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Giles retention Exam

Physical therapy (Our Lady of Fatima University)

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Practice Questions 1

1. While working with a T6 spinal cord injured patient a physical therapist identifies a small, reddened area over the
patient’s right ischial tuberosity region. The physical therapist should immediately
A. notify nursing and remind the patient of their role in proper skin care
B. order a water mattress for the patient
C. alert the patient to the potential dangers of skin breakdown
D. notify the primary physician and declare a medical emergency

2. A patient falls to the ground during gait activities and appears to be in cardiac arrest. After performing a primary
survey you call for help and begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation. CPR should be continued until all of the
following EXCEPT
A. the patient regains full consciousness
B. the heart starts beating again
C. a second rescuer trained in CPR takes over
D. you are too exhausted to continue

3. A physical therapist observes a video on the biomechanics of normal gait. The therapist notes that the subject’s
knee remains flexed during all of the components of stance phase EXCEPT
A. foot flat
B. heel strike
C. midstance
D. toe off

4. A therapist monitors a patient’s blood pressure by auscultation. When recording the patient’s blood pressure in the
medical record, which of the following is usually not required?
A. systolic blood pressure value
B. extremity used
C. patient position
D. type of stethoscope used

5. After completing an initial examination, it is determined that a patient is exhibiting disability behaviors that are out
of proportion to the physical therapist’s clinical findings. The therapist’s next course of action should be to
A. confront the patient with the findings before initiating the treatment plan
B. immediately contact the patent’s physician and explain the findings
C. initiate the treatment plan, however consider the possibility that the disease state is being maintained by
external consequences
D. continue with the current treatment plan without further delay and dismiss the findings

6. A physical therapist elects to use ultrasound on a patient diagnosed with a second degree lateral ankle sprain. The
therapist uses the underwater technique because of the uneven joint surface and patient’s extreme sensitivity to
pressure. Which description of ultrasound using the underwater technique is true?
A. The transducer should be placed directly on the skin
B. A commercial gel is appropriate for a coupling medium
C. The transducer should be held one-half to one inch from the skin and moved throughout the entire session.
D. The patient should independently move the transducer once it is immersed in the water

7. A physical therapist treats a patient with quadriceps weakness using repeated contractions. This proprioceptive
neuromuscular facilitation technique should be applied
A. at the initiation of movement
B. at the point where the desired muscular response begins to diminish
C. throughout the full active range of motion
D. only after a manual stretch to the quadriceps

8. A patient diagnosed with spastic hemiplegia wears an ankle-foot orthosis set in dorsiflexion to prevent foot drop. If
the orthosis was set in excessive dorsiflexion, which of the following would you expect to observe during stance
phase?
A. increased knee stability
B. decreased knee stability
C. have no effect on knee stability
D. cause genu recurvatum

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2 Practice Questions

9. A patient is referred to physical therapy with a twenty degree restriction in wrist extension. Which mobilization
technique would facilitate wrist extension?
A. dorsal glide of the carpals
B. stabilize lunate, volar glide radius
C. stabilize capitate, volar glide lunate
D. stabilize radius, volar glide scaphoid

10. To test for possible anterior shoulder instability a physical therapist would
A. abduct the affected arm to 90 degrees and internally rotate
B. abduct the affected arm to 90 degrees, move into forward flexion, adduct and internally rotate
C. abduct the affected arm to 90 degrees and externally rotate
D. adduct the affected arm to 90 degrees and externally rotate

11. Which of the following exercises would be inappropriate for a woman who gave birth via cesarean section three
days ago?
A. pelvic tilts
B. walking
C. deep breathing
D. all are acceptable

12. Sensory stimulation for either muscle contraction or relaxation was introduced by
A. Bobath
B. Fay
C. Knott
D. Rood

13. If a plumb line is positioned laterally to a patient so it runs along the line of gravity, where would it fall with respect
to the knee joint?
A. anterior
B. posterior
C. directly through the knee joint
D. all of these are incorrect

14. A patient diagnosed with shoulder pain of unknown etiology is referred by his physician for magnetic resonance
imaging. Results of the test reveal a partial tear of the infraspinatus muscle. Based on the information obtained,
which muscle group would you expect to be the most seriously affected?
A. shoulder external rotators
B. shoulder internal rotators
C. shoulder abductors
D. shoulder adductors

15. All of the following are true concerning scoliosis EXCEPT

A. a 15-20 degree curve is considered to be mild scoliosis
B. bracing can be an effective treatment tool
C. scoliosis is named by the direction of the concavity
D. early detection through school screening is essential

16. A patient has limited accessory joint motion in the right hip. You are unsure if joint mobilization techniques are
indicated since the patient’s condition is relatively acute. Which of the following would be the best course of
action?
A. active stretching exercises only
B. grade I and II mobilization
C. grade IV and V mobilization
D. avoid all stretching or mobilization until the patient is pain free

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Practice Questions 3

17. A patient exhibits pain and sensory loss in the posterior leg, calf and dorsal foot. Extension of the hallux is poor,
however, the Achilles reflex is normal. What spinal level would you expect to be involved?
A. L4
B. L5
C. S1
D. S2

18. An 18 year-old male six weeks status post open reduction of a Colles’ fracture is referred to physical therapy.
Examination reveals mild swelling on the dorsum of the hand and limited flexion in the metacarpophalangeal joint
in all digits. The most appropriate heating agent is
A. paraffin
B. hot packs
C. Vapocoolant sprays
D. fluidotherapy

19. A patient scheduled for total hip replacement in three days is referred to physical therapy for preoperative
instruction. All of the following should be incorporated into total hip replacement preoperative instruction
EXCEPT
A. deep breathing and coughing exercises
B. gait training with an appropriate assistive device that will be used postoperatively
C. basic precautions for early bed mobility
D. proper use of an abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks postoperatively

20. A 26 year-old male involved in a motorcycle accident sustains a T10 vertebral fracture. The patient’s physician
would like to restrict forward thoracic flexion by using an externally applied device. Which of the following would
be the most appropriate selection?
A. Minerva cervical thoracic orthosis
B. Philadelphia collar
C. sternal-occipital-mandibular immobilizer
D. thoracolumbar-sacral orthosis

21. Which clinical finding is not indicative of a ruptured Achilles tendon?

A. negative Thompson test
B. absent Achilles reflex
C. lack of toe off during gait
D. all of these are indicative of a ruptured Achilles tendon

22. A physical therapist evaluates a patient’s hip range of motion. Which pattern of limitation is typically considered to
be a capsular pattern?
A. gross limitation of flexion, abduction and internal rotation
B. gross limitation of flexion, adduction and external rotation
C. gross limitation of extension, abduction and external rotation
D. gross limitation of extension, adduction and internal rotation

23. Relative contraindications for exercise during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT
A. diabetes
B. thyroid disease
C. history of precipitous labor
D. mild hypotension

24. A cardiac catheterization is performed by inserting a catheter into the femoral, brachial or axillary artery and
advancing it through the aorta to the heart. Specific lesions, areas of low perfusion, and ventricular aneurysms are
defined through
A. the heart’s resistance to the presence of the catheter
B. the catheter releasing dye into the coronary arteries
C. the catheter monitoring the pressure within the arteries
D. the catheter obtaining samples of cells which line the arteries

