BITSAT

Engineering Entrance Exam Solved Paper 2009

MATHEMATICS

1.

(a) R - {0}

(b) R - {0, 1, 3}

(c) R - {0, -1, - 3}

(d) R–

2. The number of subsets of {1, 2, 3, ….... , 9} containing at least

one odd number is –

(a) 324

(b) 396

(c) 496

(d) 512

3. The coefficient of x24 in the expansion of (1 + x2)12(1 + x12) (1 +

x24) is
12
(a) C6
12
(b) C6 + 2
12
(c) C6 + 4
12
(d) C6 + 6
4. For | x | < 1, the constant term in the expansion of

(a) 2

(b) 1

(c) 0

(d)

5. The roots of

(x - a) (x - a-1) + (x - a -1) (x - a - 2) + (x - a) (x - a - 2) = 0,
a R are always

(a) Equal

(b) Imaginary

(c) real and distinct

(d) rational and equal

6. Let f(x) = x2 + ax + b, where a, b R. If f(x) = 0 has all its

roots imaginary, then the roots of f(x) + f' (x) + f" (x) = 0 are

(a) Real and distinct

(b) Imaginary

(c) Equal

(d) Rational and equal

7. If one of the roots of the other roots are

 (a) 3, 7

(b) 4, 7

(c) 3, 9

(d) 3, 4

8. If x, y, z are all positive and are the pth, qth and rth terms of a
geometric progression respectively, then the value of the
determinant

(a) log xyz

(b) (p -1) (q - 1)(r -1)

(c) pqr

(d) 0

9. If has no inverse, then" the real value of x is

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 0

(d) 1

10. The locus of z satisfying the inequality

(a) x2 + y2 < 1
 (b) x2 - y2 < 1

(c) x2 + y2 > 1

(d) 2x2 + 3y2 < 1

4
11. The period of sin x + cos4 x is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

12.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

13. cos A cos 2A cos 4A ... cos 2n-1 A equals

(a)

(b)

(c)
 (d)

14. If 3 cos x -2 sin x, then the general solution of sin2 x - cos 2x

= 2- sin 2x is

(a) n +

(b)

(c)

(d)

15. In a ABC

(a) cos2 A

(b) cos2 B

(c) sin2 A

(d) sin2 B

16. P is a point on the segment joining the feet of two vertical poles
of heights a and b. The angles of elevation of the tops of the
poles from P are 45° each. Then, the square of the distance
between the tops of the poles is

(a)

(b) a2 + b2

(c) 2(a2 + b2)

(d) 4 (a2 + b2)

17. In a quadrilateral ABCD, the point P divides DC in the ratio 1:2
and Q is the mid point of AG. If + 2 + - 2 = k ,
then k is equal to

(a) -6

(b) -4

(c) 6

(d) 4

18. If m1, m2, m3 and m4 are respectively the magnitudes of the

vectors

1 =2 - + , 2 =3 -4 -4 ,

3 = + - and 4 =- +3 + ,

then the correct order of m1, m2, m3 and m4 is

(a) m3 < m1 < m4 < m2

(b) m3 < m1 < m2 < m4

(c) m3 < m4 < m1 < m2

(d) m3 < m4 < m2 < m1

19. The volume of the tetrahedron having the edges + 2 - , +

+ , - + k as coterminous, is cubic unit. Then equals

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4
20. If A and B are events of a random experiment such that P(A B)
= , P( )= and P(B) = , then P(A) equals

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

21. If X is a binomial variate with the range {a, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and

P(X = 2) = 4P (X = 4), then the parameter p of X is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

22. The area (in square unit) of the circle which touches the lines 4x
+ 3y = 15 and 4x + 3y = 5 is

(a) 4

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d)

23. The point on the line 3x + 4y = 5 which is equidistant from (1,

 2) and (3, 4) is

(a) (7, - 4)

(b) (15, -10)

(c) (1/7, 8/7)

(d) (0, 5/4)

24. The equation of the straight line perpendicular to the straight

line 3x, + 2y = 0 and passing through. the point of intersection
of the lines x + 3y - 1 = 0 and x - 2y + 4 = 0 is

(a) 2x - 3y + 1 = 0

(b) 2x - 3y + 3 = 0

(c) 2x - 3y + 5 = 0

(d) 2x - 3y + 7 = 0

25. The value of A with. | | < 16 such that 2x2 - 10xy + 12y2 + 5x
+ y - 3 = 0 represents a pair of straight lines, is

(a) -10

(b) -9

(c) 10

(d) 9

26. The area (in square unit) of the triangle formed by x + y + 1 = 0

and the pair of straight lines x2 - 3xy + 2y2 = 0 is

(a) 7/12

(b) 5/12

(c) 1/12
 (d) 1/6

27. The pairs of straight lines x2 - 3xy + 2y2 = 0 and x2 - 3xy + 2y2
+ x - 2 = 0 form a

(a) Square but not rhombus

(b) Rhombus

(c) Parallelogram

(d) Rectangle but not a square

28. The equations of the circle which pass through the origin and
makes intercepts of lengths 4 and 8 on the x and y-axes
respectively are

