Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.

Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat

Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
PRELIM EXAM
Name: _________________________________ Grade/Sec:________________ Score:_______
TEST I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose your answer from the 3 given choices.
Encircle the letter of the correct answer.
1. It is a change in velocity with respect to time.
a. Acceleration b. energy c. allergens
2. It is the minimum energy that must be surpassed by the reactant molecules for them to undergo a successful reaction.
a. Activation energy b. acceleration c. aqueous
3. It is a substances that can cause an overreaction of the body’s natural defense system, which is supposed to help fight
infections.
a. Allergens b. atomic c. mass
4. It is a physical state that describes a substance dissolved in water.
a. Aqueous b. mass c. number
5. It is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
a. Atomic mass b. aqueous c. bond
6. It is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
a. Atomic number b. mass c. energy
7. It is a substances that cause cancer upon long term exposure.
a. Carcinogens b. energy c. atomic
8. It is a substances that are part of the reactants but are not consumed in the reaction.
a. Catalysts b. atom c. mass
9. It is the electrical attraction between the nuclei and valence electrons of an atom and which binds atoms together.
a. Chemical bond b. catalysts c. ions
10. It is a reactions that involve the sharing or exchange of electrons.
a. Chemical reaction b. atom c. bond
11. It is a theory which states that reactant particles involve in the chemical reaction require sufficient kinetic energy
and proper orientation for successful collision to occur, leading to the formation of products.
a. Atom b. collision theory c. mass
12. It is a type of chemical bond formed from the sharing of electrons between atoms.
a. Chemical b. covalent bond c. ionic bond
13. It is a type of chemical bond that tends to resist a change in its state of rest or motion.
a. Ions b. ionic bond c. isotopes
14. It is a charged particles that result from the gain or loss of electrons
a. Isotopes b. ions c. polar
15. It is the atoms with the same atomic number but different atomic masses.
a. Polar b. isotopes c. nonpolar
16. It is the type of covalent bond that results when atoms equally share electrons
a. Ions b. nonpolar covalent bond c. isotopes
TEST II : IDENTIFICATION: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Write your
answer on the blank provided before each number.
___________1. It is a change in velocity with respect to time.
___________2. It is the minimum energy that must be surpassed by the reactant molecules for them to undergo a
successful reaction.
___________3. It is a substances that can cause an overreaction of the body’s natural defense system, which is
supposed to help fight infections.
___________4. It is a physical state that describes a substance dissolved in water.
___________5. It is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
___________6. It is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
___________7. It is a substances that cause cancer upon long term exposure.
___________8. It is a substances that are part of the reactants but are not consumed in the reaction.
___________9. It is the electrical attraction between the nuclei and valence electrons of an atom and which binds
atoms together.

___________10. It is a reactions that involve the sharing or exchange of electrons.

___________11. It is a theory which states that reactant particles involve in the chemical reaction require sufficient
kinetic energy and proper orientation for successful collision to occur, leading to the formation of
products.
___________12. It is a type of chemical bond formed from the sharing of electrons between atoms.
___________13. It is a type of chemical bond that tends to resist a change in its state of rest or motion.
___________14. It is charged particles that result from the gain or loss of electrons
___________15. It is the atoms with the same atomic number but different atomic masses.
___________16. It is the type of covalent bond that results when atoms equally share electrons
TEST III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before
the number.
______1. Acceleration is a change in velocity with respect to time.
______2. Activation energy is the minimum energy that must be surpassed by the reactant molecules for them to
undergo a successful reaction.
______3. Allergens is a substances that can cause an overreaction of the body’s natural defense system, which is
supposed to help fight infections.
______4. Aqueous is a physical state that describes a substance dissolved in water.
______5. Atomic mass is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
______6. Atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
______7. Carcinogens are substances that cause cancer upon long term exposure.
______8. Catalysts are substances that are part of the reactants but are not consumed in the reaction.
______9. Chemical bond is the electrical attraction between the nuclei and valence electrons of an atom and which
binds atoms together.
______10. Chemical reactions are reactions that involve the sharing or exchange of electrons.
______11. Collision theory is the theory which states that reactant particles involve in the chemical reaction require
sufficient kinetic energy and proper orientation for successful collision to occur, leading to the formation
of products.
______12. Covalent bond is a type of chemical bond formed from the sharing of electrons between atoms.
______13. Ionic bond is a type of chemical bond that tends to resist a change in its state of rest or motion.
______14. Ions charged particles that result from the gain or loss of electrons.
______15. Isotopes are atoms with the same atomic number but different atomic masses.
______16. Nonpolar covalent bond is the type of covalent bond that results when atoms equally share electrons.
______17. The universe continuously expanded for several years and the cloud of hydrogen and helium Gases
condensed to form stars, including the sun.
______18. Nuclear reaction are processes in which a nucleus either combines with another nucleus.