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4 Practice Questions

25. A patient diagnosed with pure athetoid cerebral palsy would most likely demonstrate
A. disturbed sense of balance and faulty depth perception
B. hypertonicity, contractures and clonus
C. slow involuntary uncontrolled movements
D. severe intention tremor

26. A physical therapist instructs a patient to move their lower teeth forward in relation to their upper teeth. This
motion is termed
A. protrusion
B. retrusion
C. lateral deviation
D. occlusal position

27. A CVA patient positioned in supine with legs flexed, clasping his arms around his knees and gently rocking will
produce
A. decreased extensor spasticity in the lower extremities
B. inhibition of flexor spasticity in the upper extremities
C. protraction of the scapula
D. all of these

28. What muscle controls the position of the ankle joint at heel strike?
A. eccentric contraction of the anterior tibialis
B. eccentric contraction of the gastrocsoleus
C. concentric contraction of the anterior tibialis
D. concentric contraction of the gastrocsoleus

29. A clinical instructor can be a critical link between each student’s academic and professional career. Which
objective would seem inappropriate for a senior physical therapy student on the first week of a clinical internship?
A. The student safely executes assessment of the transfer status of a patient.
B. The student demonstrates beginning integration of patient problems into the treatment program
C. The student provides patient coverage for an absent colleague.
D. The student participates in a team conference by reporting on an assigned patient.

30. An aquatic program can be a valuable tool for gait activities. Which of the following activities would facilitate a
patient shifting their pelvis over the affected leg, while maintaining an extended hip and trunk?
A. marching in place
B. flutter kicking in prone
C. ring toss while standing
D. treading water

31. A three year-old male diagnosed with pediatric meningocerebritis is referred to respiratory physical therapy for
manual assistance in breathing activities. Indications for manual assistance would include
A. rapid, deep inspiration
B. incomplete use of muscles for deep inspiration
C. frequent sighing
D. all of these

32. Proper technique is essential when mobilizing a joint. Which of the following statements about mobilization
technique is not true?
A. one joint at a time is moved in one direction
B. a joint is mobilized in the closed packed position
C. commence with grade I distraction when possible.
D. the patient and the extremity to be treated should be placed in a comfortable position.

33. The goal of a physical therapist treating a patient who is receiving workers’ compensation include
A. making the patient less dependent and more active in their rehabilitative program
B. attempting to meet the needs of the insurance provider, employer, physician and patient
C. building confidence in the patient’s physical capabilities and control over their future
D. all of these

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Practice Questions 5

34. A patient four weeks status post arthroscopic medial meniscectomy is limited in knee flexion range of motion.
Which mobilization technique would be the most beneficial to increase knee flexion?
A. anterior glide of the tibia
B. superior glide of the patella
C. dorsal glide of the tibia
D. anterior glide of the fibular head

35. A 16 year-old high school track participant returns to physical therapy after seeing his physician. The physician
informs the patient that magnetic resonance imaging has shown a significant tear in the medial meniscus of the left
knee. As you look back on your initial evaluation, which of the following special tests would you expect to have
been positive?
A. Lachman
B. pivot shift
C. McMurray
D. apprehension

36. Injury to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus would most likely involve damage to the
A. musculocutaneous
B. axillary
C. radial
D. ulnar

37. After evaluating the respiratory status of a C6 spinal cord injured patient, which of the following clinical findings
would you expect to be true?
A. partial innervation of the diaphragm
B. full epigastric rise in supine
C. a ventilator is required for assisted breathing
D. normal ventilatory reserve

38. Which of the following types of current has the lowest total average current?
A. low volt
B. high volt
C. Russian
D. interferential

39. A 50 year-old male resides alone and is an elementary school teacher. At the conclusion of eight weeks of
rehabilitation for a recent CVA, the patient has good strength in the lower extremity except trace to poor strength in
the right ankle joint. The patient’s sensation is severely impaired for deep pressure, light touch, and sharp stimuli.
The patient has severe fluctuating edema at the ankle. The most appropriate orthosis for this patient is
A. metal upright ankle-foot orthosis
B. polypropylene solid ankle-foot orthosis
C. prefabricated posterior leaf orthosis
D. metal upright knee-ankle foot orthosis

40. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of chronic bronchitis?

A. long term irritation of the trachea and bronchi
B. increased mucus production
C. decreased vital capacity
D. often a result of an allergic reaction

41. A patient with a left above knee amputation is gait training. You note that the patient vaults with left swing phase
and occasionally circumducts the involved leg. What is the most likely cause of this gait deviation?
A. the prosthesis is too short
B. the prosthesis is too long
C. weak plantarflexors on the right
D. there is decreased toe-out on the left

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6 Practice Questions

42. Which activity would most likely not occur prior to nine months assuming normal development?
A. rolling from prone to supine
B. sitting independently
C. cruising
D. creeping

43. A developmental evaluation has been completed on an eight month-old infant. Findings from the evaluation
include: the patient brings hands to mouth, requires assistance for ring sitting, presents with slight head lag in
sitting, and does not reach across midline for objects. This child appears
A. appropriate with normal development
B. developmentally delayed
C. developmentally accelerated
D. to present with cerebral palsy

44. A patient is limited to 55 degrees in passive straight leg raise testing. To improve the patient’s range of motion, a
therapist should apply the hold relax technique to the
A. abductors and hip flexors
B. hamstrings and hip extensors
C. quadriceps and hip flexors
D. adductors and hip extensors

45. A 47 year-old male is using a straight cane during gait activities. The patient is four weeks status post left total hip
replacement and is full weight bearing on the left. As he begins to make a 180 degree turn, the most important
reminder is
A. you should turn away from the affected side
B. you should turn towards the affected side
C. it does not matter which way you pivot if you are full weight bearing
D. keep the cane in front of you

46. A degenerative process beginning with irritation and fragmentation of the hyaline cartilage on the patella is termed
A. Osgood-Schlatter disease
B. retropatellar syndrome
C. chondromalacia patella
D. plica syndrome

47. a sensory evaluation reveals light touch impairment to the anterolateral thigh, lateral calf, and sole of the foot. The
corresponding dermatomes should be recorded as
A. L2, L4, S3
B. L1, L3, L5
C. L2, L5, S1
D. L3, L5, S1

48. Facilitation of muscle tone is performed through all of the following EXCEPT
A. approximation
B. prolonged stretching
C. vibration
D. icing

49. A treatment program is designed to include late morning sessions involving aggressive stretching, moderate
exercise, energy conservation and stress management techniques. This program would be most appropriate for
which diagnosis?
A. Guillain-Barre syndrome
B. myasthenia gravis
C. Osgood-Schlatter disease
D. multiple sclerosis

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Practice Questions 7

50. In an above knee prosthesis the majority of the body’s weight is absorbed by the
A. posterior wall
B. anterior wall
C. lateral wall
D. medial wall

51. A physical therapist evaluates a patient diagnosed with acromioclavicular joint dysfunction. The therapist instructs
the patient to abduct their arm in a coronal plane to 180 degrees. Which portion of the range of motion would you
most expect to elicit pain in the acromioclavicular joint?
A. 30-70 degrees
B. 50-90 degrees
C. 90-120 degrees
D. 120-180 degrees

52. Which illness is characterized by bronchial hyperirritability that is triggered by a number of stimuli, resulting in
narrowing of the air passages?
A. asthma
B. pneumonia
C. bronchitis
D. pleurisy

