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testNo=5788&code=1052000&showTest=319&actForm=edit&set=15

Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD12897_COMPUTER NETWORKS CN
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. How many versions available of IP?

A : 6 version

B : 4 version

C : 2 version

D : 1 version

Q.no 2. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is
________

A : LAN

B : WAN

C : MAN

D : PAN

Q.no 3. Which topology allow to connect computers including server in a ring?

A : Star

B : Tree
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C : Ring

D : LAN

Q.no 4. DHCP is used for ________

A : IPv6

B : IPv4

C : Both IPv6 and IPv4

D : IPv6 or IPv4

Q.no 5. IEEE created Gigabit Ethernet under the name ______

A : Four

B : Eight

C : Six

D : Seven

Q.no 6. Protocols are set of rules to govern _________

A : Communication

B : Standard

C : Metropolitian communication

D : Bandwidth

Q.no 7. Name server designated as the recipient of forwarded queries is known as _____

A : Class B

B : Class c

C : Forwarder

D : Class D

Q.no 8. IEEE created Fast Ethernet under the name ______

A : 10Base 5

B : 10Base 2

C : 10Base T

D : 10Base F

Q.no 9. The network layer protocol for internet is __________

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A : ethernet

B : Internet protocol

C : hypertext transfer protocol

D : file transfer protocol

Q.no 10. What is the purpose of the DHCP server?

A : to provide storage for email

B : to translate URLs to IP addresses

C : to translate IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

D : to provide an IP configuration information to hosts

Q.no 11. which Displays entries in DNS cache

A : ipconfig /displaydns

B : ipconfig /flushdns

C : Normal DHCP Scope

D : ipconfig /registerdns

Q.no 12. A ___ error means that 2 or more bits in the data unit have changed.

A : unibit

B : burst

C : channel

D : noisy

Q.no 13. How many layers does OSI Reference Model has?

A:4

B:5

C:6

D:7

Q.no 14. Which methods are commonly used in Server Socket class?

A : Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()

B : Public Socket accept ()

C : Public synchronized void close ()

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D : Public void connect ()

Q.no 15. _____ protocol has no flow or error control.

A : simplex

B : complex

C : duplex

D : half duplex

Q.no 16. ___ codes are created to correct errors

A : bar

B : uni

C : cyclic

D : hash

Q.no 17. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new_____________protocol.

A : reliable, character-oriented

B : reliable, message-oriented

C : unreliable, message-oriented

D : unreliable, byte-oriented

Q.no 18. Static Channel Allocation is used in which technologies

A : SAN

B : PAN

C : LAN and MAN

D : WAN

Q.no 19. Ethernet frame consists of ____________

A : 1000Base LX

B : 1000Base T

C : 1000Base SX

D : 100Base Fx

Q.no 20. The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate
upstream node or nodes is called as _______

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A : Admission policy

B : Backpressure

C : Forward signaling

D : Backward signaling

Q.no 21. What is the meaning of Bandwidth in Network?

A : Transmission capacity of a communication channels

B : Connected Computers in the Network

C : Class of IP used in Network

D : Bit per Seconds

Q.no 22. Standard ethernet use which topologies

A : CSMA with collision avoidance

B : Pure Aloha

C : Slotted Aloha

D : CSMA with collision detection

Q.no 23. Which one of the following is not correct?

A : RTCP provides canonical end-point identifiers to all session participants

B : RTCP reports are expected to be sent by all participants

C : RTCP itself does not provide any flow encryption or authentication methods

D : RTCP handles the actual data delivery

Q.no 24. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.

A : 66

B : 67

C : 68

D : 69

Q.no 25. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________

A : Seconds

B : Frames

C : Packets
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D : Bits

Q.no 26. What is the frequency range of IEEE 802.11a standard

A : 6Mbps

B : 11Mbps

C : 22Mbps

D : 54Mbps

Q.no 27. _____ is the multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier
frequency.

A : FDM

B : TDM

C : Both FDM & TDM

D : PDM

Q.no 28. A connection in SCTP is called an ____________

A : negotiation

B : association

C : transmission

D : reception

Q.no 29. DHCP ____ _______ occur every 60 minutes

A : Multicast Scope

B : Super Scope

C : Subnet Mask

D : Automatic Backups

Q.no 30. The Maximum length of 1000BaseSX is

A : Ring topology

B : Bus topology

C : Star topology

D : Mesh topology

Q.no 31. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which

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A : One automatically gets one’s mail everyday

B : One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail

C : One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email

D : One does not need any telephone lines

Q.no 32. In FTP protocol, a client contacts a server using ______ as the transport protocol.

A : Transmission control protocol

B : User datagram protocol

C : Datagram congestion control protocol

D : Stream control transmission protocol

Q.no 33. What is the use of Ping command?

A : To test a device on the network is reachable

B : To test a hard disk fault

C : To test a bug in a Application

D : To test a Pinter Quality

Q.no 34. In HDLC which frames are used to transport user data and control information
relating to user data (piggybacking)?

A : S-Frames

B : I-Frames

C : V-frames

D : U-Frame

Q.no 35. How many different type of server exist?

A : Only one

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 36. In the network HTTP resources are located by __________

A : Uniform resource identifier

B : Unique resource locator

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C : Unique resource identifier

D : Union resource locator

Q.no 37. In IPv4 layer, datagram is of ________

A : Fixed length

B : Variable length

C : Global length

D : Zero length

Q.no 38. Which of the following network device has the slowest type of connection?

A : DSL

B : Router

C : Bridges

D : Dial-up modems

Q.no 39. There are ___ types of HDLC frames

A:2

B:4

C:5

D:3

Q.no 40. Most dial-up access to Internet is accomplished by using _____

A : TCP

B : PPP

C : IP

D : IPX

Q.no 41. In PPP, the default maximum length of the information field is ________

A : 1500 bytes

B : 15000 bytes

C : 150 bytes

D : 15 bytes

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Q.no 42. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port
on the server.

A : User datagram protocol

B : Transmission control protocol

C : Border gateway protocol

D : Domain host control protocol

Q.no 43. Peer-to-peer processes are processes on two or more devices communicating at a

A : same layer

B : different layer

C : different layer on different device

D : none of above

Q.no 44. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring, and
terminating links.

A : PAP

B : CHAP

C : SAP

D : LCP

Q.no 45. Define the type of the following destination MAC address 4A:30:10:21:10:1A

A : IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA with collision detection protocol

B : Ethernet is not based on CSMA with collision detection protocol

C : CSMA with collision detection is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite
network

D : There is no contention in a CSMA with collision detection network

Q.no 46. Three types of HDLC frames are :

A : Data frames, Supervisory frames, Un-numbered frames

B : Information frames, Supervisory frames, Un-numbered frames

C : Information frames, Supervisory frames, Numbered frames

D : Information frames, Controlled frames, Numbered frames

Q.no 47. In class C , if subnet mask is 255.255.255.224 then calculates number of subnet?

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A:6

B:8

C:4

D : 10

Q.no 48. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 20 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are
needed.

A : less than 10

B : 19

C : 21

D : 20

Q.no 49. HDLC supports two types of transfer modes ________ and ________

A : normal response mode and abnormal response mode.

B : normal response mode and asynchronous balanced mode.

C : command mode and respond mode

D : synchronous balanced mode and asynchronous balanced mode.

Q.no 50. In Asynchronous Balanced Mode (ABM) of HDLC protocol ____

A : each station can send both commands and respond to commands

B : each station can send commands but not respond to commands

C : each station can send either command or respond to commands but not both

D : Station does not send command and responses

Q.no 51. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with a
200 kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000
frames per second

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

Q.no 52. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is
numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one
segment?

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A : 10000

B : 10001

C : 12001

D : 11001

Q.no 53. _____ is a bit oriented protocol for communication over point to point and
multipoint links.

A : High level Data link Control (HDLC)

B : Highest level Data link Control (HDLC)

C : Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

D : Domain Name Server (DNS) Protocol

Q.no 54. For which one of the following reasons does Internet Protocol (IP) use the timeto-
live (TTL) field in the IP datagram header

A : Ensure packets reach destination within that time

B : Discard packets that reach later than that time

C : prevent packets from looping indefinitily

D : Limit the time for which the packet gets queued in intermediate routers

Q.no 55. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is the total
length of the user datagram?

A : 24Bytes

B : 64Bytes

C : 28Bytes

D : 32 Bytes

Q.no 56. Each frame in HDLC protocol may contain up ___ fields

A:4

B:5

C:6

D:7

Q.no 57. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200-bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the requirement to make this frame collision free

A : multicast address
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B : Broadcast address

C : Unicast address

D : Anycast address

Q.no 58. Which one of the following is correct?

A : Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a
communication session

B : HTTP is a session layer protocol

C : TCP is an application layer protocol

D : HTTP is a request and response protocol

Q.no 59. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive
data at B is _________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 60. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are
accredited by _______

A : internet architecture board

B : internet society

C : internet research task force

D : internet corporation for assigned names and numbers

Q.no 1. The control information in SCTP is included in the ________

A : header control field

B : control chunks

C : data chunks

D : Trailer Control field

Q.no 2. CSMA is based on the principle of

A : p persistent

B : nonpersistent

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C : 1 persistent

D : Persistent

Q.no 3. MAC Address is the example of

A : Transport Layer

B : Data Link Layer

C : Application Layer

D : Physical Layer

Q.no 4. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________

A : HTTP protocol

B : FTP protocol

C : SMTP protocol

D : TCP protocol

Q.no 5. _______ topology requires a multipoint connection.

A : Star

B : Mesh

C : Ring

D : Bus

Q.no 6. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP?

A : Connection-oriented

B : Unreliable

C : Transport layer protocol

D : Low overhead

Q.no 7. Retransmission of packets must not be done when _______

A : Packet is lost

B : Packet is corrupted

C : Packet is needed

D : Packet is error-free

Q.no 8. HDLC protocol resides in ____ layer

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A : Data Link Layer

B : Application Layer

C : Transport Layer

D : Network Layer

Q.no 9. FTP server listens for connection on which port number?

A : 20

B : 21

C : 22

D : 23

Q.no 10. CIDR stands for

A : Classless Inter-Domain Routing

B : Classless Intra-Domain Routing

C : Classful Inter-Domain Routing

D : Classful Intra-Domain Routing

Q.no 11. Which one of the following is TRUE about interior Gateway routing protocols -
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

A : RIP uses distance vector routing and OSPF uses link state routing

B : OSPF uses distance vector routing and RIP uses link state routing

C : Both RIP and OSPF use link state routing

D : Both RIP and OSPF use distance vector routing

Q.no 12. The correction of errors is _____ the detection.

A : more difficult than

B : easier

C : similar

D : None of the above

Q.no 13. A simple protocol used for fetching email from a mail box is

A : POP3

B : IMAP

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C : SMTP

D : POP2

Q.no 14. The Maximum throughput for pure aloha is____ percent

A : CSMA with collision detection

B : CSMA with collision avoidance

C : Pure Aloha

D : Slotted Aloha

Q.no 15. Routing tables of a router keeps track of

A : MAC Address Assignments

B : Port Assignments to network devices

C : Distribute IP address to network devices

D : Routes to use for forwarding data to its destination

Q.no 16. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.

A : Packet switched

B : Circuit switched

C : Bit switched

D : Line switched

Q.no 17. Application layer protocol defines ____________

A : types of messages exchanged

B : message unformatted

C : Message Request and Response

D : Message Syntax and Sementics

Q.no 18. TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are examples of ___________

A : Socket

B : IP Address

C : Protocol

D : MAC Address

Q.no 19. AODV stands for

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A : Ad hoc On-Demand Distance Vector

B : Advance ondemand distance vector

C : Advance on distance vector

D : All of these

Q.no 20. WAN stands for __________

A : World area network

B : Wide area network

C : Web area network

D : Web access network

Q.no 21. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

A : routing

B : inter-networking

C : congestion control

D : error control

Q.no 22. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet frame is __________

A : IEEE 802.3

B : IEEE 802.11

C : IEEE 802.2

D : IEEE 802.15

Q.no 23. What is DHCP snooping?

A : techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure

B : algorithm for DHCP

C : encryption of the DHCP server requests

D : decryption of the DHCP server requests

Q.no 24. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.

A : 331 – Username OK, password required

B : 425 – Can’t open data connection

C : 452 – Error writing file

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D : 452 – Can’t open data connection

Q.no 25. Which layer of the OSI model are host-to-host layer?

A : Physical layer

B : Network layer

C : Datalink layer

D : Physical, Datalink, Network, Transport

Q.no 26. In _________ systems, resources are allocated on demand.

A : packet switching

B : circuit switching

C : line switching

D : frequency switching

Q.no 27. Bit stuffing means adding extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a
sequence of bits with the same pattern as the _____

A : header

B : trailer

C : payload

D : flag

Q.no 28. Error control in the data link layer is based on_______

A : hamming code

B : parity generator

C : retransmission of data

D : data duplication

Q.no 29. Which of the following address belongs class A?

A : 121.12.12.248

B : 130.12.12.248

C : 128.12.12.248

D : 129.12.12.248

Q.no 30. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.

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A : public-key cryptography

B : private-key cryptography

C : any of public-key or private-key

D : both public-key & private-key

Q.no 31. Which of the following protocol is defined in Transport layer?

A : FTP

B : TCP

C : IP

D : Telnet

Q.no 32. In which protocol sender sends one frame, stops until it receives confirmation from
the receiver?

A : MQTT protocol

B : Wait Protocol

C : Stop-and-Wait Protocol

D : Stop Protocol

Q.no 33. In gigabit ethernet three or more stations are connected by

A : 2.4 GHz

B : 5 GHz

C : 2.4 Gbps

D : 5 Gbps

Q.no 34. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.

A : 66

B : 67

C : 68

D : 69

Q.no 35. The maximum length (in bytes) of an IPv4 datagram is?

A : 32

B : 1024

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C : 65535

D : 512

Q.no 36. What is Maximum channel utilization of Slotted Aloha

A : p persistent

B : nonpersistent

C : 1 persistent

D : Persistent

Q.no 37. What is the size of MAC Address?

A : 16-bits

B : 32-bits

C : 48-bits

D : 64-bits

Q.no 38. In sliding window protocol, the send window can slide one or more slots when valid
____ arrives.

A : bit

B : request

C : flag

D : acknowledgement

Q.no 39. Discarding policy is mainly done by _______

A : Sender

B : Receiver

C : Router

D : Switch

Q.no 40. Router operates in which layer of OSI Reference Model?

A : Layer 1 (Physical Layer)

B : Layer 3 (Network Layer)

C : Layer 4 (Transport Layer)

D : Layer 7 (Application Layer)

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Q.no 41. MIME uses the same _______ format

A : RFC822

B : RFC 800

C : Ethernet

D : RFC 1521

Q.no 42. The process of modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in
transit across a traffic routing device is called

A : Port address translation (PAT)

B : Network address translation (NAT)

C : Address mapping

D : Port mapping

Q.no 43. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with a
200 kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 500
frames per second

A : 2msec

B : 4msec

C : 2sec

D : 4sec

Q.no 44. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use
_________

A : internet relay chat

B : broader gateway protocol

C : address resolution protocol

D : Internet Address Chat

Q.no 45. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps.
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 276 frames

D : 151 frames

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Q.no 46. In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class C
addresses is

A : 2 rest to 14

B : 2 rest to 7

C : 2 rest to 21

D : 2 rest to 24

Q.no 47. Network congestion occurs _________

A : in case of traffic overloading

B : when a system terminates

C : when connection between two nodes terminates

D : in case of transfer failure

Q.no 48. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to
receive data at B is ____________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 49. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________

A : only network address

B : only host address

C : network address & host address

D : network address & MAC address

Q.no 50. ______ is a communication protocol of the data link layer that is used to transmit
multiprotocol data between two directly connected computers.

