BECK OPS

FEEDBACK (All Chapters)

V2
260 questions

The Air Operator

1. Who approves leasing of aircraft from an EASA state to a non-EASA state. (No
mention of dry or wet)?
a. The operator
b. the national authority of the state
c. EASA
d. something else (but definitely not correct)

2. Dry leasing from non EU country. What has the lessee to demonstrate to ...:(select
the two correct answers)
a. ...7 months in 12 months...
b. needing not being able to be satisfied through an EU country aircraft...

3. Under which certificate can an aircraft be operated for an aircraft under a dry lease?
a. The operator of the lessee
b. EASSA

4. Who develops ERPs (Emergency response procedures)

a. Operator
b. Something to do with an airport operations manager.

5. Who approves non approved people to conduct work for an operator?

a. ICAO
b. Operator
c. State Authority
d. Contractor

6. Who conducts checks and corrective actions following failure of compliance after
ramp inspection?
a. EASA
b. ICAO
c. Operator
d. Contracting States

7. Who in the EU down inspections/Safety inspections

a. EASA
b. ICAO
c. Operator
d. Contracting States

8. Where would you store flight hours and aircraft info?

a. Journey log

9. Which one will be restored after a journey?

a. Journey log book

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10. What is the ICAO definition of 'unidentified baggage'?
a. Baggage that has been left in the baggage reclaim area and not collected within 24
hours
b. Baggage that has been left in the baggage reclaim area and not collected within 72
hours
c. Baggage at an airport, with or without a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or
identified with a passenger.
d. Baggage at an airport, without a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or
identified with a passenger.

11. Who can be elected to the Safety review board? Pick 2

a. The chief pilot (or maybe line captain)
b. The accountable manager
c. the chief officer
d. the finance director

12. Mission of SAFETY MANAGER? Choose 2

a. Facilitate hazard identification
b. Provide periodic reports on safety performance
c. Audit something something not important

13. Safety Manager (Pick 2 of 4)

a. Focal point of safety system
b. Allocate resources to safety system
c. Periodic reports of safety performance
d. Safety policy of company

14. What is the purpose of the safety management board?

a. Endorsed by chief pilot and maintenance manager
b. Allocate Resources

15. A new company has just been set up and is looking to build hangers in another state,
who do they need to get approval from?
a. Competent Authority
b. EASA
c. Accountable manager
d. Safety manager

16. Who is in charge of the safety review board?

a. Accountable manager

17. Who can be elected to the safety review board (and only have one job) pick 2
a. Line captain
b. Safety manager
c. Financial director
d. Some other manager (So if only 1 job I went for both managers)

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 18. In a non complex company which two people can be the safety manager? 
a. Finance manager
b. CEO
c. Chief Pilot
d. Accountable Manager.
(From what I have read the answer to this is 1. Accountable manager, & the second person has to be
the same level of authority or below the accountable manager therefore the second option is Chief
Pilot)

19. Regarding safety communication within an organisation;

a. The communication for each employee will vary with his/her safety
responsibilities.
b. The Operations Manual should be the primary means of safety communication to
all members of staff within an organisation.
c. The Flight Operations manager is responsible for communicating with all
operations staff regarding safety matters.
d. Once approved by the authority, an organisation does not need to communicate
further with its members of staff.

20. Which statement about training is correct? (two possible answers)

a. Safety training will differ depending on the member of staff’s safety responsibilities
b. The Ops manual is the key component for safety or safe operations

21. A new company has just been set up and is looking to build hangers in another state,
who do they need to get approval from?
a. Competent Authority
b. EASA
c. Accountable manager
d. Safety manager

22. questions about Annexes in ORO and CAT, like subparts.

a. PART ORO: (A. Flight crew information and training.
b. PART CAT: (Subparts – A, B, C, G for performance, data, operating procedures and
data.

23. Who should immediately file a report after act of unlawful interference?
a. PIC
b. Competent authority
c. The authority that the ATS is in charge of when it occurs
d. Operator (the operator should file the final report)

24. You just opened a company that has about 25 full time working people. You are a
_________ company
a. Small
b. Medium
c. Complex
d. Personal

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25. Which is, in accordance with ICAO Annex 17
a. Security restricted area

26. Which is, in accordance with ICAO Annex 17, a security restricted area?
a. All buildings/areas within 5 kilometers of the airport
b. All airport buildings accessible by passengers
c. Passenger and baggage check-in areas
d. Airside aircraft cleaning and on-board catering facilities

27. As a pilot for a Commercial Air Transport operator, the information you need and
the details on the rules, procedures and operating minimums for Low Visibility
operations will be found in which sections of Commission Regulation (EU) No
965/2012 on air operations?
a. -ANNEX I Definitions; ANNEX IV CAT.OP; ANNEX V SPA.LVO <-----

28. Where would you find information on performance in icing conditions?

a. Technical requirments for icing
b. Part C
c. Flight Manual
d. ICAO Doc 9284

29. Where would you find information on Commercial Air transport?

a. Part ARA & Part ORO (it had ARA no ARO in the questions so was wrong option)
b. Part ORO & Part CAT

30. Operations annex to refer to for commercial air transport (From Feedback)
a. CAT (Commercial Air Transport Aeroplanes)
b. ARO (Authority Requirements for Air Operations)
c. ORO (Organisation Requirements for Air Operations)
d. SPA (Specific approvals

31. What Part covers organizational requirements for commercial air transport
operations: (From ATPL Online)
a. Part ORO (organization requirements for Air Operations)
b. Part CAT
c. Part SPA
d. Part ARO

32. What is the distance prior to the threshold at which speed change instructions shall
not be given
a. 4NM

33. Where do you find Emergency evacuation procedures.

a. Part A
b. Part C
c. Part D
d. Part B

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 34. Which of the following would expect to find in OM part B:
a. performance data in icing conditions
b. icing procedures in a specific aerodrome
c. techniques when flying in hazardous conditions
d. holdover times of smth.... (Hold over times is Part A)

35. Who responsible to clean aircraft concept?

a. Commander

36. An a/c over 27,000kg must have:-

a. Maintenance program, a method for identification of potable parts, Data
monitoring
b. Maintenance program, Hazard training, Data monitoring

37. Define a DG accident

a. a occurance where the injurys are extreme or fatal and there is minor major
property damage

38. I had a question on the lines on what are the check to do with icing and the clean
aircraft concept (Pick 3 of 4/5)- I went for:
a. Check before the deicing process
b. Check after the deicing process
c. Perform a special check for the presence of Clear ice
d. (The answer I didn’t go for was something like)- re-perform the pre-flight checklist
after de-icing process
e. cant remember…

EU Air Operations

1. According to European convention, for how long crew duty records, including crew
duty time etc shall be kept? (Type in )
a. 24 months one! (unless it says recent experience 15 months)

2. Pilot Training Records must be kept for?

a. Careful with this question as the CAA have snuck in some familiar WRONG
answers. The correct answer is 3 years, there is one answer of ‘every 2 training
records’ this relates to non-flight crew (aka Operations personnel)!!!

