Unit 1 : BCS

1) Which of the following is not an advantage of an optical fiber communication

system?

a) High Transmission Capacity

b) Light in weight

c) Electromagnetic interference is absent

d) Non-linear response of light source

2) Which of the following is a feature of multimode fibre?

a) Small core diameter

b) Less bandwidth

c) Same duration of input and output pulse

d) V number is less than 1.15

3) The type of bending loss that occurs due to gap in two optical fibers is

a) Lateral misalignment

b) Angular loss

c) Gap loss

d) Loss due to difference in diameter

4) The performance of injection laser depends upon which of the following

characteristics

a) Threshold current temperature dependence

b) Dynamic response

c) Frequency chirp

d) All the above

5) The noise fluctuations caused due to the higher energy of photons than KT upon
arrival at receiver is known as
a) Quantum Noise

b) Thermal Noise

c) Dark Noise

d) External Noise

1. In case of multimode step index fiber, the number of modes is:

a. Mg = V/4

b. Mg = V/2

c. Mg = V2/4

d. Mg = V2/2

2. A multimode step index fiber has a relative refractive index difference of 1%

and a core refrative index of 1.5. The number of modes propagating at a
wavelength of 1.3 um is 1100. Estimate the diameter of the fiber core.

a. 90.48 um

b. 91.48 um

c. 9.148 um

d. 9.048 um

3. What is Mie scattering?

a. Optical power gets transferred from one mode to another mode without any
change in frequency of the scattering

b. Scattering caused by homogenetics which are comparable in size with the

guided wavelength

c. Optical power gets transferred from one mode to another mode at different
frequencies

d. Light from the Sun scattered in the atmosphere to give the sky a blue color
4. When an excited electron falls back to the lower energy level, giving out a
photon, it is called:

a. Spontaneous emission

b. Stimulated emission

c. Simulated emission

d. Absorption

5. Which of the following is not a type of LED?

a. Surface emitting LED

b. Photon emitting LED

c. Edge emitting LED

d. Planar LED

1. Multimode step index fiber has a) Large core diameter & large numerical
aperture b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture c) Small core
diameter and large numerical aperture d) Small core diameter & small numerical
aperture

2. In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing

the ability of __________

a. Light Collection b. Light Scattering c. Light Dispersion d. Light Polarization

3. ____________ is a multi-functional element of optical network. a) Hop b)

Optical node c) Wavelength d) Optical attenuation

4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of a) 2 to 30 MHz km b) 6 to 50

MHz km c) 10 to 40 MHz km d) 8 to 40 MHz km

5. In single mode fibers, the most beneficial index profile is a) Step index b)
Graded index c) Step and graded index d) Coaxial cable

Q.1- Each stage of information transfer is required to follow the fundamentals of a) Optical
interconnection b) Optical hibernation c) Optical networking d) Optical regeneration

Answer – C
Q.2- ____________ is a multi-functional element of optical network. a) Hop b) Optical node
c) Wavelength d) Optical attenuation

Answer – B

Q.3- A signal carried on a dedicated wavelength from source to destination node is known as
a ___________ a) Light path b) Light wave c) Light node d) Light source

Answer – A

Q.4- The fundamentals of optical networking are divided into _______ areas. a) Two b) One
c) Four d) Three

Answer – D

Q.5- The optical networking fundamentals are _____________ of the transmission

techniques. a) Dependent b) Independent c) Similar d) Dissimilar

Answer – B

1. What is the typical value of refractive index for an ethyl alcohol?

a. 1 b. 1.36 c. 2.6 d. 3.4

ANSWER:(b) 1.36

2. In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing

the ability of __________

a. Light Collection b. Light Scattering c. Light Dispersion d. Light Polarization

ANSWER:(a) Light Collection

3. In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a

typical transmitter function?

a. Coding for error protection b. Decoding of input data c. Electrical to optical

conversion d. Recoding to match output standard

ANSWER: (d) Recoding to match output standard

4) Which among the following do/does not support/s the soot formation process?

a. OVPO b. MCVD c. PCVD d. All of the above

ANSWER: (c) PCVD

5) Which type of photonic crystal fiber exhibit/s its/their similarity to the periodic
crystalline lattice in a semiconductor?

a. Index guiding fiber b. Photonic bandgap fiber c. Both a and b d. None of the
above

ANSWER: (b) Photonic bandgap fiber

1. ____________ is a multi-functional element of optical network. a) Hop b)

Optical node c) Wavelength d) Optical attenuation

2. In the __________ topology, the data generally circulates bi-directionally. a)

Mesh b) Bus c) Star d) Ring

3. Multimode step index fiber has a) Large core diameter & large numerical
aperture b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture c) Small core
diameter and large numerical aperture d) Small core diameter & small numerical
aperture

4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of a) 2 to 30 MHz km b) 6 to 50

MHz km c) 10 to 40 MHz km d) 8 to 40 MHz km

5. In single mode fibers, the most beneficial index profile is a) Step index b)
Graded index c) Step and graded index d) Coaxial cable

1. Propagation of only one mode takes place in which fiber

a) Step index fiber

b) Graded index fiber

c) Single mode fiber

d) Multimode fiber

Ans: c) Single mode fiber

2. Way to classify the fiber optic cables

a) Type of material used

b) Depending on the bandwidth requirement

c) Depending on operating classes

d) All of above
Ans: d) All of above

3. For the propagation of signal through the fiber there must be

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) TIR (Total internal reflection)

d) None of above

Ans: c) TIR (Total internal reflection)

4. Types of losses in optical fiber

a) Material absorption losses

b) Linear and Non-linear scattering losses

c) Fiber to fiber Joints

d) All of above

Ans: d) All of above

5. What are the characteristics of photo detectors

a) Responsivity (R)

b) Quantum Efficiency (ᵑ)

c) Directivity (D)

d) All of above

Ans: d) All of above

1. What is the typical value of refractive index for an ethyl alcohol?

a. 1 b. 1.36 c. 2.6 d. 3.4

ANSWER:(b) 1.36

2. In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing

the ability of __________
a. Light Collection b. Light Scattering c. Light Dispersion d. Light Polarization

ANSWER:(a) Light Collection

3. In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a

typical transmitter function?

a. Coding for error protection b. Decoding of input data c. Electrical to optical

conversion d. Recoding to match output standard

ANSWER: (d) Recoding to match output standard

4) Which among the following do/does not support/s the soot formation process?

a. OVPO b. MCVD c. PCVD d. All of the above

ANSWER: (c) PCVD

5) Which type of photonic crystal fiber exhibit/s its/their similarity to the periodic
crystalline lattice in a semiconductor?

a. Index guiding fiber b. Photonic bandgap fiber

c. Both a and b d. None of the above

ANSWER: (b) Photonic bandgap fiber

1) What is the typical value of refractive index for an ethyl alcohol?

a. 1 b. 1.36 c. 2.6 d. 3.4

ANSWER:(b) 1.36

2) If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an optically denser
medium with high refractive index, then it is regarded as _______

a. External Reflection b. Internal Reflection c. Both a and b d. None of the above

