WAVES AND WAVE MOTION

There are only two ways by which energy can be transmitted from one point to another.
(1) By movement of particles of matter 𝑒𝑔
 Movement of electrons through a wire will transfer energy from one point to
another
 When a hammer strikes a nail, it transfers its kinetic energy to the nail therefore the
nail is able to penetrate the piece
(2) By wave motion 𝑒𝑔
 Sound waves transfer energy by vibration of particles

 Light energy is transferred from the sun to the earth

Definition

A wave is a periodic disturbance which travels with finite velocity through a medium and
transfers energy one point to another without any particles of the medium travelling.

Waves are divided into two types namely;

(i) Electromagnetic waves (ii) Mechanical waves

Mechanical waves
These are waves which require a material medium for their transmission.

Examples of mechanical waves

 Sound waves  Waves in compressed springs

 Water waves  Waves due to stretched string

Electromagnetic waves
These are waves produced by varying electric and magnetic fields and they do not require a
material medium for their transmission.
Examples of electromagnetic waves
 Light waves  Radio waves
 𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠  All other electromagnetic band waves
Note:
All electromagnetic waves travel at a speed of light 𝑖𝑒 3𝑥108 𝑚/𝑠

1
 Wave motion
These is a means of transferring energy
Types of wave motion
There are two types of wave motion namely
 Transverse waves  Longitudinal waves

Transverse waves
These are waves in which particles vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave travel.
Examples
 Water waves  Light waves
 Waves due plucked strings  All electromagnetic waves
(𝑒𝑔 𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠, 𝑋 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠)
Longitudinal waves
These are waves in which particles vibrate parallel to the direction of travel of the wave.
C- Compression region

R- Rare faction region

C R

Examples
 Sound waves
 Waves due to stretched or compressed springs
Differences between transverse and longitudinal waves

Transverse waves Longitudinal waves

Particles vibrate at right angles to the Particles vibrate along the direction of
direction of travel of the wave travel of the wave
Transverse waves are represented by longitudinal waves are represented by
crests and troughs compression and rare faction regions

2
 Representation of a wave

Displacement from rest Crest

position
λ

Rest position
a

Distance from source

λ a
λ
Trough

A displacement time graph can also be drawn

Displacement from rest Crest

position
T

Rest position
a

Time (s)

T a
T
Trough

Terms used

(1) Amplitude (a)

This is the maximum displacement of a particle of a wave from its rest position.
(2) Wave length (𝝀)
This is the distance between two successive particles in phase.
Wave length of a transverse wave is the distance between two successive crests or
successive troughs.

(3) Oscillation or cycle

This is a complete to and fro movement of a wave
(4) Period (T)
This is the time taken for one complete oscillation
1
𝑇=
𝑓

Period T is measured in seconds

3
(5) Frequency (f)
The number of complete oscillations in one second
1
𝑓=
𝑇

The S.I unit of frequency is Hertz (Hz)

(6) Speed (V) of the wave

This is the linear distance travelled by a wave per unit time
𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑎𝑟 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑉=
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
Since one complete wave is produced in time T and the length of one complete wave is 𝝀
𝝀
𝑉=
𝑇
𝟏
𝑉= 𝑥𝝀
𝑇
𝟏
But 𝑓 = 𝑇

𝑉= 𝑓𝝀
(7) Crest and Trough
 Crest is the part of the wave above the line of zero disturbance
 Trough is the part of the wave below the line of zero disturbance

(8) Compression and Rare faction

 Compression is a region where the wave particles are crowded together
 Rare faction is a region where the wave particles further apart

(9) Phase
Particles are in phase when they are exactly at the same point in their paths and are moving
in the same direction

(10) Wave front

Is any line or section taken through an advancing wave in which all the particles are in the
same phase.
Types of wave front
 Plane wave fronts
 Circular wave fronts
Plane wave fronts

4
 Are produced when a straight rod is hit on the water surface

Plane wave fronts

Straight rod

Circular wave fronts

Are produced when a metal sphere/ a stone is hit on a water surface

source
Circular wave front

Note:
The distance between two successive wave fronts is the wave length ( 𝜆)
Examples
1.
The figure shows a wave of frequency
50Hz,
(i) the wavelength
40 cm (ii) the speed of the wave

Solution 𝑣= 𝑓𝝀
4 𝜆 = 40 10
𝑣 = 50𝑥
40 100
𝜆= 𝑣 = 5𝑚/𝑠
4
𝜆 = 10 𝑐𝑚

2. 5 𝜆 =60
60
𝜆=
5
𝜆 = 12 𝑐𝑚
𝑣= 𝑓𝜆
60 cm
12
The figure shows a wave of frequency 𝑣 = 100𝑥
100
100Hz. Find the speed of the wave 𝑣 = 12𝑚/𝑠
Solution

5
 3. Capital Fm broadcasts at a frequency of 91.3MHz. If the wavelength of the waves produced
is 3.2m, find the velocity of the radio waves
Solution 𝑣= 𝑓𝝀
𝑓 = 91.3𝑀𝐻𝑧 = 91.3𝑥106 𝐻𝑧, 𝑣 = 91.3𝑥106 𝑥3.2
𝜆 = 3.2𝑚 𝑣 = 2.9𝑥108 𝑚/𝑠
4. Sanyu Fm broadcasts at a frequency of 88.2MHz. Calculate the wavelength of the radio
waves.
Solution
Note: All electromagnetic waves 𝒆𝒈 radio waves travel at a speed of light 𝟑𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟖 𝒎/𝒔
𝑓 = 88.2𝑀𝐻𝑧 = 88.2𝑥106 𝐻𝑧, 3𝑥108
𝝀=
𝑣 = 3𝑥108 𝑚/𝑠 88.2𝑥106
𝜆 = 3.4𝑚
𝑣= 𝑓𝜆
3𝑥108 = 88.2𝑥106 𝜆
5. A vibrator produces waves which travel a distance of 12m in 4s. If the frequency of the
vibrator is 2Hz, what is the wavelength of the wave?
Solution 𝑣 = 3𝑚/𝑠
𝑓 = 2𝐻𝑧, 𝑡 = 4𝑠, 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 12𝑚 𝑣= 𝑓𝜆
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 3= 2𝜆
𝑣=
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 3
12 𝝀=
𝑣= 2
4 𝜆 = 1.5𝑚
6. A vibrator has a period of 0.02s and produces circular waves of water in a tank. If the
distance between any two consecutive crests is 3cm, what is the speed of the wave?
Solution 𝑓 = 50𝐻𝑧
𝑇 = 0.02 𝑠 , 𝜆 = 3𝑐𝑚 , 𝜆 = 0.03𝑚
1 𝑣= 𝑓𝜆
But 𝑓 = 𝑇
1 𝑣 = 50𝑥 0.03
𝑓=
0.02 𝑣 = 1.5𝑚/𝑠
7. Water waves are produced at a frequency of 50Hz and the distance between 10 successive
troughs is 18cm. Calculate the velocity of the waves.
Solution 𝑣= 𝑓𝜆
𝑓 = 50𝐻𝑧 𝑣 = 50𝑥 0.02
18 𝑣 = 1𝑚/𝑠
9 𝜆 = 18 𝑐𝑚, 𝜆 = 9
𝑐𝑚

𝜆 = 2𝑐𝑚, 𝜆 = 0.02 𝑚

6
 8.

The frequency of the distribution above is 250Hz

P 60 cm Q and the distance PQ is 60cm. Find
(i) Period of the wave
(ii) The wavelength
(iii) Velocity of the wave

Solution

i) 𝑇=
1
ii) 3 𝜆 = 60 𝑐𝑚, iii) 𝑣 = 𝑓𝜆
𝑓
60 𝑣 = 250𝑥0.2
1 𝜆= 𝑐𝑚
𝑇= 3
250 𝑣 = 50𝑚𝑠 −1
𝜆 = 20𝑐𝑚,
𝑇 = 0.004 𝑠
𝜆 = 0.2 𝑚

RIPPLE TANK

A ripple tank is used to study the properties of water waves. It consists of a shallow glass trough
which is transparent.
In order to observe the wave patterns formed on water surface, the tank is placed between the light
source and screen.
The image of the waves are projected onto the screen which is placed below it. The waves are
produced by means of the dipper when it hits the water surface.
 Circular wave fronts are produced when the dipper is a sphere.
 Plane wave fronts are produced when the dipper is a straight rod.
 A stroboscope is used to make the wave appear stationery (and thus a clear view) hence the
wave can be studied in details. It’s rotated and its speed of rotation is adjusted until the
wave is clearly viewed

Properties of waves
All waves can be;
1. Reflected 3. Diffracted
2. Refracted 4. Interfered

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1. REFLECTION OF WAVES

This is the bouncing back of waves when they meet a barrier

a) Plane reflector

(i) Straight waves incident on a plane reflector

Reflected wave

S S’

Straight/plane barrier
Incident wave

(ii) Straight waves incident on an inclined Plane surface

Reflected wave
Reflected wave

OR

Incident wave
Incident wave

(iii) Circular waves incident on a plane reflector

Reflected wave

s S’

incident wave

b) Concave reflector
(i) Straight waves incident on a concave reflector

Reflected wave

F Waves converge at F then diverge

Incident wave

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 (ii) Circular waves on a concave reflector

Incident wave

Reflected wave

c) Convex reflector
(i) Plane waves incident on a convex reflector

F
Centre of reflected wavefront

Incident straight waves

(ii) Circular waves incident on a convex reflector

O F

2. REFRACTION OF WAVES
Water waves can be refracted by placing a sheet of glass in water to make it shallow.
The wave fronts are closer to one another in shallow water than in deep water. This implies that the
wavelength is less in shallow water than deep water.
VD,λD,f VS,λs,f

λD λS
Glass block

Refraction is as a result of a wave slowing down as it enters a denser medium (shallower water)
and the wave fronts are closer together in shallow water than in deep water.

9
 Note;
When water waves move from deep to shallow water it’s amplitude and wavelength change but the
frequency does not change.ie
 Amplitude reduce  Velocity reduce
 Wavelength reduce  Frequency remain constant

Refraction by lenses
a) Convex refraction

Incident straight waves

Straight waves converge to F then diverge.

b) Concave refraction

Incident straight waves

Waves diverge from F

3. DIFFRACTION OF WAVES
It is the spreading of waves around an obstacle when they pass through an aperture or gap.
(i) Wide gap

Diffracted waves

Incident waves

Nearly straight line waves are diffracted

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 (ii) Narrow gap

Diffracted waves

Incident waves

4. INTERFERENCE OF WAVES
Interference is the superposition of two identical waves travelling in the same
direction having the same amplitude and frequency.

Antinodal lines
(constructive interference)

S1
Wave source

S2

Nodal lines
(destructive interference)

(i) Constructive interference

These are antinodal lines where crest meets a crest or trough meets a trough giving
maximum interference.
(ii) Destructive interference
These are nodal lines where crest meets a trough giving minimum interference.

ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES

This is a family of waves which are made of electric and magnetic vibrations of very high
frequency.

Properties of electromagnetic waves

(i) Electromagnetic waves travel in a vacuum and therefore do not require a material medium
for their transmission.

11
 (ii) Electromagnetic waves travel at a speed of light 𝑖𝑒 3𝑥103 𝑚𝑠 −1
(iii) They are made of varying electric and magnetic vibration.
(iv) They vibrate with a high frequency.
(v) They have no charge.
Increasing wavelength (decreasing frequency)

Ultra violet Visible spectrum Radio waves

Ɣ-rays X - rays Infra -red
(U.V)
Microwaves, T.V waves

V I BG YOR

Wave band Origin Sources

Gamma radiations Energy changes in nuclei of atoms Radiactive substance

(1) High energy changes in electron

X- radiations structure of atoms X-ray tubes
(2) Decelerated electrons

Ultraviolet radiation Fairly high energy changes in electron (1) Very hot bodies eg electric arc
(2) Electric discharge through gases

Various lamps, flames and any thing at

Energy changes in electron structure
Visible radiation or above the temperature at which it
of atoms
begins to emit red
Low energy changes in electron All matter over a wide range of
Infra red radiation
structure of atomws temperature from absolute zero upwards

(1) High frequency oscillatory electric

currents Radio transmitting circuits and
Radio waves
(2) Very low energy changes in associated aeral equipments
electron structure of atoms

Note

(i) Infrared radiations cause a sensation of heats ( causes temperature to rise).

They are used in remotes of TV’s
(ii) Radio waves can easily be detected by antenas

12
 SOUND WAVES

Sound waves are produced when particles in the medium are set into vibrations.
A sound wave is an example of longitudinal waves therefore sound waves require material medium
for their transmission.
Experiment: To show that sound waves require a material medium for their transmission

Copper wires  When an electric bell is switched on, a loud

To battery sound is heard.

 But when the air inside the jar is gradually

removed by means of a vacuum pump, the
loudness of the sound heard gradually dies a
Electric bell
way.
Bell jar  When all the air has been completely
removed from the jar no sound is heard even
when the bell is still switched on.
To vacuum pump  This shows that sound waves need a
material medium such as air for their
transmission.
Factor that affect the speed of sound

(a) Temperature

An increase temperature increases the speed of sound in air.

(b) Density of the medium

In a dense medium, the speed of sound is higher than in a less dense medium.
This explains why solids are better transmits of sound then air.

(c) Wind

The speed of wind within the material determines the speed of sound air because wind moves air
which is the medium of transmission of sound.

Note:

Pressure, pitch and loudness have no effect on the speed of sound in air.

13
 Ultra sonic sounds
Ultra sounds are sounds above the range of human hearing.
The range of frequency which can be heard by a human ear lies between 20 and 20,000 Hz. Sounds
of frequencies over 20,000Hz are inaudible to the human ear. Dogs can hear sounds which human
beings cannot hear.

frequency 20 kHz 50 kHz 120 kHz

20 Hz
Range of human hearing

Upper limit for Humans Dogs Bats

Uses of ultra sounds

i) Used for cleaning delicate machinery without dismantling
ii) Concentrated beams of ultra sounds are to break up kidney stones and gall stones
without the patient needing surgery
iii) Echo sounders are used to measure the depth of the sea.
iv) The principle of echo sounding is used for metal testing to detect flaws.
v) Used for scanning the womb.

ECHOES
An echo is a reflected sound.
The time that elapses between hearing the original sound and hearing the echo depends on;
a) The distance away from the reflecting surface.
b) The speed of sound in the medium.

REVERBERATION
It is defined as the tendency of the original sound being prolonged due to multiple reflections.
 If the time taken to hear the echo is less than0.1 𝑠, the human ear cannot distinguish
between the original sound and the echo. If the time is just 0.1 𝑠, the original sound appears
to be prolonged. This effect is called reverberation.
 Too much reverberation makes the sound confused and indistinct. However, reasonable
reverberation produce strong sound and this is applied in halls during speeches.

14
  Sound waves are absorbed by soft materials, such as human skin, clothes. Thus the
reverberation time of a hall is less when filled with people than when empty. It’s for this
reason that echoes are not produced when the hall is filled with people.

Characteristic of sound
a) Pitch
This is the highness or lowness of sound.
Pitch depends on the frequency of the sound waves ie it increases as the frequency of sound
increases.
b) Sound intensity
This is the flow of sound energy per unit area perpendicular to the direction of the sound.

Factors that affect sound intensity

 Density of the medium through which the wave travels.
 Square of the amplitude.
 Square of the frequency.
c) Loudness
This is sensation of a sound note in the ear of an individual.
Loudness depends on;
 Sound intensity
 Sensitivity of the ear
 Pressure exerted on the ear drum by the waves

Examples
1. A man standing some distance from the vertical wall beats the drum and hears an echo after 2 𝑠.
Calculate the distance between the man and the wall assuming that the speed of sound in air is
330m/s.
Solution
𝑡 = 2𝑠, 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 2 𝑑, 𝑑 = 330 𝑚
Walls 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 330𝑚/𝑠
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
d meters 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
2𝑑
330 =
2

2. An echo sounder on a boat sends down a pulse through the water and receives its echo 0.9 𝑠 later. If
the velocity of sound in the water is 1450 𝑚/𝑠, calculate the water depth.

15
 Solution
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 1450𝑥0.9
d
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 𝑑=
𝑡= 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 2
2𝑑 𝑑 = 625.5𝑚
0.9𝑠, 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 2 𝑑 1450 =
0.9
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 1450𝑚/𝑠

3. A man stands between two cliffs and makes a very loud sound, he hears the first echo after 1 𝑠 and
1
the second 2
𝑠. Find the distance between the cliffs if the speed of sound in air is 330 𝑚𝑠 −1 .

Solution
2𝑥 2𝑦
330 = 330 =
1 3
(2)
330𝑥1
𝑥= 330 3
x metres y metres 2 𝑦= 𝑥
2 2
𝑥 = 165𝑚
𝑦 = 247.5𝑚
For second cliff
1
Distance between the cliffs
For first cliff 𝑡 = 1 2 𝑠, 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 2 𝑦
= 𝑥+𝑦
𝑡 = 1𝑠, 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 2 𝑥 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 330𝑚/𝑠 = 165 + 247.5
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 330𝑚/𝑠 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 412.5𝑚
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒

4. A man standing mid way between two cliffs claps and hears an echo after 3 s. calculate the distance
between the two cliffs.
Solution
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑥 = 495𝑚
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 Distance between the cliffs
x metres x metres
2𝑥
330 = = 𝑥+𝑥
3
330𝑥3 = 495 + 495
𝑡 = 3𝑠, 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 2 𝑥 𝑥=
2 = 990𝑚
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 330𝑚/𝑠
5. A tall wall is about 17m away, if sound travels to and fro in 0.1s. Find its velocity.
Solution
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 2 𝑥 17
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 0.1
2𝑥 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 340 𝑚/𝑠
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
𝑡
16
 Exercise 1
1. A person standing 𝟗𝟗𝒎 from a tall cliff claps his hands and hears an echo 𝟎. 𝟔𝒔 later. Calculate the
velocity of sound in air. An[330m/s]
2. A gun was fired and an echo from the cliff was heard 𝟖𝒔 later. If the velocity of sound is 𝟑𝟑𝟎𝒎/𝒔,
how far was the gun from the cliff? An [1320m]
3. A girl standing between two cliffs hears the first echo after 𝟐𝒔 and hears another after a further 𝟑𝒔.
If the velocity of sound is 𝟑𝟑𝟎𝒎/𝒔, calculate the distance between the two cliffs. An[1155m]
4. A child stands between 2 cliffs and makes a loud sound, if the child hears the first echo after 𝟏. 𝟓𝒔
and the second after 𝟐𝒔. Find the distance between the two cliffs if the speed of sound in air
is 𝟑𝟑𝟎𝒎/𝒔. An[560m]
5. A boy standing between two cliffs 𝑨 and 𝑩 claps his hands and hears the first echo from 𝑨 after 𝟒𝒔
and the second echo from 𝑩 after 𝟓𝒔. If the velocity of sound in air is 𝟑𝟑𝟎𝒎/𝒔, find the distance
between 𝑨 and 𝑩.

EXPERIMENT: TO DETERMINE THE SPEED OF SOUND IN AIR USING ECHO METHOD

 Make a sound by hitting a drum and instantly

Walls start a stop clock and stop it when the echo is

heard
 Note the time, 𝒕 indicated by the clock
d meters
 Speed sound in air is obtained from
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 2𝑑
 Stand a measured distance, 𝒅 from a reflector 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = , 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = ( ) 𝑚 𝑠 −1
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡
such as a wall.

Example
A student made 50 claps in 2 minutes and hears echoes, if the velocity of sound in air is 330m/s.
Find the distance between the student and the wall.
Solution
50 𝑐𝑙𝑎𝑝𝑠 = 2 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒 t= 2.4 𝑠 330𝑥2.4
𝑑=
2 2𝑑 2
1 𝑐𝑙𝑎𝑝 = 𝑣= 𝑑 = 396 𝑚
50 𝑡
2𝑑
1 𝑐𝑙𝑎𝑝 = 0.04 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 330 =
= 0.04𝑥 60𝑠 2.4

17
 Refraction of sound
This is the change in the speed of sound waves as they move from one medium to another of
different optical densities.
 During the day, air near the land is warm explains why sound is not heard clearly
therefore less dense than that above it. Hence during day time.
, sound produced during the day travels from Cold air (more dense)

a less dense medium to a more dense medium

and is therefore refracted upwards and this Warm air (less dense)

 At night, air near the land is colder than that sound, this explains why sound is heard
above the land and therefore the cold air is clearly at night.
denser. Hence sound traveling from a denser
Warm air (less dense)
medium to a less dense medium undergoes
total internal reflection at a certain angle and
Cold air (more dense)
this makes a person at a distance to hear the

Differences between sound and light waves

Sound waves Light waves

- They cant travel through a vacuum - They can travel through a vacuum

- They travel at a low speed i.e 330m/s - They travel at a high speed i.e 3x108m/s

- Require a material medium -Do not require a material medium

for their transmission for their transmission
- They cant eject electrons from - They can eject electrons from a metal
a metal surface surface by photo electric emission

- They are longitudinal waves - They are transverse waves

PROGRESSIVE AND STATIONARY WAVES

Progressive waves
This is a wave that moves from its source through a medium and spreads out continuously.
Transverse and longitudinal waves are examples of progressive waves.

18
Stationary/ standing wave
Is one whose wave profile does not move along the medium and its formed as a result of
superposing (overlapping) two waves of equal frequency and amplitude travelling in opposite
direction.

Condition for stationary waves to be formed

 Waves must be moving in opposite direction.
 Waves must have the same speed, same frequency and equal amplitude.
When a wave travels along a given path and it strikes an obstacle such that it is reflected back
perpendicularly, it will return along the same path. The incident and reflected waves combine to
form a stationary wave.

Reflected wave

N A
A N A N A N A N
N

Incident wave

A is antinodes;
These are points on a stationary wave where particles have maximum displacement.

N is nodes;
This is a point on a stationary wave in which particles are always at rest (zero displacement)

Note:
𝝀
 The distance between two successive nodes or antinodes is 𝟐
where λ is wavelength.

 When a stationary wave is produced, the distance between the source and reflector is a
𝟏
multiple of 𝟐
𝝀.

𝝀
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 𝑛
2
Where n is the number of loops ie n is 1,2,3 … … … …

Example
The distance between two successive antinodes on a standing wave is 3.0cm. if the distance
between the source of the wave and the reflector is 24.0cm, find the;

(i) Number of loops (ii) Wavelength of the wave

Solution
19
 𝝀
24cm i) 24 = 𝑛 2

24 = 𝑛𝑥3

N N N 𝑛 = 8 𝑙𝑜𝑜𝑝𝑠
N N
𝝀
N A A A A A A N ii) 2
=3

𝜆 = 6𝑐𝑚
𝜆 = 0.06 𝑚
3cm

When a string is plucked in the middle, the wave below is produced

𝜆
𝑙=
N A N
2

λ = 2𝑙
L

1
If the string is plucked way, the wave below is produced
4

𝑙=λ
N N N
A A

Factors on which frequency of a stretched string depends

1) Length
1
The frequency is inversely proportional to length ( f ∝ )
𝑙

2) Tension
Frequency varies with square root of the tension 𝑓 ∝ √𝑇

20
RESONANCE
This occurs when an object is forced to vibrate at its own natural frequency by an external body
vibrating at the same frequency.

Other terms
Fundamental note
This is the first loudest note produced by the lowest possible frequency.
Fundamental frequency
This is the lowest possible frequency that produced the first loudest note.
Overtones
These are note whose frequencies are multiple of the fundamental frequency

Resonance of air in pipes

These are two type of pipe for air vibrations.
(i) Open pipes
This is one that has both ends open 𝑒𝑔 trumpet, a flute
(ii) Closed pipes
It is one in which one end is open, while the other is closed 𝑒𝑔 a long drum.

a) Resonance in closed pipes

When a vibrating tuning fork is held over a mouth of a tube, air inside the tube is set into
vibration, the wave sent downwards is reflected from the water surface and a stationary
wave is setup.

The column is increased gradually until a loud sound is heard. This is the first resonance or
first harmonic.

First harmonic / fundamental note / first resonance

Tuning fork 𝜆 =4𝐿

A
A
OR L
𝑣 = 𝑓0 𝜆
L 𝑣
N 𝑓0 =
𝜆
N 𝑣
𝑓0 =
4𝜆
The length of the air column is 𝐿
𝑓0 is the fundamental frequency
1
𝐿= 𝜆
4

21
 Second harmonic / Second resonance / First overtones

3
𝐿= 𝜆
4
4
L 𝜆= 𝐿
0R 3
L
𝑣 = 𝑓1 𝜆
4
𝑣 = 𝑓1 𝐿
3
3𝑣
𝑓1 =
4𝐿
The length of the air column is 𝐿 𝑓1 = 3 𝑓0

Third harmonic / Third resonance /Second overtones

5
𝐿= 𝜆
4
4
L 𝜆= 𝐿
0R 5
L
𝑣 = 𝑓2 𝜆
4𝑙
𝑣 = 𝑓2 𝑥
5
5𝑣
𝑓2 =
4𝑙
The length of the air column is 𝐿 𝑓2 = 5 𝑓0

Note: In closed pipes only odd harmonics are produced

b) Resonance in open pipes

First harmonic / first resonance /fundamental note

𝜆 =2𝑙
𝑣 = 𝑓0 𝜆
𝑣
𝑓0 =
L 𝜆
𝑣
𝑓0 =
2𝑙
1
𝑙= 𝜆 𝑓0 is the fundamental frequency
2
22
 Second harmonic / Second resonance / first overtone

𝑣
𝑓1 =
𝜆
2𝑣
L 𝑓1 =
2𝑙
𝑓1 = 2 𝑓0
𝑙= 𝜆
𝑣 = 𝑓1 𝜆

Third harmonic / Third resonance / Second overtone

𝑣 = 𝑓2 𝜆
2𝑙
𝑣 = 𝑓2 𝑥
L 3
3 3𝑣
𝑙= 𝜆 𝑓2 =
2 2𝑙
2 𝑓2 = 3 𝑓0
𝜆= 𝑙
3

Fourth harmonic / Fourth resonance / Third overtone

𝑣 = 𝑓3 𝜆
𝑙
L 𝑣 = 𝑓3 𝑥
2
4𝑣
𝑙 = 2𝜆 𝑓3 =
2𝑙
𝑙
𝜆= 𝑓3 = 4 𝑓0
2

Note:

Open pipes produce both odd and even harmonics and this is why open pipes are preferred as
musical instruments.

Examples
1. A long tube is partially immersed in water and a tuning fork of 425Hz is sounded and held above it.
If the tube is gradually raised, find the length of the air column when resonance first occurs. [speed
of sound in air is 340m/s]

23
 Solution
𝑓 = 425𝐻𝑧, 𝑣 = 340𝑚𝑠 −1 1
𝐿= 𝝀
L 𝑣 = 𝑓𝜆 4
1
340 = 425𝑥𝝀 𝐿 = 𝑥0.8
4
λ = 0.8 𝑚 𝐿 = 0.2 𝑚
2. The frequency of third harmonic in an open pipe is 660Hz, if the speed of sound in air is 330m/s.
Find;
(i) the length of the air column
(ii) the fundamental frequency
Solution
3
𝐿= 𝝀
2
3
𝐿 = 𝑥0.5
2
L
𝐿 = 0.75 𝑚
i) 𝑓 = 660𝐻𝑧, 𝑣 = 330𝑚𝑠 −1
𝑖𝑖) 𝑓2 = 3 𝑓0
𝑣 = 𝑓𝜆 660
𝑓0 =
330 = 660𝑥𝝀 3
λ = 0.5 𝑚 𝑓0 = 220𝐻𝑧

3. A second harmonic of a closed pipe occurs when the length of the air column is 30cm, if the speed
of sound in air is 330m/s. Find the;
(i) frequency of the sound waves (ii) fundamental frequency
Solution

i) 𝐿=
3
𝝀 330
4 𝑓=
0.4
3
30 = 𝑥𝜆 𝑓 = 825 𝐻𝑧
4
L ii) 𝑓1 = 3 𝑓0
𝜆 = 40 𝑐𝑚
825
𝜆 = 0.4 𝑚 𝑓0 =
3
𝑣 = 𝑓𝜆
𝑓0 = 275 𝐻𝑧
4. If the velocity of sound in air is 330m/s and the fundamental frequency is 110Hz in a closed tube.
For the first overtone
(i) What is the approximate length of the tube
(ii) What would be the fundamental frequency if the tube was open at both ends
Solution

24
i) 𝑓0 = 110𝐻𝑧, 𝑣 = 330𝑚/𝑠 𝑣= 𝑓1 𝜆
330 L

𝜆=
330 𝐿 = 0.75 𝑚

𝜆 =1𝑚 1
𝐿= 𝝀
3 2
L 𝐿= 𝝀
4 𝝀 = 2𝐿
3 𝝀 = 2𝑥0.75
𝐿 = 𝑥1
4
𝝀 = 1.5𝑚
𝐿 = 0.75 𝑚
𝑣= 𝑓𝑜 𝜆
ii)
𝑓1 = 3 𝑓0 330
𝑓0 =
𝑓1 = 3 𝑥110 1.5
𝑓1 = 330𝐻𝑧 𝑓0 = 220𝐻𝑧

Experiment: To measure velocity of sound in air by Resonance tube

 A tuning fork of known frequency 𝒇 is held over a mouth of tube containing water with a tap
at the opposite end.
 The tuning fork is sounded and the level of water gradually lowered using a tap until when
the loudest sound is heard. This is the point for the first resonance and the length of the air
column 𝒍𝟏 is measured.

L1

1
𝑙1 = 4
𝜆……………………………(1)

 The level of water is further run down until the second loudest sound is heard. This is the
point of second resonance and the length of the air column 𝒍𝟐 is measured.

L2

3
𝑙2 = 𝜆…………………………….(2)
4

25
 Equation (2) − Equation (1)
3 1
𝑙2 − 𝑙1 = 𝜆 − 𝜆
4 4
1
𝑙2 − 𝑙1 = 𝜆
2
𝜆 = 2 (𝑙2 − 𝑙1 )
But 𝑣 = 𝑓 𝜆
𝑣 = 2 𝑓 (𝑙2 − 𝑙1 )

Example
A tuning fork of frequency 256Hz produces resonance in a tube of length 32.5cm and also in one of
length 95cm. Calculates the speed of sound in air column of the tube.
Solution 95 − 32.5
𝑣 = 2 𝑥 256𝑥 ( )
𝑣 = 2 𝑓 (𝑙2 − 𝑙1 ) 100
𝑣 = 320𝑚𝑠 −1

SECTION A:
1. Which one of the following electromagnetic waves causes genetic disorders when absorbed in
excess?
A. Radio waves C. Ultra-violet waves
B. Infrared waves D. X-rays
2. Superposition of two waves will produce a stationary wave if the waves have the same
(i) velocity
(ii) amplitude and frequency
(iii) velocity in opposite directions
A. (i) and (ii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only
B. (i), and (iii) only D. (iii) only
3. A person blows air across the mouth of an open pipe of length 0.3m. Find the fundamental
frequency (speed of sound=340m/s)
340 340 4𝑥0.3 340
A. 0.3
B. 4𝑥0.3
C. 340
D. 2𝑥0.3

4. Which one of the following radiations is emitted from white hot bodies?
A x-rays B Ultraviolet C Infrared D gamma
5. Which of the following is a property of sound waves?
(i) They require a material medium for transmission
(ii) Their velocity increases with temperature

26
 (iii) Their velocity increase with pressure
A. (i) only C. (i) and (iii) only
B. (ii), and (iii) only D. (i) and (ii) only
6. Which of the following is true about longitudinal waves?
(i) The distance between two consecutive rare-factions is the wavelength
(ii) The particles move away from the centre of a rare-fraction to a compression
(iii) The crests and troughs are the points of maximum displacement from the initial
position
A. (i) only C. (i) and (ii) only
B. (ii) only D. (ii) and (iii) only
7. Which one of the following observations is correct about an electric bell enclosed in a gas jar
connected to a vacuum pump?
A. Before air is removed, a loud sound is heard when the hammer hits the gong
B. Loudness of sound heard increases as the air is gradually removed from the jar
C. No sound is heard before air is removed from the jar
D. The electric bell stops working when air is completely removed from the jar
8. Sound waves travel a distance of 48 cm in 8 s. If the separation between successive compressions is
3.0cm, find the frequency of the wave
A. 0.5 Hz B. 2.0 Hz C. 18.0 Hz D. 128.0 Hz
9. A vibrator of frequency 20 Hz produces waves of velocity 2𝑚 𝑠 −1. Find the period of the waves
A. 1.0𝑥10−1 s B. 5.0𝑥10−2 s C. 5.0𝑥10−1 s D. 1.0𝑥101 s
10. Which of the following is true about a standing wave?
(i) The wave profile does not move
(ii) It is formed when the waves of equal amplitude and speed moving in opposite
directions overlap
(iii) It is formed when identical waves travelling in the same direction with equal speed
overlap
A. (i) and (iii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only
B. (i) and (ii) only D. (i) only
11. The wavelength of a progressive transverse wave is defined as the
A. height of a crest C. distance between successive crests
B. distance between a trough and a crest D. distance between any two troughs
12. A stationary wave is formed when two waves of

27
 A. equal amplitude and frequency travel along the same path in the same direction
B. equal amplitude and frequency travel perpendicularly to one another
C. equal amplitude and frequency travel along same path but in opposite directions
D. different frequencies travel along the same path but in opposite direction
13. The frequency of a vibrating string depends on
A. pitch B. length C. medium D. amplitude
14. Which one of the following electromagnetic waves lies between ultraviolet radiation and infrared
radiations?
A gamma rays B visible radiation C x-rays D microwave radiation
15. A Sound wave produced by vibrating tuning folk is longitudinal because the air vibrates in.
A Same direction as that in which the prongs vibrate
B A direction opposite to that in which the wave is traveling.
C The same direction as that in which the wave is traveling.
D The opposite direction to that in which the prongs vibrate.
16. Water waves of frequency 6Hz travel 24m in 10 seconds. The wavelength of the waves is.
A. 0.4m B. 2.5m C. 14.4m D. 40.0m
17. The basic difference between transverse and longitudinal waves is in.
A. amplitude. C. direction of vibration
B. Wave length. D. Medium through waves travel.
18. In ripple tank, constructive interference occurs when.
A. The wave is stationary. C. Crest overlaps with crest
B. A crest over laps with trough. D. The wave strikes a barrier.
19. The figure below represents straight waves A, B, C, D, E and F.

15cm

A B C D E F

The diagram represents straight waves A, B, C, D, E and F. If after 5s, A occupies the position now
occupied by F, Find the frequency of the wave.
A. 1Hz. B. 3Hz C. 9Hz. D. 15Hz.
20. Which one of the following bands has a wavelength greater than that of visible spectrum?
A. Gamma. B. X-rays. C. Ultra-violet. D. Infrared.
21. How long does it take an alternating 𝑃. 𝑑 of peak value 10V and frequency 50Hz to make one cycle?
A. 0.02s. B. 0.20s. C. 5.00s. D. 500.00s

28
22. A vibrator produces a sound wave that travels 900m in 3 s. If the wavelength of the wave is 10m, find
the frequency of the vibrator.
A. 30Hz. B. 270Hz. C. 300Hz. D. 3000Hz.
23.

A D

2m

The figure above shows a ware produced in a string. If frequency is 2Hz, at what speed do the
waves travel along the string?
A. 0.5m/s B. 1.0m/s C. 2.0m/s D. 4.0m/s
24. The electromagnetic radiation which causes the body temperature to rise is called?
A. X-rays B. gamma rays C. infra red D. ultra violet
25. A longitudinal wave is one in which the.
A. direction of propagation is parallel to that of the vibration producing it.
B. particle of medium through which it travels move opposite to the direction of
propagation.
C. direction of propagation is perpendicular to the of the vibration producing it.
D. particles of the medium through which it travels move together with it.
26. Which of the following can be detected by an ordinary antenna?
A microwaves B infrared rays C ultra violet D gamma rays
27. A man standing in front of a tall wall makes a loud sound and hears the echo after 1.5 seconds.. How far
is he from the wall if the velocity of the sound in air is 330m/s
A . 110m B. 247.5m C. 330m D . 990m.
28. The number of vibrations a wave makes in one second is the.
A frequency B wavelength C period D amplitude
29. Which of the following are longitudinal waves?
A water waves B light waves C sound waves D Radio waves
30. Sound is produced by a source vibrating at a frequency of 50Hz. Given that its speed is 330m/s in air, its
wavelength is.
A. 0.15m B. 6.6m C. 380m D. 16500m.
31. In forced vibrations, resonance occurs when the forcing
A. frequency is equal to the natural wavelength.
B. velocity is equal to the natural velocity.

29
 C. frequency is equal to the natural frequency.
D. frequency exceeds the natural frequency.
32. The number of complete oscillations made per second is referred to as
A. periodic time B. Amplitude C. wavelength D. frequency
33. Points on a stationary wave which are permanently at rest are called.
A. crest B. troughs C. nodes D. anti-nodes
34. Which one the following radiations under goes the largest diffraction when passed through a narrow
aperture?
A. radio waves B. Gamma rays C. yellow light D. infra-red rays
35. A source produces waves which travel a distance of 140cm in 0.08s. If the distance between successive
crests is 20cm, find the frequency of the source.
A. 0.875Hz B. 8.750Hz C. 87.00Hz D. 87.50Hz
36. Which one of the following shows the order in increasing wavelength, of the members of the
electromagnetic spectrum
A. ultra-violet, radio waves, infra-red
B. Radio waves, infra-red, x-rays, ultra-violet
C. X-rays, ultra-violet, infra-red, radio waves
D. Gamma rays, ultra-violet, radio waves, infra-red
37. A man sees the flash from a gun fired 1020m away and then later hears a bang. How long does the bang
take to reach him? (Speed of sound is 340m/s)
1020 340 1020
A. 340𝑥 10
𝑠 B. 1020
𝑠 C. 340
𝑠 D. (340𝑥1020) 𝑠

38.