3. How long does an Operator need to hold flight duty records (Type in)
a. 24 months

Crew Qualification & training records = 3 years,

Crew DUTY TIMES = 24 months
Crew member recent experience 15 months”

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The Flight Crew

1. Differences training
a. Addition knowledge only
b. Additional training only
c. Additional training and knowledge etc
d. Familiarisation

2. Training required for one engine inoperative

a. takeoff, approach, go around, landing

3. Differences training:
a. Additional training
b. Familiarisation

4. Licence proficiency check (LPC)

a. Type in (12 Months)

5. Differences= Acquisition of additional knowledge AND training on an appropriate

training device or the aircraft

6. How often is recurrent training

a. 12 months

7. The number of inexperienced Flight crew members is:

a. One
b. Two
c. 35%,
d. Not allowed; every Flight crew member has to be adequately qualified

Cabin Crew

1. State the requirements regarding a senior cabin crew member; (This is a stupid
question that comes down to terminology. The reference can be found in Air Ops,
ORO.CC.200.b)
a. Must have 12 months experience and completed a senior cabin crew member
training course as established by the operator.
b. Must have one years experience and completed a senior cabin crew member
training course as established by the operator.
c. Must have two years experience and completed a senior cabin crew member
training course as established by the operator.
d. Must have 24 months experience and completed a senior cabin crew member
training course as established by the operator

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 2. There are 2 Senior Cabin Crew on a flight
a. The commander will nominate one to be responsible for the flight
b. The Operator will nominate one
c. The competent authority…

3. PIC forgets to turn on the seatbelt sign, what does the senior cabin crew member do?
a. Suspend all non safety tasks and inform the captain

Flight Duty Time

1. Duty, total possible if crew acclimatized, during the day, not part of WOCL, no
extension?
a. 13Hr
b. 9Hr
c. 10Hr
d. 12Hr

2. Augmented crew – a little scenario long paragraph about a Captain having to do

flight duty extension with the presence of augmented crew (ish).
a. 3 hrs
b. 1 hr
c. 2 hrs
d. 4 hrs

3. Maximum duty period without extensions?

a. 10 Hrs
b. 12 Hrs
c. 13 Hrs
d. 8Hrs

4. What is minimum rest at your home base?

a. 12 hours or preceding duty length, whichever is longer
b. 12 hours or preceding duty length, whichever is Shorter
c. 10 hours or preceding duty length, whichever is longer
d. 10 hours or preceding duty length, whichever is Shorter

5. What is the maximum crew duty extension to an augmented flight crew?

a. 2 hours.
b. 10 hours.
c. 3 hours.
d. 5 hours

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Aircraft Instrument & Equipment

1. Minimum equipment’s for CAT II / III ILS?

a. Radio altimeter
b. Two autopilots
c. Barometer

2. The difference between MEL and MMEL

a. MMEL Established by Manufacture, MEL established by operator

3. Fault Develops during taxi, what do you refer to?

a. This becomes a checklist item, not MEL

4. Which of the following is correct regarding equipment approval?

a. Accurate time pieces need not be approved

5. An Aircraft over 27000kg must have?

a. Maintenance program, Hazard training, Data monitoring
b. Maintenance programme, a method for identification of potable parts, Data
Monitoring

6. You are doing an IFR flight, what are the requirements of your radio ?
a. Allows 1-2 way comms in ‘Defined´ portions of the airspace
b. Complies with the airspace requirements of radio comms and must have at least 2
independent radio comms
c. Something….1 radio
d. Something….1 radio as well and stating that you can only have comms good enough
to contact ATS when entering and exiting

7. Planning minima for a DESTINATION AERODROME, if it is equipped with a non-

precision approach only?
a. RVR/visibility specified in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110 and the ceiling at or
above MDH

8. An aircraft is on an IFR flight at night, it is unpressurised and has 12 passengers.

does it need a weather radar?
a. yes, all helicopter fly IFR at night need a air weather radar
b. yes, expect a thunderstorm en-route
c. no, MOPSC more than 19
d. no, pressurized helicopter need AWR

9. You are flying VFR in Controlled airspace. What is the minimum radio requirement?
a. Good enough to contact emergency services if needed
b. Good enough to remain in contact emergency services everywhere in controlled
airspace

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 10. Instrument rating
a. Operator must have an approved training and checking programme for LVP
b. Pilot mast have done 1 autoland the last 90 days

11. Who is responsible on providing information about Dangerous Goods ... to the
passengers and cargo shippers?
a. Operator
b. ICAO
c. National Aviation Authority
d. EASA

Dangerous goods

1. An Operator will check dangerous goods prior to departure of the aircraft

a. To ensure all documents are visible and legible
b. To ensure the Technical Instructions have been complied with
c. To ensure the only document language is English
d. To check for leakages or damage

2. What DG are forbidden to be taken on aircraft except with special authority from the
National Authority ?
a. Liquid explosives
b. Solid explosives
c. Infected animals
3. Radio active loading into an Aircraft… what precautions should you take ?
a. Limit exposure to persons

4. Select the correct combination. (Select 2)

a. Class 1 - Gases
b. Class 2 - Gases
c. Class 4 - Flammable solids
d. Class 9 - Radioactive
e. Class 7 – Corrosive

5. How can the info from the dangerous goods information be received? PICK 5
a. Operations Manual
b. Acceptance Checklist
c. By calling the shipper in a pre-briefing
d. Dangerous goods training …. ORO
e. Dangerous goods information…..ARO
f. Can’t rmb …
g. Dangerous goods transport document

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6. Flight crew receive information regarding dangerous goods (DG).
a. DG training as required by Part ORO
b. Briefing by the shipper to the PIC by telephone
c. An acceptance checklist
d. A loading document
e. Operations Manual part A –
f. Dangerous Goods Manual as required by Part ARO –
g. Feedback from a management system

Select the five correct items.

7. Dangerous Goods –
a. Cargo Aircraft Only Symbol on screen ... Identify it

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8. In the List of Dangerous Goods, ICAO TI "blue pages", each column represents an
item. Select the 3 correct combination.
a. Column A - UN/ID –
b. Column B - Proper Shipping Name
c. Column C - Class or Sub Risk
d. Column A - Proper Shipping Name
e. Column B - Class or Sub Risk -Column
f. Column B - UN/ID

9. What do you do if an undeclared dangerous good is found onboard with a passenger

or crew member? (This question had NO reference to stage of flight (ground, airborne)
the options were similar to)
a. Advise ATC-Advise local authority
b. Advise local authority and state of occurrence asap
c. Have the passenger/crew member offloaded and reported straight to local
authorities
10. Which three of the following operations routinely have exemptions from ICAO Technical
instructions for the carriage of dangerous goods?
a. Police
b. HEMS
c. SAR
d. Agricultural spraying
e.
11. Dangerous goods that may react adversely with each other...
a. Must not be stowed next to one another
b. (Careful with this one as there is another answer available that says they must not
be loaded in the same compartment as each other which is incorrect)

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12. The Operator shall only agree to transport dangerous goods if:
a. The dangerous good quantity doesn’t exceed the limit according to the technical
instructions document
b. The dangerous goods are a combined with dangerous goods document according
to the technical instructions, with exceptions stated in TI

13. A dangerous goods item is found in the baggage of a pax or crew member.
a. The person must be removed from the aircraft and reported
b. The state of occurence and ATS must be informed
c. State of the occurence and state of the operator must be informed with no delay
d. Local police must be informed

14. Why must an operator check for dangerous goods?

a. Check for leakages or damage
b. To ensure the documents are visible/readable
c. To ensure the dangerous goods are not prohibited for carriage

15. Who is responsible for the transport for dangeous goods?

a. TYPE IN (On the aircraft- the Commander)