A : Point - to - Point Protocol (PPP)

B : Internet Protocol

C : Transmission Control Protocol

D : Single Point - to - Multi Point Protocol (SPM)

Q.no 51. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?

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A : UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length

B : UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length

C : UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length

D : UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length

Q.no 52. Simplex protocol of Data Link Layer works on ____ channels

A : noiseless

B : broadband

C : noisy

D : creative

Q.no 53. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending
that each of them is coming from a different client by faking the source IP address in the
datagram. Which type of attack is being performed in this situation?

A : SYNC flooding attack

B : Active attack

C : Passive attack

D : Denial-of-service attack

Q.no 54. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 500 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 276 frames

D : 151 frames

Q.no 55. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general network
model?

A : network layer

B : transport layer

C : session layer

D : data link layer

Q.no 56. In HTTP pipelining ________________

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A : multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the
corresponding responses

B : multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection

C : multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection

D : multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection

Q.no 57. IPv6 does not support which of the following addressing modes?

A : unicast addressing

B : multicast addressing

C : broadcast addressing

D : anycast addressing

Q.no 58. ____ refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data
that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.

A : Flow control

B : Speed control

C : Error control

D : Data control

Q.no 59. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each
station can function as a primary and a secondary.

A : ARM

B : ABM

C : NBM

D : NRM

Q.no 60. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client,
then it is called _________

A : computer network

B : distributed system

C : networking system

D : mail system

Q.no 1. In point to point protocol ____ field of PPP Frame carries the user data.

A : flag
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B : payload

C : Protocol

D : FCS

Q.no 2. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________
for

A : Packets

B : Buffers

C : Segments

D : Stacks

Q.no 3. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on
IP network?

A : dynamic host configuration protocol

B : simple network management protocol

C : internet message access protocol

D : media gateway protocol

Q.no 4. In which method is used for large waiting time or backoff time

A : Bus

B : star

C : Ring

D : Mesh

Q.no 5. RTP provides the facility of jitter ____________

A : media stream

B : expansion

C : media modification

D : security

Q.no 6. The protocol which is used for defining the legal request and replies is called ______ .

A : FTP

B : SMTP

C : TCP
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D : HTTP

Q.no 7. Which of the following is an example of Personal Area Networking?

A : Bluetooth

B : WAN

C : WLAN

D : LAN

Q.no 8. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address
does the router look at?

A : Port

B : IP

C : Physical

D : Subnet Mask

Q.no 9. An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server.

A : IP address

B : MAC address

C : URL

D : Name

Q.no 10. Which networking device connect one LAN to other LAN using same protocol?

A : Router

B : Switch

C : Bridge

D : Modem

Q.no 11. Which protocol provides the synchronization between media streams?

A : RTP

B : RTCP

C : RPC

D : RTCT

Q.no 12. FTP server listens for connection on port number _________

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A : 20

B : 21

C : 22

D : 23

Q.no 13. In Bluetooth architecture of a piconet can have up to _______ stations

A : 802.3

B : 802.11

C : 802.15

D : 802.16

Q.no 14. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is

Destination port number.

A : 000D

B : CB84

C : 001C

D : 001D

Q.no 15. Which software prevents the external access to a system?

A : Firewall

B : Gateway

C : Router

D : Virus checker

Q.no 16. A _________ set of rules that governs data communication.

A : Protocols

B : Standards

C : RFCs

D : Servers

Q.no 17. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for

A : Finding the IP address from the DNS

B : Finding the IP address of the default gateway

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C : Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address

D : Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address

Q.no 18. UTP Cable is used by____

A : 802.3 z

B : 802.3

C : 802.3 u

D : 802.11

Q.no 19. _____. Is the process of placing timestamps on dynamically registered records

A : Aging

B : IP

C : AIPAA

D : tcp

Q.no 20. IEEE created Gigabit Ethernet under the name ______

A : Four

B : Eight

C : Six

D : Seven

Q.no 21. Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to-end layer?

A : Presentation layer

B : Network layer

C : Session layer

D : Transport layer

Q.no 22. The data link layer pack bits into ____.

A : segments

B : clusters

C : packets

D : frames

Q.no 23. Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model?

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A : Appliation layer

B : Transport layer

C : Network layer

D : Datalink layer

Q.no 24. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its frame
immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line until it finds it idle

A : nonpersistent

B : Pure Aloha

C : CSMA with collision detection

D : CSMA with collision avoidance

Q.no 25. Which protocol is a signaling communication protocol used for controlling
multimedia communication sessions?

A : session initiation protocol

B : session modelling protocol

C : session maintenance protocol

D : resource reservation protocol

Q.no 26. What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?

A : Packet switching and Line switching

B : Circuit switching and Line switching

C : Line switching and bit switching

D : Packet switching and Circuit switching

Q.no 27. The size of flag field in HDLC frame is ________

A : 8 bits

B : 4 bits

C : 2 bits

D : 9 bits

Q.no 28. framing, flow and error control are the functionalities of ______

A : Physical layer

B : data link layer

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C : network layer

D : Transport layer

Q.no 29. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN called,_______ which covers
the physical and data link layers

A : 550 m

B : 25 m

C : 5000 m

D : 100 m

Q.no 30. In Inet Address class, which method returns the host name of the IP Address?

A : Public String get Hostname()

B : Public String getHostAddress()

C : Public static InetAddress get Localhost()

D : Public getByName()

Q.no 31. Which access method is used for the half duplex approach in fast ethernet

A : 4B/5B

B : NRZ-I

C : MLT-3

D : 8B/6T

Q.no 32. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in __________

A : stream mode

B : block mode

C : compressed mode

D : message mode

Q.no 33. Which protocol gives a full route table update every 30 seconds?

A : IEGRP

B : RIP

C : ICMP

D : IP

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Q.no 34. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the packet times out, several packets have
to be resent even some may have arrived safe. Whereas in Selective Repeat window, the
sender resends ___________

A : Packet which are not lost

B : Only those packets which are lost or corrupted

C : Packet from starting

D : All the packets

Q.no 35. What does Router do in a network?

A : Forwards a packet to all outgoing links

B : Forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link

C : Determines on which outing link a packet is to be forwarded

D : Forwards a packet to all outgoing links except the originated link

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a congestion policy at network layer?

A : Flow Control Policy

B : Packet Discard Policy

C : Packet Lifetime Management Policy

D : Routing Algorithm

Q.no 37. In HDLC Normal transfer mode is used for _______________

A : only point to point links

B : only point to multipoint links

C : either point to point links or point to multipoint links

D : both point to point and multipoint links

Q.no 38. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases __________
until it reaches a threshold.

A : exponentially

B : additively

C : multiplicatively

D : suddenly

Q.no 39. In SMTP, the command to write receiver’s mail address is written with the
command _______
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A : SEND TO

B : RCPT TO

C : MAIL TO

D : RCVR TO

Q.no 40. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.

A : transmission control protocol

B : user datagram protocol

C : datagram congestion control protocol

D : stream control transmission protocol

Q.no 41. In HDLC which frames are used only to transport control information?

A : S-Frames

B : I-Frames

C : V-frames

D : U-Frame

Q.no 42. _______ is responsible for tunneling multicast packets to the Mobile Station’s
currently subscribed FA.

A : Multicast home agent

B : Mobile multicast

C : Mobile station

D : Base station

Q.no 43. In PPP, the default maximum length of the information field is ________

A : 1500 bytes

B : 15000 bytes

C : 150 bytes

D : 15 bytes

Q.no 44. What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?

A : Socket

B : IP Address

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C : Protocol

D : MAC Address

Q.no 45. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

A : base 64 encoding

B : base 32 encoding

C : base 16 encoding

D : base 8 encoding

Q.no 46. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________

A : 161

B : 123

C : 162

D : 124

Q.no 47. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is source
port number.

A : 000D

B : CB84

C : 001C

D : 001D

Q.no 48. Three types of HDLC frames are :

A : Data frames, Supervisory frames, Un-numbered frames

B : Information frames, Supervisory frames, Un-numbered frames

C : Information frames, Supervisory frames, Numbered frames

D : Information frames, Controlled frames, Numbered frames

Q.no 49. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP message

A : Request line

B : Header line

C : Status line

D : Entity body

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Q.no 50. a character-oriented approach and a bit-oriented approaches used in which type of
framing?

A : fixed size

B : zero size

C : variable-size

D : cells

Q.no 51. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is _______

A : NTP

B : Echo

C : Server

D : Client

Q.no 52. Peer-to-peer processes are processes on two or more devices communicating at a

A : same layer

B : different layer

C : different layer on different device

D : none of above

Q.no 53. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200-bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the requirement to make this frame collision free

A : multicast address

B : Broadcast address

C : Unicast address

D : Anycast address

Q.no 54. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?

A : traffic aware routing

B : admission control

C : load shedding

D : routing information protocol

Q.no 55. Which of the following is correct IPv4 address?

A : 124.201.3.1.52
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B : 300.142.210.64

C : 10110011.32.16.8

D : 128.64.0.0

Q.no 56. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________

transmission.

A : Automatic

B : Half-duplex

C : Full-duplex

D : Simplex

Q.no 57. Which one of the following is correct?

A : Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a
communication session

B : HTTP is a session layer protocol

C : TCP is an application layer protocol

D : HTTP is a request and response protocol

Q.no 58. _____ is used in PPP payload field whenever the flag sequence appears in the
message, so that the receiver does not consider it as the end of the frame.

A : extra stuffing

B : bit stuffing

C : character stuffing

D : Byte stuffing

Q.no 59. HDLC supports two types of transfer modes ________ and ________

A : normal response mode and abnormal response mode.

B : normal response mode and asynchronous balanced mode.

C : command mode and respond mode

D : synchronous balanced mode and asynchronous balanced mode.

Q.no 60. Which of the following routing protocol used for network layer design?

A : Static Routing Algorithm

B : Distance vector routing Protocol

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C : Dynamic Routing Algorithm

D : Hybrid Routing Algorithm

Q.no 1. Connection Oriented Protocol for end-to-end communication is called

________________

A : Aging

B : IP

C : AIPAA

D : tcp

Q.no 2. Protocols are set of rules to govern _________

A : Communication

B : Standard

C : Metropolitian communication

D : Bandwidth

Q.no 3. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. These
numbers start with a _________

A : Fixed number

B : Random sequence of 0’s and 1’s

C : One

D : Sequence of zero’s and one’s

Q.no 4. A ___ error means that 2 or more bits in the data unit have changed.

A : unibit

B : burst

C : channel

D : noisy

Q.no 5. What is the header size of a UDP packet?

A : 8 bytes

B : 8 bits

C : 16 bytes

D : 124 bytes
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Q.no 6. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?

A : Connection-oriented

B : Process-to-process

C : Transport layer protocol

D : Unreliable

Q.no 7. The network layer protocol for internet is __________

A : ethernet

B : Internet protocol

C : hypertext transfer protocol

D : file transfer protocol

Q.no 8. Which Method can be used for to reduce the collision but canot eliminate it

A : Listen before talk

B : Listen after talk

C : Sense after transmit

D : Sense before talk

Q.no 9. How many versions available of IP?

A : 6 version

B : 4 version

C : 2 version

D : 1 version

Q.no 10. Which type of network is used for small geographical area such as in a one building?

A : WLAN

B : MAN

C : LAN

D : WAN

Q.no 11. Layer-2 Switch is also called

A : Multiport Hub

B : Multiport Switch
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C : Multiport Bridge

D : Multiport NIC

Q.no 12. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?

A : simple mail transfer protocol

B : post office protocol

C : internet mail access protocol

D : hypertext transfer protocol

Q.no 13. Hardware address is known as _________

A : wireless maximum communication

B : worldwide interoperability for microwave access

C : worldwide international standard for microwave access

D : wireless internet maximum communication

Q.no 14. DHCP is the abbreviation of

A : Dynamic Host Control Protocol

B : Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

C : Dynamic Hyper Control Protocol

D : Dynamic Hyper Configuration Protocol

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not the Networking Devices?

A : Gateways

B : Linux

C : Routers

D : Firewalls

Q.no 16. DNS is the abbreviation of

A : Dynamic Name System

B : Dynamic Network System

C : Domain Name System

D : Domain Network Service

Q.no 17. BGP stands for

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A : Bypass gateway protocol

B : Border gateway protocol

C : Bootstrap Protocol

D : Boundary gateway protocol

Q.no 18. The location of a resource on the internet is given by its?

A : Protocol

B : URL

C : E-mail address

D : website

Q.no 19. The Maximum throughput for pure aloha is____ percent

A : CSMA with collision detection

B : CSMA with collision avoidance

C : Pure Aloha

D : Slotted Aloha

Q.no 20. How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?

A : Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the
length of the agreement.

B : Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of period, a new quest for an
address must be made, and another address is then assigned.

C : Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically
contacting the DHCP sever to renew the lease.

D : Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.

Q.no 21. What is the use of Bridge in Network?

A : to connect LANs

B : to separate LANs

C : to control Network Speed

D : to connect LAN to WAN

Q.no 22. _____ is the multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier
frequency.

A : FDM
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B : TDM

C : Both FDM & TDM

D : PDM

Q.no 23. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet frame is __________

A : IEEE 802.3

B : IEEE 802.11

C : IEEE 802.2

D : IEEE 802.15

Q.no 24. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an
active open is ___________

A : Mutual open

B : Mutual Close

C : Simultaneous open

D : Simultaneous close

Q.no 25. ARQ stands for _____

A : Automatic repeat request

B : Automatic repeat quantization

C : Acknowledgement repeat request

D : Automatic resend request

Q.no 26. Which one of the following fields of an IP header is NOT modified by a typical IP
router?

A : Checksum

B : Source address

C : Time to Live (TTL)

D : Length

Q.no 27. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________

A : Seconds

B : Frames

C : Packets
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D : Bits

Q.no 28. Which access method is used by Standard ethernet

A : Ethernet

B : FDDI or Fiber Channel

C : Token Ring

D : ATM

Q.no 29. Which network is able to connect and send data to each computer via central hub or
switch without looking where the data is sent?

A : Star

B : Router

C : Bus

D : LAN

Q.no 30. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?

A : Flow control

B : Three-Way Handshaking

C : Forwarding

D : Synchronization

Q.no 31. ICMP is primarily used for __________

A : error and diagnostic functions

B : addressing

C : forwarding

D : routing

Q.no 32. Suppose computers A and B have IP addresses 10.105.1.113 and 10.105.1.91
respectively and they both use the same netmask N. Which of the values of N given below
should not be used if A and B should belong to the same network?

A : 255.255.255.0

B : 255.255.255.128

C : 255.255.255.192

D : 255.255.255.224

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Q.no 33. In CSMA with collision detection the energy level of channel can have three values:
Normal , Zero, and abnormal which of the following is correct sequence

A : Wired network

B : Wireless Network

C : Wired and Wireless Network

D : Client Server Network

Q.no 34. What is routing algorithm used by OSPF routing protocol?

A : Distance vector

B : Flooding

C : Path vector

D : Link state

Q.no 35. _____ Sets an alias for a host name

A : DNS Event Logging tab

B : DNS Debug Logging tab

C : DNS CNAME (canonical name)

D : DNS Event and Debug tab

Q.no 36. The ______ field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram.

A : udp header

B : checksum

C : source port

D : destination port

Q.no 37. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________

A : sliding window

B : sliding frame

C : sliding packet

D : sliding door

Q.no 38. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________

A : TSN

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B : SI

C : SSN

D : GSN

Q.no 39. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.