The diagram above shows parallel wave fronts approaching a narrow gap. Waves passing through
the gap are likely to undergo.
A reflection B refraction C diffraction D interference.
39. Which of the following radiations is emitted from the nucleus of an atom
A. Cathode rays B. Gamma rays C. Infra-red rays D. Ultra-violet ray
40. The effect produced when many echoes merge into one prolonged sound is known as.
A. Noise B. harmonic C. reverberation D. pitch.
41. The figure shows waves spreading out from a point. The wavelength of the waves is.

30
 A. 3cm B. 6cm

C. 9cm D. 12cm
12cm

42. Ticker time is connected to the mains supply of frequency 40Hz. Find the time it takes to print three
consecutive dots.
A 0.08s B 0.25s C 0.05s D 0.75s
43. What occurs when a body is made to vibrate with its natural frequency due to external vibration?
A. Echo B. resonance C. refraction D. reverberation
44.
Viabrator Wavelength Frequency
Wave P 1500m 0.2MHz
Wave Q 500m ……..

The table above shows readings obtained by using a vibrator which produces waves of constant velocity.
Find the frequency of the wave Q:
A. 0.07MHz B. 0.3MHz C. 0.6MHz D. 1. 6MHz.
45. Which of the following are transverse waves only?
A. Radio, sound, ultraviolet B. Ultraviolet, x-rays, water waves.
C. infrared, gamma rays, sound wave. D. sound waves, ultraviolet.
46. A boy standing 150m from vertical cliff claps his hands and hears on echo 0.85s later. Find the speed of
sound in air.
A. 128m/s B. 176m/s C. 255m/s D. 353m/s
47. In a sound wave particle of the medium.
A. are stationary
B. move along main the wave
C. vibrates in the some direction as the wave.
D. vibrates at right angles to the direction of the wave.
48. Which of the following statements is true about the wave traveling from one medium to another?
(i) its frequency and velocity change
(ii) its frequency and wave length change
(iii) its velocity and wavelength change

31
 (iv) Only its frequency remains unchanged.
A (i) only B (ii) and C (i) (ii) and (iii) D (iii)and iv
49. Water waves travel a distance of 36cm in 6s and the separation of successive troughs is 3.0cm. Calculate
the frequency of the wave
A. 2Hz B. 12Hz C. 18Hz D. 72Hz
50. Which of the following is true about sound waves.
(i) They are longitudinal
(ii) They are transverse
(iii) They are produced by vibrations
(iv) They are travel through an empty space
A (ii) and (iv) only B (i) and (iii) only C (i) , (ii) and (iii) only D (ii) , (iii) and (iv) only.
51. The figure below shows circular waves incident on a place reflector. Which of the following patterns
represents the reflected waves?

A B C D

52. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?

A x-rays B Radio waves C microwaves D sound waves
53. A vibrator produces waves which travel a distance of 12m in 4s. If the frequency of the vibrator is 2Hz
what is the wavelength of the waves?
A. 1.5m B. 3m C. 6m D. 24m
54. A girl stands in between two cliffs and claps her hands. She hears the first echo after 1s and a second echo
after 2 second. If the speed of the sound is 300m/s, the distance between cliffs is.
A. 300m B. 450m C. 900m D. 1200m
55. Which of the following statement is true?
A. light waves, radio waves and sound waves will all travel through a vacuum.
B. light waves and radio wave will travel through a vacuum sound waves will not,
C. light waves and sound waves will travel trough a vacuum radio waves will not.
D. sound waves and radio waves will travel through a vacuum, light waves will not.

32
56. Sound waves.
A do not pass through a vacuum. B travel through solid at lower speed
C do not travel through liquid D travel at the highest speed in air
57. Which one of the following does not change when water waves travel from deep to shallow water?
A frequency B Amplitude C velocity D wave length
58. Sound travel much greater through.
A steel B wood C water D wavelength
59. Which of the following statements are true above refraction of waves?
(i) the speed of wave change (iii) the direction of travel changes
(ii) the wavelength changes (iv) the frequency changes
A (i) only B (i) and (ii) only C (i) , (ii) and (iv) only D (i), (ii) and (iii) only .
60. An echo is produced as a result of sound wave being.
A. absorbed by objects C. deflected back by objects
B. transmitted by objects D. bent around Connors by objects
61. The particles of a medium through which long traditional wave travels.
A. vibrate parallel to the direction of the propagation of the waves
B. vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the propagation of the wave
C. more a long with wave
D. more in the opposite direction to the wave
62. A girl standing 300m away from a high vertical wall makes a loud sound of frequency 60Hz. Calculate
the wavelength of the sound. If the girl hears the echo after 2 seconds
A. 0.2m B. 2.5m C. 5m D. 10m
63. When sound wave pass through a metal bar, the atoms of the metal.
A rotate in circles C expands and contract
B more along the bar D vibrate about fixed point
64. Which one of the following best describes the patterns of circular waves refracted from concave
refractor

A B C D

65. The frequency of a radio wave is 6.6𝑥105 Hz find the wavelength, if the velocity of light is 3.0𝑥 108 𝑚/𝑠

33
 A. 2.2x103m B. 4.45x102m C. 3.60x103 D. 1.98x1014
66. A vibrator produces waves which travel a distance of 35cm in 2 seconds if the distance between
successive waves, crests is 5cm what is the frequency of the vibrator.
A. 3.5Hz B. 7.0Hz C. 14Hz D. 87.5Hz
67. Which of the following changes occur when a ripple from a region of deep water reaches a region of
shallow water
A. velocity remains constant and wavelength increases
B. velocity decreases and wavelength decrease
C. frequency increases and the velocity increases
D. the frequency decreases and the wavelength increases
68.
510m

High wall

X Y

In the diagram above, boy x clapped his hands once and boy y heard two claps, the interval between
their arrival being 1s. Calculate the distance between x and y (speed sound =330m/s).
A. 255m B. 330m C. 345m D. 510m.
69.

The amplitude of the wave in the figure above is

6
A. 6cm B. 8cm

4 8 12 16 C. 12 cm D. 16cm

70. Sound travels faster on a hot day than on a could day because
A. the speed of air molecules is higher on hot day then on a cold day.
B. there are more conventional currents on a hot day then on a cold day.
C. there is less air molecules on a cold day than on a hot day.
D. there is more air molecules on a cold day than on a hot day.
71. The pitch of a note from a guitar string can be made higher by.
A. lengthening the string B. Tightening the string

34
 C. heating the string D. Increasing the thickness of string
72. Sound waves.
A. do not pass through a vacuum
B. travel through solids at a lower speed man in air
C. do not travel through liquids
D. do not travel at the highest speed in air
73. The particles of the medium, through which a transverse wave travels.
1 remain stationary
2 move along with the wave
3 move counter to be wave
4 vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the waves
A. 1,2,3 only correct B. 1,3 only correct
C. 2,4 only correct D. 4 only correct
74. A person at distance 100m from a cliff produces a sound and hear the echo sound 1.5s later. Calculate the
speed of sound in air.
A 120m/s B 240m/s C 270 m/s D 340m/s
75. The loudness of sound depends on.
A. amplitude B. frequency C. velocity D. wavelength
76. A point of maximum energy on a stationary wave is
A. Node B. crest C. antinodes D. amplitude
77. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the longest wavelength?
A. micro waves B. Radio waves C. antinodes D. amplitude
78. A man standing some distance from vertical wall beats a drum. He hears the echo after 2s. Calculate the
distance between the man and the wall . (speed of sound = 330m/s)
A 82.5m B. 165.0m C. 330m D. 660m
79. A sound wave of frequency 250Hz is produced 300m away from a high wall. If an echo is received after
2s. The wavelength of the sound is
A. 2.4m B. 1.2m C. 0.83m D. 0.6m
SECTION B

1. The diagram below represents a wave

35
 (a) Mark on the diagram the amplitude and
Displacement (cm)
label it, A
(b) How many cycles are shown on the
0
0.24 Time (s) diagram
(c) calculate the period for the wave

2. Forty waves are generated in 2 s. If the waves occupy a distance of 1.6 m, calculate
a) Frequency of the waves b) speed of the waves
3. (a) What is meant by diffraction of waves
(b) Draw a diagram to show the path of plane water waves through a narrow gap
(c) State two factors that’s that determine the intensity of sound
4. (a) What is a longitudinal wave?
(b)

Figure above shows a sound wave produced

from a tuning fork vibrating at 800 Hz.
Calculate the velocity of the wave in the
energy
20cm medium

(c) State two factors which determine the velocity of sound in air
5. (a) State the laws of reflection
(b)

X Y Figure above shows two successive parallel wave

fronts A and B incident on straight barrier XY.
Complete the diagram to show the reflected wave
A B
fronts

6. (a) What is a progressive wave?

(b) What is meant by antinodes as applied to a stationary wave?
(c) The distance between two successive antinodes on a stationary wave is 4cm. find the wavelength
7. (a)
The figure above shows straight water waves
Concave reflector
approaching a concave surface. Complete the
Incident waves
diagram to show how it will be reflected.

36
 (b) State what would happen to the waves if the concave surface was removed and depth of water
reduced.
8. (a) What is an echo?
(b) When a hunter fires a gun, an echo from a cliff is heard 8s later. How far is the hunter from the
cliff. (Speed of sound = 340m/s)
(c) State one practical application of echoes
9. (a) What is an echo?
(b) An echo sounder on a boat sends down a pulse through the water and receives its echo 0.9s later.
If the velocity of sound in the water is 1450m/s. calculate water depth.
(c) State any two factors which determine the frequency of a note produced when a guitar string
vibrates.
10. (a) What is meant by the term reverberation?
(b) State two factors which affect the frequency of a vibrating string
(c) A sound wave of frequency 440Hz has a velocity of 330m/s. Calculate its wavelength.
11. (a) Describes how a straight water is produced in a ripple tank.
(b) State the conditions for the occurrence of destructive interference of waves.
12.

The graph above shows the variation of an 𝑎. 𝑐

Voltage (V) with time
340 Find;
(i) the peak voltage
0
0.01 0.02 0.03 0.04 0.05 t (s) (ii) the frequency
-340

13. (a) What is a transverse wave?

(i) The diagram below represents a wave traveling in water.
(i) Name the part labeled B
B
(ii) If the distance represented by A is 20cm
and the speed of the wave is 8.0m/s, what
Distance along the
direction of propagation is is the frequency of the wave?
A

37
14. (a) What is a standing wave?
(b) The figure below shows plane waves approaching a gap in a barrier.

Barrier

Gap
Plane waves

(i) Show on the diagram, the appearance of the waves after the barrier.
(ii) What is the effect of reducing the size of the gap?
15. (a) The figure below shows part of the electromagnetic spectrum consisting of gamma rays, radio
waves, infrared and visible light.
Increasing wavelenght

A B C D

Identify the bands to which these radiations belong to A, B, C and D

(b) State one application of the radiation in.
(i) Band A (ii) Band B
16.
Displacement (cm)

0
0.5 1.0 1.5 Time(s)

The diagram above shows a section of transverse wavelength 4.0cm paid its
(i) frequency (ii) amplitude (iii) velocity
17. (a) What is meat by refraction?
(b)
Plane waves are generated at one end of a ripple
tank. The waves travel towards the other end
through a shallow region having the shape
Plane waves
Shallow area shown above. Complete the diagram to show the
wave fronts

38
 (c)
A stick is dipped in water as shown below. Draw
away diagram to show how the stick will appear
Water
to an observer at 0.

18. (a) A gir l stands at a distance of 300m from a high cliff and blows a whistle. She hears the sound of the
whistle again after 2s. Calculate the speed of sound
(b) State two properties of electromagnetic radiations
19. (a) A girl at a distance of 165m from a high wall clapped her hands once but heard two claps.
(i) Explain why the girl heard two claps
(ii) Find how long it took her to hear the second clap. (Speed of sound in air is 330m/s)
(b) Give one practical application in which the principle in (a) is used.
20. (a) (i) What is meant by reverberation?
(ii) How does complete absence reverberation affect speech in concert hall?
(b) A girl produces sound waves near series of regularly spaced reflecting surfaces if the reflectors
are 15cm apart and the velocity of sound in air is 330m/s calculate the frequency of the echo.

PAPER TWO TYPE

1. (a) What is meant by diffraction of waves
(ii) Figure below shows plane wave fronts incident on a barrier with two slits

(i) Copy and sketch the wave pattern beyond the

barrier
(ii) Describe what happens if slits are narrowed
Barrier with slits
Wave fronts

(iii) Explain why the speed of sound at the top of a high mountain is different from that at sea-level
(iv) An experimenter standing between two high walls produces sound by hitting two pieces of
wood. If the first echo is heard after 3.5 s and the second echo 2 s later, find the distance
between the walls ( speed of sound in air = 330m/s)
(v) What is meant by a standing wave
(vi) Figure below shows a string stretched between two bridges. When it is plucked at some point it
vibrates as shown

39
 S S Name the points marked R and S
R R
String (i) Calculate the wave length of the wave in the

Table
string
Bridge 2m Bridge

2. (a) What is meant by the following as applied to sound waves

(i) Pitch (ii) Audio - range
(b) Figure below shows parallel sound waves travelling from a region of cold air to a region of hot air
(i) Copy and draw the waves pattern in the hot air,
showing the direction of travel
(ii) Name the wave phenomenon show by the wave
Cold air (iii) Explain why the wave behaves the way you have
Hot air
draw in the hot air

(c) A student observed the time interval between the lightning flash from a distant storm and the
accompanying thunder as 4 beats of his pulse. If the pulse rate is 72 beats per minute. Determine
the:
(i) time in seconds taken for him to hear the thunder from the instant he sees the flash
(ii) distance of the storm from the observer (Take the speed of sound in air =330m/s)
(d) Give any two applications of ultrasonic sounds
3. (a) Define the following as applied to the wave motions
(i) Frequency (ii) Wave length
(b) What are transverse waves?
(c) A radio station transmits signals at a frequency of 103.7MHz. Find, the wavelength of the signals
and state any assumption made
(d) Draw a diagram to show the pattern for a straight water wave passing through a narrow slit
(e) Describe an experiment to demonstrate that sound waves require a material medium for their
propagation
(f) Explain how sound waves travel through air
4. (a) Define the following as applied to the wave motions
(i) Frequency (ii) Wave length
(b) Draw diagrams to show circular water ripples are reflected from
(i) concave reflector (ii) convex reflector
(c) (i) Distinguish between longitudinal waves and transverse waves

40
 (ii) Give one example of each of the waves in (c) (i)
(d) State four properties of electromagnetic waves
(e) The distance between two successive antinodes on a standing wave is 3.0 cm. If the distance
between the source of wave and reflector is 24.0cm, find the
(i) number of loops (ii) wavelength of the wave
5. (a) State the changes detected when listening to a sound note if the
(i) amplitude is raised (ii) frequency is raised
(b) Give three differences between light waves and sound waves
(c)

S R Figure above shows a ripple tank PQRS whose one

side is raised. A ripple started by touching the
water at A, and after one second it had the shape
A
shown

Q (i) State which side of the ripple tank is raised

P
(ii) Explain the shape of the ripple
(d)

4 cm The lines in figure above shows crests of straight

ripples formed in a ripple tank
(i) If after 10 seconds A is in position B,
Direction calculate the velocity of the ripples
of travel (ii) Draw a diagram showing how the ripples
would pass through wide gap of an obstacle
A B the would meet
6. (a) Define the term constructive interferences as applied to sound waves.
(b) The figure below shows a sources behind barrier with a single hole h, placed behind another
barrier with two identical holes h1 and h2 . A sound detector is moved along a line PQ.
Q (i) With the aid of the diagram explain
what is detected
h1
S
h (ii) What is the significant of h1 and h2?
h2

(c)

41
 The figure above – shows the displacement time
Displacement (cm)

0.6 graph of a wave traveling through water with a

velocity of 2.5mm/s. find the.
0
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 Time (s) (i) the amplitude
(ii) the period
-0.6
(iii) wavelength of the wave

(d) What are the conditions for formation of a standing wave with the wave in (c) above?
7. (a) Defines the following terms as applied to waves.
(i) amplitude (ii) frequency
(b) (i) What is meant by interference of waves
(ii) Using a labeled diagram, show how circular water waves are reflected from a straight barrier
(c) (i) Use a labeled diagram to show the bands of an electromagnetic spectrum
(ii) Calculate the frequency of a radio wave of wavelength 2m.
(d) With the aid of a diagram, show dispersion of light by a prism
8. [a] (i) State any three effects of electromagnetic radiation on matter .
(ii) State two properties that electromagnetic waves have in common.
(b) A radio wave of wavelength 330m is transmitted at frequency of 908kHz.find its velocity.
9. (a] (i) Define an echo
(ii] State the condition required far a stationary wave to be formed.
(b) (ii] list factors on which the frequency of a wave in a vibrating sting depends.
(c] Describe an experiment to demonstrate resonance in a closed pipe.
(d) A child stands between two cliffs and makes a loud sound. If it hears the first echo after 1.5s and
the 2nd echo after 2.0s, find the distance between the two cliffs (speed of sound = 320m/s)
10. (a) State the difference between sound and light waves
(b) (i) Describe a simple experiment to determine the velocity of sound in air
(ii) Explain why the speed of sound is higher in solids than air
(d) Two people X and Y stand in a line at a distance of 330m and 660m respectively from a high wall.
Find the time interval taken for X to hear the first and second sounds when Y makes a loud sound
( speed of sound in air = 330m/s)
(e) (i) What is meant by a stationary wave
(ii) Give any two conditions

42
 (iii) Name one musical instrument which produces stationary waves
11. (a) What is meant by sound?
(b) Describe the experiment to show that sound waves require a material medium for transmission.
(c) Explains briefly the following
(i) A dog is more able than a human being to detect the presence of a thief tiptoeing at night.
(ii) An approaching train can easily be detected by a human car placed close to the rays rails.
(d) A sound of frequency 250Hz is produced 120m away from a high wall calculate the
(i) Wavelength
(ii) Time it takes the sound wave to travel to and from the wall (speed of sound in air = 330m/s)
12. (a ) (i) Describe how the speed of waves in a ripple tank can be decreased.
(ii) Explain the effect of decreases the speed of the wave in (a) on frequency
(b) With the aid of sketch diagrams, explain the effect of size of a gap on diffraction of waves
(c) (i) Give two reasons why sound is louder at night than during the day.
(ii) An echo- sounding equipment on a ship receives sound pulses reflected from the sea bed 0.02s
after they were sent out from it. If the speed of sound in water is 1500m/s, calculate the depth of
water under the ship.
(d) Identify two differences between water and sound waves.
13. (a) With aid of a diagram, explains the terms amplitude and wavelength as applied to wave motion.
(b) (i) Derive an equation relating velocity, v, frequency ,f, and wavelength ,  , of a wave.
(ii) A radio wave is transmitted at a frequency of 150MHz. Calculate its wavelength.
(c) (i) List four properties of electromagnetic waves.
(iii) A long open tube is partially immersed in water and the turning fork of frequency 425Hz is
sounded and held above it. The tube is gradually raised, find the length of the air column when
resonance first occurs. (neglect the end collection) (speed of sound in air = 340m/s)
14. (a) State three differences between sound and light waves?
(b) (i) Explain how stationary waves are formed?
(ii) State three main characteristics of stationary waves?
(c) (i) Define the term frequency and wave length as applied to sound.
(ii)Describe an experiment to demonstrate resonance in sound?
(f) The velocity and frequency of sound in air at a certain time were 320m/s and 200Hz
respectively. At a later time, the air temperature changed and the velocity of sound in air was
found to be 340m/s. Determine the change in wavelength of the sound.
15. (a) What an echo?

43
 (b) (i) Describe an experiment to measure the speed of sound in air?
(ii) State any two likely sources of error in the experiment?
(c) Describe an experiment to determine how the frequency of the vibrating string depends on the
wave length of the string.
16. (a) List three differences between sound waves and radio waves.
(b) The figure below shows waves propagating towards a concave reflector.
(i) Draw the diagram to show how the waves will
be reflected.
(ii) If the velocity of the waves is 320m/s and the
Concave
reflector distance between the two successive crests is
Plane waves
10cm, find the period of the waves.

(c) Describe a simple echo method of determining the speed of sound in air.
17. (a) Define each of the following terms as applied to wave motion.
(i) Wave front. (ii) Wavelength.
(b) The wavelength of the radio wave is 10m. Calculate.
(i) The frequency. (ii) The period of the wave.
(c) Why does sound travel faster in solids than in gases.
(d) (i) Explain why an open pipe when used in producing different notes.
(ii) The frequency of the 3rd harmonic in a closed pipe is 280Hz. Find the length of the air column in
the pipe.
18. (a) (i) Describe a simple experiment to determine the velocity of sound in air.
(ii) What factors would affect the value of the velocity of sound obtained from the experiment in (i)
above.
(b) Explain why a musical note play on a piano sounds different from that played on a guitar.
(c) (i)Calculate the wavelength of the sound waves of frequency 3.3KHz and speed 330m/s.
(iii) State four differences between sound and radio waves.
19. (a) Distinguish between longitudinal and transverse waves. Give an example of each.
(b) Describe an experiment to show interference of water waves.
(c) (i) what are the conditions for the formation of standing waves.
(ii) Name two instruments where standing waves are applied.
(d) Describe the resonance method for determining the speed of sound in air.
(e) A fork has a frequency of 256Hz. Assuming the speed of sound in air is 320m/s, calculate the
wavelength of the sound note given by the folk.

44
20. The figure above shows the diagram of a cross-section of a ripple tank in which A is a straight dipper and
B is a barrier with two gaps.
(a) Sketch a diagram showing waves produced
when A vibrates perpendicular to the water surface.
(b) What will happen when.
(i) The gaps are made narrower.
(ii) The separation of the gaps is decreased?
A
B (iii) The frequency of vibration of A is increased?

(c) If a vibrates with a frequency of 20Hz and is 25cm from B, find

(i) The speed of the wave if a wave front takes 5 seconds from A to B.
(ii) The wavelength of the waves.
(d) State two differences between water waves and light waves.
21. (a) Give the two differences between transverse and longitudinal waves.
(b) Two identical sources are made to produce circular waves in a ripple tank.
(i) Explain with the aid of diagram how interference fringes may be obtained.
(ii) What happens when the distance between the sources reduced?
(c) A vibrator of frequency 50Hz produces circular waves in a ripple tank. If the distance between any
two consecutive crests is 3cm, what is the speed of the waves?
(d) (i) Explain why echoes are not heard in small rooms.
(ii) Describe a simple echo method of determining the speed of sound in air.
22. (a) List three differences and three similarities between sound waves and light waves.
(b)

The above diagram show circular waves

propagating towards plane reflector.
(i) Draw a diagram to show how the waves will be
reflected.
Plane
(ii) Calculate the frequency of the waves. If their
reflector
Circular waves velocity and wavelength are 0.5m/s and 0.5m
respectively.

(c) A man standing mid way between two cliffs makes a loud sound. He hears the first echo after 3
seconds calculate the distance between the two cliffs if the velocity of sound = 330m/s.

45
 Modern physics
Production of electrons
Electrons can be produced by;
 Thermionic emission
 Photo electric emission

Thermionic Emission
This is a process by which electrons are emitted from a hot metal surface.

Cathode rays
Cathode rays are streams of fast moving electrons that travel from cathode to anode.

Production of cathode rays

 When the cathode filament inside an evacuated

Cathode rays
glass tube is heated by a low voltage, the
Cathode filament
Cylindrical Anode Vacuum electrons are produced by thermionic emission
and accelerated by E.H.T towards the anode.
 Electrons travel un deflected across the vacuum

Low voltage past the anode and produce aglow when they
supply collide with fluorescent screen and give up their
energy. It is the beam of fast moving electrons
- + from the cathode which constitute the cathode
E.H.T(electron high tension) rays.

Flourescent screen

PROPERTIES OF CATHODE RAYS

 They travel from cathode to anode in a straight line
 They are electrons and carry a negative charge
 They can be deflected in an electric field towards the positive plate
 They can be deflected in a magnetic field towards the North Pole according to Flemings left hand
rule.
 They cause certain substances to fluorescence when they collide with them
 They posses kinetic energy which is changed to heat when they are brought to rest
 They can produce x−rays if they are of sufficiently high energy

46
 TO STUDY PROPERTIES OF CATHODE RAYS
1: Straight line movement

Cathode filament
Vacuum

Shadow of
Maltase
Low voltage cross
supply

- +
E.H.T(electron high tension)

Maltase cross Flourescent screen

 A cathode ray tube is modified to include a maltase cross in front of the anode towards the
screen.

 When the cathode is heat by low voltage, electrons are produced Thermionic ally and are
accelerated by the anode. When they strike the maltase cross a sharp shadow is produced on
the screen and this shows that cathode rays travel in a straight line

2: Carry a negative charge

Cathode rays

Cathode rays are deflected towards the positive plate

3: Deflection in a magnetic field

N S

Cathode rays are deflected towards the North Pole according to Flemings left hand rule

47
 THE CATHODE RAY OSCILLOSCOPE (CRO)

Grid Deflecting system Fluorescent screen

Electron gun
Cathode

Y-plates X-plates
Electron beam
Heat supply

Anode

The CRO mainly consists of four main parts namely:- The electron gun, deflecting system, fluorescent screen and
the time base.
The electron gun
This consists of the filament, cathode, grid control, and the anode
 Filament heats the cathode
 Cathode emits electrons thermionic ally.
 The grid, controls the brightness of the spot by controlling the number of electrons passing through it.
 The anode accelerate the electrons along the tube and focuses the beam of electrons into a small spot on
the screen.
Deflecting system
 This consists the x-plate and y-plate. The y-plates are horizontal in position and deflect the electron
beam vertically when a 𝑝. 𝑑 is applied between them.
 X-plates are vertical in position and deflect the, electron beam horizontally when a 𝑝. 𝑑 is applied
between them.
Screen
 It is the wide end of the tube and its inside is coated with zinc sulphide which glows or fluorescence
when struck by energetic electrons.

Time base (sweep generator)

 The time base is connected to the x-plates and provides a saw tooth 𝑝. 𝑑 that sweeps the electron beam
from left to right of the screen at a constant speed.
Beam being swept
P.d across from left to right
Fly back
X-plate

Time

48
  The saw tooth then returns the beam to the initial position at the extreme left of screen almost
instantaneously. The time taken for this right to left sweep is called fly-back time.

Note:

The glass tube is evacuated to prevent scattering of the electron beam due collision with air molecules.

USES OF THE CRO

 It is used to display wave forms, the signal to be investigate is connected to the y-plate and the time base
to the x-plate
 It measures voltage (AC or DC)
 Measures frequencies
 Used to measure phase differences
 Measures small time intervals

Advantages of CRO over a voltmeter

 It measures both AC and D.C voltage unlike a voltmeter measures only D.C voltage unless a rectifier is
used
 It has an instantaneous response since the electron beam behaves as a pointer of negligible inertia.
 It has nearly infinite resistance to DC and a very high impedance to AC and therefore draws very little
current.
 It has no coil to burn out.

APPEARANCE OF ELECTRON SPOT ON THE SCREEN

 When a signal is not connected to the y-plate and time base switched off, a bright spot is formed on the
screen.

 When 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝒅. 𝒄 voltage is connected to the y-plate such that the top plate is positive the line is displaced
to E. If the lower plate is positive the line is displaced to F. the displacement in either case is
proportional to 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑑. 𝑐 voltage applied.

E
O S
S
F

49
 If in the CRO the gain control of the y-deflection amplifier is 𝑉𝑔 Vcm-1 then
𝑉∝𝑆
𝑽 = 𝑽𝒈𝑺

 When A.C is connected to y-plate and time base switched off. The spot is a vertical line

The length L represents peak to peak voltage

2 𝑉𝑂 ∝ 𝐿
2𝑉𝑂 = 𝑉𝑔𝐿
where V0 is peak voltage
𝑉𝑔𝐿
𝑉𝑂 =
2
𝑉0
Also 𝑉𝑟. 𝑚. 𝑠 =
√2

 When the A.C is connected to Y-plate and time base also switched on the a stationery wave is obtained

d o

𝑉0 ∝ 𝑑
𝑉0 = 𝑉𝑔 𝑑
𝑉0
Vr.m.s =
√2

 Y-plate off and time base on

Horizontal line formed at the centre of the screen

X-RAYS

These are electromagnetic radiations of short wavelength (~10−10 𝑚) which travel at a speed of light and
produced when fast moving electrons (cathode rays) strike a metal target.

50
 X-RAY TUBE [PRODUCITON OF X-RAYS]
- +
High voltage(100KV)
Vacuum
Fillament

Tungsten target
supply

Lead shield
Cooling fins
Concave X-rays Copper anode
focusing cathode Heated fillament

Operation
 The cathode is heated with low voltage and electrons are emitted thermionic ally. Electrons are then
accelerated towards the tungsten target or any metal of high melting point by a high 𝑝. 𝑑 between the
cathode and anode. Electrons gain kinetic energy and when they strike the target they surrender their
kinetic energy to the target hence producing x-rays.
 Less than 1% of the kinetic energy of the electrons produces x-rays and the rest of the kinetic energy is
converted to heat at the target which has to be kept cool by a liquid flowing continuously through the
cooling fins.
Note:
(1) The energy changes in an x-rays tube are; electrical energy from low voltage source to heat energy used
for heating the filament to kinetic energy of electrons and then to heat and x-rays.
(2) The intensity of x-ray beam increases with the number of electrons hitting the target, therefore intensity
is controlled by filament current /heating current or supply voltage.
(3) The penetrating power (quality) of an x-ray beam is controlled by the accelerating 𝑝. 𝑑 between the
cathode and the anode
(4) X-rays with high penetrating power are called hard x-rays while those with low penetrating power are
called soft x-rays.
(5) The x-ray tube is totally evacuated to prevent collision of electrons with gas molecules.

PROPERTIES OF X-RAYS

(1) They travel in straight lines at the velocity of light.

(2) They cannot be deflected by electric or magnetic field(This is an evidence that they are not charged
particles )
(3) They readily penetrate matter, penetration is least with materials of high density

51
 (4) They can be reflected but not at very large angles of incidence
(5) Refractive indices of all materials are very close to unity (one) for x-rays so that very little bending
occurs when they pass from one material to another
(6) They can be diffracted

The following properties 7 to 10 are used to detect x-rays

(7) They ionize gases through which they pass
(8) They affect photographic film
(9) They can produce fluorescence
(10) They can produce photoelectric emission

USES OF X-RAYS

Medical uses
 Used to detect fractures in bones
 Used to destroy cancer cell
 Used in detection of lung T.B
 Used for sterilization of medical equipment’s

Industrial use
 They are used to locate internal imperfection in welded joints and casting
 They are used to detect cracks in metal parts which are invisible
 They are used to study structures of crystals

Agricultural uses
 Tracing phosphate fertilizers using phosphorus
 Sterilization of insecticides for pest control
 X-ray crystallography
 Used to study crystal structures and determine structure of complex organic molecules

Health hazard of x-rays

 They cause cancer
 They cause genetic damage and mutation
 They can burn the skin and other body tissues

52
Precaution
 Lead aprons should be worn while dealing with x-rays
 The brain and other delicate parts of the body should not be exposed to x-rays
 Unnecessary long time exposure to x-rays should be avoided.

How x-rays are used to locate broken bones

Bones are composed of much denser materials than flesh hence x-rays pass through the body and are absorbed
by the bones onto a photographic plate which produce a shadow of the photograph of bones onto the flesh.

Question: Explain why soft x-rays rather than hard x-rays are used to detect fractures in bones

THERMIONIC DIODE
A thermionic diode is a device which is used to change alternating voltage to direct voltage. This process
is called rectification .
Circuit symbol
Anode A

Vacuum

Cathode C

Heater

A diode consists of cathode (c) and a metal Anode (A). these two elements constitute the electrodes of the
valve which are placed inside an evacuated glass envelope.

RECTIFICATION

Rectification is a process of converting Alternating current to Direct current.

This can be done by use of
 Thermionic diodes.
 Semiconductor diode

When a rectifier is connected to a supply its supposed to conduct and when it does so its
said to be forward biased. And when connected in a reverse way it fails to conduct
therefore its said to be reverse-biased.

53
 a) Half wave Rectification

Diode

mA Moving coil Ammeter

𝐴. 𝑐 to be measured is first passed through the rectifier which converts it to 𝑑. 𝑐. The 𝑑. 𝑐

obtained is then measured using a moving coil ammeter.

N.B:
The Arrow head in the rectifier symbol shows the direction of flow of current through the circuit.
A graph of I against t is drawn
I

b) Full wave rectification

A D3 D1
B
x
D2
R
D4

m.A
y

 In the first half cycle when A is positive and B - negative diodes D1 and D2 conduct I (current)
and it flows through the resistor R in the direction x - y. The diodes D3 and D4 do not
conduct current I in this half cycle.
 During the next half cycle when B is positive and A is negative diodes D3 and D4 conduct
while D1 and D2 do not conduct in this cycle. The current (I) flows through R in the direction
x - y. The current through R is in the same direction throughout and it can be measured by
moving coil ammeter.
I

54
 Photo electric emission

This is a process by which electrons are ejected from a clean metal surface when
electromagnetic radiations of a suitable frequency fall on a metal surface.

EXPERIMENT TO DEMONSTRATE PHOTO ELECTRIC EFFECT

Ultra violet
Zinc
radiations

Gold leaf electroscope

 When ultraviolet radiations fall on a cleaned zinc plate placed on a cap of a positively
charged gold leaf electroscope, there is no change in the divergence of the leaf.
This is because the electrons that are emitted photo electrically are attracted back by the
positively charged zinc plate. Hence there is no charge in the magnitude or sign of charge on
the electroscope.
 When ultraviolet radiations fall on a cleaned zinc plate placed on a cap of a negatively
charged gold leaf electroscope, the leaf is seen to collapse gradually.
This is because the electrons emitted from the zinc plate by the radiations are repelled from
it electrostatic ally. This makes the electrons to move from the leaf and the gold plate to the
zinc to replace the lost electrons. So the magnitude of the negative charge at the leaf and
gold plate decreases thereby decreasing the divergence of the leaf gradually.

Note:
(1) If the intensity of UV radiation is increased for the positively charged electroscope there is
no change on the divergence of the leaf. But for a negatively charged electroscope, the leaf
collapses fast since the number of electrons emitted per unit time (photo current) from the
zinc plate increases with intensity.
(2) If infrared radiations are used instead of UV no effect is observed on the leaf divergence
because the frequency of the infrared is below threshold frequency for zinc. Hence it cannot
eject electrons from the zinc plate no matter how intense it’s radiation is.

55
 NUCLEAR STRUCTURE

An atom consists of a small positively charged nucleus with negatively charged electrons revolving
around.
The nucleus is the central positively charged part of an atom.
Nucleus contains protons and neutrons which are collectively referred to as nucleons or (nuclear
number).

ATOMIC NUMBER, Z, MASS NUMBER, A, AND ISOTOPES

Atomic number Z of an element is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of the element.

Mass number A of an atom is the number of nucleons in its nucleus.

Isotopes are atoms of the same element which have the same number of protons but different
number of neutrons and therefore different mass numbers.

Isotopes of an element whose chemical symbol is represented by 𝑿 can be distinguished by using

𝑨
the symbol 𝒁𝑿

Where A is mass number and Z is atomic number

The number of neutrons 𝑛 = 𝐴 − 𝑍
The number of electrons= 𝑍

Example of isotopes
Isotopes of Lithium 𝟕𝟑𝑳𝒊 and 𝟔𝟑𝑳𝒊
𝟐𝟑𝟓
Isotopes of uranium 𝟗𝟐𝑼 and 𝟐𝟑𝟖
𝟗𝟐𝑼

Examples

1. Carbon 12 contains 6 protons and mass number 12, its written as 126 𝐶

𝐴 = 12, 𝑍 = 6, 𝑛 = 6, 𝑒 = 6

2. Carbon 14 contains 6 protons and mass number 14. Its written as 146𝐶

𝐴 = 14, 𝑍 = 6, 𝑛 = 8, 𝑒 = 6

56
 RADIO-ACTIVITY

This is the spontaneous breaking up of heavy unstable nucleus to daughter nuclei with emission of
∝ particles, β-particle and/or 𝛾-rays.
Heavy nuclides are generally unstable hence this decay is in attempt to reach a stable state.
Radio-activity is said to be a random process because no particular pattern is followed.

TYPES OF IONISING RADIATIONS

a) Alpha particles (∝)

They are Helium nuclei [ 42He ]
They have a mass of 4times that of hydrogen atom and a charge of +2e where e is the numerical
charge on an electron.

Properties
 They have the least penetrating power among the ionizing radiations.
 They are positively charged hence can be deflected by electric and magnetic field
 They are the best ionizers of gases
 They have the shortest range in air among the ionizing radiations
 When emitted, they are emitted with the same speed
 They are easily absorbed by matter ie stopped by a few centimeters of air/paper.

Note
When a nucleus undergoes ∝ − decay it loses four nucleons, two of which are protons, therefore
mass number A decreases by four while atomic number Z decreases by two.
Thus if a nucleus X becomes a nucleus Y as a result of ∝ −decay then.
𝐴 𝐴−4 4
𝑍𝑋 → 𝑍−2𝑌 + 2𝐻𝑒

(Parent) (Daughter) (∝ Particle)

𝑬𝒙𝒂𝒎𝒑𝒍𝒆
1. Uranium – 238 decays by ∝ −emmission to thorium 234 according to
238 234
92𝑈 → 90𝑇ℎ + 42∝
2. 210
84𝑃𝑜 → 206
82𝑃𝑏 + 42𝐻𝑒
3. Uranium 238
92𝑈 decays by emitting 4 alpha particles to nucleus Z. What is the composition of Z.

