver is C
a. frequency band of the channel
b. range of noise
c. range of the time delays
d. all of the above
12 The Linear Equalizer may be implemented as D
a. FIR filter
b. Lattice filter
c. Low pass filter
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
13 Working of Adaptive Equalizers include D
a. Training
b. Tracking
c. Modulation
d. Both a and b
e. All a, b and c are correct
14 The time span for which the equalizer converges depends upon B
1. Equalizer algorithm
2. Equalizer structure
3. Rate of change of multipath radio channel
4. Amplitude of signal

a. 1 and 2 are correct

b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct

15 Which of the following is not an algorithm for equalizer? D

a) Zero forcing algorithm
b) Least mean square algorithm
c) Recursive least square algorithm
d) Mean square error algorithm

15
16 Which of the following is a drawback of zero forcing algorithm? B
a) Long training sequence
b) Amplification of noise
c) Not suitable for static channels
d) Non zero ISI
17 LMS equalizer minimizes __________ C
a) Computational complexity
b) Cost
c) Mean square error
d) Power density of output signal
18 For N symbol inputs, LMS algorithm requires ______ operations per iterations. C
a) 2N
b) N+1
c) 2N+1
d) N2
19 Choice of equalizer structure and its algorithm is not dependent on ________ D
a) Cost of computing platform
b) Power budget
c) Radio propagation characteristics
d) Statistical distribution of transmitted power
20 Which of the following factor could not determine the performance of algorithm? A
a) Structural properties
b) Rate of convergence
c) Computational complexity
d) Numerical properties
21 Rate of convergence is defined by __________ of algorithm. B
a) Time span
b) Number of iterations
c) Accuracy
d) Complexity
22 Time diversity repeatedly transmits information at time spacings that exceed D
_____
a) Coherence bandwidth
b) Dwell time
c) Run time
d) Coherence time
23 In maximal ratio combining, the output SNR is equal to __________ C
a) Mean of all individual SNRs
b) Maximum of all SNRs
c) Sum of individual SNR
d) Minimum of all SNRs
24 Polarization diversity uses the ________ as the diversity element. C
a) Modulation index

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 b) Carrier frequency
c) Reflection coefficient
d) Coherence time
25 ____________ is used to prevent deep fade for rapidly varying channel. D
a) Modulation
b) Demodulation
c) Macroscopic diversity technique
d) Microscopic diversity technique

S.No Unit-5 – MULTIPLE ANTENNA TECHNIQUES Answer

1 MIMO stands for _______ b
a) Many input many output
b) Multiple input multiple output
c) Major input minor output
d) Minor input minor output
2 In MIMO, which factor has the greatest influence on data rates? c
a) The size of antenna
b) The height of the antenna
c) The number of transmit antennas
d) The area of receive antennas
3 Which of the following technology does not use MIMO? d
a) 4G
b) Wifi
c) WiMax
d) AMPS
4 Following are statements related to MIMO: c
(i) User data rate can be increased with spatial multiplexing.
(ii) In a multiuser scenario, beam forming is useful to combat inter-user interference.
(iii) The capacity of a link is increased exponentially with the number of antennas.
(iv) In SIMO, transmitter has multiple antennas and receiver has single antenna.
a. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
b. (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
c. (i) and (ii) are correct.
d. Only (i) is correct.
5 Following are statements related to cellular communication: b
(i)1G used analog communication.
(ii)2G was developed for voice and data communication both.
(iii) GPRS is also known as 2.5G.
(iv) MIMO was introduced in 3G.
(v) The sole aim of 5G communication system is to increase the data rate for high
mobility users.
(vi) Massive MIMO is used in 4G.
a. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
b. (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
c. (i), (iii) and (vi) are correct.
d. (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi) are correct.