53. Clinical uses of functional electrical stimulation include all of the following EXCEPT
A. to promote normal shoulder alignment in the hemiparetic patient
B. to assist a stroke patient with dorsiflexion during gait activities
C. to provide neuromuscular reeducation for an orthopedic patient recovering from surgery
D. to increase active range of motion in patients with central nervous system lesions

54. Physical activity has been hypothesized to decrease the occurrence and severity of coronary heart disease. Which
of the following does not occur as a result of a regular training program?
A. an increase in coronary collateral vascularization
B. an increase in serum lipid levels
C. an increase in red blood cell mass and blood volume
D. an increase in myocardial efficiency

55. During an evaluation of a neurological patient you note that the patient is able to understand instructions and
conversation but cannot verbalize. The best way to describe this condition is
A. global aphasia
B. receptive aphasia
C. expressive aphasia
D. agraphia

56. If a muscle crosses over more than one joint and it moves both of the joints at the same time, it will shorten to a
point where it cannot move either of the joints through the full range of motion. This definition describes which
term?
A. contracture
B. substitution
C. passive insufficiency
D. active insufficiency

57. A therapist works on bed mobility exercises with a patient recently diagnosed with cancer. The patient is extremely
upset and tells their therapist, “I know I will never get better”. The therapist’s most appropriate response would be
A. Radiation treatments will make you feel much better
B. Many people have overcome larger obstacles.
C. Having cancer must be very difficult for you to deal with.
D. The exercises I show you can improve your condition.

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8 Practice Questions

58. Health care personnel may be at risk for acquiring hepatitis B virus and human immunodeficiency virus due to their
occupational exposure to blood and other potentially infectious material. Which of the following statements is not
accurate when describing HIV and HBV?
A. HBV risk exceeds HIV risk
B. HBV and HIV appear to be capable of penetrating intact skin
C. HBV infection is spread by several modes including parenteral, mucous membranes, sexual contact and
perinatally
D. HIV has been isolated from blood, semen and saliva

59. Which of the following is not a reasonable explanation for a limitation in passive range of motion?
A. bony obstruction
B. soft tissue obstruction
C. lack of contractility of the agonist
D. all are plausible explanations

60. The optimal position for a patient who begins to demonstrate signs of orthostatic hypotension is
A. supine
B. sitting upright
C. standing
D. walking

61. A physical therapist decides that the treatment plan for a hemiplegic patient will include reinforcing normal
movement through key points of control and avoiding all reflex movement patterns and associated reactions. This
approach most closely resembles
A. Bobath
B. Kabat
C. Trendelenburg
D. Brunnstrom

62. Which statement concerning the APGAR newborn assessment is not true?
A. the test is administered at 1 and 5 minutes after birth
B. the maximum score is 5
C. a score of less than 4 is indicative of respiratory distress
D. all of these are true

63. An 18 year-old male status post fractured right femur with open reduction and internal fixation is referred to
physical therapy. After the initial therapy session the patient informs the therapist that physical therapy is a waste
of time and he will not return for any additional treatment. The most appropriate immediate response would be to
A. consult the referring physician and inform her of the patient’s decision
B. instruct the patient to return for one additional treatment session
C. discuss with the patient the importance of physical therapy
D. discharge the patient from physical therapy

64. A physical therapist is treating a T1 spinal cord injured patient. As the therapist and patient perform balance
activities in sitting, the patient begins to complain of a pounding headache. The patient also demonstrates profuse
sweating above the T1 lesion, and blotching of the skin. The therapist should immediately identify this as
A. orthostatic hypotension
B. autonomic dysreflexia
C. Lowe’s syndrome
D. homonymous hemianopsia

65. In the above situation, the most appropriate immediate response would be to
A. keep the patient in sitting, monitor blood pressure and check bladder/catheter and bowel for impairment
B. lie the patient flat, monitor blood pressure, and check bladder/catheter and bowel for impairment
C. lie the patient flat, monitor blood pressure and give the patient fluids
D. keep the patient sitting, monitor blood pressure, wait for medical assistance

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Practice Questions 9

66. A patient is performing a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique in a D2 pattern with his right upper
extremity. The patient begins with shoulder flexion, abduction, elbow extension, forearm pronation and ends with
decreased shoulder flexion, shoulder adduction, elbow extension, and forearm supination. This pattern
demonstrates
A. correct technique
B. incorrect technique at the shoulder
C. incorrect technique at the elbow
D. incorrect technique at the forearm

67. If a person is unable to construct an initial motor plan in order to carry out a task, they can be said to be suffering
from
A. ideomotor apraxia
B. ideational apraxia
C. constructional apraxia
D. all of these

68. A below knee amputee is referred to physical therapy after having her sutures removed 12 hours ago. The patient
has fair sitting balance, fair strength, and is cognitively intact. The most realistic one week short term goal for the
patient would be
A. standing with the prosthesis for five to ten minutes
B. independent transfers from a wheelchair to the mat or bed
C. to ascend/descend four steps with bilateral railings
D. independent residual limb wrapping

69. The most common cause of lower extremity amputations is

A. congenital defects
B. infection
C. trauma
D. vascular disease

70. A physical therapist is treating a patient with shoulder subluxation secondary to a flaccid upper extremity. The
therapist’s short term goal is to prevent further subluxation. The following techniques would be beneficial in
treating the flaccid upper extremity EXCEPT
A. distraction techniques
B. approximation techniques
C. neuromuscular electrical stimulation
D. arm support when sitting and standing

71. Which objective would not be accomplished using cold packs on an involved lower extremity?
A. decrease nerve conduction velocity
B. increase vasodilatation
C. decrease metabolism
D. temporarily reduce spasticity

72. In which direction should a mobilizing force be applied at the glenohumeral joint?
A. in the same direction as the limitation
B. in the opposite direction as the limitation
C. in all directions regardless of the limitation
D. none of these are correct

73. Therapeutic objectives of diaphragmatic breathing include all of the following EXCEPT
A. alleviate dyspnea
B. increase respiratory rate
C. increase tidal volume
D. reduce the incidence of postoperative pulmonary complication

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10 Practice Questions

74. A therapist suspects a patient may be under the influence of alcohol during a treatment session. The therapist has
been treating the patient for over five weeks and during that time has failed to recognize any signs or symptoms of
substance abuse. The therapist’s most appropriate action would be to
A. contact the referring physician and discuss the patient’s problem
B. document their suspicions and continue to monitor the patient in subsequent sessions
C. discharge the patient from physical therapy
D. refer the patient to a local Alcoholic Anonymous group

75. A patient diagnosed with chondromalacia patella is referred to physical therapy. During the initial evaluation the
following observations are made:
1. A neoprene sleeve is worn on the involved knee during all weight bearing activities
2. Three sets of ten straight leg raises are performed with three pound ankle weights
3. The patient cannot go down stairs in a normal manner
The most appropriate one week short term goal is
A. The patient will complete three sets of ten straight leg raises with four pounds.
B. The patient will not have any pain in the involved knee
C. The patient will go down stairs without any abnormal deviation
D. The patient will not be dependent on the neoprene sleeve.