(a) x2 + y2 ± 4x ± 8y = 0

(b) x2 + y2 ± 2x ± 4y = 0

(c) x2 + y2 ± 8x ± 16y = 0

(d) x2 + y2 ± x ± y = 0

29. The locus of centre of a circle which passes through the origin
and cuts off a length of 4 unit from the line x = 3 is

(a) y2 + 6x = 0

(b) y2 + 6x = 13

(c) y2 + 6x = 10

(d) x2 + 6y = 13

30. The point (3, - 4) lies on both the circles x2 + y2 - 2x + 8y + 13

= 0 and x2 + y2 - 4x + 6y + 11 = 0 Then, the angle between the
circles is -
 (a) 60°

(b) tan-1

(c) tan-1

(d) 135°

31. The equation of the circle which passes through the origin and
cuts orthogonally each of the circles x2 + y2 - 6x + 8 = 0

and x2 + y2 - 2x - 2y = T is

(a) 3x2 + 3y2 - 8x - 13y = 0

(b) 3x2 + 3y2 - 8x + 29y = 0

(c) 3x2 + 3y2 + 8x + 29y = 0

(d) 3x2 + 3y2 - 8x - 29y = 0

32. The number of normals drawn to the parabola y2 = 4x from the

point (1, 0) is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

33. If the circle x2 + y2 = a2 intersects the hyperbola xy = c2 in four

points (xi, yi), fori = 1, 2, 3 and 4, then y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 equals

(a) 0

(b) c

(c) a
 (d) c4

34. The mid point of the chord 4x - 3y = 5 of the hyperbola 2x2 - 3y2
– 12 is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

35. If a line in the space makes angle a, p and y with the coordinate
axes, then

cos 2a + cos 2 + cos 2y + sin2 a + sin2 + sin2 y equals

(a) -1

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) 2

36. The image of the point (3, 2, 1) in the plane 2x-y+3z = 7 is

(a) (1, 2, 3)

(b) (2, 3, 1)

(c) (3, 2, 1)

(d) (2, 1, 3)
37.

(a) e

(b) e2

(c) e3

(d) e5

38. If f: R R is defined by

then the value of a so that f is

continuous at 0 is

(a) 2

(b) 1

(c) -1

(d) 0

39. is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

40. a - 2b is equal to
 (a) 1

(b) -1

(c) 0

(d) 2

41. y = ea sin-1 x
(1 - x2) yn+2 - (2n + 1) xyn+1 is equal to

(a) -(n2 + a2)yn

(b) (n2 - a2)y n

(c) (n2 + a2) yn

(d) -(n2 - a2) yn

42. The function f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c, a2 3b has

(a) one maximum value

(b) one minimum value

(c) no extreme value

(d) one maximum and one minimum value

43. dx is equal to
–

(a) - ex cot x + c

(b) ex cot x + c

(c) 2ex cot x + c

(d) -2ex cot x + c

44. dx is equal to
 (a) 1

(b) 2

(c) -1

(d) -2

45. The solution of the differential equation

(a) cosec (x + y) + tan(x + y) = x + c

(b) x + cosec (x + y) = c

(c) x + tan (x + y) = c

(d) x + sec (x + y) = c

Physics

46. When a wave traverses a medium the displacement of a particle

located at x at a time is given by y = a sin (bt - cx), where a,
band are constants of the wave, which of the following is a
quantity with dimensions?

(a)

(b) bt

(c) cx

(d)

47. A body is projected vertically upwards at time t = 0 and it is

seen at a height H at time t1 and t2 second during its flight. The
maximum height attained is (g is acceleration due to gravity)
 (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

48. A particle is projected up from a point at an angle with the

horizontal direction. At any time t, if P is the linear momentum, y
is the vertical displacement, x is horizontal displacement, the
graph among the following which does not represent the
variation of kinetic energy KE of the particle is
 (a) graph (A)

(b) graph (B)

(c) graph (C)

(d) graph (D)

49. A motor of power Po is used to deliver water at a certain rate

through a given horizontal pipe. To increase the rate of flow of
water through the same pipe n times, the power of the motor is
increased to P1. The ratio of P1 to P0 is

(a) n: 1

(b) n2: 1

(c) n3: 1
 (d) n4: 1

50. A body of mass 5 kg makes an elastic collision with another body

at rest and continues to move in the original direction after
collision with a velocity equal to 1/10th of its original velocity.
Then the mass of the second body is