16. In Case of Non-decleared Dangerous Goods, what do you do?

a. Inform state of occurrence & state of operator

17. What is the annex number and doc number for the safe transport of dangerous
goods by air?
a. Annex 18 and Doc 9284

18. Who is responsible on providing information about Dangerous Goods ... to the
passengers and cargo shippers?
a. Operator
b. ICAO
c. National Aviation Authority
d. EASA

19. Who is responsible for defining what is a dangerous good and providing updated
instructions on how they should be handled?
a. ICAO
b. EASA
c. Pilot in command

20. Dangerous goods – pick the correct statemtns (pick 2 0f 4/5)

a. Some DG are too dangerous for transport by air
b. Some DG are only transported by cargo aircraft

21. The operator shall priorities the safety of which of the following when transporting
and handling radioactive products/cargo? (Select 3)
a. The aircraft
b. The ground staff
c. The aerodrome buildings
d. The General public
e. The flight crew

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BGS Dangerous goods:
710597, 711290, 711323, 711337, 711449, 711515, 710390, 710391, 710392, 710393, 710394,
710395, 710396, 710397, 710398, 710399, 710400, 710401, 710402, 710403, 710404, 710405,
710406, 710469, 710474, 710495, 710514, 710519, 710522, 710523, 710533, 710568, 710571,
710598, 710619, 711307, 711329, 711325, 711377, 711391, 711410, 711432, 711438, 711488,
711489, 711492, 711494, 711499, 711511, 711520, 711521, 711537, 711541, 711543

Pre Flight Planning

1. ETOPS question, BEFORE TAKE OFF something route alternate aerodrome when the
appropriate wx reports etc…. greater than …
a. Operating minima
b. Aerodrome minima
c. Planning minima

2. ETOPS destination the required minima is?

a. Planning minima
b. Airport operational minima
c. Operational +25%
d. Operational +50%

3. Who will receive ETOPS approval.

a. PIC
b. Operator
c. EASA
d. Airport

4. A two-engine aeroplane has an ETOPS approval for 180 min; this time is based in the
one engine inoperative speed.
The departure aerodrome cannot be used as a take-off alternate because of
meteorological conditions. There are no MEL restrictions, what is the maximum
flying time to the take-off alternate?
a. 90 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 180 minutes
d. 120 minutes

5. ETOPS planning minima with precision approach available?

a. 200 DH  and RVR 800 m
b. 300 DH
c. 400 RVR
d. 500 RVR

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6. What is the planning minima for ETOPS alternate
a. Precision APP?
b. DA\ H open box (200ft 800m RVR)
7. Planning Minimal for enroute destination Alternate which approaches require a
ceiling?
a. CAT 1
b. NPA
c. Circling
8. VFR minima below 10000ft Class B
a. Distance from cloud 1000ft vertical, 15000m horizontally, 5km Vis

9. A 2 engines ETOPS approval for 180min

A- 90 MIN
B- 60 MIN
C- 180MIN
D- 120 MIN

10. ETOPS 2 engines, class A, More than 20 PAX, MTOW more than 45 ….. KG
a. A- 60 min - without approval (can be extended with approval)
b. 120 min
c. 180 min
d. 90 min
11. When would ceiling be taken into account? Choose 2 from 3 given
a. Circling approach
b. Non precision approach
c. CAT 1 approach

12. ILS CAT IIIc. Why there not DH

a. The approach will be made automatically so the pilot don’t have to visually assess
b. The flare should be done manually without looking outside

13. When would you choose 2 IFR destinations?

a. No met info

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 14. Planning Minima for Enroute alternate / or was it Destination alternate (ive
forgotten but don’t think it matters), Which of these approaches requires ceiling?
Select 2
a. CAT 1
b. NPA
c. Circling

Final Preparations & Take off procedures:

1. Combination question NADP 1 and 2 & noise abatement objective: -

a. NADP 1 designed to meet distant noise abatement objective
b. NADP 2 designed to meet close in noise abatement objective
c. NADP 1 designed to meet close in noise abatement objective
d. NADP 2 designed to meet only obstacle clearance (OCA/H)

Select the correct combination

2. NADP Vicinity Flaps/slats retraction at

NADP 1 Close to the airport 3000 ft.
NADP 2 Distant from airfield Not below 800 ft. above aerodrome
elevation

NADP should be the SAME for all airports, for same airplane type

3. During a Noise Abatement Departure Procedure 1 (NADP 1) the aircraft suffers an

engine failure, the Commander:
a. must continue the noise abatement departure procedure1 (NADP 1).
b. must continue with noise abatement departure procedure 2 (NADP 2).
c. has the automatic right to ignore the noise abatement procedure.
d. must request permission from the appropriate ATS unit to abort the noise
abatement procedure.

4. You are flying to Thessaloniki Airport in Greece, where would you find information
concerning noise abatement procedures for the airfield?
a. ICAO DOC 9284
b. NOTAM for the departure airport
c. ICAO DOC 8168
d. AIP AD 2

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5. You are ready to take off and all of a sudden the visibility falls to 300m RVR and LVO
are now in place. One pilot is not qualified in LVO ops and the other one failed his
test.

a. Continue because it only needs one pilot to be qualified

b. Can’t do it beacsue the pilot qualified for LVO is not IFR qualified
c. Must wait for 400m RVR before take-off

15. No RVR or Vis information. Can you take off?

a. Captain’s assessment … something something

16. You are completing training for Low Visibility Procedures. You must
a. Complete 2 simulator sessions in LVO
b. Complete a certain amount of flights in actual LVO conditions
c. Complete 10 simulator sessions in LVO
d. Be examined by a TRI for LVO (????)

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ETOPS & Long-range Flights

1. For Non ETOPS Operations the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is
… (unit, min.)
Fill in the blank
a. 60 min.

2. Where do you record your ETOPS alternate as well as the Flight Plan?
a. Operational flight plan

3. Enroute Etops planning minima Precision Approach

a. +200 ft DH/ +800m RVR

4. An aeroplane is obtaining oceanic clearance

“ZZZXX145 request oceanic clearance, ETA RESNO 12:35, Mach zero decimal eight zero,
Flight level three four zero, Second choice track BRAVO”

a. Is wrong, need maximum flight level attitude

b. Is wrong, did not specify first route choice
c. Is right, because he is requesting oceanic clearance
d. Is right, because callsign is there and ETA

Polar Navigation/ Transatlantic roots

1. In MNPS airspace what levels is RVSM in effect

a. FL 290-410

2. What track can you use westbound in NATs

a. Odd levels
b. Even levels
c. Any level, Not FL390 (which is reserved for state flights)
d. Any level in current NAT track message

3. You are in flight before NAT and you have a failure of an FMS which provide LRNS,
leaving you with only one LRNS and you are heading South for T9 route
a. You may continue along the route.
b. You may continue along the T13 route.
c. You may continue along the T16 route.
d. You divert

4. When receiving a clearence for MNPS airspace what should you advise ATC of
a. Max acceptable FL

5. You are flying at FL330, and the ATC request you to maintain FL350 at PIKIL
waypoint. You…
a. Must climb immediately to FL 350
b. Climb to FL 350 when you’re 10 NM away from PIKIL
c. Request for clearance to climb
d. When you’re at PIKIL only you initiate climb

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6. Navigation at higher latitudes is difficult due to the rapid changes of direction due
to?
a. Compass Deviation
b. Magnetic variation
c. Divergence of Meridians
d. INS… something