TEST IV: ESSAY: Answer the following questions. Write your answer in a short bond paper.
1. How is a nuclear reaction equation balanced?
2. What elements were formed during and after supernova?

Rubric for the essay writing

CRITERIA 5 3 2
Content Clearly elaborate Adequately elaborate Did not elaborate
important details important details important details
Spelling and 1-3 errors in 4-6 errors in 7 and more error in
Grammar spelling, rules of spelling, rules of spelling, rules of
grammar and grammar and grammar and
punctuation punctuation punctuation
Exceptional sense Adequate sense of Lacks sense of clear
Organization of clear and orderly clear and orderly and orderly
connectionof ideas connection of connection of ideas
ideas

Total
 Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.
Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat
Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
MIDTERM EXAM
Name: _________________________________ Grade/Sec:________________ Score:_______
TEST I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose your answer from the 3 given choices.
Encircle the letter of the correct answer.
1.) How many covalent bonds does carbon form?
A. None, it does not form covalent bonds. B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
2) The structure normally associated with ionic bonding is ...
A. a giant lattice. B. a simple molecule. C. a giant molecule.
D. a regular arrangement of ions surrounded by a sea, or cloud, of electrons.
3) All the substances listed are solids at room temperature. Which substance has a simple molecular structure?
A. Sodium B. Iodine C. Carbon (graphite) D. Strontium
4) Magnesium is in group 2 in the periodic table. Which of the following formulas for magnesium compounds is
correct?
A. MgO2 B. MgS2 C. MgF2 D. Mg2O
5) Why does sodium chloride not conduct electricity in its solid form?
A. Ions in its structure are in fixed positions.
B. It contains no free electrons.
C. It has a giant covalent molecular structure.
D. Ions in its structure only have single negative and single positive charges.
6) Which of the following statements explains why silicon dioxide has a high melting point?
A. It has a giant ionic structure with strong electrostatic attraction between ions.
B. It has a giant covalent structure with strong covalent bonds between atoms.
C. It has a simple molecular structure with weak forces between molecules.
D. It has a giant metallic structure with a strong attraction between positive ions and the sea of
electrons.
7.) Which of the following substances does not conduct electricity?
A. Brass B. Copper C. Carbon (graphite) D. Carbon (diamond)
8.) Which of the following does not contain ions that are free to move?
A. MgCl2(aq) B. Mg(s) C. MgCl2(l) D. Mg(l)
9.) Which of the following does not explain a substance displaying a high melting point?
A. Strong intermolecular forces between molecules.
B. Many strong covalent bonds.
C. Strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions.
D. Strong electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalised electrons.
10.) Which of the following does not contain ionic bonds?
A. Sulfur dioxide B. Sodium oxide C. Silver oxide D. Strontium oxide
11.) Which of the following does not contain covalent bonds?
A. Carbon (graphite) B. Carbon (diamond) C. HCl (g) D. NaCl (s)
12.) Which of the following does not have a giant structure?
A. Diamond B. Graphite C. Iodine D. Silicon dioxide
13.) Which of the following gives the best explanation for why a substance does not conduct electricity?
A. The bonding in the substance is not ionic.
B. The bonding model in the substance does not have free electrons.
C. The bonding model does not have ions which are free to move, or free electrons.
D. The bonding model does not have ions or free electrons.
14.) Which of the following statements gives the best explanation for the fact that carbon forms 4 bonds?
A. Carbon is in group 4 of the periodic table
B. Carbon has 2 shells of electrons.
C. Carbon forms 4+ ions.
D. Carbon has 4 electrons in its outer shell.
15.) Which of the following statements gives the best explanation for the high solubility of potassium bromide?
A. The ions are free to move.