(a) 4.09 kg

(b) 0.5 kg

(c) 5 kg

(d) 5.09 kg

51. A particle of mass 4 m explodes into three pieces, of masses m,

m and 2 m. The equal masses move along X-axis and Y-axis with
velocities 4 ms-1 and 6 ms-1 respectively. The magnitude of the
velocity of the heavier mass is

(a) ms-1

(b) 2 ms-1

(c) ms-1

(d)

52. body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of the

earth with a velocity equal to half the escape velocity. If R is the
radius of the earth, maximum height attained by the body from
the surface of the earth is

(a) R/6

(b) R/3

(c) 2R/3
 (d) R

53. The displacement of a particle executing SHM is given by

If T is the time period and the mass of the particle is 2 g, the

kinetic energy of the particle when is given by

(a) 0.4 J

(b) 0.5 J

(c) 3J

(d) 0.3 J

54. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's modulus of steel and
brass wires shown in the figure are a, band c respectively, the
ratio between' the increase in lengths of brass and steel wires
would be

(a)

(b)

(c)
 (d)

55. A soap bubble of radius r is blown up to form a bubble of radius

2 r under isothermal conditions. If T is the surface tension of
soap solution, the energy spent in the blowing

(a) 3 Tr2

(b) 6 Tr2

(c) 12 Tr2

(d) 24 Tr2

56. Eight spherical rain drops of the same mass and radius are
falling down with a terminal speed of 6 cm s-1. If they coalesce
to form one big drop, what will be the terminal speed of bigger
drop? (Neglect the buoyancy of the air)

(a) 1.5 cm-s-1

(b) 6 cm –s-1

(c) 24 cm-s-1

(d) 32 cm-s-1

57. A clock pendulum made of invar has a period of 0.5 s, at 20°C.

If the clock is used in a climate where the temperature averages
to 30°C, how much time does the clock lose in each oscillation?

(For invar, a = 9 × 10-7 /°C, g = constant)

(a) 2.25 × 10-6 s

(b) 2.5 × 10-7 s

(c) 5 × 10-7 s

(d) 1.125 × 10-6 s

58. A piece of metal weighs 45 g in air and 25 g in a liquid of density
1.5 × 103 kg-m-3 kept at 30°C.

When the temperature of the liquid is raised to 40°C, the metal

piece weighs 27 g. The density of liquid at 40°C is 1.25 × 103
kg-m-3. The coefficient of linear expansion of metal is

(a) 1.3 × 10-3/°C

(b) 5.2 × 10-3/°C

(c) 2.6 × 10-3/°C

(d) 0.26 × 10-3/°C

59. An ideal gas is subjected to a cyclic process ABCD as depicted in

the p- V diagram given below:

Which of the following curves represents the equivalent cyclic

process?
60. An ideal gas is subjected to cyclic process involving four
thermodynamic states, the amounts of heat (Q) and work (W)
involved in each of these states are

Q1 = 6000 J,

Q2 = - 5500 J;

Q3 = - 3000 J;

Q4 = 3500 J

W1 = 2500 J;

W2 = -1000 J;

W3 = -1200 J;

W4 = x J.

The ratio of the net work done by the gas to the total heat
absorbed by the gas is . The values of x and respectively are

(a) 500; 7.5%

(b) 700; 10.5%

(c) 1000; 21%

(d) 1500; 15%

61. Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain equal number
of moles of an ideal mono atomic gas at 400 K. The piston of A is
free to move while that of B is held fixed. Same amount of heat
energy is given to the gas in each cylinder. If the rise in
temperature of the gas in A is 42 K, the rise in temperature of
the gas in B is

(a) 21 K

(b) 35 K

(c) 42 K

(d) 70 K

62. Three rods of same dimensional have thermal conductivity 3 K, 2

K and K. They are arranged as shown in the figure below

Then, the temperature of the junction in steady state is

(a)

(b)

(c) 75°C

(d)
63. Two sources A and B are sending notes of frequency 680 Hz. A
listener moves from A and B with-a constant velocity u. If the
speed of sound in air is 340 ms-1, what must be the value of u so
that he hears 10 beats per second?

(a) 2.0 ms-1

(b) 2.5 ms-1

(c) 3.0 ms-1

(d) 3.5 ms-1

64. Two identical piano wires have a fundamental frequency of 600

cycle per second when kept under the same tension. What
fractional increase in the tension of one wires will lead to the
occurrence of 6 beats per second when both wires vibrate
simultaneously?