A : 66

B : 67

C : 68

D : 69

Q.no 40. In ___ protocol, if no acknowledgement for the sent frame has arrived to the sender,
it resends all the oustanding frames.

A : stop and wait

B : go-Back-N ARQ

C : simplest

D : selective repeat ARQ

Q.no 41. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to
another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?

A : HTTP

B : FTP

C : Telnet

D : TCP

Q.no 42. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 250 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 49 frames

D : 151 frames

Q.no 43. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the
_______Protocol.

A : Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

B : Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

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C : Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

D : Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

Q.no 44. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to
receive data at B is ____________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 45. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?

A : protocol for SMTP security

B : an SMTP extension

C : protocol for faster mail transfer

D : protocol for web pages

Q.no 46. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are
accredited by _______

A : internet architecture board

B : internet society

C : internet research task force

D : internet corporation for assigned names and numbers

Q.no 47. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port
on the server.

A : User datagram protocol

B : Transmission control protocol

C : Border gateway protocol

D : Domain host control protocol

Q.no 48. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive
data at B is _________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer
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D : Session layer

Q.no 49. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station
and multiple secondary stations.

A : ARM

B : NBM

C : NRM

D : ABM

Q.no 50. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending
that each of them is coming from a different client by faking the source IP address in the
datagram. Which type of attack is being performed in this situation?

A : SYNC flooding attack

B : Active attack

C : Passive attack

D : Denial-of-service attack

Q.no 51. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 500 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 276 frames

D : 151 frames

Q.no 52. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and
sound arrival of data.

A : Packet

B : Buffer

C : Segment

D : Acknowledgment

Q.no 53. Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA with collision detection

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

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D : 156 frames

Q.no 54. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there
is a character with the same pattern as the ______.

A : trailer

B : header

C : payload

D : flag

Q.no 55. In wireless network most of the energy is lost during transmission. How many
percentage of additional energy is added if there is collision

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

Q.no 56. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with a
200 kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000
frames per second

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

Q.no 57. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______

A : Routing and switching

B : Sending and receiving of packets

C : Multiplexing and demultiplexing

D : Demultiplexing and error checking

Q.no 58. In class C , if subnet mask is 255.255.255.224 then calculates number of subnet?

A:6

B:8

C:4

D : 10
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Q.no 59. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for
______ channels.

A : signal

B : wireless

C : noisy

D : noiseless

Q.no 60. In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class C
addresses is

A : 2 rest to 14

B : 2 rest to 7

C : 2 rest to 21

D : 2 rest to 24

Q.no 1. RSVP is a _________ oriented protocol

A : receiver

B : bit

C : byte

D : both b & c

Q.no 2. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for

A : Finding the IP address from the DNS

B : Finding the IP address of the default gateway

C : Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address

D : Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address

Q.no 3. The IEEE standard used for wimax technology is

A : 12.2

B : 18.4

C : 36.8

D : 13.5

Q.no 4. _______ topology requires a multipoint connection.

A : Star
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B : Mesh

C : Ring

D : Bus

Q.no 5. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______
can access the network.

A : MAC Address

B : IP Address

C : MAC and IP address

D : MAC or IP address

Q.no 6. Which of the following can be Software?

A : Routers

B : Firewalls

C : bridge

D : Modems

Q.no 7. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________

A : HTTP protocol

B : FTP protocol

C : SMTP protocol

D : TCP protocol

Q.no 8. Modulator and demodulator as combinely is known as –

A : Modulus

B : Modem

C : Mod switch

D : Mod access

Q.no 9. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address
does the router look at?

A : Port

B : IP

C : Physical
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D : Subnet Mask

Q.no 10. WiMAX stands for ___________

A : Data Link

B : Network

C : Physical

D : Transport

Q.no 11. To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented

A : MAC address

B : IP address

C : port address

D : specific address

Q.no 12. The client in socket programming must know which information?

A : IP address of Server

B : Port number

C : Both IP address of Server & Port number

D : Only its own IP address

Q.no 13. The ___________layer of ethernet consist of LLC sublayer and MAC sublayer

A : Maximum Propagation time Tp

B : Transmission time

C : Back off Time

D : Wait time out time

Q.no 14. The control information in SCTP is included in the ________

A : header control field

B : control chunks

C : data chunks

D : Trailer Control field

Q.no 15. _____ allows the receiver to inform the sender of any frames lost or damaged in
transmission and coordinates the retransmission of those frames by the sender.

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A : Error control

B : data control

C : Transmission Control

D : Speed control

Q.no 16. Which network topology requires a central controller or hub?

A : Mesh

B : Star

C : Ring

D : Bus

Q.no 17. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________
for

A : Packets

B : Buffers

C : Segments

D : Stacks

Q.no 18. HTTP is ________ protocol

A : transport layer

B : application layer

C : network layer

D : data link layer

Q.no 19. ______is used in dealing with error detection and error correction

A : Samming distance

B : Hamming distance

C : Tamming distance

D : Spamming distance

Q.no 20. How many layers does OSI Reference Model has?

A:4

B:5

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C:6

D:7

Q.no 21. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in __________

A : stream mode

B : block mode

C : compressed mode

D : message mode

Q.no 22. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which

A : One automatically gets one’s mail everyday

B : One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail

C : One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email

D : One does not need any telephone lines

Q.no 23. What is the frequency range of IEEE 802.11a standard

A : 6Mbps

B : 11Mbps

C : 22Mbps

D : 54Mbps

Q.no 24. Repeater operates in which layer of the OSI model?

A : Physical layer

B : Data link layer

C : Network layer

D : Transport layer

Q.no 25. _______ provides a connection-oriented reliable service for sending messages

A : TCP

B : IP

C : UDP

D : DHCP

Q.no 26. Size of TCP segment header ranges between ___________

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A : 16 and 32 bytes

B : 16 and 32 bits

C : 20 and 60 bytes

D : 20 and 60 bits

Q.no 27. To detect or correct errors, we need to send _____ with data.

A : extra (redundant) bits

B : error bits

C : hamming distance

D : hash keys

Q.no 28. Which layer of the OSI model are host-to-host layer?

A : Physical layer

B : Network layer

C : Datalink layer

D : Physical, Datalink, Network, Transport

Q.no 29. The frame transmission and collision detection is a continuous process which method
is used for this condition

A : Idle,Captured the channel and sending its Frame, collision detection

B : Captured the channel and sending its Frame,Idle, collision detection

C : Idle, collision detection,Captured the channel and sending its Frame

D : Captured the channel and sending its Frame, collision detection,Idle

Q.no 30. Which of the following fields in IPV4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?

A : Type of service

B : Fragment offset

C : Flags

D : Identification

Q.no 31. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?

A : media gateway protocol

B : dynamic host configuration protocol

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C : resource reservation protocol

D : session initiation protocol

Q.no 32. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 33. Which one of the following is not correct?

A : RTCP provides canonical end-point identifiers to all session participants

B : RTCP reports are expected to be sent by all participants

C : RTCP itself does not provide any flow encryption or authentication methods

D : RTCP handles the actual data delivery

Q.no 34. Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to-end layer?

A : Presentation layer

B : Network layer

C : Session layer

D : Transport layer

Q.no 35. There are ___ types of HDLC frames

A:2

B:4

C:5

D:3

Q.no 36. The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.

A : Bits

B : Frames

C : Packets

D : Bytes

Q.no 37. A proxy server is used as the computer?

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A : with external access

B : acting as a backup

C : performing file handling

D : accessing user permissions

Q.no 38. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.

A : IP address

B : MAC Address

C : Port Address

D : Physical Address

Q.no 39. Which protocol is a signaling communication protocol used for controlling
multimedia communication sessions?

A : session initiation protocol

B : session modelling protocol

C : session maintenance protocol

D : resource reservation protocol

Q.no 40. Which of the following address belongs class A?

A : 121.12.12.248

B : 130.12.12.248

C : 128.12.12.248

D : 129.12.12.248

Q.no 41. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring, and
terminating links.

A : PAP

B : CHAP

C : SAP

D : LCP

Q.no 42. a character-oriented approach and a bit-oriented approaches used in which type of
framing?

A : fixed size

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B : zero size

C : variable-size

D : cells

Q.no 43. Peer-to-peer processes are processes on two or more devices communicating at a

A : same layer

B : different layer

C : different layer on different device

D : none of above

Q.no 44. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general network
model?

A : network layer

B : transport layer

C : session layer

D : data link layer

Q.no 45. MIME uses the same _______ format

A : RFC822

B : RFC 800

C : Ethernet

D : RFC 1521

Q.no 46. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is
numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one
segment?

A : 10000

B : 10001

C : 12001

D : 11001

Q.no 47. IPv6 does not support which of the following addressing modes?

A : unicast addressing

B : multicast addressing

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C : broadcast addressing

D : anycast addressing

Q.no 48. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?

A : traffic aware routing

B : admission control

C : load shedding

D : routing information protocol

Q.no 49. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 20 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are
needed.

A : less than 10

B : 19

C : 21

D : 20

Q.no 50. Which one of the following is correct?

A : Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a
communication session

B : HTTP is a session layer protocol

C : TCP is an application layer protocol

D : HTTP is a request and response protocol

Q.no 51. ______ is a communication protocol of the data link layer that is used to transmit
multiprotocol data between two directly connected computers.

A : Point - to - Point Protocol (PPP)

B : Internet Protocol

C : Transmission Control Protocol

D : Single Point - to - Multi Point Protocol (SPM)

Q.no 52. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps.
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 276 frames
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D : 151 frames

Q.no 53. In HDLC which frames are used only to transport control information?

A : S-Frames

B : I-Frames

C : V-frames

D : U-Frame

Q.no 54. Network congestion occurs _________

A : in case of traffic overloading

B : when a system terminates

C : when connection between two nodes terminates

D : in case of transfer failure

Q.no 55. ____ refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data
that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.

A : Flow control

B : Speed control

C : Error control

D : Data control

Q.no 56. Define the type of the following destination MAC address 4A:30:10:21:10:1A

A : IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA with collision detection protocol

B : Ethernet is not based on CSMA with collision detection protocol

C : CSMA with collision detection is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite
network

D : There is no contention in a CSMA with collision detection network

Q.no 57. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each
station can function as a primary and a secondary.

A : ARM

B : ABM

C : NBM

D : NRM

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Q.no 58. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers,
headers are ___________

A : Added

B : Removed

C : Rearranged

D : Modified

Q.no 59. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________

A : 161

B : 123

C : 162

D : 124

Q.no 60. What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?

A : Socket

B : IP Address

C : Protocol

D : MAC Address

Q.no 1. The correction of errors is _____ the detection.

A : more difficult than

B : easier

C : similar

D : None of the above

Q.no 2. Retransmission of packets must not be done when _______

A : Packet is lost

B : Packet is corrupted

C : Packet is needed

D : Packet is error-free

Q.no 3. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________

A : SMTP server

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B : SMTP client

C : Peer

D : Master

Q.no 4. Which of the following is an example of Personal Area Networking?

A : Bluetooth

B : WAN

C : WLAN

D : LAN

Q.no 5. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases
____________ until congestion is detected.

A : exponentially

B : additively

C : multiplicatively

D : suddenly

Q.no 6. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is
________

A : LAN

B : WAN

C : MAN

D : PAN

Q.no 7. What is the default port of HTTP?

A : 20

B : 101

C : 80

D : 60

Q.no 8. _____ protocol has no flow or error control.

A : simplex

B : complex

C : duplex
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D : half duplex

Q.no 9. In which method is used for large waiting time or backoff time

A : Bus

B : star

C : Ring

D : Mesh

Q.no 10. _____. Is the process of placing timestamps on dynamically registered records

A : Aging

B : IP

C : AIPAA

D : tcp

Q.no 11. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.

A : Packet switched

B : Circuit switched

C : Bit switched

D : Line switched

Q.no 12. MAC Address is the example of

A : Transport Layer

B : Data Link Layer

C : Application Layer

D : Physical Layer

Q.no 13. In pure Aloha what is maximum number of retransmission attempts if frame get
congested in the channel

A : Two half

B : One Half

C : Three half

D : Four half

Q.no 14. Header of datagram in IPv4 has _________

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A : 0 to 20 bytes

B : 20 to 40 bytes

C : 20 to 60 bytes

D : 20 to 80 bytes

Q.no 15. The term IPv4 stands for?

A : Internet Protocol Version 4

B : Internet Programming Version 4

C : International Programming Version 4

D : International Protocol Version 4

Q.no 16. CIDR stands for

A : Classless Inter-Domain Routing

B : Classless Intra-Domain Routing

C : Classful Inter-Domain Routing

D : Classful Intra-Domain Routing

Q.no 17. A simple protocol used for fetching email from a mail box is

A : POP3

B : IMAP

C : SMTP

D : POP2

Q.no 18. Physical or logical arrangement of network is ?

A : Topology

B : Routing

C : Networking

D : Control

Q.no 19. DHCP is the abbreviation of

A : Dynamic Host Control Protocol

B : Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

C : Dynamic Hyper Control Protocol

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D : Dynamic Hyper Configuration Protocol

Q.no 20. CSMA is based on the principle of

A : p persistent

B : nonpersistent

C : 1 persistent

D : Persistent

Q.no 21. DHCP ____ _______ occur every 60 minutes

A : Multicast Scope

B : Super Scope

C : Subnet Mask

D : Automatic Backups

Q.no 22. CSMA with collision avoidance method is used for

A : Contention window, negative Acknowledgment and Interframe space

B : Contention window, Acknowledgment and Interframe space

C : Negative Acknowledgment, Contention window, and Interframe space

D : Contention window, Positive Acknowledgment and IFR

Q.no 23. Radio channels are attractive medium because

A : Can penetrate walls

B : Connectivity can be given to mobile user

C : Can carry signals for long distance

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 24. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.

A : public-key cryptography

B : private-key cryptography

C : any of public-key or private-key

D : both public-key & private-key

Q.no 25. Most dial-up access to Internet is accomplished by using _____

A : TCP
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B : PPP

C : IP

D : IPX

Q.no 26. A wireless LAN defined by IEEE 802.11 has categories of frames which are those

A : 1000 bytes

B : 1200 bytes

C : 1300 bytes

D : 1500 bytes

Q.no 27. Which access method is used for the half duplex approach in fast ethernet

A : 4B/5B

B : NRZ-I

C : MLT-3

D : 8B/6T

Q.no 28. What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11g standard

A : 10 to 15 percent

B : 5 to 10 percent

C : 0 to 5 percent

D : 15 to 20 percent

Q.no 29. Which of this is not a guided media ?

A : Fiber optical cable

B : Coaxial cable

C : Wireless LAN

D : Copper wire

Q.no 30. In CSMA the Vulnerable time is

A : 38 percent

B : 36 percent

C : 34 percent

D : 37 percent
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Q.no 31. Where should we use default routing?

A : On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network

B : Which have more than one exit path out of the network

C : Minimum five exit paths out of the network

D : Maximum five exit paths out of the network

Q.no 32. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.

A : 331 – Username OK, password required

B : 425 – Can’t open data connection

C : 452 – Error writing file

D : 452 – Can’t open data connection

Q.no 33. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.

A : domain name system

B : routing information protocol

C : network time protocol

D : internet relay chat

Q.no 34. How many different type of server exist?

A : Only one

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 35. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________

A : Persistent

B : Non-persistent

C : Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request

D : P- Persistent

Q.no 36. Network layer at source is responsible for creating a packet from data coming from
another ________

A : Station

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B : Link

C : Node

D : Protocol

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a congestion policy at network layer?