76. The most appropriate five week long term goal for the patient described above would be
A. The patient will complete three sets of ten straight leg raises with five pounds.
B. The patient will not have any pain in the involved knee
C. The patient will go down stairs without any deviation
D. The patient will not be dependent on the neoprene sleeve

77. Which power wheelchair option would be inappropriate for a C4 quadriplegic?

A. full length arm supports
B. reclining frame
C. hand controls
D. elevating leg rests

78. A physical therapist evaluates the developmental status of an infant. Which of the following would not be
recommended when treating the infant?
A. Various therapists should give the exercises at each visit so that the infant feels secure with a variety of social
contacts.
B. Treatment should be given in a small area since large spaces are often frightening to infants.
C. The infant should be encouraged and praised for each success.
D. A fall off in performance, an increase in irritability or a refusal to perform often signals the conclusion of
productive treatment.

79. Patella tracking dysfunction is a common problem in orthopedics. Dynamic factors for patella tracking dysfunction
include
A. increase in the angulation between the quadriceps muscle and the patella tendon
B. a lateral femoral condyle that is not sufficiently prominent anteriorly
C. vastus medialis insufficiency
D. all of these

80. A ____ bandage would be most appropriate for wrapping the residual limb of an above knee amputee?
A. 2 inch
B. 4 inch
C. 6 inch
D. 8 inch

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Practice Questions 11

81. A physical therapist instructs a female athlete to complete ten minutes of stretching before beginning her treadmill
program. While observing the athlete stretching her hamstrings, the therapist notices repetitive bouncing and a
failure to maintain the stretch for more than five seconds. Why is this type of stretching considered to be poor?
A. The athlete should maintain each stretch for at least 30 seconds.
B. The athlete should stretch only after running on the treadmill.
C. The athlete is activating the stretch reflex.
D. The athlete should remain activity specific and does not need to stretch the hamstrings if she is running on a
treadmill.

82. Which treatment would be contraindicated during the acute stage of myositis ossificans?
A. massage
B. heat
C. active stretching
D. all of these

83. A physical therapist is treating a patient diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome. The patient has a poor
disposition and has been difficult to work with in therapy. His attendance has been sporadic including two
cancellations and two no shows in seven scheduled appointments. Which of the following would be the most
appropriate immediate response?
A. contact the referring physician and relay the above information
B. document in the physical therapy chart the patient’s attitude toward therapy and his attendance record
C. contact the patient directly and discuss the importance of attendance in physical therapy
D. report the above information to the supervising therapist

84. The ration of cardiac compressions to breaths during two-man cardiopulmonary resuscitation is
A. 5:1
B. 10:1
C. 15:1
D. 15:2

85. In what section of a “SOAP” note would the following entry belong? Patient is not functional in ADLs due to
lower extremity muscle weakness. Wife is unable to care for spouse at present level of functioning.
A. subjective
B. objective
C. assessment
D. plan

86. A patient is fitted for an ankle-foot orthosis with a solid stirrup double action ankle joint. Gait analysis reveals
moderate to severe genu recurvatum with stance phase on the affected side. The most appropriate modification to
the ankle-foot orthosis in order to decrease recurvatum is
A. dorsiflexion stop
B. plantarflexion stop
C. dorsiflexion and plantarflexion stops
D. dorsiflexion assist

87. Effective management for ____ would include elevating the head.
A. autonomic dysreflexia
B. heterotopic ossification
C. orthostatic hypotension
D. anterior spinal artery syndrome

88. A patient’s hamstring length is tested in supine in a straight leg position. The therapist raises the lower extremity
being tested while stabilizing the other. The patient has tight hip flexors which cause a small arch in the low back
in supine. What can the physical therapist conclude about the patient’s measured hamstring length?
A. actual length is greater than measured length
B. actual length is less than measured length
C. short hip flexors do not influence apparent hamstring length
D. the apparent length measured is the actual length

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12 Practice Questions

89. The collateral ligaments offer maximum support when the knee is
A. extended
B. flexed
C. flexed and internally rotated
D. the position of the knee is not a factor

90. When the mandible is depressed during opening of the mouth, the head of the mandible and the articular disc move
___ on the articular surface until the head lies inferior to the articular tubercle.
A. anteriorly
B. posteriorly
C. laterally
D. medially

91. A patient with a T6-T7 spinal cord lesion would be expected to have what type of cough?
A. non-functional
B. weak functional
C. functional
D. active coughing is impossible at the T6-T7 level

92. Acceptable forms of physical referral include

A. a signed prescription blank with the patient name, date, diagnosis and frequency of treatment
B. a high structured modality checklist including the patient name, date, diagnosis and long term goals
C. a piece of paper signed and dated by the referring physician specifying the patient name and diagnosis
D. all of these are acceptable forms of a physician referral

93. A therapist identifies long-lying sit-ups and double leg raises as potentially harmful strengthening exercises. Which
of the following does not occur when performing these exercises?
A. psoas muscle contraction causes a compression and shearing load in the lumbar spine.
B. lumbar lordosis decreases
C. lumbar disks are compressed
D. fifth lumbar vertebra tends to slide forward on the sacrum

94. The most appropriate standard position for drainage to the posterior basal segment of the lung is
A. patient lying prone with lower extremities declined six inches
B. patient in sidelying with a six inch elevation at the foot of the bed
C. patient in sidelying with an eighteen inch elevation at the foot of the bed
D. patient lying prone with an eighteen inch elevation at the foot of the bed

95. As the speed of ambulation increases, which of the following is not true?
A. stride length increases
B. angle of toe out increases
C. the width of the base of support decreases
D. cadence increases

96. A patient develops a pulmonary embolism postoperatively. The patient is hemodynamically stable and began
anticoagulant therapy yesterday. All of the following would be appropriate treatment techniques EXCEPT
A. deep and segmental breathing
B. extended expiration
C. postural drainage
D. percussion and vibration

97. If a leg length measurement is 28.4 inches when taken in a supine position and 30.2 inches when taken in a
standing position, the leg length difference is probably due to
A. poor standing posture
B. pelvic asymmetry
C. an actual leg length difference
D. not enough information given to accurately determine

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Practice Questions 13

98. A respiratory evaluation is performed on a quadriplegic with the following results: the patient attains seventy
percent of the standard vital capacity, he is able to verbalize eight syllables per breath, and is able to mobilize and
clear secretions from his lungs. This best describes a
A. C2-C3
B. C4-C5
C. C7-C8
D. T2-T9

99. If the knee bolt on an above knee prosthesis is set in lateral rotation, what type of gait deviation would you expect
to see?
A. lateral whip
B. medial whip
C. foot slap
D. vaulting

100. A physical therapist notes during a gait evaluation that a patient plantar flexes from neutral to 15 degrees from heel
strike to foot flat. This is indicative of
A. early terminal stance
B. decreased ankle motion
C. normal gait pattern
D. late terminal stance

101. A recreational tennis player is diagnosed with lateral epicondylitis. All of the following are considered appropriate
forms of treatment for acute lateral epicondylitis EXCEPT
A. modification of tennis grip and string tension
B. phonophoresis
C. curvilinear brace applied just below the bend in the elbow
D. progressive resistive exercises emphasizing the wrist extensors

102. The open basketweave taping technique can be a very effective way of limiting effusion in an acutely injured ankle.
This modification of the closed basketweave is designed to
A. allow freedom of movement in dorsiflexion
B. allow freedom of movement in plantarflexion
C. provide room for additional effusion
D. all of these are true