7. Why is the accuracy of magnetic compass worse higher up in latitudes?

a. Due to the decrease in the horizontal force/field

8. What causes the inaccuracies of flying in Polar Regions?

a. Convergence of the meridians

9. What’s the biggest issue affecting accuracy of polar navigation at high latitudes?
a. Convergence of the meridians  wording ! In rapid changes of heading
b. Accuracy of polar charts
c. Changes in variation
d. Inaccuracy of the navigation equipment

10. Sister routes are T9, T13, T16: -

a. They are permanent and goes both ways
b. They are outside the NAT HLA on the domestic side
c. They go east – west

11. When do you do your oceanic clearance?

a. 15 minutes before
b. 40 mines before
c. At or prior to entry
d. When you enter

12. You have two LRNS but lose one

a. Continue according to your flight plan Only after crossing OCA Boundary
b. Return to nearest suitable aerodrome  When you are outside still
c. May continue along T9 route
d. Lateral offset 15 nm

13. NAT Oceanic clearance will include

a. Mach, Route, FL
b. HF freq and FL
c. ETA and Route
d. SELCAL and something

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14. There is severe weather ahead of you on the NAT airspace while travelling
westbound. You have changed course by 15nm to the right (south) you are unable to
contact ATC. Do you:
a. Climb 300ft
b. Descend 300ft
c. Descend 500ft
d. Climb 1000ft

15. Flying in the NAT region, you have to deviate 15 nm to the left when flying
westbound due to bad weather:
a. Climb 300 ft
b. Descend 300 ft
c. Climb or descend 500 ft
d. Maintain FL

16. NAT Flight plan?

a. W for RVSM, S for NATS (Or is it X for MNPS)

17. What is the right statement with respect to NAT oceanic clearance
a. Clearance to enter the NAT must be accomplished 15 mins before
b. Some airports are on the NAT boundary and therefore get clearance before they
depart
c. Clearance to enter the NAT must be accomplished 5 mins before
d. Clearance can be retrieved after entering the NAT

18. You are flying to BEGAS for oceanic clearance but ATC give you BEVEUAX, what do
you do?
a. Turn 5 mins before BEGAS towards BEVEUAX
b. Request a re-clearance from ATC

19. Fill in question: on NAT track at FL360 you're unable to maintain the clearance. The
airplane can maintain the flight level. You deviate and climb/descend by
___________________ft. (0, 300, 500)

20. Heading west on NAT HLA

a. What ever you are cleared for in the NAT Track message

21. Loss of RVSM before entering NAT route, what do you do?
a. Inform ATC that you don’t have RVSM when clearing
b. Nothing, continue normally
c. Divert and land before entering NAT  only when u don’t have ATC
clearance/contact

22. You are unable to comply with a clearance to FL420. What can you do?
a. Request an amended clearance  any problem? ATC FIRST! (If ever)
b. Climb/descend 300 ft.
c. 15 nm offset and 500ft climb/descent
d. 5nm right offset

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23. NAR, and till where does the GOTA extend?
a. FL 290 – 600

24. NAR routes are: (North Atlantic Routes)

a. Special routes for A/C
b. European and North American routes (from EU to NA)
c. Domestic routes for A/c arriving from oceanic airspace  “arriving” only, it’s for
both arrivals and departures!
d. Routes between NAT tracks and American airspace

25. Transponder procedure for T16 and T213

a. Squawk standby after 10 min  only for T9
b. No code needed
c. The transponder code given by Shanwick
d. Squawk 2000 30 mins after entry

26. You’re flying to an oceanic entry point X but you received a clearance to enter via an
entry point Y 
a. Enter in the FMC the new entry point and fly directly to it 
b. Wait 5 mins and then tune to Y 
c. Call ATC and ask to confirmed the new clearance of Y
d. Deviate from 5 NM

27. You are travelling from Madrid to Washington in MNPS airspace and have to divert
to the right of track 15nm to avoid a thunder storm you have to –
a. Descend, 300ft

28. Long paragraph, a scenario but most importantly saying that he’s at FL 370 and the
plane is not capable of maintaining its altitude.
a. Climb or descend 500 ft.
b. Climb 1000 ft.
c. Climb or descend 1000 ft.
d. Climb 1000 ft. or descent 500 ft.

29. What do you do with your transponder upon entering MNPS airspace
a. Change it to 2000 A/C 30 minutes after crossing the boundary

30. Which of the following would have a VOR referenced to True

a. West atlantic
b. Scotland
c. Northern Canada

31. You are flying in NAT HLA, then suddenly due to bad weather you have to divert
NORTH by 12 NM. What would you do? (Dropdown)
a. (Climb/Descend ). (300 /1000) ft.

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OPS
 32. Bad weather, you are diverting your route 12 NM to the side. Drag down
a. You (Maintain/Descend) (300/500) feet

33. You are flying from Madrid to X. You have to deviate by 10NM due to CBs
a. Climb 500 ft.
b. Descend 300 ft.
c. Maintain current flight level

34. You are flying in NAT HLA and have an uncontained hydraulic failure and the
nearest diversion is Keflavik, but have no way to contact ATC:
a. Follow out the contingency procedure
b. Use the radio inop failure procedure
c. Offset by 300 ft.

35. Radio requirements for NAT?

a. HF/VHF

36. Which of the options are primary communications for T9 T12 T16?
a. HF or VHF Santa Maria and Shanwick
b. HF for Santa Maria and Shanwick
c. VHF or HF for Santa Maria, Shanwick and Lisbon
d. HF for Santa Maria, Shanwick and Lisbon

37. What is the communication in Tango routes?

a. HF in Santa Maria and Shannon
b. HF in Shanwick, VHF Gander
c. HF and VHF in Santa Maria and Shannon
d. HF in Shanwick, VHF Santa Maria
(not sure if this is accurate representation of the question as : Shanwick: definitely HF and the HF
with Santa Maria at their boundary. Shannon: Do not have HF, only VHF in the Shannon FIR.
Lisbon: No HF, they have VHF & and a few UHF)

)
38. You are flying at FL330, and the ATC request you be at FL350 at PIKIL waypoint.
You..
A. Request climb later
B. Initiate climb now
C. When reaching PIKIL initiate climb to FL350
D. Climb to FL350 when you’re close to PIKIL

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OPS
Approach Landing & All Weather Operations

1. What is LVP (Low visibility procedures) ?

i. ‘Low visibility procedures (LVP)’ means procedures applied at an
aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations during lower than
Standard Category I, other than Standard Category II, Category II and III
approaches and low visibility takeoffs.
(Taken from Annex 1 definitions pg. 7)

2. Regards LVO who is responsible for establishing them?

a. Operator
b. Local authority
c. EASA
d. Luke Jeffery

3. The procedures for a First Officer flying in LVO for an Operator state that.
a. The FO must be trained for LVO during his initial type rating
b. The FO must have completed one Auto land within 90 days
c. The Operator must conduct all LVO training in house by the chief pilot
d. The Operator must have an approved training and checking programme

4. LVP – Operator should have extra procedures when

a. RVR <800 for surface movement
b. RVR<400 surface movement
c. RVR<550 for takeoffs
d. RVR<350 for takeoffs

5. Which of the following are classified as LVO’s (quadrant – pick four)

a. CAT 1
b. CAT 2
c. CAT 3
d. Lower than standard CAT 1 OPS (LTS CAT1)
e. Where visibility is less than 400 meters
f. Any operation where Autoland is used