A : Flow Control Policy

B : Packet Discard Policy

C : Packet Lifetime Management Policy

D : Routing Algorithm

Q.no 38. In the network HTTP resources are located by

A : uniform resource identifier

B : unique resource locator

C : unique resource identifier

D : union resource locator

Q.no 39. In byte stuffing (or character stuffing), a special byte known as _____ is added to the
data section of the frame when there is a character with the same pattern as the flag.

A : excuse character

B : entry character

C : exit character

D : escape character

Q.no 40. In sliding window protocol, the send window can slide one or more slots when valid
____ arrives.

A : bit

B : request

C : flag

D : acknowledgement

Q.no 41. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________

A : network layer

B : physical layer

C : data link layer

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D : transport layer

Q.no 42. In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class C
addresses is

A : 2 rest to 14

B : 2 rest to 7

C : 2 rest to 21

D : 2 rest to 24

Q.no 43. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is the total
length of the user datagram?

A : 24Bytes

B : 64Bytes

C : 28Bytes

D : 32 Bytes

Q.no 44. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________

transmission.

A : Automatic

B : Half-duplex

C : Full-duplex

D : Simplex

Q.no 45. The process of modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in
transit across a traffic routing device is called

A : Port address translation (PAT)

B : Network address translation (NAT)

C : Address mapping

D : Port mapping

Q.no 46. Each frame in HDLC protocol may contain up ___ fields

A:4

B:5

C:6

D:7
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Q.no 47. HDLC supports two types of transfer modes ________ and ________

A : normal response mode and abnormal response mode.

B : normal response mode and asynchronous balanced mode.

C : command mode and respond mode

D : synchronous balanced mode and asynchronous balanced mode.

Q.no 48. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the
_______Protocol.

A : Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

B : Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

C : Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

D : Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

Q.no 49. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to
receive data at B is ____________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 50. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there
is a character with the same pattern as the ______.

A : trailer

B : header

C : payload

D : flag

Q.no 51. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and
sound arrival of data.

A : Packet

B : Buffer

C : Segment

D : Acknowledgment

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Q.no 52. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200-bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the requirement to make this frame collision free

A : multicast address

B : Broadcast address

C : Unicast address

D : Anycast address

Q.no 53. In class C , if subnet mask is 255.255.255.224 then calculates number of subnet?

A:6

B:8

C:4

D : 10

Q.no 54. Which of the following routing protocol used for network layer design?

A : Static Routing Algorithm

B : Distance vector routing Protocol

C : Dynamic Routing Algorithm

D : Hybrid Routing Algorithm

Q.no 55. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are
accredited by _______

A : internet architecture board

B : internet society

C : internet research task force

D : internet corporation for assigned names and numbers

Q.no 56. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is _______

A : NTP

B : Echo

C : Server

D : Client

Q.no 57. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?

A : protocol for SMTP security

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B : an SMTP extension

C : protocol for faster mail transfer

D : protocol for web pages

Q.no 58. Which of the following is correct IPv4 address?

A : 124.201.3.1.52

B : 300.142.210.64

C : 10110011.32.16.8

D : 128.64.0.0

Q.no 59. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use
_________

A : internet relay chat

B : broader gateway protocol

C : address resolution protocol

D : Internet Address Chat

Q.no 60. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive
data at B is _________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 1. In Slotted Aloha, the vulnerable time is reduced to ______ equal to the frame
transmission time

A : Pure Aloha

B : Slotted Aloha

C : CSMA

D : FDMA

Q.no 2. DNS is the abbreviation of

A : Dynamic Name System

B : Dynamic Network System

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C : Domain Name System

D : Domain Network Service

Q.no 3. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for

A : Finding the IP address from the DNS

B : Finding the IP address of the default gateway

C : Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address

D : Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address

Q.no 4. OSPF stands for

A : Open short distance protocol

B : on demand sequence protocol

C : Open shortest path first

D : Open sequence protocol first

Q.no 5. TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are examples of ___________

A : Socket

B : IP Address

C : Protocol

D : MAC Address

Q.no 6. Which networking device connect one LAN to other LAN using same protocol?

A : Router

B : Switch

C : Bridge

D : Modem

Q.no 7. which Displays entries in DNS cache

A : ipconfig /displaydns

B : ipconfig /flushdns

C : Normal DHCP Scope

D : ipconfig /registerdns

Q.no 8. A _________ set of rules that governs data communication.

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A : Protocols

B : Standards

C : RFCs

D : Servers

Q.no 9. HDLC protocol resides in ____ layer

A : Data Link Layer

B : Application Layer

C : Transport Layer

D : Network Layer

Q.no 10. In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames.

A : standard

B : fixed-size

C : variable-size

D : character

Q.no 11. MPLS stands for

A : Multiprotocol Label Switching

B : Multiple links

C : Mobile protocol links

D : Multiple layer switching

Q.no 12. WAN stands for __________

A : World area network

B : Wide area network

C : Web area network

D : Web access network

Q.no 13. In pure Aloha, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time

A : 10

B : 15

C : 16
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D : 17

Q.no 14. Protocols are set of rules to govern _________

A : Communication

B : Standard

C : Metropolitian communication

D : Bandwidth

Q.no 15. The client in socket programming must know which information?

A : IP address of Server

B : Port number

C : Both IP address of Server & Port number

D : Only its own IP address

Q.no 16. Which topology used by CSMA with collision detection

A : MAC address

B : IP address

C : port address

D : specific address

Q.no 17. Which one of the following is TRUE about interior Gateway routing protocols -
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

A : RIP uses distance vector routing and OSPF uses link state routing

B : OSPF uses distance vector routing and RIP uses link state routing

C : Both RIP and OSPF use link state routing

D : Both RIP and OSPF use distance vector routing

Q.no 18. Application layer protocol defines ____________

A : types of messages exchanged

B : message unformatted

C : Message Request and Response

D : Message Syntax and Sementics

Q.no 19. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?

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A : simple mail transfer protocol

B : post office protocol

C : internet mail access protocol

D : hypertext transfer protocol

Q.no 20. Which network topology requires a central controller or hub?

A : Mesh

B : Star

C : Ring

D : Bus

Q.no 21. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases __________
until it reaches a threshold.

A : exponentially

B : additively

C : multiplicatively

D : suddenly

Q.no 22. Which protocol gives a full route table update every 30 seconds?

A : IEGRP

B : RIP

C : ICMP

D : IP

Q.no 23. In FTP protocol, a client contacts a server using ______ as the transport protocol.

A : Transmission control protocol

B : User datagram protocol

C : Datagram congestion control protocol

D : Stream control transmission protocol

Q.no 24. Which classes are used for connection-less socket programming?

A : Datagram Socket

B : Datagram Packet

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C : Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet

D : Server Socket

Q.no 25. Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model?

A : Appliation layer

B : Transport layer

C : Network layer

D : Datalink layer

Q.no 26. _____ Sets an alias for a host name

A : DNS Event Logging tab

B : DNS Debug Logging tab

C : DNS CNAME (canonical name)

D : DNS Event and Debug tab

Q.no 27. In HDLC which frames are used to transport user data and control information
relating to user data (piggybacking)?

A : S-Frames

B : I-Frames

C : V-frames

D : U-Frame

Q.no 28. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN called,_______ which covers
the physical and data link layers

A : 550 m

B : 25 m

C : 5000 m

D : 100 m

Q.no 29. In ___ protocol, if no acknowledgement for the sent frame has arrived to the sender,
it resends all the oustanding frames.

A : stop and wait

B : go-Back-N ARQ

C : simplest

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D : selective repeat ARQ

Q.no 30. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________

A : sliding window

B : sliding frame

C : sliding packet

D : sliding door

Q.no 31. In gigabit ethernet three or more stations are connected by

A : 2.4 GHz

B : 5 GHz

C : 2.4 Gbps

D : 5 Gbps

Q.no 32. In IPv4 layer, datagram is of ________

A : Fixed length

B : Variable length

C : Global length

D : Zero length

Q.no 33. The data link layer at the receiver site receives a frame from its ____ layer, extracts
data from the frame, and delivers the data to its _____ layer.

A : physical, network

B : physical, Transport

C : Application, network

D : Transport, network

Q.no 34. What is the meaning of Bandwidth in Network?

A : Transmission capacity of a communication channels

B : Connected Computers in the Network

C : Class of IP used in Network

D : Bit per Seconds

Q.no 35. In version field of IPv4 header, when machine is using some other version of IPv4
then datagram is __________
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A : Discarded

B : Accepted

C : Interpreted

D : Interpreted incorrectly

Q.no 36. Which of the following address belongs class A?

A : 121.12.12.248

B : 130.12.12.248

C : 128.12.12.248

D : 129.12.12.248

Q.no 37. ICMP is primarily used for __________

A : error and diagnostic functions

B : addressing

C : forwarding

D : routing

Q.no 38. Error control in the data link layer is based on_______

A : hamming code

B : parity generator

C : retransmission of data

D : data duplication

Q.no 39. Suppose computers A and B have IP addresses 10.105.1.113 and 10.105.1.91
respectively and they both use the same netmask N. Which of the values of N given below
should not be used if A and B should belong to the same network?

A : 255.255.255.0

B : 255.255.255.128

C : 255.255.255.192

D : 255.255.255.224

Q.no 40. What is minimum and maximum payload length of 802.3 frame is

A : p persistent CSMA with collision avoidance

B : Non persistent CSMA with collision detection

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C : 1 persistent CSMA with collision detection

D : Aloha

Q.no 41. Define the type of the following destination MAC address 4A:30:10:21:10:1A

A : IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA with collision detection protocol

B : Ethernet is not based on CSMA with collision detection protocol

C : CSMA with collision detection is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite
network

D : There is no contention in a CSMA with collision detection network

Q.no 42. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 250 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 49 frames

D : 151 frames

Q.no 43. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?

A : traffic aware routing

B : admission control

C : load shedding

D : routing information protocol

Q.no 44. In PPP, the default maximum length of the information field is ________

A : 1500 bytes

B : 15000 bytes

C : 150 bytes

D : 15 bytes

Q.no 45. Three types of HDLC frames are :

A : Data frames, Supervisory frames, Un-numbered frames

B : Information frames, Supervisory frames, Un-numbered frames

C : Information frames, Supervisory frames, Numbered frames

D : Information frames, Controlled frames, Numbered frames

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Q.no 46. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client,
then it is called _________

A : computer network

B : distributed system

C : networking system

D : mail system

Q.no 47. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps.
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 276 frames

D : 151 frames

Q.no 48. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general network
model?

A : network layer

B : transport layer

C : session layer

D : data link layer

Q.no 49. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is
numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one
segment?

A : 10000

B : 10001

C : 12001

D : 11001

Q.no 50. Simplex protocol of Data Link Layer works on ____ channels

A : noiseless

B : broadband

C : noisy

D : creative

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Q.no 51. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

A : base 64 encoding

B : base 32 encoding

C : base 16 encoding

D : base 8 encoding

Q.no 52. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?

A : UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length

B : UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length

C : UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length

D : UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length

Q.no 53. MIME uses the same _______ format

A : RFC822

B : RFC 800

C : Ethernet

D : RFC 1521

Q.no 54. In Asynchronous Balanced Mode (ABM) of HDLC protocol ____

A : each station can send both commands and respond to commands

B : each station can send commands but not respond to commands

C : each station can send either command or respond to commands but not both

D : Station does not send command and responses

Q.no 55. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to
another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?

A : HTTP

B : FTP

C : Telnet

D : TCP

Q.no 56. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is source
port number.

A : 000D
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B : CB84

C : 001C

D : 001D

Q.no 57. For which one of the following reasons does Internet Protocol (IP) use the timeto-
live (TTL) field in the IP datagram header

A : Ensure packets reach destination within that time

B : Discard packets that reach later than that time

C : prevent packets from looping indefinitily

D : Limit the time for which the packet gets queued in intermediate routers

Q.no 58. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending
that each of them is coming from a different client by faking the source IP address in the
datagram. Which type of attack is being performed in this situation?

A : SYNC flooding attack

B : Active attack

C : Passive attack

D : Denial-of-service attack

Q.no 59. _______ is responsible for tunneling multicast packets to the Mobile Station’s
currently subscribed FA.

A : Multicast home agent

B : Mobile multicast

C : Mobile station

D : Base station

Q.no 60. _____ is a bit oriented protocol for communication over point to point and
multipoint links.

A : High level Data link Control (HDLC)

B : Highest level Data link Control (HDLC)

C : Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

D : Domain Name Server (DNS) Protocol

Q.no 1. Which network is able to connect to each computer through a common central line?

A : Bus

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B : Star

C : router

D : WAN

Q.no 2. How many layers are in the TCP/IP model?

A : 4 layers

B : 5 layers

C : 6 layers

D : 7 layers

Q.no 3. An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server.

A : IP address

B : MAC address

C : URL

D : Name

Q.no 4. In Bluetooth architecture of a piconet can have up to _______ stations

A : 802.3

B : 802.11

C : 802.15

D : 802.16

Q.no 5. The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate
upstream node or nodes is called as _______

A : Admission policy

B : Backpressure

C : Forward signaling

D : Backward signaling

Q.no 6. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by the sender
is referred to as ___________

A : Flow control

B : Error control

C : Congestion control
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D : Error detection

Q.no 7. Name server designated as the recipient of forwarded queries is known as _____

A : Class B

B : Class c

C : Forwarder

D : Class D

Q.no 8. Which protocol provides the synchronization between media streams?

A : RTP

B : RTCP

C : RPC

D : RTCT

Q.no 9. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?

A : Connection-oriented

B : Process-to-process

C : Transport layer protocol

D : Unreliable

Q.no 10. Ipv6 is how many bits long

A : 32

B : 48

C : 128

D : 16

Q.no 11. In a bit-oriented protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of ___

A : bits

B : byes

C : megabytes

D : megabits

Q.no 12. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as _______

A : Stream of bytes
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B : Sequence of characters

C : Lines of data

D : Packets

Q.no 13. IEEE created Fast Ethernet under the name ______

A : 10Base 5

B : 10Base 2

C : 10Base T

D : 10Base F

Q.no 14. In virtual circuit network each packet contains ___________

A : full source and destination address

B : a short VCI number

C : only source address

D : only destination address

Q.no 15. ICMP stands for

A : Internet Control Message Protocol

B : Internet Control Management Protocol

C : Internal Control Manage Protocol

D : Internet Count Management Protocol

Q.no 16. What is the header size of a UDP packet?

A : 8 bytes

B : 8 bits

C : 16 bytes

D : 124 bytes

Q.no 17. In which method is used for large waiting time or backoff time

A : Bus

B : star

C : Ring

D : Mesh
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Q.no 18. IEEE created Gigabit Ethernet under the name ______

A : Four

B : Eight

C : Six

D : Seven

Q.no 19. UTP Cable is used by____

A : 802.3 z

B : 802.3

C : 802.3 u

D : 802.11

Q.no 20. ___ codes are created to correct errors

A : bar

B : uni

C : cyclic

D : hash

Q.no 21. Which Strategies used by CSMA with collision avoidance

A : 1500 bytes , 46 bytes

B : 46 bytes, 1500 bytes

C : 64 bytes, 1518 bytes

D : 512 bits, 12144 bytes

Q.no 22. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.

A : IP address

B : MAC Address

C : Port Address

D : Physical Address

Q.no 23. Router operates in which layer of OSI Reference Model?

A : Layer 1 (Physical Layer)

B : Layer 3 (Network Layer)

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C : Layer 4 (Transport Layer)

D : Layer 7 (Application Layer)

Q.no 24. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?

A : Flow control

B : Three-Way Handshaking

C : Forwarding

D : Synchronization

Q.no 25. Which LAN Protocols are designed for Fast Ethernet to compete

A : Bus and Ring

B : Bus and Star

C : Ring and Tree

D : Ring and Mesh

Q.no 26. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in __________

A : stream mode

B : block mode

C : compressed mode

D : message mode

Q.no 27. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

A : routing

B : inter-networking

C : congestion control

D : error control

Q.no 28. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?