103. A hemiplegic patient with a short leg brace, presents with genu recurvatum during the stance phase of gait. Which
joint position would be the most appropriate to decrease the recurvatum?
A. ankle locked in slight dorsiflexion
B. ankle locked in slight plantarflexion
C. allow full range of motion at the ankle
D. none of these are correct

104. Immediately following a skin graft procedure to a deep partial thickness burn the graft site requires
A. temporary immobilization
B. long term immobilization of one month
C. active assistive range of motion
D. aggressive passive range of motion

105. Severance of the common peroneal nerve at the level of the knee would result in a loss of
A. dorsiflexion
B. eversion
C. inversion
D. dorsiflexion and eversion

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106. A patient is referred to physical therapy with right foot and ankle pain of unknown etiology. During the initial
examination the therapist identifies a tight medial longitudinal arch. Which activity would be the most appropriate
to treat the medial longitudinal arch?
A. Achilles tendon stretching
B. placing a doughnut pad over the medial side of the arch
C. proprioceptive ankle training
D. resistive exercises emphasizing eversion

107. A child must have which reflex integrated in order to roll from prone to supine?
A. neck righting
B. Moro reflex
C. asymmetrical tonic neck reflex
D. symmetrical tonic neck reflex

108. The primary use of a sling for a hemiplegic’s subluxed shoulder is

A. to correct the cause of the subluxation
B. to decrease muscle spasticity
C. to facilitate movement patterns
D. to prevent further subluxation

109. A 32 year-old factory worker has a lengthy past medical history of impingement and generalized right shoulder
pain. After evaluating the patient the therapist identifies weakness in the right infraspinatus and teres major. What
additional clinical finding would be unlikely based on the above information?
A. abduction will cause the greater tubercle to impinge on the coracoacromial arch
B. postural abnormalities such as winging of the scapula
C. there is incomplete external rotation when full humeral elevation is attempted in abduction
D. tightness in the pectoralis major, teres major and subscapularis

110. During the 1970’s the Professional Standards Review Organization was developed by the government in an attempt
to
A. develop the policies and procedures for specific physical therapy departments
B. develop and regulate a nationwide system of quality assurance
C. analyze the current physical therapy licensing exam and make appropriate modification
D. modify the Medicare and Medicaid system

111. The symmetrical tonic neck reflex is a proprioceptive reflex. The reflex is most accurately described by which of
the following statements?
A. Extension of the neck results in an increase in both extensor tone in the upper extremities and flexor tone in
the lower extremities
B. Flexion of the neck results in an increase in both extensor tone in the upper extremities and flexor tone in the
lower extremities
C. Extension of the neck results in an increase in extensor tone in both the upper and lower extremities.
D. Flexion of the neck results in an increase in flexor tone in both the upper and lower extremities.

112. A physical therapist evaluates a one year-old girl and records the following information
1. The child cannot sit unsupported
2. The child can say “dada” and responds to “no”
3. The child does not creep and cannot stand holding on to a fixed object.
4. The child can transfer objects from one hand to the other
The therapist concludes that the child is
A. moderately mentally retarded
B. functioning at six to eight month level
C. functioning at an eleven month level
D. appropriate for her age

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Practice Questions 15

113. Which type of assistive device provides the least stability?

A. quad cane
B. walker
C. parallel bars
D. axillary crutches

114. A patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is referred to physical therapy diagnosed with acute glenohumeral
joint pain. Which treatment technique would be inappropriate for the patient in her present condition?
A. passive range of motion in a pain free range
B. grade III and IV mobilization
C. periodic immobilization in a sling
D. gentle joint oscillation techniques of small amplitude

115. Which of the following statements is incorrect when assisting a dependent patient in a transfer?
A. it is easier for the patient to lead with the strong side
B. the therapist should keep their back straight and use their legs.
C. keep the combined center of gravity outside your base of support
D. explain to the patient what you are doing

116. A child with Down’s syndrome receives physical therapy weekly. The therapist requests family involvement at
home and instructs the family in therapeutic activities called “patterning”. Which of the following statements
explains why “patterning” is thought to be effective?
A. Passively moving children through patterns will improve motor development
B. Reflex behaviors will lead to normal processing in low centers in the brain and eventually to higher levels of
integration
C. Specific patterns directly affect higher levels of integration bypassing brainstem processing
D. both A & B

117. Which treatment would be indicated for a patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A. bronchodilators
B. smoking cessation
C. oxygen therapy to prevent cor pulmonale
D. all of these

118. The advantages of using skeletal traction for a burn patient immediately status post skin grafting include all of the
following EXCEPT
A. proper positioning of the graft to maximize acceptance
B. proper positioning of the joint to maximize future mobility
C. reduces the necessity for splinting or bulky dressings
D. the application of constant tension attempts to minimize the effects of prior contractures

119. If approximately 25% of the body’s total blood volume was lost, which of the following would you expect to
occur?
A. increase in blood pressure
B. severe bradycardia
C. complete renal shutdown
D. all of these

120. The physical therapist’s primary goal for an acute burn patient is
A. functional evaluation for bed mobility and transfers
B. correct positioning of burned and unaffected body parts
C. cognitive screening to determine the patient’s level of understanding
D. diversional therapy to assess the patient’s level of pain

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121. Wrapping is used for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

A. to provide non-elastic external support
B. to provide compressive static support
C. to secure another object in place
D. all of these are common uses of wrapping

122. The tendon of the ____ muscle is commonly compressed against the bottom of the acromion process in a patient
diagnosed with rotator cuff impingement syndrome?
A. supraspinatus
B. infraspinatus
C. teres minor
D. subscapularis

123. Labor is considered to be active when the contractions are _____ minutes apart.
A. 3-5
B. 5-7
C. 8-10
D. 10-12

124. Bed positioning is important for amputee patients. The prone position or prone lying is recommended for 30
minutes several times a day. This position is of particular importance for ____ amputees.
A. transfemoral
B. transtibial
C. Syme’s
D. hip disarticulation

125. Which of the following is not a complication common to pregnancy?

A. constipation
B. diastasis recti
C. anemia
D. decreased blood volume

126. A physical therapist observes excessive knee flexion from heel strike to midstance, while watching a transtibial
amputee during gait training. A possible cause for this deviation is
A. the foot is set in neutral
B. the socket is set posterior in relation to the foot
C. the prosthesis is too short
D. the socket is aligned in excessive flexion

127. A therapist attempts to improve a patient’s lower extremity strength. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular
facilitation techniques are the most appropriate to achieve the therapist’s goals?
A. contract relax and hold relax
B. repeated contraction and slow reversal
C. contract relax and rhythmic stabilization
D. hold relax and slow reversal

128. A physical therapist observes an above knee amputee during gait training. The therapist identifies marked external
rotation of the forefoot at heel strike. Which of the following would not be a contributing factor to the patient’s gait
deviation?
A. weak hip internal rotators
B. inadequate suspension
C. excessive toe out built into the prosthesis
D. prosthesis is too short

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Practice Questions 17

129. Which of the following was not found to be a benefit of childbirth preparation classes?
A. an overall decrease in the use of anesthesia and analgesics
B. increased awareness in how to use the body to facilitate the baby’s birth.
C. decreased pain on a subjective pain scale during the birthing process
D. increased use of forceps in childbirth

130. A woman’s response to exercise is altered physiologically during pregnancy. Which of the following would be a
physical therapist expect to observe when evaluating a pregnant woman on a treadmill?
A. a decreased oxygen reserve and decreased stroke volume
B. an increased oxygen reserve and increased stroke volume
C. a decreased oxygen reserve and an increased cardiac output
D. a decreased stroke volume and decreased cardiac output