6. Long sentence about CAT IIIB, Why you don’t have DH?
a. Something to do with manual flare and visual lookout
b. You have no DH because … Auto land
c. You have no DH and no RVR bécasse…

7. During Low Visibility Take-Off Operations (LVTO), the reported RVR for the initial
part of the take-off run is below limit. The take-off:-
a. It is not possible under any circumstances
b. Is possible provided the captain can visually assess the actual RVR and it is at or
above the limit (This is only true is RVR is NOT given)

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OPS
 8. during an aproach, microbursts are forecast and in fact you can see one. What do
you do?
a. Holding until conditions prevailing improve or if not, deviate to alternate
b. Increase aproach speed and use less flap setting
c. Decrease aproach speed
d. Decrease vertical speed in the track

9. Circling Minima Category C MDH (type in)

a. 600 FT

10. You are completing training for LVP, you must…

a. Complete 2 sim sessions in LVO
b. Complete a certain amount of flights in LVO conditions
c. Complete 10 simulator sessions in LVO  max is 2
d. Complete something in the last 90 days

11. What is required by crew for LOW VIS OPERATIONS:-

a. 3 Take off 3 Landings in the preceding 90 days
b. Performing flights to low vis limits with DH and RVR
c. Sim sessions in LOW VIS OPS
d. Actual LOW VIS FLIGHTS

12. You are completing training for Low Visibility Procedures. You must
a. Complete 2 simulator sessions in LVO
b. Complete a certain amount of flights in actual LVO conditions
c. Complete 10 simulator sessions in LVO
d. Be examined by a TRI for LVO (???)

(I’m not sure about this question, when I spoke with my TKI, he seemed to think that the TRI
would be the correct answer, however looking through other feedbacks other people have stated
that it is TWO sim sessions. I found the below online. I didn’t have the question in my exam luckily
so ill leave it up to you)

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OPS
13. Low Vis training
a. Taxi, takeoff, approach, flare, landing, missed approach
b. Taxi, take off and landing
c. Taxi, takeoff, approach, landing

14. You are commencing a CAT II approach, under EASA Ops, what is the requirement
for the height call-outs to be based on radio altimeter height?
a. below 200 ft. above the aerodrome elevation
b. below 500 ft. above the aerodrome elevation
c. below 500 ft. above the aerodrome threshold elevation
d. below 200 ft. above the aerodrome threshold elevation

15. You are in a hold for ILS CAT III. Suddenly while holding, your Radio altimeter fails.
Can you proceed with CAT III approach/landing?
a. Yes with GNSS
b. Yes with 2 pressure altitude barometric altimeter
c. Yes Pressure altitude with GNSS with temperature correction
d. No, you need radio altimeter to proceed

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OPS
16. LVP / Operating minima for a certain flight, shall be mentioned on ATC FPL and:
a. Gendec
b. Log Banana
c. OPS Manual Part B
d. Operational FPL

17. For low visibility operations, an operator shall ensure that procedures are in place
regarding:
a. Seat and eye-height position for pilot-flying (PF)
b. The requirement to monitor the Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) of the
aircraft throughout the approach.
c. The requirement for both pilots to look out at DH

18. You are ready to take off and all of a sudden the visibility falls to 300m RVR and LVO
are now in place. One pilot is not qualified in LVO ops and the other one failed his
test.
a. Continue because it only needs one pilot to be qualified
b. Can’t do it beacsue the pilot qualified for LVO is not IFR qualified
c. Must wait for 400m RVR before take-off

19. What should the airport authority do with regards to LVO when the aerodrome is
located near the coastline?
a. Implement the use of vehicles at thresholds to stop runway incursions
b. Dim the intensity of the runway lights to stop it from refracting due to the addition
of mist and fog
c. Approach the runway for inspection then go around and come back in for a landing

20. When would ceiling be taken into account? Choose 2 from 3 given
a. Circling approach
b. Non precision approach
c. CAT 1 approach

21. CAT 2 approach- what do you need?

a. 1 rad alt, 2 pilots
b. 1 rad alt, 1 pilot

22. Planning minima for a DESTINATION AERODROME, if it is equipped with a non-

precision approach only?
a. RVR/visibility specified in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110 and the ceiling at or
above MDH

23. Something about LVO but reworded much.. Regarding Training

a. Conducting an actual few flights in low vis with the DH/RVR/VIS
b. Doing a number of flights in a Flight simulated Training device (FSTD)
c. Conducting a few flight

Beck 26
OPS
24. Height keeping RVSM question, the error tolerance (?) of the Assigned altitude
deviation:-
a. ± 90m (± 300 ft.)  this is your answer, TVE (Total vertical error) is also this
amount.
b. ± 75m (± 245 ft.)  This is for Altimetry system error (ASE)

25. You are flying to America whilst in the OTS and a passenger has a medical
emergency ( I don't know if this refers to the bad food he had or was giving birth to
kittens it didn't say) you decide to divert to the Azores in what order do you do these
actions in:
a. Offset your track by 15nm, Decend/Climb 500ft, Turn towards the Azores

26. Height keeping for RVSM tolerance

a. 90m (300ft)

Icing conditions & Effects

1. Collect snow and compacting in to a ball where it keeps its shape as a Snowball
a. Wet Snow
b. Dry Snow
c. Compacted Snow

2. Who is responsible of Icing-deicing ground procedures?

a. Operator
b. Competent authority
c. State of authority

3. You are at an airport not in the state of the AOC holder and due to improper training
de icing is not completed properly who is responsible?
a. Operator
b. Airport Authority
c. Maintenance
d. Security authority of the AOC

4. Where would you find information on performance in icing conditions?

a. Technical requirements for icing
b. Part C
c. Flight manual (OPS Manual Part B??)
d. ICAO Doc 9284

5. Icing conditions on the ground.

a. You take off with zero flaps as the ice could make them stuck
b. You increase your take off speed
c. You follow a “clean aircraft concept”
d. You check the pitot tubes

Beck 27
OPS
6. When conduct a night flight and encounters icing condition what we need
a. Remote heat
b. Illuminated detecting system in the cockpit

7. Select 3; Regarding variables that reduces anti icing holdover times:-

a. Strong ambient wind speed
b. High Humidity
c. LOW OAT
d. High OAT
e. Light winds
f. “additional choice: Colder Wing temperature”

8. You were flying in FL 370 and then you land in a humid airport.
a. Icing will appear on the wing if temperature falls below 0
b. Icing will appear on the wing if OAT falls below 0
c. Pitot tube block
d. Icing will appear on the wing if temperature is above 0

9. Airline operator contracting de-icing anti-icing to a third party. The ultimate

responsibility for the service provided is 
a. The competent authority or EASA
b. The third party of the de ice business 
c. Airline operator
d. Airport operator

10. If you encounter a problem with de-icing in a state which is not the one of your
operator, who is responsible?

a. Operator
b. Local Authority
c. Competent Authority
d. Ground service company

11. What’s significant in icing on ground as compared to Icing on the air?

a. Ice can accumulate in areas they normally wouldn’t in flight such as wheel wells
b. Ice accumulate on trailing edge

12. Your aircraft has been de-iced and anti-ice fluid has been applied. Whilst at holding,
ATC inform you that you will be delayed by 15 minutes. 18 minutes later, you are
cleared for take-off. You have passed the holdover time by 1 minute. Your actions as
Commander of this aircraft will be to
a. Continue with the take-off as you have already been cleared for take-off
b. Inform ATC “unable”, return to the stand and have the aircraft de-iced and new
anti-ice fluid applied

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OPS
13. De icing, final check:
a. Commander, if requested by Ground, will do a check of the critical surfaces one de
ice done
b. Ground OR flight crew, can do the pre check before de icing – only sensible one
c. Ground has the responsibility to do the final check after de ice
d. Dispatcher has the responsibility to check the WX condition and maintain the clean
aircraft concept

14. If only half the aircraft had visible ice so only half the aircraft was de-iced, who is at
fault?
a. De-icing team
b. Commander
c. Organization of de-icing agent

15. Only one side of Aircraft is visible. The de-icing/anti-icing is conducted only on that
side. Who’s to blame?
a. Operator
b. Antiicing/deicing company
c. Competent authority
d. Commander

16. Temp outside is -2 degree Celsius and Captain is doing the walk around and finds ice
on the ground and sees freezing rain on the windshield of the plane (?). What could
have happened?
a. Freezing rain
b. Could jam the controls
c. Something taking off with high take off speed.