ANSWER: (a) External Reflection

3) In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing

the ability of __________

a. Light Collection b. Light Scattering c. Light Dispersion d. Light Polarization

ANSWER:(a) Light Collection

4) Which among the following do/does not support/s the soot formation process?

a. OVPO b. MCVD c. PCVD d. All of the above

ANSWER: (c) PCVD

5) Which type of photonic crystal fiber exhibit/s its/their similarity to the periodic
crystalline lattice in a semiconductor?

a. Index guiding fiber b. Photonic bandgap fiber c. Both a and b d. None of the
above

ANSWER: (b) Photonic bandgap fiber

Unit 2 : BCS

1) Which of the following is a feature of avalanche photodiode

a) Low cost

b) Less sensitive to temperature

c) Suitable for high bit rate application

d) Less reverse bias voltage required

2) Which of the following is a loss associated with Link Power Budget

a) Lc, losses taking place at connector

b) Lsp, losses taking place at splices

c) Attenuation losses

d) All the above

3) The rise time due to each fiber producing its own dispersion in an optical link is
known as

a) Transmitter rise time

b) Group velocity rise time

c) Modal dispersion rise time

d) Receiver rise time

4) Major components of Long Haul network are

a) Hub

b) Remote Node (RN)

c) Network Interface units (NIU)

d) All the above

5) For low attenuation and dispersion for short distance transmission, the preferred
wavelength is

a) 500-700nm

b) 800-900nm

c) 1230-1420nm

d) 1300-1550nm

1. The selection of a particular fiber type does not depend on:

a. Numerical aperture

b. Amount of attenuation

c. Losses in connectors and splices

d. Bandwidth required

2. FTTC stands for?

a. Fiber To The Curb

b. Fiber To The Core

c. Fiber To Transmission Core

d. Fiber To Transmission Curb

3. In the elements of rise time budget, transmitter rise time is given by:

a. DLσλ

b. 440/BM

c. Value known to the designer

d. 350/Brx

4. In a laser structure, the existence of standing waves is possible at frequencies for

which the distance between the mirrors is an integral multiple of:

a. λ/4

b. λ/2

c. λ/8

d. λ/6

Consider a crystal of ruby laser whose length is 6 cm and the refractive index is
1.8, emits the wavelength of about 0.55 μm. What will be the value of number of
longitudinal modes?

a. 3.9 x 105 b. 4.9 x 105 c. 5.6 x 105 d. 7.7 x 105

5. Consider a crystal of ruby laser whose length is 6 cm and the refractive index is
1.8, emits the wavelength of about 0.55 μm. What will be the value of number of
longitudinal modes?

a. 5.6 X 105

b. 4.9 X 105

c. 3.9 X 105

d. 7.7 X 10

1) In Stimulated Emission, which among the following parameters of generated

photon is/are similar to the photon of incident wave?
a. Phase b. Frequency c. Polarization & direction of travel d. All of the above

2) Consider a crystal of ruby laser whose length is 6 cm and the refractive index is
1.8, emits the wavelength of about 0.55 μm. What will be the value of number of
longitudinal modes?

a. 3.9 x 105 b. 4.9 x 105 c. 5.6 x 105 d. 7.7 x 105

3) In a laser structure, the existence of standing waves is possible at frequencies for

which the distance between the mirrors is an integral number of ________

a. λ / 2 b. λ / 4 c. λ / 6 d. λ / 8

4) The small section of fiber which is coupled to the optical source is known as
_________

a. Flylead b. Pigtail c. Both a and b d. None of the above

5) In Lambertian output pattern of LED, the source is ______ bright from all
directions.

a. Less b. Equally c. More d. Unpredictably

Q.1- Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link? a. Link power
budget b. Rise time budget c. Both a and b d. None of the above

Answer – B

Q.2- Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of the fiber a)
Meridional b) Skew c) Leaky d) All of the above

Answer – B

Q.3- A _________________ is a network connecting several regional or national networks

together. a) Long-haul network b) Domain network c) Short-haul network d) Erbium network
Answer – A

Q.4- Which among the following is provided by an optical receiver for the regeneration of
data signal with minimum error?. a) Photo-diode b) Signal Processing Circuits c) Linear
Circuitry d) None of the above

Answer – C

Q.5- Which among the following do/does not support/s the soot formation process? a) OVPO
b) MCVD c) PCVD d) All of the above

Answer – C
1. Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?

a) Link power budget b) Rise time budget c) Both a and b d) None of the above

2. Which phenomenon causes the dynamic line width broadening under the direct
modulation of injection current?

a) Modal Noise b) Mode-partition Noise c) Frequency Chirping d) Reflection

Noise

3. A _________________ is a network connecting several regional or national

networks together. a) Long-haul network b) Domain network c) Short-haul
network d) Erbium network

4. What is the range of transmission of extended long haul network? a) 200-400

km b) 600-1000 km c) 1000-2000 km d) 2000-4000 km

5. What is the range of transmission of ultra-long haul network? a) 200-400 km b)

600-1000 km c) 1000-2000 km d) 2000-4000 km

1. Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?

a) Link power budget b) Rise time budget c) Both a and b d) None of the above

2. Which phenomenon causes the dynamic line width broadening under the direct
modulation of injection current?

a) Modal Noise b) Mode-partition Noise c) Frequency Chirping d) Reflection

Noise

3. A _________________ is a network connecting several regional or national

networks together. a) Long-haul network b) Domain network c) Short-haul
network d) Erbium network

4. What is the range of transmission of extended long haul network? a) 200-400

km b) 600-1000 km c) 1000-2000 km d) 2000-4000 km

5. What is the range of transmission of ultra-long haul network? a) 200-400 km b)

600-1000 km c) 1000-2000 km d) 2000-4000 km

1. Elements of rise time budget

a) Transmitter rise time (ttx)

b) Group velocity dispersion rise time (tmat)

c) Modal dispersion rise time (tmod)

d) Receiver rise time (trx)

e) All of above

Ans: d) All of above

2. Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link

a) Link power budget

b) Rise time budget

c) Both

d) None of the above

Ans: b) Rise time budget

3. Which among the following is/are determined by the fiber characterization

a) Fiber integrity and performance for desired transmission rate

b) Installation practices

c) Services Implementation

d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

4. In the structure of fiber the light is guided through the core due to total internal

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Dispersion

d) Diffraction

Ans: a) Reflection

5. Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of the fiber

a) Meridional
b) Skew

c) Leaky

d) All of the above

Ans: b) Skew

1.Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?

a. Link power budget b. Rise time budget c. Both a and b d. None of the above

ANSWER: (b) Rise time budget

2.Which kind/s of misalignment assist/s in the reduction of overlap region in fiber?

a. Angular

b. Longitudinal

c. Lateral

d. All of the above

ANSWER: (c) Lateral

3.In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber to another and from fiber to
detector must take place with _________coupling efficiency.