(a) 0.01

(b) 0.02

(c) 0.03

(d) 0.04

65. In the Young's double slit experiment, the intensities at two

points P1 and P2 on the screen are respectively I1 and I2, If P1 is
located at the centre of a bright fringe and P2 is located at a
distance equal to a quarter of fringe width from

(a) 2

(b)

(c) 4
 (d) 16

66. In Young's double slit experiment, the 10th maximum of

wavelength 1 is at a distance of 1 from the central maximum.
When the wavelength of the source is changed to 2, 5th
maximum is at a distance of y2 from its central maximum. The
ratio is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

67. Four light sources produce the following four waves:

(i) y1 = a’ sin ( t + 1)

(ii) y2 = a’ sin 2 t

(iii) y3 = a' sin ( t + 2)

(iv) y4 = a' sin (3 t+ )

Super Position of which two waves give rise to interference?

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)

(c) (i) and (iii)

(d) (iii) and (iv)

68. The two lenses of an achromatic doublet should have

 (a) Equal powers

(b) Equal dispersive powers

(c) Equal ratio of their power and dispersive power

(d) Sum of the product of their powers and dispersive power

equal to zero

69. Two bar magnets A and B are placed one over the other and are
allowed to Vibrate in a vibration magnetometer. They make 20
oscillations per minute when the similar poles of A and B are on
the same side, while they make 15 oscillations per minute when
their opposite poles lie on the same side. If MA and MB are the
magnetic' moments of A and B and if MA > MB, the ratio of MA
and MB is

(a) 4: 3

(b) 25:7

(c) 7: 5

(d) 25: 16

70. A bar magnet is 10 cm long is kept with its north (N)-pole

pointing north. A neutral point is formed at a distance of 15 cm
from each pole:

Given the horizontal component of earth's field is 0.4 Gauss, the

pole strength of the magnet is

(a) 9 A-m

(b) 6.75 A-m

(c) 27 A-m

(d) 1.35 A-m

71. An infinitely long thin straight wire has uniform linear charge
density of cm-1. Then, the magnitude of the electric
intensity at a point 18 cm away is

(given 0 = 8.8 × 10-12 C2Nm-2)

(a) 0.33 × 1011 NC1

(b) 3 × 1011 NC-1

(c) 0.66 × 1011 NC1

(d) 1.32 × 1011 NC1

72. Two point charges -q and + q are located at point's (0, 0, - a)

and, (0, 0, a) respectively. The electric potential at a point (0, 9,
z), where z > a is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

73. In the adjacent shown circuit, a voltmeter of internal resistance

R, when connected across B an C reads

Neglecting the internal resistance of the battery, the value of R

is
 (a) 100 k

(b) 75 k

(c) 50 k

(d) 25 k

74. A cell in secondary circuit gives null deflection for 2.5 m length
of potentiometer having 10 m length of wire. If the length of the
potentiometer wire is increased by 1 m without changing the cell
in the primary, the position of the null point now is -

(a) 3.5 m

(b) 3m

(c) 2.75 m

(d) 2.0 m

75. The following series L-C-R circuit, when driven by an emf source
of angular frequency 70 kilo-radians per second, the circuit
effectively behaves like
 (a) Purely resistive circuit

(b) Series R-L circuit

(c) Series R-C circuit

(d) Series L-C circuit with R = 0

76. A wire of length is bent into a circular loop of radius R and

carries a current . The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is
B. The same wire is now bent into a double loop of equal radii. If
both loops carry the same current and it is in the same
direction, the magnetic field at the centre of the double loop will
be –

(a) Zero

(b) 2B

(c) 4B

(d) 8B

77. An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the shape as

shown below. It carries a current of I ampere and the radius of
the circular loop is R metre. Then, the magnitude of magnetic
induction at the centre of the circular loop is –
 (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

76. The work function of a certain metal is 3.31 × 10-19 J. Then, the
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted by incident
radiation of wavelength 5000 A is

(Given, h = 6.62 × 10-34 J-s,

c = 3 × 108 ms-1. e = 1.6 × 10-19 C)

(a) 248 eV

(b) 0.41 eV

(c) 2.07 eV

(d) 0.82 eV

79. A photon of energy E ejects; a photoelectron from a metal

surface whose work function is W0. If this electron enters into a
uniform magnetic field of induction B in a direction perpendicular
to the field and describes a circular path of radius r, then the
radius r is given by, (in the usual notation)

(a)
 (b)

(c)

(d)

80. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10

and A respectively. If initially they have the same number of
nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2
will be 1/ e after a time

(a) (1/10 )

(b) 1/(11 )

(c) 11/(10 )

(d) 1/(9 )

81. Currents flowing in each of the following circuits A and B

respectively are

(a) 1 A, 2 A

(b) 2 A, 1 A

(c) 4 A, 2 A
 (d) 2 A, 4 A

82. A bullet of mass 0.02 kg travelling horizontally with velocity 250

ms-1 strikes a block of wood of mass 0.23 kg which rests on a
rough horizontal surface. After the impact, the block and bullet
move together arid come to rest after travelling a distance of 40
m. The coefficient of sliding friction of the rough surface is (g =
9.8 ms-2)