Solution

57
 238 219
92𝑈 → 84𝑍 + 4 42𝐻𝑒
Z has 84 protons and 135 neutrons

b) Beta particle (β)

It is a negatively charged electron which is moving at a high speed. It is represented as
[ −10𝑒]

Properties
 It has a higher penetrating power than ∝particle
 It is negatively charged hence deflected by electric and magnetic field.
 It is a moderate ionizer of gases
 It has a moderate range in air
 β particles are emitted by nuclei with various speeds
 It is lighter than ∝ −particle
 Are not easily absorbed by matter ie can penetrate a few millimeters of aluminium.

Note
𝛽-particles are emitted by nuclei which have too many neutrons to be stable. To gain a stable state
one of its neutrons should change into a proton and an electron, when this happens the electron is
immediately emitted as a β-particle.
Thus when a nucleus undergoes β-decay, it’s mass number A does not change and it’s atomic
number Z increases by one
𝐴 𝐴
𝑍𝑋 → 𝑍+1𝑌 + −10𝑒
(Parent) (Daughter) (β - Particle)
𝑬𝒙𝒂𝒎𝒑𝒍𝒆
1. Carbon-14 decays by β-emission to nitrogen- 14 according to
14 14
6𝐶 → 7𝑁 + −10𝑒
2. 235
92𝑈 decays by emitting 3 beta particles to form a daughter nuclei P. Find the nucleon number of P
and its atomic number, hence find the number of neutrons and number of electrons.
Solution
235 235
92𝑈 → 95𝑃 + 3 −10𝑒
Nucleon number= 235, atomic number= 95,
Number of neutrons= 140, number of electrons= 95

58
 c) Gamma rays (𝜸 )
They are electromagnetic waves of very short wave length and they travel with a velocity of tight.

Properties
 They have the highest penetrating power and can only be stopped by thick lead sheet.
 They are electrically neutral hence they can’t be deflected by electric or magnetic field
 They are the poorest ionizers of gases
 They can be diffracted and refracted

Note
Gamma ray decay involves the release of only energy without the change in atomic mass and atomic
number 𝑒. 𝑔
𝐴 𝐴
𝑍𝑋 → 𝑍𝑌 + 𝛾

Passage of radiation in electric and magnetic field

γ - rays

α - particles

β-particles

Radio active source

Passage of radiation in a cloud chamber

a) 𝜶 − 𝒑𝒂𝒓𝒕𝒊𝒄𝒍𝒆𝒔
𝛼 − 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠 Leave heavy straight continuous tracks all with the same range.

b) 𝜷 − 𝒑𝒂𝒓𝒕𝒊𝒄𝒍𝒆𝒔
𝛽 − 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠 Leave thin tracks which indicate that the particles curve in an irregular way.

59
c) 𝜸 − 𝒓𝒂𝒚𝒔
𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠 Leave hairy tracks.

Example

1. a) 12
6𝐶 emits two 𝛼 − 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠, a 𝛽 − 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒 and 𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦s. Write a well balanced equation to
find the atomic number and mass number of the daughter nucleus Y.

Solution

12
6𝐶 → 2 42𝐻𝑒 + 0
−1 𝑒 + 43𝑌 + 𝛾

b) 𝛼, 𝛽 and 𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠 are passed through an electric field below, identify A, B and C

A- 𝛾 𝑟𝑎𝑦
B
A B- 𝛽 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒
C
C- 𝛼 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒

RADIOACTIVE –DECAY

Radioactive decay is the spontaneous disintegration of heavy un stable nuclides by emitting alpha
particles, beta particles and /or gamma rays.

THE RADIOACTIVE –DECAY LAW [𝑵 = 𝑵𝟎 𝒆−𝝀𝒕 ]

The rate of disintegration of a given sample at any time is directly proportional to the
number of atoms, N present at that time ,t.
𝑑𝑁
The number of atoms decaying per second 𝑑𝑡
∝N

Where N is the number of un decayed atoms.

𝑑𝑁
𝑑𝑡
= −𝜆𝑁

Where 𝜆 is decay constant

𝑨 = −𝝀𝑵

60
 Where A is activity or count rate per second and the S.I unit for activity (A) is Becquel (𝐵𝑞)
Definition
Decay constant is the fraction of radioactive atoms which decay per second.

Activity is the number of decays per second.

OR it is the number of radiations emitted per second.

 Activity depends on the number of un decayed particles present. The activity gets less as the
number of un decayed particles get less.
 Activity (rate of decay) cannot be affected by physical conditions like temperature.

HALF LIFE [ 𝒕𝟏 ]
𝟐

Half life of a radioactive element is the time taken for half of the atoms to decay.

Consider the graph below

N0

N0
2

N0
4
N0 N0
16 8

0 t1 2 t1 3 t1 4 t1
2 2 2 2

Examples

1. A radioactive sample has a mass of 16g and half life of 10 days. Find the mass after;

(i) 60 days (ii) 45 days

Solution

61
 Mass remaining (g) Time (days) i) = 0.25𝑔
16 0
8 10
ii) = 0.75𝑔
4 20
2 30
1 40
0.5 50
0.25 60

1
2. The mass of a radioactive sample decays to 16 of its original value after 16 days. Find;

i) Its half life.

ii) Fraction of the ground mass that will be remaining after 20 days.
iii) Fractions of the original mass that will have decayed after 20 days.
Solution
i)

Mass remaining (g) Time (days) Mass remaining (g) Time (days)
M0 0
M0 0 M0 4
M0 t1 2
M0
2 2 4
8
M0 2 t1 M0
12
8
4 2
M0
M0 3 t1 16 16
8 2 M0 20
32
M0 4 t1
16 2
𝑀
Mass remaining = 320
4 𝑡1 = 16
𝑀0
2
Fraction = 32
÷ 𝑀0
𝑡1 = 4 days
2 1
=
Half life is 4 days 32
ii) iii) Fraction decayed
1
=1− 32
31
=
32
3. A radioactive sample has a half life of 3𝑥103 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠.
i) What does the statement half life of 3𝑥103 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 mean

62
 3
ii) How long does it take of the sample to decay
4

Solution
i) It means that the radioactive sample takes 3𝑥103 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 for half its atoms to decay.
3 1
ii) If 4
decay the 4 of the particles remain.

Mass remaining (g) Time (days) Time is 6 𝑥 103 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠

M0 0
M0 3x103
2
M0
6x106
4

1
4. In 168 seconds, the activity of the substance is 8
of its original value, what is the half life of the

substance.
Solution
Mass remaining (g) Time (s) 3 𝑡1 = 168
2
M0 0
M0 t1 𝑡1 = 56 s
2 2 2
M0 2 t1
4
Half life is 56 s
2
M0 3 t1
8 2

5. 𝑋𝑔 of the radioactive material of half life 3 weeks decays and 5.12g remain after 15 weeks.
Determine X.
Solution
Mass remaining (g) Time (Weeks) 𝑋
32
=5.12
X 0
X 3
2 𝑋 = 5.12𝑥32
X
6
4 𝑋 = 163.84𝑔
X
9
8
X
16 12

X 15
32

6. The table below shows the count rate /activity of a certain radioactive material

63
 Count rate 6400 5380 3810 2700 1910

0 1 3 4 7
Time

Plot a suitable graph and use it to determine the half life of the material.

Uses of radioactive decay/ radioactivity

USES RADIOACTIVITY
 Treatment of deep-lying tumors
 Measurement of thickness of metal sheet during manufacture
 Used to determine the exact position of underground pipes and allows leaks to be detected
 Radioactive phosphorous is used to assess the different abilities of plants to take up -
phosphorous from different types of phosphate fertilizer
 Used in radioactive dating

Health hazard
 Causes Mutation (genetic changes)
 Causes Cancer cells

Precautions
 Lead aprons should be worn when dealing with radiations
 Avoid unnecessary exposure to the radiations
 Delicate parts like eyes, brain should not be exposed to the radiations.
 Radio isotopes should be held using tongs.

Nuclear reactions
When a tiny particle such as a neutron penetrates into the nucleus of another particle, a proton may
be ejected.
The total mass number and atomic number on either side of the equation must be the same.
𝐸𝑔
14 4 1 17
7𝑁 + 2𝐻𝑒 → 1 𝐻 + 8𝑂

Examples
1. 160
70 𝐶𝑜 is a radioactive isotope of cobalt which emits a beta particle and a very high energy
gamma rays to form a nucleus X. write a balanced equation for the reaction.

64
 Solution
160 0 160
70 𝐶𝑜 → −1 𝑒 + 𝛾 + 71 𝑋

2. When lithium is bombarded by a neutron, a nuclear reaction occurs which is represented by

the equation below.

6 1 3
3 𝐿𝑖 + 0 𝑛 → 1 𝐻 + 𝑃

Complete the equation and name P

Solution
6 1 3 4
3 𝐿𝑖 + 0 𝑛 → 1 𝐻 + 2 𝑃

P is a helium nuclei ( an alpha particle )

3. When Uranium 235
92 𝑈 is bombarded with a neutron, it splits according to the equation

235 1 92
92 𝑈 + 0 𝑛 → 𝑚
𝑛 𝑃 + 36 𝐾𝑟 + 3 10 𝑛

Find the value of 𝑚 and 𝑛

𝑚 = (235 + 1) − (92 + (3𝑥1))
𝑚 = 141
𝑛 = (93 + 0) − (36 + (3𝑥0))
𝑛 = 56
4. Two alpha particles are produced when an un known particle 𝑋 is used to bombard lithium
7
3 𝐿𝑖 as shown below.
7 1 4 4
3 𝐿𝑖 + 1 𝑋 → 2 𝐻𝑒 + 2 𝐻𝑒

Identify and name particle 𝑋

Solution: it’s a proton

65
 Nuclear Fission and Nuclear Fusion

Nuclear Fission
This is the splitting of a heavy nucleus into two light nuclei by bombardment with an
energetic particle.
During this process a lot of energy is released 𝑒𝑔.
235 1 141 92
92 𝑈 + 0 𝑛 → 56 𝐵𝑎 + 36 𝐾𝑟 + 3 10 𝑛 + 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦

Condition for fission to occur

 The nucleus should be bombarded by a highly energetic particle like a neutron

 There should be a heavy nucleus with isotopes which decay to produce high velocity
neutrons.
Applications of fission

 Its used in production of atomic bombs

 Its also used in production of neutrons
Nuclear Fusion
This is the union of two light nuclei at extremely high temperatures to produce a heavy
nucleus. 𝑒𝑔
2 3 4 1
1 𝐻 + 1 𝐻 → 2 𝐻𝑒 + 0 𝑛 + 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦

Condition for fusion to occur

 High temperature is required to provide the nuclei which are to fuse with the energy
to overcome electrostatic repulsion.
 Particles should approach each other at very high velocities to overcome the strong
nuclear repulsion.
Note:
Solar energy is produced by the process of fusion

SECTIONA
1. The particles emitted by a hot piece of metal are
A. ions C. neutrons
B. protons D. electrons
2. Isotopes of an element.

66
 (i) have same physical properties
(ii) have equal number of protons
(iii) have different number of neutrons
A. (i) only C. (ii) and (iii) only
B. (i) and (ii) only D. (i) and (iii) only
3. Which of the following statements is / are true about X-plates in a cathode ray
oscilloscope.
(i) they control brightness of the screen
(ii) they deflect the electron beam horizontally
(iii) they are connected to the time base circuit
A. (i) and (ii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only
B. (i) and (iii) only D. (i) , (ii)and (iii) only
4. A radioactive material has a half-life of 3minutes. Find how long it takes a sample of mass
900𝑔 to decays to 56.25𝑔.
A. 4min B. 12min C. 16min D. 48min
5. A heated cathode of a vacuum tube emits
A. Protons B. neutrons C. electrons D. neucleons
6. Which of the following statements is correct about electrons in an atom?
(i) they are negatively charged
(ii) they revolve around the nucleus
(iii) they are found in the nucleus of the atom
A. (i) only C. (i) and (iii) only
B. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i) and (ii) only
7. Which of the following are advantages of a cathode ray oscilloscope when used as a
voltmeter.
(i) the electron beam acts as a pointer of negligible inertia
(ii) it draws more current from the circuit
(iii) it measure 𝑎. 𝑐 and 𝑑. 𝑐 voltages
A. (iii) only C. (i) and (iii) only
B. (ii) only D. (i) , (ii) and (iii)
8. Figure below shows a graph of variation of activity with time for a radioactive material

67
 60

50

40
Activity
30

20

10

10 20 30 40 60 (years)
50 Time

Find the half-life of the material

A. 10y B. 15y C. 20y D. 30y
9. Which of the nuclei 235 238
92 𝑊 , 92 𝑋 ,
218
84 𝑌 and 218
83 𝑍 are isotopes?

A. W and Y B. X and Z C. Y and Z D. W and X

10. Which one of the following is not a radioactive emission?
A. 𝑋 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠 B. 𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠 C. α – particles D. 𝛽 − 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠
11. In a cathode ray oscilloscope, the
A. horizontal plat deflect the electron beam in the Y-direction
B. electrons are accelerated towards the screen by the grid
C. vacuum hinders the motion of the electrons
D. electrons are emitted from heated anode
12. The radium 226
88𝑅𝑎 nuclide has
A. 138 protons and 88 neutrons C. 138 electrons and 88 neutrons
B. 138 neutrons and 88 protons D. 138 protons and 88 electrons
13. Which one of the following wave patterns on a C.R.O. represents sound of the highest
pitch.

A B C D

14. An element X has atomic mass of 228 and atomic number 90. It emits an β-particle
forming an element Y. The symbol for Y is
A. 224
88 𝑌 B. 228
90 𝑌 C. 228
89 𝑌 D. 228
91 𝑌

15. An isotope of a nuclide 35

17𝑋 has

68
 A. 18 protons and 17 neutrons C. 17 protons and 20 neutrons
B. 17 electrons and 18 neutrons D. 18 protons and 18 neutrons

16. Which of the following equations represents a nuclear process in which an α- particle is
emitted ?
A. 234
90𝑇ℎ → 234
91𝑃𝑎 C. 234
91𝑃𝑎 → 234
92𝑈

B. 234
92𝑈 → 230
90𝑇ℎ D. 222
86𝑅𝑛 → 236
88𝑈

17. The X and Y-plates in a cathode ray oscilloscope make up the

A. electron gun C. focusing system
B. deflecting system D. accelerating system
18. Cathode rays are
A. electromagnetic waves C. protons emitted by a hot cathode
B. streams of X-rays D. streams of electrons moving at high speed
19. Which of the following gives the difference between α-particles and β-particles
A. The charge of an α-particles is +2 while that of and β-particles is -1
B. An α-particle is an electron while the β-particle is a helium atom
C. β-particles are more ionizing than α-particles
D. β-particles are heavier than α-particles
20. The particle that are emitted from a hot metal surface are called
A. electron B. neutrons C. proton D. alpha
21.
Magnet When a beam of 𝛽 − 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠 is directed
W between poles of a magnet as shown above, it

N
X will be deflected in the direction.
β- particles
A. W B. X
S
Y Z C. Y D. Z

22. 236
92 𝑋 and 232𝑍 𝑋 are isotopes of an element. Find the number of neutrons in the
nucleus of 232𝑍 𝑋
A. 144 B. 140 C. 92 D. 4
23. A nickel nuclide, 60
28 𝑁𝑖 contains

A. 28 protons and 28 neutrons C. 28 protons and 32 neutrons

B. 32 electrons and 28 neutrons D. 28 electrons and 32 protons

69
 24. 2
Figure above show a decay curve for a
600 radioactive element. What is the half life of this
Activity ( count per mnute)

element?
450
A. 15 minutes
300 B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
150
D. 60 minutes

20 40 60 80
Time (minutes)

25. The activity of a radioactive element with a half life of 30 days is 2400 counts per second.
Find the activity of the element after 120 days
A. 75 counts per second C. 300 counts per second
B. 150 counts per second D. 600 counts per second
26. 24
11𝑁𝑎
→ 𝑌 𝑍
𝐴
+ −10 𝛽
A radioisotope of sodium atom decays by emission of a beta particle as shown in the equation
above. Find the values of A and Z
A Z
A. 24 10
B. 24 11
C. 24 12
D. 24 13
27.

metal plates. Which of the following is

+ correct?. The beam
Electron beam
A. is deflection towards the positive
-
B. is deflected towards the negative
C. moves perpendicular to plates
Figure above shows a beam of electrons
D. passes through the plates un deflected
incident mid way between two charged

28. A radioactive sample of 16g has a half –life of 6 days. How much of it will be left after 24
days
A. 1 g B. 4 g C. 32 g D. 48 g

70
29. An atom contains 3 electrons, 3 protons and 4 neutrons. Its nucleon number is
A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7
30. The process by which electrons are emitted from the surface of a metal by application of
heat is known as
A. photoelectric emission C. thermionic emission
B. electromagnetic emission D. heat emission
31. In the diagram below, an electron beam XY enters an electric field between plates A and B as
shown below.
+1kV which one is the possible route of movement
A P of the electrons
electrons
x Q
A. YS
B S R B. YR
- C. YQ
D. YP
32. Radium nucleus 226
88𝑅𝑎 decays to Randon (Rn) by α- particle emission. What is the nuclear

equation for this reaction?

A. 226
88𝑅𝑎 → 3
2𝐻𝑒 + 223
86𝑅𝑛 C. 4
2𝐻𝑒 + 222
86𝑅𝑛 → 226
88𝑅𝑎

B. 226
88𝑅𝑎 → 42𝐻𝑒 + 222
86𝑅𝑛 D. 226
88𝑅𝑎 → 1
0𝑛 + 225
86𝑅𝑛

33. Which of the following parts of the cathode ray tube form the electron gun?
A. Cathode, metal anode, heater, grid
B. Grid, metal anode, cathode, Y-plates
C. Cathode, grid, heater, X-plates
D. Cathode, metal anode, grid, heater, X-plates, Y-plates
34. State the radiations that may be emitted by a radioactive substance
A. Alpha, gamma and X-rays C. Gamma, alpha and beta
B. Cathode rays, X-rays and beta D. Cathode rays, X-rays and alpha
35. Which one of the sketches below represents the wave form observed in a C.R.O connected
across an a.c supply when the time-base of the C.R.O is on?

A B C D

36. The phenomenon by which electrons are released from a metal surface when radiation falls
on it is known as

71
 A. radioactivity C. thermionic emission
B. photoelectric effect D. reflection
37. The brightness of the spot on a C.R.O screen is controlled by
A. X-plate B. Anode C. grid D. cathode
38. The half-life of a radioactive 10s. How long will it take for mass of 16 g of that substance to
reduce to 2 g.
A. 40s B. 30s C. 20s D. 10s
39. When uranium 235 is bombarded with a neutron, it splits according to the equation
235
92𝑈 + 01𝑛 → 𝑀
𝑁 𝑃 + 92
36𝐾𝑟 + 3 01𝑛
M and N on P represent
M N
A. 56 141
B. 141 56
C. 199 36
D. 107 128
40. The brightness on the screen of a T.V set is determined by
A. darkness in the room
B. the size of the screen
C. the number of electrons reaching the screen
D. the direction of the aerial
41. Which of the following radiations is emitted from the nucleus of an atom
A. Cathode rays C. infra red rays
B. gamma rays D. ultra violet rays
42. The count rate from a radioactive source is 138 counts per minute when the background
rate is 10 counts per minute. If the half- life of the source is 6 days. Find the count rate after
18 days.
A. 16.0 B. 17.25 C. 26 D. 42
43. In an atomic bomb, energy is produced by
A. fusion C. radioactivity
B. fission D. thermionic emission
44. Which of the following are attracted towards the negative plate in an electric field
A. Beta particles B. Alpha particles C. Gamma rays D. Neutrons
45. A rectifier is used to
A. step up an 𝑎. 𝑐 voltage B. amplify an 𝑎. 𝑐 current

72
C. change an 𝑎. 𝑐 voltage to 𝑑. 𝑐 voltage D. change a 𝑑. 𝑐 voltage to an 𝑎. 𝑐 voltage
46. The cathode ray oscilloscope may be used to
(i) measure energy
(ii) measure potential difference
(iii) display wave forms
A. (i) only C. (ii) and (iii) only
B. (i) and (ii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
47. Which of the following are properties of cathode rays?
(i) They travel in straight lines
(ii) They can penetrate thick sheet of paper
(iii) They darken a photographic plate
(iv) They are deflected by a magnetic field
A. (i), (iii) and (iv) only C. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
B. (i), (ii) and (iv) only D. (iv) only
48. Which of the following represents the appearance on the screen of a cathode ray
oscilloscope when a 𝑑. 𝑐 voltage is connected across the Y-plate with the time- base
switched on

A B C D

49. Thorium has a half-life of 24 days. How many days would it take 8 g of thorium to
disintegrate to 1 g
A. 3 B. 24 C. 72 D. 96
50. Which one of the following is a property of X-rays?
A. They are deflected by magnetic field C. They can cause photo-electric emission
B. They can ionize matter D. They are electrically charged particles
51.

a b

Figures (a) shows a spot on the screen of a cathode ray oscilloscope. The spot can be turned
into a horizontal straight line as shown in figure b) by
A. switching off the time-base C. making one of the plates positive
B. switching on the time-base D. connecting an 𝑎. 𝑐 voltage to the Y-plate

73
52. A possible isotope of 7
3 𝐿𝑖

A. 2 protons and 3 neutrons C. 3 protons and 4 neutrons

B. 2 protons and 4 neutrons D. 4 protons and 2 protons
53. 228
90 𝑇ℎ → 𝐴
𝑍 𝑋 + 𝑎𝑙𝑝ℎ𝑎 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠
The above equation represents an activity in which thorium decays and emits an alpha
particle. Find the value of Z
A. 88 B. 89 C. 91 D. 92
54. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves
A. X-rays C. Microwaves
B. Radar waves D. Sound waves
55. What is the process by which electrons are emitted from a hot filament
A. Radioactivity C. Thermionic emission
B. Nuclear reaction D. Thermoelectric effect
56. Elements X emits radiation r and forms element Y as given in the equation
𝑨 𝑨
𝒁𝑿 → 𝒁−𝟏 𝒀 + 𝒓

While A and Z are mass and atomic numbers respectively, radiation r is

A. alpha particles C. gamma rays
B. beta particles D. X-rays
57. The atomic number of an electron is the number of
A. protons in its atom C. electrons and protons in its atom
B. neutrons in its atom D. neutrons and protons in its atom
58. Nuclear fission occurs when
A. uranium is heated to a very high temperature
B. two deuterium (heavy hydrogen) atoms come tighter
C. a hydrogen molecule splits into two atoms
D. nuclei of uranium atoms split into lighter nuclides
59. The half-life of a radioactive elements is 10 days. Find the mass left after 40 days if the
initial mass is 16 g
A. 1 g B. 2 g C. 4 g D. 8 g
60.

+
Electron beam

74
 A beam of electrons is incident mid way between two charged plates as shown above. The
beam will
A. deflected upwards C. move perpendicular to the plates
B. deflected downwards D. pass through the plates un deflected
61.

The diagram above shows a beam of electrons directed to pass between the poles of a
magnet. The electron beam would be.
A. deflected towards the south pole C. slowed down
B. deflected downwards D. reflected backwards
62. X-rays are
A. electrons of high velocity C. neutrons of high velocity
B. particles of negative charge D. electromagnetic waves
63. An alternating current can be changed to direct current by a
A. transformer C. dynamo
B. moving coil galvanometer D. diode
Section B
1. (a) Describe the composition of 238
92 𝑈

(b) A radioactive nuclide 235

92 𝑋 emits an alpha particle and a new nuclide Y is formed. Write a

balanced equation to represent this nuclear change

(C) Give two applications of nuclear energy
2. (a) Give two differences between cathode rays and X-rays
(b) Why is there
(i) a cooling system in an X-ray tube ?
(ii) a vacuum in an X-ray tube?
3. (a) State any two properties of alpha particles
(b) Radon 22286 𝑅𝑛 decays to radium isotope Ra, by emission of two beta particles according to the

following equation.
222 𝐴
86𝑅𝑛 → 88𝑅𝑎 + 2 −10𝑒
(i) What is the value of A?
(ii) How many neutrons does the nucleus of radium isotope have?
4. (a) What is the purpose of a vacuum in the X-ray tube

75
 (b) State three reasons why it is possible to detect fractures in bones using X-rays
5. (a) What is meant by the term radioactivity
(𝑖) (𝑖𝑖) (𝑖𝑖𝑖)
(b) 234
90𝐴 → 234
90𝐵 → 234
92𝐶 → 230
90𝐷

(i) The above equation shows three stage (i), (ii) and (iii) of the series
(ii) Which of the nuclei A, B,C and D are isotopes
- + The figure above shows the diagram of an X-
High voltage
ray tube
F
D (a) Name the part labelled E
(b) What is the function of the part labelled F
(c) Why is the X-ray tube evacuated
E (d) State two precautions to be taken when
using X-rays

7. (a) What is meant by radioactivity?

𝑦
(b) 235 1 236
92 𝑈 + 0 𝑛 → 92 𝑈 →
144 1
𝑥 𝐵𝑎 + 36𝐾𝑟 + 2 0 𝑛 + 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦
The equation above show a reaction which takes place in a nuclear reactor
(i) Name the reaction shown by the equation
(ii) Find x and y
8. (a)
I II III

Source
Paper Sheet of aluminium

A piece of paper and a thin sheet of aluminum are placed near a radioactive source as shown.
If three different types of radiations are emitted, identify the radiations in
(i) region I (ii) region II (iii) region III
(b) What would be effect of an electric field on radiations in regions III
9.
B Figure above shows the main features of a
A
cathode ray oscilloscope (C.R.O)

(a) (i) Name the parts labeled A, B and C

(ii) State the function of the parts
C
labelled B
(b) State three applications of a C.R.O

76
10.

R a) Figure above shows the main parts of a

P
Q cathode ray oscilloscope. Name the parts
labelled P, Q, R and T
b) State the functions of the parts labelled Q
and T
T

11. (a) What is meant by

(i) mass number (ii) atomic number
(b) Name any two radiations emitted by a radioactive substance

12. (a) What is meant by radioactivity

(b) A radioactive material takes 50 hours for 93.75% of its mass to decay. Find its half-life
13. (a) (i) What is meant by nuclear fission
(ii) Give one method of starting the process in (a) (i)
(b) (i) Account for the energy released in nuclear fission
(ii) State one use of nuclear energy
14. (a) What is thermionic emission
(b) (i) State the function of a fluorescent screen on a C.R.O
(ii) Give two applications of a C.R.O
15.

(a) Name the radiation labelled A, B and C

+ ve A
(b) what can you deduce about the charges of
Radioactive B
source the radiation
- ve
C (c) what happens when the radio active source
is completely covered with an ordinary
A radioactive source emits radiations which
sheet of paper
are directed between two positive charged
metal plates as shown above

16. (a) What is meant by thermionic emission

77
 (b) State two difference between cathode rays and X-rays
(c) In the production of X-rays in an X-ray tube, why the target must be cooled
17. The symbol 235
92 𝑈 denotes a uranium nucleus

(a) what is the meaning of

(i) 235? (ii) 92?
(b) Write down a balanced nuclear equation showing the decay of 235
92 𝑈 to a nuclide X

by emission of an alpha particle

18. (a) What is a radioactive nuclide
(b) A radioactive element, X decays by emitting an alpha particle and gamma rays.
Write a balanced equation for the decay.
(c) State what happens to a beta particle as it passes in between two oppositely charged
plates
19. (a) What is thermionic emission
(b)
X (i) The diagram above shows a
T thermionic diode. Name the parts
labelled X and Y
Y
(ii) Describe briefly how electrons are
made to move across the tube T

Paper 2
1. (a) (i) Define the term half- life as applied to radioactivity
(iii) A radioactive material has a half life of 5 minutes. If the initial mass of the material is
120g, calculate the mass that decays after 20minutes.
(iii) Sketch a graph of the number of atoms of a radioactive material present against time to
show how the half –life is determined from it.
(b) Explain the nature of the tracks of alpha particles and beta particles in air
(e) How does the passage of a beta particle through an electric field differ from that of an X-ray?

2. (a) List any two differences between X-rays and gamma rays
(b) With the aid of a labelled diagram describe how X-rays are produced
(c) What are the differences between hard and soft X-rays ?
(d) Define the following

78
 (i) radioactive nuclide
(ii) isotopes
(g) Outline three uses of radioactivity
3. (a) What is meant by thermionic emission
(b) (i) Name the three main components of a cathode ray oscilloscope (C R O)
(ii) Describe the functions of each components you have named in (b) (i)
(iii) Give two uses of a C.R.O
(C) State the condition under which electrons can be used to generate X-rays
(d) Give one use of X-rays
4. (a) Distinguish between thermionic emission and photoelectric emission
(b)
Ultra violet
Zinc
Ultra violet radiations is incident on a clean
radiations
zinc plate resting on the cap of a charged gold
leaf electroscope as shown above. Explain
what is observed if;
Gold leaf electroscope

(i) the gold leaf electroscope is positively

charged
(ii) radio waves is used instead of
ultraviolet radiations

(vii) (i) With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe how X-rays are produced in an X-ray tube
(ii) Explain why soft X-rays are used instead of hard X-rays to take photographs of
internal parts of a patient in hospital
20. (a) What is meant by
(i) radioactivity
(ii) half life
(b) What happens to activity of a radioactive material when its
(i) mass is increased
(ii) temperature is increased
(c) A material is wrapped in a photographic film and kept in a dark room. When the
photographic film is removed, it is found to be darkened.
(i) Identify the material

79
 (ii) Explain the observation
(viii) A radioactive substance of mass 60 g takes 400 years for its mass to be reduced to 15
g. Find its half- life
(ix) State
(i) two industrial and two medical uses of radioactivity
(ii) two health hazards of radioactivity
21. (a) (i) What are cathode rays?
(ii) State two differences between gamma rays and cathode rays
(b) Describe a simple experiment to distinguish the three radiations that are emitted by
radioactive materials
(c) A radioactive element has a half life of 4 minutes. Given that the original count rate is
256 counts per minute,
i. find the time taken to reach a count rate of 16 counts per minute
ii. what fraction of the original number of atoms will be left by the time the count rate
is 16 counts per minute
(d) (i) Which of the following nuclei belong to the same element
24
11 𝑋 , 24
12 𝑌 , 25
11 𝑍

(ii) what is nuclear fusion?

22. (a) What are X-rays
(b) With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe the structure and operation of an X-ray tube
(c) Explain briefly how each of the following can be increased in an X-ray tube:
(i) intensity of X-rays
(ii) penetrating power of X-rays
(d) State four ways in which X-rays are similar to gamma rays
(e) Give two biological uses of X-rays
12. (a) (i) Distinguish between nuclear fusion and nuclear fission
(ii) State one example where nuclear fusion occurs naturally
(b) State one use of nuclear fission
(c) The following nuclear reaction takes place when a neutron bombards a sulphur
atom.
34 𝑎
16𝑆 + 10𝑛 → 𝑏𝑌

(i) Describe the composition of the nuclide, Y formed

(ii) The nuclide, Y decays by emission of an α- particles and a γ-ray. Find the changes in
mass number and atomic number of the nuclide
(iii) state two properties of α-particles

80
 (d) The half-life of the isotope cobalt-60 is five years. What fraction of the isotope remain
after 15 years
(e) State;
(i) one medical use of radioactive
(ii) two ways of minimizing the hazardous effects of radiation from radioactive materials
23. (a) Draw a labelled diagram to show the main bands of the electromagnetic spectrum
(b) (i) With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe how X-rays are produced in an x-
ray tube.
(ii) State two applications of X-rays.
(c) The half-life of a radioactive substance is 3hours. Find how long it takes for the
mass of the substance to reduce to one-quarter of its original mass.
24. (a) (i) What is meant by cathode rays
(ii) With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe how cathode rays are
produced by thermionic emission
(b) With reference to the cathode ray oscilloscope, describe
(i) the function of the time-base
(ii) how the brightness is regulated
(c) A cathode ray oscilloscope (C.R.O) with time base switched on is connected across a
power supply. The wave form shown below is obtained
(i) identify the type of voltage generated
by the power supply
(ii) find the amplitude of the voltage
A
B generated if the voltage gain is 5 𝑉 𝑐𝑚−1
(iii) Calculate the frequency of the power
source if the time base base setting on
the C.R.O is 5.0𝑥 10−3 𝑠 𝑐𝑚−1

Distance between each line is 1cm

25. (a) What is meant by the following
(i) thermionic emission (ii) photo-electric effect
(b) (i) State the condition necessary for photo electric effect to take place
(ii) With aid of a labelled diagram, describe how an alternating current can be fully
rectified
(c) Explain how leakage of charge occurs at the ends of sharp conductors

81
 26. (a)
B The diagram above shows the main parts
A
of a cathode ray oscilloscope (C.R.O)
(i) Name the parts labelled A, B, and C
(ii) Why is the C.R.O evacuated

(b) (i) Describe briefly the principle of operation of C.R.O

(ii) How is the bright spot formed on the screen
(c) Use diagrams to show what is observed on the screen of a C.R.O when
(i) the C.R.O is switched on and no signal is applied to the Y-plate
(ii) the time – base is switched on and no signal is applied to the Y-plate
(iii) an alternating signal is applied to the Y-plate while the time- base is
switched off
(d) Give two uses of the C.R.O
27. (a) Describe a simple model of the atom
(b) Define the following terms
(i) Atomic number (ii) Isotopes of an element
(c) State two differences between an α-particle and a β-particle
(d) (i) What is meant by nuclear fission and nuclear fusion
(ii) Give one example of where each one occurs
28. (a) Name the electromagnetic radiation which
(i) causes sensation of heat
(ii) passes through a thin sheet of lead
(iii) is used in a satellite communications
(iv) is used for remote control of a television receiver
The diagram below shows main parts of an X-ray tube

B
D (b) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D
A C
(C) List in order the energy changes which
occur in the x-ray tube
(d) Describe one industrial use of x-rays

82
 (e) (i) What is meant by the half-life of a radioactive material
(ii) The activity of a radioactive source decrease from 4000 counts per minute to 250
counts per minute in 40 minutes. What is the half-life of the source.
29. (a) Define half-life of a radioactive substance
1𝑡ℎ
(b) The mass of a radioactive substance decays to a 16
of its original mass after16 days

what
(i) is its half-life?
(ii) fraction of original mass will have decayed after 20 days
(d)

232 228 228 228

90X Y
88 89
Z 89
Z
A B C

(i) Identify the particles or radiations A, B and C emitted in the decay process
shown above
(ii) state two differences between radiations A and B
(iii) Name two health hazards of radioactivity
(iv) What is the difference between nuclear fusion and nuclear fission?

30. (a) (i) What is meant by a radioisotopes?

(ii) State one biological and one industrial application of radioisotopes
(b) Describe what happens when a beam of radiations consisting of α, β and γ-rays is
incident on a thin sheet of lead
(c)
- A + The diagram in the figure shows the
essential parts of an X-ray tube
(i) Name the part labelled A, B, C,
B
F D, E and F
C D (ii) State the function of each part
E
(iii) Describe how x-rays are
produced

(d) What safety precautions must be taken in an X-ray Laboratory?

31. (a) What is an alpha particle?

83
 (b) A radioactive source decays by
A
emission of all the three radiations. The
radiation enter normally into an electric
+ B
+ field as shown above. Which radiation are
+C
+ most likely to be detected at

Radioactive (i) position A

source (ii) position B
(iii) position C

(c)
radiations

Card board Aluminum Lead sheet

sheet

A radioactive source which emits all the three radiations is placed in front of cardboard,
aluminum and lead sheets as shown above. Name the radiation likely to be between the;
(i) Cardboard and the aluminum sheet
(ii) aluminum and lead sheets
(d) Name any three precautions which must be undertaken by one working with ionizing
radiation
(e) Name one industrial and one biological use of radioactivity
32. (a) What is meant by the term
(i) isotopes (ii) Atomic number?
(b) (i) Name and state the nature of the emission from radioactive nuclides
(ii) What effects does each of the emissions have on the parent nuclide
(C) A radioactive sample has a half-life of 3𝑥103years
(i) What does the statement half-life of 3𝑥103years mean
(ii) How long does it take for three-quarters of the sample to decay
(d) Give two uses of radioactivity

84
 MAGNETISM AND ELECTROMAGNETISM
MAGNETISM
A magnet is a substance which is able to attract a magnetic substance and it always points
south-north direction when freely suspended.

Ferro magnetic / magnetic substances

These are substances which can be attracted by magnets.
𝑒. 𝑔 Iron, steel, cobalt, tin, nickel 𝑒. 𝑡. 𝑐

Non-magnetic substances
These are substances which cannot be attracted by a magnet.
𝑒. 𝑔 Rubber, glass, copper tin, bronze, plastic 𝑒. 𝑡. 𝑐

Properties of a magnet
 Like poles repel and unlike poles attract
 When freely suspended it rest in the north- south direction with the north facing
geographic north.
 Magnetic field lines run from north to south
 Magnetic force of attraction and repulsion is greatest at the poles.

Magnetic meridian
S
Magnetic axis
N

When a freely suspended magnet rest in an approximate North- South direction.

The pole which points the north is called the North Pole (N) and the other is called South
Pole (S).

(i) Magnetic axis

It is the central line joining the two poles
Or it is a line through the magnet about which the magnets magnetism is
symmetrical.

85
 (ii) Magnetic meridian
It is a vertical plane in which a freely suspended magnet rests.

(iii) Pole
This is a point on a magnet where the resultant attractive force appears to be
concentrated.

Laws of magnetism
It states that like poles repel each other and unlike poles attract each other.

Determination of the polarity of a magnet

 The polarity of a magnet can be determined by bringing both poles in turn near to the
known pole of a suspended magnet.
 Repulsion indicates similar polarity.

Note: Repulsion is the only sure test for the polarity of a magnet since attraction
indicates two unlike poles or a pole and a magnet

THEORY OF MAGNETISM (DOMAIN THEEORY)

A magnet is made up of very many tiny magnets with their north poles pointing the same
direction.
These tiny magnet are called dipoles.
 In a magnetized state all the dipoles face the same direction

Magnetized state

 In un magnetized state the domains are randomly arranged, the pole of one being neutral
by the south pole of another.

