7/23/2021 EVAL EXAM - PHARMACOLOGY

EVAL EXAM - PHARMACOLOGY

Prepared by: Dr. Elenita Arreglo

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SECTION *

Section 1

Section 2

Section 3

Section 4

Section 5

WMSU

Weekend Class

1. Drugs classified as centrally acting muscle relaxants are most effective in 1 point
relieving *

a. Spasm due to trauma or inflammation

b. Chronic spasm due to old injury

c. Pain from arthritis

d. Surgical complications

2. Which of the following drugs is classified as a centrally acting muscle 1 point

relaxant? *

a. Baclofen (Lioresal)

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b. Vecuronium ( Norcuron)

c. Pancuronium (Pavulon )

d. Tubocurarine chloride

3. A client who will be undergoing surgery with general anesthesia should 1 point
be given which of the following instructions pre operatively? *

a. Eat big breakfast

b. Expect to be incontinent of urine post operatively

c. Double your medication doses

d. Expect nausea, vomiting shivering and pain post operatively

4. Local and regional anesthesia act by: * 1 point

a. Inhibiting depolarization

b. Increasing depolarization

c. Producing semi conscious state

d. Inhibiting motor movement

5. All narcotics, regardless of their origin reduce pain by * 1 point

a. Stimulating opiate receptors

b. Promoting the release of excitatory neurotransmitters

c. Releasing large quantities of endorphins

d. Blocking the mu receptors only

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6. Monitoring parameters for narcotics include * 1 point

a. Pain relief, range of motion, blood pressure

b. Heart rate, blood pressure, muscle tone

c. Pain relief, blood pressure, respiration and mental status

d. Dizziness, respiratory rate and range of motion

7. Corticosteroid therapy is indicated in all of the following, except * 1 point

a. Acute Osteoarthritis

b. Rheumatoid arthritis

c. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

d. Acute spinal cord injury

8. A client on long term treatment with steroid present with compression 1 point
fracture of the vertebra. The fracture is due to *

a. An entirely separate entity

b. The osteoporotic effect of long term steroid use

c. Deteriotation of the patient’s condition

d. An excessively high dose of steroids

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9. The nurse discharge teaching plan for a client who will be taking aspirin 1 point

prophylactically following an MI should reinforce which of the following

concepts? *

a. Aspirin is indicated for mild pain

b. Aspirin will mask fever

c. Aspirin will inhibit thrombus formation

d. Gastric irritation will be reduced if antacid is taken with Aspirin

10. The client has a pancreatic problem is to receive Omeprazole (Prisolec) 1 point
120 mg PO TID. It is available as 40 mg capsules. How many capsules will
the nurse administer? *

a. 2 capsules

b. 3 capsules

c. 4 capsules

d. 6 capsules

11. If the patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting and is unable to take 1 point

the capsule, how many ml is to be given IV if the available drug is 40mg/2

ml? *

a. 2 ml

b. 3 ml
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c. 4 ml

d. 6 ml

12. The doctor orders for Coamoxiclav (250 mg/5ml) for a 30 pound child 1 point
with acute tonsillopharyngitis. Recommended dose is 25mg/kg/day every 8
hours for 7 days/ Available is 60 ml. How many ml should the patient
receive par day to attain critical concentration? *

a. 7 ml

b. 10 ml

c. 15 ml

d. 20 ml

13. How many ml is to be given per dose? * 1 point

a. 2.5 ml

b. 3.5 ml

c. 4 ml

d. 7.5 ml

14. How many teaspoon should the nurse administer per dose? * 1 point

a. ½ tsp

b. 1 tsp

c. 1.5 tsp

d 2 tsp
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d. 2 tsp

15. How many bottles should be bought to complete treatment? * 1 point

a. 1 bottle

b. 2 bottles

c. 4 bottles

d. 5 bottles

16. Order: Infuse 2 liters Lactated ringers solution. IV set 10 drops/ml. If the 1 point
flow rate is 40 gtts/ml, how long will the nurse infuse the IVF? *