17. What happens to your ASI when your static port has icing blockage? (in a climb)
a. Overread
b. Stay the same
c. Underread
d. Zero

18. While climbing, the static port of the altimeter is suddenly blocked..
a. The reading will stay at that level
b. Over read
c. Under read
d. Increase then decrease till zero gradually

19. There is no RVR given on TO for a runway. Which of the following is correct?
a. TO can still be continued if PIC established required visual
b. You cannot continue

Beck 29
OPS
 20. Following the ‘Clean aircraft’ concept an aircraft may take off with
a. 80% of the wing covered in frost
b. Snow or slush collected on the elevator
c. Frost on the fuselage
d. 3-4cm of snow on the wing.

21. What is the definition of frost?

a. Clear film that accumulates on the aircraft surfaces when temperatures are below
0 degrees
b. White crystalline formations that forms on surfaces whose temperature at or
bellow 0 degrees

22. After having been flying at FL370 you land at a place at which humidity is quite high.
Cold soak effect could let ice formation:
a. On the wings because they are probably below 0ºC
b. On the rudder
c. On the pitot/static
d. On the wing if OAT arise 0º

23. What will cause Holdover time to reduce?

a. Light
b. Heavy WX

Adverse Weather Conditions

1. You have an increase in tailwind.

a. You will have an increase in speed
b. You will fly above the glidepath
c. You will fly below the glidepath

2. Crossing ITCZ and facing CB in front and you decided to navigate through..
a. Be aware of your air parameters/values as you might experience erroneous
readings
b. Pitot/static blockage or icing
c. Climb above it
d. Increase your speed
3. during cruise with autopilot engaged to autothrottle, ice blocks probes at the
engines’ inlets. Without the flight crew action:
a. Autopilot disconects...
b. Autothrottle disconects...
c. Erroneus readings and autothrottle prevents from excessive power setting

4. Prior to take off, there’s a microburst ahead of you …

a. Delay take off
b. Increase speed and take off
c. Decrease speed and take off
d. Rubbish
e. Keep flaps, retract landing gear

Beck 30
OPS
 5. Landing in an airport that has windshear
a. Delay your landing
b. Divert
c. Increase approach speed and land

6. You encounter a windshear after taking off ..

a. Maintain flap and gear position until terrain clearance is assured
b. Maintain flap, extend gear so u can increase climb gradient
c. Retract the flaps and landing gear
d. Keep flaps, retract landing gear

7. What is the official definition of low level wind shear?

a. A change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with a horizontal distance.
b. Horizontal and vertical change in speed and/or direction in the mid-latitudes
c. Wind shear, downdrafts, vortices or virga in the low level environment at any stage
in flight 
d. Vertical and/or horizontal change in direction and/or speed changes on the
approach flight path and departure lanes
(Padpilot: Low altitude wind shear is a change in wind direction and/or speed along the final
approach path or along the runway and along the take-off and initial climb-out flight path)

8. I had a question about how to identify wind shear (pick 4 of 5)

a. I cant remember all the answers however there was only one combination of
answers on offer that spoke about: Smoke plumes where the top of the smoke is
displaced from the bottom half

9. What is the definition of updraft/downdraft shear?

a. Vertical component of the wind. (Changes in the vertical component of wind with
horizontal distance)
b. Horizontal change of direction and or speed in space.
c. Horizontal change in direction/speed of the wind with height.

10. Quadrant question about taking off with WS –

a. Do not rotate before VR and do not stop after V1

11. Definition of a Microburst

a. Wind emanating only from a thunderstorm
b. Wind accelerated in a vertical direction
c. Wind accelerated in a horizontal direction
d. Wind accelerated in a horizontal and vertical direction

12. Windshear at the airport according to met reports just BEFORE approach to land,
what do you do?
a. Hold or divert to an alternate
b. Increase speed
c. Decrease flaps

Beck 31
OPS
 13. Prior to take off, there’s a microburst ahead of you
a. Delay take off
b. Increase speed and take off
c. Decrease speed and take off

14. There is a microburst ahead of you to the right of you (you are in the plane). You are
on the glide path. (Drop down 3 boxes)
a. IAS (Increase/decrease), plane drifts to the (left/right) and you are (above/below)
the glide path

15. You encounter downdraft, it’s similar to…?

a. Drop down menu: (Increase/decrease) Headwind and (increase/decrease)
Tailwind

16. You are approaching a runway and run into a microburst, experiencing a heading
for 30kts. What horizontal wind speed would you expect to experience directly
underneath the microburst?
a. 30kt Headwind
b. 30kt Tailwind
c. 60kt Tailwind
d. No horizontal wind

17. You are flying directly underneath a microburst when you encounter a 30 kts
headwind. What is your VSI gonna read?
a. 0
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60

18. An acceptable flying technique to avoid wake turbulence when landing behind a
heavy aircraft is:
a. Land beyond touchdown of previous aircraft

Contaminated runways

19. There’s a SNOWTAM paragraph, asking you what is the braking friction?
a. GOOD/GOOD/GOOD  estimated
b. 3/3/3  estimated
c. .33/.34/.34  measured

d. Ice accumulate on wings

Beck 32
OPS
 20. Which part of the operations manual would contain information on the wind
limitation for contaminated runway if any?
a. Ops Manual A
b. Ops Manual B
c. Ops Manual C
d. Ops Manual D

21. Contaminated runway procedures.

a. OPS PART A
b. OPS PART B
c. OPS PART C
d. OPS PART D

22. What is the estimated braking action ?

a. H) GOOD/3/6 SRF
b. H) 3/4/3
c. H) 0.34,0.32,0.33  (Measured Surface friction)
d. GOOD/GOOD/GOOD

23. SNOWTAM report/decode. What is the braking action?

TIP: go straight to letter (H). In this case mine was “H) 3/3/3”.
a. Medium
b. Good
c. Poor
d. Medium poor
24. What would be shown on a SNOWTAM to represent breaking action
a. Good/Good/Good
b. 0.37/0.39/0.32
c. 4/5/4

Bird Strike

25. Where would you find information on bird migration areas/routes?

a. AIP PART 3 AD1
b. Annex IV EU Regulation 965/2012
c. AIP PART 2 ENR 5.6
d. AIP PART 1 GEN

26. During flight an aircraft has a bird strike and suffers major service failure, the
commander shall?
a. Dry crack the engine
b. Land and visually inspect
c. Something about ATC
d. Submit written bird strike report to authority.