Un Magnetized state

86
 Magnetization / Preparation of a magnet
a) Stroking method
(i) Single touch method
 In single touch method, a steel bar is stroked
N from one end to another several times in the
same direction using the same pole of a
Permanent magnet permanent bar magnet.
 At the end of each stroke, the magnet is lifted
S
up high above the steel bar.
S N  The pole produced at the end of the steel bar
where the stroke ends is opposite to that of
Steel bar
the stroking pole.

(ii) Divided / double touch method

S N

Permanent magnet Permanent magnet

N S

S N

Steel bar

 The steel bar is stroked from the center out wards with unlike poles simultaneously several
times.
 At the end of each stroke both magnets are lifted up high above the steel bar.
 The poles produced at the ends of each stroke of the steel bar are opposite to the stroking
poles respectively.

b) Electrical method
Solenoid Steel bar

N S

K
d.c

 A steel bar is placed inside a cylindrical solenoid having many turns of a copper wire and
connected to a direct current supply.
 If the current is switched on for a short time and turned off, the steel bar will be
magnetized

87
 The polarity of the magnet can be determined by looking at the end of the bar, if the current
is flowing in a clockwise direction, that end will be South Pole and if it’s flowing in
anticlockwise direction that end will be North Pole.

Demagnetization
It is a process by which magnetization is weakened and finally destroyed.
It is achieved;
(a) Using alternating current (𝑎. 𝑐)
The magnet is demagnetized by placing it in a solenoid through which an 𝑎. 𝑐 is flowing with
the current still flowing, the magnet is slowing removed to a distance away from the
solenoid while in the East – West direction.
(b) Strong heating and allowing it to cool while in an East – West direction.
(c) Hammering while lying in East – West direction.
(d) Keeping like poles of a magnet near each other.

BREAKING A MAGNET
If a magnet is broken into two or more pieces each piece will be a perfect magnet with poles
at either ends because each particle or molecule of a magnet is itself a complete magnet.
It is impossible to obtain a separate north or South Pole.
N S
N S N S
N S N S N S N S

MAGNETIC KEEPERS
A bar magnet tends to become weaker with age, owing to self-demagnetization. This is
caused by reversal of the direction atomic dipoles at the end of the poles of a magnet.
In order to prevent this bar magnets are stored in pairs with their opposite poles adjacent
to each other using small pieces of soft iron called keepers placed across their ends.
Magnets

S N SN
Soft iron core

N S NS

These two poles neutralize each other

88
 MAGNETIC SCREENING / SHIELDING
The concentration of lines of force in soft iron can be used to shield objects from unwanted
magnetism.
Delicate measuring instruments which are liable to be affected by external magnetic fields
can be protected by enclosing them in thick walled soft iron ring.

S Steel N
nails

Iron ring

Soft magnetic materials

These are materials which can easily be magnetized and also lose their magnetism easily.
Example is iron
Application
They are used in construction of electric bells, relays, electromagnets, transformers

Hard magnetic materials

These are materials which are not easily magnetized but take too long to lose their
magnetism.
Example is steel
Application
They are used in construction of electric mortars, dynamos, loud speakers, telephone
receivers.
Experiment to distinguish between soft and hard magnetic materials
 A strip of iron and steel of the same dimension both initially un magnetized are suspended
side by side in contact with a pole of a permanent magnet. Both strips become magnetized
by induction.
 Dip both steel and iron in iron fillings

S S

Steel Iron
N N

 More iron fillings cling to iron indicating iron is easily magnetized than steel.
 Remove the strips from the magnet, more iron fillings remain on steel indicating that steel is
not easily demagnetized and iron is easily demagnetized.

89
 Magnetic field
This is the space around a magnet where magnetic force is exerted.
The field is strong close to the poles of a magnet and gets weaker further away.
The magnetic field is represented by lines of magnetic force called magnetic flux and they
can be traced by use of a plotting compass or iron fillings.
Magnetic field lines start from North Pole and end on the South Pole and never touch nor
cross each other.
Magnetic field line patterns
(a) a bar magnet

S N

(b) two like poles close to each other

S x S N x N

X- Is the neutral point

Neutral point is defined as a point at which the resultant magnetic flux density is zero.

(c) two un like poles close to each other

N S

S N

Earth’s magnetic field

They run from geographic south to geographic north

This shows that the earth behaves like a magnet with the North Pole in the southern
hemisphere and South Pole in the north hemisphere.

90
 A bar magnet in earth’s magnetic field (Combined magnetic field)
a) A bar magnet with its north pole on the earth geographic south

X Magnetic north

b) A bar with its north pole in the earth geographic south

N Magnetic north

X X
S

𝑿- Is the neutral point:

Neutral point is defined as a point at which the resultant magnetic flux density is zero

Specification of the earth’s magnetic field

α Geographic meridian
d
BH
BV
B
Magnetic meridian
BV

91
 Geographic meridian of a place:
This is a vertical plane containing the place and the earth axis of rotation.
Magnetic meridian of a place:
This is a vertical plane containing the magnetic axis of a freely suspended magnet under the
influence of the earth magnetic field.
Angle of declination(𝜶):
This is the angle between the magnetic meridian and geographic meridian
Angle of Dip (Angle of inclination):
This is the angle between the earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal.

SECTION A
1. The figure below shows a magnetic field pattern around magnetic poles W, X, Y and Z

W Z

X Y

Which one of the following is correct about the poles W, X, Y and Z?

A. X and Z repel each other and they are North poles
B. Z and Y attract each other and will have a neutral point between them
C. X and Z repel each other and will have a neutral point between them
D. Y and W repel each other and they are both North poles
2. Which one of the following is correct about the molecular theory of magnets?
A. Dipoles of a magnetized material face the same direction
B. Un magnetized magnetic materials have no molecular magnets
C. Magnetic keepers reduce the magnetic force of the dipoles
D. Un magnetized magnetic materials have molecular magnets arranged in an orderly
manner
3. The figure below shows magnetic field lines between two magnetic poles. The poles marked P, Q, X
and Y are respectively
A. north, south, south and north
B. south, north, north and south
P Q x X Y
C. north, north, south and north
D. south, south, north and south

4. The figure above shows a pattern of iron fillings between two magnetic poles P and Q . Which one
of the following is true?
(i) P and Q are liked poles
(ii) Pole P is strong than Pole Q
P X Q (iii) X is a neutral point
A. (i) only B. (i) and (ii) only
C. (ii) and (iii) D. (i),(ii) and (iii)

92
5. A magnet can be made to lose its strength by
(i) Heating
(ii) Throwing it violently
(iii) Putting it in a solenoid carrying direct current
A. (i) and (iii) only B. (ii) and (iii) only
C. (i) and (ii) only D. (i) , (ii) and (iii)
6.

1
3 4

The figure above shows the superposition of the earth’s magnetic field and the field due to a
magnet. Identify point marked 1, 2, 3 and 4
1 2 3 4
A South pole North pole Neutral point Neutral point
B North pole South pole Neutral point Neutral point
C Neutral point Neutral point North pole South pole
D Neutral point Neutral point South pole North pole

7. A magnetic material can be magnetized by

(i) Stroking with a permanent magnet
(ii) Using a direct current
(iii) By induction
A. (i) only B. (i) and (ii) only
C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
8.
P Q
P Q A N pole S pole
B N pole N pole
C S pole S pole
D S pole Un magnetised iron bar
In the figure above name the polarities
P and Q
9. Which of the following statements is not true about magnets?
A. Magnetic poles cannot be separated
B. Paramagnetic material is a material from which strong magnet can be made
C. The neutral point in a magnetic field is a point where there is no force experienced
D. Heating a magnet can reduce its magnetism.
10. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) The particles of magnetic materials are tiny magnets
(ii) The particle is un magnetized iron arrange themselves in close chairs
(iii) The particles in a magnet are arranged in open chains with N pole of one particle
against the S pole of its neighboring particle.

93
 (iv) groups of atoms form a magnetic domain
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. (i) , (iii) and (iv) only
C. (ii) and (iv) only D. (iv) only
11. Which one of the following diagrams shows the correct arrangement of the magnetic domains in a
magnetized material?

A B C D

12. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about molecular theory of magnetism?
A. breaking a magnet into two results to the formation of two magnet
B. heating and rough treatment destroys magnetism
C. the poles of a magnet are of equal strength
D. The lines of force travel from a north pole towards a south pole.
13. Four bars of metal P, Q, R, S are tested for magnetism. Q attracts both P and R but not S. S does not
attract P ,Q or R. P and R sometimes attracts one another and sometimes repel each other . Which
of the following statements is correct about P,Q,R and S?
A. P,Q and R are magnets, S is a magnetic
B. P and Q are magnets, R and S magnetic
C. P and R are magnets , Q is magnetic, S is non magnetic
D. P and R are magnets, Q and S are non magnetic.

SECTIONB
1. (a) What is meant by neutral point as applied to a magnetic field?
(b) (i) Draw a diagram to show the magnetic field pattern due to an iron ring placed in the
earth’s magnetic field
(ii) State one application of the effect illustrated in b (ii)
2. (a) What is magnetic field?
(b) Figure below shows the head of a cassette tape recorder
Tape (i) Explain why a current through the wire
causes the tape to become magnetized
(ii) The tape is usually made of plastic and
Wire coated with a thin layer of iron oxide.
Core
Why is iron oxide used?

3. (a) The diagram below shows tow identical bar magnets placed close to each other. On
the diagram, draw the resultant magnetic field pattern.
N S N

(b) (i) Explain each of the following observations.

(i) A magnet hot stored in soft iron keepers becomes weaker.
4. (a) What is a neutral point in a magnetic field?
(b)

94
 N S
The diagram above shows a straight conductor carrying current vertically upwards placed
near a bar magnet. Sketch the magnetic field pattern around the wire and magnet.
5. (a) List two ways by which a magnet may lose its magnetic properties.
(b)

Steel The figure above shows an iron ring

S N
nails between two opposite magnetic poles.
(i) Sketch the magnetic lines of force on the
diagram
Iron ring
(ii) Explain what happens to the steel nails

6. (a) What is a soft magnetic material?

(b) State two ways in which a bar magnet can be demagnetized.
(C)
The figure above shows a straight
S N conductor carrying current between the
Conductor poles of a permanent magnet. Sketch on the
diagram above the resulted magnetic field
carrying current pattern.

95
 ELECTROSTATICS (STATIC ELECTRICITY)
This means electricity at rest. It’s observed;
When a plastic pen is rubbed with a cloth, it will pick up some pieces of paper.
A nylon cloth often crackles when it is taken off and if the room is dark, sparks can be seen
too.
ELECTROSTATICS: Theory of static electricity
To understand static electricity, we look at the structure of an atom.
 An atom is made up of the central part called the nucleus which contains protons and
neutrons, protons are positively charged and neutrons carry no charge.
 Revolving around the nucleus are electrons that are negatively charged
 The protons have an equal number to the electrons hence an atom is electrically
neutral as a whole

Electrification by friction / charging by rubbing or friction

 When two bodies are rubbed together, body with loose electrons will lose its
electrons to a body with firm electrons.
 The body which acquires electrons will have an excess of electrons hence becomes
negatively charged while the body that loses electrons will have a deficiency of
electrons hence it becomes positively charged.
 The number of electrons lost is equal to the number of electrons acquire therefore
two insulating bodies rubbed together acquire equal and opposite charges.

Examples of charging by friction

 When a polythene rod (ebonite rod) is rubbed with fur (woolen duster), the ebonite
rod becomes negatively charged while the duster becomes positively charged.
 If a glass rod (cellulose acetate) is rubbed with silk, a glass rod becomes positively
charged while the silk becomes negatively charged.

Insulators and conductors

Conductor
This is a material with free electrons and it can allow electricity and heat to pass through it.
Examples: Copper, bronze

96
Insulator
This is a material without free electrons and it cannot allow electricity and heat to pass
through it.
Examples: Dry wood, plastic

Semiconductors
These are materials which allow electric charges to pass through them with difficulty.
Examples: Moist air, paper
Law of electrostatics
Like charges repel each other and unlike charges attract each other.

Precautions taken when carrying experiments in electrostatics

(i) Apparatus must be insulated
(ii) The surrounding must be free from dust and moisture

GOLD LEAF ELETROSCOPE (GLE)

Brass cap
Insulator

Glass window
Brass rod
Metal case
Gold leaf
Brass plate
Earthing

Uses of GLE
(i) Test for the presence of charge
(ii) Test the sign of the charge
(iii) To test the magnitude of charge
(iv) Measure 𝑝. 𝑑

Electrostatic induction
It’s a phenomenon that describes the formation of charges on a conductor when a charged
body is brought near it.
The charge acquired is opposite to that of inducing body.

97
 Charging a gold leaf electroscope by induction
(a) Charging G.L.E negatively
i)
+ + + + A positively charged glass rod is brought
near the cap of the G.L.E, negative charges
are induced on the brass cap and positive
++
+ + charges on G.L.E and brass plate.
The gold leaf diverges.
ii)
+ + + + With glass rod still in position, the G.L.E is
earthed momentarily by touching.
e Electrons flow from the earth and neutralize
the positive charge on the brass plate and
gold leaf thus collapses.

iii)
The earthing is broken and the glass rod
removed, the negative charges then
redistribute themselves to the brass cap,
plate and gold leaf thus causing he leaf to
- -
- - diverge.
The electroscope is now negatively charged.
(b) Charging G.L.E negatively
(i)
- - - - A negatively charged polythene rod is brought
+ + + +
near the cap of the G.L.E, positive charge is
induced on the brass cap and negative charge
on the gold leaf and brass plate, the leaf
- -
- - diverges.

(ii)
-
+
- -
+ +
-
+ With the polythene rod still in position, the
e G.L.E is earthed momentarily by touching.
Electrons flow from the brass plate and gold
leaf and the leaf thus collapses.

98
(iii)
The earthing is broken and the polythene rod
+ + + +
removed, the positive charges then
redistribute themselves to the brass cap,
plate and gold leaf thus causing he leaf to
++ diverge.
+ +
The electroscope is now positively charged.

Testing for the sign of charge on a body

 Charge an electroscope negatively as explained above
 Bring the body whose charge is not known near the cap of GLE. If the leaf increases in
divergence then that body is negatively charged, but if the leaf collapses, then that
body has either positive charge or it is neutral
 To differentiate between the two alternatives, discharge the GLE and now charge it
positively
 Bring the same body under test near the cap of appositively charged GLE. If the leaf
divergence increases again, then that body has positive charges but if the leaf
divergence decreases then that body is neutral.
Note: Repulsion is the only confirmatory test for the sign of the charge

Summary
Charge on GLE Charge brought near cap Effect on leaf divergence
Increase(repulsion)
+
+

- - Increase(repulsion)

+ - Decrease (attraction)

- Decrease (attraction)
+

+ or - Uncharged body Decrease (attraction)

99
 Charging a conductor by induction
a) Positively
i)
A B The conductor to be charged is sat on an
insulating stand

ii)

- A negatively charged polythene rod (ebonite

- A ++ --
++ -- B rod) is brought near end A of the conductor.
-
- Some of the free electrons are repelled
towards end B leaving positive charges at
end A
iii)
- With the polythene rod still in position end B
- A ++ B
- ++ is earthed by momentarily touching it and
-
Electrons flow to the electrons flow to the ground
earth

iv)
A ++++ B The finger is then removed and the rod also
removed, the positive charges redistribute
within the conductor.

b) Negatively
i)
A B The conductor to be charged is sat on an
insulating stand

ii)
+ A positively charged glass rod is brought near
+ A -- ++
+ -- ++ B end A of the conductor.
+
Negative charges are induced at the near end
and positive charges at the far end.

iii)

100
 + With the glass rod still in position end B is
+ A -- B
+ -- earthed by momentarily touching it and
+
Electrons flow from electrons flow from the ground to neutralize
the earth
the positive charges.

iv)
A ---- B The finger is then removed and the rod also
removed, the negative charges redistribute
within the conductor.

Separation of conductors
i)

A B
Two identical brass spheres A and B are
placed together so that they touch one
another.
ii)

+
A B A positively charged rod is now brought near
- +
- +
+ --
+
+ end A and as a result negative charge is
+
+ induced at A and positive charges repelled to
B.

iii)
+ -
A B
+ Keeping the positive rod in position, sphere
+ - +
-- +
+ + B is moved a short distance away from B
+

iv)

-
A
- +
B
+
The charged rod is now removed and
- - + +
charges redistribute

Explain how two spherical conductors made of brass can be changed oppositely and
simultaneously by induction.

101
 Distribution of charge over the surface of a conductor.
Surface charge density:
This is the quantity of charge per unit area over the surface of the conductor.
Charge is mostly concentrated at sharp points.
Spherical conductor Rectangular conductor

Pear shaped conductor

Triangular conductor

Note:
Charge only resides on the outside of a hollow conductor

Experiment to show distribution of charge in a hollow conductor.

(Faraday’s ice pail experiment)
Faraday investigated the effect of lowering a charged ball inside a hollow metal can.
Method:
 Place metal can on a G.L.E and a metal sphere suspended on a thread is given a
positive charge and then lowered in the metal can. The leaf of G.L.E diverges due to
positive charge on the can.
 Move the ball around and inside the can without it touching the can.

+ +
+ +
+ + +
+ +
+ + B +
+
+ + +
+ +
+ +

+ +
+
+

Observation:
The divergence of the gold leaf is the same for all positions of a charged ball, B
inside the can.

102
  Allow the sphere to touch the can inside of the can and note the divergence of G.L.E
+ +
+ +
+ +
+ B +
+ +

+ +
+
+

Observation:
There is no change in leaf divergence. This is so because no charge is given or taken
from the can.
 Remove the ball and note the gold leaf divergence
Observation:
When a charged ball is removed after contact, it is totally discharged, the effect of
touching the inside of the hollow can, the charge is transferred from the ball to the
outside of the can

Action at sharp points [Corona discharge]

At sharp points, there is high charge density, which leads to a high electric field. This electric field
ionizes the air molecules around the sharp points. The ions opposite to that on the sharp points
are attracted to the sharp point and neutralize the charge there. This apparent loss of charge by
a conductor is called CORONA DISCHARGE.
Lightening Conductor
A lightning conductor consists of a thick copper strip fixed on a wall reaching the highest point of
the building and ending in several sharp spikes.
Negatively charged cloud together with the negatively charged clouds
gives an intense electric field that ionizes the
+ + + Space charge
air molecules between them.
+ + +
 The positive ions are repelled by the
+ Spike
+
+

positively charged spikes towards the clouds

as space charge. The positive ions may
Copper strip

neutralize the negative charge on the cloud

Copper plate hence reducing its dangerous effect. if it does
not happen, the negative charge is passed to
 When negatively charged clouds pass over
the spikes, it induces positive charges on the the earth through the copper strip thus

spikes and repels negative charges to the preventing a large buildup of charge at the

earth. The positive charge on the spikes highest point of the building.

103
 ELECTRIC FIELD
An electric field is a region within which an electric force is experienced.
Electric fields can be represented by electrostatic lines of force.
Properties of electric field lines
 They originate from positive and end on negative.
 they are in a state of tension which causes them to shorten
 they repel one another side ways
Field patterns
i) Isolated positive charge ii) Isolated negative charge

+ -

iii) Two equal opposite charges iv) Two parallel plates

- - - - - - -

+ -
+ + + + + + +

v) Two positive charges near each other vi) Two negative charges near each other

+ X + - X -

X is Neutral point;
Neutral point is the point in the electric field where the resultant electric force is zero.

Section A
1. The figure below shows a charged rod P brought near conductors Q and R in contact
P Q R

If P is removed after Q and R, and Q is negatively charged, then the charge on P and R are

104
 P R
A. + -
A. - +
B. - -
C. + +
2. Which one of the following is observed when a positively charged body is brought near the cap of a
positively charged electroscope?
A. The leaf diverges further
B. There is no change in the leaf divergence
C. There is a decrease in the leaf divergence
D. The leaf falls and then diverges again
3. A charged electroscope loses its charge when a flame is brought near its cap because
A. point action takes place at the cap
B. the flame blows the charges off the cap
C. charges of opposite sign from the flame are attracted on to the cap
D. the flames ionizes nearby air molecules and those of opposite sign are attracted on the cap
4. In the figure below, P is a charged body
X Y Conductor
P

Insulator

The possible signs of charges at X, Y and P is

X Y P
A. Negative Positive Positive
B. Negative Positive Negative
C. Positive Positive Positive
D. Negative Negative Negative
5. The law of electrostatic states that
A. charges occur in parts C. like charges repel each other
B. charges repel each other D. like charges attract each other
6. Which one of the following objects can be charged by friction?
A. Safety pin B. Copper plate C. Razor blade D. Plastic ruler
7. Charge distribution on a conductor depends on,
A. the material out of which the conductor is made
B. shape of conductor

105
 C. quantity of charge
D. nature of the charge
8. Which of the following non – metallic electrical conductor?
A. brass B. copper C. graphite D. platinum
9. When a negatively charged body is brought near the cap of a positively charged electroscope, the
gold leaf.
A. Remains unchanged B. Decreases in divergence
C. Increases in divergence D. Gains a positive charge.
10. Which one of the following materials can be electrified
A. Plastic pen B. Silver rod C. Copper rod D. Wet wood
11. When a charged body is brought near a cap of a negatively charged gold leaf electroscope, the
A. Divergence of the leaf does not change.
B. Leaf falls if the body is negatively charged
C. Leaf diverges if the body is negatively charged
D. Leaf diverges if the body is negatively charged
12. A conductor usually losses charge gradually by a process called.
A. Induction B. Insulation C. Conduction D. Leakage.
13. A brass rod is rubbed with silk and then brought near a positively charged gold leaf electroscope.
The divergence of the leaf will
A. Increase B. Decrease
C. Not change D. Increase slightly and fall back.
14. The result of rubbing a glass rod with silk and separating then is
A. A negative charge on the rod and an equal positive charge
B. Equal amounts of negative charge on both
C. A positive charge on the rod and an equal negative charge on the silk
D. No charge on both rod and the silk
15. A metal rod gains a positive charge when rubbed with fabric. The fabric acquires.
A. no charge
B. A negative charge equal to that on the rod.
C. A positive charge equal to that on the rod
D. A positive charge greater than that on the rod
16. When a rod is brought close to the cap of a negatively charged gold leaf electroscope its leaf
diverges, it shows that the rod is
A. Negatively charged B. Positively charged

106
 C. Neutral D. Partially charged.
17. Which one of the following diagrams represents the correct electric field pattern for two oppositely
charged points?

+ - + - + - + -

A B C D

18. The laws of electrostatics induction state that

A. Like poles repel and unlike poles attract
B. Like poles attract and unlike poles repel
C. Like charges repel and unlike charges attract
D. Like charges attract and unlike charges repel
19. Which of the following actions will cause the leaf of a negatively charged electroscope to fall?
(i) Bringing a positively charged rod near the cap
(ii) Bringing a negatively charged rod near the cap
(iii) Connecting the can to the earth.
A. (i) and (ii) only B. (i) and (iii) only
C. (ii) only (iii) only D. (i),(ii) and (iii)
20. When polythene and wool are rubbed against each other and then separated, they acquire
A. No charge B. Equal amount of same type of charge
C. Equal and opposite charge D. Both acquire positive and negative charges
21. A body can only be confirmed to be electrically charged when
A. Another charged body attracts it.
B. It does not affect the leaf of a charged electroscope
C. It is repelled by another charged body
D. It is found to have less protons than electrons
22. Which of the following shows a correct electric field pattern due to two charges?

+ - + - + - + -

A B C D

23. It is easier to charge insulators than conductors because

A. The insulators don’t allow the charge to flow away but the conductors allow it to flow away
B. The conductors retain the charge by conduction but the insulators release it to the atmosphere
C. It is impossible to charge conductors under any condition

107
 D. Insulators just receive the charge from the atmosphere without being rubbed
24. The diagram below shows part of the gold leaf electroscope. What will happen to the leaf if a
positively charged rod is brought near the cap of the electroscope? It will
A. increase in deflection
B. remain in the same position
C. reduce in deflection
D. break off from the plate

25. Which of the following statement is true about a good electric insulator?
A. it acquires an electric charge when rubbed with suitable materials.
B. all its electrons are loosely bound to its atoms
C. electric charge easily flows on its surface
D. some of its electrons are free to move about
26. An electroscope becomes negatively charge when it
A. lose electrons B. gains protons C. gains electrons D. loses protons
27. An insulting rod that can be charged positively by rubbing with a piece of fabric is rubbed with
fabric and left in contact for a long time then separated. What would you expect each one of them
to have?
A. no charge
B. equal number of opposite charges
C. more positive charge on the rod than on the fabric
D. more negative charge on the fabric than on the rod
28. When a plastic rod is brought near a charged electroscope, the gold leaf is seen to diverge more.
The possible charges on the rod and the electroscope are
Electroscope Plastic rod
A. positive negative
B. negative positive
C. negative negative
D. positive uncharged
29. Which one of the following shows the correct distribution of electric charges generated in clouds
due to violent movements with in the thunder clouds?

+ + + + + -
+ + + + + - - - - - + + -
+ -
+ + + + - - - - - - + -
+ - - - -
A B C D

30. The leaf of a charged electroscope gradually collapses with time due to

108
 A. leakage to the surroundings B. Surrounding magnetic field
C. pressure variation in the surroundings D. Similar charges from the surroundings
31. An electroscope is negatively charged by induction. This means that it has
A. gained electrons B. gained protons
C. lost electrons D. lost protons
32. When a plastic rod is rubbed with a dry piece of cloth, the rod and the piece of cloth will
A. both acquire negative charges B. both acquire positive charges
C. acquire opposite charge D. have no charge
33. If a negatively charged ebonite rod is brought near the cap of a negatively charged electroscope,
the leaves.
A. decreases in divergence B. increases in divergence
C. remain unchanged D. gain positive charges
34. When a body is brought near a negatively charged electroscope a decrease in divergence is
observed. This may mean that the body is
(i) positively charged
(ii) negatively charged
(iii) not charged at all
A. (i),(ii) and(iii) C. (i) and (ii)only
B. (i) and (ii)only D. (i) only

SECTION B
1. (a) When a balloon is rubbed with hair, it becomes negatively charged
(i) Explain how the balloon becomes negatively charged
(ii) Compare the magnitude of the charge acquired by the balloon with that on the hair
(b) The diagram in the figure below shows electric field lines around a metal sphere in air

+ ++
+ +
+ ++

What will happen to the charges on the sphere if a sharp spike is placed on top of the sphere?
2. (a) State the laws of electrostatics .
(b) Two insulating materials are rubbed together, describe what is observed if
(i) the two are brought near the cap of a gold leaf electroscope
(ii) only one of them is brought near the cap.

109
 (c) Why is it difficult to perform experiments in electrostatics under damp conditions?
3. (a) Explain why a pen rubbed with a piece of cloth attracts pieces of paper.
(b) A positively charged metallic ball is held above a hollow conductor resting on the cap of a
gold leaf electroscope as shown below.
Thread

+ Metallic ball

Hollow conductor

Cap

Insulator

Leaf

Explain what happens to the leaf of the electroscope as the ball is lowered into the
conductor.

4. (a) What happens to an insulator when it is rubbed with another of different material?
(b) The figure below shows a conductor supported on an electrical insulator .The conductor is
given some positive charge. Show how the charge is distributed on the conductor.

(d) Sketch the electric field pattern due to two unlike charges P and Q below.
P + - Q

5. A positively charged rod is brought near two conducting spheres A and B in contact as shown
below.
(a) Show that charges on the spheres
(b) Describe how the spheres may be given a
permanent charge

Charged rod
+++ A B

6. (a)

110
 A The figure above shows the main parts of an
electroscope. Name them.

C
D

(b) State two uses of an electroscope.

PAPER TWO TYPE

1. (a) Describe how you would use a gold leaf electroscope to determine the sign of the charge on a
given charged body.
(b) Explain how an insulator gets charged by rubbing
(c) Sketch the electric field pattern between a charged point and a metal plate
(d) Describe how a lightning conductor safe guards a tall building from being struck by lightning
2. (a) What is meant by a conductor and an insulator?. Give an example of each
(b) (i) Explain briefly how you can charge a conductor negatively by induction
(ii) Describe how it can be confirmed that the conductor in (b) (i) is negatively charged
(c) Explain the action of a lightning conductor
3. (a) What happens when a glass rod is rubbed with
(i) Silk?
(ii) an identical glass rod?
(b) Describe how a gold leaf electroscope may be used to test the nature of the charge on an
object
(c) Draw the electric field patterns for
(i) an isolated negative charge
(ii) two oppositely charged parallel plates at a small distance apart
(d) Explain why it is not advisable to touch the copper strip of a lightning conductor when it is
raining

111
 ELECTRIC CELLS
These produce electricity from their chemical reactions. A cell consists of two plates called
electrodes of different elements in a liquid called an electrolyte.
There are two types of cells namely;
(i) Primary cells (ii) Secondary cells
Primary cells and secondary cells
Primary cells are cells that cannot be re charged. This is because the chemical reaction which
produces an electric current is irreversible.
Examples
 Dry cells  Simple cells

Secondary cells are cells that can be recharged. This is because the chemical reaction which
produces an electric current can be reversed.
Examples
 Lead acid cells  Nickel- iron cell
Primary cells
a) Simple cell
Direction of flow of electrons hydrogen gas are formed on the copper
Conventional current
plate.
Copper plate + - Zinc plate  At the same time, a current of electrons drift
through the wire to the copper plate. The
zinc dissolves making the zinc plate electron
Dilute sulphuric acid rich (negatively charged) and hydrogen is
Hydrogen
bubbles given off at the copper plate making it
electron deficient (positively charged).
 The formation of hydrogen bubbles on the
 When the copper and zinc plates are
copper plate stops the flow of current and it
connected by a wire, the zinc slowly begins
is called polarisation
to dissolve in the acid and bubbles of
Defects of a simple cell
(i) Polarization
This is the formation of hydrogen bubbles on the copper plate. This hydrogen layer
insulates the plate and stops the flow of current.
Polarization can be minimized by using a depolarizing agent/ oxidizing agent like
manganese (iv) oxide or potassium dichromate which oxidises hydrogen to water.

112
 (ii) Local action
If impure zinc is used, bubbles of hydrogen will be seen coming from the zinc plate. This
is called local action.
Local action can be minimized by cleaning the zinc plate with sulphuric acid and
mercury using cotton wool.
b) Dry cell
Brass cap (positive plate) This positive element is placed inside the zinc
Pitch seal +
can and surrounded by aluminum chloride jelly.

Ammonium chloride jelly The jelly is prevented from drying by sealing it

Carbon rod
with a metal disc at the top of the cell.

Zinc can
 The source of energy is the chemical action
Mixture of carbon and
manganese (iv) oxide between zinc and ammonium chloride as a
result hydrogen is produced which collects

Negative contact on the carbon rod and polarizes the cell.

 The mixture of carbon and manganese (iv)
oxide surrounds the carbon rod which acts
 The positive element of a dry cell consists of a
as an oxidizing agent and zinc can acts s a
carbon rod surrounded by a mixture of
negative terminal.
powdered carbon and manganese (iv) oxide.

Note :
Dry cells give a large current and are used for a variety of purposes.
Secondary cells
a) Lead acid cell (accumulator)
Lead dioxide Lead The positive plate is lead dioxide (brown) and
+ -
negative plate is lead (green) with dilute
sulphuric acid as the electrolyte. When the cell
discharges, lead dioxide and lead from the two
Dilute sulphuric acid
plates are converted into lead sulphate using up
the acid which becomes weaker and less dense.

Care for the lead acid cell

 Level of the sulphuric acid should be inspected regularly and any loss from evaporation
made up with distilled water.
 Lead acid cells should be charged regularly using a maker’s recommended charging current.

113
  Avoid shorting (connecting wires across the terminals).
 Over charging should be avoided.
 They should not be left in discharge state for a long time.

b) Nickel – iron cell (alkaline cell / Nife cell)

Nickel (iii) hydroxide Iron (Fe) The nickel – iron cell has potassium
(Ni(OH)3) + -
hydroxide as the electrolyte. The active
material in the charged state are green nickel
(iii) hydroxide at the positive plate and finely
Potassium hydroxde
divided iron with a little mercury at the
negative plate.

Advantages of Nife cell over Lead acid cell

 Nife cells have a longer life than lead acid cells
 Nife cells can be left in a discharge condition for a long time without any harm
 Nife cells have a higher internal resistance and can easily withstand the short circuit.
 They require no special maintenance when out of use for extended periods
 The active material of the nife cell cannot fall off during shock

Disadvantages of Nife cell

The emf of the a nife cell is only 1.25V and it tends to fall continuously on discharge

SECTION A
1. The energy stored in an accumulator is
A. heat energy C. electrical energy
B. chemical energy D. mechanical energy
2. Local action is simple cell is caused by the presence of
A. Zinc amalgam coasting on zinc plate B. Manganese (iv) oxide around the copper plate
C. Hydrogen bubbles on copper plate D. Impurities in zinc
3. In a dry cell, manganese (iv) oxide is used to
A. Reduce the P.d across it B. Double its resistance
C. Increase its resistance D. Keep the P.d constant .
4. The negative plates of a simple cell gradually goes into solution because of

114
 A. Polarization B. Local action C. Charging D. Gassing
5. When brass is to be copper – plated , the suitable electrolyte used is
A. distilled water B. sulphuric acid
C. lead(iv) oxide D. copper – sulphate
6. In a simple cell, the source of electrons which constitute the electron currents is
A. The zinc plate B. The copper plate
C. Dilute sulphuric acid D. Potassium dichromate
7. In a simple cell
A. polarization is caused by impure zinc
B. potassium dichromate is used to prevent polarization
C. the formation of hydrogen bubbled on the copper plate cause local action
D. hydrogen is produced on the zinc plate arid causes polarization
8. Which one of the following pairs gives a defect and its correction in a simple cell?
Defect Correction
A Local action Using Zinc amalgam
B Polarisation Dilute the electrolyte
C Local action Add oxidising agent
D Polarisation Use concentrated electrolyte

SECTION B
1. (a) (i) What is meant by a secondary cell?
(ii) Give two examples of secondary cells
(b) (i) What substance is used to top up the level of the liquid in accumulators?
(ii) Explain briefly why this is used
2. (a)
Current
The diagram above shows the essential parts of
a simple cell. Name the parts labelled P and Q

(b) Why does the current through the cell eventually stop?
3. (a) state two advantages of a nickel – iron accumulator over a lead acid accumulator.
(b) name the gasses evolved during the charging of a lead – acid accumulator .
(c) why is a dry cell called primary cell?

115
 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Current is the rate of flow of electric charge.
If charge 𝑄, coulombs flows through a circuit in a time 𝑡 seconds, then the current 𝐼, amperes is
given by ;
𝑄
𝐼=
𝑡
𝑄=𝐼𝑡
The S.I unit of current is Amperes and current is measured using an instrument called an Ammeter.
Ampere;
Ampere is the current which, if flowing in two straight parallel wires of infinite length placed
one meter apart in a vacuum, will produce on each of the wires a force of 2 𝑥 10−7N𝑚−1 .

The S.I unit of charge is coulomb.

Coulomb;
Is the quantity of electricity which passes any point in a circuit in 1 second when a steady
current of 1 ampere is flowing.

Examples
1. A charge of 180C flows through a lamp every 2 minutes. What is the electric current in the lamp.
Solution 180
𝐼=
𝑄 2 𝑥 60
𝐼= 𝐼 = 1.5𝐴
𝑡
2. A charge of 20 𝑘𝐶 crosses two sections of a conductor in 1minute. Find the current through the
conductor.
Solution 20 𝑥 1000
𝐼=
𝑄 1 𝑥 60
𝐼= 𝐼 = 333.33𝐴
𝑡

POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE ( 𝑷. 𝒅 )

𝑃. 𝑑 is defined as the work done in moving one coulomb charge from one point to another a cross a
conductor.
Current will flow through a conductor if there a potential difference between the ends of a
conductor.
The 𝑆. 𝐼 unit of 𝑃. 𝑑 is volt and 𝑃. 𝑑 is measured using an instrument called a voltmeter

116
A volt;
A volt is the potential difference between two points when one joule of work is done in
transferring one coulomb of charge from one point to another.

Electromotive force (𝑬. 𝒎. 𝒇)

𝐸. 𝑚. 𝑓 is defined as the terminal 𝑝. 𝑑 a cross an open circuit. OR
𝐸. 𝑚. 𝑓 of a cell is defined as the total work done in joules per coulomb of electricity conveyed in a
circuit in which the cell is connected.
𝐸. 𝑚. 𝑓 is measured in volts

Resistance
This is the opposition of a conductor to the flow of current.
It is measured in ohms ( Ω )
OR : Resistance of a conductor is the ratio of the potential difference across it to the current
flowing through it.
A good conductor has low resistance while a good insulator has high resistance

An ohm ( Ω )
An ohm ( Ω ) is the resistance of a conductor such that when a 𝑝. 𝑑 of 1 volt is applied to its
ends, a current of 1 amperes flows through it.

Factors that affect resistance

a) Length
The longer the conductor, the higher the resistance and the shorter the conductor the lower
résistance.
b) Cross sectional area
The thinner the conductor, the higher the resistance and the thicker the conductor, the
lower the resistance
c) Temperature
An increase in temperature increases the resistance of a pure metal.
The above factors can be combined as;
𝜌 ∝ 𝐿⁄𝐴

𝜌𝐿
𝑅=
𝐴
Where ρ is resistivity

117
Examples
1. A conductor of length 20 𝑚 has a cross sectional area of 2𝑥10−4 𝑚2. Its resistance at 20℃ is
0.6Ω. find the resistivity of the conductor at 20℃.
Solution 0.6 𝑥 2𝑥10−4
𝜌=
𝜌𝐿 0.2
𝑅=
𝐴 𝜌 = 6𝑥10−4 Ω 𝑚
𝑅𝐴
𝜌=
𝐿
2. A wire of diameter 14mm and length 50cm has its resistivity as 1.0 𝑥10−7 Ω 𝑚. What is the
resistance of the wire at room temperature?