(a) 0.75

(b) 0.61

(c) 0.51

(d) 0.30

83. Two persons A and B are located in X - Y plane at the points (0,
0) and (0, 10) respectively. (The distances are measured in MKS
unit). At a time t = 0, they start moving simultaneously with
velocities and respectively. The time
after which A arid B are at their closest distance is

(a) 2.5 s

(b) 4s

(c) 1s

(d)

84. A rod of length is held vertically stationary with its lower end
located at a point P, on the horizontal plane. When the rod is
released to topple about P, the velocity of the upper end of the
rod with which it hits the ground is

(a)
 (b)

(c) 3

(d)

85. A wheel of radius 0.4 m can rotate freely about its axis as shown
in the figure. A string is wrapped over its rim and a mass of 4 kg
is hung. An angular acceleration of 8 rad-s-2 is produced in it due
to the torque. Then, moment of inertia of the wheel is (g = 10
ms-2)

(a) 2 kg-m2

(b) 1 kg-m2

(c) -4 kg-m2

(d) 8 kg-m2

CHEMISTRY

86. Given that Hf(H) = 218 kJ/mol, express the H-H bond energy
in kcal/mol.

(a) 52.15

(b) 911

(c) 104

(d) 52153

87. Identify the alkyne in the following sequence of reactions,

 (a) H3 C – C C - CH3

(b) H3C - CH2 - C CH

(c) H2C = CH – C CH

(d) HC = C - CH2 – C CH

88. Fluorine reacts with dilute NaOH and forms a gaseous product A.
The bond angle in the molecule of A is

(a) 104°40'

(b) 103°

(c) 107°

(d) 109°28'

89. One mole of alkene on ozonolysis gave one mole of

acetaldehyde and one mole of acetone. The IUPAC name of is

(a) 2-methyl-2-butene

(b) 2-methyl-1-butene

(c) 2-butene

(d) 1-butene

90. The number of p -d 'pi' bonds present in XeO3 and XeO4

molecules, respectively are
 (a) 3, 4

(b) 4, 2

(c) 2, 3

(d) 3, 2

91. The wavelengths of electron waves in two orbits is 3: 5. The

ratio of kinetic energy of electrons will be

(a) 25: 9

(b) 5: 3

(c) 9: 25

(d) 3: 5

92. Which one of the following sets correctly represents the increase
in the paramagnetic property of the ions?

(a) Cu2+ > V2+ > Cr2+ > Mn2+

(b) Cu2+ < Cr2+ < V2+ < Mn2+

(c) Cu2+ < V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+

(d) V2+ < Cu2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+

93. Electrons with a kinetic energy of 6.023 × 104 J/mol are evolved
from the surface of a metal, when it is exposed to radiation of
wavelength of 600 nm. The minimum amount of energy required
to remove an electron from the metal atom is

(a) 2.3125 × 10419 J

(b) 3 × 10-19 J

(c) 6.02 × 10-19 J

(d) 6.62 × 10-34 J

94. The chemical entities present in thermosphere of the
atmosphere are

(a) O+2, O+, NO+

(b) O3

(c) N2, O2, CO2, H2O

(d) O3, O+2, O2

95. The type of bonds present in sulphuric anhydride are -

(a) 3 and three p - d

(b) 3 one p - p and two p -d

(c) 2 and three p - d

(d) 2 and two p - d

96. In Gattermann reaction, a diazonium group is replaced by

using and are –

(a) Cu/HCI

(b) CuCl2/HCI

(c) CuCl2/HCI

(d) Cl2 Cu2O/HCI

97. Which pair of oxyacids of phosphorus contains 'P-H' bonds?

(a) H3PO4, H3PO3

(b) H3PO3, H4P2O7

 (c) H3PO3, H3PO2

(d) H3PO2, HPO3

98. Dipole moment of HCl = 1.03 D, HI = 0.38 D. Bond length of

HCI = 1.3 Å and HI = 1.6 Å. The ratio of fraction of electric
charge , , existing on each atom in HCl and HI is

(a) 12: 1

(b) 2.7: 1

(c) 3.3: 1

(d) 1: 3.3

99. SiCl4 on hydrolysis forms 'X' and HCl. Compound 'X' loses water
at 1000°C and gives 'Y'. Compounds 'X' and 'Y' respectively are

(a) H2SiCl6, SiO2

(b) H4SiO4, Si

(c) SiO2, Si

(d) H4SiO4, SiO2

100. 1.5 g of CdCl2 was found to contain 0.9 g of Cd. Calculate the
atomic weight of Cd.

