Session 34 11.6.

2021

I. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different.

1. A. rhythm B. mental C. jungle D. delete
2. A. comprehension B. miraculous C. impenetrate D. remembrance
3. A. advocate B. aggravate C. pretentious D. bicycle
II. Choose the word whose underline part is pronounced differently.
4. A. miscarriage B. mirage C. brokerage D. luggage
5. A. enhance B. heir C. exhausted D. vehicle
III. Choose the words or phrases that best fit the gap in each sentence.
6. Student: “When you graded my test, you added my score incorrectly.” Teacher: “I see, you're right.
_______. "
A. Good reasoning B. Fair enough C. Nice try D. Congratulations
7. Michael: “I’m having an English test tomorrow.” Frank: “________.”
A. You can say that again B. No way C. Break a leg D. Let’s drop it
8. Janine whispered: “Don’t say anything about it whilst he’s _____ hearing”
A. within B. out of C. over D. under
9. Jamie's mother left him a/an ____ lot of money in the will.
A. fearful B. dreadful C. awful D. frightful
10. After the parent-teacher meeting, Karen went home and told her son: "Your trouble at school has driven
me and your dad to the _____."
A. hill B. moon C. top D. brink
11. ______ calculations have shown that the earth's resources may run out before the end of the next century
A. Raw B. Blunt C. Rude D. Crude
12. John’s observation was a bit wide of the _____.
A. mark B. target C. point D. goal
13. He joined the party as an idealistic young man, but was totally _____ by the cynicism he found there.
A. disbelieving B. disillusioned C. contemptuous D. disinterested
14. Ms Tiffany is going to have her old family mansion _____. The building lost its glamour after her
ancestors died several years ago.
A. recovered B. resumed C. restored D. revived
15. Hopefully more diseases will be _____ in the near future.
A. eradicated B. cleared C. extinguished D. wiped
16. ______ advised on what and how to prepare for the interview, he might have got the job.
A. Had he been B. Were he to be C. If he had D. Unless he
17. The number of learners ____ not large; therefore, a number of headphones _____ available to them in the
lab.
A. is/is B. are/are C. are/is D. is/are
18. The Press thought the football manager would be depressed by his dismissal but he just ______.
A. ran it down B. called it off C. turn it off D. laughed it off
19. Helium is not inflammable, ______ , therefore, safer than hydrogen.
A. that is B. and is C. but is D. and it
20. It's surprising that ex-smokers are less _____ smokers than non-smokers.
A. tolerant of B. intolerant C. tolerance towards D. tolerable to
21.-"Were there many people waiting in line at the stadium?" -"Yes, I saw __________"
A. quite many B. quite much C. quite a few D. quite some
22. We bought some __________
A. old lovely German glasses B. lovely old German glasses
C. German old lovely glasses D. German lovely old glasses
23. What if our habitat _______
A. destroying B. was destroyed C. were destroyed D. to be destroyed
24. That was a bit of a ______ for the books: I never expected him to show up
A. turn-out B. turn-away C. turn-in D. turn-up
25. -"Do you mind if we schedule the meeting for 9 o'clock?" -"Well. Actually, I _____ later"
A. will prefer it will be B. would prefer it to be
C. am preferring D. should prefer it
26. _________ that she burst into tears.
A. Such was angry girl B. So angry she was
C. She was angry so D. Her anger was such
27. I wouldn't like to be senior manager. You have to _______ a lot of responsibility
A. convey B. bear C. suggest D. carry
28.______ categorized as lipids.
A. Fats and also oils B. While fats and oils C. Fats and oils are D. Fats and oils
29. The press puts the _____ on the police forces who were unable to cope with the crowd of savage
hooligans.
A. fault B. charge C. blame D. guilt
30. Environmentalists are earnestly trying to determine _____ of the ozone layer over the poles
A. what is causing the deterioration B. what the cause of the deterioration
C. is causing the deterioration D. the deterioration is causing
IV. Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks
No More Classes
The use of computers has meant students can study language programmes (31) ____ their own speed when
and for how long they want - and no need to worry about the teacher having a favourite or doing (32) ____
another boring lesson. What's more, in the virtual classrooms of the future the student will (33) ____ on their
headset, and be transported into an imaginary school, choose their class, take the books they need off the
shelf and (34) ____ conversations with other computerised students.
They might instead choose to pay a visit to the supermarket or the train station, the bank or the restaurant.
At the (35) ___ of a button they would be transported to (36) ____ realistic settings where they could
practice their English, maybe getting a hand (37) ____ a virtual English companion. All this perhaps, at the
computer, from the comfort of their home: no (38) ____ to catch the bus to college, or a plane to England.
Exciting? Certainly, and an interesting alternative to traditional classroom lessons. But would it ever
(39) ____ the classroom? Hopefully not. Surely the need to relate to real people talking about real issues and
generally learning a little more about others will always lead language learners to (40) ____ at least a little of
their time with real people.
31. A. with B. for C. at D. in
32. A. still B. for C. yet D. already
33. A. place B. put C. set D. get
34. A. take B. do C. catch D. hold
35. A. force B. hit C. depress D. push
36. A. so B. such C. like D. alike
37. A. with B. to C. from D. for
38. A. role B. duty C. obligation D. need
39. A. replace B. restore C. succeed D. recover
40. A. spend B. make C. kill D. do
V. Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part.
41. The company's campaigns were so incongruous with its professed principles that many customers
voiced their opposition.
A. inconsistent B. harmonious C. appropriate D. consonant
42. The raggedy soldier got a flashback of his entire life when he realised death was imminent.
A. distant B. unexpected C. painful D. forthcoming
43. The September 11th attacks in 2001 at the World Trade Center in New York were viewed as an example
of man-made disasters.
A. wars B. catastrophes C. terrors D. pandemics
VI. Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part.
44. The motive behind her actions is obscure.
A. vague B. ambiguous C. conspicuous D. absurd
45. His morally repugnant behaviour has made many people hate him.
A. abhorrent B. pleasing C. disgusting D. loathsome
VII. Find the part that needs correcting.
46. Neither of the girls have turned in the term papers to the instructor yet.
47. Gemstones are usually bright, colour, opaque or transparent minerals found in the rocks of the Earth.
48. Because of its vast tracts of virtually uninhabited northern forest, Canada has one of the lowest
population density in the world.
49. Hypoglycaemia is a condition in which a rapidly drop in blood sugar most often results from an over-
secretion of insulin from the pancreas.
50. Because of the approaching storm, the wind began to blow hard and the sky became dark as evening