131. The most common type of contracture in a below knee amputee is

A. hip flexion
B. hip extension
C. hip adduction
D. knee extension

132. A physical therapist is concerned with a patient’s lateral knee discomfort. The therapist attempts to determine if a
contracture of the fascia latae or iliotibial band could be contributing the patient’s symptoms. Which special test
might help to identify a restriction in this area?
A. Ober
B. Thomas
C. Apley’s compression
D. Thompson

133. Passive range of motion testing reveals 55 degrees of hip internal rotation. This measurement is considered
A. normal
B. hypomobile
C. hypermobile
D. not enough information is given to make an accurate decision

134. A patient completing an exercise program starts to demonstrate signs of an insulin reaction including dizziness,
vision difficulties and a change in the level of consciousness. The physical therapist working with the patient
recognizes the signs of the insulin reaction. The most appropriate response for a conscious victim would include
A. give the patient sugar, candy or juice
B. monitor airway, breathing and circulation
C. treat the patient for shock
D. continue to supervise the patient however do not intervene

135. The stance phase of gait is completed with toe off. Which muscle does not plan an active role in toe off?
A. anterior tibialis
B. flexor hallucis longus
C. gastrocnemius
D. soleus

136. A physical therapist performs a manual muscle test on a patient’s shoulder internal rotators. Which muscle would
not be involved in this specific test?
A. pectoralis major
B. subscapularis
C. teres major
D. teres minor

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137. A physical therapist immerses a patient’s edematous ankle in cold water. When a body part comes in direct contact
with the cold agent the energy is transferred through
A. conduction
B. convection
C. evaporation
D. radiation

138. An example of a heating agent which can cause temperature elevations in tissues to depths of three centimeters or
more include
A. paraffin
B. moist heating packs
C. whirlpool
D. ultrasound

139. A physical therapist observes a patient’s gait. The therapist is trying to determine if the patient has muscular
weakness in the gastrocnemius or soleus. Which objective finding would not be consistent with a weakness in this
area?
A. inability to dorsiflex the ankle during midswing phase
B. inability to perform a calf raise against resistance
C. inability to walk on toes
D. decreased toe off

140. A physical therapist instructs a patient diagnosed with rotator cuff tendinitis in transverse plane resistive exercises.
Which motions would be appropriate based on this given information?
A. abduction and adduction
B. flexion and extension
C. internal and external rotation
D. pronation and supination

141. A patient is limited in active ankle dorsiflexion when the knee is extended but is not limited when the knee is
flexed. The most logical explanation is
A. the gastrocnemius is responsible for the limitation
B. the soleus is responsible for the limitation
C. the popliteus is responsible for the limitation
D. the gastrocnemius and soleus are both responsible for this limitation

142. A physical therapist instructs a patient in wheelchair mobility. In order to minimize the wheelchair’s turning radius
the patient should adhere to which of the following?
A. when turning to the right, push forward with the left wheel, pull back on the right wheel
B. when turning to the left, push forward with the left wheel, pull back on the right wheel
C. pull back on the right wheel only
D. use small propulsions forward on both wheels

143. A patient would require the greatest amount of coordination in order to use
A. parallel bars
B. crutches
C. cane
D. walker

144. Which assistive device allows for a two-point, three-point and four-point gait pattern?
A. straight cane
B. walker
C. quad cane
D. axillary crutches

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145. A C6 spinal cord patient relies on tenodesis to assist with functional activities. Which condition will reduce the
benefits of tenodesis?
A. lengthening of the long finger flexors
B. excessive hamstring length
C. insufficient hamstring length
D. transferring the fingers flexed

146. A physical therapist palpates the muscle bellies of the wrist extensors. The therapist follows the muscles proximally
to their common origin. This bony landmark is termed the
A. lateral epicondyle
B. medial epicondyle
C. radial head
D. olecranon

147. A patient sustains a deep laceration on the right anterior thigh after stumbling and falling into a modality cart. The
therapist’s immediate response should be to
A. apply direct pressure over the wound
B. apply heat and elevate the arm
C. apply ice and elevate the arm
D. fill out an incident report

148. Which position should the stationary arm of a goniometer be placed when measuring hip abduction?
A. between the anterior superior iliac spine
B. parallel to the anterior aspect of the femur
C. along the midline of the tibia
D. along a line from the crest of the ilium, femur and greater trochanter

149. A patient is treated in physical therapy after injuring their hamstrings. The medical chart describes the injury as an
avulsion fracture of the ischial tuberosity. This injury usually results from
A. forceful extension of the hip with an extended knee
B. forceful extension of the hip with a flexed knee
C. forceful flexion of the hip with an extended knee
D. forceful flexion of the hip with a flexed knee

150. A physical therapist reviews the initial evaluation of a patient diagnosed with a cerebellar CVA. The therapist
might expect the patient’ primary impairment to be
A. visual field cues
B. decreased balance and coordination
C. impaired speech
D. impaired comprehension skills

151. A therapist hypothesizes that a patient’s persistent shoulder pain is caused by an injury to a specific upper extremity
muscle. What selective tissue tension test would provide the therapist with the most useful information to test their
hypothesis?
A. active range of motion
B. active-assistive range of motion
C. passive range of motion
D. resisted isometrics

152. A woman in her third trimester of pregnancy is referred to physical therapy with acute low back pain. During a
postural evaluation the therapist identifies several significant findings. Which of the following postural findings is
not commonly associated with pregnancy?
A. decrease in cervical lordosis
B. increase in lumbar lordosis
C. hyperextension of the knees
D. protraction of the shoulder girdle

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153. A therapist completes an upper extremity goniometric evaluation. The therapist records right elbow range of
motion as –15 – 0 – 150 degrees. The total available range of motion for this patient is
A. 135o
B. 150o
C. 165o
D. 180o

154. A therapist classifies a patient’s end-feel as soft after completing a specific passive movement. Which of the
following joint motions would typically produce a soft end-feel?
A. hip flexion with the knee extended
B. knee flexion
C. elbow extension
D. forearm supination

155. A therapist evaluates a patient referred to physical therapy with olecranon bursitis. During the initial evaluation the
therapist identifies diffuse swelling in the elbow joint. Which of the following joints would be affected with
swelling in the elbow complex?
A. ulnohumeral joint
B. ulnohumeral and radiohumeral joints
C. radiohumeral and superior radioulnar joints
D. ulnohumeral, radiohumeral and superior radioulnar joints

156. A therapist performs goniometric measurements for elbow flexion with a patient in supine. In order to isolate
elbow flexion the therapist should stabilize the
A. distal end of the humerus
B. proximal end of the humerus
C. distal end of the ulna
D. proximal end of the radius

157. A therapist attempts to gain information on the ligamentous integrity of the knee. Which of the following special
tests would not provide the therapist with the desired information?
A. anterior drawer test
B. apprehension test
C. Lachman test
D. pivot shift test

158. A therapist completes an evaluation of a young girl with spastic cerebral palsy. The therapist determines the girl
has involvement in all four extremities as well as the head, neck and trunk. What type of cerebral palsy
classification best describes the girl’s condition?
A. spastic diplegia
B. spastic hemiplegia
C. spastic quadriplegia
D. spastic triplegia