a. 8 hours

b. 9 hours

c. 10 hours

d. 11 hours

17. A patient is admitted with dehydration and sepsis. The doctor orders for 1 point
infusion of dextrose 5% in water at 125 ml/hr. the drop factor is 15 gtts/ml.
What is the correct flow rate? *

a. 15gtts/min

b. 20 gtts/min

c. 31 gtts/min

d. 125 gtts/min
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d. 5 gtts/

18. A patient is to receive 20 meq of potassium chloride in 100 ml of normal 1 point

saline solution over 30 minutes for hypokalemia. The microdrip
administration set at 20 gtts/ml. What is the correct flow rate? *

a. 20 gtts/min

b. 67 gtts/min

c. 72 gtts/min

d. 200 gtts/min

19. A doctor orders for a patient with sepsis Doxycyline 100 mg IV 1 point
piggyback over 2 hours. The pharmacy has mixed it in 100 ml of normal
saline solution. What is the correct flow rate if the drop factor is 15 gtts/ml?
*

a. 13 gtts/min

b. 15 gtts/min

c. 26 gtts/min

d. 100 gtts/min

20. Drugs stimulating receptors to produce similar response is being 1 point

referred to as *

a. Agonist

b Antagonist
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b. Antagonist

c. Blockers

d. Enzyme inhibitors

21. A neuromuscular blocking agent was given to a client, the nurse knows 1 point
that this drug will *

a. Relax skeletal muscles

b. Stimulate acetylcholine receptors in the junction

c. Inhibit enzyme that destroy acetylcholine

d. All of the above

22. A client with myasthenia gravis was given Neostigmine, which of the 1 point

following assessment by the nurse indicate a possible cholinergic crisis? *

a. Constipation

b. Urinary retention

c. Hypotension

d. Tachycardia

23. Neostigmine enhance impulse conduction in the neuromuscular 1 point

junction by *

a. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase enzyme

b. Enhancing acetylcholinesterase effect

c. Block receptors in the junction

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d. Stimulate receptors in the junction

24. While the dosage of anticholinesterase drug is being adjusted in a client 1 point
with myasthenia gravis, it is most important for the nurse to *

a. Monitor BP

b. Assess muscle strength

c. Monitor heart rate

d. Assess respiratory rate

25. After thyroidectomy, the nurse anticipates that the doctor will order for 1 point
a lifetime intake of *

a. Steroids

b. Levothyroxine

c. Beta blockers

d. Sympathomimetic agents

26. Insulin can be given to pregnant women because * 1 point

a. Insulin cannot pass the placenta so it cannot affect the fetus

b. The fetus is not diabetic so insulin has no effect

c. Insulin cannot pass the breast milk so it cannot affect the baby

d. Insulin can pass the placenta however destroyed in the system of the baby

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27. A client in the emergent phase of burn management is susceptible to 1 point

develop hypovolemic shock, the best route of analgesic administration to

this client is via *

a. Oral

b. Intravenous

c. Intramuscular

d. Subcutaneous

28. Drug absorption maybe affected by the following but * 1 point

a. Poor perfusion

b. Disease process

c. Intravenous administration

d. Concentration differences

29. Distribution of drugs is affected by poor circulation. Clients with 1 point

diabetes mellitus has poor drug distribution because of *

a. Increased blood viscosity

b. Increase resistance to blood flow

c. Increased BP

d. Gangrene formation
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d. Ga g e e o at o

30. 500 mg Drug A has a half life of 10 hours. At the end of the 30th hour, 1 point

how much drug A is left in the blood? *

a. 250 mg

b. 125 mg

c. 60.5 mg

d. 30.25 mg

31. Nephrotoxic effect related to Gentamycin intake will initially manifest * 1 point

a. Anuria

b. Azotemia

c. Hypertension

d. Edema

32. The drug is classified as highly teratogenic. This drug is categorized as * 1 point

a. Category B

b. Category C

c. Category D

d. Category X

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33. A client is to undergo adrenalectomy, the doctor orders for a bolus of 1 point
steroid prior to surgery, the nurse knows that this drug will *