a. maximum

b. stable

c. minimum

d. unpredictable

ANSWER: (a) maximum

4) The small section of fiber which is coupled to the optical source is known as
_________

a. Flylead b. Pigtail

c. Both a and b d. None of the above

ANSWER: (c) Both a and b

5) In Lambertian output pattern of LED, the source is ______ bright from all
directions.

a. Less b. Equally c. More d. Unpredictably

ANSWER: (b) Equally

1) In Stimulated Emission, which among the following parameters of generated

photon is/are similar to the photon of incident wave?

a. Phase b. Frequency c. Polarization & direction of travel d. All of the above

ANSWER: (d) All of the above

2) Consider a crystal of ruby laser whose length is 6 cm and the refractive index is
1.8, emits the wavelength of about 0.55 μm. What will be the value of number of
longitudinal modes?

a. 3.9 x 105 b. 4.9 x 105 c. 5.6 x 105 d. 7.7 x 105

ANSWER: (a) 3.9 x 105

3) In a laser structure, the existence of standing waves is possible at frequencies for

which the distance between the mirrors is an integral number of ________

a. λ / 2 b. λ / 4 c. λ / 6 d. λ / 8

ANSWER: (a) λ / 2

4) The small section of fiber which is coupled to the optical source is known as
_________

a. Flylead b. Pigtail c. Both a and b d. None of the above

ANSWER: (c) Both a and b

5) In Lambertian output pattern of LED, the source is ______ bright from all
directions.

a. Less b. Equally c. More d. Unpredictably

ANSWER: (b) Equally

Unit 3 : BCS

1) Which of the following WDM network component’s function is to provide extra

light paths as well as reconfigure existing light paths

a) OXC

b) OADM

c) OLT

d) Coupler

2) The architecture of OADM that allows parallel addition and dropping of a band
of light signals is know as

a) Parallel

b) Modular version of parallel

c) Serial

d) Band Drop

3) Which type of coupler requires an evanescent wave to perform coupling

a) Area splitting coupler

b) Beam splitting coupler

c) Diffusion coupler

d) None of these

4) Which of the following is not an advantage or feature of Fiber Brag Grating

a) Period is much greater than wavelength

b) Very low losses

c) Not sensitive to polarization

d) Low temperature coefficients

5) Which amplifier uses a laser diode operating below the threshold point.

a) Erbium doped Fiber Amplifier

b) Semiconductor Optical Amplifier

c) Raman Fiber Amplifier

d) Wideband Fiber Amplifier

1. Which of the following combats both fiber chromatic dispersion and

polarization mode dispersion?

a. OFDM

b. EDM

c. WDM

d. ADM

2. ______ are also called star couplers.

a. Diffusion couplers

b. Area splitting couplers

c. Beam splitting couplers

d. Evanescent wave coupler

3. A 2 X 2 biconical tapered fibre coupler has an input optical power level of P0 =

200 uW. The ouput powers at the other 3 ports are P1 = 90 uW, P2 = 85 uW, and
P3 = 63 uW. What is the excess loss and cross talk?

a. 0.579 dB, 5.016

b. 0. 317db, 8.251

c. 0.579 dB, -5.016

d. 0. 317db, -8.251

4. The channels are closely spaced in:

a. Single WDM

b. Optical WDM
c. Dense WDM

d. Coarse WDM

5. The high powered beam of light which is mixed with the optical signal to be
amplified in EDFA is called:

a. Photon beam

b. Pump light

c. Excitation beam

d. Photo light

1. A _____________ coupler comprises a number of cascaded stages, each

incorporating three or four-port FBT couplers to obtain a multiport output. a) Star
b) Ladder c) WDM d) Three-port

2. The optical power coupled from one fiber to another is limited by a) Numerical
apertures of fibers b) Varying refractive index of fibers c) Angular power
distribution at source d) Number of modes propagating in each fiber

3. A four-port multimode fiber FBT coupler has 50 μWoptical power launched into
port 1. The measured output power at ports 2,3 and 4 are 0.003, 23.0 and 24.5 μW
respectively. Determine the excess loss. a) 0.22 dB b) 0.33 dB c) 0.45 dB d) 0.12
dB

4. It is a device that distributes light from a main fiber into one or more branch
fibers. a) Optical fiber coupler b) Optical fiber splice c) Optical fiber connector d)
Optical isolator

5. A number of three-port single-mode fiber couplers are used in the fabrication of

a ladder coupler with 16 output ports. The three-port couplers each have an excess
loss of 0.2 dB along with a splice loss of 0.1 dB at the interconnection of each
stage. Determine the excess loss. a) 1.9 dB b) 1.4 dB c) 0.9 dB d) 1.1 dB

Q.1- Multichannel data acquisition system has a) multiple channels b) single channel c) two
channels d) five channels

Answer – A

Q.2- How many types of multiplexed system exist? a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 10

Answer – B
Q.3- Multichannel Analog Multiplexed System is a) very fast b) fast c) slow d) moderate
Answer – C

Q.4- Multichannel Analog Multiplexed System utilises time a) using a transformer b) using a
capacitor c) using a flip-flop d) using a mux

Answer – D

Q.5- In a Multichannel Analog Multiplexed System a) A/D converter is used b) D/A

converter is used c) Sigma delta converter is used d) Modulator is used

Answer – A

1. It is a device that distributes light from a main fiber into one or more branch
fibers. a) Optical fiber coupler b) Optical fiber splice c) Optical fiber connector
d) Optical isolator

2. The optical power coupled from one fiber to another is limited by a) Numerical
apertures of fibers b) Varying refractive index of fibers c) Angular power
distribution at source d) Number of modes propagating in each fiber

3. A four-port multimode fiber FBT coupler has 50 μWoptical power launched into
port 1. The measured output power at ports 2,3 and 4 are 0.003, 23.0 and 24.5 μW
respectively. Determine the excess loss. a) 0.22 dB b) 0.33 dB c) 0.45 dB d) 0.12
dB

4. A _____________ coupler comprises a number of cascaded stages, each

incorporating three or four-port FBT couplers to obtain a multiport output. a) Star
b) Ladder c) WDM d) Three-port

5. A number of three-port single-mode fiber couplers are used in the fabrication of

a ladder coupler with 16 output ports. The three-port couplers each have an excess
loss of 0.2 dB along with a splice loss of 0.1 dB at the interconnection of each
stage. Determine the excess loss. a) 1.9 dB b) 1.4 dB c) 0.9 dB d) 1.1 dB

1. WDM (wavelength division multiplexing) element include

a) Source

b) MUX

c) DEMUX

d) Detector, Optical fiber

e) All of above
Ans: e) All of above

2. WDM component coupler is a device

a) Which allows the propagation of light in one direction and blocks the
propagation in another direction

b) Which couples or transfers some amount of data passing through one fiber optic
cable to another

c) Which passes only the required signal and attenuates and stops all un required
signals

d) None of above

Ans: b) Which couples or transfers some amount of data passing through one fiber
optic cable to another

3. Types of couplers

a) Diffusion couplers

b) Area splitting couplers

c) Beam splitting couplers

d) All of above

Ans: d) All of above

4. FBG is

a) Coupler

b) Circulator

c) Isolator

d) Fiber grating

Ans: d) Fiber grating

5. FBG with circulator can be used as

a) Add element
b) Drop element

c) Coupler

d) Isolator

Ans: a) Add element &

b) Drop element

1. ______________ facilitates the doubling of the feasible spectral efficiency

through the transmission of independent information in each of the two orthogonal
polarizations. a) WDM b) Gordon Mollenauer effect c) EDFA control d)
POLMUX

Answer: d Explanation: POLMUX is abbreviated as Polarization multiplexing. It

provides a different approach to the multilevel modulation. It requires polarization
control at the receiver side.