A : media gateway protocol

B : dynamic host configuration protocol

C : resource reservation protocol

D : session initiation protocol

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Q.no 29. _____ is the multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier
frequency.

A : FDM

B : TDM

C : Both FDM & TDM

D : PDM

Q.no 30. The size of flag field in HDLC frame is ________

A : 8 bits

B : 4 bits

C : 2 bits

D : 9 bits

Q.no 31. Point to Point protocol is ____ oriented

A : bit

B : byte

C : gigabyte

D : megabyte

Q.no 32. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________

A : TSN

B : SI

C : SSN

D : GSN

Q.no 33. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an
active open is ___________

A : Mutual open

B : Mutual Close

C : Simultaneous open

D : Simultaneous close

Q.no 34. An internet is a __________

A : Collection of WANS
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B : Network of networks

C : Collection of LANS

D : Collection of identical LANS and WANS

Q.no 35. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its frame
immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line until it finds it idle

A : nonpersistent

B : Pure Aloha

C : CSMA with collision detection

D : CSMA with collision avoidance

Q.no 36. In Fast Ethernet 100Base TX use ------------Line coding technique

A : Management frames, Control frames and Data frames.

B : Supervisory Frame, Information frame and data frame

C : Management frames,Supervisory frame and control frame

D : Supervisory Frame, Information frame and Control frame

Q.no 37. Bit stuffing means adding extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a
sequence of bits with the same pattern as the _____

A : header

B : trailer

C : payload

D : flag

Q.no 38. Communication offered by TCP is ________

A : Full-duplex

B : Half-duplex

C : Semi-duplex

D : Byte by byte

Q.no 39. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.

A : 66

B : 67

C : 68
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D : 69

Q.no 40. Discarding policy is mainly done by _______

A : Sender

B : Receiver

C : Router

D : Switch

Q.no 41. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each
station can function as a primary and a secondary.

A : ARM

B : ABM

C : NBM

D : NRM

Q.no 42. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the
_______Protocol.

A : Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

B : Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

C : Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

D : Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

Q.no 43. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?

A : protocol for SMTP security

B : an SMTP extension

C : protocol for faster mail transfer

D : protocol for web pages

Q.no 44. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 20 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are
needed.

A : less than 10

B : 19

C : 21

D : 20

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Q.no 45. In HTTP pipelining ________________

A : multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the
corresponding responses

B : multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection

C : multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection

D : multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection

Q.no 46. In wireless network most of the energy is lost during transmission. How many
percentage of additional energy is added if there is collision

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

Q.no 47. a character-oriented approach and a bit-oriented approaches used in which type of
framing?

A : fixed size

B : zero size

C : variable-size

D : cells

Q.no 48. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with a
200 kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000
frames per second

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

Q.no 49. Peer-to-peer processes are processes on two or more devices communicating at a

A : same layer

B : different layer

C : different layer on different device

D : none of above

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Q.no 50. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______

A : Routing and switching

B : Sending and receiving of packets

C : Multiplexing and demultiplexing

D : Demultiplexing and error checking

Q.no 51. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station
and multiple secondary stations.

A : ARM

B : NBM

C : NRM

D : ABM

Q.no 52. What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?

A : Socket

B : IP Address

C : Protocol

D : MAC Address

Q.no 53. Network congestion occurs _________

A : in case of traffic overloading

B : when a system terminates

C : when connection between two nodes terminates

D : in case of transfer failure

Q.no 54. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to
receive data at B is ____________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 55. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________

A : network layer
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B : physical layer

C : data link layer

D : transport layer

Q.no 56. Which of the following routing protocol used for network layer design?

A : Static Routing Algorithm

B : Distance vector routing Protocol

C : Dynamic Routing Algorithm

D : Hybrid Routing Algorithm

Q.no 57. Each frame in HDLC protocol may contain up ___ fields

A:4

B:5

C:6

D:7

Q.no 58. ____ refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data
that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.

A : Flow control

B : Speed control

C : Error control

D : Data control

Q.no 59. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there
is a character with the same pattern as the ______.

A : trailer

B : header

C : payload

D : flag

Q.no 60. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP message

A : Request line

B : Header line

C : Status line
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D : Entity body

Q.no 1. MPLS stands for

A : Multiprotocol Label Switching

B : Multiple links

C : Mobile protocol links

D : Multiple layer switching

Q.no 2. Protocols are set of rules to govern _________

A : Communication

B : Standard

C : Metropolitian communication

D : Bandwidth

Q.no 3. In Slotted Aloha, the vulnerable time is reduced to ______ equal to the frame
transmission time

A : Pure Aloha

B : Slotted Aloha

C : CSMA

D : FDMA

Q.no 4. WiMAX stands for ___________

A : Data Link

B : Network

C : Physical

D : Transport

Q.no 5. Which methods are commonly used in Server Socket class?

A : Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()

B : Public Socket accept ()

C : Public synchronized void close ()

D : Public void connect ()

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on
IP network?
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A : dynamic host configuration protocol

B : simple network management protocol

C : internet message access protocol

D : media gateway protocol

Q.no 7. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is
________

A : LAN

B : WAN

C : MAN

D : PAN

Q.no 8. A simple protocol used for fetching email from a mail box is

A : POP3

B : IMAP

C : SMTP

D : POP2

Q.no 9. The network layer protocol for internet is __________

A : ethernet

B : Internet protocol

C : hypertext transfer protocol

D : file transfer protocol

Q.no 10. Hardware address is known as _________

A : wireless maximum communication

B : worldwide interoperability for microwave access

C : worldwide international standard for microwave access

D : wireless internet maximum communication

Q.no 11. _______ topology requires a multipoint connection.

A : Star

B : Mesh

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C : Ring

D : Bus

Q.no 12. The Maximum throughput for pure aloha is____ percent

A : CSMA with collision detection

B : CSMA with collision avoidance

C : Pure Aloha

D : Slotted Aloha

Q.no 13. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific
______ can access the network.

A : MAC Address

B : IP Address

C : MAC and IP address

D : MAC or IP address

Q.no 14. Which type of network is used for small geographical area such as in a one building?

A : WLAN

B : MAN

C : LAN

D : WAN

Q.no 15. In Active mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.

A : true

B : false

C : None

D : Can not predict

Q.no 16. The IEEE standard used for wimax technology is

A : 12.2

B : 18.4

C : 36.8

D : 13.5

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Q.no 17. Which one of the following is TRUE about interior Gateway routing protocols -
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

A : RIP uses distance vector routing and OSPF uses link state routing

B : OSPF uses distance vector routing and RIP uses link state routing

C : Both RIP and OSPF use link state routing

D : Both RIP and OSPF use distance vector routing

Q.no 18. To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented

A : MAC address

B : IP address

C : port address

D : specific address

Q.no 19. The correction of errors is _____ the detection.

A : more difficult than

B : easier

C : similar

D : None of the above

Q.no 20. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is

Destination port number.

A : 000D

B : CB84

C : 001C

D : 001D

Q.no 21. In Stop-And-Wait ARQ, sequence numbers are based on ____ arithmatic.

A : modulo-2

B : modulo-4

C : modulo-8

D : modulo-n

Q.no 22. The Maximum length of 1000BaseSX is

A : Ring topology
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B : Bus topology

C : Star topology

D : Mesh topology

Q.no 23. The DHCP server _________

A : maintains a database of available IP addresses

B : maintains the information about client configuration parameters

C : grants a IP address when receives a request from a client

D : Maintains a database of IP address, information about client configuration and grrants IP

address

Q.no 24. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________

A : Seconds

B : Frames

C : Packets

D : Bits

Q.no 25. In Stop-and-WaitARQ~the acknowledgment number always announces in

_____ arithmetic the sequence number ofthe next frame expected

A : modulo-2

B : modulo-4

C : modulo-8

D : modulo-n

Q.no 26. To detect or correct errors, we need to send _____ with data.

A : extra (redundant) bits

B : error bits

C : hamming distance

D : hash keys

Q.no 27. Which of the following network device has the slowest type of connection?

A : DSL

B : Router

C : Bridges
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D : Dial-up modems

Q.no 28. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP
IP model?

A : Application layer

B : Presentation layer

C : Session layer

D : Session and Presentation layer

Q.no 29. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.

A : 331 – Username OK, password required

B : 425 – Can’t open data connection

C : 452 – Error writing file

D : 452 – Can’t open data connection

Q.no 30. The meaning of Straight-through Cable is

A : Four wire pairs connect to the same pin on each end

B : The cable Which Directly connects Computer to Computer

C : Four wire pairs not twisted with each other

D : The cable which is not twisted

Q.no 31. The data link layer pack bits into ____.

A : segments

B : clusters

C : packets

D : frames

Q.no 32. In CSMA with collision detection the energy level of channel can have three values:
Normal , Zero, and abnormal which of the following is correct sequence

A : Wired network

B : Wireless Network

C : Wired and Wireless Network

D : Client Server Network

Q.no 33. Which of the following fields in IPV4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?
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A : Type of service

B : Fragment offset

C : Flags

D : Identification

Q.no 34. What is the size of MAC Address?

A : 16-bits

B : 32-bits

C : 48-bits

D : 64-bits

Q.no 35. Which of following provides reliable communication?

A : TCP

B : IP

C : UDP

D : All of the above

Q.no 36. The ______ field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram.

A : udp header

B : checksum

C : source port

D : destination port

Q.no 37. The data link layer at the receiver site receives a frame from its ____ layer, extracts
data from the frame, and delivers the data to its _____ layer.

A : physical, network

B : physical, Transport

C : Application, network

D : Transport, network

Q.no 38. Error control in the data link layer is based on_______

A : hamming code

B : parity generator

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C : retransmission of data

D : data duplication

Q.no 39. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.

A : 66

B : 67

C : 68

D : 69

Q.no 40. A place where there is a field of signal through which you can access WiFi internet is
called –

A : WiFi Hotspots

B : WiFi Internet

C : WiFi Zone

D : WiFi Range

Q.no 41. In class C , if subnet mask is 255.255.255.224 then calculates number of subnet?

A:6

B:8

C:4

D : 10

Q.no 42. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers,
headers are ___________

A : Added

B : Removed

C : Rearranged

D : Modified

Q.no 43. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________

A : only network address

B : only host address

C : network address & host address

D : network address & MAC address

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Q.no 44. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client,
then it is called _________

A : computer network

B : distributed system

C : networking system

D : mail system

Q.no 45. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?

A : UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length

B : UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length

C : UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length

D : UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length

Q.no 46. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring, and
terminating links.

A : PAP

B : CHAP

C : SAP

D : LCP

Q.no 47. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

A : base 64 encoding

B : base 32 encoding

C : base 16 encoding

D : base 8 encoding

Q.no 48. _______ is responsible for tunneling multicast packets to the Mobile Station’s
currently subscribed FA.

A : Multicast home agent

B : Mobile multicast

C : Mobile station

D : Base station

Q.no 49. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________

transmission.
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A : Automatic

B : Half-duplex

C : Full-duplex

D : Simplex

Q.no 50. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 250 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 49 frames

D : 151 frames

Q.no 51. Which one of the following is correct?

A : Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a
communication session

B : HTTP is a session layer protocol

C : TCP is an application layer protocol

D : HTTP is a request and response protocol

Q.no 52. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port
on the server.

A : User datagram protocol

B : Transmission control protocol

C : Border gateway protocol

D : Domain host control protocol

Q.no 53. In Asynchronous Balanced Mode (ABM) of HDLC protocol ____

A : each station can send both commands and respond to commands

B : each station can send commands but not respond to commands

C : each station can send either command or respond to commands but not both

D : Station does not send command and responses

Q.no 54. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to
another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?

A : HTTP
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B : FTP

C : Telnet

D : TCP

Q.no 55. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending
that each of them is coming from a different client by faking the source IP address in the
datagram. Which type of attack is being performed in this situation?

A : SYNC flooding attack

B : Active attack

C : Passive attack

D : Denial-of-service attack

Q.no 56. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are
accredited by _______

A : internet architecture board

B : internet society

C : internet research task force

D : internet corporation for assigned names and numbers

Q.no 57. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________

A : 161

B : 123

C : 162

D : 124

Q.no 58. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for
______ channels.

A : signal

B : wireless

C : noisy

D : noiseless

Q.no 59. MIME uses the same _______ format

A : RFC822

B : RFC 800
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C : Ethernet

D : RFC 1521

Q.no 60. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is
numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one
segment?

A : 10000

B : 10001

C : 12001

D : 11001

Q.no 1. Retransmission of packets must not be done when _______

A : Packet is lost

B : Packet is corrupted

C : Packet is needed

D : Packet is error-free

Q.no 2. UTP Cable is used by____

A : 802.3 z

B : 802.3

C : 802.3 u

D : 802.11

Q.no 3. A ___ error means that 2 or more bits in the data unit have changed.

A : unibit

B : burst

C : channel

D : noisy

Q.no 4. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________

A : HTTP protocol

B : FTP protocol

C : SMTP protocol

D : TCP protocol
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Q.no 5. ______is used in dealing with error detection and error correction

A : Samming distance

B : Hamming distance

C : Tamming distance

D : Spamming distance

Q.no 6. IEEE created Fast Ethernet under the name ______

A : 10Base 5

B : 10Base 2

C : 10Base T

D : 10Base F

Q.no 7. The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate
upstream node or nodes is called as _______

A : Admission policy

B : Backpressure

C : Forward signaling

D : Backward signaling

Q.no 8. Which Method can be used for to reduce the collision but canot eliminate it

A : Listen before talk

B : Listen after talk

C : Sense after transmit

D : Sense before talk

Q.no 9. In which method is used for large waiting time or backoff time

A : Bus

B : star

C : Ring

D : Mesh

Q.no 10. In pure Aloha, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time

A : 10

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B : 15

C : 16

D : 17

Q.no 11. _____ protocol has no flow or error control.

A : simplex

B : complex

C : duplex

D : half duplex

Q.no 12. The ___________layer of ethernet consist of LLC sublayer and MAC sublayer

A : Maximum Propagation time Tp

B : Transmission time

C : Back off Time

D : Wait time out time

Q.no 13. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new_____________protocol.

A : reliable, character-oriented

B : reliable, message-oriented

C : unreliable, message-oriented

D : unreliable, byte-oriented

Q.no 14. In Bluetooth architecture of a piconet can have up to _______ stations

A : 802.3

B : 802.11

C : 802.15

D : 802.16

Q.no 15. FTP server listens for connection on port number _________

A : 20

B : 21

C : 22

D : 23
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Q.no 16. RTP provides the facility of jitter ____________

A : media stream

B : expansion

C : media modification

D : security

Q.no 17. Which network is able to connect to each computer through a common central line?

A : Bus

B : Star

C : router

D : WAN

Q.no 18. WAN stands for __________

A : World area network

B : Wide area network

C : Web area network

D : Web access network

Q.no 19. Header of datagram in IPv4 has _________

A : 0 to 20 bytes

B : 20 to 40 bytes

C : 20 to 60 bytes

D : 20 to 80 bytes

Q.no 20. ____ protocol has neither flow control nor error control

A : stop and wait

B : simplest

C : easiest

D : ARQ

Q.no 21. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the packet times out, several packets have
to be resent even some may have arrived safe. Whereas in Selective Repeat window, the
sender resends ___________

A : Packet which are not lost

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B : Only those packets which are lost or corrupted

C : Packet from starting

D : All the packets

Q.no 22. _____ is the multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier
frequency.