Solution
𝑑 = 14𝑚𝑚, 𝑟 =
14
= 7𝑚𝑚 𝜌𝐿
2 𝑅=
𝐴
𝑙 = 50𝑐𝑚, 𝑙 = 0.5𝑚
0.5 𝑥 1𝑥10−7
𝐴 = 𝜋 𝑟2 𝑅=
1.54𝑥 10−4
22 7 2 𝑅 = 3.25𝑥10−4 Ω
𝐴= 𝑥( )
7 1000
𝐴 = 1.54𝑥 10 𝑚2
−4

Common symbols in electricity

Cell or battery
Or

Or
Or

A.c supply

Galvanometer
Voltmeter
Filament lamp V
or
G
Or
Ammeter
Resistor A

Switch Or

Milliammeter

Variable resistor mA

118
 OHM’S LAW
It states that the current through a wire at constant temperature is proportional to the potential
difference across it’s ends.
Ie 𝑉 ∝ 𝐼 at constant temperature
𝑉=𝐼𝑅
𝑅 is resistance , 𝑉 is p.d, 𝐼 is current

Verification of ohm’s law

Cell S

A Rheostat
V

A-ammeter, V- voltmeter, R-resistor, S- switch

 Arrange the apparatus as shown above.
 First adjust the rheostat to a maximum value. When the switch is closed the current I is read
from the ammeter and voltage V from the voltmeter noted.
 By varying the rheostat, read and record various readings of the ammeter and voltmeter
 Tabulate your results
 Plot a graph of 𝑉(𝑉) against 𝐼(𝐴)

V(V)

I(A)

 A straight line through the origin shows that 𝑝. 𝑑 is directily proportional to current

Limitations of ohm’s law

 It does not apply to semiconductors and gases.
 It is only obeyed if physical conditions like temperature are constant.

Ohmic and non ohmic conductors

An ohmic conductor is one which obeys ohm’s law.
Non ohmic conductor s one which doesnot obey ohm’s law.
When we plot I against V between ends of a conductor, the shape of the curve is known as the
characteristic of the conductor.

119
 a) Ohmic conductors eg a metal

I(A)

0
V(V)

b) Non ohmic conductor

i) Filament lamp iv) Junction diode

I(A) I(A)

V(V)
V(V)
ii) Gas discharge tube
v) Thermistor

I(A)
I(A)

V(V) V(V)

iii) Thermionic diode vi) Electrolyte eg dilute sulphuric acid

I(A)
I(A)

V(V)

V(V)

ARRANGEMENT OF RESISTORS
a) Resistors in series
When resistors are in series, current flowing through them is the same.
V V = 𝐼 𝑅1 + 𝐼 𝑅2 + 𝐼 𝑅3
𝑉 = 𝐼 ( 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3 )
R1 R2 R3
V1 V2 V3 𝑉
= 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3
𝐼
𝑅 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3
Total 𝑃. 𝑑, V = 𝑉1 + 𝑉2 + 𝑉3

Example

120
 Find the total resistance in the circuits below
1. 1.2Ω 1Ω 0.8Ω 3Ω

5Ω 4Ω 8Ω

Solution Solution
R = (5 + 4 + 8) Ω R = (1.2 + 1 + 0.8 + 3) Ω
𝑅 = 17Ω 𝑅 = 6Ω
2.

b) Resistors in parallel
I1 R1 𝑉 𝑉 𝑉
𝐼= + +
𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
I2 R2
1 1 1
I3 R3 𝐼 = 𝑉( + + )
I 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
𝐼 1 1 1
V =( + + )
𝑉 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
Total current, I = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 + 𝐼3 1 1 1 1
=( + + )
𝑅 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3

Example
a) Find the effective resistance of the following circuit
1.

2Ω 1 1 1 1
=( + + )
𝑅 2 3 4
3Ω 1 6+4+3
=
𝑅 12
1 13
=
4Ω 𝑅 12
12
Solution 𝑅 =
13
1 1 1 1
=( + + ) R = 0.92Ω
𝑅 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3

2. Solution
2Ω

1 1 1
=( + )
𝑅 𝑅1 𝑅2
4Ω

121
 1 1 1 𝑅 =
4
R = 1.33Ω
=( + ) 3
𝑅 2 4
1 3
=
𝑅 4

Note for two resistors in parallel

R1 1 𝑅1 + 𝑅2
=
𝑅 𝑅1 𝑅2
𝑅1 𝑅2
𝑅=
R2 𝑅1 + 𝑅2

1 1 1 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
=( + ) 𝑅=
𝑅 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

b) Calculate the effective resistance in each of the following circuits

(i)
6Ω 6𝑥3
𝑅=
6+3
3Ω 18
𝑅=
Solution 9

𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 R = 2Ω
𝑅=
𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

(ii)
2Ω 2𝑥3
0.8Ω 𝑅 = 0.8 +
2+3
3Ω
6
𝑅 = 0.8 +
5
Solution
R = 2Ω
(iii)
12Ω 1 1 1 1
=( + + )
𝑅 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
12Ω 1 1 1 1
=( + + )
𝑅 12 12 12
1 3
12Ω =
𝑅 12
Solution 12
𝑅 = 3
R = 4Ω

(iv)

122
 3Ω
1Ω 2Ω
6Ω

𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
6Ω 𝑅=
𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
Solution 6𝑥3
𝑅=
For series 6+3
R = (1 + 2)Ω 18
𝑅=
9
R = 3Ω
R = 2Ω

(v)
3Ω 12Ω For the second set of parallel resistors
12𝑥12
𝑅=
6Ω 12Ω 12 + 12
R = 6Ω
Solutions
For the first set of parallel resistors 2Ω 6Ω
6𝑥3
𝑅=
6+3
R = 2Ω Total resistance =2 + 6 = 8Ω

(vi)
2Ω 1 15 + 6 + 10
4Ω =
5Ω
𝑅 30
1 31
3Ω =
𝑅 30
Solution 30
𝑅 =
For parallel combination 31
1 1 1 1 R = 0.97Ω
=( + + )
𝑅 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
0.97Ω 4Ω
1 1 1 1
=( + + )
𝑅 2 5 3
Total resistance =0.97 + 4 = 4.97Ω

(vii)
Solution
3Ω 6Ω
𝑅 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2
𝑅 = (3 + 6 ) = 9Ω

123
 (viii)

3Ω 6Ω

Solution 6𝑥3
𝑅=
𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 6+3
𝑅= 18
𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑅=
9
R = 2Ω

(ix)
𝑅2 𝑅3
𝑅 = 𝑅1 +
𝑅2 + 𝑅3
2Ω 2Ω 2Ω 𝑅 =2+
2𝑥 2
2+ 2
𝑅 = 2+1
Solution 𝑅 = 3Ω

(xi)
2𝑥 4
2Ω 𝑅 =2+ 2+ 4
+ 4
2Ω 4Ω 8
𝑅 = 2+ +4
4Ω 6
4
𝑅 =6+
3
Solution 18 + 4
𝑅=
𝑅2 𝑅3 3
𝑅 = 𝑅1 + + 𝑅4
𝑅2 + 𝑅3 𝑅 = 7.33Ω

(x)

2Ω 2Ω 2 2
𝑅= +4+
4Ω 3 3
1Ω 1Ω 4
𝑅 =4+
3
12 + 4
Solution 𝑅=
3
2𝑥 1 2𝑥 1
𝑅= 2+1
+ 4+ 2+1
𝑅 = 5.33Ω

124
 Further examples
1. Find the ammeter readings in each of the circuits below
i)
2.0V 𝑉
𝐼=
𝑅
A
16Ω 4Ω
2
𝐼=
Solution 16 + 4
𝐼 = 0.1 𝐴
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
ii)
2.0V 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑅=
A
𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
16Ω
16𝑥4
𝑅=
4Ω 16 + 4
𝑅 = 3.2Ω
Solution
2
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅 𝐼=
3.2
𝑉
𝐼= 𝐼 = 0.625 𝐴
𝑅
iii)
24V 𝐼1 = 4𝐴 12
𝐼2 =
To find 𝐴2 and 𝐴3 , we need 4
A1
4Ω 𝐼2 = 3𝐴
3Ω
A2 to first find voltage across
𝑉
12Ω parallel combination Current in 𝐴3 : 𝐼3 = 𝑅
A3
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅𝑃 12
𝐼3 =
12
𝐼 is the current through the
Solution 𝐼3 = 1𝐴
parallel combination and
𝐴1 = 𝐴2 + 𝐴3 To quickly confirm the
𝑅 𝑃 is total resistance of the
𝐴1 reads current in the currents
parallel combination
whole circuit Current in 𝐴2 : 𝐼2 = 𝑅
𝑅3
𝑥𝐼
4𝑥12 2 +𝑅3
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅 𝑉 = 4𝑥 ( )
4 + 12 12
𝑉 𝐼2 = 𝑥4
𝐼1 = 𝑉 = 4𝑥3 16
𝑅
𝑉 = 12𝑉 𝐼2 = 3𝐴
4𝑥12
Total R= [3 + (4+12)] Current in 𝐴3 : 𝐼3 = 𝑅
𝑅2
𝑥𝐼
Note : For any resistors in 2 +𝑅3
𝑅 = 3Ω + 3Ω parallel, they have the same 4
𝐼3 = 𝑥4
𝑅 = 6Ω 𝑝. 𝑑 16
24 𝑉 𝐼3 = 1𝐴
𝐼1 = Current in 𝐴2 : 𝐼2 = 𝑅
6

125
2.
6V 𝑉
Current in 3Ω 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑟: 𝐼 = 𝑅
3Ω 1.334
7Ω 𝐼=
3
6Ω
𝐼 = 0.445𝐴
In the figure above find; 𝑉
Current in 6Ω 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑟: 𝐼 =
𝑅
(i) Current through the circuit
1.334
(ii) Current across 3Ω and 6Ω resistor 𝐼=
6
(iii) 𝑃. 𝑑 across the 7Ω resistor 𝐼 = 0.223𝐴
(iv) 𝑃. 𝑑 across the 3Ω and 6Ω resistor To quickly confirm the currents
Solution 6
Current in 3Ω 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑟: 𝐼 = 6+3 𝑥0.667
6𝑥3
i) Total resistance, R= [7 + (6+3)] 6
𝐼 = 𝑥0.667
𝑅 = 7Ω + 2Ω 9
𝐼 = 0.445𝐴
𝑅 = 9Ω
3
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅 Current in 6Ω 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑟: 𝐼 = 6+3 𝑥0.667
𝑉 3
𝐼= 𝐼 = 𝑥0.667
𝑅 9
6 𝐼 = 0.223𝐴
𝐼=
9 iii) 𝑃. 𝑑 across the 7Ω resistor
𝐼 = 0.667 𝐴
0.6𝐴 Passes through the 7Ω resistor
Current in the circuit is 0.667 𝐴
𝑉=𝐼𝑅
ii) Voltage across the parallel
𝑉 = 7𝑥 0.667
combination
𝑉 = 4.669𝑉
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅𝑃
iv) 𝑃. 𝑑 across the 3Ω resistor and 6Ω
6𝑥3
𝑉 = 0.667𝑥 ( ) resistor
6+3
𝑉 = 0.667𝑥2 𝑉 = (6 − 4.669)𝑉

𝑉 = 1.334𝑉 𝑉 = 1.33𝑉
since the two resistors are in parallel
Note : For any resistors in parallel, they have
therefore, they have the same 𝑝. 𝑑 of 1.33𝑉
the same 𝑝. 𝑑

3. Find the 𝑝. 𝑑 across the resistors in the circuit below

2V 1Ω

2Ω 3Ω

126
 Solution 𝐼 = 0.333𝐴 𝑉 = 0.333𝑥 2
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅 𝑃. 𝑑 across the 1Ω resistor 𝑉 = 0.666𝑉
𝑉 𝑉=𝐼𝑅 𝑃. 𝑑 across the 3Ω resistor
𝐼=
𝑅 𝑉 = 0.333𝑥 1 𝑉=𝐼𝑅
2
𝐼= 𝑉 = 0.333𝑉 𝑉 = 0.333𝑥 3
2+3+1
2 𝑃. 𝑑 across the 2Ω resistor 𝑉 = 0.999𝑉
𝐼=
6 𝑉=𝐼𝑅

4. In the diagram below, the ammeter reading is 0.2A. What is the reading of the voltmeter?

A We are required to find the 𝑒𝑚𝑓 of the

battery
V 10Ω
30Ω 𝑉=𝐼𝑅
20Ω 𝑉 = 0.2𝑥 (30 + 20 + 10)
𝑉 = 0.2𝑥60
Solutions
𝑉 = 12𝑉
5.

3Ω 4V 6Ω

Two resistors of 3Ω and 6Ω are connected across a battery of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 of 4𝑉 as show, find
i) the combined resistance
ii) the current supplied by the battery
Solution
𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑉
i) 𝑅= ii) 𝐼=
𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑅

6𝑥3 4
𝑅= 𝐼=
6+3 2
𝑅 = 2Ω 𝐼 = 2𝐴

Exercise
1.
2V Find the ammeter reading
[0.6A]
2Ω
0.8Ω A

3Ω

127
 2. A 𝑝. 𝑑 of 24V from a battery is applied to a network of resistors as shown below
24V

6Ω
8Ω
12Ω

i) find the current through the circuit [2A]

ii) find the p.d across the 8Ω resistor [16V]
iii) find the current through the 6Ω resistor [1.3A]
3.
1.5V Find the current through the 2Ω resistor
2Ω
6Ω
6Ω

4.
10V A battery of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 10V and negligible internal
resistance is connected across a network of
2.6Ω

4Ω
resistors as shown above. calculate the
current through the 6Ω resistor.
6Ω
[0.8A]

INTERNAL RESISTANCE OF CELLS

Internal resistance of a cell is the opposition to flow of current within a cell.
Internal resistance is represented by r.
𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟)
Examples
1. A battery of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 1.5V and internal resistance 0.5Ω is connected in series with 2.5Ω resistor.
Find;
i) current through the circuit
ii) 𝑝. 𝑑 of the 2.5Ω resistor
Solution
1.5V, 0.5Ω 𝐸
𝐼=
(𝑅 + 𝑟)
2.5Ω 1.5
𝐼=
(2.5 + 0.5)
i) 𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟)

128
 1.5 ii) 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
𝐼=
3 𝑉 = 0.5𝑥2.5
𝐼 = 0.5 𝐴
𝑉 = 1.25𝑉

2. A cell can supply a current of 1.2𝐴 through two 2Ω resistors connected in parralle. When
they are connected in series the value of current is 0.4𝐴. Clculate the internal resistance and
emf of the cell.
Solution
case 1 𝑅 = 2+2
(E,r) 𝑅 = 4Ω
1.2A 𝐸 = 0.4 (4 + 𝑟)
2Ω
2Ω 𝐸 = 1.6 + 0.4 𝑟……..[2]
Equating 1 and 2
𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟)
2𝑥2 1.2 + 1.2 𝑟=1.6 + 0.4 𝑟
𝑅=
2+2 1.2 𝑟 − 0.4 𝑟 = 1.6 − 0.4
𝑅 = 1Ω 0.8𝑟 = 0.4
𝐸 = 1.2 (1 + 𝑟) 0.4
𝑟=
𝐸 = 1.2 + 1.2 𝑟……..[1] 0.8
𝑟 = 0.5Ω
Case 2
(E,r)
Also 𝐸 = 1.2 + 1.2 𝑟

0.4A
𝐸 = 1.2 + 1.2 𝑥 0.5
2Ω 2Ω
𝐸 = 1.2 + 0.6
𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟) 𝐸 = 1.8 𝑉

3. An ammeter connected in series with a cell and a 2Ω resistor reads 0.5𝐴. When the 2Ω resistor is
replaced by a 5Ω resistor, the ammeter reading drops to 0.25𝐴. Calculate the internal resistance and
the 𝑒𝑚𝑓 of the cell.
Solution
(E,r) (E,r)

0.5A 0.25A
5Ω
2Ω A
A
𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟)
𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟)
𝐸 = 0.25 (5 + 𝑟)
𝐸 = 0.5 (2 + 𝑟)
𝐸 = 1.25 + 0.25 𝑟……..[2]
𝐸 = 1 + 0.5 𝑟……..[1]
Equating 1 and 2

129
1 + 0.5 𝑟 = 1.25 + 0.25 𝑟 𝑟 =1Ω
0.5 𝑟 − 0.25 𝑟 = 1.25 − 1 Also 𝐸 = 1 + 0.5 𝑟
0.25𝑟 = 0.25 𝐸 = 1 + 0.5 𝑥 1
0.25 𝐸 = 1 + 0.5
𝑟=
0.25 𝐸 = 1.5 𝑉

Exercise
1. A cell is joined in series with a resistance of 2Ω and a current of 0.25𝐴 flows through it.
When a second resistance of 2Ω is connected in parallel with the first, the current through
the cell is0.3𝐴. Calculate the internal resistance and 𝑒𝑚𝑓 of the cell. [𝟒Ω, 𝟏. 𝟓𝑽]
2. Two cells each of e.m.f 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.5  are connected in series with a
resistor of 2  as in the figure below.

V s

2Ω
The reading of the voltmeter V when S is closed is? [2V]

CELL ARRANGEMENTS
1. Series arrangement
Total 𝑒𝑚𝑓 𝐸= 𝐸1 + 𝐸2 + 𝐸3

E1 E2 E3
2. Parallel arrangement
When cells of equal 𝒆𝒎𝒇 are connected in
E3
parallel
E2 Total 𝑒𝑚𝑓 𝐸= 𝐸1 = 𝐸2 = 𝐸3

E1

Example
1. Find the total 𝑒𝑚𝑓 in each of the following circuits if each cell is of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 1.5𝑉
(i)

130
 Solution
Total 𝑒𝑚𝑓 𝐸 = 1.5 + 1.5 + 1.5 + 1.5 + 1.5 + 1.5
= 9.0𝑉
(ii)
Solution
Total 𝑒𝑚𝑓 𝐸 = 1.5𝑉

(iii)
Solution
Total 𝑒𝑚𝑓 𝐸 = 1.5 + 1.5 + 1.5 + 1.5
= 6.0𝑉
R

Note: If the cells are connected in parallel and have internal resistance, their resistance is
calculated as resistors in parallel.

Examples
1. Find the ammeter reading
1.5V,r=1Ω 1𝑥1
𝑟=
1+1
𝑟 = 0.5Ω
1.5V,r=1Ω
A 1.5 = 𝐼 (2.5 + 0.5)
2.5Ω
1.5
𝐼=
3
Solution
𝐼 = 0.5𝐴
𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟)

2. Two cells of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 2.0V and internal resistance 0.2Ω each are connected together in parallel to form
a battery. This battery is connected to a lamp of resistance0.9Ω. Calculate the current through the
lamp and voltage across the lamp.
Solution
2.0V,r=0.2Ω 𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟)
0.2𝑥0.2
𝑟=
2.0V,r=0.2Ω 0.2 + 0.2
𝑟 = 0.1Ω
0.9Ω
current through the lamp

131
 2 = 𝐼 (0.9 + 0.1) 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
2 𝑉 = 2𝑥0.9
𝐼=
1 𝑉 = 1.8𝑉
𝐼 = 2𝐴
voltage across the lamp
3. Four cells each of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 1.5𝑉 and internal resistance 0.5Ω are connected in series. What current will
flow through an external resistor of 22Ω
Solution Total internal resistance r = 0.5𝑥4
𝑟 = 2Ω
𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟)
I 22Ω 6 = 𝐼 (22 + 2)
6
𝐼=
Total 𝑒𝑚𝑓 E = 1.5𝑥4 24
𝐸 = 6𝑉 𝐼 = 0.25𝐴
4. A battery containing 8 cells each of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 1.5V and internal resistance 0.5Ω is connected to two other
resistors of 4Ω and 16Ω . Calculate the minimum and maximum current that can flow through the
battery.
Solution
For minimum current the resistors must be For maximum current the resistors must be
connected in series connected in parallel

4Ω

I
4Ω 16Ω 16Ω

Total 𝑒𝑚𝑓 E = 1.5𝑥8

Total 𝑒𝑚𝑓 E = 1.5𝑥8 𝐸 = 12𝑉

𝐸 = 12𝑉 Total internal resistance r = 0.5𝑥8

Total internal resistance r = 0.5𝑥8 𝑟 = 4Ω

4𝑥6
𝑟 = 4Ω Total external resistance R= 4+6
Total external resistance R= 4 + 16 𝑅 = 3.2Ω
𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟) 𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟)
12 = 𝐼 (16 + 4 + 4) 12 = 𝐼 (3.2 + 4)
12 12
𝐼= 𝐼=
24 7.2
𝐼 = 0.5𝐴 𝐼 = 1.67𝐴

132
CONNECTION OF AMMETERS AND VOLTMETERS IN A CIRCUIT

 A voltmeter measures 𝑝. 𝑑 between terminals, it should be connected between the two

points for which 𝑝, 𝑑 is required 𝑖𝑒 in parallel with that point of the circuit.
 An ammeter measures the current through the circuit, it is connected in series with the
circuit, it has a low resistance so that it offers a little resistance to the circuit.

WORK DONE BY AN ELECTRIC CURRENT

If the 𝑃. 𝑑, 𝑉 is applied to the ends of a conductor and quantity of electricity, 𝑄 flows then
𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒 = 𝑄 𝑉 but 𝑄 = 𝐼𝑡
𝑊 = 𝐼𝑡 𝑉
𝑊 = 𝐼𝑉𝑡
but 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
𝑊 = 𝐼 (𝐼𝑅) 𝑡
𝑊 = 𝐼2 𝑅 𝑡
𝑉
but 𝐼 = 𝑅

𝑉 2
𝑊= ( ) 𝑅𝑡
𝑅
𝑉2 𝑡
𝑊=
𝑅
The work done is transferred into internal molecular energy accompanied by a rise in temperature
subsequently, this energy may be given out in form of heat

ELECTRICAL POWER
This is the rate of doing work by an electric current.
𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
𝐼𝑉𝑡
𝑃=
𝑡
𝑃=𝐼𝑉
Also
𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
𝐼2 𝑅 𝑡
𝑃=
𝑡
𝑃 = 𝐼2 𝑅

133
 Also
𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
𝑉2 𝑡
𝑃 = 𝑅 ⁄𝑡

𝑉2
𝑃=
𝑅
Examples
1. A lamp is rated 240𝑉, 60𝑊
a) what does this statement mean
b) find (i) current taken
(ii) resistance of the filament
Solution
a) It means that the lamp is connected to a 240𝑉 mains to produce 60𝐽 per second.
b) i) 𝑃=𝐼𝑉 ii) 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
𝑃 𝑉
𝐼= 𝑅=
𝑉 𝐼
240
60 𝐼=
𝐼= 0.25
240
𝐼 = 960Ω
𝐼 = 0.25𝐴
2. A battery of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 24𝑉 is connected in series with aresistance 𝑅 and a lamp rated 10𝑉, 20𝑊 as
shown below.
24V i) the p.d across the resistor
ii) the value of R
10V, 20W
R iii) power dissipated in the resistor

if the bulb is operating normally . Find,

Solution
i) 𝑝. 𝑑 across the resistor 20 14
𝐼= 𝑅=
= (24 − 10)𝑉 10 2
𝐼 = 2𝐴 𝑅 = 7Ω
= 14𝑉
Bulb and resistor have the iii) power dissipated in the
ii) Current through the bulb
same current resistor
𝑃 = 𝐼𝑉
𝑃
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅 𝑃 = 𝐼2 𝑅
𝐼= 𝑉
𝑉 𝑃 = 22 𝑥 7
𝑅=
𝐼
𝑃 = 28𝑊

134
3. An accumulator of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 24𝑉 and internal resistance 2Ω is connected in a circuit as shown below.
24V, 2Ω a) calculate the current through the 6Ω
resistor
4Ω 2Ω b) calculate the power expended in the
3Ω
6Ω resistor
6Ω
c) find the total power expended

Solution
a) for 4Ω and 2Ω resistors 𝐸 = 𝐼 (𝑅 + 𝑟) 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
total resistance 𝑅 = (4 + 2) 24 = 𝐼 (6 + 2) 𝑉
𝐼=
𝑅 = 6Ω 24 𝑅
𝐼= 9
8 𝐼=
24V, 2Ω 6
𝐼 = 3𝐴
𝐼 = 1.5𝐴
𝑝. 𝑑 through parallel
6Ω b) power in 6Ω resistor
combination
3Ω 𝑃 = 𝐼𝑉
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
6Ω 𝑃 = 1.5 𝑥 9
6𝑥6
𝑉 = 3𝑥 ( ) 𝑃 = 13.5 𝑊
6+6
𝑉 = 9𝑉 c) total power= 𝐼 𝐸
6𝑥6
Total resistance= [3 + (6+6)] Current through the 6Ω = 3𝑥 24
= 6Ω resistor = 72𝑊

PAYING FOR ELECTRICITY

UMEME charges for electricity it supplies. The board’s trade unit of electrical energy is called a kilo
watt hour (𝑘 𝑊 ℎ)
Kilo watt hour:
Is the electrical energy used by 1 kilo watt appliance in 1 hour
ENERGY COST
𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟(𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡) 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠)
𝑛 = 𝑃 (𝑘𝑊) 𝑥 𝑡 (ℎ)
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (𝐶)
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 𝐶
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑃 (𝑘𝑊) 𝑥 𝑡 (ℎ) 𝑥 𝐶
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟(𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡) 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠) 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (𝐶)

Examples

135
1. Opolot uses four 75𝑊 lamps for 8hours. If the electricity costs 460/= per unit. Find the
total cost.
Solution
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟(𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡) 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠) 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (𝐶)
75 𝑥 4
= 𝑥 8 𝑥460
1000
= 1,104 𝑠ℎ
2. Find the cost of running five 60W and four 100W lamps for 8hours, if the electrical energy
cost 𝑠ℎ 480 per unit.
Solution
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟(𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡) 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠) 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (𝐶)
5 𝑥60 4 𝑥 100
= [( )+( )] 𝑥 8 𝑥480
1000 1000
= 2,688 𝑠ℎs
3. A house has a 100 watt, two 75 watt bulbs and five 140 watt bulbs. Find the cost of having
all these bulbs switched on for 5 1⁄2 hours each day for 45 days at a cost of 425 sh per unit
Solution
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟(𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡) 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠) 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (𝐶)
1𝑥100 2𝑥75 5 𝑥 140
= [( )+( )+( )] 𝑥 (5 1⁄2 𝑥45) 𝑥425
1000 1000 1000
950 11
= 𝑥 𝑥45𝑥425
1000 2
= 99,928 𝑠ℎ𝑠
4. Calculate the cost of running an electric fire for 2 1⁄2hours, if an electric fire takes a current
of 13A on a 100V supply and each unit cost 440 sh
Solution
𝑃=𝐼𝑉
𝑃 = 13𝑥 100
𝑃 = 1300𝑊
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟(𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡) 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠) 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (𝐶)
1300
= 𝑥 2 1⁄2 𝑥440
1000
= 1,430 𝑠ℎ𝑠
5. A 4Kw electric fire is used for 10 hours each week and a 100W bulb is used for 10 hours
each day. Find the total cost for each week if a unit of electricity cost 300 sh
Solution

136
 For electric fire
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟(𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡) 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠) 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (𝐶)
100
= 𝑥 (10𝑥7) 𝑥300
1000
= 2,100 𝑠ℎ𝑠
For 100W bulb
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟(𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡) 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠) 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (𝐶)
= 2𝑥 10 𝑥300
= 6,000 𝑠ℎ
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 = 2100 + 6000
= 8100 𝑠ℎ𝑠
6. Jane paid an electricity bill of 1800shs after using two identical bulbs for 2hours every day
for 10days at a cost of 600shs per unit. Determine the power consumption by each of the
bulbs
Solution
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟(𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡) 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠) 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (𝐶)
1800 = 𝑃(𝑘𝑊)𝑥 (2𝑥10) 𝑥600
1800
𝑃(𝑘𝑊) =
20𝑥600
𝑃(𝑘𝑊) = 0.15𝑘𝑊
0.15
For one bulb=
2

= 0.075𝑘𝑊
= 75𝑊

Filament lamp
Argon / Nitrogen
It is filled with argon or nitrogen because it
Filament

reduces evaporation of tungsten which would

Glass
otherwise condense o the bulb or blacken it.
Terminals

HOUSE CIRCUITS
The cable bringing the main electricity supply into the house contains two wires one of which is live
and the other neutral.
The neutral is earthed at the local transformer substation so that it is at zero potential.
The supply s alternating current which flows to and fro rapidly.

137
 Main switch
Power / main ring
circuit

meter

Lighting Water
Boad main cooker
circuit heater
fuse

Live
Service
cable Neutral Earth terminal

Fuse:
Is a device which contains a thin wire which melts and breaks the circuit when the current
exceeds a safe value.

Causes of the fuse to break

 overloading
 worn insulation on connecting wires

Precautions taken when wiring a house

 Wires should be insulated
 Earthing must be provided. This prevents electrical shocks if an appliance develops a fault.
 The right colour codes must be used ie red or brown for live , black or blue for neutral and
yellow or green for earth.
 The fuse should be in each and every circuit.
 The switches must be connected to the live wire
Note:
Switches are connected to the live wire so that when in off position, they are completely switched
off otherwise if they were connected to the neutral line even when the switch is in off position
power sockets would still remain in the live and therefore there would be a shock by touching the
element of an electric fire even when it was switched off.

Section A
1. An alternative unit that could be used for current is
A. Joule per second C. Coulomb per second
B. Joule per coulomb D. Volt per meter
2. When a 12 V lamp is connected to a car battery, a current of 3 A passes through its filament.
Calculate the energy transferred by the lamp in 20 s
A. 720 J B. 24O J C. 60 J D. 36 J

138
3. An electric heating element rated 120 W is used to heat water for 4 h. Find the electrical energy
consumed in kWh
120 𝑥 4 120 𝑥 1000 1000 𝑥 4
A. B. 120 𝑥 4 𝑥 1000 C. D.
1000 4 120

4. Find the effective resistance of two resistors of 4 Ω and 6 Ω connected in parallel

A. 10.0 Ω B. 2.4 Ω C. 5.0 Ω D. 0.4 Ω
5. Figure below shows a voltmeter (V) connected across a conductor of resistance R
R

If the current through the conductor is 2.5 A and the voltmeter reads 12.5 V. Find the value of R
A. 31.2 Ω B. 15.00 Ω C. 5.00 Ω D. 0.20 Ω
What is the potential difference across a load if the energy needed to maintain a current of 0.8A in
the load for 10s is 40J?
A. 0.2V B. 3.2V C. 5.0 D. 320V
6. Figure below shows an electrical symbol for a

A. Transformer B. ammeter C. rheostat D. cell

7. Three resistors each of 2 Ω are connected as shown in figure?
2Ω The effective resistance is
2Ω A. 1. 5 Ω B. 2.0 Ω
C. 3.0 Ω D. 6.0 Ω
2Ω

8. A fire alarm rated 240V, 1.5Kw runs for10 hrs a day. If the cost per unit of electricity is shs 380, find
the daily cost of running the alarm.
A. shs 570 B. shs2400 C. shs3800 D.shs5700
9. An appliance that uses a current of 3 A is connected to the mains by wires that can carry up to 5 A.
The best fuse that can be used for the appliance is
A. 2 A fuse B. 3 A fuse C. 4 A fuse D. 5 A fuse
10.
R1 In the circuit shown above, the potential
difference across
R2 R3
A. 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 are equal
R4
B. 𝑅2 and 𝑅4 are equal
C. 𝑅1 and 𝑅4 are equal
E. m. f
D. 𝑅3 and 𝑅4 are equal

139
11. Calculate the charge which flows through a 600 Ω resistor when a 𝑝. 𝑑 of 20 V is applied for 30 s
across its ends
A. 900 C B. 600 C C. 20 C D. 1 C
12. Which of the following is NOT an effect of an electric current?
A. Electrolysis B. Magnetic effect C. Heating effect D. Radioactivity
13. Which of the following works with a direct current only
A. Electroplating B. Electric lamp C. Transformer D. Electric bell
14. Calculate the power wasted as heat in a cable of resistance 0.5 Ω, when it transmits 2 kW at 100V
A. 800 W B. 200 W C. 100 W D. 50 W
15. The possible energy transfer in an electric bulb is
A. light energy to heat energy C. electrical energy to light energy
B. heat energy to electrical energy D. light energy to electrical energy
16.
4.5V, 0.5Ω Figure above shows two cells each of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓
4.5 𝑉 and internal resistance 0.5 Ω, connected
4.5V, 0.5Ω to a 2 Ω resistor. What is the ammeter reading?
A
2Ω
A. 1.5 A B. 2.0 A
C. 4.0 A D. 9.0 A
17. A current of 6 A flows for 2 hours in a circuit. Calculate the quantity of electricity that flows in this
time
A. 3 C B. 12 C C. 720 C D. 43200 C
18. The rate at which electric charge flows past a point in a circuit is measured in
A. watts B. volts C. amperes D. coulombs
19. What is the potential difference across a load, if the energy needed to maintain a current of 0.8 A in
the load for 10 s in 40 J.
A. 0.2 V B. 3.2 V C. 5.0 V D. 320 V
20. The resistance of a wire increases when its
A. Length is increased B. Length is decreased
C. Temperature is reduced D. Cross-sectional area is doubled.
21. Which of the following appliances consumes 5 kWh of electrical energy?
A. A 100 W lamp left on for 10 hours C. A 500 W motor used for 10 minutes
B. A 250 W drill used for 2 minutes D. A 250 W television left on for 20 minutes
22. The initial and final reading after one month of electricity supplied is 21000kWh and 21800 kWh, if
each unit costs shs.175

140
 𝑆ℎ𝑠 800 𝑠ℎ 42800
A. B.
175 175

C. 𝑠ℎ. 800 𝑥 175 D. 𝑠ℎ 42800 𝑥 175

23. Two appliances are rated 240V, 2kW and 240V, 500W. Find the cost of running these appliances for
3 hours, if one unit of electricity cost 70/=
A. 105/= B. 175/= C. 420/= D. 525/=
24. 𝐴 𝑝. 𝑑 of 20V is applied across two resistors of 5  and 6  connected in series . Determine the
𝑝. 𝑑 across the 6  resistor if the total circuit current is 2A.
A. 1.0V B. 2.0V C. 3.3V D. 12.0V
25. An electric bulb has a resistance of 960  . Find the electrical power expended when connected
across a 240V supply.
960 240 960 240 𝑥 240
A. 240 𝑥 240
B. 960
C. 240
D. 960

26. Which of the following statement is / are true?

(i) When identical cells are in parallel, the total 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is the sum of individual 𝑒𝑚𝑓𝑠.
(ii) In a lead – acid accumulator, the lead peroxide acts as the positive pole
(iii) The 𝑒𝑚𝑓 of a cell is the total p. 𝑑 across the external and internal resistances.
A. (i) only B. (i) and (ii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i),(ii) and (iii)
27. A cell of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 1.5V and internal resistance,r, is connected in series with a 5  resistor as shown
above. If the current in the circuit is 0.25A, find r.
A. 1 B. 6 C. 11  D. 16 
28. A current of 10A flows through an electrical heater for 1 hour. If 7.2 𝑥 104 J of electrical energy is
converted to heat. The 𝑃. 𝑑 across the heater is;
A. 2.0 𝑥 102 𝑉 B. 2.0 𝑥 103 𝑉 C. 1.2 𝑥 104 𝑉 D. 7.2 𝑥 104 V
29. If the cost of one unit of electrical energy is 150/= , find the cost of using two 75W lamps for 2
hours.
A. 0.30/= B. 4.00/= C. 22.50/= D. 45.00/=
30. An electric lamp is marked 120 W, 240V. What does 120 W mean?
A. Total energy consumed by the lamp B. Rate at which energy is consumed
C. Total current flowing through the lamp D. Potential difference across the lamp
31.

2.5 Ω 5.0 Ω

141
 If each cell shown in the figure above has an internal resistance of 0.5  , find the effective
resistance in the circuit.
A. 1.25 B. 7.50 C. 8.00 D. 9.00
32. Two resistors of 2 ohms and 3 ohms are connected in series with a 10volt battery of neglible
internal resistance. The potential difference across a 3 ohm resistors is
A. 2V B. 5V C. 6V D. 10V
33. A bulb is rated 240 V , 60W . Find its resistance.
A. 0.25  B. 410  C. 120  D. 960 
34. Uganda electricity Board charges sh. 90/= per kilo – watt hour of electrical energy consumed .
What is the total cost of operating four light bulbs rated at 100 W for 5 hours?
A. 11.25/= B. 45/= C. 180/= D. 180.000/=
35. A current of 2A flows through a coil of resistance 3 ohms for one minute . How much energy is
converted into heat?
A. 6J B. 12J C. 360J D. 720 J
36. What is the cost of running five 200 W lamps for 8 hours if electrical energy costs shs. 140 per unit?
A. Sh.1120 B. sh.700 C. sh. 224 D. sh.28
37. The device which disconnects the mains when there is a sudden increase in voltage is
A. Fuses B. Switch C. Earth wire D. Circuit breaker
38. An electric heater is connected to a 200 V supply . The heating element has a resistance of 10  .
The cost of using the heater for 4 hours if each unit of energy costs sh. 35 is
A. sh.5600 B. sh.1400 C. sh.500 D. sh.140
39. The resistance of a metal in the form of a wire increase with
A. Decreases in length B. Increase in temperature
C. Decrease in temperature D. Increase in cross – section area.
40. How many kilowatt hours are used to run
(i) 8 kW cooker for 1 hour
(ii) 3 kW immersion heater for 40 min
(iii) 960 W hair drier for 20 min
A. 10.32 kWh B. 147.20 kWh C. 768.00 kWh D. 971.00kWh
41. The effective resistance when two resistors of 5  and 15  joined in series are placed in parallel
with a 20  resistor is
A. 0.1  B. 10  C. 20  D. 40 
42. When a 240 V supply is connected across an electrical appliance, a current of 200 𝑚𝐴 flows in the
circuit. What electrical power supplied to the appliance?