2. ____________ is a transparent multiplexing technique. a) POLMUX b) PDM c)

WDM d) Munich

Answer: a

3.Multichannel Analog Multiplexed System is

a) very fast

b) fast

c) slow

d) moderate

Answer: c

4.In a Multichannel Analog Multiplexed System, data stored in sample and hold
circuit is converted into analog form.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The Multichannel Analog Multiplexed System, converts the previous
data stored in the sample and hold circuit into digital form. Upon data collection,
mode of the sample and hold circuit is changed to hold mode

5.Multichannel Analog Multiplexed System utilises time

a) using a transformer

b) using a capacitor

c) using a flip-flop

d) using a mux

Answer: d

1. ______________ facilitates the doubling of the feasible spectral efficiency

through the transmission of independent information in each of the two orthogonal
polarizations. a) WDM b) Gordon Mollenauer effect c) EDFA control d)
POLMUX

Answer: d Explanation: POLMUX is abbreviated as Polarization multiplexing. It

provides a different approach to the multilevel modulation. It requires polarization
control at the receiver side.

2. ____________ is a transparent multiplexing technique. a) POLMUX b) PDM c)

WDM d) Munich

Answer: a Explanation: It is a transparent technique as it is not dominated by

polarization mode dispersion or polarization-dependant loss. It provides many
advantages to the multilevel modulation format in comparison to the non-
POLMUX signals at the same data rate.

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3. Which of the following in not a drawback of POLMUX? a) Polarization-

sensitive detection at the receiver b) Receiver complexity c) Cross-polarization
nonlinearities d) Multilevel modulation

Answer: d Explanation: The drawbacks of the POLMUX include receiver

complexity, polarization sensitivity at the receiver side and the cross polarization
nonlinearities. It is advantageous to the multilevel modulation scheme.

4. A multicarrier modulation format in which there has been growing interest to

compensate for impairments in optical fiber transmission systems is
_______________ a) OFDM b) EDM c) WDM d) ADM
Answer: a Explanation: OFDM is abbreviated as orthogonal frequency division
multiplexing. It combats both fiber chromatic dispersion and polarization mode
dispersion.

5. It is suggested that the technique with high white noise is an attractive option for
use in long haul systems. State whether the given statement is true or false. a) False
b) True

Answer: a Explanation: Long haul systems require a technique which boosts the
distance covered by the signals with less use of carrier signal. The technique which
exhibits high spectral density is an attractive option for the long haul systems.

Unit 4 : BCS

1) Which of the following are important conditions necessary for Geostationary

Orbit

a) Rotation speed of satellite in this orbit is same as the speed of Earth

b) Orbit must be circular

c) Inclination of orbit must be zero

d) All the above

2) Which type of LEO and MEO orbit has eccentricity of 0.74

a) Equatorial orbit

b) Inclined orbit

c) Molniya orbit

d) Elliptical orbit

3) Satellites placed in which of the following orbit have the shortest life

a) LEO

b) MEO

c) GEO
4) Out of the three Kepler’s Law of Planetary Motion, which one gives a relation
between the period of revolution of secondary with the semi major axis of orbital
ellipse

a) First law

b) Second law

c) Third Law

5) Cyclic variation in the position of satellite with respect to earth station lead to
which of the following orbital effects in communication system performance

a) Solar Eclipse

b) Range Variation

c) Doppler Shift

d) Sun Transit Outage

1. The equation derived using Keplar’s Third Law is:

a. T3 =4π3 a2 / µ

b. T2 =4µ2 a3 / π

c. T3 =4µ3 a3 / π

d. T2 = 4π2 a3 / µ

2. Find apogee and perigee heights for satellite orbit having semi major axis 7192.3
km and eccentricity 0.0013 (in km).

a. 823.513, 804.813

b. 723.513, 904.813

c. 823.513, 904.813

d. 723.513, 704.813

3. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and is released at its design

altitude?
a. It continues to orbit the earth

b. Stays where it was released

c. It falls back

d. Overshoots the altitude and moves at a constant speed

4. Which of the following is not a type of LEO and MEO orbit?

a. Equitorial

b. Eliptical

c. Molniya

d. None of the above

5. The orbit of moon makes an inclination of _______ with the equitorial plane of
the Earh.

a. 5o

b. 10o

c. 25o

d. 30o

1. Which of the following is not one of the perturbations that make the satellite to
vary from its elliptical path? a) Solar activity b) Asymmetrical components of
Earth’s gravitational field c) Air drag d) Motion of a passing comet

2. Which of the following is not one of the perturbations that make the satellite to
vary from its elliptical path? a) Solar activity b) Asymmetrical components of
Earth’s gravitational field c) Air drag d) Motion of a passing comet

3. What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite
called? a) Satellite point b) Subsatellite point c) Supersatellite point d) Overhead
point

4. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design

altitude? a) Continue to orbit the earth b) Fall back c) Overshoots the altitude and
moves at a constant speed d) Stays where it was released
5. The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth. a) True b) False

Q.1- Which of the following is the most fundamental for satellite navigation? a) Power
source in satellite b) Position and acceleration of satellite c) Distance from the Earth d) Total
number of satellites in the sky

Answer – B

Q.2- What is the line connecting the intersection of the orbital plane with the Earth’s
equatorial plane called? a) Critical point b) Intersection plane c) Line of nodes d) Differential
line

Answer – C

Q.3- What is the number of independent constants required to specify the nominal orbit? a) 6
b) 5 c) 2 d) 7

Answer – A

Q.4- The line connecting the perigee and apogee is called as? a) Differential line b) Line of
apsides c) Line of maximum reception d) Overhead line

Answer – B

Q.5- Which of the following is not one of the perturbations that make the satellite to vary
from its elliptical path? a) Solar activity b) Asymmetrical components of Earth’s gravitational
field c) Air drag d) Motion of a passing comet

Answer – D

1. WDM (wavelength division multiplexing) element include

a) Source

b) MUX

c) DEMUX

d) Detector, Optical fiber

e) All of above

Ans: e) All of above

2. WDM component coupler is a device

a) Which allows the propagation of light in one direction and blocks the
propagation in another direction
b) Which couples or transfers some amount of data passing through one fiber optic
cable to another

c) Which passes only the required signal and attenuates and stops all un required
signals

d) None of above

Ans: b) Which couples or transfers some amount of data passing through one fiber
optic cable to another