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6 OFDM is used with MIMO in b
a. 3rd Generation cellular system
b. 4th Generation cellular system
c. 2nd Generation cellular system
d. None of the above
7 The quality of service (QoS) between end to end devices is maintained by the c
a. Presentation Layer
b. Session Layer
c. Transport Layer
d. Physical Layer
8 Consider a Multiple Input Multiple Output wireless system with 3 transmit c
antennas and 4 receive antennas. What is the dimension of the channel matrix?
a. 4 x 2
b. 3 x 4
c. 4 x 3
d. 3 x 3
9 Alamouti coding scheme is used to obtain c
a. Spatial multiplexing gain.
b. Array gain.
c. Diversity gain.
d. All of the above.
10 Following are statements related to diversity gain: b
(i) Diversity combining is used to combat large scale fading.
(ii) Received average SNR remains constant.
(iii) Received average SNR increases.
(iv) Diversity combining is used to combat small scale fading.
a. (i) and (iii) are correct.
b. (iii) and (iv) are correct.
c. (ii) and (iv) are correct.
d. (i) and (ii) are correct.
11 Bell Lab Layered Space-Time (BLAST) architecture is used to achieve c
a. Array gain.
b. Diversity gain.
c. Spatial Multiplexing gain.
d. All of the above
12 ) Consider a MIMO system with one transmit antenna and 6 receive antenna. b
Suppose, each branch receives an independent Rayleigh fading signal. The average
SNR of each branch is 12 dB. If MRC combining is used at the receiver, what is the
mean SNR?
a. 13.02 dB
b. 19.78 dB
c. 32.98 dB
d. 16.02 dB

Solution:
Average received SNR in MRC is given as,
Average mean SNR in MRC =(Number of receive antenna Nr) x ( average SNR in each
branch)
= 6∗1012/10 = 95.0936 = 19.78dB

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13 Consider a MIMO system with one transmit antenna and 5 receive antenna. c
Suppose, each branch receives an independent Rayleigh faded signal. The average
SNR of each branch is 10 dB. If selection combining is employed, what is the mean
post processing SNR,
a. 29.40 dB
b. 10.89 dB
c. 13.58 dB
d. 9.188 dB

14 The Capacity of a MIMO system is maximized (in absence of CSI at transmitter) b

when the channel matrix (H) is:
a. Unitary Matrix.
b. Orthogonal Matrix.
c. Symmetric Matrix.
d. Skew- symmetric Matrix.
15 Consider a 2 × 3 MIMO channel matrix H and assume HHH is full rank. The Eigen b
values of HHH are 0.2 & 0.8. Average SNR (ES /N0 ) = 6 dB. Compute the Capacity
of the MIMO channel when the channel state information is not known to the
transmitter.
a. 0.9625 bps/Hz.
b. 1.383 bps/Hz.
c. 1.6732 bps/Hz.
d. 1.8139 bps/Hz.

16 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in relation to MIMO channel a, b, c

Capacity: &d
a. In absence of CSI at transmitter, capacity of 1×2 MISO system is less than that of a
2×1 SIMO system.
b. For a large MIMO system with spatially white channel the capacity increases linearly
with the no. of Tx/Rx antenna (M) for a fixed SNR.

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 c. At high SNR, the capacity of a MIMO channel is maximized when the Covariance
matrix of input(RSS) is an identity matrix.
d. For a MIMO system having MT = MR = M whose channel matrix is orthogonal, the
channel capacity can be expressed as C = Mlog2(1 + ES/N0 ) where (ES/N0 ) is the
average SNR.
17 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? a,b,c
(Let, MT = MR = M)
a. Outage capacity increases as M increases.
b. Ergodic capacity increases as SNR increases.
c. When (M →∞ & H = HW), MIMO channel capacity is M times the capacity to
AWGN SISO link.
d. None of the above.
18 The water pouring process done at the transmitter for c
a. Diversity gain
b. Minimizing probability of error
c. Maximizing capacity
d. None of the above
19 When the MIMO channel is correlated, the capacity of link b
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. Doesnot depend on correlation
20 Which of the following MIMO schemes are supported by LTE d
a. Beamforming
b. Transmit diversity
c. Spatial Multiplexing
d. All of the above.

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