(a) 118

(b) 112

(c) 106.5

(d) 53.25
101. Aluminium reacts with NaOH and forms compound 'X'. If the
coordination number of aluminium in 'X' is 6, the correct formula
of X is

(a) [Al(H2O)4(OH)2]+

(b) [Al(H2O3) (OH)3]

(c) [Al(H2O)2 (OH)4]-

(d) [Al(H2O)6](OH)3

102. The average kinetic energy of one molecule of an ideal gas at

27°C and 1 atm pressure is

(a) 900 cal K-1 mol-1

(b) 6.21 × 10-21 JK-1 molecule-1

(c) 336.7 JK-1 molecule-1

(d) 3741.3 JK-1 mol-1

103. Assertion (A) K, Rb and Cs form superoxides. Reason (R) The

stability of the superoxides increases from 'K' to 'Cs' due to
decrease in lattice energy.

The correct answer is

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)

(c) (A) is true but (R) is not true

(d) (A) is not true but (R) is true

104. How many 'mL' of perhydrol is required to produce sufficient

oxygen which can be used to completely convert 2L of SO2 gas
 to SO3 gas?

(a) 10 mL

(b) 5 mL

(c) 20 mL

(d) 30 mL

105. pH of a buffer solution decreases by 0.02 units when 0.12 g of

acetic acid is added to 250 mL of a buffer solution of acetic acid
and potassium acetate at 27°C. The buffer capacity of the
solution is

(a) 0.1

(b) 10

(c) 1

(d) 0.4

106. Match the following.

The correct answer is

 (A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) IV V II I

(b) IV V I II

(c) IV I III II

(d) II V IV I

107. Which one of the following order is correct for the first ionisation
energies of the elements?

(a) B < Be< N < O

(b) Be < B < N < O

(c) B < Be < O < N

(d) B < O < Be < N

108. What are and in the following reaction sequence?

C2H5OH

(a) C2H5Cl, CH3CHO

(b) CH3CHO, CH3CO2H

(c) CH3CHO, CCl3CHO

(d) C2H5CI, CCl3CHO

109. What are in the following reactions?

(I) (CH3CO2)2 Ca

(II) CH3CO2H
 (III) 2CH3 CO2

(a) C2H6 CH3COCH3 (CH3CO)2O

(b) (CH3CO)2O C2H6 CH3COCH3

(c) CH3COCH3 C2H6 (CH3CO)2O

(d) CH3COCH3 (CH3CO)2O C2H6

110. One per cent composition of an organic compound A is, carbon:

85.71% and hydrogen 14.29%. Its vapour density is 14.
Consider the following reaction sequence

Identify

(a) CH3 – CH – CO2 H

OH

(b) HO – CH2 – CH2 – CO2H

(c) HO – CH2 – CO2 H

(d) CH3 – CH2 – CO2 H

111. How many tripeptides can be prepared by linking the amino

acids glycine, alanine and phenyl alanine?

(a) One
 (b) Three

(c) Six

(d) Twelve

112. A codon has a sequence of , and specifies a particular B that is

'to be incorporated into a . What are

(a) 3 bases amino acid carbohydrate

(b) 3 acids carbohydrate protein

(c) 3 bases protein amino acid

(d) 3 bases amino acid protein

113. Parkinson's disease is linked to abnormalities in the levels of

dopamine in the body. The structure of donamine is –
114. During the depression in freezing point experiment, an
equilibrium is established between the molecules of -

(a) Liquid solvent and solid solvent

(b) Liquid solute and solid solvent

(c) Liquid solute and solid solute

(d) Liquid solvent and solid solute

115. Consider the following reaction,

C2H5Cl + AgCN (major)

Which one of the following statements is true for ?

(I) It gives propionic acid on hydrolysis

(II) It has an ester functional group

 (III) It has a nitrogen linked to ethyl carbon

(IV) It has a cyanide group

(a) IV

(b) III

(c) II

(d) I

116. For the following cell reaction,

Ag | Ag+ | AgCl | | Cl2, Pt

Gf°/ (AgCl) = -109 kJ/mol

G°f/( ) = -129 kJ/mol

G°f/(Ag+) = 78 kJ/mol

E° of the cell is

(a) - 0.60 V

(b) 0.60 V

(c) 6.0 V

(d) None of these

117. The synthesis of crotonaldehyde from acetaldehyde is an

example of ……….. reaction

(a) nucleophilic addition

(b) elimination

(c) electrophilic addition

(d) nucleophilic addition-elimination

118. At 25°C, the molar conductances at infinite dilution for the
strong electrolytes NaOH, NaCl and BaCl2 are 248 × 10-4, 126 ×
10-4 and 280 × 10-4 Sm2 mol-1 respectively, m° Ba(OH)2 in Sm2
mol-1 is –

(a) 52.4 × 10-4

(b) 524 × 10-4

(c) 402 × 10-4

(d) 262 × 10-4

119. The cubic unit cell of a metal (molar mass = 63.55 g mol-1) has
an edge length of 362 pm.

Its density is 8.92g cm-3 the type of unit cell is

(a) Primitive

(b) Face centred

(c) Body centred

(d) End centred

120. The equilibrium constant for the given reaction is 100.

N2(g) + 2O2(g) 2NO2(g)

What is the equilibrium constant for the reaction given below?