a. Prevent infection post operatively

b. Prevent adrenal insufficiency post operatively

c. Prevent bleeding postoperatively

d. Prevent hypoglycemia post operatively

34. A client complains of mouth sores after the 10 day antibiotic therapy. 1 point
The nurse understands that this is probably due to *

a. Overdose of antibiotic

b. Superinfection

c. Bone marrow suppression

d. All of the above

35. The primary adverse effect of insulin is hypoglycemia. It is most 1 point

important for the nurse to remind client *

a. To exercise at the peak action of the drug

b. To avoid missing meals

c. To administer the drug subcutenously

d. To monitor FBS before and after insulin injection

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j

36. The client on mechanical ventilator was given Atracurium. The purpose 1 point
of this drug is to *

a. Increase expansion of the lungs

b. Increase respiratory muscle strength

c. Relax respiratory muscles

d. Inhibit respiration

37. A muscle relaxant was ordered for a client with muscle spasm. The 1 point
nurse knows that the muscle relaxant of choice for this condition is *

a. Botulinum toxin

b. Dantrolene

c. Succinylcholine

d. Baclofen

38. The drug of choice for Rheumatoid arthritis is NSAIDs. The client asks 1 point
for a possible substitute. The nurse is correct when she said that NSAID
can be substituted with *

a. Steroids

b. Gold salts

c. Aspirin

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d. Acetaminophen

39. NSAIDs relieve pain by * 1 point

a. Increasing prostaglandin secretion

b. Inhibiting prostaglandin formation

c. Inhibiting severe vasodilation

d. Stimulate opiate receptors

40. WHO analgesic ladder for mild pain in cancer patients * 1 point

a. Acetaminophen, NSAIDs, Aspirin

b. Acetaminohen, NSAIDs, Codeine

c. Acetaminophen, NSAIDs, Morphine

d. Morphine or Fentanyl

41. There is no ceiling dose in the management of pain in cancer patient, 1 point
the dose of analgesic may be increase provided that there is close
monitoring of *

a. Heart rate

b. Level of consciousness

c. Respiratory rate

d. ECG

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42. Morphine is the drug of choice for severe pain, the following are 1 point
adverse effects of Morphine, except *

a. Respiratory depression

b. Constipation

c. Tolerance

d. vasoconstriction

43. Anesthetic gasses is used in surgery for maintaining general anesthesia 1 point
because *

a. They are generally safe

b. They can be easily regulated

c. They are generally inexpensive

d. They are preferred by anesthesiologist

44. A client asks the nurse, “why it is not possible for a hypertensive to 1 point
have dental extraction?” The nurse is correct when she answers *

a. “Because bleeding will increase BP further”

b. “Because pain will increase BP more”

c. “Because the dentist does not want to see complications of severe bleeding and
poor wound healing”

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d. “Because the local anesthesia they use contain another drug that may increase
further your BP”

45. An alpha 1 antagonist is used to specifically affect the blood vessels . 1 point
The nurse knows that this drug will cause *

a. Bradycardia

b. Bronchoconstriction

c. Vasodilation

d. Hypertension

46. A parasympatholytic agent is used in a client, the nurse knows that this 1 point

drug will produce the following effect, except *

a. Anticholinergic effect

b. Decrease GI motility

c. Decrease heart rate

d. Bronchodilation

47. A Beta antagonist was given to a client with hypertension and a history 1 point
of bronchial asthma. The nurse questions the doctor’s order because the
drug can cause *

a. Hypotension’

b. Bronchoconstriction

c. Vasodilation

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d. Constipation

48. Indirect acting vasodilators block the release of calcium in the smooth 1 point
muscles of the blood vessel. The following are examples of this group of
drugs except *

a. Nifedipine

b. Verapamil

c. Diltiazem

d. Hydralazine

49. Secondary adverse effect of vasodilators in the treatment of 1 point

hypertension is *

a. Hypotension

b. Headache

c. Bronchoconstriction

d. Bradycardia

50. A client suffering from dysrhythmias called atrial fibrillation was given 1 point
Propranolol, to evaluate the effectiveness of drug therapy, the nurse
should monitor for *

a. ECG

b. Respiratory rate

c Heart rate
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c. Heart rate

d. BP

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