159. A therapist modifies a wheelchair to allow the rear wheels to be moved backward by approximately two inches.
This type of modification would be most beneficial to a
A. bilateral lower extremity amputee
B. flaccid hemiplegic
C. paraplegic
D. quadriplegic

160. A therapist positions a patient in the Trendelenburg position in preparation for postural drainage. Which of the
following is not a relative precaution for the use of the Trendelenburg position?
A. nausea
B. obesity
C. pulmonary edema
D. secretion retention

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Practice Questions 21

161. Health care cost containment efforts have created incentives for inpatient care providers and hospitals to control the
cost and utilization of inpatient services. Which of the following has not resulted as a product of cost containment
efforts?
A. a decrease in the average length of inpatient hospitalization
B. an increase in the utilization of home care and skilled long term care
C. a decreased use of routine diagnostic testing during inpatient hospitalization
D. a decreased use of outpatient diagnostic testing and treatment

162. A therapist positions a patient in sidelying in preparation for postural drainage. Which of the following conditions
would be a relative precaution for positioning a patient in sidelying?
A. abdominal distention
B. axillo-femoral bypass graft
C. congestive heart failure
D. hypertension

163. A therapist commonly uses functional neuromuscular electrical stimulation to increase skeletal muscle strength and
endurance in patients rehabilitating from knee surgery. Which type of pharmacological agent would have an
antagonistic effect on the desired objectives?
A. non-narcotic analgesics
B. NSAIDs
C. peripheral vasodilators
D. skeletal muscle relaxants

164. Pharmacological agents can be an important component of a treatment program designed to treat rheumatoid
arthritis. Which of the following is not commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
A. calcium channel blockers
B. compounds containing elemental gold
C. glucocorticoids
D. NSAIDs

165. A patient with a right radial head fracture is evaluated in physical therapy. The patient’s involved elbow range of
motion begins at 15 degrees of flexion and ends at 90 degrees of flexion. The therapist should record the patient’s
right elbow range of motion as
A. –15 – 0 – 90
B. 15 – 0 – 90
C. 15 – 90
D. 0 – 90

166. A therapist instructs a 62 year-old female rehabilitating from an ankle sprain in the use of a straight cane. The
patient is confused as to why it is necessary to use the cane in the left hand since it is her right ankle that is injured.
The most appropriate explanation would be
A. using the cane in the left hand will increase your base of support
B. using the cane in the left hand will improve your coordination and balance
C. using the cane in the left hand will limit the weight over your injured ankle
D. using the cane in the left hand will allow more weight bearing on your injured ankle and will therefore
accelerate your rehabilitation time

167. The sensory system can be divided into protective and discriminative sensations. Which of the following is not
considered to be a protective sensation?
A. light touch
B. pain
C. proprioception
D. temperature

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168. A therapist completes a series of special tests designed to evaluate the ligamentous integrity of a patient’s knee.
After completing the tests the therapist is still unsure if the laxity is normal for the patient or if it is indicative of a
ligamentous injury. The most appropriate step to gather more information is to
A. attempt to quantify the millimeters of laxity and compare the values with established norms
B. contact the physician and suggest they refer the patient for magnetic resonance imaging
C. directly compare the laxity in the involved knee to the laxity in the uninvolved knee
D. attempt to identify other special tests which can offer more information on the ligamentous integrity of the
knee

169. A therapist would like to visit a former patient in the hospital diagnosed with pneumonic plague. The patient is in
strict isolation, but the therapist has been granted permission to visit if there is no body contact. What protective
measures are necessary when entering the room of a patient in strict isolation?
A. mask
B. mask, gown
C. gloves, gown
D. mask, gloves, gown

170. A physical therapy department plans a study to examine rehabilitation outcomes in patients who have undergone
anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. The study will include a sample of patient from 25 orthopedic surgeons
in the local region. If the therapists compile a list of all eligible patients and select every third patient to participate
in the study, what type of sampling was used?
A. simple random sampling
B. stratified sampling
C. systematic sampling
D. cluster sampling

171. A therapist performs a talar tilt test on a 22 year-old female rehabilitating from an inversion ankle sprain. Which
ligament does the talar tilt test evaluate?
A. anterior tibiofibular
B. calcaneofibular
C. deltoid
D. posterior tibiofibular

172. A therapist attempts to palpate the lunate by moving their finger immediately distal to Lister’s tubercle. Which
wrist motion will allow the therapist to facilitate palpation of the lunate?
A. extension
B. flexion
C. radial deviation
D. ulnar deviation

173. A patient admitted to the hospital with a known or suspected diagnosis of AIDS would likely be placed in
A. blood/blood fluid isolation
B. contact isolation
C. respiratory isolation
D. strict isolation

174. The clinical instructor and the center coordinator of clinical education both play an integral role in a clinical
education program. Which of the following activities is typically completed by the clinical instructor?
A. perform administrative functions between the academic program and the clinical center
B. serve as a representative of the clinical center to the academic programs
C. coordinate the assignments and activities of students at the clinical center
D. perform formative and summative evaluations of the student’s performance

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Practice Questions 23

175. A therapist conducts a study which measures knee flexion range of motion two weeks following arthroscopic
surgery. Assuming a normal distribution what percentage of patient participating in the study would you expect to
achieve a goniometric measurement value greater than one standard deviation below the mean?
A. 49%
B. 64%
C. 68%
D. 84%

176. A therapist positions a patient in prone with two pillows under their hips in preparation for bronchial drainage. If
the therapist’s goal is to perform the drainage techniques to the superior segments of the lower lobes, which area
should the therapist’s force be directed?
A. between the clavicle and nipple on each side
B. over the area between the clavicle and top of the scapula on each side
C. over the lower ribs on each side
D. over the middle of the back at the tip of the scapula on each side

177. Secretion removal techniques are often a necessary component of a pulmonary rehabilitation program. Secretion
retention can occur for a multitude of reasons, however, it is usually associated with a pulmonary disease. Which
pulmonary disease is usually associated with a change in the composition of the secretions?
A. asthma
B. bronchiectasis
C. chronic bronchitis
D. cystic fibrosis

178. Certain types of drugs such as nitroglycerin can be metabolized and destroyed by the liver. What route of
administration would best allow nitroglycerin to reach the systemic circulation?
A. oral
B. rectal
C. nasal
D. sublingual

179. Acetaminophen is a commonly encountered drug seen frequently in patients requiring physical therapy. What is the
primary benefit of acetaminophen compared to aspirin and other NSAIDs?
A. increased analgesic effects
B. increased antipyretic effects
C. decreased upper gastrointestinal tract irritation
D. decreased irritation of the oral mucosa

180. A patient with suspected cardiac dysfunction is placed on a continuous ambulatory EKG monitor. Which of the
following is the name commonly used for this type of monitoring?
A. hemodynamic
B. Holter
C. phonocardiography
D. pulmonic

181. A therapist evaluates the breathing pattern of a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The therapist
identifies cycles of increased rate and depth or respiration with apneic pauses between cycles. This type of
breathing pattern is best described as
A. Biot’s
B. Cheyne-Stokes
C. eupnea
D. Kussmaul’s

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24 Practice Questions

182. Dysrhythmias can result in varying degrees of abnormal hemodynamics. Which of the following dysrhythmias
would have the most significant effect on hemodynamics?
A. sinus rhythm with first degree AV block
B. sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions
C. sinus rhythm with short episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
D. ventricular tachycardia