3. Types of couplers

a) Diffusion couplers

b) Area splitting couplers

c) Beam splitting couplers

d) All of above

Ans: d) All of above

4. FBG is

a) Coupler

b) Circulator

c) Isolator

d) Fiber grating

Ans: d) Fiber grating

5. FBG with circulator can be used as

a) Add element

b) Drop element

c) Coupler

d) Isolator

Ans: a) Add element &

b) Drop element

1. Which of the following is the most fundamental for satellite navigation? a)

Power source in satellite b) Position and acceleration of satellite c) Distance
from the Earth d) Total number of satellites in the sky

2. What is the line connecting the intersection of the orbital plane with the Earth’s
equatorial plane called? a) Critical point b) Intersection plane c) Line of nodes d)
Differential line

3. Which of the following is not one of the perturbations that make the satellite to
vary from its elliptical path? a) Solar activity b) Asymmetrical components of
Earth’s gravitational field c) Air drag d) Motion of a passing comet

4. What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite
called? a) Satellite point b) Subsatellite point c) Supersatellite point d) Overhead
point

5. What percentage of the earth can communication satellites see? a) 20 b) 50 c) 70

d) 40

1. The orbit of smaller body sweeps out equal area in equal time is

a) Kepler’s first law

b) Kepler’s second law

c) Kepler’s third law

d) None of the above

Ans: c) Kepler’s third law

2. LEO is about _____ from earth’s surface and MEO is about _____ to ___

a) 1100km, 10000km to 15000 km

b) 1500km, 10000 km to 15000 km

c) 1000km, 15000km to 20000km

d) 1400km, 10000km to 15000km

Ans: b) 1500km, 10000 km to 15000 km

3. Which was the first successful satellite launched and when

a) EXPLORER-1958

b) TELSTAR-I 1962

c) EARLY BIRD 1965

d) SPUTNIK-I 1957

Ans: a) EXPLORER-1958

4. Sq root(2*height t1) + Sq root(2*height t2) is the formula for

a) Elevation angle

b) LOS - Line of sight

c) Azimuth angle

d) Perigee height

Ans: b) LOS - Line of sight

5. When a secondary body rotates around a primary body ,it follows an elliptical
path is Kepler’s which law

a) 1st

b) 2nd

c) 3rd

d) 4rd

Ans: a) 1st

1.Which of the following is the most fundamental for satellite navigation? a)

Power source in satellite b) Position and acceleration of satellite c) Distance from
the Earth d) Total number of satellites in the sky

Answer: b Explanation: All of the satellite navigation equations have either

satellite position or velocity as a variable. The linear independence of the
equations, which dictate the observability of the navigation solution, is a function
of the relative position of the satellites in orbit. Thus the position and the velocity
of satellites is of primary importance.
2. When the satellite crosses the equatorial plane from the southerly latitude to the
northerly, the point is called descending node. a) True b) False

Answer: b

3. Differential GPS corrects for satellite errors. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: Satellite clock errors, including those caused by SA

dithering, are completely eliminated by DGPS, except for the SA dithering effects
due to delays in estimating, broadcasting, and making the DGPS corrections.

4. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design

altitude? a) Continue to orbit the earth b) Fall back c) Overshoots the altitude and
moves at a constant speed d) Stays where it was released

Answer: b Explanation: If a satellite were launched vertically from the earth and
then released, it would fall back to earth because of gravity. For the satellite to go
into orbit around the earth, it must have some forward motion. For that reason,
when the satellite is launched, it is given both vertical and forward motion.

5. The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: Although the speed of the satellite is constant its direction
keeps on changing as the orbit is circular or elliptical. The rate of change of
velocity vector is acceleration and hence its direction changes, the satellite is under
acceleration.

1. Which of the following is not one of the perturbations that make the satellite to
vary from its elliptical path? a) Solar activity b) Asymmetrical components of
Earth’s gravitational field c) Air drag d) Motion of a passing comet

Answer: d Explanation: Perturbations cause the orbital plane to oscillate and rotate
and vary the satellite from its elliptical orbital path. These forces include spherical
asymmetrical components of Earth’s gravitational field, Lunisolar perturbations,
air drag, magnetic and static electric forces.

2. The clocks are important in satellite navigation as they are potential sources of
error. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: The navigational messages from a satellite include

parameters describing the satellite’s clock offset and drift, which are predicted by
the control segment. Any instability in the satellite’s clock causes this prediction to
be in error, thus resulting in range and range rate errors in the user’s navigation
solution.

advertisement
3. Differential GPS corrects for satellite errors. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: Satellite clock errors, including those caused by SA

dithering, are completely eliminated by

DGPS, except for the SA dithering effects due to delays in estimating,

broadcasting, and making the DGPS corrections.

4. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design

altitude? a) Continue to orbit the earth b) Fall back c) Overshoots the altitude and
moves at a constant speed d) Stays where it was released

Answer: b Explanation: If a satellite were launched vertically from the earth and
then released, it would fall back to earth because of gravity. For the satellite to go
into orbit around the earth, it must have some forward motion. For that reason,
when the satellite is launched, it is given both vertical and forward motion.

5. The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: Although the speed of the satellite is constant its direction
keeps on changing as the orbit is circular or elliptical. The rate of change of
velocity vector is acceleration and hence its direction changes, the satellite is under
acceleration.

Unit 5 : BCS

1) Which of the following subsystems of satellite communication are used to

ensure that the directional antennas and the solar cells are in proper orientation.

a) Satellite Antennas and Communication Subsystems

b) Altitude and Orbit Control System (AOCS)

c) Telemetry, Tracking, Command and Monitoring (TTC&M)

d) Power systems

2) Which of the following is a feature of TTC&M system

a) It is partially on earth station and partially on satellite

b) Monitors status of satellite

c) Launching phase uses low gain omnidirectional antenna and after reaching
desired position, it uses high gain directional antennas

d) All the above

3) Which type of antennas are used in satellite communication at VHF and UHF
frequencies to provide communication of TTC & M systems

a) Wire antennas

b) Horn antennas

c) Reflector antennas

d) Array antennas

4) A wideband horn antenna is used to generate which type of beam

a) Spot beam

b) Orthogonally polar beam

c) Global beam

d) Multiple spots of scanning beams

5) Shake and Bake test is a part of which of the following prototype models used
for testing purpose

a) Mechanical model

b) Thermal model

c) Electrical model

d) None of the above

1. Which of the following transponders converts the uplink signal to downlink

signal using two mixers?

a. Single conversion transponders

b. Dual conversion transponders

c. Regenerative transponders

d. Dual mixer transponder

2. Which system collects data from the sensors placed in the earth station?

a. Monitoring system

b. Telemetry system

c. Command system

d. Tracking system

3. Which of the following is a method used for satellite stabilization?

a. 6-Axis stabilization

b. Axis stabilization

c. Spin stabilization

d. 4-Axis stabilization

4. Which of the following is not true?

a. Battery is only used as a back up

b. When in orbit, solar power is always available

c. Batteries are charged using solar power in the satellite

d. Battery is used for initial satellite orientation and stabilization

5. The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and
the line between the earth station’s antenna and the earth’s horizon is called:

a. LOS angle

b. Apogee angle

c. Angle of elevation

d. Angle of Inclination
1. Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the earth
ground station? a) Navigational data, computer data, video b) Computer data,
navigational data, voice c) Voice, video, computer data d) Computer data

2. Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and
re-transmits the signal in a satellite? a) Repeater b) Relay c) Transponder d)
Transducer

3. Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and
re-transmits the signal in a satellite? a) Repeater b) Relay c) Transponder d)
Transducer

4. What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary
transmission and has a bandwidth of 36MHz? a) 32Mpbs b) 72Mpbs c) 36Mpbs d)
12Mpbs

5. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out? a)
Reduce traffic load b) More gain c) High speed d) Error detection

Q.1- Which of the following is not a satellite subsystem? a) Ground station b) Power system
c) Telemetry tracking d) Communication subsystem

Answer – A

Q.2- Which of the following is not a part of the propulsion subsystem of a satellite? a)
Gyroscope b) Jet thruster c) AKM d) Fuel control system

Answer – A

Q.3- Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the earth ground
station? a) Navigational data, computer data, video b) Computer data, navigational data,
voice c) Voice, video, computer data d) Computer data

Answer – C

Q.4- Which of the following is not true? a) Battery is only used as a back up b) When in
orbit, solar power is always available c) Battery is used for initial satellite orientation and
stabilization d) The batteries are charged using solar power

Answer – B

Q.5- Why is it not possible to provide transmit function by wideband amplifier and mixer
circuits? a) Heavy attenuation b) High power output over wideband is not possible c)
Economically not profitable d) Weight of the system increases five fold Answer – B

1. Which of the following is not one of the perturbations that make the satellite to
vary from its elliptical path? a) Solar activity b) Asymmetrical components of
Earth’s gravitational field c) Air drag d) Motion of a passing comet
Answer: d Explanation: Perturbations cause the orbital plane to oscillate and rotate
and vary the satellite from its elliptical orbital path. These forces include spherical
asymmetrical components of Earth’s gravitational field, Lunisolar perturbations,
air drag, magnetic and static electric forces.

2. The clocks are important in satellite navigation as they are potential sources of
error. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: The navigational messages from a satellite include

parameters describing the satellite’s clock offset and drift, which are predicted by
the control segment. Any instability in the satellite’s clock causes this prediction to
be in error, thus resulting in range and range rate errors in the user’s navigation
solution.

advertisement

3. Differential GPS corrects for satellite errors. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: Satellite clock errors, including those caused by SA

dithering, are completely eliminated by DGPS, except for the SA dithering effects
due to delays in estimating, broadcasting, and making the DGPS corrections.

4. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design

altitude? a) Continue to orbit the earth b) Fall back c) Overshoots the altitude and
moves at a constant speed d) Stays where it was released

Answer: b Explanation: If a satellite were launched vertically from the earth and
then released, it would fall back to earth because of gravity. For the satellite to go
into orbit around the earth, it must have some forward motion. For that reason,
when the satellite is launched, it is given both vertical and forward motion.

5. The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: Although the speed of the satellite is constant its direction
keeps on changing as the orbit is circular or elliptical. The rate of change of
velocity vector is acceleration and hence its direction changes, the satellite is under
acceleration.

1. Which of the following transponders convert the uplink signal to downlink

signal using two mixers a) Single conversion transponders b) Dual conversion
transponders c) Regenerative transponders d) Dual mixer transponder

Answer: b Explanation: A dual-conversion transponder makes the frequency

translation in two steps with two mixers. No demodulation occurs.
2. In a regenerative transponder, the signal is demodulated and modulated again
before transmission. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: A regenerative repeater demodulates the uplink signal after

the frequency is translated to some lower intermediate frequency. The recovered
baseband signal is then used to modulate the downlink signal.

3. What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of frequency

and frequency reuse is implemented? a) 12 b) 6 c) 24 d) 3

Answer: c Explanation: Since in frequency reuse each channel can be used twice
the numbers of transponders are also doubled. 12 x 2 = 24 transponders, two for
each frequency.

4. Why is it not possible to provide transmit function by wideband amplifier and

mixer circuits?

a) Heavy attenuation b) High power output over wideband is not possible c)

Economically not profitable d) Weight of the system increases five fold

Answer: b Explanation: it is generally not possible to generate very high output

power over such wide bandwidth. The fact is that no components and circuits can
do this well. The high-power amplifiers in most transponders are traveling-wave
tubes that inherently have limited bandwidth. They operate well over a small range
but cannot deal with the entire 500-MHz bandwidth allocated to a satellite.

5. Which of the following is not true? a) Battery is only used as a back up b) When
in orbit, solar power is always available c) Battery is used for initial satellite
orientation and stabilization d) The batteries are charged using solar power

Answer: b Explanation: When a satellite goes into an eclipse or when the solar
panels are not properly positioned, there is a temporary cut in solar power supply.
In situations like this the batteries take over temporarily and keep the satellite
operating. The batteries are not large enough to power the satellite for a long time;
they are used as a backup system for eclipses, initial satellite orientation and
stabilization, or emergency conditions.

1. Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the earth
ground station? a) Navigational data, computer data, video b) Computer data,
navigational data, voice c) Voice, video, computer data d) Computer data

2. Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and
re-transmits the signal in a satellite? a) Repeater b) Relay c) Transponder d)
Transducer
3. Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and
re-transmits the signal in a satellite? a) Repeater b) Relay c) Transponder d)
Transducer

4. What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary
transmission and has a bandwidth of 36MHz? a) 32Mpbs b) 72Mpbs c) 36Mpbs d)
12Mpbs

5. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out? a)
Reduce traffic load b) More gain c) High speed d) Error detection

1. What is the gain of typical satellite transponders

a) 40dB to 60dB

b) 70dB to 90dB

c) 80dB to 100dB

d) 100dB to 120 dB

Ans: c) 80dB to 100dB

2. How many transponders are installed in a satellite

a) 11

b) 24

c) 10

d) 5

Ans: b) 24

3. Ratio of power radiated by antenna to the total input power supplied to antenna
is called

a) Efficiency of antenna

b) Effective length

c) Directivity

d) Power gain
Ans: a) Efficiency of antenna

4. For double conversion satellite transponder for ku band the uplink and downlink
frequency are

a) 15 GHz and 13 GHz

b) 11GHz and 14 GHz

c) 14GHz and 11 GHz

d) 10GHz and 9 GHz

Ans: c) 14GHz and 11 GHz

5. For single conversion satellite transponder the uplink and downlink frequency
are

a) 6GHz and 4GHz

b) 11GHz and 14 GHz

c) 10GHz and 9 GHz

d) 4GHz and 6GHz

Ans: a) 6GHz and 4GHz

1. Which of the following transponders convert the uplink signal to downlink

signal using two mixers

a) Single conversion transponders b) Dual conversion transponders c) Regenerative

transponders d) Dual mixer transponder

Answer: b Explanation: A dual-conversion transponder makes the frequency

translation in two steps with two mixers. No demodulation occurs.