NO2(g) N2(g) + O2(g)

(a) 10

(b) 1

(c) 0.1
 (d) 0.01

121. For a first order reaction at 27°C, the ratio of time required for
75% completion to 25% completion of reaction is –

(a) 3.0

(b) 2.303

(c) 4.8

(d) 0.477

122. The concentration of an organic compound in chloroform is 6.15

g per 100 mL of solution. A portion of this solution in a 5 cm
polarimeter' rube causes an observed rotation of -1.2°. What is
the specific rotation of the compound?

(a) + 12°

(b) -3.9°

(c) -39°

(d) +61.5°

123. 20 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid is mixed with 50 mL of potassium

acetate. Ka of acetic acid = 1.8 × 10-5 at 27°C. Calculate
concentration of potassium acetate if pH of the mixture is 4.8.

(a) 0.1 M

(b) 0.04 M

(c) 0.4 M

(d) 0.02 M
124. Calculate H° for the reaction,

Na2(s) + SO3(g) Na2SO4(g) given the following:

(A) Na(s) + H2O(l) NaOH(s) + H2(g)

(B) Na2SO4(S) + H2O(l) 2NaOH(s) + SO3(g)

H° = + 418 kJ

(C) 2Na2O(s) + 2H2(g) 4Na(s) + 2H2O(l)

H° = + 259 kJ

(a) + 823 kJ

(b) -581 kJ

(c) -435 kJ

(d) +531 kJ

125. Which one of the following is most effective in causing the

coagulation of an As2S3 sol?

(a) KCl

(b) AlCl3

(c) MgSO4

(d) K3Fe(CN)6

REASONING

Directions (Q. 126-128): In each of the following questions, choose

the most appropriate alternative to fill in the blank.
126. It is difficult to believe what he tells us because his account of
any event is always full of …………… of all sorts.

(a) Discrepancies

(b) Differences

(c) Discretions

(d) Distinctions

127. The bank clerk tried to …………. money from his friend's account.

(a) Empower

(b) Embellish

(c) Embroil

(d) Embezzle

128. Eight scientists have ………... the national awards for outstanding
contribution and dedication to the profession-

(a) Bestowed

(b) Picked

(c) Bagged

(d) Conferred

Directions (Q. 129-131): In the following questions, some

parts have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these
parts, which are labelled P, Q, R and S, to produce the correct
sentence.

129. Freedom, is the restricted kind in the sense/(P), the rich and
 poor woman/(Q), that a wide gulf separates/ (R), which a
modern woman enjoys(S)

(a) PSRQ

(b) SRQP

(c) RQPS

(d) SPRQ

130. In life, some rules are/(P), as in business/(Q), they seem almost

instinctive/(R), learnt so early that/(S)

(a) RSPQ

(b) QPSR

(c) RPSQ

(d) QSPR

131. Kapil, left in an aeroplane/(P), after reading a sailing

magazine/(Q), had decided/(R), to build his own boat nine years
earlier/(S)

(a) PRQS

(b) RSQP

(c) RQPS

(d) PSRQ

Directions (Q. 132-134): In each of the following questions is

choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning
to the word given in capital letters.
132. DENOUEMENT

(a) Outcome

(b) Eschew

(c) Action

(d) Character

133. GAUCHE

(a) Vain

(b) Rich

(c) Polished

(d) Tactless

134. ACCOLADE

(a) Honour

(b) Appreciation

(c) Greeting

(d) Gift

Directions (Q. 135-137): In each of the following questions,

choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word
given in capital letters.

135. REPRIMAND

(a) Reward
 (b) Appreciate

(c) Encourage

(d) Praise

136. IMPERTINENT

(a) Polite

(b) Indifferent

(c) Unpleasant

(d) Stubborn

137. EQUIVOCAL

(a) Mistaken

(b) Quaint

(c) Clear

(d) Universal

Directions (Q. 138-140): In each of the following questions, choose

the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

138. Design made by putting together coloured pieces of glass or

stones –

(a) Oleograph

(b) Mosaic

(c) Tracery

(d) Relief
139. The doctrine that human soul passes from one body to another
at the time of death

(a) Metamorphosis

(b) Transition

(c) Transmigration

(d) Extrapolation

140. A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge

(a) Pedantic

(b) Ornate

(c) Verbose

(d) Pompous

Directions (Q. 141): In each of these questions, two figure/words

are given to the left of the sign :: and one figures word to the right of
the sign:: with four alternatives under it out. of which one of the
alternatives has the same relationship with the figures/words to the
right of the sign:: as between the two figures/words to the left of the
sign (::). Find the correct alternative.