A : FDM

B : TDM

C : Both FDM & TDM

D : PDM

Q.no 23. A wireless LAN defined by IEEE 802.11 has categories of frames which are those

A : 1000 bytes

B : 1200 bytes

C : 1300 bytes

D : 1500 bytes

Q.no 24. In ___ protocol, if no acknowledgement for the sent frame has arrived to the sender,
it resends all the oustanding frames.

A : stop and wait

B : go-Back-N ARQ

C : simplest

D : selective repeat ARQ

Q.no 25. Which network is able to connect and send data to each computer via central hub or
switch without looking where the data is sent?

A : Star

B : Router

C : Bus

D : LAN

Q.no 26. ICMP is primarily used for __________

A : error and diagnostic functions

B : addressing

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C : forwarding

D : routing

Q.no 27. framing, flow and error control are the functionalities of ______

A : Physical layer

B : data link layer

C : network layer

D : Transport layer

Q.no 28. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.

A : public-key cryptography

B : private-key cryptography

C : any of public-key or private-key

D : both public-key & private-key

Q.no 29. What is routing algorithm used by OSPF routing protocol?

A : Distance vector

B : Flooding

C : Path vector

D : Link state

Q.no 30. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.

A : IP address

B : MAC Address

C : Port Address

D : Physical Address

Q.no 31. The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.

A : Bits

B : Frames

C : Packets

D : Bytes

Q.no 32. MANET stands for

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A : Wireless ad hoc network

B : Mobile ad hoc network

C : Multiple ad hoc network

D : Multi advance network

Q.no 33. A proxy server is used as the computer?

A : with external access

B : acting as a backup

C : performing file handling

D : accessing user permissions

Q.no 34. CSMA with collision avoidance method is used for

A : Contention window, negative Acknowledgment and Interframe space

B : Contention window, Acknowledgment and Interframe space

C : Negative Acknowledgment, Contention window, and Interframe space

D : Contention window, Positive Acknowledgment and IFR

Q.no 35. In the network HTTP resources are located by

A : uniform resource identifier

B : unique resource locator

C : unique resource identifier

D : union resource locator

Q.no 36. What is the frequency range of IEEE 802.11a standard

A : 6Mbps

B : 11Mbps

C : 22Mbps

D : 54Mbps

Q.no 37. Which protocol defines a profile of RTP that provides cryptographic services for the
transfer of payload data?

A : SRTP

B : RTCP

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C : RCP

D : RTCT

Q.no 38. In _________ systems, resources are allocated on demand.

A : packet switching

B : circuit switching

C : line switching

D : frequency switching

Q.no 39. In FTP protocol, a client contacts a server using ______ as the transport protocol.

A : Transmission control protocol

B : User datagram protocol

C : Datagram congestion control protocol

D : Stream control transmission protocol

Q.no 40. Which layer of the OSI model are host-to-host layer?

A : Physical layer

B : Network layer

C : Datalink layer

D : Physical, Datalink, Network, Transport

Q.no 41. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to
receive data at B is ____________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 42. Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA with collision detection

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

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Q.no 43. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and
sound arrival of data.

A : Packet

B : Buffer

C : Segment

D : Acknowledgment

Q.no 44. In HDLC which frames are used only to transport control information?

A : S-Frames

B : I-Frames

C : V-frames

D : U-Frame

Q.no 45. What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?

A : Socket

B : IP Address

C : Protocol

D : MAC Address

Q.no 46. _____ is a bit oriented protocol for communication over point to point and
multipoint links.

A : High level Data link Control (HDLC)

B : Highest level Data link Control (HDLC)

C : Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

D : Domain Name Server (DNS) Protocol

Q.no 47. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________

A : network layer

B : physical layer

C : data link layer

D : transport layer

Q.no 48. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general network
model?

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A : network layer

B : transport layer

C : session layer

D : data link layer

Q.no 49. Which of the following routing protocol used for network layer design?

A : Static Routing Algorithm

B : Distance vector routing Protocol

C : Dynamic Routing Algorithm

D : Hybrid Routing Algorithm

Q.no 50. In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class C
addresses is

A : 2 rest to 14

B : 2 rest to 7

C : 2 rest to 21

D : 2 rest to 24

Q.no 51. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use
_________

A : internet relay chat

B : broader gateway protocol

C : address resolution protocol

D : Internet Address Chat

Q.no 52. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 500 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 276 frames

D : 151 frames

Q.no 53. ______ is a communication protocol of the data link layer that is used to transmit
multiprotocol data between two directly connected computers.

A : Point - to - Point Protocol (PPP)

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B : Internet Protocol

C : Transmission Control Protocol

D : Single Point - to - Multi Point Protocol (SPM)

Q.no 54. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is the total
length of the user datagram?

A : 24Bytes

B : 64Bytes

C : 28Bytes

D : 32 Bytes

Q.no 55. The process of modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in
transit across a traffic routing device is called

A : Port address translation (PAT)

B : Network address translation (NAT)

C : Address mapping

D : Port mapping

Q.no 56. IPv6 does not support which of the following addressing modes?

A : unicast addressing

B : multicast addressing

C : broadcast addressing

D : anycast addressing

Q.no 57. Each frame in HDLC protocol may contain up ___ fields

A:4

B:5

C:6

D:7

Q.no 58. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is _______

A : NTP

B : Echo

C : Server
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D : Client

Q.no 59. Peer-to-peer processes are processes on two or more devices communicating at a

A : same layer

B : different layer

C : different layer on different device

D : none of above

Q.no 60. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?

A : traffic aware routing

B : admission control

C : load shedding

D : routing information protocol

Q.no 1. The protocol which is used for defining the legal request and replies is called ______ .

A : FTP

B : SMTP

C : TCP

D : HTTP

Q.no 2. How many layers does OSI Reference Model has?

A:4

B:5

C:6

D:7

Q.no 3. MPLS stands for

A : Multiprotocol Label Switching

B : Multiple links

C : Mobile protocol links

D : Multiple layer switching

Q.no 4. Hardware address is known as _________

A : wireless maximum communication

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B : worldwide interoperability for microwave access

C : worldwide international standard for microwave access

D : wireless internet maximum communication

Q.no 5. Which methods are commonly used in Server Socket class?

A : Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()

B : Public Socket accept ()

C : Public synchronized void close ()

D : Public void connect ()

Q.no 6. Which networking device connect one LAN to other LAN using same protocol?

A : Router

B : Switch

C : Bridge

D : Modem

Q.no 7. How many versions available of IP?

A : 6 version

B : 4 version

C : 2 version

D : 1 version

Q.no 8. Which network topology requires a central controller or hub?

A : Mesh

B : Star

C : Ring

D : Bus

Q.no 9. DHCP is the abbreviation of

A : Dynamic Host Control Protocol

B : Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

C : Dynamic Hyper Control Protocol

D : Dynamic Hyper Configuration Protocol

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Q.no 10. AODV stands for

A : Ad hoc On-Demand Distance Vector

B : Advance ondemand distance vector

C : Advance on distance vector

D : All of these

Q.no 11. In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames.

A : standard

B : fixed-size

C : variable-size

D : character

Q.no 12. HDLC protocol resides in ____ layer

A : Data Link Layer

B : Application Layer

C : Transport Layer

D : Network Layer

Q.no 13. The Maximum throughput for pure aloha is____ percent

A : CSMA with collision detection

B : CSMA with collision avoidance

C : Pure Aloha

D : Slotted Aloha

Q.no 14. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________

A : SMTP server

B : SMTP client

C : Peer

D : Master

Q.no 15. _______ topology requires a multipoint connection.

A : Star

B : Mesh
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C : Ring

D : Bus

Q.no 16. Which protocol provides the synchronization between media streams?

A : RTP

B : RTCP

C : RPC

D : RTCT

Q.no 17. Data communication system within a building or campus is________

A : LAN

B : WAN

C : MAN

D : PAN

Q.no 18. DNS is the abbreviation of

A : Dynamic Name System

B : Dynamic Network System

C : Domain Name System

D : Domain Network Service

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not the Networking Devices?

A : Gateways

B : Linux

C : Routers

D : Firewalls

Q.no 20. ___ codes are created to correct errors

A : bar

B : uni

C : cyclic

D : hash

Q.no 21. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________

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A : sliding window

B : sliding frame

C : sliding packet

D : sliding door

Q.no 22. Discarding policy is mainly done by _______

A : Sender

B : Receiver

C : Router

D : Switch

Q.no 23. The DHCP server _________

A : maintains a database of available IP addresses

B : maintains the information about client configuration parameters

C : grants a IP address when receives a request from a client

D : Maintains a database of IP address, information about client configuration and grrants IP

address

Q.no 24. Router operates in which layer of OSI Reference Model?

A : Layer 1 (Physical Layer)

B : Layer 3 (Network Layer)

C : Layer 4 (Transport Layer)

D : Layer 7 (Application Layer)

Q.no 25. What is DHCP snooping?

A : techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure

B : algorithm for DHCP

C : encryption of the DHCP server requests

D : decryption of the DHCP server requests

Q.no 26. What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?

A : Packet switching and Line switching

B : Circuit switching and Line switching

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C : Line switching and bit switching

D : Packet switching and Circuit switching

Q.no 27. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?

A : Flow control

B : Three-Way Handshaking

C : Forwarding

D : Synchronization

Q.no 28. The frame transmission and collision detection is a continuous process which method
is used for this condition

A : Idle,Captured the channel and sending its Frame, collision detection

B : Captured the channel and sending its Frame,Idle, collision detection

C : Idle, collision detection,Captured the channel and sending its Frame

D : Captured the channel and sending its Frame, collision detection,Idle

Q.no 29. The maximum length (in bytes) of an IPv4 datagram is?

A : 32

B : 1024

C : 65535

D : 512

Q.no 30. In byte stuffing (or character stuffing), a special byte known as _____ is added to the
data section of the frame when there is a character with the same pattern as the flag.

A : excuse character

B : entry character

C : exit character

D : escape character

Q.no 31. What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11g standard

A : 10 to 15 percent

B : 5 to 10 percent

C : 0 to 5 percent

D : 15 to 20 percent
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Q.no 32. Which of this is not a guided media ?

A : Fiber optical cable

B : Coaxial cable

C : Wireless LAN

D : Copper wire

Q.no 33. There are ___ types of HDLC frames

A:2

B:4

C:5

D:3

Q.no 34. In SMTP, the command to write receiver’s mail address is written with the
command _______

A : SEND TO

B : RCPT TO

C : MAIL TO

D : RCVR TO

Q.no 35. Which one of the following is not correct?

A : RTCP provides canonical end-point identifiers to all session participants

B : RTCP reports are expected to be sent by all participants

C : RTCP itself does not provide any flow encryption or authentication methods

D : RTCP handles the actual data delivery

Q.no 36. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.

A : transmission control protocol

B : user datagram protocol

C : datagram congestion control protocol

D : stream control transmission protocol

Q.no 37. What is the use of Ping command?

A : To test a device on the network is reachable

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B : To test a hard disk fault

C : To test a bug in a Application

D : To test a Pinter Quality

Q.no 38. Radio channels are attractive medium because

A : Can penetrate walls

B : Connectivity can be given to mobile user

C : Can carry signals for long distance

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Which LAN Protocols are designed for Fast Ethernet to compete

A : Bus and Ring

B : Bus and Star

C : Ring and Tree

D : Ring and Mesh

Q.no 40. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases __________
until it reaches a threshold.

A : exponentially

B : additively

C : multiplicatively

D : suddenly

Q.no 41. HDLC supports two types of transfer modes ________ and ________

A : normal response mode and abnormal response mode.

B : normal response mode and asynchronous balanced mode.

C : command mode and respond mode

D : synchronous balanced mode and asynchronous balanced mode.

Q.no 42. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers,
headers are ___________

A : Added

B : Removed

C : Rearranged
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D : Modified

Q.no 43. _____ is used in PPP payload field whenever the flag sequence appears in the
message, so that the receiver does not consider it as the end of the frame.

A : extra stuffing

B : bit stuffing

C : character stuffing

D : Byte stuffing

Q.no 44. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with a
200 kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 500
frames per second

A : 2msec

B : 4msec

C : 2sec

D : 4sec

Q.no 45. In PPP, the default maximum length of the information field is ________

A : 1500 bytes

B : 15000 bytes

C : 150 bytes

D : 15 bytes

Q.no 46. Which one of the following is correct?

A : Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a
communication session

B : HTTP is a session layer protocol

C : TCP is an application layer protocol

D : HTTP is a request and response protocol

Q.no 47. For which one of the following reasons does Internet Protocol (IP) use the timeto-
live (TTL) field in the IP datagram header

A : Ensure packets reach destination within that time

B : Discard packets that reach later than that time

C : prevent packets from looping indefinitily

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D : Limit the time for which the packet gets queued in intermediate routers

Q.no 48. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port
on the server.

A : User datagram protocol

B : Transmission control protocol

C : Border gateway protocol

D : Domain host control protocol

Q.no 49. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with a
200 kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000
frames per second

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

Q.no 50. Simplex protocol of Data Link Layer works on ____ channels

A : noiseless

B : broadband

C : noisy

D : creative

Q.no 51. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the
_______Protocol.

A : Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

B : Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

C : Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

D : Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

Q.no 52. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?

A : UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length

B : UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length

C : UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length

D : UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length

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Q.no 53. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 20 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are
needed.

A : less than 10

B : 19

C : 21

D : 20

Q.no 54. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station
and multiple secondary stations.

A : ARM

B : NBM

C : NRM

D : ABM

Q.no 55. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?

A : protocol for SMTP security

B : an SMTP extension

C : protocol for faster mail transfer

D : protocol for web pages

Q.no 56. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is source
port number.

A : 000D

B : CB84

C : 001C

D : 001D

Q.no 57. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______

A : Routing and switching

B : Sending and receiving of packets

C : Multiplexing and demultiplexing

D : Demultiplexing and error checking

Q.no 58. Which of the following is correct IPv4 address?

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A : 124.201.3.1.52

B : 300.142.210.64

C : 10110011.32.16.8

D : 128.64.0.0

Q.no 59. ____ refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data
that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.

A : Flow control

B : Speed control

C : Error control

D : Data control

Q.no 60. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________

A : only network address

B : only host address

C : network address & host address

D : network address & MAC address

Q.no 1. _____ allows the receiver to inform the sender of any frames lost or damaged in
transmission and coordinates the retransmission of those frames by the sender.

A : Error control

B : data control

C : Transmission Control

D : Speed control

Q.no 2. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?

A : Connection-oriented

B : Process-to-process

C : Transport layer protocol

D : Unreliable

Q.no 3. The location of a resource on the internet is given by its?

A : Protocol

B : URL
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C : E-mail address

D : website

Q.no 4. IEEE created Fast Ethernet under the name ______

A : 10Base 5

B : 10Base 2

C : 10Base T

D : 10Base F

Q.no 5. _____ protocol has no flow or error control.

A : simplex

B : complex

C : duplex

D : half duplex

Q.no 6. Layer-2 Switch is also called

A : Multiport Hub

B : Multiport Switch

C : Multiport Bridge

D : Multiport NIC

Q.no 7. Four twisted pairs cable used by ___________

A : 802.3 z

B : 802.3

C : 802.3 u

D : 802.11

Q.no 8. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?

A : simple mail transfer protocol

B : post office protocol

C : internet mail access protocol

D : hypertext transfer protocol

Q.no 9. which Displays entries in DNS cache

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A : ipconfig /displaydns

B : ipconfig /flushdns

C : Normal DHCP Scope

D : ipconfig /registerdns

Q.no 10. What is the header size of a UDP packet?

A : 8 bytes

B : 8 bits

C : 16 bytes

D : 124 bytes

Q.no 11. Which software prevents the external access to a system?