27. Bird Migration areas/routes:

a. AIP PART 2 ENR 5.6 (or AD2 for airports/AD3 for helis if there’s no AIP ENR as a
choice)

Beck 33
OPS
 28. During flight, the part of the aircraft concerning the measurement of engine
parameters becomes blocked.
a. The auto-pilot may experience erroneous readings and constantly adjust thrust
levels.
b. The angle of attack readings will be affected.
c. The ASI will be affected.
d. The altimeter, VSI and ASI will be affected

Cabin Decompression

1. TUC at 35,000 feet (type in)

a. 30 seconds

2. This one same with the banks, max differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. You don’t want
the cabin altitude being greater than 10,000 ft.…
a. 15,100
b. 12,000

3. Graph in the worksheet of Y-Axis Pressure Altitude, X-Axis Cabin Pressure, diagonal lines
of cabin differential. You wish to maintain a maximum of 3 bar/PSI cabin differential, what
is the maximum Pressure Altitude you can operate at if you wish to stay below 14,000ft
cabin alt?
a. 23,500
b. 25,000
c. 21,000
d. 20,000

Beck 34
OPS
Fire & Smoke

1. Carburetor fire on piston engines during start. What should you do if the engine
started ? 
a. Mixture idle cut off, throttle fully opened, discharge extinguisher.
b. Keep running and carry out the drills of the engine on the ground
c. Immediately carry out the drills
d. Idle cut off and evacuate the aircraft

2. You are in a piston A/C and the carburetor catches fire AFTER start. Your actions
are:-
a. Select mixture OFF, open throttle and use extinguisher
b. Carry out the ‘engine fire on the ground’ drills immediately
c. Leave the engine running and check to see if the fire continues
d. Select mixture to OFF and vacate the a/c immediately

3. What is the initial action to be undertaken when a twin-engine jet aircraft

experiences an engine fire after V1 but before rotation?
a. Shutdown engine and operate fire extinguisher handle
b. Abandon take-off
c. Immediately inform ATC
d. Continue the take-off, stabilise the aircraft and climb

4. Fire in cabin what should the crew in this situation ?

a. Use the Protective breathing equipment
b. Use the Protective breathing equipment and oxygen
c. Use a wet towel to cover your mouth

5. Following a fire from an unidentified source

a. Land to the neareast aiport

6. ELT's are required to transmit on what frequencies?

a. Transmit on 406MHz only
b. Transmit on 121.5MHz and 406MHz sequentially (flick between them
intermittently)
c. Transmit on 121.5MHz and 406MHz simultaneously.
d. Transmit on 121.5MHz or 406MHz

7. Smoke from and immediately obvious source in the Cockpit what would you do?
a. Divert and do nothing else
b. Isolate electrical services

Beck 35
OPS
 8. From an IDENTIFIED source, isolate any appropriate electrics, and immediately fight the
source of the fire. Use the correct extinguisher, aiming the extinguishing agent at the base of
the fire; start a few feet away(1.5m - 2.5m), and work in as the flames/fire diminishes. - BGS
explanationisolate and pull circuit breakers
1. From an UNIDENTIFIED source in the cockpit or passenger cabin, time is critical.
IMMEDIATELY point the aircraft at the nearest diversion airfield, and select maximum speed
towards the airfield to get the aircraft on the ground as soon as possible.  Figures suggest
that if you cannot get the aircraft on the ground within 18 minutes, the fire will probably
result in an aircraft loss.
Continue with attempts to identify the source of the fire – you MUST find the source. 
Depending on aircraft type and scenario, checklists may be available. Do not deploy
supplemental O2. Cockpit crew Oxygen masks/100% O2 may be necessary - BGS explanation

Fuel Jettison

1. A CS 25 Transport airplane is required to have a fuel jettisoning system installed on

each aeroplane when the MTOW , less the actual computed weight of fuel necessary
for a 15 min flight when….
a. The climb gradient of the plane is less than 3.2%  picked this cus u need CG of
>3.2% thus install
b. When climb gradient of the plane is less 2.4
c. When the fuel needs to be jettison at 1500 ft. ( (rubbish)
d. To go below the MLM
2. What are the requirements relating to aircraft over xxxkg in relation to fuel jettison?
a. Climb gradient of 2.4%
b. Max landing weight
c. Climb gradient of 3.2%

3. A fuel jettison system must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel to go from MTOM to
meet climb requirements of CS-25 in:
a. 20 minutes 
b. 15 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 45 minutes

4. After fuel jettison climb requirements.

a. Remember the figures 2.7% in approach
3.2% in cruise configuration

“For 2,3 or 4 engines Landing segment climb requirements lowest is 3.2%  Landing
Climb gradient required”

Emergency Landing

5. Emergency landing…
a. Don’t mind people on the ground or buildings
b. Land as quickly as possible. Never mind appropriate facilities  probable answer
but option D is not remembered….. prob the most clear answer (?)
c. Take navaids into considerations

Beck 36
OPS
6. During an emergency, which of the following should be part of your decision:
a. The sight of landing, its facilities and surface is of no concern, the most important
thing is to land quickly.
b. make no provisions for people or hazards on the ground.
c. contact ATC informing them of the situation.
d. Ensure that passengers are briefed off emergency procedures.

7. . Where do you find Emergency evacuation procedures.

a. Part B

8. Who should file a report after act of unlawful interference?

a. PIC
b. Competent authority
c. The authority that the ATS is in charge of when it occurs
d. Operator

9.

Beck 37
OPS
10. Precautionary landing.
a. The site of landing can only be at destination 
b. The site of landing can only be at alternate 
c. The site of landing will be at the earliest opportunity 
d. Site of landing is irrelevant, highest priority is to land immediately  Alex’s
choice

11. Flying overwater, about to do ditching procedures…

a. Gear (UP /DOWN), Nose attitude (UP /DOWN)

12. You are on a transport aeroplane (CS 25), and you are about to do a ditching
a. GEAR UP, FLAPS FULL, NOSE UP, LOW LEVEL TREEs

13. Drop-down question with three windows: “During a flight over a forest area, you
have a sudden failure at all engines and a forced landing on trees is necessary”. 
(071 02 10 01)
a. You land with full/minimum flaps, gear up/gear down, and aim for low trees/high
trees.

14. Ditching in sea/ocean?

a. Gear up, AC nose up
b. Gear down, AC nose down
c. Gear up, AC nose down
d. Gear up, AC nose up

15. Which of the following would lead to an intentional ditching?

a. One engine
b. Uncontrollable fire & smoke

16. Ditching into sea

a. parallel and on top of swell 

17. Considering ditching:-

a. Always land into wind <- not always!
b. Land perpendicular to swells - no way
c. Delay your choice of landing direction to account for last minute changes in wind
direction
d. In strong winds, you might need to land slightly across the swells as a compromise

18. You are about to perform an emergency landing into trees. What configuration
should the aircraft be in?
a. Gear (UP/DOWN), flaps (UP/DOWN), nose (UP/DOWN), aim for (LOW/HIGH) trees

19.
20. What would you do when a laptop with a lithium battery catches fire?
a. Place in a fire retardant Bad
b. Extinguish with water

Beck 38
OPS
 c. Use the appropriate fire extinguisher

21. ICAO Definition of ‘screening’

a. Using means to search weapons & explosives that would cause damage to
aircraft/people
b. Baggage put behind a screen
c. X-ray for drugs
d. Keeping dangerous goods separate from non dangerous goods.