183. A therapist uses ultrasound to elevate the tissue temperature at the insertion of the supraspinatus. What would be
the most appropriate patient position for the ultrasound application?
A. patient in supine with the arm abducted and externally rotated
B. patient in supine with the arm adducted and internally rotated
C. patient in supine with the arm abducted and internally rotated
D. patient in supine with the arm adducted and externally rotated

184. After administration of a pharmacological agent many drugs are stored at specific locations in the body. What is
the primary site for drug storage in the body?
A. adipose tissue
B. bone
C. muscle
D. organs

185. Therapists often elevate the foot of a treatment table to maximize the effectiveness of specific postural drainage
techniques. Standard postural drainage positioning of the _____ would not require elevation of the treatment table.
A. anterior segments of the upper lobes
B. lateral basal segments of the lower lobes
C. posterior basal segments of the lower lobes
D. right middle lobe

186. A patient in a pulmonary rehabilitation program is positioned in supine with a pillow under their knees. The
therapist claps between the clavicle and nipple on each side. This technique would most effectively be utilized for
postural drainage of the
A. anterior segments of the upper lobes
B. anterior basal segments of the lower lobes
C. superior segments of the lower lobes
D. posterior basal segments of the lower lobes

187. A therapist evaluates a patient referred to physical therapy with thoracic outlet syndrome. Which of the following
special tests would not assist the therapist to confirm the physician’s diagnosis?
A. Adson maneuver
B. Allen maneuver
C. Halstead maneuver
D. Speed’s maneuver

188. A patient rehabilitating from elbow surgery is evaluated in physical therapy. The patient’s involved elbow range of
motion begins at 15 degrees of flexion and ends at 90 degrees of flexion. The total available range of motion for
this patient is
A. 60o
B. 75o
C. 90o
D. 105o

189. A patient is able to actively hyperextend their right knee 5 degrees. Assuming the patient’s total knee range of
motion is 65 degrees, which of the following recordings would be the most representative of the patient’s actual
range of motion?
A. –5 – 0 – 60
B. –5 – 0 – 65
C. 5 – 60
D. 5 – 65

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Practice Questions 25

190. Documentation can be an extremely important factor in malpractice litigation. Which of the following statements
does not reflect appropriate documentation procedures?
A. The complete signature and title of the document’s writer should appear at the end of the document
B. Valid objective measurements and terms should be used.
C. The date and, in some cases, the time of an observation, treatment or other action should be included.
D. Corrections made in records after the notification of a claim should be made by a single line through the
incorrect entry

191. A 66 year-old male, two months status post open reduction and internal fixation of a fractured femur is referred to
physical therapy. Which of the following modalities would be an appropriate treatment option for the involved
lower extremity?
A. microwave diathermy
B. shortwave diathermy
C. ultrasound using a moving applicator
D. ultrasound using a stationary applicator

192. A physical therapy problem list is often developed following an initial evaluation. The problem list can be a useful
tool for therapists to develop an effective and organized treatment plan. The physical therapy problem list should
be recorded in the ____ section of a SOAP note.
A. subjective
B. objective
C. assessment
D. plan

193. A therapist palpates the bony structures of the wrist and hand. Which of the following structures would not be
identified in the distal row of carpals?
A. capitate
B. hamate
C. lunate
D. trapezoid

194. A therapist examines an electrocardiogram of a patient during exercise. What change in the electrocardiogram
would be the most predictive of myocardial ischemia?
A. P wave changes
B. PR interval changes
C. QRS changes
D. ST segment changes

195. Proper technique is essential to obtain accurate results when performing a manual muscle test. Which of the
following manual muscle testing instructions is not accurate?
A. have the patient perform the movement actively
B. stabilize proximal to the joint
C. check the passive range of motion of the joint being moved by the muscle
D. apply pressure at the proximal end of the moving part

196. A physical therapist prepares a patient for ambulation. The patient has been in the hospital for six weeks with
pneumonia and has only recently had enough strength to begin ambulation training. Which of the following
treatment activities would be the last to occur?
A. development of standing balance
B. development of sitting balance
C. training in a specific gait pattern
D. training in weight shifting in standing

197. A therapist develops a list of behavioral objectives for a new employee working in hydrotherapy. Which of the
following is not considered to be a behavioral objective?
A. The therapist will perform wound debridement to remove necrotic material
B. The therapist will identify two commonly used antibacterial agents.
C. The therapist will apply sterile dressings to an open wound
D. The therapist will understand the stages of tissue inflammation and repair.

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26 Practice Questions

198. A therapist is treating a patient bedside when suddenly the patient’s IV becomes disconnected. The therapist’s most
appropriate response would be to
A. reconnect the IV
B. contact the primary physician
C. contact nursing
D. continue with your present treatment
199. A therapist evaluates a patient diagnosed with acute Achilles tendinitis. During the initial evaluation the patient
indicates they were given a prescription for a NSAID. Which modality would be the most beneficial to assist the
NSAID in decreasing edema?
A. cold packs
B. fluidotherapy
C. hot packs
D. ultrasound

200. A physician orders the nursing staff to administer digitalis to a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The
physician’s primary goal using this medication is to
A. increase cardiac pumping ability
B. increase cellular metabolism
C. regulate fluid and electrolyte levels
D. regulate glucose metabolism

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Practice Questions 27

1. A 41. B 81. C 121.D 161.D

2. A 42. C 82. D 122.A 162.B
3. B 43. B 83. B 123.A 163.D
4. D 44. B 84. A 124.A 164.A
5. C 45. A 85. C 125.D 165.C
6. C 46. C 86. B 126.D 166.C
7. B 47. C 87. A 127.B 167.C
8. B 48. B 88. A 128.D 168.C
9. D 49. D 89. A 129.D 169.D
10. C 50. A 90. A 130.C 170.C
11. D 51. D 91. B 131.A 171.B
12. D 52. A 92. D 132.A 172.B
13. A 53. D 93. B 133.C 173.A
14. A 54. B 94. D 134.A 174.D
15. C 55. C 95. B 135.A 175.D
16. B 56. D 96. D 136.D 176.D
17. B 57. C 97. D 137.A 177.D
18. A 58. B 98. C 138.D 178.D
19. D 59. C 99. B 139.A 179.C
20. D 60. A 100.C 140.C 180.B
21. A 61. A 101.D 141.A 181.B
22. A 62. B 102.D 142.A 182.D
23. D 63. C 103.A 143.B 183.B
24. B 64. B 104.A 144.D 184.A
25. C 65. A 105.D 145.A 185.A
26. A 66. D 106.A 146.A 186.A
27. D 67. B 107.A 147.A 187.D
28. A 68. D 108.D 148.A 188.B
29. C 69. D 109.B 149.C 189.A
30. A 70. A 110.B 150.B 190.D
31. B 71. B 111. A 151.D 191.C
32. B 72. B 112.B 152.A 192.C
33. D 73. B 113.A 153.C 193.C
34. C 74. B 114.B 154.B 194.D
35. C 75. A 115.C 155.D 195.D
36. A 76. C 116.D 156.A 196.C
37. B 77. C 117.D 157.B 197.D
38. B 78. A 118.C 158.C 198.C
39. A 79. C 119.C 159.A 199.A
40. D 80. C 120.B 160.D 200.A

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