VIII. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions.
Early peoples had no need of engineering works to supply their water. Hunters and nomads camped
near natural sources of fresh water, and populations were so sparse that pollution of the water supply was not
a serious problem. After community life developed and agricultural villages became urban centres, the
problem of supplying water became important for inhabitants of a city, as well as for irrigation of the farms
surrounding the city. Irrigation works were known in prehistoric times, and before 2000 BC the rulers of
Babylonia and Egypt constructed systems of dams and canals to impound the flood waters of the Euphrates
and Nile rivers, controlling floods and providing irrigation water throughout the dry season. Such irrigation
canals also supplied water for domestic purposes. The first people to consider the sanitation of their water
supply were the ancient Romans, who constructed a vast system of aqueducts to bring the clean waters of the
Apennine Mountains into the city and built basins and filters along these mains to ensure the clarity of the
water. The construction of such extensive water-supply systems declined when the Roman Empire
disintegrated, and for several centuries local springs and wells formed the main source of domestic and
industrial water.
The invention of the force pump in England in the middle of the 16th century greatly extended the
possibilities of development of water-supply systems. In London, the first pumping waterworks was
completed in 1562; it pumped river water to a reservoir about 37 m above the level of the River Thames and
from the reservoir the water was distributed by gravity, through lead pipes, to buildings in the vicinity.
Increased per-capita demand has coincided with water shortages in many countries. Southeast
England, for example, receives only 14 per cent of Britain's rainfall, has 30 per cent of its population, and
has experienced declining winter rainfall since the 1980s.
In recent years a great deal of interest has been shown in the conversion of seawater to fresh water to
provide drinking water for very dry areas, such as the Middle East. Several different processes, including
distillation, electrodialysis, reverse osmosis, and direct-freeze evaporation, have been developed for this
purpose. Some of these processes have been used in large facilities in the United States. Although these
processes are successful, the cost of treating seawater is much higher than that for treating fresh water.
51: Early peoples didn’t need water supply engineering works because ______.
A. they had good ways to irrigate their farms
B. natural sources of fresh water nearby were always available
C. their community life had already developed
D. there was almost no dry season in prehistoric times
52: The word “impound” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. irrigate B. drain C. supply D. provide
53: Clean water supply was first taken into consideration by ______.
A. the Egyptians B. the English people C. the US people D. the ancient Romans
54: For several centuries after the disintegration of the Roman Empire, the main source of water supply was
from ______.
A. springs and wells B. water pipes C. dams and canals D. systems of aqueducts
55: The word “mains” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ______.
A. lands B. pipes C. rivers D. areas
56: Which of the following is NOT true about London’s water supply in the middle of the 16th century?
A. Water was conducted through canals. B. Water ran from the reservoir to buildings.
C. Water was stored in a reservoir. D. Water was pumped from the River Thames.
57: The word “vicinity” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the neighborhood around a reservoir B. the areas along the River Thames
C. the region where industry developed D. the cities in South-east England
58: One of the causes of water shortages in South-east England is ______.
A. increased demand B. water evaporation C. water-supply system decline D. water pollution
59: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a process of converting seawater to freshwater?
A. Water evaporation. B. Purification method.
C. Steaming and cooling. D. Dissolving chemicals.
60: In the passage, the author mainly discusses ______.
A. the results of water shortages B. the water pumping systems
C. the fresh water storage D. the development of water supply
IX. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions.
The response of most animals when suddenly faced with a predator is to flee. Natural selection has
acted in a variety of ways in different species to enhance the efficacy of the behaviours, known as "flight
behaviours" or escape behaviours that are used by prey in fleeing predators. Perhaps the most direct
adaptation is enhanced light speed and agility. Adaptations for speed, however, are likely to require
sacrifices biter attributes, so we might expect only some species to adopt a simple fast flight strategy. 
Another way of enhancing the effectiveness of flight is to move in an erratic and unpredictable way.
Many species, like ptarmigans, snipes, and various antelopes and gazelles, flee from predators in a
characteristic zigzag fashion. Rapid unexpected changes in flight direction make it difficult for a predator to
track prey.
In some species, like the European hare, erratic zigzag flight might be more effective in the presence
of predators that are faster than they are and straight light more effective against predators that are slower.
One observation that supports this suggestion is the recorded tendency for slow-flying black-headed gulls,
which are normally able to escape predators by means of direct flight, to show frequent changes in flight
direction when they spot a peregrine falcon (peregrines are adept at capturing flying birds). 
A quite different way of enhancing escape by flight is to use so-called "flash" behaviour. Here,
the alarmed prey flees for a short distance and then "freezes." Some predators are unexcited by immobile
prey, and a startling flash of activity followed by immobility may confuse them. "Flash" behaviour is used in
particular by frogs and orthopteran insects, which make conspicuous jumps and then sit immobile. In some
species, "flash" behaviour is enhanced by the display of bright body markings. Good examples of insects
with colourful markings are the red and yellow underwing moths. At rest, both species are a cryptic brown
colour. When they fly, however, brightly coloured hind wings are exposed, which render the moths highly
conspicuous. Similarly, some frogs and lizards have brightly coloured patches or frills that may serve a
'flash" function when they move quickly. Some species even appear to possess "flash" sounds. The loud
buzzing and clicking noises made by some grasshoppers when they jump may serve to emphasize the
movement. 