141.
 Directions (Q. 142): In the following question, choose the
missing word or sign (?) on the basis of the relationship between
the words given on the left/right hand side of the signs.

142. Doctor: Nurse:: ? : Follower

(a) Worker

(b) Employer

(c) Union

(d) Leader

143. One of the, numbers does not fit into the series.

Find the wrong number

1788, 892, 444, 220, 112, 52, 24

(a) 52

(b) 112

(c) 220

(d) 444

Directions (Q. 144): In the question below is given a

statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III.
An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You
 have to consider the statement and the following assumptions
and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the
statement.

144. Statement: Large number of people affected by the flood in the

area gathered at the relief camp for food, water and shelter organized
by the state government

Assumptions:

I. The relief camp has enough supplies to provide food and

water to the affected people in the area.

II. All those whose houses are submerged can be

accommodated in the temporary shelters.

III. Many more affected people are yet to reach the relief
camp.

(a) Only I is implicit

(b) Only I and II are implicit

(c) Only II is implicit

(d) Only II and III are implicit

145. Identify the missing part of the figure and select it from the
given alternatives.
146. Figure (x) is embedded in anyone of the four alternative figures.
Choose the alternative which contains figure (x).

147. Which symbol will appear on the opposite surface to the symbol
x?
 (a) ‘ ’

(b) ‘×’

(c) ‘+’

(d) ‘–’

148. The three figures marked X, Y, Z show the manner in which a

paper is folded step by step and then cut. From the answer
figures (a), (b), (c), (d), select the one, showing the unfolded
position of the Paper after the cut.

149. SERVANT: QGPXYPR :: KING?

(a) MKPI

(b) IKLI

(c) IGLE

(d) IGPI
149. If P denotes ‘ ’

Q denotes, '×'

R denotes '+'

S denotes '–',

Then what is the value of 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 =?

(a) 64

(b) 81

(c) 53

(d) 24

Answers
MATHEMATICS

1. (c) 2. (c)

3. (b) 4. (d)

5. (c) 6. (b)

7. (a) 8. (d)

9. (d) 10. (c)

11. (d) 12. (b)

13. (a) 14. (c)

15. (c) 16. (c)

17. (a) 18. (a)

19. (a) 20. (c)

21. (a) 22. (d)

23. (b) 24. (d)

25. (b) 26. (c)

27. (c) 28. (a)

29. (b) 30. (d)

31. (b) 32. (b)

33. (a) 34. (b)

35. (c) 36. (c)

37. (c) 38. (d)

39. (b) 40. (b)

41. (c) 42. (c)

43. (a) 44. (b)

 45. (b)

PHYSICS

46. (d) 47. (c)

48. (a) 49. (a)

50. (a) 51. (c)

52. (b) 53. (d)

54. (d) 55. (d)

56. (c) 57. (a)

58. (c) 59. (a)

60. (b) 61. (c)

62. (a) 63. (b)

64. (b) 65. (d)

66. (a) 67. (c)

68. (d) 69. (b)

70. (d) 71. (a)

72. (c) 73. (c)

74. (c) 75. (c)

76. (c) 77. (c)

78. (b) 79. (d)

80. (d) 81. (c)

82. (c) 83. (a)

84. (b) 85. (a)

CHEMISTRY

86. (c) 87. (a)

88. (b) 89. (a)

90. (a) 91. (a)

92. (c) 93. (a)

94. (a) 95. (b)

96. (a) 97. (c)

98. (c) 99. (d)

100. (c) 101. (c)

102. (b) 103. (c)

104. (a) 105. (d)

106. (b) 107. (c)

108. (c) 109. (c)

110. (b) 111. (c)

112. (d) 113. (c)

114. (a) 115. (b)

116. (a) 117. (d)

118. (b) 119. (b)

120. (c) 121. (c)

122. (c) 123. (b)

 124. (b) 125. (b)

REASONING
126. (a) 127. (d)

128. (c) 129. (d)

130. (b) 131. (b)

132. (a) 133. (d)

134. (b) 135. (b)

136. (a) 137. (c)

138. (b) 139. (c)

140. (a) 141. (d)

142. (d) 143. (b)

144. (b) 145. (b)

146. (b) 147. (d)

148. (b) 149. (a)

150. (c)