2. In a regenerative transponder, the signal is demodulated and modulated again

before transmission. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: A regenerative repeater demodulates the uplink signal after

the frequency is translated to some lower intermediate frequency. The recovered
baseband signal is then used to modulate the downlink signal.

3. What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of frequency

and frequency reuse is implemented? a) 12 b) 6 c) 24 d) 3
Answer: c

4.Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and
re-transmits the signal in a satellite? a) Repeater b) Relay c) Transponder d)
Transducer

Answer: c Explanation: The uplink signals from earth are amplified, translated in
frequency, and re-transmitted on the downlink to one or more earth stations. The
component that performs this function is known as a transponder.

5.What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of frequency

and frequency reuse is implemented? a) 12 b) 6

c) 24 d) 3

Answer: c Explanation: Since in frequency reuse each channel can be used twice
the numbers of transponders are also doubled. 12 x 2 = 24 transponders, two for
each frequency.

1. Which of the following transponders convert the uplink signal to downlink

signal using two mixers a) Single conversion transponders b) Dual conversion
transponders c) Regenerative transponders d) Dual mixer transponder

Answer: b Explanation: A dual-conversion transponder makes the frequency

translation in two steps with two mixers. No demodulation occurs.

2. In a regenerative transponder, the signal is demodulated and modulated again

before transmission. a) True b) False

Answer: a Explanation: A regenerative repeater demodulates the uplink signal after

the frequency is translated to some lower intermediate frequency. The recovered
baseband signal is then used to modulate the downlink signal.

3. What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of frequency

and frequency reuse is implemented?

a) 12 b) 6 c) 24 d) 3

Answer: c Explanation: Since in frequency reuse each channel can be used twice
the numbers of transponders are also doubled. 12 x 2 = 24 transponders, two for
each frequency.

4. Why is it not possible to provide transmit function by wideband amplifier and

mixer circuits? a) Heavy attenuation b) High power output over wideband is not
possible c) Economically not profitable d) Weight of the system increases five fold
Answer: b Explanation: it is generally not possible to generate very high output
power over such wide bandwidth. The fact is that no components and circuits can
do this well. The high-power amplifiers in most transponders are traveling-wave
tubes that inherently have limited bandwidth. They operate well over a small range
but cannot deal with the entire 500-MHz bandwidth allocated to a satellite.

5. Which of the following is not true? a) Battery is only used as a back up b) When
in orbit, solar power is always available c) Battery is used for initial satellite
orientation and stabilization d) The batteries are charged using solar power

Answer: b Explanation: When a satellite goes into an eclipse or when the solar
panels are not properly positioned, there is a temporary cut in solar power supply.
In situations like this the batteries take over temporarily and keep the satellite
operating. The batteries are not large enough to power the satellite for a long time;
they are used as a backup system for eclipses, initial satellite orientation and
stabilization, or emergency conditions.

Q1. Which of the following is not a satellite subsystem?

a) Ground station

b) Power system

c) Telemetry tracking

d) Communication subsystem

Q2.Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the
earth ground station? a) Navigational data, computer data, video b) Computer data,
navigational data, voice

c) Voice, video, computer data d) Computer data

Q3.Which of the following transponders convert the uplink signal to downlink

signal using two mixers a) Single conversion transponders b) Dual conversion
transponders c) Regenerative transponders d) Dual mixer transponder

Q4.Which of the following is not included in the Operation Control segment?

a) Master control station

b) Alternate master control station

c) Commands

d) Program
Q5.What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of
frequency and frequency reuse is implemented? a) 12 b) 6 c) 24 d) 3

Unit 6 : BCS

1. In a satellite, multiple transponders are carried for:

a. Better reception

b. More number of operating channels

c. More gain

d. Redundancy

2. The first duplex satellite is:

a. Telstar

b. Sputnik-1

c. Chandrayan

d. Early Bird

3. A satellite communication link between Pinugay Earth Station, Philippines and

Mt. Fucino Earth Station, Italy is to be established. If the assigned uplink
frequency at Pinugay Earth Station is 6175 MHz, what is the downlink frequency
at Mt. Fucino Earth Station, in MHz?

a. 4545

b. 3789

c. 3950

d. 4200

4. The first active satellite which transmitted telemetry information is:

a. Telstar
b. Aguilla II

c. Chandrayan

d. Sputnik

5. A satellite at a distance of 40,000 km from a point on the Earth’s surface radiates

a power of 10W from an antenna with a gain of 17 dB in the direction of the
observer. Find the flux density at the receiving point.

a. -146 dB

b. 136 dB

c. 146 dB

d. -136 dB

1. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same
frequency? a) Spatial Isolation b) Frequency rescue c) Multiplexing d) Error
detection

2. Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the
satellite into smaller segments? a) Spatial isolation b) Frequency reuse c)
Multiplexing d) Modulation

3. What type of satellite TV service uses compressed data transmission to beam

signals directly to every home? a) Direct broadcast satellite b) Mobile satellite
service c) Broadcasting satellite service d) Fixed satellite service

4. Which frequency band does the direct broadcast satellite system use? a) C band
b) X band c) Ku band d) MF band

5. Which of the following is not a reason for redistributing TV signals through

satellites rather than skywaves or spacewaves? a) High frequency signal b) Long
distance communication c) Economically feasible d) Power requirements

Q.1- The satellite that is used as a relay to extend communication distance is called as
__________ a) Relay satellites b) Communication satellites c) Repeater satellites d)
Geosynchronous satellites

Answer – B

Q.2- The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______ a) Relay b)

Repeater c) Transponder d) Duplexer
Answer – C

Q.3- What is the reason for carrying multiple transponders in a satellite? a) More number of
operating channel b) Better reception c) More gain d) Redundancy

Answer – A

Q.4- Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication? a) More
bandwidth b) More spectrum space c) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere d) Economically
viable

Answer – C

Q.5- Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication? a) MF b) Ku
c) X d) C

Answer – A

1. INTELSAT stands for

a) International Telecommunication Satellite

b) India Telecommunication Satellite

c) Inter Telecommunication Satellite

d) None of the above

Ans: a) International Telecommunication Satellite

2. The carrier to noise ratio for satellite depends on

a) Effective isotropic radiated power

b) Bandwidth

c) Free space path loss

d) All of above

Ans: d) All of above

3. Mention the apogee height

a) ra = a (1+e), Ha = R-ra

b) ra = a (1+e), Ha = R-rp
c) ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra-R

d) None of above

Ans: a) ra = a (1+e), Ha = R-ra

4. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission

a) TDMA

b) FDMA

c) Both a) and b)

d) Packet access

Ans: a) TDMA

5. Perigee

a) The point farthest for the earth

b) The point longest for the earth

c) The point closest approach to earth

d) None of the above

Ans: c) The point closest approach to earth

1. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same
frequency? a) Spatial Isolation b) Frequency rescue c) Multiplexing d) Error
detection

2. Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the
satellite into smaller segments? a) Spatial isolation b) Frequency reuse c)
Multiplexing d) Modulation