A : Firewall

B : Gateway

C : Router

D : Virus checker

Q.no 12. The correction of errors is _____ the detection.

A : more difficult than

B : easier

C : similar

D : None of the above

Q.no 13. Which Method can be used for to reduce the collision but canot eliminate it

A : Listen before talk

B : Listen after talk

C : Sense after transmit

D : Sense before talk

Q.no 14. Routing tables of a router keeps track of

A : MAC Address Assignments

B : Port Assignments to network devices

C : Distribute IP address to network devices

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D : Routes to use for forwarding data to its destination

Q.no 15. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on
IP network?

A : dynamic host configuration protocol

B : simple network management protocol

C : internet message access protocol

D : media gateway protocol

Q.no 16. WiMAX stands for ___________

A : Data Link

B : Network

C : Physical

D : Transport

Q.no 17. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is
________

A : LAN

B : WAN

C : MAN

D : PAN

Q.no 18. Physical or logical arrangement of network is ?

A : Topology

B : Routing

C : Networking

D : Control

Q.no 19. OSPF stands for

A : Open short distance protocol

B : on demand sequence protocol

C : Open shortest path first

D : Open sequence protocol first

Q.no 20. Ethernet frame consists of ____________

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A : 1000Base LX

B : 1000Base T

C : 1000Base SX

D : 100Base Fx

Q.no 21. Bit stuffing means adding extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a
sequence of bits with the same pattern as the _____

A : header

B : trailer

C : payload

D : flag

Q.no 22. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.

A : 66

B : 67

C : 68

D : 69

Q.no 23. Suppose computers A and B have IP addresses 10.105.1.113 and 10.105.1.91
respectively and they both use the same netmask N. Which of the values of N given below
should not be used if A and B should belong to the same network?

A : 255.255.255.0

B : 255.255.255.128

C : 255.255.255.192

D : 255.255.255.224

Q.no 24. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.

A : domain name system

B : routing information protocol

C : network time protocol

D : internet relay chat

Q.no 25. ARQ stands for _____

A : Automatic repeat request

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B : Automatic repeat quantization

C : Acknowledgement repeat request

D : Automatic resend request

Q.no 26. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________

A : TSN

B : SI

C : SSN

D : GSN

Q.no 27. Which of the following protocol is defined in Transport layer?

A : FTP

B : TCP

C : IP

D : Telnet

Q.no 28. What is Maximum channel utilization of Slotted Aloha

A : p persistent

B : nonpersistent

C : 1 persistent

D : Persistent

Q.no 29. Which classes are used for connection-less socket programming?

A : Datagram Socket

B : Datagram Packet

C : Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet

D : Server Socket

Q.no 30. framing, flow and error control are the functionalities of ______

A : Physical layer

B : data link layer

C : network layer

D : Transport layer
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Q.no 31. In gigabit ethernet three or more stations are connected by

A : 2.4 GHz

B : 5 GHz

C : 2.4 Gbps

D : 5 Gbps

Q.no 32. In Fast Ethernet 100Base TX use ------------Line coding technique

A : Management frames, Control frames and Data frames.

B : Supervisory Frame, Information frame and data frame

C : Management frames,Supervisory frame and control frame

D : Supervisory Frame, Information frame and Control frame

Q.no 33. In IPv4 layer, datagram is of ________

A : Fixed length

B : Variable length

C : Global length

D : Zero length

Q.no 34. In Stop-and-WaitARQ~the acknowledgment number always announces in

_____ arithmetic the sequence number ofthe next frame expected

A : modulo-2

B : modulo-4

C : modulo-8

D : modulo-n

Q.no 35. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its frame
immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line until it finds it idle

A : nonpersistent

B : Pure Aloha

C : CSMA with collision detection

D : CSMA with collision avoidance

Q.no 36. In which protocol sender sends one frame, stops until it receives confirmation from
the receiver?

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A : MQTT protocol

B : Wait Protocol

C : Stop-and-Wait Protocol

D : Stop Protocol

Q.no 37. Standard ethernet use which topologies

A : CSMA with collision avoidance

B : Pure Aloha

C : Slotted Aloha

D : CSMA with collision detection

Q.no 38. In version field of IPv4 header, when machine is using some other version of IPv4
then datagram is __________

A : Discarded

B : Accepted

C : Interpreted

D : Interpreted incorrectly

Q.no 39. A place where there is a field of signal through which you can access WiFi internet is
called –

A : WiFi Hotspots

B : WiFi Internet

C : WiFi Zone

D : WiFi Range

Q.no 40. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

A : routing

B : inter-networking

C : congestion control

D : error control

Q.no 41. Define the type of the following destination MAC address 4A:30:10:21:10:1A

A : IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA with collision detection protocol

B : Ethernet is not based on CSMA with collision detection protocol

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C : CSMA with collision detection is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite
network

D : There is no contention in a CSMA with collision detection network

Q.no 42. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is
numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one
segment?

A : 10000

B : 10001

C : 12001

D : 11001

Q.no 43. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client,
then it is called _________

A : computer network

B : distributed system

C : networking system

D : mail system

Q.no 44. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are
accredited by _______

A : internet architecture board

B : internet society

C : internet research task force

D : internet corporation for assigned names and numbers

Q.no 45. IPv6 does not support which of the following addressing modes?

A : unicast addressing

B : multicast addressing

C : broadcast addressing

D : anycast addressing

Q.no 46. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to
another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?

A : HTTP

B : FTP
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C : Telnet

D : TCP

Q.no 47. Network congestion occurs _________

A : in case of traffic overloading

B : when a system terminates

C : when connection between two nodes terminates

D : in case of transfer failure

Q.no 48. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending
that each of them is coming from a different client by faking the source IP address in the
datagram. Which type of attack is being performed in this situation?

A : SYNC flooding attack

B : Active attack

C : Passive attack

D : Denial-of-service attack

Q.no 49. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps.
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 276 frames

D : 151 frames

Q.no 50. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there
is a character with the same pattern as the ______.

A : trailer

B : header

C : payload

D : flag

Q.no 51. In wireless network most of the energy is lost during transmission. How many
percentage of additional energy is added if there is collision

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

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C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

Q.no 52. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is the total
length of the user datagram?

A : 24Bytes

B : 64Bytes

C : 28Bytes

D : 32 Bytes

Q.no 53. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________

transmission.

A : Automatic

B : Half-duplex

C : Full-duplex

D : Simplex

Q.no 54. In class C , if subnet mask is 255.255.255.224 then calculates number of subnet?

A:6

B:8

C:4

D : 10

Q.no 55. In HTTP pipelining ________________

A : multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the
corresponding responses

B : multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection

C : multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection

D : multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection

Q.no 56. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each
station can function as a primary and a secondary.

A : ARM

B : ABM

C : NBM
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D : NRM

Q.no 57. Peer-to-peer processes are processes on two or more devices communicating at a

A : same layer

B : different layer

C : different layer on different device

D : none of above

Q.no 58. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive
data at B is _________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 59. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________

A : 161

B : 123

C : 162

D : 124

Q.no 60. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?

A : traffic aware routing

B : admission control

C : load shedding

D : routing information protocol

Q.no 1. _______ topology requires a multipoint connection.

A : Star

B : Mesh

C : Ring

D : Bus

Q.no 2. In pure Aloha, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time

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A : 10

B : 15

C : 16

D : 17

Q.no 3. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for

A : Finding the IP address from the DNS

B : Finding the IP address of the default gateway

C : Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address

D : Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address

Q.no 4. RTP provides the facility of jitter ____________

A : media stream

B : expansion

C : media modification

D : security

Q.no 5. HTTP is ________ protocol

A : transport layer

B : application layer

C : network layer

D : data link layer

Q.no 6. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP?

A : Connection-oriented

B : Unreliable

C : Transport layer protocol

D : Low overhead

Q.no 7. Which topology allow to connect computers including server in a ring?

A : Star

B : Tree

C : Ring
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D : LAN

Q.no 8. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________
for

A : Packets

B : Buffers

C : Segments

D : Stacks

Q.no 9. A simple protocol used for fetching email from a mail box is

A : POP3

B : IMAP

C : SMTP

D : POP2

Q.no 10. RSVP is a _________ oriented protocol

A : receiver

B : bit

C : byte

D : both b & c

Q.no 11. Ipv6 is how many bits long

A : 32

B : 48

C : 128

D : 16

Q.no 12. CIDR stands for

A : Classless Inter-Domain Routing

B : Classless Intra-Domain Routing

C : Classful Inter-Domain Routing

D : Classful Intra-Domain Routing

Q.no 13. _____. Is the process of placing timestamps on dynamically registered records

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A : Aging

B : IP

C : AIPAA

D : tcp

Q.no 14. In which method is used for large waiting time or backoff time

A : Bus

B : star

C : Ring

D : Mesh

Q.no 15. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific
______ can access the network.

A : MAC Address

B : IP Address

C : MAC and IP address

D : MAC or IP address

Q.no 16. Connection Oriented Protocol for end-to-end communication is called

________________

A : Aging

B : IP

C : AIPAA

D : tcp

Q.no 17. In virtual circuit network each packet contains ___________

A : full source and destination address

B : a short VCI number

C : only source address

D : only destination address

Q.no 18. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by the sender
is referred to as ___________

A : Flow control

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B : Error control

C : Congestion control

D : Error detection

Q.no 19. Application layer protocol defines ____________

A : types of messages exchanged

B : message unformatted

C : Message Request and Response

D : Message Syntax and Sementics

Q.no 20. Name server designated as the recipient of forwarded queries is known as _____

A : Class B

B : Class c

C : Forwarder

D : Class D

Q.no 21. In HDLC which frames are used to transport user data and control information
relating to user data (piggybacking)?

A : S-Frames

B : I-Frames

C : V-frames

D : U-Frame

Q.no 22. What does Router do in a network?

A : Forwards a packet to all outgoing links

B : Forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link

C : Determines on which outing link a packet is to be forwarded

D : Forwards a packet to all outgoing links except the originated link

Q.no 23. _______ provides a connection-oriented reliable service for sending messages

A : TCP

B : IP

C : UDP

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D : DHCP

Q.no 24. In CSMA with collision detection the energy level of channel can have three values:
Normal , Zero, and abnormal which of the following is correct sequence

A : Wired network

B : Wireless Network

C : Wired and Wireless Network

D : Client Server Network

Q.no 25. Point to Point protocol is ____ oriented

A : bit

B : byte

C : gigabyte

D : megabyte

Q.no 26. To detect or correct errors, we need to send _____ with data.

A : extra (redundant) bits

B : error bits

C : hamming distance

D : hash keys

Q.no 27. Where should we use default routing?

A : On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network

B : Which have more than one exit path out of the network

C : Minimum five exit paths out of the network

D : Maximum five exit paths out of the network

Q.no 28. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________

A : Seconds

B : Frames

C : Packets

D : Bits

Q.no 29. Which of the following fields in IPV4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?

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A : Type of service

B : Fragment offset

C : Flags

D : Identification

Q.no 30. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.

A : 331 – Username OK, password required

B : 425 – Can’t open data connection

C : 452 – Error writing file

D : 452 – Can’t open data connection

Q.no 31. Which of the following address belongs class A?

A : 121.12.12.248

B : 130.12.12.248

C : 128.12.12.248

D : 129.12.12.248

Q.no 32. Which of following provides reliable communication?

A : TCP

B : IP

C : UDP

D : All of the above

Q.no 33. What is the use of Bridge in Network?

A : to connect LANs

B : to separate LANs

C : to control Network Speed

D : to connect LAN to WAN

Q.no 34. An internet is a __________

A : Collection of WANS

B : Network of networks

C : Collection of LANS
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D : Collection of identical LANS and WANS

Q.no 35. DHCP ____ _______ occur every 60 minutes

A : Multicast Scope

B : Super Scope

C : Subnet Mask

D : Automatic Backups

Q.no 36. Size of TCP segment header ranges between ___________

A : 16 and 32 bytes

B : 16 and 32 bits

C : 20 and 60 bytes

D : 20 and 60 bits

Q.no 37. In FTP protocol, a client contacts a server using ______ as the transport protocol.

A : Transmission control protocol

B : User datagram protocol

C : Datagram congestion control protocol

D : Stream control transmission protocol

Q.no 38. Which one of the following multimedia formats can not be supported by RTP?

A : MPEG-4

B : MJPEG

C : MPEG

D : TXT

Q.no 39. Which access method is used for the half duplex approach in fast ethernet

A : 4B/5B

B : NRZ-I

C : MLT-3

D : 8B/6T

Q.no 40. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.

A : public-key cryptography
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B : private-key cryptography

C : any of public-key or private-key

D : both public-key & private-key

Q.no 41. In Asynchronous Balanced Mode (ABM) of HDLC protocol ____

A : each station can send both commands and respond to commands

B : each station can send commands but not respond to commands

C : each station can send either command or respond to commands but not both

D : Station does not send command and responses

Q.no 42. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station
and multiple secondary stations.

A : ARM

B : NBM

C : NRM

D : ABM

Q.no 43. _____ is a bit oriented protocol for communication over point to point and
multipoint links.

A : High level Data link Control (HDLC)

B : Highest level Data link Control (HDLC)

C : Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

D : Domain Name Server (DNS) Protocol

Q.no 44. Which of the following is correct IPv4 address?

A : 124.201.3.1.52

B : 300.142.210.64

C : 10110011.32.16.8

D : 128.64.0.0

Q.no 45. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?

A : protocol for SMTP security

B : an SMTP extension

C : protocol for faster mail transfer

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D : protocol for web pages

Q.no 46. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general network
model?

A : network layer

B : transport layer

C : session layer

D : data link layer

Q.no 47. What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?

A : Socket

B : IP Address

C : Protocol

D : MAC Address

Q.no 48. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

A : base 64 encoding

B : base 32 encoding

C : base 16 encoding

D : base 8 encoding

Q.no 49. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to
receive data at B is ____________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 50. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______

A : Routing and switching

B : Sending and receiving of packets

C : Multiplexing and demultiplexing

D : Demultiplexing and error checking

Q.no 51. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is _______
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A : NTP

B : Echo

C : Server

D : Client

Q.no 52. Which one of the following is correct?

A : Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a
communication session

B : HTTP is a session layer protocol

C : TCP is an application layer protocol

D : HTTP is a request and response protocol

Q.no 53. _____ is used in PPP payload field whenever the flag sequence appears in the
message, so that the receiver does not consider it as the end of the frame.

A : extra stuffing

B : bit stuffing

C : character stuffing

D : Byte stuffing

Q.no 54. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port
on the server.

A : User datagram protocol

B : Transmission control protocol

C : Border gateway protocol

D : Domain host control protocol

Q.no 55. Which of the following routing protocol used for network layer design?

A : Static Routing Algorithm

B : Distance vector routing Protocol

C : Dynamic Routing Algorithm

D : Hybrid Routing Algorithm

Q.no 56. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with a
200 kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000
frames per second

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A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

Q.no 57. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use
_________

A : internet relay chat

B : broader gateway protocol

C : address resolution protocol

D : Internet Address Chat

Q.no 58. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 250 frames per second

A : 92 frames

B : 368 frames

C : 49 frames

D : 151 frames

Q.no 59. ______ is a communication protocol of the data link layer that is used to transmit
multiprotocol data between two directly connected computers.

A : Point - to - Point Protocol (PPP)

B : Internet Protocol

C : Transmission Control Protocol

D : Single Point - to - Multi Point Protocol (SPM)

Q.no 60. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________

A : network layer

B : physical layer

C : data link layer

D : transport layer

Q.no 1. In Active mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.