142
 A. 1.2 W B. 48.0 W C. 48000.0W D. 120000.0W
43. For safety in a house, a fuse and a switch are connected to
Fuse Switch
A. Live wire Neutral wire
B. Neutral wire Earth wire
C. Live wire Live wire
D. Earth wire Neutral wire
44. In the figure below, the ammeter A reads 4A and the voltmeter v reads 4v. Find the value of R.
12 V V A. 1 B. 2

A
2 Ω
C. 3 D. 4
R

45. An electric appliance having 4 heating elements, each rated at 0.75 kW, is used on a 240 V mains.
What is power rating of the appliance?
A. 80 kW B. 60 kW C. 3 kW D. 3W
46. An electric heater is rated 240 V, 400W. if the efficiency of the heater is 80%. Find the amount of
energy wasted per second.
A. 48 J B. 80J C. 192 J D. 320 J
47.
The figure shows a network of resistors . The
3Ω 2Ω
P Q effective resistance between points P and Q is

5Ω A. 0.97  B. 1.2 
C. 2.5  D. 10 
48. A car head lamp bulb is marked 12V , 48 W. This means that when a
A. Voltage of 12 V is applied , a current of 0.25 A flows
B. Power of 48 W is developed, the resistance is 4 
C. Voltage of 12 V is applied, resistance is 4 
D. Voltage of 12 V is applied , energy in every second is 48J.
49. Which of the following statements are true about electric wiring?
(i) The fuse is always connected into the live wire leading to a circuit
(ii) The fuse is connected into the neutral wire leading to a circuit
(iii) When a fault develops in the circuit, it is neutral wire which has to be disconnected
A. (i) only B. (iii) only C. (i) and (iii) only D. (i),(ii) and (iii)
50. An electricity board charges 10 per kilowatt – hour of electrical energy supplied. What is the total
cost in shs. Of operating 4 light bulbs, each rated at 100 W for 5 hours?

143
 A. sh 2 B. sh. 20 C. sh.4,000 D. sh.20,000
51. What is the most suitable fuse for an electric heater rated 2.5 k W when connected to a voltage of
240V?
A. 5A B. 10A C. 13A D. 30A
52. When the circuit in the figure above is switched on, the voltmeter
- +
V
Switch

Cell

A. Show no deflection B. Deflects in the wrong direction

C. Reads the 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 of the cell D. Reads the terminal potential difference across the cell
53.

12V V 6Ω 3Ω

A battery of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 12 V is connected across two resistors of 6  and 3  as shown in the

figure. Which one of the following statement is true about the circuit? The
A. 𝑝. 𝑑 across 6  is half the 𝑝. 𝑑 across 3 
B. 𝑝. 𝑑 across 6  is twice the 𝑝. 𝑑 across 3 
C. 𝑝. 𝑑 across 6  is the same as the 𝑝. 𝑑 across 3 
D. reading of voltmeter V is greater than 12 V
54. An electric heater which operates from 240 V mains draws 15 A for 40 minutes. Calculate the cost
of electricity, given that electricity costs Sh. 9.00 per kilowatt hour.
A. shs.1.44 B. sh. 21.60 C. sh.960 D. sh. 1296
55. Two coils of wire of resistances 2  and 3  are connected in series to a 10V battery of negligible
internal resistance. The current through the 2  resistor is
A. 0.5 A B. 2A C. 5A D. 50 A
56. A bulb of resistance 1.5  is connected to a cell of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 2.0 V. Find the energy dissipated in 45 s.
A. 60 J B. 67.5 J C. 90 J D. 120 J
57. Calculate the amount of current taken by an electric flat iron marked 250 V, 1000 W.
A. 0.25 A B. 0.40 A C. 2.50 A D. 4.00 A
58.

144
 The total resistance between X and Y in the
3Ω 4Ω
x y figure is

7Ω A. 20.0  B. 9.50 
C. 6.30  D. 4.2 
59. Two cells each of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.5  are connected in series with a resistor
of 2  as in the figure below.
The reading of the voltmeter V when S is
s closed is
V
A. 1.0 V B. 1.5 V
2Ω C. 2.0 V D. 3.0 V
60.
In the above circuit B1 , B2, B3 and B4 are
B4
1.1A bulbs. The readings of ammeters e and F are,
B1
E B3 F respectively.
B2 A. 1.5A, 1.3 A B. 1.3 A, 1.5 A
1.3A 2.6A
C. 1.3A, 1.1A D. 1.3A, 2.6A
61.
Emf
L
M
X

Which one of the following arrangements gives the correct circuit?

X L M
A. voltmeter rheostat ammeter
B. ammeter voltmeter rheostat
C. rheostat voltmeter ammeter
D. ammeter rheostat voltmeter
62. Four bulbs each rated at 75 W operate for 120 hours . If the cost of electricity is sh. 100/= per unit,
the total cost in shillings will be
A. 150 B. 900 C. 3600 D. 7500
63.

20 Ω 18 Ω

30Ω

145
 Calculate the effective resistance for the arrangement in the figure above.
A. 0.7  B. 2.8  C. 3.0  D. 6.8 
64.

S1
P Q

S2

Which one of the following statements is true about the circuit in the figure above.
A. when S1 and S2 are closed both bulbs P and Q light
B. when S1 is open and S2 is closed , both bulbs P and Q do not light
C. when S2 is open and S1 and is closed , bulb P lights but bulb Q does not
D. when S1 and S2 are open , both bulbs P and Q light
65. A house has four 75 W lamps and five 100 W lamps. What will be the cost of running the lamps for
10 hours if the cost per kWh is sh . 50/=
A. sh. 250.00 B. sh.400.00 C. sh.500.00 D. sh.787.50
66. It is recommended that buildings should have earthed conductors in order to
A. reduce heat intensity on hot days
B. remove excess electrons from the building
C. stabilize the current electric to the building.
D. provide more charges to electric appliance in the building
67. An electric heater is used to heat 0.2kg of water for 200 s. Find the p.d across the heater if the
current through it is 0.5A and the temperature of the water rises by 250C
A. 145 V B. 175 V C. 210 V D. 240 V
68. A current of 2 A flows in a circuit in which two resistors , each of 3  , are connected as shown in
the figure below. Calculate the p.d across XY
A. 1.5 V B. 3.0 V
2A C. 6.0 V D. 12.0 V
X 3Ω Y
3Ω

69. In a house – wiring system, all connections to power points are in parallel so as to
A. supply the same current B. operate at the same voltage
C. minimize cost of electricity D. consume the same amount of energy
70.

146
 2Ω

V
10V 6Ω 6Ω

What is the reading of the voltmeter V in the circuit in the figure above?
A. 2.0 V B. 4.0 V C. 5.0 V D. 10.0V
71. A current of 5 A flows through a given point in a circuit for 2 minutes. Calculate the quantity of
charge that passes the point.
A. 2.5 C B. 10 C C. 300 C D. 600 C
72.
E

V
A S

In the figure above , the readings of the ammeter, A and voltmeter , V when switch S is open and
closed respectively are as shown in the table below.

Ammeter reading Voltmeter reading

S is open 0.0A 4.5V
S is closed 3.0A 3.0V

The internal resistance of cell E is

A. 0.0  B. 0.5  C. 1.0  D. 1.5 
73. An electric toaster plate is 220 – 240 V, 750 W . The fuse is
A. 1A B. 3A C. 5A D. 13A
74. The power used in a 100  resistor connected to a 12 V source of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 is
A. 0.69W B. 1.20W C. 1.44W D. 8.33 W
75. A current of 0.5 A flows when an electric lamp is connected to a battery of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 12 V. When is the
total resistance in the circuit?
A. 0.042  B. 6.0  C. 12.5  D. 24.0 
76.
In the circuit diagram above the ammeter
A
V reading is 0.2A . The reading , in volts shown
10 Ω by the voltmeter is
30 Ω
20 Ω A. 6 B. 8
C. 10 D. 12

147
77.

2.0V
2.0V shown in figure above. Calculate the current
through the 8  resistor when switch S is
S
8.0Ω closed
A. 0.25 A B. 0.50 A
Two identical cells each of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 2.0V and
C. 2.00 A D. 4.00 A
negligible internal resistance are connected as
78.
4V Calculate the current in the 2 Ω resistor in
the circuit in the figure above .
2Ω A. 0.5 A B. 0.8 A
5Ω C. 2.0 A D. 2.8 A

79. Calculate the cost of running four 40 W lamps and three 60 W lamps for 5 hours if electric energy
costs shs. 10 per kilowatt – hour unit.
A. shs. 3.4 B. shs. 17 C. shs. 34 D. shs.50
80. Very high voltages are used when distributing electrical power from the power stations because
A. some electrical equipment require very high voltage
B. currents are lower so energy losses are smaller
C. very high voltages are generated at the power stations
D. there is less likelihood of the transmission lines being struck by lightening.
81. How many lamps marked 75 w . 240 v could light normally when connected in parallel having a 5
A fuse?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 16 D. 26
82. Two cells of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 1.5 V and internal resistance 1Ω are in series with a resistor of resistance 2Ω.
Calculate the value of the current in the circuit .
1.5 1.5 3
A. 4
𝐴 B. 3
𝐴 C. 4
𝐴 D. 1A

83.
3V There identical lamps are connected as
shown above. What is the reading on the
voltmeter?
A. 1.0 V B. 1.5 V
V C. 2.0 V D. 3.0 V

84. Which one of the following would be suitable to use the construction of transformer – core?
A. Lead B. copper C. soft iron D. aluminium

148
85. Which one of the following equations does not represent the expression for power P , in terms of
voltage V, current I , and resistance R
𝑉2 𝑅2
A. 𝑃 = 𝑉𝐼 B. 𝑃 = 𝐼 2 𝑅 C. 𝑃 = D. P=
𝑅 𝐼

86.
The ammeter in the figure above indicates
A the current through
P A. lamp P only B. lamps P and Q
Q C. lamps Q and S D. lamps P,Q ,R and S

R S

87. An electric motor is connected by a cable to a 240 v supply. The 𝑝. 𝑑 across the motor is 239V when
the current flowing is 5 A . The resistance of the cable is
A. 0.2  B. 5 C. 47.8  D. 48 
88.

R A galvanometer G , is connected in a circuit as

I
shown in the figure above . the galvanometer
is intended to measure
G
A. the potential difference across R
B. the power dissipated by R
C. the resistance of R
D. the current through R
89.
2Ω The total resistance in the above circuit is

2Ω A. 0.8  B. 5.0 
4Ω
C. 8.0  D. 1.25 

SECTION B
1. A battery of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 24V is connected in series with a resistor R and a lamp rated 10V, 20W as shown
below. If the bulb is operating normally, find

24 V (i) The p.d across the resistor

(ii) The value of R
10V, 20W
R (iii) The power dissipated in the resistor.

149
2. (a) Define the ohm as a unit of resistance
(b)
1.0V,1Ω 1.5V, 0.5Ω

E1 E2

8.5Ω

Figure above shows two cells 𝐸1 and 𝐸2 of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓𝑠 1.0 𝑉 and 1.5 𝑉 and internal resistance of 1.0 Ω
and 0.5 Ω respectively connected in series with an 8.5 Ω resistor. Calculate the current flowing
through the circuit.
3. (a) What is meant by resistance in an electric circuit
(b) Three resistors 2, 4 and 3 are connected in the same circuit
(i) Draw a diagram to show how they are connected to give minimum resistance
(ii) Find the value of the minimum resistance
4. (a) Sketch a 𝑝. 𝑑 versus current graph for an 𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑖𝑐 resistor.
(b) State one example of anon−𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑖𝑐 conductor.
(c) Find the voltage across a 3Ω resistor if a current of 4A passes through it.
5. (a) Define the volt
(b)
2 Ω (i) What is the effective resistance in the circuit
6 V
V in the figure above?
k 4 Ω 4 Ω
(The cell has negligible resistance)
(ii) What will be the reading of the voltmeter

6. (a) What is meant by short circuit as applied electricity?

(b) An electric appliance is marked 240𝑉, 4𝑘𝑊.
(i) What does this statement mean?
(ii) Calculate the current drawn by the appliance in normal use.
7. (a) A source of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 20V and negligible internal resistance is connected to resistors of 2Ω , 2Ω
and 3Ω as shown below.
E.m.f = 20V Find the ammeter reading when switch K is

2Ω K
A (i) Open
3Ω
(ii) Closed
2Ω

8. A galvanometer has a resistance of 5Ω and a range of 0 – 40 𝑚𝐴. Find the resistance of the resistor
which must be connected in parallel with the galvanometer if a maximum current of 10A is to be
measured.

150
9. (a) State Ohm’s law
(b)

3Ω 4V 6Ω

Two resistors of 3Ω and 6Ω are connected across a battery of 4v of negligible internal

resistance as shown above. Find the;
(i) Combined resistance
(ii) Current supplied by the battery
10. A galvanometer of full scale deflection 15mA is converted into an ammeter of full scale deflection
3.0 A by connecting a low resistance in parallel with the galvanometer.
(a) What will be the maximum current through the shunt?
(b) Find the resistance of the shunt if the internal resistance of the galvanometer 4Ω
11. An Ammeter connected in series with a cell and a 2Ω resistor reads 0.5A when the 2Ω resistor is
replaced by a 5Ω resistors, the ammeter reading drops to 0.25A. calculate the;
(i) internal resistance of the cell
(ii) emf of the cell
12.
A source of emf of 14v is connected as shown in
R1
R5 the figure above. If R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 =R5 =1Ω

R2 Find ;
R3 R4 (i) The equivalent resistance of the
circuit
14 V (ii) The current flowing through R5
(iii) The current through R3
13. An electrical appliance is rated 240V, 60W.
(a) What do you understand by this statement?
(b) Calculate the current flowing through and the resistance of the appliance, when the
appliance is operated at the rated values.
14. (a) Explain why a current does not flow between the electrode in a dilute sulphuric acid
until a certain value of 𝑝. 𝑑 is exceeded.
(b) Using the same axes, sketch a graph of current against 𝑝. 𝑑 for;
(i) A torch bulb (ii) A carbon resistor
15. A 240V, 600W water heater is used to boil water for 5 minutes.
(a) By what means does heat spread through the water?

151
 (b) Calculate
(i) The current that flows in the heater
(ii) The electrical energy converted into heat.
16. (a) Define the coulomb as a unit of charge.
(b) A charge of 180C flows through a lamp for 2 minutes. Find the electric current flowing
through the lamp.
(c) What is the use of a voltmeter in an electric circuit?
17. (a) why is an ammeter constructed such that it has a low internal resistance.
(b) A milliameter has an internal resistance of 4Ω and a full scale deflection of 0.015A. calculate
the value of the resistor that must be connected to the milliammeter so that a maximum
current of 5A can be measured.

PAPER TWO QUESTIONS

1. (a) Define the following terms
(i) Potential difference (ii) Internal resistance if a cell
(b) A battery of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 10V is connected to resistors 2.6 Ω, 4 Ω and 6 Ω as shown in the figure below.
10 V

A 4Ω
2.6Ω
6Ω

(i) Calculate the ammeter and voltmeter readings

(ii) Find the rate at which electrical energy is converted to heat energy in the 6 Ω resistor
(e) What is meant by a short circuit
(f) (i) Briefly explain how a milliammeter can be adopted to measure much higher currents
(ii) State two ways of increasing the sensivity of electrical meters
2. (a) Distinguish between primary and secondary cells and give one example of each.
(b) State two precautions one has to undertake to prolong the life of a lead- acid accumulator
(c) Define potential difference across a resistor in a circuit
(d) With the aid of a circuit diagram, describe how you can determine the internal resistance of a
cell.
E = 2 V

4 Ω 3 Ω 2 Ω

152
 Calculate the current through the 4 Ω resistor
3. (a) (i) What is meant by electromotive force?
(ii) A dry cell supplies a current of 1.2 A through two 2 Ω resistors connected in parallel.
When the resistors are connected in series, the current flowing in the circuit is 0.4 A,
find the electromotive force
(b) An electric lamp is rated 12V, 24W
(i) Explain what is meant by this statement
(ii) How much current does the lamp draw when connected a cross a 12 V supply?
(c) With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe how four semi-conductor diodes may be used
for full wave rectification
4. A student set up the circuit in the figure below to determine the maximum current which can be
taken by a fuse wire.
Rheostat

Fuse wire

P Q

(a) Describe briefly how this circuit could be used to determine the maximum current
(b) Explain what would happen if
(i) tow strands of the fuse wire were connected in parallel across P and Q
(ii) the length of the fuse were doubled
(c) An electric fire, a lamp and electric drill rated at 2000W, 100W and 300 W
respectively are connected in parallel across a 240 V mains. Find the
(i) power taken from the mains
(ii) current supplied by the mains
(iii) cost of running these appliances for 12 h if one unit costs Shs.200
5. (a) (i) Explain what is meant by polarization as applied to a simple cell
(ii) State how polarization can be minimized in a simple cell
(b) Explain how the life of a lead-acid accumulator may be prolonged
(c)
3 V What will be the reading of ammeter in

K1 2Ω
figure above if switch 𝐾2 is
A
K2 (i) open and 𝐾1 closed?
4 Ω
(ii) closed and 𝐾1 is closed?

153
6. (a) Define the following terms
(i) the volt (ii) electrical resistance
(b) List ways by which the life of an accumulator can be prolonged
(c)

12V K A battery of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 12 V and negligible

internal resistance is connected to resistances
I2 3Ω
A 2Ω, 3Ω and 6Ω as shown above. Find the
2Ω
I1 6Ω reading of the ammeter, A, when K is closed

(d) State three advantages of an alternating current over a direct current in power transmission
(e) Sketch the current versus voltage variation for a semiconductor diode
7. (a) (i) Distinguish between a conductor and an insulator
(ii) Describe, stating the observations made, how a gold leaf electroscope can be charged
positively
(b) A cell of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 E and internal resistance 1.0Ω is connected in series with a 2Ω resistor and a
switch as shown below. The voltmeter reads 1.5 V when the switch is open

X Y
V 2Ω
E
Z
(i) What is meant by an 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 of a cell?
(ii) Find the value of E
(iii) What will the voltmeter read when the switch is closed?
(iv) What will the voltmeter read if X is connected to Z?. Give reasons for your answer
8. (a) (i) Draw a labelled diagram of a lead acid accumulator
(ii) List three precautions necessary to prolong the life of an accumulator
(iii) State two advantages of a Nife cell over a lead acid cell
(b) What is meant by the following:
(i) electromotive force,
(ii) internal resistance of a cell
(c) A cell is connected in series with an ammeter and a variable resistor. The potential
difference, V, across the resistor varies with current I, supplied through the resistor as
shown in the graph below. Use the graph to determine the
(i) e.m.f (ii) internal resistance, of a cell

154
 A GRAPH OF V AGAINST I
2.0

1.9

1.8

1.7
V(V)
1.6

1.5

1.4

1.3

1.2

1.1
0 1 2 3 4
I(A)

9. (a) Draw sketch graphs of p.d, V against current, I, for the following
(i) a wire.
(ii) an electrolyte.
(iii) a semi-conductor diode
(b) Explain the difference between a voltmeter and an ammeter in terms of their
(i) construction
(ii) use
(c) State three physical properties that affect the resistance of a solid conductor
(d)

3V Two cells each of e.m.f 1.5 V and negligible

internal resistance are connected in series
across two resistors of 2Ω and 3Ω as shown in
2Ω the diagram above. Calculate the current
3Ω (i) supplied by the cell
(ii) that passes through the 3Ω resistor

155
 ELECTROMAGNETISM
Magnetic effect of a current carrying conductors

If a straight vertical wire passing through the center of a card board held horizontally and current is
passed through the wire, iron fillings sprinkled on the card board make circles when the board is
tapped.

The direction of the magnetic flux depends on the direction of current in the wire, it can be
determined using;

(i) Right hand grip rule

It states that if a wire is held in the right hand with the thumb pointing along the
direction of the current then the direction of the finger’s curvature is the direction of the
magnetic flux.
(ii) Maxwell’s screw rule

1. Field due to a straight wire carrying current

i) Upwards or out

or

ii) Down or into

or

2. Two wires carrying current in the same direction

Attraction occurs
3. Two wires carrying current in opposite direction

Repulsion occurs

156
 4. Field due to a circular coil

5. Field due to a solenoid carrying current.

To tell polarity
When viewing one end of the coil, it will be N polarity if the current is flowing in
𝑎𝑵𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑘𝑤𝑖𝑠𝑒 direction and of S polarity if the current is flowing in clockwise direction

ELECTROMAGNETS
If a bar of pure iron is placed inside a solenoid, it becomes strongly magnetized when the
current is flowing.
When current is switched off, the iron loses its magnetism such a device is called an
electromagnet.
The strength of a field of an electromagnet can be increased by;
 Increasing the magnitude of the current
 Using pure iron
 Increasing the number of coils/ turns of the solenoid
 Putting the poles of the magnet closer

Applications of electromagnets
a) lifting magnets
In steel induction, electromagnets are used
for lifting and transporting heavy steel from
one part of the industry to another. The
electromagnets are made up of several coils
S N
of insulated copper wires wound on a U-
Battery switch shaped soft iron so that opposite polarity is
induced.

157
 b) Electric bell
metal contact which supports a spring
Soft iron yoke
mounted on soft iron armature.
Soft iron core Cell
Operation
Switch  As soon as current is switched on, it flows
gong S N across the contact and around the coil of the
hammer electromagnets.
Spring  The electromagnet attracts the armature and
Soft iron armature
this makes the hammer to strike the gong
Contact  But as it does so the contact separates and
Contact adjusting
screw this stops current flowing and switches off
Structure the electromagnet.
 The electric bell consist of two solenoids  The armature and hammer comes back
wound in opposite direction on two soft closing the contacts and this allows the
iron cores joined by a soft iron yoke. current to flow again so that the whole
 One end of the winding is connected to process is repeated until the bell s switched
source of power supply and the other to a off.

c) Telephone Receiver
 This is placed so that it exerts a pull on the
springy magnetic alloy diaphragm.
 Two solenoids are wound in opposite
Magnetic alloy

Permanent magnet direction on the soft- iron bars.

diaphram

N Operation
 When a person speaks into the microphone
Leads S at the other end of the line a varying electric
current is set up having the same frequency
as the sound waves.
 A similar electric current is caused to pass
Soft iron pole through the solenoids in the ear piece, this
alters the strength of the magnetic flux in
piece Solenoid
the U-shaped magnet and produces a
corresponding variation in the pull of the
Structure diaphragm
 Consists of a U-shaped magnet formed by  The diaphragm therefore vibration and
placing a short permanent bar magnet reproduces a copy of it sounds waves which
across the ends of two soft iron bars. entered the microphone.

Electric currents in a magnetic fields

Electric currents cause magnetic fields around them, therefore when placed in a magnetic
field the two magnetic fields interact and produce a force. The two forces can move wires
and turn coils which carry electric current.

158
 Factors affecting magnitude and direction of force
(i) Current (𝐹 ∝ 𝐼). Increase in current increases the force
(ii) Length of wire in the field (𝐹 ∝ 𝐿)
(iii) Strength of magnet/magnetic flux density(𝐹 ∝ 𝐵)
It is summarized by 𝐹 = 𝐵 𝐼 𝐿
The direction of the force can be predicted by Flemings left hand rule.
It states, the thumb, the first finger and second finger are held at right angles with the First
finger pointing in the direction of magnetic Field and seCond finger pointing in the direction
of the Current, the Thumb gives the direction of the Thrust /force

Thumb /
force

Fist finger/
Field
Second finger
/current

Simple electric motor [uses L.H.R]

It is a device which changes electric energy to mechanical energy
Coil connected in a circuit with a battery, the
coil rotates
N S Operation
Permanent
magnet  When currents switched on, it flows
through the coil and experiences upward
Brush Commutator and downward force, these tow forces
form a couple which causes the coil to
rotate
 At vertical position, the brushes touch the
Cell
Switch space between halves of the commutator
and current is cut off.
Structure  However due to its momentum, the coil
 Consists of a rectangular coil which can passes the vertical position and the two
rotate between permanent magnets. commutaotrs halves change contact from
 The two ends of the coil are connected to one brush to another. This reverses the
split rings (commutators) current through the coil and hence the
 Two carbon brushes are caused to press direction of force and the sides of the coil.
against commutators and when  The coil continues to rotate so long as
current is flowing.

Note
Electric motor is improved by;
i) increasing current
ii) Increasing the number of turns in the coil
iii) Using a stronger magnet

159
 Moving coil loud speaker
Casing Structure
Soft iron core Consists of a cylindrical voice coil placed in a
soft iron core attached to the permanent
magnet.
Paper cone Operation
 Varying current flows in the coil which is
Flexible leads in a magnetic field. The coil experiences a
to coil varying force which causes it and the
Voice coil paper cone to move back and forth.
 This sets the air in contact with it into
Permanent magnet
vibration so setting up a sound wave
which follows the same pattern as the
original electrical signal.

Moving coil Galvanometer

Scale  The coil is pivoted on jeweled bearings
which reduce friction when the coil
rotates. Onto the coil is attached a pointer
Permanent
Pointer magnet which deflects when the coil rotates
 The current to be measured enters and
N S
leaves the through the hair spring
Operation
Coil Soft iron cylinder
 When current passes through the col,
Hair springs
Jewel bearings
there is a force on t which makes it turn.
Structure  the coil turns until the magnetic force on
 It consists of coil of a wire wound on an it is balanced by the force due to the
aluminum former which is placed over an tension of the hair springs
iron cylinder lying between two curved  The position of the pointer is then the
poles of a permanent magnet. measure of current

Note
(i) The two hair springs are wound in opposite direction so as to provide a restoring
couple and they allow current to be measured to enter and leave
(ii) The coil is put in soft iron cylinder which concentrates the magnetic flux radially in
the annular space. For this reason, the magnetic flux density is constant and in the
plane of the coil, hence force on the sides of the coil will be proportional to the
current.

Sensitivity of the galvanometer may be increased by;

i) Using a coil of large area
ii) Increase the number of turns of the coil
iii) Using a strong magnet to provide large magnetic flux density
iv) Using very weak hair springs (Small tortional constant)

160
 Conversion of galvanometer to an ammeter
To convert a galvanometer to an ammeter, a low resistance called a shunt is connected in
parallel with the galvanometer
Most of the current to be measured takes the path through the shunt and very small current
through the galvanometer.

Examples
1. A galvanometer of resistance 4Ω and full scale deflection (𝑓. 𝑠. 𝑑) 10𝑚𝐴 is to be used for the
purpose of measuring current to 1.0𝐴 . Find the value of the shunt to be used.
Solution
Ig Rg=4Ω 𝐼𝑆 = 0.99𝐴
1A G Since the shunt and galvanometer are in
IS parallel, they have the same 𝑝. 𝑑
shunt
𝑉𝑔 = 𝑉𝑆
Rs 𝐼𝑔 𝑅𝑔 = 𝐼𝑆 𝑅𝑆
Current through galvanometer 𝐼𝑔 = 10𝑚𝐴 0.01𝑥4 = 0.99𝑥𝑅𝑆
10 0.01𝑥4
𝐼𝑔 = = 0.01𝐴 𝑅𝑆 =
1000 0.99
Current through shunt 𝐼𝑆 = 1 − 0.01 𝑅𝑆 = 0.04Ω
2. A galvanometer has a resistance of 20Ω and gives a full scale deflection for a current of 2000µ𝐴. If
the galvanometer is converted to an ammeter which can read up to 1.0𝐴 . What is the size of the
extra low resistance?
Solution
Ig Rg=20Ω 𝐼𝑆 = 0.998𝐴
1A G Since the shunt and galvanometer are
IS in parallel, they have the same 𝑝. 𝑑
shunt
𝑉𝑔 = 𝑉𝑆
Rs 𝐼𝑔 𝑅𝑔 = 𝐼𝑆 𝑅𝑆
Current through galvanometer 𝐼𝑔 = 2000µ𝐴 0.002𝑥20 = 0.998𝑥𝑅𝑆
2000 0.002𝑥20
𝐼𝑔 = = 0.002𝐴 𝑅𝑆 =
1000000 0.998
Current through shunt 𝐼𝑆 = 1 − 0.002 𝑅𝑆 = 0.04Ω
3. A moving coil galvanometer of internal resistance 4 gives a maximum deflection when a current of
2mA flows through it. A shunt of resistance 0.06 is used to convert the galvanometer into an
ammeter.
a) Find the current through the shunt
b) The maximum current that can be measured by the set up.
Solution
Ig Rg 0.002𝑥4
I G 𝐼𝑆 =
0.06
IS
shunt 𝐼𝑆 = 0.133𝐴
Rs Maximum current 𝐼 = 𝐼𝑔 + 𝐼𝑆
𝐼𝑔 𝑅𝑔 = 𝐼𝑆 𝑅𝑆 = 0.002 + 0.133
0.002𝑥4 = 0.06𝑥𝐼 =0.135𝐴
𝑆

161
Conversion of a galvanometer to a voltmeter
Large 𝑝. 𝑑 can be measured by placing a high resistance called multiplier in series with
galvanometer.
Multiplier

Same current passes through the galvanometer and multiplier

Example
How can you measure 𝑎 𝑝. 𝑑 of up to 30V using a galvanometer of resistance 10Ω and 𝑓. 𝑠. 𝑑
of 15𝑚𝐴.
Solution
Multiplier
0.015A
Rg Rm
Maximum current through the galvanometer = 0.015𝐴
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑝. 𝑑 = 𝑉𝑔 + 𝑉𝑚
30 = 𝐼𝑔 𝑅𝑔 + 𝐼𝑆 𝑅𝑚
30 = 0.015 𝑥10 + 0.015𝑅𝑚
30 − 0.15 = 0.015𝑅𝑚
𝑅𝑚 =1990Ω
Galvanometer should be connected with a high resistance multiplier of 1990Ω

Exercise
1. A moving coil galvanometer is to be used as a voltmeter. State how it can be modified for the
above function. If the galvanometer s of internal resistance 10Ω and maximum 𝑝. 𝑑 1000V
can be measures using high resistance of 1000Ω, find the maximum current that may go
through the galvanometer.
2. Consider a full scale deflection when a current of 15mA flow through it. If the resistance of
the galvanometer is 5Ω, find the magnitude of the resistance (multiplier) to be used for it to
measure a maximum 𝑝. 𝑑 of 15V [995Ω]
3. A moving coil galvanometer has resistance of 0.5Ω and full scale deflection of 2mA. How can
it be adopted to read current to voltage 10V [4999Ω]
4. A moving coil galvanometer has resistance of 0.5Ω and full scale deflection of 2mA. How can
it be adopted to read current 6A [𝟏. 𝟔𝟕𝒙𝟏𝟎−𝟒Ω]
5. Consider a moving coil galvanometer which has resistance of 5Ω and full scale deflection
when a current of 15mA. A suppose a maximum current of 3A is to be measured using this
galvanometer. What is the value of the shunt required [0.025Ω]
6. A galvanometer of internal resistance of 20Ω and full scale deflection of 5mA. How can it be
modified for use as;
(i) 1.0A ammeter
(ii) 100V voltmeter [ (i). 1.05Ω (ii). 1980Ω ]
7. A milliameter has a full scale reading of 0.01A and has resistance 20Ω. Show how a suitable
resistor may be connected in order to use this instrument as a voltmeter reading up to 10V.
[980Ω]

162
 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
INDUCED CURRENT/ 𝑬𝒎𝒇
When a conductor wire moves across a magnetic field such that it cuts the magnetic field
lines, an 𝑒𝑚𝑓 / current is induced in the wire. The 𝑒𝑚𝑓/ current produced in this way is
called electromagnetic induction.
Definition
Electromagnetic induction s a process where an 𝑒𝑚𝑓/ current is induced in a
conductor when flux linking it changes.

Laws of electromagnetic induction

Faraday’s law: It states that the magnitude of induced 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is directly proportional to the
rate of change magnetic flux linking it.

Lenz’s law: The induced 𝑒𝑚𝑓 or current flows in a direction so as to oppose the change in
the flux causing it.

Faraday’s experiments on electromagnetic induction

 When a magnet is suddenly pushed with its south pole towards a coil connected on a
galvanometer, the galvanometer shows a deflection showing that current has been
induced in the coil.
N S
Magnet plunged
into coil
S N

 On removal of the magnet from the col, the galvanometer again deflects but in
opposite direction.
S N
Magnet pulled
out of the coil
S N

Note
If both the magnet and coil are stationary, the galvanometer gives no deflection because
there is no change in the magnetic flux.
Likewise no deflection when the magnet and coil move with the same speed and same
direction.

Faraday’s conclusion
Whenever there is change in the magnetic flux linking the coil, an 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is induced in the coil
and if the col has a closed circuit, the 𝑒𝑚𝑓 will produce a current.

163
 Factors which affect magnitude of the induced 𝒆𝒎𝒇/current
a) Number of turns of the coil. Many turns give a large current
b) Strength of the magnetic field. Using a stronger magnet increases the induced 𝑒𝑚𝑓
c) Speed at which the magnet moves. At a high speed the deflection is high.

Direction of induced current in a straight wire

Current is induced in a straight wire when it is moved at right angles to the magnetic flux
near a bar magnet

 If the wire is moved downwards, the

galvanometer deflects in the direction
Current shown, indicating that an induced current
is flowing.
 If the wire is moved upwards the induced
Field N
S current is reversed in accordance with
Fleming’s right hand rule.
Motion  When there is wire is moved horizontally
(along the field), no deflection is observed
since the flux is not cut.
Note:
To predict the direction of induced 𝑒𝑚𝑓 (current), we use Fleming’s right hand rule or
dynamo rule.
Motion Thumb-------motion
First finger----Field
Field
Second finger---induced current
Current

Alternating current (𝑨. 𝑪) generator / dynamo

A dynamo changes mechanical energy to electrical energy
Coil Structure
 Consists of a rectangular coil between
permanent magnets.
N S  The two ends of the coil are joined to slip
Permanent rings against which carbon brushes are
magnet caused to press lightly.
Operation
Carbon brushes  When the coil is rotated in a uniform
magnetic field, it cuts the magnetic flux
Terminals and an 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is induced in the coil.
Slip rings  The 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is tapped off using carbon
brushes pressed against slip rings
 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is produced continuously but
changes direction

164
 NB:
During rotation 𝑒𝑚𝑓 increases to maximum when a coil is in horizontal position.
Decreases and becomes zero when coil is in vertical position. It follows the same pattern but
direction of 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is reversed.

Variation of induced 𝒆𝒎𝒇 with time for A.C generator

emf
Peak value

time

Note;
A.C generator can be changed to 𝑑. 𝑐 generator by replacing slip rings with split rings
(commutators).

Simple direct current (𝒅. 𝒄) generator/ dynamo

Coil
Operation
Permanent
N S  When the coil is rotated in a uniform
magnet magnetic field, it cuts the magnetic flux
and an 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is induced in the coil.
Brush Commutator  The 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is tapped off using carbon
Terminals brushes pressed against slip rings
 However as the coil rotates, the
Structure
commutators change contact from one
 Consists of a rectangular coil between
brush to another although the current is
permanent magnets.
received in the coil, the change over
 The two ends of the coil are joined to split
brushes and commutators ensure that the
rings/ commutators against which carbon
direction of the current is maintained.
brushes are caused to press lightly.

A graph of induced 𝒆𝒎𝒇 with time for 𝒅. 𝒄 generator

emf

time

Note:
𝑑. 𝐶 dynamo can be changed to 𝐴. 𝐶 by replacing commutators with slip rings

165
 Factors which affect magnitude of the induced 𝒆𝒎𝒇/current in conductor
1. Number of turns of the coil. Many turns give a large 𝑒𝑚𝑓
2. Area of the conductors. Increasing the area of conductor increases the induced 𝑒𝑚𝑓
3. Strength of the magnetic field. Using a stronger magnet increases the induced 𝑒𝑚𝑓
4. Speed of rotation of the coil. At a high speed the 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is high.

Mutual induction
This is the process by which an 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is induced in a coil due to changing current in the near
by coil.

Self-induction
This s a process by which an 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is induced in a coil due to changing current in the same
coil.