B. There are positive and negative ions present in the substance.

C. The positive and negative ions are attracted to different regions of the polar water
molecules.
D. Like dissolves like.
16.) Which of the following covalent molecules is the best illustration of typical properties of substances
with simple molecular covalent structures?
A. Water B. Hydrogen C. Iodine D. Sulfur
17.) Which of the following gives the best explanation for the fact that sodium chloride is crystalline?
A. There is strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions.
B. It contains a regular 3D arrangement of positive and negative ions.
C. The crystal contains ions.
 D. There are free electrons present which reflect the light.
18.) The teacher heats a sample of sodium chloride which contains two electrodes which are part of the circuit. The
bulb does not light. What is the best explanation for this?
A. The circuit is not complete.
B. Sodium chloride does not conduct electricity.
C. The power pack wasn’t set up correctly.
D. The teacher did not heat the sample to the melting point of sodium chloride.

TEST II : IDENTIFICATION: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Write your
answer on the blank provided before each number.
____________ 19. These are formed between a metal and a non-metal due to a large difference in their electro
negativities.
_____________20. It is a measure of the tendency of an atom to attract electrons toward itself.
_____________21. It is a bond in which the electrons are equally shared by the bonded atoms.
_____________22. It refers to the bond in which the bonded atoms have an unequal sharing of electrons.
_____________23. It is symbolized by an arrowhead pointing to the more electronegative atom (negative pole),
_____________ 24. These are characteristics of matter that are observed without changing its chemical
composition.
_____________25. The intermolecular forces of attraction acting on polar molecules are called…
_____________26. It is a special type of dipole-dipole interaction.
_____________ 27. These big molecules, many of which are synthesized and used by living things, are known as…
_____________28. These are chains of organic molecules with a 1:2:1 mole ratio of carbon, hydrogen, and
oxygen.
_____________29. These are organic molecules that are insoluble in water because of their lack of many polar
and H-bonding functional groups.
_____________30. It is a type of covalent bonds.
_____________ 31. It is a building block of protein.
_____________32. It is a storage of genetic information in cells.
_____________33. It can be better understood by considering it as a process involving collisions between
reacting particles,
_____________34. When the reaction temperature goes up, the reaction rate increases as well.
_____________35. The Reactant particles with the same phase (liquid-liquid or gas-gas) may easily mix with
each other.
_____________36. If there is a higher concentration of one or more of the reactants, there is a greater chance that
collisions will occur among particles of the reactants.

TEST III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before
the number.
_________37. A dipole is symbolized by an arrowhead pointing to the more electronegative atom (negative pole),
_________38. Physical properties are characteristics of matter that are observed without changing its chemical
composition.
_________39. The intermolecular forces of attraction acting on polar molecules are called dipole-dipole forces.
_________40. Hydrogen bonding is a special type of dipole-dipole interaction.
_________41. These big molecules, many of which are synthesized and used by living things, are known as
macromolecule.
_________42. Carbohydrates are chains of organic molecules with a 1:2:1 mole ratio of carbon, hydrogen, and
oxygen.

_________43. Lipids are organic molecules that are insoluble in water because of their lack of many polar and H-
bonding functional groups.
_________44. Peptide bond are a type of covalent bonds.
_________45. An amino acid is a building block of protein.
_________46. Nucleic acids act as storage of genetic information in cells.
_________47. A chemical reaction can be better understood by considering it as a process involving collisions
between reacting particles,
_________ 48. Effect of TemperatureWhen the reaction temperature goes up, the reaction rate increases as well.
_________49. Effect of Particle Size Reactant particles with the same phase (liquid-liquid or gas-gas) may easily
mix with each other.
_________50. Chemical equations If there is a higher concentration of one or more of the reactants, there is a greater
chance that collisions will occur among particles of the reactants.
_________51. Electronegativity is a formed between a metal and a non-metal due to a large difference in their
electro negativities.
_________52. lonic bonds are measure of the tendency of an atom to attract electrons toward itself.
_________53. A polar covalent bond is a bond in which the electrons are equally shared by the bonded atoms.
_________54. Non polar covalent bond, on the other hand, refers to the bond in which the bonded atoms have an
unequal sharing of electrons.
_________55. Effect of Concentration are very useful in doing quantitative chemical work.
TEST IV: ESSAY: Answer the following question. Write your answer below.
1. Explain the effect of intermolecular forces on the properties of substances.