A : true

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B : false

C : None

D : Can not predict

Q.no 2. UTP Cable is used by____

A : 802.3 z

B : 802.3

C : 802.3 u

D : 802.11

Q.no 3. ______is used in dealing with error detection and error correction

A : Samming distance

B : Hamming distance

C : Tamming distance

D : Spamming distance

Q.no 4. FTP server listens for connection on port number _________

A : 20

B : 21

C : 22

D : 23

Q.no 5. ICMP stands for

A : Internet Control Message Protocol

B : Internet Control Management Protocol

C : Internal Control Manage Protocol

D : Internet Count Management Protocol

Q.no 6. What is the default port of HTTP?

A : 20

B : 101

C : 80

D : 60
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Q.no 7. The network layer protocol for internet is __________

A : ethernet

B : Internet protocol

C : hypertext transfer protocol

D : file transfer protocol

Q.no 8. The protocol which is used for defining the legal request and replies is called ______ .

A : FTP

B : SMTP

C : TCP

D : HTTP

Q.no 9. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?

A : Connection-oriented

B : Process-to-process

C : Transport layer protocol

D : Unreliable

Q.no 10. ___ codes are created to correct errors

A : bar

B : uni

C : cyclic

D : hash

Q.no 11. Static Channel Allocation is used in which technologies

A : SAN

B : PAN

C : LAN and MAN

D : WAN

Q.no 12. Which type of network is used for small geographical area such as in a one building?

A : WLAN

B : MAN
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C : LAN

D : WAN

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not the Networking Devices?

A : Gateways

B : Linux

C : Routers

D : Firewalls

Q.no 14. CSMA is based on the principle of

A : p persistent

B : nonpersistent

C : 1 persistent

D : Persistent

Q.no 15. In point to point protocol ____ field of PPP Frame carries the user data.

A : flag

B : payload

C : Protocol

D : FCS

Q.no 16. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases
____________ until congestion is detected.

A : exponentially

B : additively

C : multiplicatively

D : suddenly

Q.no 17. In pure Aloha what is maximum number of retransmission attempts if frame get
congested in the channel

A : Two half

B : One Half

C : Three half

D : Four half
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Q.no 18. Which topology used by CSMA with collision detection

A : MAC address

B : IP address

C : port address

D : specific address

Q.no 19. MAC Address is the example of

A : Transport Layer

B : Data Link Layer

C : Application Layer

D : Physical Layer

Q.no 20. MPLS stands for

A : Multiprotocol Label Switching

B : Multiple links

C : Mobile protocol links

D : Multiple layer switching

Q.no 21. Which of this is not a guided media ?

A : Fiber optical cable

B : Coaxial cable

C : Wireless LAN

D : Copper wire

Q.no 22. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.

A : IP address

B : MAC Address

C : Port Address

D : Physical Address

Q.no 23. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in __________

A : stream mode

B : block mode
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C : compressed mode

D : message mode

Q.no 24. What is Maximum channel utilization of Slotted Aloha

A : p persistent

B : nonpersistent

C : 1 persistent

D : Persistent

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is not correct?

A : RTCP provides canonical end-point identifiers to all session participants

B : RTCP reports are expected to be sent by all participants

C : RTCP itself does not provide any flow encryption or authentication methods

D : RTCP handles the actual data delivery

Q.no 26. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases __________
until it reaches a threshold.

A : exponentially

B : additively

C : multiplicatively

D : suddenly

Q.no 27. In HDLC Normal transfer mode is used for _______________

A : only point to point links

B : only point to multipoint links

C : either point to point links or point to multipoint links

D : both point to point and multipoint links

Q.no 28. The size of flag field in HDLC frame is ________

A : 8 bits

B : 4 bits

C : 2 bits

D : 9 bits

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Q.no 29. Bit stuffing means adding extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a
sequence of bits with the same pattern as the _____

A : header

B : trailer

C : payload

D : flag

Q.no 30. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________

A : TSN

B : SI

C : SSN

D : GSN

Q.no 31. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?

A : media gateway protocol

B : dynamic host configuration protocol

C : resource reservation protocol

D : session initiation protocol

Q.no 32. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________

A : Persistent

B : Non-persistent

C : Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request

D : P- Persistent

Q.no 33. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which

A : One automatically gets one’s mail everyday

B : One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail

C : One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email

D : One does not need any telephone lines

Q.no 34. Which of the following network device has the slowest type of connection?

A : DSL

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B : Router

C : Bridges

D : Dial-up modems

Q.no 35. In _________ systems, resources are allocated on demand.

A : packet switching

B : circuit switching

C : line switching

D : frequency switching

Q.no 36. MANET stands for

A : Wireless ad hoc network

B : Mobile ad hoc network

C : Multiple ad hoc network

D : Multi advance network

Q.no 37. Router operates in which layer of OSI Reference Model?

A : Layer 1 (Physical Layer)

B : Layer 3 (Network Layer)

C : Layer 4 (Transport Layer)

D : Layer 7 (Application Layer)

Q.no 38. _____ Sets an alias for a host name

A : DNS Event Logging tab

B : DNS Debug Logging tab

C : DNS CNAME (canonical name)

D : DNS Event and Debug tab

Q.no 39. Which protocol gives a full route table update every 30 seconds?

A : IEGRP

B : RIP

C : ICMP

D : IP
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Q.no 40. What is the frequency range of IEEE 802.11a standard

A : 6Mbps

B : 11Mbps

C : 22Mbps

D : 54Mbps

Q.no 41. Three types of HDLC frames are :

A : Data frames, Supervisory frames, Un-numbered frames

B : Information frames, Supervisory frames, Un-numbered frames

C : Information frames, Supervisory frames, Numbered frames

D : Information frames, Controlled frames, Numbered frames

Q.no 42. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is the total
length of the user datagram?

A : 24Bytes

B : 64Bytes

C : 28Bytes

D : 32 Bytes

Q.no 43. Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA with collision detection

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

Q.no 44. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 20 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are
needed.

A : less than 10

B : 19

C : 21

D : 20

Q.no 45. Define the type of the following destination MAC address 4A:30:10:21:10:1A

A : IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA with collision detection protocol
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B : Ethernet is not based on CSMA with collision detection protocol

C : CSMA with collision detection is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite
network

D : There is no contention in a CSMA with collision detection network

Q.no 46. The process of modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in
transit across a traffic routing device is called

A : Port address translation (PAT)

B : Network address translation (NAT)

C : Address mapping

D : Port mapping

Q.no 47. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each
station can function as a primary and a secondary.

A : ARM

B : ABM

C : NBM

D : NRM

Q.no 48. MIME uses the same _______ format

A : RFC822

B : RFC 800

C : Ethernet

D : RFC 1521

Q.no 49. The dump of a UDP header in hexadecimal is CB84000D001C001C. What is source
port number.

A : 000D

B : CB84

C : 001C

D : 001D

Q.no 50. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________

A : 161

B : 123
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C : 162

D : 124

Q.no 51. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the
_______Protocol.

A : Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

B : Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

C : Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

D : Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

Q.no 52. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200-bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps
What is the requirement to make this frame collision free

A : multicast address

B : Broadcast address

C : Unicast address

D : Anycast address

Q.no 53. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to
another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?

A : HTTP

B : FTP

C : Telnet

D : TCP

Q.no 54. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there
is a character with the same pattern as the ______.

A : trailer

B : header

C : payload

D : flag

Q.no 55. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are
accredited by _______

A : internet architecture board

B : internet society

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C : internet research task force

D : internet corporation for assigned names and numbers

Q.no 56. In wireless network most of the energy is lost during transmission. How many
percentage of additional energy is added if there is collision

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames

D : 156 frames

Q.no 57. IPv6 does not support which of the following addressing modes?

A : unicast addressing

B : multicast addressing

C : broadcast addressing

D : anycast addressing

Q.no 58. a character-oriented approach and a bit-oriented approaches used in which type of
framing?

A : fixed size

B : zero size

C : variable-size

D : cells

Q.no 59. For which one of the following reasons does Internet Protocol (IP) use the timeto-
live (TTL) field in the IP datagram header

A : Ensure packets reach destination within that time

B : Discard packets that reach later than that time

C : prevent packets from looping indefinitily

D : Limit the time for which the packet gets queued in intermediate routers

Q.no 60. ____ refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data
that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.

A : Flow control

B : Speed control

C : Error control
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D : Data control

Q.no 1. How many layers does OSI Reference Model has?

A:4

B:5

C:6

D:7

Q.no 2. Physical or logical arrangement of network is ?

A : Topology

B : Routing

C : Networking

D : Control

Q.no 3. Four twisted pairs cable used by ___________

A : 802.3 z

B : 802.3

C : 802.3 u

D : 802.11

Q.no 4. Retransmission of packets must not be done when _______

A : Packet is lost

B : Packet is corrupted

C : Packet is needed

D : Packet is error-free

Q.no 5. How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?

A : Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the
length of the agreement.

B : Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of period, a new quest for an
address must be made, and another address is then assigned.

C : Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically
contacting the DHCP sever to renew the lease.

D : Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.

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Q.no 6. The client in socket programming must know which information?

A : IP address of Server

B : Port number

C : Both IP address of Server & Port number

D : Only its own IP address

Q.no 7. RSVP is a _________ oriented protocol

A : receiver

B : bit

C : byte

D : both b & c

Q.no 8. Which networking device connect one LAN to other LAN using same protocol?

A : Router

B : Switch

C : Bridge

D : Modem

Q.no 9. Which network is able to connect to each computer through a common central line?

A : Bus

B : Star

C : router

D : WAN

Q.no 10. A _________ set of rules that governs data communication.

A : Protocols

B : Standards

C : RFCs

D : Servers

Q.no 11. Which of the following can be Software?

A : Routers

B : Firewalls
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C : bridge

D : Modems

Q.no 12. In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames.

A : standard

B : fixed-size

C : variable-size

D : character

Q.no 13. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________
for

A : Packets

B : Buffers

C : Segments

D : Stacks

Q.no 14. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. These
numbers start with a _________

A : Fixed number

B : Random sequence of 0’s and 1’s

C : One

D : Sequence of zero’s and one’s

Q.no 15. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is
________

A : LAN

B : WAN

C : MAN

D : PAN

Q.no 16. Protocols are set of rules to govern _________

A : Communication

B : Standard

C : Metropolitian communication

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D : Bandwidth

Q.no 17. HDLC protocol resides in ____ layer

A : Data Link Layer

B : Application Layer

C : Transport Layer

D : Network Layer

Q.no 18. Which protocol provides the synchronization between media streams?

A : RTP

B : RTCP

C : RPC

D : RTCT

Q.no 19. BGP stands for

A : Bypass gateway protocol

B : Border gateway protocol

C : Bootstrap Protocol

D : Boundary gateway protocol

Q.no 20. An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server.

A : IP address

B : MAC address

C : URL

D : Name

Q.no 21. ARQ stands for _____

A : Automatic repeat request

B : Automatic repeat quantization

C : Acknowledgement repeat request

D : Automatic resend request

Q.no 22. How many different type of server exist?

A : Only one
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B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 23. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP
IP model?

A : Application layer

B : Presentation layer

C : Session layer

D : Session and Presentation layer

Q.no 24. Network layer at source is responsible for creating a packet from data coming from
another ________

A : Station

B : Link

C : Node

D : Protocol

Q.no 25. Point to Point protocol is ____ oriented

A : bit

B : byte

C : gigabyte

D : megabyte

Q.no 26. What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?

A : Packet switching and Line switching

B : Circuit switching and Line switching

C : Line switching and bit switching

D : Packet switching and Circuit switching

Q.no 27. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.

A : 66

B : 67

C : 68
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D : 69

Q.no 28. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 29. A proxy server is used as the computer?

A : with external access

B : acting as a backup

C : performing file handling

D : accessing user permissions

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a congestion policy at network layer?

A : Flow Control Policy

B : Packet Discard Policy

C : Packet Lifetime Management Policy

D : Routing Algorithm

Q.no 31. Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to-end layer?

A : Presentation layer

B : Network layer

C : Session layer

D : Transport layer

Q.no 32. Which access method is used by Standard ethernet

A : Ethernet

B : FDDI or Fiber Channel

C : Token Ring

D : ATM

Q.no 33. The meaning of Straight-through Cable is

A : Four wire pairs connect to the same pin on each end

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B : The cable Which Directly connects Computer to Computer

C : Four wire pairs not twisted with each other

D : The cable which is not twisted

Q.no 34. The data link layer pack bits into ____.

A : segments

B : clusters

C : packets

D : frames

Q.no 35. Most dial-up access to Internet is accomplished by using _____

A : TCP

B : PPP

C : IP

D : IPX

Q.no 36. Discarding policy is mainly done by _______

A : Sender

B : Receiver

C : Router

D : Switch

Q.no 37. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.

A : 66

B : 67

C : 68

D : 69

Q.no 38. Repeater operates in which layer of the OSI model?

A : Physical layer

B : Data link layer

C : Network layer

D : Transport layer
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Q.no 39. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.

A : domain name system

B : routing information protocol

C : network time protocol

D : internet relay chat

Q.no 40. What does Router do in a network?

A : Forwards a packet to all outgoing links

B : Forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link

C : Determines on which outing link a packet is to be forwarded

D : Forwards a packet to all outgoing links except the originated link

Q.no 41. Simplex protocol of Data Link Layer works on ____ channels

A : noiseless

B : broadband

C : noisy

D : creative

Q.no 42. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________

transmission.

A : Automatic

B : Half-duplex

C : Full-duplex

D : Simplex

Q.no 43. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?

A : traffic aware routing

B : admission control

C : load shedding

D : routing information protocol

Q.no 44. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to
receive data at B is ____________

A : Application layer
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B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 45. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client,
then it is called _________

A : computer network

B : distributed system

C : networking system

D : mail system

Q.no 46. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

A : base 64 encoding

B : base 32 encoding

C : base 16 encoding

D : base 8 encoding

Q.no 47. In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class C
addresses is

A : 2 rest to 14

B : 2 rest to 7

C : 2 rest to 21

D : 2 rest to 24

Q.no 48. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive
data at B is _________

A : Application layer

B : Transport layer

C : Link layer

D : Session layer

Q.no 49. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use
_________

A : internet relay chat

B : broader gateway protocol

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C : address resolution protocol

D : Internet Address Chat

Q.no 50. _____ is used in PPP payload field whenever the flag sequence appears in the
message, so that the receiver does not consider it as the end of the frame.

A : extra stuffing

B : bit stuffing

C : character stuffing

D : Byte stuffing

Q.no 51. Each frame in HDLC protocol may contain up ___ fields

A:4

B:5

C:6

D:7

Q.no 52. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for
______ channels.

A : signal

B : wireless

C : noisy

D : noiseless

Q.no 53. Network congestion occurs _________

A : in case of traffic overloading

B : when a system terminates

C : when connection between two nodes terminates

D : in case of transfer failure

Q.no 54. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with a
200 kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000
frames per second

A : 135 frames

B : 92 frames

C : 38 frames
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D : 156 frames

Q.no 55. In PPP, the default maximum length of the information field is ________

A : 1500 bytes

B : 15000 bytes

C : 150 bytes

D : 15 bytes

Q.no 56. What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?

A : Socket

B : IP Address

C : Protocol

D : MAC Address

Q.no 57. Peer-to-peer processes are processes on two or more devices communicating at a

A : same layer

B : different layer

C : different layer on different device

D : none of above

Q.no 58. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is
numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one
segment?

A : 10000

B : 10001

C : 12001

D : 11001

Q.no 59. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________

A : network layer

B : physical layer

C : data link layer

D : transport layer

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Q.no 60. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station
and multiple secondary stations.

A : ARM

B : NBM

C : NRM

D : ABM

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