3. What type of satellite TV service uses compressed data transmission to beam

signals directly to every home? a) Direct broadcast satellite b) Mobile satellite
service c) Broadcasting satellite service d) Fixed satellite service

4. Which frequency band does the direct broadcast satellite system use? a) C band
b) X band c) Ku band d) MF band
5. Which of the following is not a reason for redistributing TV signals through
satellites rather than skywaves or spacewaves? a) High frequency signal b) Long
distance communication c) Economically feasible d) Power requirements

1. INTELSAT stands for

a) International Telecommunication Satellite

b) India Telecommunication Satellite

c) Inter Telecommunication Satellite

d) None of the above

Ans: a) International Telecommunication Satellite

2. The carrier to noise ratio for satellite depends on

a) Effective isotropic radiated power

b) Bandwidth

c) Free space path loss

d) All of above

Ans: d) All of above

3. Mention the apogee height

a) ra = a (1+e), Ha = R-ra

b) ra = a (1+e), Ha = R-rp

c) ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra-R

d) None of above

Ans: a) ra = a (1+e), Ha = R-ra

4. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission

a) TDMA

b) FDMA

c) Both a) and b)
d) Packet access

Ans: a) TDMA

5. Perigee

a) The point farthest for the earth

b) The point longest for the earth

c) The point closest approach to earth

d) None of the above

Ans: c) The point closest approach to earth

1.Find the EIRP of the downlink operating at 4 GHz. The antenna has effective
aperture area of 10 sq-meters and 10 Watts of power is given input to it.

A. 43.5 dBw

B. 43.5 dBm

C. 53.5 dBm

D. 53.5 dBw

Solution: The operating frequency of the down link is 4 GHz. So, gain of the
antenna can be calculated as G = 4π λ2 Ae = 4πf2Ae c 2 = 4π×(4×109 ) 2×10)
(3×108) 2 = 22340.21 or equivalently 43.5 dBi. The input power is 10 watts which
is 10 dBw. So, the EIRP is in dBw is 10 + 43.5 = 53.5dBw. hence the appropriate
option is D.

2.For a 4.0 GHz downlink link, if satellite TWTA power output is 10 dBW, on axis
antenna gain is 34 dB and Feeder loss is 1 dB then the satellite EIRP on earth at −3
dB contour edge of coverage will be

A. 55 dBw

B. 50 dBw

C. 45 dBw

D. 40 dBw
Solution: EIRP in decibel on the main axis of the antenna will be combination of
the TWTA power, antenna main axis gain and feeder loss. Hence, EIRP on the
main axis of the antenna is calculated as 10 + 34 − 1 = 43 dBw. So, on the −3 dB
contour edge of the antenna it will be 43 − 3 = 40 dBw. Hence, the correct one is
D.

3. What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary
transmission and has a bandwidth of 36MHz? a) 32Mpbs b) 72Mpbs c) 36Mpbs d)
12Mpbs

Answer: b Explanation: For binary transmission, the maximum theoretical data rate
or channel capacity C for a given bandwidth B is C = 2B = 2(36) =72Mpbs.

4. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out? a)
Reduce traffic load b) More gain c) High speed d) Error detection

Answer: a Explanation: at times there is more traffic than there are transponders to
handle it. For that reason, numerous techniques have been developed to effectively
increase the bandwidth and signal-carrying capacity of the satellite. Two of these
techniques are known as frequency reuse and spatial isolation.

5. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same
frequency? a) Spatial isolation b) Frequency reuse c) Multiplexing d) Modulation

Answer: b

1. What is the reason for shifting from c band to ku band in satellite

communication? a) Lesser attenuation b) Less power requirements c) More
bandwidth d) Overcrowding

Answer: d Explanation: Most new communication satellites will operate in the Ku

band. This upward shift in frequency is happening because the C band is
overcrowded. Many communication satellites are in orbit now, most of them

operating in the C band. However, there is some difficulty with interference

because of the heavy usage. The only way this interference will be minimized is to
shift all future satellite communication to higher frequencies.

2. Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication? a)

MF b) Ku c) X d) C

Answer: a Explanation: MF is a lower frequency band than Ku, C and X bands and
does not lie in the microwave spectrum. Microwaves are used for satellite
communication since the lower bands get reflected by the ionosphere.
3. What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary
transmission and has a bandwidth of 36MHz? a) 32Mpbs b) 72Mpbs c) 36Mpbs d)
12Mpbs

Answer: b Explanation: For binary transmission, the maximum theoretical data rate
or channel capacity C for a given bandwidth B is C = 2B = 2(36) =72Mpbs.

4. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out? a)
Reduce traffic load b) More gain c) High speed d) Error detection

Answer: a Explanation: at times there is more traffic than there are transponders to
handle it. For that reason, numerous techniques have been developed to effectively
increase the bandwidth and signal-carrying capacity of the satellite. Two of these
techniques are known as frequency reuse and spatial isolation.

5. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same
frequency? a) Spatial isolation b) Frequency reuse c) Multiplexing d) Modulation

Answer: b Explanation: In the frequency reuse technique two systems use the same
frequency, although operating on exactly the same frequencies, they are isolated
from each other by the use of special antenna techniques. For example, a vertically
polarized antenna will not respond to a horizontally polarized signal and vice
versa. Or a left-hand circularly polarized (LHCP) antenna will not respond to a
right-hand circularly polarized (RHCP) signal and vice versa

1) Which of the following is an information available on performing link power

budget analysis?

a) Sources of noise

b) Power sources, responsible for losses in signal power

c) Allocation of resources for transmission and reception of signals

d) All the above

2) The satellite frequency reuse method which sends different information signals
using vertical or horizontal electromagnetic polarization.▪

a) Multiple coverage areas

b) Dual polarization

c) Spatial separation

d) Spread spectrum
3) The point in a satellite orbit which is farthest away from the earth

a) Perigee

b) Apogee

c) Azimuth

d) Ascending node

4) With respect to downlink design, which of the following is not a transmission

path loss

a) Antenna misalignment loss

b) Polarization loss

c) Feeder loss

d) Atmospheric absorption loss

5) With respect to uplink design, which of the following is a transmission path loss

a) Free Space Loss

b) Transmit Feeder Loss

c) Receiver Feeder Loss

d) EIRP

Q1.What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of

frequency and frequency reuse is implemented? a) 12 b) 6

c) 24 d) 3

Q2.Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the
satellite into smaller segments? a) Spatial isolation b) Frequency reuse c)
Multiplexing d) Modulation

Q3.What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary
transmission and has a bandwidth of 36MHz? a) 32Mpbs b) 72Mpbs c) 36Mpbs d)
12Mpbs

Q4.The flux density at distance R in terms of Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is

given by:
a) 4πR^3/ EIRP

b) 4πR^2/ EIRP

c) EIRP/ 4πR^3

d) EIRP/ 4πR^2

Q5. The FDMA technique wherein voice band channels are assigned on “as
needed” basis.

▪a. PAMA

b. DAMA

▪c. SSMA

▪d. CDMA