Rubric for the essay writing

CRITERIA 4 3 2 1
Content Clearly elaborate Well elaborate Adequately Did not elaborate
important details important details elaborate important details
important details
Spelling and No errors in 1-3 errors in 4-6 errors in 7 and more error in
Grammar spelling, rules of spelling, rules of spelling, rules of spelling, rules of
grammar and grammar and grammar and grammar and
punctuation punctuation punctuation punctuation

Total
 Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.
Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat
Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
PRE-FINALEXAM
Name: _________________________________ Grade/Sec:________________ Score:_______
TEST I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose the letter of your answer from the 4 given
choices. Encircle the letter of the correct answer.
1. According to the Greeks, the Earth’s shape is _______.
A. elliptical B. flat and square
C. spherical C. cylindrical
2. Which among the Greek philosophers computed the Earth’s circumference?
A. Aristotle B. Pythagoras
C. Plato D. Eratosthenes

3. How did the Greeks especially Aristotle use the lunar eclipse phenomenon to explain that the Earth is not flat?
A. He noticed that the shadow casts by Earth on the
moon is round.
B. He argued that since the shape of the moon
appears to be round then the Earth
must also be round.
C. He argued that lunar eclipse only happens
when a round opaque object blocks the
passage of sunlight.
D. He noticed that all things seems to be
moving around the Earth except for Earth
itself.

4. Which of the following is not true about the how ancient people were able to make use of their knowledge about
heavens?
A. They used their knowledge to invent the calendar
B. They used their knowledge to study more closely the origin of the universe
C. They their knowledge in their architecture.
D. They used their knowledge to navigate the ocean
5. Which time of the year did Eratosthenes observe the pillar in Alexandria casted a shadow?
A. noon time during spring B. noon time during summer solstice
C. noon time during solar eclipse D. noon time during winter solstice
6. Which of the following astronomical phenomenon were already observed by the ancient
people even before the telescope was invented?
A. sunspot B. solar eclipse
C. craters of the moon D. atmosphere of Mars
7. Which of the following objects would most likely casts a shadow on the moon during lunar eclipse when it is observe
here on Earth without the aid of a telescope?
A. Sun B. Moon
C. North star D. Earth
8. Which phase of the moon is shown in the figure below?

A. full moon B. first quarter moon

C. new moon D. last quarter moon
9. Which phase of the moon is shown in the figure below?

A. full moon B. first quarter moon

C. last quarter moon D. new moon
10. How did the ancient astronomers discover that Mercury and Venus are planets not stars?
A. They noticed that the stars are in a fixed position with respect to each other.
But there are very bright stars that change positions periodically.
B. They noticed that Mercury and Venus are bigger compared to the others stars
C. They noticed that the constellations’ positions in the night sky vary depending
on the time of the year
D. They noticed that the stars change positions periodically. But there are very
bright stars in a fixed position with respect to each other.
11. What is the major contribution of Tycho Brahe to the field of astronomy?
A. the Earth’s axis of rotation
 B. measurement of Earth’ circumference
C. accurate measurement of stars’ and planets’ position
D. the invention of telescope
12. Below is Brahe’s model of the universe. Based on the figure ,which of the following statements bests describe
Brahe’s model?
A. The planets except Earth revolve around the Sun, while the moon and the Sun revolve around the Earth.
B. The Sun and the Earth are both at the centre and the other planets revolve around it.
C. The planets except Earth revolve around the Sun, while the moon revolves around the Earth
D. Neither the Sun nor the Earth is at the center and the others planets do not revolve around it.
13. Based on Kepler’s First Law, which of the figures below describes the path of a
planet as it moves around the Sun ?

A. B. C. D.

14. Kepler discovered that planets do not go around the Sun at a uniform speed but it depends on it position relative
to the Sun. What is its speed when it is closer to the Sun?
A. faster B. neither fast nor slow
C. slower D. similar to the speed when it is far
from the sun
15. What relationship between the times of revolutions of the planets and their distance from the Sun did Kepler
discover?
A. The square of the times of revolution of the planets are proportional to the cube of their average distance from
the Sun.
B. The square of the times of revolution of the planets are not proportional to the cube of their average distance
from the Sun.
C. The cube of the times of revolution of the planets are proportional to the square of their average distance from
the sun.
D. The cube of the times of revolution of the planets are not proportional to the square of their average distance
from the Sun.
16. It is actually a shadow formation.
A. Eclipse B. model C. geocentric D. sun

TEST II : IDENTIFICATION: Below are list of clothes, accessories and gears that you may have at home. Identify
them by season. Write your answer on the table.
Rain coat swim wear Wet/Rainy Season Dry/Summer Season
Flip flops layered clothing
Umbrella sunglasses
Plastics boots light fabric clothing
Sun visor vinyl footwear
Small towels zip locks
Portable lighting windcheater
Funky jacket sweatshirts
Backpack camping tent
Thick jacket/coat t-shirt