61. The word enhance is closest in meaning to........... 

A. encourage B. resist  C. increase  D. reveal 
62. The description of the prey's movement as zigzag suggests that the movement is........... 
A. reliable B. fast C. constant  D. unpredictable 
63. It can be inferred from the passage that the European hare......... 
A. is faster than most of its predators  B. is capable of two kinds of flight 
C. is more likely to escape using straight flight D. is preyed upon by gulls and falcons 
64. The behaviour of black-headed gulls is most comparable to that of....... 
A. gazelles  B. European hares  C. peregrine falcons D. frogs 
65. It can be inferred that black-headed gulls change direction when they spot a peregrine falcon for which of
the following reasons? 
A. The falcons are faster than the gulls.  B. The gulls want to capture the falcons. 
C. The falcons are unpredictable.  D. The gulls depend on the falcons for
protection. 
66. The word alarmed is closest in meaning to.......... 
A. moving B. selected  C. frightened  D. exhausted 
67. All of the followings are mentioned as characteristics of “flash” behaviour EXCEPT........... 
A. brief conspicuous activity B. immobility  C. bright body markings  D. aggressive
fighting 
68. The phrase in particular is closest in meaning to........... 
A. especially  B. with difficulty C. expertly D.
frequently 
69. The hind wings of red and yellow underwing moths function in a way that is most similar to........... 
A. the hind wings of peregrine falcons B. the zigzag flight of European hares 
C. the coloured patches on frogs  D. the clicking of grasshoppers 
70. Why does the author mention grasshopper in the last line? 
A. To contrast animals that “flash” with animals that “freeze”. 
B. As an example of an animal whose “flash” behaviour is a sound. 
C. To compare the jumping behaviour of insects and reptiles. 
D. As an example of a predator that moths escape by using “flash” behaviour. 
X. Choose the sentence that is closet in meaning to the sentence given.
71. She turned the radio on at 7:30. She was still listening to it when her mother came home at 9:00.
A. She has been listening to the radio at 7:30. B. She had been listening to the radio since 7:30.
C. She has been listening to the radio after 7:30. D. She has been listening to the radio by 7:30.
72. “I’ll drop you from the team if you don’t train harder.” said the captain to John.
A. The captain urged that John should train harder in order to not drop out.
B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.
C. John was reminded to train harder so as not to dropping from the team.
D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trains harder.
73. “I would like to invite you to attend our conference on environmental issues tomorrow, sir”, said the
student to his professor yesterday.
A. The students invited his professor to our conference on environmental issues the following day.
B. The professor was told to attend the conference on environmental issues tomorrow.
C. The student invited his professor to their today’s conference on environmental issues.
D. The student insisted on inviting his professor to attend the conference on environmental issues the
following day.
74. “I don’t see any good point in this movie because both the story and the soundtrack are terrible.” said
the woman.
A. The woman believed that she did not see this movie well because of the terrible story and soundtrack.
B. The woman underrated the movie due to its terrible story and soundtrack.
C. The woman complained that she did not see any point in that movie owing to the terrible story and
soundtrack.
D. The woman admitted not seeing the movie well since the story was as bad as the soundtrack.
75. People believe that neither side wanted war.
A. It is believed that war broke out from both sides. B. Neither side is responsible for the outbreak of war.
C. War is believed to be wanted by either side. D. Neither side is believed to have wanted war.