TRANSFORMER
This is a device that steps up and down voltage.
A transformer that steps up voltage is called step up transformer and the one that steps
down voltage is called step down transformer.
A step up transformer has more turns on the secondary coil while step down transformer
has more turns on the primary.
Symbol

Primary
Secondary

Soft laminated iron core

Structure
Primary and secondary coils are wound on a laminated soft iron core. The purpose of the soft
iron core is to concentrate the magnetic fields produced.
Operation
An alternating voltage 𝑉𝑃 is applied to the primary. This creates changing magnetic fields
which links with the secondary coil.
An 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is then induced in the secondary coil whose magnitude depends on the number of
turns on the secondary coil 𝑁𝑆 .
The 𝑝. 𝑑 across the primary and secondary coils are found from the equation.
𝑉𝑆 𝑁𝑆
=
𝑉𝑃 𝑁𝑃
Example
1. An 𝑎. 𝑐 transformer is used to provide a voltage of 3000V for operating a T.V tube. If the
transformer has 500 turns on primary and is connected to 240V mains supply. How many
turns are in the secondary coil.
Solution

166
 𝑉𝑆 𝑁𝑆 3000𝑥 500
= 𝑁𝑆 =
𝑉𝑃 𝑁𝑃 240
𝑉𝑆 𝑁𝑆 = 6250 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠
𝑁𝑆 = 𝑁
𝑉𝑃 𝑃
2. A transformer has 200 turns of the primary coil. Calculate the number of turns on the
secondary coil if 240V is to be stepped up to 415V
Solution
𝑉𝑆 𝑁𝑆 415𝑥 200
= 𝑁𝑆 =
𝑉𝑃 𝑁𝑃 240
𝑉𝑆 𝑁𝑆 = 345.8 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠
𝑁𝑆 = 𝑁
𝑉𝑃 𝑃

Energy losses in a transformer

1. Heat lost in copper wire (𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝐼 2 𝑅) due to resistance of wires. This can be
minimized by low resistance copper wires
2. Eddy current losses. These are minimized by laminating the core
3. Hysteresis loss. It can be minimized by using a core made of a soft magnetic material.
4. Loss due to poor flux linkage between primary col and secondary coil. It can be
minimized by ensuring that all primary flux is linked with the secondary.
Note:
Although there are a lot of energy losses in the transformer, the energy losses are so small
such that the power, put into primary coil is equal to power got out of secondary coil for a
transformer that is 100% efficient
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑜 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑦 𝑐𝑜𝑖𝑙 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑦 𝑐𝑜𝑖𝑙
𝐼𝑃 𝑉𝑃 = 𝐼𝑆 𝑉𝑆
𝑉𝑆 𝐼𝑃
=
𝑉𝑃 𝐼𝑆
But
𝑉𝑆 𝑁𝑆
=
𝑉𝑃 𝑁𝑃
𝐼𝑃 𝑁𝑆
=
𝐼𝑆 𝑁𝑃
1. A transfer steps up its 𝑝. 𝑑 from 12V to 48V. If the current is flowing in the primary coil is
2A. What is the current in the secondary circuit.
Solution
𝑉𝑆 𝐼𝑃 12𝑥2
= 𝐼𝑆 =
𝑉𝑃 𝐼𝑆 48
𝑉𝑃 𝐼𝑆 = 0.5𝐴
𝐼𝑆 = 𝐼𝑃
𝑉𝑆
2. A transformer designed to operate a 12V lamp from 240V supply has 1200 turns on the
primary coil. Calculate.
i) Number of turns on the secondary coil.
ii) Current passing through the primary coil when the 12V lamp has a current
of 2A flowing through it.
Solution

167
 𝑁𝑝 = 1200, 𝑁𝑆 =? 𝑁𝑆 = 60 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠
𝑉𝑃 = 240𝑉, 𝑉𝑆 = 12𝑉
𝑉𝑆 𝐼𝑃
𝑉𝑆 𝑁𝑆 =
= 𝑉𝑃 𝐼𝑆
𝑉𝑃 𝑁𝑃 𝑉𝑆
𝐼𝑃 = 𝐼𝑆
𝑉𝑆 𝑉𝑃
𝑁𝑆 = 𝑁
𝑉𝑃 𝑃 12𝑥2
𝐼𝑃 =
12𝑥 1200 240
𝑁𝑆 = 𝐼𝑃 = 0.1𝐴
240

Efficiency of a transformer
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡
𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = 𝑥 100%
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑛 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑦 𝑐𝑜𝑖𝑙 = 𝐼𝑆 𝑉𝑆
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑛 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑦 𝑐𝑜𝑖𝑙 = 𝐼𝑃 𝑉𝑃
𝐼𝑆 𝑉𝑆
ɳ= 𝑥100%
𝐼𝑃 𝑉𝑃

Examples
1. A transformer is used on the 240V supply to deliver 9A at 80C to a heating coil. If 10% of the energy
taken from the supply s dissipated in the transformer it self. What is the current in the primary
winding
Solution
Since 10% is dissipated, 8𝑥9
90% = 𝑥100%
ɳ = (100 − 10) = 90% 240 𝑥 𝐼𝑃
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡 8𝑥9𝑥100
𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = 𝑥 100% 𝐼𝑃 =
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 240𝑥90
𝐼𝑆 𝑉𝑆 𝐼𝑃 = 3.33𝐴
ɳ= 𝑥100%
𝐼𝑃 𝑉𝑃

2. A transformer is designed to operate at 240V main supply and deliver 9V. The current drawn from
the main supply is 1A if the efficiency of the transformer is 90%. Calculate
(i) maximum power output
(ii) power lost
Solution
ɳ = 90%, 𝐼𝑃 = 1𝐴, 90𝑥 240𝑥1
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡 =
𝑉 𝑃 = 240𝑉, 𝑉𝑆 = 9𝑉 100
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡 = 216𝑊
𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = 𝑥 100%
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡 Power lost = 𝑃𝐼𝑛 _𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡
90% = 𝑥100%
𝐼𝑃 𝑉𝑃 = 𝐼𝑃 𝑉𝑃 − 216
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡
90% = 𝑥100%
240𝑥1 = (240𝑥1) − 216
Power lost = 24 𝑊

168
3. An electric power generator produces 24kW at 240V, the voltage is stepped up to 400V for
transmission to a factory where it is stepped down to 240V. The total resistance of the
transmission wire is 0.5Ω.
(i) What is the ratio of number of turns in primary to number of turns in secondary is the
transformer.
(ii) Find the power loss in transmission lines assuming both transformers are 100%
efficient.
(iii) What power would have been lost if same had been transmitted directly without
transformer.
Solution
𝑉 = 240 𝑉, 𝑉𝑃 = 4000 𝑉 power loss = 𝐼 2 𝑅
𝑆
𝑉𝑆 𝑁𝑆
i) = power loss = 62 𝑥 0.5
𝑉𝑃 𝑁𝑃
240 𝑁𝑆 = 1.8𝑊
=
4000 𝑁𝑃 iii) power loss = 𝐼 2 𝑅
3 𝑁𝑆 𝑃
= 𝐼=
50 𝑁𝑃 𝑉
24 𝑥 103
𝑁𝑃 : 𝑁𝑆 = 50: 3 I= 240
𝐼 = 100𝐴
ii) power loss = 𝐼 2 𝑅 power loss = 𝐼 2 𝑅
𝑃
but 𝐼 = power loss = 1002 𝑥 0.5
𝑉
24 𝑥 103 = 5000𝑊
I= 4000
𝐼 = 6𝐴
4. A setup transformer is designed to operate from a 240V supply with delivery energy at 250V. If the
transformer is 90% efficient, determine the current into the primary winding when the output
terminals are connected to 250V, 100W lamp.
Solution
𝑉 𝑆 = 250 𝑉, 𝑉𝑃 = 20 𝑉, 𝑃𝐼𝑛 = 111.11𝑊
ɳ = 90%, 𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡 = 100𝑊 𝑃𝐼𝑛 = 𝐼𝑃 𝑉𝑃
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡 111.11
𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = 𝑥 100% 𝐼𝑃 =
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 20
100 𝐼𝑃 = 5.56𝐴
90% = 𝑥100%
𝑃𝐼𝑛

5. A generator with a power out put of 20𝑘𝑊 at 4kV distributes power to a workshop along cables
having a total resistance of 16Ω. Calculate
(i) the current in the cables
(ii) the power loss in the cables
(iii) the potential drop between the ends of the cables
Solution
𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡 = 20𝑘𝑊, 𝑉𝑆 = 4𝑘𝑊 20 𝑥 103
I = 4000
𝑃=𝐼𝑉
𝑃 𝐼 = 5𝐴
𝐼=
𝑉

169
 ii) Power loss = 𝐼 2 𝑅 iii) potential drop = 𝐼 𝑅
Power loss = 52 𝑥 10 = 5𝑥16
= 400𝑊 = 80𝑉

6. A transformer steps up 200V, it has 10 windings in the primary and 100 windings in the
secondary. If the current in the primary winding is 1.2A. What is the current in the secondary
given that the efficiency is 80%
Solution
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡
𝑉 𝑆 = 200 𝑉, 𝑉𝑃 =?, 𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = 𝑥 100%
= 100, = 10 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡
𝑁𝑆 𝑁𝑃 𝐼𝑆 𝑉𝑆
= 1.2𝐴 , 𝐼𝑃 =? 80% = 𝑥100%
𝐼𝑃 𝐼𝑃 𝑉𝑃
ɳ = 80%, 80 𝑥 𝐼𝑃 𝑉𝑃
𝑉𝑆 𝑁𝑆 𝐼𝑆 =
100𝑥𝑉𝑆
=
𝑉𝑃 𝑁𝑃 80 𝑥 1.2𝑥20
200𝑥10 𝐼𝑆 =
200𝑥100
𝑉𝑃 =
100 𝐼𝑆 = 0.096𝐴
𝑉𝑃 = 20𝑉
7. A transformer is designed to private an output of 220V when connected to a 25V supply. If the
transformer is 80% efficient. Calculate the input current when the output is connected to a
220V,75W lamp.
Solution
𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡
𝑉 𝑆 = 220 𝑉, 𝑉𝑃 = 25𝑉, 80% = 𝑥100%
ɳ = 80%,𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡 = 75𝑊 𝐼𝑃 𝑉𝑃
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡 75
𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = 𝑥 100% 𝐼𝑃 = 𝑥100
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 80𝑥25
𝐼𝑃 = 3.75𝐴
Exercise
1. An 𝑎. 𝑐 transformer operates on a 240V mains. The voltage across the secondary which has
960 turns s 20V.
ii) find the number of turns in the primary
iii) if the efficiency of the transformer is 80% calculate the in the primary coil when a
resistor of 40Ω is connected across the secondary. [11520turns, 0.0521A]
2. A transformer whose secondary col has 60 turns and primary 1200 turns has its secondary
connected to a 3Ω resistor if its primary is connected to a 240V 𝑎. 𝑐 supply. Calculate the
current flowing in the primary assuming that the transformer is 80% efficient. [0.25A]
3. A transformer is designed to work on a 240V, 60W supply, it has 3000 turns in the primary
and 200 turns in the secondary and its efficiency is 80%. Calculate the current in the
secondary coil. [3A]
4. An a.c transformer operates on 240V mains. It has 1200 turns in the primary and gives 18V
across the secondary.
i) find the number of turns in the secondary
ii) if the efficiency of the transformer is 90% calculate the current in the
primary coil when a resistor of 50Ω is connected across the secondary
. [90turns, 0.03A]

170
 Transmission of electrical power
When power is transmitted, alternating current is used (𝑎. 𝑐).
A transformer can be used to step up a voltage before transmission and also step down at the
end of the power line.
However power is lost due to heating of the cables during transmission as a result of
resistance of the wires.
Power is transmitted at high voltage as this reduces the energy loss. It is transmitted using
high voltage and low current because the heating effect depends on the square of current
and the loss as heat is reduced by using a high voltage.
power carried by cable = 𝐼𝑉
power lost in heating cables= 𝐼 2 𝑅

Note
Electric cables are always thin so that low current and high voltage is transmitted with low
power loss and the cost of supporting the cable is also reduced.

Advantages of 𝒂. 𝒄 over 𝒅. 𝒄 power transmission

 Alternating current can be stepped up to high voltage and transmitted over long
distances with minimum power loss
 It is very easy to generate.

Section A
1. Which one of the following devices uses flow of current a conductor in magnetic field to produce
motion?
A. Loud speaker B. Alternator C. Microphone. D. D.C generator
2. The direction of the induced 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 in a conductor moving in a magnetic field can be changed by
changing the
(i) speed of the conductor
(ii) direction of motion of the conductor
(iii) direction of the magnetic field
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) C. (i) and (iii) only
B. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i) only
3. Which one of the following graphs shows the variation of 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 produced by a 𝑑. 𝑐 generator with
time?
E.m.f (V)

E.m.f (V)

E.m.f (V)

E.m.f (V)

time (S) time (S) time (S) time (S)

A B C D
4. The energy change that occurs in a loud speaker is
A. electrical to sound energy C. sound to electrical energy
B. kinetic to sound energy D. potential to sound energy
5. Figure below shows two coils P and Q close to each other

171
 P Q

K bulb

When switch K is closed, the bulb lights momentarily because

(i) an 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is induced in coil Q
(ii) an 𝑒𝑚𝑓 is induced in col P
(iii) the magnetic field between P and Q changes
A. (i) only B. (ii) only C. (iii) only D. (i) and (iii) only
6. Which one of the following devices converts electrical energy to mechanical energy?
A. Thermopile B. Dynamo C. Battery D. Motor
7. The direction of the force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field depends on
(i) direction of current
(ii) strength of the magnetic field
(iii) direction of the magnetic field
A. (iii) only B. (i) and (ii) only C. (i) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
8. An 𝑎. 𝑐 generator can be modified to produce 𝑑. 𝑐 by
B. increasing the number of coil
C. increasing the number of turns in the coil
D. using an electromagnet instead of a permanent magnet
E. replacing the slip rings with a split ring
9. Which of the following is NOT an effect of an electric current?
A. Electrolysis B. Magnetic effect C. Heating effect D. Radioactivity
10. Which of the following works with a direct current only
A. Electroplating B. Electric lamp C. Transformer D. Electric bell
11. A voltage of 440V is applied to the primary of a transformed of 2000 turns. If the voltage across the
secondary is 11KV, what is the number of turns in the secondary coil.
A. 50 B. 80 C. 5.00 𝑥104 D. 8.00 𝑥 104
12. When a current I flows through a wire placed in between the poles of a U- magnet as shown above,
the wire will move.
wire

N
I S

A. Upwards B. Down wards

C. Towards the south pole D. Downwards the north pole
13. The direction of induced current in a conductor moving in a magnetic field can be predicted by
applying
A. Faraday’s law B. Maxwell’s screw rule
C. Fleming’s left hand rule D. Fleming’s right hand rule
14.
X Y

The figure above shows a coil connected to a centre zero galvanometer, G. the poles
produced at the ends X and Y of the coil when the North pole of a magnet

172
 A. X – North pole Y- south pole
B. X – South pole Y-north pole
C. X – North pole Y – North pole
D. X- South pole Y- South pole
15. The induced current in a generator
A. Is a maximum when the coil is vertical
B. Is a minimum when the coil is horizontal
C. Changes direction when the coil is horizontal
D. Increase when the speed of rotation increases.
16. The strength of the magnetic field between the poles of an electromagnet remains the same if the
(i) Current in the electromagnet windings is doubled
(ii) Direction of the current in the electromagnet winding are reversed
(iii) The number of turns are halved.
A. (i) only B. (ii) only C. (i) and (ii) only D. (ii) and (iii) only
17. Which of the following factors affect the strength of an electromagnet?
(i) Changing magnitude of the current
(ii) Changing direction of the current
(iii) Doubling number of turns
A. (ii) only B. (i) and (ii) only
C. (i) and (iii) only D. (ii) and (iii) only
18. In which of the following devices is kinetic energy converted to electrical energy?
A. An accumulator B. An electric motor
C. A combustion motor D. A dynamo
19. The arrangement in the figure is used to produce an . 𝑚. 𝑓 . What causes the 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓?
Coil
N S
Magnet
M
A. The attraction between the coil and the magnet
B. The magnetic field outside the coil
C. The magnet placed close to the coil
D. The variation of magnetic field lines linking the coil
20. Which of the following only works with a direct current?
A. Electric lamp B. Transformer
C. Electroplating D. Electric bell
21. In figure below, when switch K is closed, the two soft iron cores will
Iron core Iron core

K
9V 9V switch
A. Repel each other all the time
B. Attract each all the time
C. Attract each other for just a brief moment
D. Has no force of attraction or reputation or repulsion between them

173
22. The diagram in the figure shows a simple electric motor.

A. Reverse current in the coil every half

N S
a revolution
B. Reverse current in the coil every
quarter of a revolution
P R
Magnet
C. Reverse polarity of the field produced
Q
by the magnet
D. Carry the coil past its vertical position
The coil continues to turn in the same
every half a revolution.
direction because the commutator Q and
brushes P and R

23. Four bars of metal P,Q,R,S are tested for magnetism. Q attracts both P and R but not S. S does not
attract P ,Q or R. P and R sometimes attracts one another and sometimes repel each other . Which
of the following statements is correct about P,Q,R and S?
A. P,Q,R are magnets, S is a magnetic
B. P and Q are magnets, R and S magnetic
C. P and R are magnets , Q is magnetic, S is non magnetic
D. P and R are magnets, Q and S are non magnetic.
24.
S
X
R The diagram in the figure above shows a
current – carrying coil PQRS pivoted about XY
N S
I I between two magnets . Which of the
statements are true about the coil?
P Q
Y

(i) the sides PQ and QR shall experience force

(ii) as seen from X the coil will rotate anticlock wise.
(iii) The force on the coil can be increased by increasing the number of turns
(iv) The coil will come to rest with PQ at right angles to magnetic field .
A. (i),(ii) and (iii) only B. (i) and (iii) only C. (ii) and (iv) only D.(iv) only
25. A moving iron meter
A. measures only direct current B. has a permanent magnet
C. measures only alternating current D. has the pointer attached to the soft iron
26. Which one of the following diagrams represent the correct magnetics field around a straight wire
carrying a current?

D
A B C

27. A transformer cannot function normally with 𝑑. 𝑐 because a 𝑑. 𝑐….

174
 A. has extremely high heating effect
B. reduces the efficiency of the transformer
C. cannot produce a changing magnetic field
D. cannot provide high voltage required for power transmission.
28.

Coil
N S
Magnet

A bar magnet is moved near a coil as shown in the figure . Which of the following ways can be used
to increased the size of the induced e.m.f in the coil?
(i) Using a stronger magnet
(ii) Moving the magnet at a higher speed
(iii) Reducing the number of turns in the soil
A. (i) and (ii) only C. (ii) and (iii)
B. (i) and (iii) only D. (i) , (ii) and (iii)
29.

+V _
switch

Cell

When the circuit in the figure above is switched on, the voltmeter
A. Show no deflection B. Deflects in the wrong direction
C. Reads the e.m.f of the cell D .Reads the terminal potential difference across the cell
30. The transformer cores are laminated to
A. Reduce eddy currents
B. Decrease the resistance of the coils
C. Determines the energy lost by the transformer
D. Distributes the voltage output equally within the transformer
31. Power loss due to eddy currents in the core of a transformer can be minimized by
A. Laminating the core B. Using thick copper wires in the windings
C. Using soft iron core D. Winding the secondary coil on top of the primary coil.
32. A moving coil galvanometer can be used to
A. Measure a direct current
B. Converts alternating current into direct current.
C. Converts direct current to alternating current
D. Measure the peak valve of an alternating current
33. What energy changes take place when a switch of the electrical bell is pressed?
A. chemical → electrical → kinetic → magnetic → sound
B. chemical → electrical → magnetic → kinetic → sound
C. chemical → electrical → sound
D. electrical → magnetic → sound

175
 34. Which of these factors affect the magnitude of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic
field?
(i) The direction of current.
(ii) The amount of current
(iii) The direction of the magnetic field
(iv) The strength of the magnetic field
A. (i) and (ii) only B. (ii) and (iii) only C. (i) and (iii) only D. (ii) and (iv) only
35. Which of the following is true about both alternating and direct?
(i) Cause heating
(ii) Can be stepped up or down with transformer.
(iii) Can be used to charge a battery
A. (i) only B. (i) and (ii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i),(ii) and (iii)
36. A transformer connected to 240V 𝑎. 𝑐 mains is used to light a 12V, 365W lamp. What current does
the lamp draw?
A. 20.0A B. 6.7A C. 3.0A D. 0.33 A
37. The energy transformations involved in a bicycle dynamo is
A. Electrical to chemical B. Potential energy to chemical energy
C. Chemical to light energy D. Kinetic energy to electrical energy
38. A 240 V mains transformer has 1000 turns in the primary. The number of turns in the secondary if
it is used to supply a “12V, 24 W” lamps is
A. 2.0 𝑥 104 B. 500 C. 50 D. 20
39. When transmitting electrical power over long distances , the voltage is stepped up in order to
A. Transmit it B. Reduce power loss
C. Increases current for transmission D. Prevent electric shocks.
40. Which of the following will increase the force the force on a current carrying wire?
(i) Using a large current
(ii) Using a stronger magnetic field
(iii) Using a shorter length of wire in the field
A. (i) only B. (i) and (ii) only C. (i) and (iii) only D. (ii) and (iii) only
41. An alternating voltage from 240 V to 12 V. calculate the number of turns on the secondary coil if
the primary coil has 1200 turns
A. 3 B. 5 C. 60 D. 100
42. An electric motor of efficiency 90% operates a water pump. If it raises 0.9 kg of water through 10 m
every second. Calculate the electrical power supplied to that motor.
A. 8.1 W B. 81 W C. 90 W D. 100 W
43. A transformer has twice as many turns in the secondary coil as in the primary coil. The a.c input to
the primary is 4 V. Find the output.
A. 2V B. 4V C. 8V D. 16 V
44. The figure below shows a transmission line from a power station to a consumer several kilometers
away.
Several km

P Q
er
su m
Power co n
station

176
 Which one of the following is the correct type of transformer at P and Q
P Q
A. step – up step- up
B. step – down step – down
C. step-up step – down
D. step – down step- up
45. Which one of the following is the most economical means of transmitting electricity over long
distances?
A. At a high voltage and a low current
B. at a high voltage and a high current
C. at a low voltage and a high current
D. at a low voltage and a low current
46. The magnitude of the force on the coil of a d.c motor depends on
A. the strength of the magnetic field
B. the number of turns on the coil
C. the current through the coil
D. the mass of the coil support.
47. A transformer cannot function normally with a d.c because a d.c
A. ha an extremely high heating effect
B. reduces the efficiency of the transport
C. cannot produce a changing magnetics field
D. cannot provide high voltages required for power transmission.
48. The main function of a step- up transformer is to
A. change a.c to d.c B. change d.c to a.c
C. increase current D. increase voltage
49. The advantage (s) of alternating current over direct current in mains supply is /are
A. less power is lost in the transmission of a.c
B. it is less dangerous to handle at the same voltage value
C. it is easier to step up or down
D. it is easier to generate.
50. Which one of the following cannot generate e.m.f?
A. magnetization B. chemical reaction
C. electromagnetic D. the piezo electrical effect
51. The magnitude of the force on a conductor carrying electric current in a magnetic field does not
depend on the
A. length of the conductor B. magnitude of the current
C. magnetic field D. direction of the current
52. A galvanometer reads 0.05 A at full scale deflection and has resistance of 2.0 Ω. Calculate the
resistance that should be connected in series with it to convert to a voltmeter which reads 15 V at
full scale deflection.
A. 10Ω B. 200Ω C. 298Ω D. 980Ω
53. Very high voltages are used when distributing electrical power from the power stations because
A. some electrical equipment require very high voltage
B. currents are lower so energy losses are smaller
C. very high voltages are generated at the power stations
D. there is less likelihood of the transmission lines being struck by lightening.
54. A high voltage d.c may be obtained from a low voltage d.c by use of
A. a dynamo B. an induction coil C. a generator D. a transformer
55. Which of the following is true about a transformer?
A. the efficiency is 100%

177
 B. the magnitude of the e.m.f induced in the secondary does not depend on the e.m.f in
the primary coil
C. there are no power losses as the core is well laminated
D. passing direct current through the primary has no effect on the secondary coil
56. An electric motor is connected by cable to a 240V supply . The p.d across the motor is 239V when
the current flowing is 5 A . the resistance of the cable is
A. 0.2Ω B. 5Ω C. 47.8Ω D. 48Ω
57. Which one of the following statements is true about a transformer?
A. the efficiency is 100%
B. there are no power losses as the core is well laminated
C. the magnitude of the e.m.f induced in the secondary coil does not depend of the e.m.f
in the primary coil
D. passing direct current through the primary has no effect on the secondary coil.
58.
Coil
N S
Magnet

When a magnet is moved relative to the coil as shown in the above, the magnitude of the
induced current is not increased by
A. moving the magnet faster B. using a coil with more turns
C. using a more sensitive galvanometer D. using a strong magnet

SECTION B
1. (a) What is a step-down transformer?
(b) Figure below shows a transformer

100 50 Load
240V turns
turns

Calculate the voltage across the load

(c) Give one advantage of a.c over d.c
2. (a) State two ways by which energy losses in a transformer are minimized
(b) A 240V, 60W lamp is connected to the secondary coil of a step up transformer operating on a
24V supply. If the transformer is 100% efficient, find the current in the primary coil.
3. (a)
In the figure below shows a step down
A B 24V output transformer. Name the coils marked
Input 480V
(i) A
(ii) B

(b) If the transformer is used to step down mains supply from 480V to 24V and coil A has 800
turns, determine the number of turns in coil B

178
4. (a) State one factor which affects the magnitude of the force on current carrying conductor in a
magnetic field
(b)
A
N S
B
Figure above shows a wire placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the force acting on the wire
is into the paper.
(i) indicate on the diagram the direction of the current through the wire
(ii) explain what happens when the battery terminals connected to wire AB are reversed

5. (a) What is a magnetic field?

(b)

Current

The figure above shows current flowing in a solenoid. Sketch the magnetic field around the
solenoid ,clearly indicating the polarities.
6.
(a) Describe what is observed when the
key ,K , is closed
K (i) closed
Soft iron (ii) closed and then again opened
(b) State two ways by which the effect of
Iron fillings what was observed in (a) (i) above
can be increased

7. (a) State two differences between a.c and d.c generators.

(b)
N S
Coil Magnet
V
Briefly describe what happens when a magnet is moved into the coil as shown above.
8. (a) Explain briefly how a calculator which operates on a 6.0V 𝑑. 𝑐 can draw power from a 240V
mains supply
(b) State two sources of energy loss in a transformer
9. (a) state any two factors which determine the magnitude of the 𝑒𝑚𝑓 induced in a coil rotating
in a magnetic field.
(b) Explain why soft iron is preferred to steel in making electromagnets.
10. (a) What is a transformer?

179
 (b) A transformer whose efficiency is 80% has an out put of 12W. Calculate the input current if
the input voltage is 240V.
(c) Explain briefly why bulbs in a building are connected in parallel.
11. (a) Explain why electric power is transmitted at high voltage.
(b) An electric generator of out put 2.0 x 104 w supplies power through 10 identical cables. Find
the current which flows through each cable if the voltage at the generator terminal is 5000V.
12. (a) Give one reason why transformer cores are
(i) made of iron (ii) laminated
(b) A transformer has 250 turns on the primary winding and 3000 turns on the secondary. A
voltage of 1600V is fed on the primary. Calculate the voltage out put on the secondary.
13. (a)

When switch K is closed momentarily, a force

acts on the foil.
N State:
S
Accumulator (i) The direction of the force
(ii) Two factor which affect the
magnitude of the force.
Aluminum foil K (iii) What happens to the force when the
foil is slowly turned until its ends
An aluminium foil carrying a current is placed point exactly in the north south
in a magnetic field as shown above . direction of the magnetic field.
(b) Name one device which works o the principle illustrated in the diagram above.

14. (a) State two factors which affect the strength of an electromagnet.
(b)
The diagram above shows a small
magnet placed near an electromagnet.
K
Describe what happens to it when key
K is closed.
S

15. (a) What is meant by

(i) magnetic saturation?
(ii) neutral point in a magnetic field?
16. (a) State one advantage of a.c over d.c in mains supply.
(b)

Voltage (V)
The graph above shows the variation
340
of an 𝑎. 𝑐 with time
0
Find;
0.01 0.02 0.03 0.04 0.05 t (s)
(i) the peak voltage
-340 (ii) the frequency

180
 PAPER TWO TYPE
1. (a) (i) What are ferromagnetic materials?
(ii) Give two examples of ferromagnetic materials
(b) (i) With the aid of a diagram, describe the application of an electromagnet in magnetic
relays
(ii) Give one advantage of using a magnetic relay to switch electrical machinery on and off
(c) Figure below shows two wires AB and DE placed parallel and close to each other, carrying
current in opposite directions

B E

A D
(i) Copy the diagram and sketch the magnetic field patter between the two wires
(ii) Show the direction of the force acting on DE at G due to the current AB
2. (a) Define the following terms
(i) hard magnetic materials
(ii) soft magnetic materials
(b) (i) Describe the electrical method of magnetizing a steel bar
(ii) State any two ways of demagnetizing a bar magnet
(c) Sketch the magnetic field pattern around a bar magnet with its S-pole pointing north in the
earth’s field
(d) A stiff wire AB is held between opposite poles of two bar magnets and connected to a center-
zero galvanometer as shown below

Galvanometer The wire AB is kept vertical and moved

A
horizontally along the line CD
C
(i) Explain what is observed on the
L M galvanometer as the wire AB moves
S N
towards C and D.
D
(ii) Explain what would be observed if the
B
wire were moved along LM

3. (a) Describe with the aid of a labelled diagram the operation of a transformer
(b) A 240 V step-down mains transformer is designed to light ten 12 V, 20 W ray box lamps and

181
 draws a current of 1 A in the primary col. Calculate the;
(i) power supplied to the primary col
(ii) power developed in the secondary coil
(iii) efficiency of the transformer
(C) With the aid of suitable diagrams, distinguish between an alternating current and direct
current
(d) Explain how a fuse as a safety device achieves its function in house wiring
4. (a) Define the following terms as applied to magnetism
(i) Ferromagnetic materials
(ii) Neutral point
(b) Sketch the magnetic field patterns around a
(i) bar magnet whose axis lies along the magnetic north
(ii) circular current carrying coil
(c) With the aid of a labelled diagram, explain how an electric bell works
(d) (i) What is meant by magnetically saturated material?
(ii) State one method of demagnetizing a magnet.
5. (a) What is meant by a magnetic field?
(b) Explain with the aid of a diagram what happens when two vertical, parallel conductors are
placed near one another and carry current in
(i) the same direction
(ii) opposite direction
(c) (i) Describe with the aid of a diagram, how a direct current generator works.
(ii) State three ways of increasing the 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓 produced by the generator
6. (a) Distinguish between angle of dip (inclination) and angle of declination
(b) Draw a diagram to show the magnetic field pattern around a bar magnet placed in the
earth’s field with the north pole of the magnet pointing to the earth’s magnetic south
(c) (i) What is an electromagnet?
(ii) Describe with the aid of a labelled diagram how an electric bell works
(d)
N Describe what happens to the compass
C needle, C, as it s moved closer to the bar
S magnet along the dotted line

7. (a) A cable is connected to a centre- zero galvanometer as shown below

182
 N S
Coil Magnet
G

(i) State what is observed when the N-pole of a bar magnet is moved towards the cable
(ii) State two ways in which the effect observed in (a) (i) can be increased
(b) (i) With the aid of a labelled diagram describe how a simple a.c generator works
(ii) Sketch the variation of the voltage from an a.c generator and use it to define the
terms peak value and period
(c) With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe how full wave rectification can be obtained
using four diodes
8. (a) (i) What is a magnetic field
(ii) State the law of magnetism
(b) (i) Explain with the aid of diagrams, how a steel bar can be magnetized by the single
touch method
(ii) Sketch the magnetic field pattern around two bar magnets whose north pole face each
other
(c) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe how a simple a.c generator works
9. (a) With the aid of a diagram explain, the use of keepers to store magnets
(b) (i) Describe using a labelled diagram how a telephone receiver woks
(ii) State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet can be raised
(c) A bulb is rated 12.0 V, 36 W when used on a 12.0V supply
(i) How much current does it draw from the supply
(ii) what is its resistance
10. (a) Describe briefly the structure and action of an a.c transformer
(b) (i) State any three causes of energy losses in a transformer
(ii) How are these losses reduced in a practical transformer
(c) Explain why it is an advantage to transmit electrical power at high voltage
(d) Electric power is generated at 11kV. Transformers are used to raise the voltage to 440kV
for transmission over long distances using cables. The output of the transformer is 19.8MW
and they are 90% efficient. Find:
(i) the input current to the transformer
(ii) the output current to the cables

183
 HEAT CAPACITY (H) AND SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITY(C)
HEAT CAPACITY
Is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of any mass of a substance by 1 𝐾
Its S.I unit is 𝐽 𝐾 −1
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 (𝐽𝐾 −1 ) = 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠(𝑘𝑔)𝑥 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐 ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑐𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 (𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 )
𝐻=𝑚𝐶
SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITY
Is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 𝑘𝑔 mass of a substance by 1 𝐾.
Its S.I unit is 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1
The quantity of heat gained or lost by a body Q depends on the nature of the material of the body and
is proportional to the;
 Mass, m
 Increase in temperature ∆𝜃
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃 or

𝑄 = 𝐻 ∆𝜃
Examples
1. Find the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a metal whose heat capacity is
150 𝐽 𝐾 −1 by 25℃
Solution
𝐻 = 150 𝐽 𝐾 −1 , 𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃 𝑄 = 150 𝑥 25
∆𝜃 = 25℃ 𝑄 = 𝐻 ∆𝜃 𝑄 = 3750 𝐽
2. How much heat is given out when an iron metal of mass 2 𝑘𝑔 and specific heat capacity 460 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1
cools from 300℃ to 200℃
Solution
𝐶 = 460 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 , 𝑚 = 2 𝑘𝑔, 𝑄 = 2 𝑥 460 (300 − 200)
𝜃1 = 300℃, 𝜃2 = 200℃ 𝑄 = 2 𝑥 460 𝑥100
𝑄 = 92000 𝐽
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃
3. Calculate the specific heat capacity of gold if 108 J of heat raises the temperature of a 9 𝑔 mass from
0℃ and 100℃.
Solution
𝑄 = 108 𝐽, 𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃 108
𝐶=
9 𝑄 0.009𝑥100
𝑚= = 0.009 𝑘𝑔, C = 𝑚 𝑥∆𝜃
1000
𝐶 = 120 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 ,
𝜃1 = 0℃, 𝜃2 = 100℃ 108
𝐶=
0.009𝑥(100 − 0)

184
3. 5 𝑘 𝐽 of heat is supplied to a metal whose specific heat capacity is 400 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1, if the temperature of the
metal rises by 5 𝐾. Find the mass of the metal.
Solution
∆𝜃 = 5 𝐾, 𝐶 = 400 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 , 5000
𝑚=
𝑄 = 5𝑘𝐽 = 5𝑥1000𝐽, 400𝑥5
𝑚 = 2.5 𝑘𝑔
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃
𝑄
m=
𝐶 𝑥∆𝜃

4. 1200 J of heat is supplied to 100 𝑔 of water at 20℃. Calculate the final temperature of water if its
specific heat capacity is 4200 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1.
Solution
𝑄 = 1200 𝐽, ∆𝜃 =? 1200
∆𝜃 =
100 0.1𝑥4200 Final temperature = 20 + 2.9
𝑚 = 100 𝑔 = = 0.1 𝑘𝑔,
1000 108
∆𝜃 = = 22.9 ℃
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃 0.009𝑥100
𝑄 ∆𝜃 = 2.9 𝐾
∆𝜃 = 𝑚 𝑥𝐶

5. 500 𝑔 of a liquid cools from 70℃ to 10℃, if the S.H.C of the liquid is 2000𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 . Calculate;
(i) Heat capacity of the liquid
(ii) Quantity of heat given out
Solution
500 𝐻 = 0.5 𝑥 2000 𝑄 = 𝐻 ∆𝜃
(i) 𝑚 = 500 𝑔 = = 0.5 𝑘𝑔,
1000
𝐻 = 1000 𝐽 𝐾 −1 𝑄 = 1000 𝑥 60
∆𝜃 = (70 − 10) = 60K,
(ii) 𝑄 = 60000 𝐽
𝐶 = 2000 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 ,
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃
𝐻 =𝑚𝐶

METHODS OF DETERMINING S.H.C

a) Determination of S.H.C of a solid by electrical method

A
V

Electrical heater Thermometer

Lagging
Solid

185
  A material whose S.H.C is to be determined is drilled with two holes, one for thermometer
and other for heater. Both the heater and thermometer must be in good thermal contact
with material.
 The initial temperature of the material 𝛳1 is determined using thermometer and recorded
before closing the circuit.
 The circuit is now closed and at the same time the stop clock started and heating is done
until temperature rises to 𝛳2
 The time t taken for temperature to rise from 𝛳1 to 𝛳2 is recorded and currents I and voltage
V for this temperature rise also recorded.
 If m is the mass of the block and C is it S.H.C, then from
 heat supplied by the heater = heat gained by the block.
𝐼𝑉𝑡 = 𝑚𝐶[𝜃2 − 𝜃1 ]
Ivt
C= m[θ2 −θ1 ]

Examples
1
1. A steady current of 12 𝐴 and 𝑝. 𝑑 of 240 𝑉 is passed through a block of mass 1500𝑔 for 1 2 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠.