TEST III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before
the number.
_________1. Isaac Newton contribute the proponent of the universal law of gravitation.
_________2. Galileo Galilie invented his own telescope and discovered the craters of the moon and gathered proof
that supports the claim of Copernicus.
_________3. Tycho Brahe proposed the geo-heliocentric universe model.
_________4. Aristarchus of Samos proposed the first idea of a heliocentric universe.
_________5. Johannes Kepler contribute the proponent of the laws of planetary motion.
_________6. Eratosthenes calculated the Earth’s circumference.
_________7. Aristotle proposed an geocentric model of the universe where Earth is at the center and is layered with
earth, water, air and fire.
_________8. Nicolaus Copernicus contribute the proponent of a heliocentric universe wherein a moving Earth is
revolving around the Sun.
_________9. Claudius Ptolemy a proponent of the Earth centered model universe where Earth lies stationary at the
center of the celestial sphere.
_________10. Eudoxus proposed a homocentric and concentric universe.
_________11. The square of the times of revolution of the planets are proportional to the cube of their average
distance from the Sun.
_________12. The planets except Earth revolve around the Sun, while the moon and the Sun revolve around the Earth.
_________13. Solar eclipse were already observed by the ancient people even before the telescope was invented.
_________14. Ancient people used their knowledge to study more closely the origin of the universe.
_________15. Aristotle noticed that the shadow casts by Earth on the moon is round.
TEST IV: ESSAY: Answer the following question. Write your answer on the space below.
1. Explain how the Greeks knew that the Earth is spherical.
2. Explain how Brahe’s innovations and extensive collection of data in observational astronomy paved the way for
Kepler’s discovery of his laws of planetary motion.

Rubric for the essay writing

CRITERIA 4 3 2 1
Content Clearly elaborate Well elaborate Adequately Did not elaborate
important details important details elaborate important details
important details
Spelling and No errors in 1-3 errors in 4-6 errors in 7 and more error in
Grammar spelling, rules of spelling, rules of spelling, rules of spelling, rules of
grammar and grammar and grammar and grammar and
punctuation punctuation punctuation punctuation