Unknown.

1. The maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome (threshold distance) is … (unit, min.)
Fill in the blank
a. 60 min.

2. What do you take into consideration in a minimum time route?

Select 3
a. ATC
b. WX
c. Route point A to B straight
d. Restricted Areas and airspace

27. What is the distance prior to threshold at which speed change instructions shall not be
given?
A. 3 nm
B. 1 nm
C. 0.5 nm
D. 4 nm

28. Another NAR question came up: 2 answers with domestic.

e. He puts “something along the lines of fixed tracks joining American airports

NAR in flight contingency reason for it:-

f. To fly on levels and tracks where it’s least likely to encounter other traffic
g. Immediate turn to an alternate aerodrome
h. To give heading changes to other traffic to avoid you

No RVR or Vis information. Can you take off?

a. Captain’s assessment … something something

Beck 39
OPS
You can only see the approach lights. Can you continue the approach beyond MDA/H?
b. Yes you may

What is LVP (Low visibility procedures) ?

c. ‘Low visibility procedures (LVP)’ means procedures applied at an aerodrome for the
purpose of ensuring safe operations during lower than Standard Category I, other than
Standard Category II, Category II and III approaches and low visibility take-offs.
- Taken from Annex 1 definitions pg 7

d.

Select the runway to land on with the best estimated surface friction
e. 08
f. 01L
g. 01R
h. Any runway may be used as all report medium surface friction

i.

You are flying VFR, using the standard radio propagation theory, how much contact do you
need to have with ATC using visual navigation waypoints?
j. Direct contact with ATC at all times in controlled airspace
k. Anytime outside of controlled airspace with the appropriate ATS units

Question about TWO FMS out of which one fails BEFORE entering NAT airspace…
l. Come back to departures Divert to alternate suitable aerodrome
m. Use domestic routes
n. Ask Shannon for permission  possible to ask for alternate routes, i.e. Blue Spruce
o. Flight not allowed <- to enter OTS

Big select on LVO. (select 5)

What is classed as LVO ?
p. CAT II
q. CAT III
r. LVTO
s. LTS CAT 1 (lower than standard)
t. Approaches conducted with autopilot
u. Approaches needing EVS
v. CAT 1

Beck 40
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11-12 - 2 different Q asking on actions you should take if fire from an identified source and the
second one, unidentified source

13-
BGS Clean aircraft concept – is achieved by a correct de-icing/anti-icing procedure and, in addition,
there should be a last minute pre-take off check, to ensure that the critical surfaces are free from ice.
I commented that question as for me, none of the answers are corrects. Dispatcher and Ground
have no responsibilities…. It is the commander. The pre check has to be done by pilots or F/E and
not the Ground as De ice is ordered by the crew only. And dispatcher… they don’t give a s !! We
are left with A… which is quite ambiguous as well….. Or maybe I m thinking too much!
14- Undeclared DGR on board, who shall be advised?
A- Inform state of occurrence and state of operator
B- Inform state of registry
C
B
15- Microburst while you are on the glide
Drop down …. Speed INCREASES, Rate of Descent DECREASES ( as above glide)
16- Microburst, 30kt HWC, horizontal speed if you are flying below it
A- 30 kt
B- 60 kt
C- 0 kt
D- banana
23- What shall the Operator do……. LVP ?
A- Ensure Appropriate Training ….
B
C
D
24 Annex - graph on PSI / Max cabine altitude
you've seen loads of these

25- Annex - Read a MEL and determine if possible to operate a CAT 2 with dual rad at inop
26- LVO ….What do the commander needs to check prior operating in LVO?
A- MEL OK and signed by Allowed Defect…
B- MEL OK and signed by Authority Defect
C- Aircraft status and equipment for such operation are ok (BGS, it is up to the commander to safisy
himself that the aeroplane, crew and the airport all conform to the requirements for the requirement
of lVOs. If not, then lVOs are not permitted.)
D- AFM docs and other specified docs
27- NAR definition

Beck 41
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The one from feedback but reworded!
2 answers are very similars… both talking about NAT and North American, domestics routes but
one answer is saying INTERFACING …. The 2 others answers were talking about Europe as well so
not correct for sure

3) You have a loss of RVSM before entering NAT airspace. Do you:

A) notify ATC of the failure before receiving the clearence
B) return to departure and land.

I’m sure the other two didn’t make sense.

Went with A, as you can get a clearance to climb through it, or above or below, but these were not
options. Also, nothing about Blue Spruce, or diverting onto G3/G11.

Fairly certain no level was given. I put climb 300ft but was thrown by the 500ft. I’ll double check the
manual to see what it says.)

3.

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Law/Annex 6/leasing/ Gen

BGS:
710003, 710004, 710005, 710006, 710007, 710008, 710010, 710011, 710012, 710013, 710015,
710016, 710017, 710019, 710021, 710032, 710035, 710036, 710068, 710141, 710166, 710418,
710457, 710458, 710471, 710475, 710476, 710477, 710496, 710558, 710567, 710569, 710572,
710589, 711247, 711248, 711249, 711250, 711251, 711252, 711253, 711254, 711255, 711256,
711258, 711260, 711261, 711274, 711277, 711281, 711282, 711284, 711287, 711294, 711298,
711299, 711300, 711311, 711338, 711339, 711343, 711359, 710018, 711360, 711361, 711362,
711363, 711369, 711371, 711393, 711403, 711404, 711421, 711427, 711428, 711444, 711445,
711447, 711454, 711486, 711490, 711507, 71508, 711512, 711514, 711517, 711526, 711528,
711529, 711545, 711565, 711566, 710247, 710248, 710249, 710250, 710251, 710252, 710253,
710254, 710256, 710257, 710258, 710259, 710376, 710378, 710380, 710382, 710384, 710510,
710511, 710513, 710520, 710524, 710582, 710586, 710587, 710592, 710594, 710624, 711264,
711273, 711280, 711333, 711336.

Crew & Training

BGS:
710042, 710046, 710167, 710168, 710169, 710170, 710172, 710175, 710176, 710467, 710499,
710596, 711257, 711262, 711276, 711285, 711289, 711301, 711309, 711310, 711331, 711340,
711341, 711342, 711346, 711348, 711358, 711372, 711386, 711392, 711408, 711446, 711448,
711467, 711482, 711491, 711527, 711535, 711539, 711548, 711551, 711554,

Minimum Equipment List

BGS:
710031, 710098, 710100, 710101, 710102, 710103, 710104, 710105, 710106, 710107, 710108,
710109, 710110, 710112, 710113, 71014, 710115, 710116, 710117, 710118, 710120, 710121,
710123, 710124, 710125, 710126, 710129, 710130, 710131, 710132, 710133, 710137, 710138,
710139, 710140, 710143, 710144, 710145, 710146, 710148, 710149, 710150, 710151, 710152,
710154, 710155, 710157, 710159, 710446, 710534, 710543, 710554, 710564, 710565, 710576,
710577, 710580, 710581, 710585, 710604, 710610, 710617, 710621, 710622, 711269, 711288,
711305, 711328, 711349, 711412, 711485, 711522, 711532, 711546, 711558, 71561, 710570,
710579, 710584, 710590, 710512, 710542, 710552, 710381, 710555, 710559, 710561, 710562,
711416, 711425, 711442, 711443,

Beck 43
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