Total
 Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.
Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat
Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
FINAL EXAM
Name: _________________________________ Grade/Sec:________________ Score:_______
TEST I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose the letter of your answer from the 4 given
choices by encircling it.
1. Which of the following statements is true?
A. A body can have a constant direction but varying speed and still be accelerating
B. A body can have a constant speed but varying direction and still be accelerating
C. A body can have varying speed and direction and still be accelerating
D. All of these
2. When does an object undergo acceleration?
A. when it changes its direction B. when it gains speed
C. when it loses speed D. all of these
3. A ball is thrown upwards and returns to the same location. When it
returns, how much is the speed compared with the initial speed?
A. half as much B. the same
C. twice as much D. four times as much
4. How does Galileo's interpretation of motion differ from Aristotle's? Galileo emphasized
A. rates of time C. the acceleration of free fall
B. none of these D. the role of distance in describing motion
5. As what you have learned from Galileo, what will happen if you roll a ball along a level surface?
A. keep rolling if friction is absent
B. roll as long as its inertia nudges it along
C. soon roll in the opposite direction
D. soon slow down due to its natural place
6. What is the straight line motion caused by the gravitational pull of the earth?
A. free fall motion B. horizontal motion
C. projectile motion D. none of these
7. How does the acceleration of a stone thrown upward compare to the one thrown downward?
A. greater C. the same
B. smaller D. undetermined
8. What will happen to an object if no external forces act on it?
A. it will come to an abrupt halt
B. it will continue moving at the same speed
C. it will move slower and slower until it finally stops
D. none of these
9. When no forces act on moving objects on air, how can you describe their paths?
A. circles . C. ellipses
B. parabola D. straight lines
10. Suppose you are riding a motorcycle but it runs out of fuel while driving. The engine stops abruptly but why
don't you?
A. because of gravity C. because of inertia
B. because of continuation principle D. because of resistance
11. Suppose you are standing in the aisle of a moving bus. If the driver suddenly makes a left turn, why are you
likely to lurch to the right? Because of
A. an equilibrium challenge C. an unbalanced force
B. your momentum D. your tendency to keep moving forward
12. Which of the following best describes an accelerating object?
A. object at rest C. object in mechanical equilibrium
B. object moving at constant velocity D. object moving slower
13. A ball rolling along a horizontal surface maintains a constant speed. Why is it so?
A. friction is present C. no inertia on the object
B. no horizontal force acts on it D. surface is smooth
14. Why do a coconut and a bird's feather falling from a tree through the air to the ground below gain speed?
A. their velocity changes C. there is a gravitational force acts on them
B. their inertia D. their nature to become closer to the Earth
15. Which of the following is true about acceleration due to gravity?
A. it is different for different objects in free-fall
B. It is a fundamental property
C. It increases in decreasing altitude
D. it is a universal constant
16. It is the length of the part travelled from starting point to final point.
A. distance B. Displacement C. speed d. velocity
TEST II : IDENTIFICATION: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Choose your
answer from the box below and write it on the blank provided before each number.
Distance free fall strong nuclear resultant
Displacement projectile 0.5453 normal force
Speed velocity is constant 27.2 position
Velocity electromagnetic force external force inertia
Acceleration 16.0 N mass tangent
___________1. It is the length of the part travelled from starting point to final point.
___________2. It is the length of the part travelled from the starting point to final point with consideration to the
direction.
___________3. It is the rate at which distance is covered.
___________4. It is the displacement in a given time interval.
___________5. It is a measure of how fast the velocity changes with respect to time.
___________6. It is a body in vertical motion where gravity is the only force acting on it.
___________7. It is a body or a particle in two dimensional motion given an initial velocity.
___________8. The term “uniform motion” means
___________9. A Contact forces such as the force of friction and the force of a glove on a punching bag are examples of.
___________10. A net force acts on a mass of 8.00 kg causing it to move from rest to a speed of 10.0 m/s in a time of
5.00 s. is.
___________11. The strongest fundamental forces
___________12. The correct answer for the product of 6.9530 x 0.07843 is.
___________13. The correct answer for the sum of 18.3 + 6.92 + 2.0084 is.
___________14. Any force exerted by an object that is not part of the system on an object within the system is known as.
___________15. It is amount of matter present in an object.
___________16. It is the vector representing the sum of two or more vectors.
___________17. It is a force that acts in a direction perpendicular to the common contact surface between two objects.
___________18. The location of an object as measured from the origin of a frame of reference is known as.
___________19. The tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of motion is called.
___________20. It is a line that intersects a curve at only one particular point.
TEST III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before
the number.
___________1. Distance is the length of the part travelled from starting point to final point.
___________2. Displacement is the length of the part travelled from the starting point to final point with consideration to
the direction.
___________3. Speed is the rate at which distance is covered.
___________4. Velocity is the displacement in a given time interval.
___________5. Acceleration is a measure of how fast the velocity changes with respect to time.
___________6. Free fall is a body in vertical motion where gravity is the only force acting on it.
___________7. It is a body or a particle in two dimensional motion given an initial velocity.
___________8. The term “uniform motion” means velocity is constant.
___________9. A Contact forces such as the force of friction and the force of a glove on a punching bag are examples of
electromagnetic force.
___________10. A net force acts on a mass of 8.00 kg causing it to move from rest to a speed of 10.0 m/s. is 16.0 N.
___________11. The strongest fundamental forces are strong nuclear.
___________12. The correct answer for the product of 6.9530 x 0.07843 is 0.5453.
___________13. The correct answer for the sum of 18.3 + 6.92 + 2.0084 is 27.2
___________14. Any force exerted by an object that is not part of the system on an object within the system is known as
external force.
___________15. Mass is amount of matter present in an object.
___________16. Resultant is the vector representing the sum of two or more vectors.
___________17. Normal force is a force that acts in a direction perpendicular to the common contact surface between two
objects.
___________18. The location of an object as measured from the origin of a frame of reference is known as position.
___________19. The tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of motion is called inertia.
___________20. Tangent is a line that intersects a curve at only one particular point.
TEST IV: ESSAY: Answer the question below and write it on a separate sheet of paper.
1. Explain how Galileo inferred that objects in vacuum fall with uniform acceleration.
Rubric for the essay writing
CRITERIA 4 3 2 1
Content Clearly elaborate Well elaborate Adequately Did not elaborate
important details important details elaborate important details
important details
Spelling and No errors in 1-3 errors in 4-6 errors in 7 and more error in
Grammar spelling, rules of spelling, rules of spelling, rules of spelling, rules of
grammar and grammar and grammar and grammar and
punctuation punctuation punctuation punctuation

Total