If the temperature of the block rises from 25℃ to 80℃. Calculate;

(i) S.H.C of the block
(ii) The heat capacity of 4 kg mass of the block
Solution
1 1 12𝑥240𝑥90
i) 𝑡 = 1 2 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 = 1 2 𝑥60𝑠 = 90 𝑠, 𝐶=
1.5𝑥55
1500
𝑚 = 1500𝑔 = = 1.5 𝑘𝑔 𝐶 = 3141.82𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1
1000
𝑖𝑖) 𝐻=𝑚𝐶
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃
𝐻 = 4 𝑥 3141.82
𝐼 𝑉 𝑡 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃
𝐻 = 12567.28 𝐽 𝐾 −1
12𝑥240𝑥90 = 1.5𝑥 𝐶 (80 − 25)
2. A heater rated 2 k W is used for heating the solid of mass 6 kg, if its temperature rises from 30℃ to
40℃. In 12 s, find the S.H.C of the solid.
Solution
𝑃 = 2 𝑘 𝑊 = 2𝑥1000 𝑊, 𝑚 = 6 𝑘𝑔 2𝑥1000𝑥12 = 6𝑥 𝐶 (40 − 30)
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃 2𝑥1000𝑥12
𝐶=
𝐼 𝑉 𝑡 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃 6𝑥10
𝐶 = 400 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1
𝑃𝑥 𝑡 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃

186
 b) S.H.C of a liquid using method of mixtures
This S.H.C of liquid can be determined using method of mixture as follows
thermometer
Thermometer
stirrer

lagging
Solid of known S.H.C in
boiling water

solid
Insulating stand

Heat

 The solid of mass Ms and S.H.C 𝐶𝑆 in boiling water at temperature 𝜃1 is transferred to liquid
of mass ML whose S.H.C [𝐶𝐿 ] is to be determined in calorimeter of mass 𝑀𝐶 and S.H.C 𝐶𝐶
both at a temperature 𝜃2 .
 The mixture is stirred uniformly until final steady temperature 𝜃3 is obtained
 Assuming there is no heat gained by the stirrer and thermometer and no heat is lost to the
surrounding.
 Heat lost by solid= heat gained by calorimeter +heat gained by liquid
𝑀𝑆 𝐶𝑆 (𝜃1 − 𝜃3 ) = MLCL(𝜃2 − 𝜃3 ) + 𝑀c𝐶 c(𝜃2 − 𝜃3 )

𝑀𝑆 𝐶𝑆 (𝜃1 −𝜃3 )−𝑀𝑐𝐶𝑐(𝜃2 −𝜃3 )

CL =
𝑀𝐿 (𝜃2 −𝜃3 )

Examples
1. What is the final temperature of the mixture if 100g of water at 70℃ is added to 200g of cold water
at 10℃. And well stirred (Neglect the heat absorbed by the container and S.H.C of water is
42000 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1) .
Solution
Heat lost by hot water = heat gained by cold water 7 − 0.1𝜃 = 0.2𝜃 − 2
𝑀𝐻 𝐶𝐻 (𝜃1 − 𝜃3 ) = 𝑀𝐶 𝐶𝐶 (𝜃2 − 𝜃3 ) 𝜃 = 30℃
100 200 Final temperature of the mixture is 30℃
𝑥 4200𝑥(70 − 𝜃) = 𝑥4200𝑥(𝜃 − 10)
1000 1000
0.1𝑥(70 − 𝜃) = 0.2𝑥(𝜃 − 10)
2. The temperature of 500g of a certain metal is raised to 100℃ and it is then placed in 200g of water
at 15℃. If the final steady temperature rises to 21℃, calculate the S.H.C of the metal.
Solution
Heat lost by metal = heat gained by water 500 200
𝑥 𝐶𝑚 𝑥(100 − 21) = 𝑥4200𝑥(21 − 15)
𝑀𝑚 𝐶𝑚 (𝜃1 − 𝜃3 ) = 𝑀𝑤 𝐶𝑤 (𝜃2 − 𝜃3 ) 1000 1000
0.5𝑥𝐶𝑚 𝑥 89 = 0.2𝑥4200𝑥6
187
 0.2𝑥4200𝑥6 𝐶𝑚 = 128 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1
𝐶𝑚 =
0.5𝑥89
3. The temperature of a piece of copper of mass 250g is raised to 100℃ and it is then transferred to a
well- lagged aluminum can of mass 10.0g containing 120g of methylated spirit at 10.0℃. calculate
the final steady temperature after the spirit has been well stirred. Neglect the heat capacity of the
stirrer and any losses from evaporation. (S.H.C of copper, aluminum and spirit respectively=
400 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 , = 900 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 , = 2400 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1)
Solution
Heat lost by copper = heat gained by aluminum + heat gained by spirit
𝑀𝐶 𝐶𝐶 (𝜃1 − 𝜃3 ) = MACA(𝜃2 − 𝜃3 ) + 𝑀S𝐶 S(𝜃2 − 𝜃3 )
0.25𝑥400(100 − 𝜃) = 0.1𝑥900(𝜃 − 10) + 0.12𝑥2400(𝜃 − 10)
10000 − 100𝜃 = 297𝜃 − 2970
12970
𝜃=
397
𝜃 = 32.7℃
4. A liquid of mass 200g in a calorimeter of heat capacity 500 𝐽 𝐾 −1 is heated such that its temperature
changes from 25℃ to 50℃. Find the S.H.C of the liquid if the heat supplied was 14,000J.
Solution
Heat supplied = heat gained by liquid + heat gained by calorimeter
𝑄 = 𝑀𝐿 𝐶𝐿 (𝜃2 − 𝜃3 ) + 𝑀𝐶 𝐶𝐶 (𝜃2 − 𝜃3 )
14000 = 0.2𝑥𝐶𝐿 (50 − 25) + 500𝑥(50 − 25)
14000 = 5𝑥𝐶𝐿 + 12500
𝐶𝐿 = 300 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1
5. A metal of mass 0.2kg at 100℃ is dropped into 0.08kg of water at 13℃ contained in calorimeter of
mass 0.12kg and S.H.C 400Jkg-1K-1. The final temperature reached is 35℃. Determine the S.H.C of
the solid.
Solution
Ms=0.2kg θ2=15℃ 𝐶w =4200Jkg-1K-1
θ1=100℃ Mc=0.12 θ3 =35℃
Mw=0.08kg Cc=400Jkg-1K-1
Heat lost by the solid=heat gained by calorimeter + heat gained by water
𝑀s𝐶s (θ1-θ2) = 𝑀c𝐶c(θ3-θ2)+Mw 𝐶w (θ3-θ2)
0.2x Cs (100-35)= 0.12x 400 (35-15)+0.08x4200(35-15)
13Cs =960 + 6120
Cs=590.769J kg-1K-1

188
6. Hot water of mass 0.4kg at 100℃ is poured into calorimeter of mass 0.3kg and S.H.C 400Jkg-1K-1 and
contains 0.2kg of a liquid at 10℃. The final temperature of mixture is 40℃ determines the S.H.C of a
liquid.
Solution
Mw=0.4kg Mc=0.3kg ML=0.2kg θ2=100C
θ1=100℃ Cc=400Jkg-1K-1 θ3= 40℃
Heat lost by the hot water =heat gained by the colorimeter +heat gain by liquid
𝑀w𝐶s (θ3-θ1)= 𝑀c𝐶c(θ3-θ2)+ 𝑀L𝐶 L (θ3-θ2)
0.4x 4200(100 − 40)=0.3x400(40 − 10) +0.2𝑥𝐶 L(40 − 10)
100800 = 3600 + 6𝐶𝐿
CL=16200Jkg-1K-1
7. A 15W heating coil is immersed in 0.2kg of water and switched on for 560 seconds during which
time; the temperature rises by 10℃. When water was replaced by some volume of another liquid of
mass 0.15kg, the power required for same time is 8.3W. Calculate the S.H.C of the liquid.
Solution
𝐼𝑣𝑡= MLCL∆𝛳 8.3𝑥560
CL =[0.15𝑥10]
8.3x 560=0.15xCLx10
𝐶𝐿 =3.1x103 𝐽kg-1K-1
Assumption, same temperature rise occurs.
8. When a block of metal of mass 0.11kg and S.H.C 400Jkg-1K-1 is heated to 100℃ and quickly
transferred to a calorimeter containing a liquid at 10℃, the resulting temperature is 13℃. On
repeating the experiment with 0.4kg of the liquid in the same container at same temperature of
10℃, the resulting temperature is 14.5℃. Calculate;
a) S.H.C of the liquid
b) Thermal capacity of the container.
Solution
𝑀𝑆 = 0.11𝑘𝑔, Cs=400Jkg-1K-1 ML=0.4kg
𝜃1 = 100℃ θ2=10℃ θ3=18℃ θ2=10℃
ML=0.2kg θ3=14.5℃
Heat lost by solid = heat gained by liquid + heat gained by container
𝑀𝑠𝐶𝑠 (θ1-θ3) =MLCL (θ3-θ2) + 𝑀𝑐𝐶𝑐 (θ3-θ2)
0.11x400(100-18) =0.2xCL (18-10) + H(18-10)
3608 = 1.6CL+8H ……………………………………(1)
𝑀𝑠𝐶𝑠 (θ1-θ3) = MLCL (θ3-θ2) + 𝑀𝑐𝐶𝑐 (θ3-θ2)
0.11x400(100-14.5) =0.4 x CL (145-10) + H (14.5-10)
3762 =1.8 CL + 4.5H ………………………………………….(2)
189
 Solving equation1 and equation2 simultaneously
CL = 1935Jkg-1K-1
H= 66JK-1[thermal capacity of the container]
Exercise
1) A piece of copper of mass 100g is heated to 100℃ and is then transferred to a well lagged copper
can of mass 50g containing 200g of water at 10℃. Neglecting heat loss, calculate the final steady
temperature of water after it has been well stirred. Take S.H.C of copper and water to be 400Jkg-1K-1
and 4200Jkg-1K-1 respectively. An[14℃]
2) A heating coil is placed in thermal flask containing 0.6kg of water for 600s. The temperature of
water rises by 25℃ during this time. Water is replaced by 0.4kg of another liquid. And the same
temperature rise occurs in 180s. Calculate the S.H.C of the liquid given that S.H.C of water is
4200Jkg-1K-1. State any assumption. An [1890Jkg-1K-1]
3) Copper calorimeter of mass 120g contains 100g of paraffin at 15℃. If 45g of aluminum at 100℃ is
transferred to the liquid and the final temperature is 27℃. Calculate the S.H.C of paraffin [S.H.C of
aluminum and copper are 1000 Jkg-1K-1 and 400 Jkg-1K-1 respectively]. An[ 2.4 x103Jkg-1K-1]
4) A liquid of mass 250g is heated to 80℃ and then quickly transferred to a calorimeter of heat
capacity 380JK-1 containing 400g of water at 30℃. If the maximum temperature recorded is 55℃
and specific heat capacity of water is 4200Jkg-1K-1. Calculate the S.H.C of the liquid.
An [8240Jkg-1K-1]
5) 500g of water is put in a calorimeter of heat capacity 0.38JK-1 and heated to 60℃. It takes 2minute
for the water to cool from 60℃ to 55℃. When the water is replaced with 600g of a certain liquid, it
takes 1 ½ minute for the liquid to cool from 60℃ to 55℃. Calculate the S.H.C of the liquid.
An [2624.8kgJ-1K-1]
6) When a metal cylinder of mass 2.0x10-2kg and specific heat capacity 500Jkg-1K-1 is heated by an
electrical heater working at a constant power, the initial rate of rise of temperature is 3.0Kmin-1.
After a time the heater is switched off and the initial rate of fall of temperature is 0.3Kmin-1. What is
the rate at which the cylinder gains heat energy immediately before the heater is switched off?
An[0.45W]
7) 400g of a liquid at a temperature 70℃ is mixed with another liquid of mass 200g at a temperature of
25℃. Find the final temperature of the mixture, if the S.H.C of the liquid is 4200 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 .
An[=55℃]
8) 60 kg of hot water at 82℃ was added to 300 kg of cold water at 10℃. Calculate the final temperature
of the mixture (S.H.C of water =4200 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1) An[=22℃].

190
9) Calculate the final steady temperature obtained when 0.8 kg of glycerine at 25℃ is put into a copper
calorimeter of mass 0.5 kg at 0℃ ( S.H.C of copper =400 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 , 𝑆. 𝐻. 𝐶 𝑜𝑓 𝑔𝑙𝑦𝑐𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑒 =
250 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1). An[12.5℃]
10) A block of metal of mass 0.01 kg at a temperature of 100℃ was dropped in a container of water at
20℃. The final temperature was 40℃. Calculate the S.H.C of the metal ,if S.H.C of water
4200 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1. An [7000 𝑱 𝒌𝒈−𝟏 ℃−𝟏 ]
11) A copper block of mass 250g is heated to a temperature of 145℃ and then dropped into a copper
calorimeter of mass 250g which contains 2500𝑚3 of water at 20℃. Calculate the final temperature
of water. (S.H.C of copper = 400 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 ℃−1, S.H.C of water = 4200 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 ℃−1). An[30℃]
12) The temperature of heat which raises the temperature of 0.1 kg of water from 25℃ to 60℃ is used to
heat a metal rod of mass 1.7 kg and S.H.C of the rod was 20℃. Calculate the final temperature of the
rod. An [48.8℃]

LATENT HEAT
This is the amount of heat required for the substance to change state at constant
temperature.

Heat
absorbed Heat lost
Solid Liquid Gas
Heat lost Heat
absorbed

 When melting a solid, latent heat of fusion is absorbed to break the intermolecular forces of
attraction between solid molecules and increase their energy to allow molecules to move a
part.
 When evaporating a liquid, latent heat of vaporization is absorbed to break the
intermolecular forces of attraction and increase their energy by higher amount since their
molecules become widely spaced when they are in vapour state.

LATENT HEAT OF FUSION

This is heat required to change any mass of substance from solid to a liquid at constant
temperature.
SPECIFIC LATENT HEAT OF FUSION
Is the quantity of heat required to change 1kg mass of a solid to a liquid at constant
temperature.
It is measured in Jk𝑔−1

191
 ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐 𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑡 ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑜𝑛 =
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
𝜃
𝑙=
𝑚
𝜃=𝑚𝑙

Determination of S.L.H of fusion of ice

 Measure mass (𝑚1 ) of the beaker.
 Insert heater of known power (P) in filter funnel
 Pack small pieces of dry ice in the funnel with ice
 Switch on power and place the beaker under the funnel to ( collect melted ice water)

Electric
heater

Funnel
Lamps of ice

Water from melted ice

 Determine the mass of the beaker and water (𝑚2 ) collected in time, t
Heat supplied by heat = heat gained to melt ice
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 = 𝑙 (𝑚2 − 𝑚1 )
𝑃𝑡
𝑙=
(𝑚2 − 𝑚1 )

LATENT HEAT OF VAPOURIZATION

Is the quantity of heat required to change any mass of substance from liquid to gas at a
constant temperature.
SPECIFIC LATENT HEAT OF VAPOURIZATION
Is the quantity of heat required to change 1kg mass of liquid to gas at a constant
temperature.
It is measured in Jk𝑔−1

192
 Determination of S.L.H of vaporization of water
 Fill the beaker with hot water, cover it with a lid and weigh it (𝑚1 ).
 Fit the beaker in a lagging jacket.

Beaker

Heater
Water Lagging

 Insert the heater and heat the water until it just begins to boil. Remove the lid to allow
steam to escape and at the same time start the stop clock.
 After time t, switch off the heater and replace the lid
 Remove the heater and lagging and weigh the set up again (𝑚2 )
Heat supplied by heat = heat gained to melt ice
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 = 𝑙 (𝑚2 − 𝑚1 )
𝑃𝑡
𝑙=
(𝑚2 − 𝑚1 )
Examples
1. Ice has a mass of 3 kg. Calculate the heat required to melt it at 0℃. (S.L.H of fusion =
3.36𝑥105 Jk𝑔−1 ).
Solution 𝑄 = 3 𝑥 3.36𝑥105
𝑄=𝑚𝑙 𝑄 = 1.008𝑥106 𝐽
2. Find the heat required to change 2 kg of ice at 0℃ into water at 50℃.(S.L.H of fusion of ice =
3.36𝑥105 Jk𝑔−1 , 𝑆. 𝐻. 𝐶 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 = 4200 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1).
Solution
Ice at Water + Water 𝑄 = 3 𝑥 3.36𝑥105 + 2𝑥4200𝑥(50 − 0)
00C 00C 500C
𝑄 = 1.008𝑥106 + 4.2𝑥106
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝑙 + 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃 𝑄 = 1.092𝑥106 𝐽
3. An ice making machine removes heat from water at a rate of 20 J𝑠 −1 . How long will it take to
convert 0.5 kg of water at 20 ℃ to ice at 0℃℃. (S.L.H of fusion of ice = 3.36𝑥105 Jk𝑔−1 , S.H.C of
water=4200𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 ).
Solution
water Water + Ice 20 𝑡 = 42000 + 168000
200C 00C 00C
210000
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃 + 𝑚 𝑙 𝑡=
20
𝑃 𝑥 𝑡 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃 + 𝑚 𝑙 𝑡 = 1.05𝑥104 s
20 𝑥 𝑡 = 0.5𝑥4200𝑥(20 − 0) + 0.5𝑥 3.36𝑥105

193
4. A calorimeter with heat capacity of 80𝐽℃−1contains 50g of water at 40℃ what mass of ice at 0℃
needs to be added in order to reduce the temperature to 10℃. Assume no heat is lost to the
surround (S.H.C of water = 4200Jk𝑔−1 ℃−1, S.L.H of the of ice = 3.4x105Jkg-1)
Solution
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑏𝑦 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑏𝑦 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑔𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑔𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑
𝑐𝑎𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑏𝑦 𝑚𝑒𝑙𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑏𝑦
( )+ ( )=( )+ ( )
𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑖𝑐𝑒 𝑚𝑒𝑙𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑐𝑒
40℃ 𝑡𝑜 10℃ 40℃ 𝑡𝑜 10℃ 𝑎𝑡 0℃ 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 0℃ 𝑡𝑜 10℃
Mc Cc (40-10) + Mw 𝐶w (40-10) = M1 L+ M1 𝐶 I𝑥 (10-0)
50
80 𝑥 30 + 1000 𝑥4200𝑥30 = M1 (3.4x105+4200x10)

M1 = 0.023kg Mass of ice required = 23g

5. An electrical heater rated 500W is immersed in liquid of mass 2.0kg contained in large thermal
flask of heat capacity 840Jkg-1 at 28℃. Electrical power is supplied to heater for 10minutes. If S.H.C
of liquid is 2.5x103 Jkg-1K-1. Its S.L.H.V is 8.54x103 Jkg-1k and its boiling point is 78℃. Estimate the
amount of liquid which boils off.
Solution
Heat supplied by heater = heat gained by flask + heat gained by liquid + heat used for
evaporating the liquid.
𝐼𝑣𝑡 = Mf 𝐶 f (θ2-θ1) + MLCL (θ2-θ1) + 𝑀𝑠𝐿𝑣
500x10x60 = 840 (78-28) + 2x2.5x103 [78-28] + Ms (8.54x103)
300000 = 42000+ 250000+ 8.54x103Ms
300000−292000
Ms = 8.54x103

Ms = 0.936kg
6. Steam at 100℃ is passed into a copper calorimeter of mass 150g containing 340g of water at 15℃.
This is done until the temperature of the calorimeter and its content is 71℃. If the mass of the
calorimeter and its contents is found to be 525g. Calculate the specific latent heat of vaporization of
water.
Solution
Mass of calorimeter Mc = 150g
Mass of water Mw = 340g
Mass of steam Ms = 525 – (150+340) = 35g

194
 heat gained by
Heat supplied 𝐶𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑎𝑚 ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑔𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑 𝑏𝑦
( by steam ) + ( )=( calorimeter ) + ( 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 )
𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚
from
at 100℃ 100℃ 𝑡𝑜 71℃ 15℃ 𝑡𝑜 71℃
15℃ to71℃
Ms 𝐿𝑣 + MsCs (100-71) = McCc (71-15) + Mw Cw (71-15)
35 35 150 340
1000
Lv + 1000x 4200x29 =1000 x400x56 +1000 x 4200 x56

𝐿𝑣= 2.26X106 Jkg-1

Exercise
1. Ice at 0℃ is added to 200g of water initially at 70℃ in a vacuum flask. When 50g of ice is added and
has all melted, the temperature of the flask and content is 400℃. When further 80g of ice has been
added and has been melted, the temperature of the whole becomes 10℃. Calculate the S.L.H of
fusion of the neglecting any heat loss of surrounding. Ans 3.78x105 Jkg-1
2. Calculate the heat required to melt 200g of ice at 0℃ . (S.L.H of ice= 3.4x105Jkg-1 ) An 6.8x104 J
3. Calculate the heat required to turn 500g of Ice at 0℃ into water at 100℃. (S.L.H of ice= 3.4x105Jkg-1
S.H.C of water = 4200Jkg-1 ) An [ 3.8x𝟏𝟎𝟓 𝑱 ]
4. Calculate the heat given out when 600g of steam at 100℃ condenses to water at 20℃ [S.L.H of
steam = 2.26x106 Jkg-1, S.H.C of water = 4200 Jkg-1]. An [1.56x106J]
5. 1kg of vegetables, having a specific heat capacity 2200 Jkg-1 at a temperature 373K are plugged into
a mixture of ice and water at 273K. How much is melted. [S.L.H of fusion of the = 3.3x105 Jkg-1]
An [0.67kg]
6. 3kg of molten lead (melting point 600K) is allowed to cool down until it has solidified. It is found
that the temperature of the lead falls from 605K to 600K in 10s, remains constant at 600K for 300s,
and then fall to 595K in a further 8.4 s. Assuming that the rate of loss of energy remains constant
and that the specific heat capacity of solid lead is 140Jkg-1K-1. Calculate.
(a) Rate of loss of energy from the lead.
(b) The specific latent heat of fusion of lead.
(c) The specific heat capacity of liquid lead An [250W, 2.5x104Jkg-1, 167Jkg-1K-1]
7. 0.02kg of ice and 0.10kg water at 0℃ are in a container. Steam at 100℃ is passed in until all the ice
is just melted. How much water is now in the container? S.L.H of steam = 2.3x106Jkg-1, S.L.H of ice =
3.4x105Jkg-1, S.H.C of water = 4.2 x103Jkg-1K-1 An [0.1225kg]
8. When apiece of ice of mass 6x10-4kg at a temperature of 272K is dropped into liquid nitrogen
boiling at 77K in a vacuum flask 8 𝑥 10-4m3 of nitrogen, measured at 294K and 0.75m mercury
pressure are produced. Calculate the mean specific heat capacity of ice between 272K and 77K.

195
 Assume that the S.L.H of vaporization of nitrogen is 2.13x105Jkg-1 and that the density of nitrogen
at S.T.P is 1.25kgm-3 .An 1.67x103Jkg-1K-1
9. In a factory heating system water enters the radiators at 60℃ and leaves at 38℃. 𝑇he system is
replaced is by one in which steam at 100℃ 𝑖𝑠 condensed in the radiators, the condensed steam
leaving at 82℃. What mass of steam will supply the same heat as 1.00kg of hot water in the first
instance? (The S.L.H of vaporization of water is 2.26 x106Jkg-1 at 100℃. The S.H.Cof water
Is 4.2x103Jkg-1℃-1 ) An [0.0396kg]
10. In an express coffee machines, steam at 1000C is passed into milk to heat it. Calculate
(i) The energy required to heat 150g of milk from room temperature (200C) to 800C.
(ii) The mass of steam condensed. An [3.6x106J, 15.8g]

HEATING AND COOLING CURVES

Temperature time – graphs
Consider naphthalene whose melting point is 80℃. If it’s heated from 25℃, temperature time graph
below is obtained.

Temperature 0C C
Liquid
A Solid B
80 Liquid
solid
25 O

Time (s)
There is an increase in temperature and time, but when it starts melting the temperature remains
constant until all of it has melted and the temperature rises.
OA – Solid is heating up
OB-Solid is melting [two states co-exist i.e solid+ liquid]
OC- liquid is heating up

Cooling curve of naphthalene

196
 Temperature/ 0C
liquid

800C Freezing
Solid

Time (s)

Examples
1. 2kg of ice at −5℃ was heated up to steam at 100℃.
i) Sketch a temperature time graph curve for the ice up to steam
ii) Find the heat at each section of the graph drawn.
S.H.C of ice = 2000 J 𝑘𝑔−1 ℃−1 S.L.H. of fusion of ice = 3.36𝑥105 Jkg-1
S.H.C of water = 4200 J 𝑘𝑔−1 ℃−1 S.L.H. of vaporization of water = 2.26𝑥106 Jkg-1

Solution
i)
𝑄 = 20000 𝐽
Temperature/ 0C

Gas
For solid + liquid state
Evaporation
1000C Liquid + gas 𝑄=𝑚𝑙
liquid 𝑄 = 2𝑥3.36𝑥105
𝑄 = 672000 𝐽

For Liquid state

00C Melting 𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃
Solid + liquid Time (s)
𝑄 = 2𝑥4200𝑥(1000 − 0)
Solid
𝑄 = 840000 𝐽
- 5 0C

For liquid + gas state

ii) 𝑄=𝑚𝑙
For solid state 𝑄 = 2𝑥2.26𝑥106
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃 𝑄 = 4520000 𝐽
𝑄 = 2𝑥2000𝑥(0 − −5)

197
2. When a 100W heater is used to heat 1kg of solid wax, the temperature of the wax is observed to
change with time as shown below

Temperature 0C D
Liquid
B Melting C
80

solid
20 A

0 100 300 Time (s)

Find the S.L.H of fusion of wax

Solution
It occurs during melting
𝑄=𝑚𝑙
𝑃𝑡=𝑚𝑥𝑙
100𝑥 (300 − 100) = 1𝑥 𝑙
𝑙 = 20000 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1

3. The graph below shows the variation of temperature of a metal with time.

Temperature 0C D

B C
950

250 A

0 400 Time (s)

750
If the metal absorbs heat at a rate of 2500 J 𝑠 −1 and the S.H.C is 300 J 𝑘𝑔−1 ℃−1.
(i) Calculate the mass of the metal
(ii) Find the S.H.L of fusion of the metal
Solution
i) Mass of the metal
𝑄 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃
𝑃 𝑡 = 𝑚 𝐶 ∆𝜃
2500𝑥 400 = 𝑚𝑥300𝑥(950 − 250)

198
 2500𝑥400
𝑚=
300𝑥700
𝑚 = 4.76 𝑘𝑔

ii) S.L.H of fusion of metal

𝑄 =𝑚𝑙
𝑃𝑡 =𝑚𝑥𝑙
2500𝑥350 = 4.76𝑥 𝑙
𝑙 = 1.84𝑥105 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1

GAS LAWS
1: Boyle’s law:
It states that the volume of fixed mass of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant
temperature i.e.
1
P∝
𝑣

PV = constant

𝑃1 𝑉1 = 𝑃2 𝑉2

Example
1. A given mass of a gas has a volume of 100 𝑐𝑚3 at 75 𝑁 𝑚−2 . At what pressure is it when the volume
decreases to 60𝑐𝑚3
Solution
𝑃1 = 75 𝑁 𝑚−2 , 𝑉1 = 100 𝑐𝑚3 75 𝑥 100 = 𝑃2 𝑥 60
𝑃2 = ? , 𝑉2 = 60𝑐𝑚3 75 𝑥 100
𝑃2 =
𝑃1 𝑉1 = 𝑃2 𝑉2 60
𝑃2 = 125𝑁 𝑚−2

EXPERIMENT TO VERIFY BOYLES LAW

Atmospheric
pressure
Air
h mercury
L

Rubber

 A fixed mass of the gas is trapped inside J tube of uniform cross section using mercury.
199
  The pressure of the gas is varied by adding mercury to open limb
 The pressure P of air [H+h] is determined by measuring height h.
 The length L of air column is also measured using meter ruler.
1
 Different value of P and L are obtained and tabulated including values of 𝐿.
1
 A graph of P against is plotted and straight line graph passing through original obtained
𝐿
1
(P∝ 𝐿) from the graph.
1 1
 Since the tube has cross section area A then P∝ 𝐴𝐿 but AL=V ieP∝ 𝑉

P P

OR

I/L L

This verifies Boyle’s law

2: CHARLES LAW:
It states that the volume of fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature at
constant pressure i.e.
V∝T 𝑉 𝑉2 𝑉1
= 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 =
𝑇 𝑇2 𝑇1
Absolute zero temperature (0K) is the lowest temperature at which average kinetic energy of
molecules is zero.

Examples
1. When the temperature of a gas is at 0℃, its volume is 75 𝑐𝑚3 . Find its volume when the gas is
heated up to 273℃.
Solution
𝑉1 = 75 𝑐𝑚3 , 𝑇1 = 0 + 273 = 273𝐾 𝑉2 75
=
𝑉2 = ? , 𝑇2 = 273 + 273 = 546 𝐾 546 273
𝑉2 𝑉1 75 𝑥 546
= 𝑉2 =
𝑇2 𝑇1 273
𝑉2 = 150𝑐𝑚3
2. A tube containing air of volume 0.12 𝑐𝑚3 was placed in water when the temperature was
27℃. Calculate the volume of air when the temperature of air was raised to 77℃.
Solution
200
𝑉1 = 0.12 𝑐𝑚3 , 𝑇1 = 27 + 273 = 300𝐾 𝑉2 0.12
=
𝑉2 = ? , 𝑇2 = 77 + 273 = 350 𝐾 350 300
0.12 𝑥350
𝑉2 𝑉1 𝑉2 =
= 300
𝑇2 𝑇1 𝑉2 = 0.14𝑐𝑚3

3. The volume of a fixed mass of a gas at 27℃ is 150 𝑐𝑚3 . What is its temperature at 200𝑐𝑚3
Solution
𝑉1 = 150 𝑐𝑚3 , 𝑇1 = 27 + 273 = 300𝐾 300 𝑥 200
𝑇2 =
𝑉2 = 200𝑐𝑚3 , , 𝑇2 = ? 150
𝑉2 𝑉1 𝑇2 = 400 𝐾
= Temperature = 400 -273 =127℃
𝑇2 𝑇1
200 150
=
𝑇2 300
4. The temperature of a fixed mass of a gas is 27℃. If the volume is halved, find its new
temperature.
Solution
𝑉1 = 𝑉, 𝑇1 = 27 + 273 = 300𝐾 𝑉 𝑉
=
𝑉 2 𝑇2 300
𝑉2 = , 𝑇2 = ?
2 300 𝑥 1
𝑉2 𝑉1 𝑇2 =
= 2
𝑇2 𝑇1 𝑇2 = 150𝐾
𝑉⁄ Temperature = 150 − 273 = −123℃
2= 𝑉
𝑇2 300

Experiment to verify Charles’ law

Thermometer
Mercury lamp

Water bath
Scale
Trapped air

Heat

 Trapped air is obtained by using thread of mercury

 Fit the capillary tube on a ruler using rubber bands so that its ends lie on the zero mark
 Heat the water bath and read and record the length of the air column at different
temperatures
 Plot a graph of air column against temperature

201
 Length of air column
(volume)

-2730C Temperature
00C

 The straight line through the origin on the kelvin temperature scale shows that volume is
directly proportional to its absolute temperature.

3: PRESSURE LAW/ GAY LUSSAC LAW

It states that the pressure of fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature
at constant volume i.e.
P∝T
𝑃
= 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝑃1 𝑃2
𝑇 =
𝑇1 𝑇2
Example
1. The pressure of a gas is 75𝑁 𝑚−2 at −73℃. What is its pressure when a gas is heated up to 127℃
Solution
𝑃1 = 75 𝑁 𝑚−2 , 𝑇1 = −73 + 273 = 200 𝐾 75 𝑃2
=
𝑃2 = ?, 𝑇2 = 127 + 273 = 400𝐾 200 400
75𝑥 400
𝑃1 𝑃2 𝑃2 =
= 200
𝑇1 𝑇2
𝑃2 = 150 𝑁 𝑚−2
2. A sealed flask contains a gas at a temperature of 27℃ and a pressure of 90 𝑘𝑃𝑎. If the temperature
rises to 127℃. What will be the new pressure?
Solution
𝑃1 = 90 𝑘𝑃𝑎, 𝑇1 = 27 + 273 = 300 𝐾 90 𝑃2
=
𝑃2 = ?, 𝑇2 = 127 + 273 = 400𝐾 300 400
90𝑥 400
𝑃1 𝑃2 𝑃2 =
= 300
𝑇1 𝑇2
𝑃2 = 120 𝑘𝑃𝑎

EQUATION OF STATE
The combination of the three gas laws give general gas equation
𝑃𝑉 𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑃2 𝑉2
= 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 =
𝑇 𝑇1 𝑇2

202
 The general gas equation is used to solve problems about a gas pressure, volume and absolute
temperature when all the three quantities change

Examples
1. A bicycle pump holds 60 𝑐𝑚3 of air at 0℃ and a pressure 1 N𝑚−2, when the piston is drawn out.
Calculate the pressure of the air forced into the tyre when the volume of the air in the pump
reduces to 15 𝑐𝑚3 at a temperature of 273℃
Solution
𝑃1 = 1 𝑁 𝑚−2 , 𝑉1 = 60𝑐𝑚3 , 1 𝑥 60 𝑃2 𝑥 15
=
𝑇1 = 0 + 273 = 273 𝐾 273 546
1 𝑥 60 𝑥 546
𝑃2 =? , 𝑉2 = 15𝑐𝑚3 , 𝑃2 =
273 𝑥 15
𝑇2 = 273 + 273 = 546 𝐾 𝑃2 = 8 𝑁 𝑚−2
𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑃2 𝑉2
=
𝑇1 𝑇2
2. When the pressure of 1𝑚3 of a gas at −73 ℃ is increased to 3 times its original value, the
temperature becomes 27 ℃. Find the new volume of the gas
Solution
𝑃1 = 𝑃 𝑁 𝑚−2 , 𝑉1 = 1𝑚3 , 𝑃𝑥1 3 𝑃𝑥𝑉2
=
𝑇1 = −73 + 273 = 200 𝐾 200 300
1 3 𝑥𝑉2
𝑃2 = 3 𝑃 , 𝑉2 =?, =
200 300
𝑇2 = 27 + 273 = 300 𝐾 1 𝑥 300
𝑉2 =
𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑃2 𝑉2 200𝑥 3
=
𝑇1 𝑇2 𝑉2 = 0.5𝑚3
1
3. A litre of gas at 0℃ and 105 𝑁𝑚−2 pressure is suddenly compressed to 4 of its volume and its

temperature rises to 273℃. Calculate the resulting pressure of the gas.

Solution
𝑃1 = 105 𝑁𝑚−2 , 𝑉1 = 1 𝑙, 105 𝑥 1 𝑃2 𝑥 1⁄4
=
𝑇1 = 0 + 273 = 273 𝐾 273 546
𝑙 100000 1 𝑥 𝑃2
𝑃2 =? , 𝑉2 = , =
4 273 546 𝑥 4
𝑇2 = 273 + 273 = 546 𝐾 100000 𝑥 546 𝑥 4
𝑃2 =
273
𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑃2 𝑉2
= 𝑃2 = 800000 𝑁𝑚−2
𝑇1 𝑇2
Note:

203
 At standard temperature and pressure (s.t.p) a gas has an absolute temperature and normal
pressure ie. T = 273 K, P = 76 cmHg

Example
1. 240 𝑐𝑚3 of oxygen gas was collected when a temperature is 20℃ at a pressure of 50 cmHg.
Calculate its volume at s.t.p.
Solution
𝑃1 = 50 𝑐𝑚𝐻𝑔, 𝑉1 = 240 𝑐𝑚3 , 50 𝑥 240 𝑉2 𝑥 76
=
𝑇1 = 20 + 273 = 293𝐾 293 273
50 𝑥 240 𝑥 273
𝑃2 = 76 𝑐𝑚𝐻𝑔 , 𝑉2 =?, 𝑉2 =
293 𝑥 76
𝑇2 = 273𝐾 𝑉2 = 147.12 𝑐𝑚3
𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑃2 𝑉2
=
𝑇1 𝑇2
2. The volume of hydrogen at 273℃ is 10 𝑐𝑚3 at a pressure of 152 cmHg. What is its volume at s.t.p
Solution
𝑃1 = 152𝑐𝑚𝐻𝑔, 𝑉1 = 10 𝑐𝑚3 , 152 𝑥 10 𝑉2 𝑥 76
=
𝑇1 = 273 + 273 = 546𝐾 546 273
152𝑥 10 𝑥 273
𝑃2 = 76 𝑐𝑚𝐻𝑔 , 𝑉2 =?, 𝑉2 =
546 𝑥 76
𝑇2 = 273𝐾 𝑉2 = 10 𝑐𝑚3
𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑃2 𝑉2
=
𝑇1 𝑇2

KINETIC THEORY AND GAS LAWS

Kinetic theory of gases states that, the molecules of a gas are in continuous random motion,
colliding with each other and with the walls of the container
1. Effect of temperature
If the temperature of a gas is raised, it receives heat energy, their kinetic energy s raised and
they move faster and the volume increases. This explains why the volume of a gas is directly
proportional to the absolute temperature (Charles’ law).
2. Effect of pressure
Decrease in the volume of the gas, increases the number of times the molecules bombard
the walls of the container and so raises pressure. If the gas is compressed, the volume
decreases until the gas pressure equals the pressure outside.
This explains Boyle’s law.

204
Explain using kinetic theory why the pressure of fixed mass of gas rises when its
temperature is increased at constant volume.
 When gas temperature increases, the average kinetic energy of molecules increases. So the
number of collisions made by molecules with walls of the container per second increases.
The momentum change per second also increases and this leads to an increase in impulsive
force exerted on walls thereby increasing pressure exerted by the gas on the walls.

VAPOURS
A vapour is gaseous state of substance below its critical temperature. A vapour can either be
saturated or unsaturated
A gas is a gaseous state of substance above it’s critical temperature

SATURATED AND UNSATURATED VAPOUR

 A saturated vapour is one which is in contact or in equilibrium with it’s own liquid.
 Unsaturated vapour is one which is not in contact or equilibrium with it’s own liquid.

SATURATED VAPOUR PRESSURE (S.V.P)

1. Explanation of occurrence of S.V.P using kinetic theory

Fixed piston

Saturated Vapour pressure

vapour

evapouration
condensation

 Consider a liquid confined in the container with fixed piston, the liquid is in contact with its
vapour. The liquid molecules are moving randomly with mean kinetic energy determined by
liquid temperature. The most energetic molecules have sufficient K.e to overcome the
attraction by other molecules and leave the surface of liquid to become vapour molecules.
The process is called evaporation and it rate is determined by the liquid temperature.
 The molecules of the vapour are also moving randomly with a mean kinetic. The vapour
molecule collide with walls of the vessel giving rise to vapour pressure and others bombard
the surface of the liquid and re-enter the liquid. The process is called condensation. The
process of condensation and vapour pressure depend on density of the vapour.

205
  A state of dynamic equilibrium is attained when the rate of condensation equals to rate of
evapouration. At this point the density of vapour and hence vapour pressure is maximum at
that temperature of the vapour and this is called S.V.P.

NB:
 The rate of evapouration depend on temperature of the liquid
 The rate of condensation depends on density of vapour
 Vapour pressure depends on density of the vapour
 Saturated vapour pressure depends on density of the vapour
 S.V.P is the maximum vapour pressure at any temperature

2. Effect of volume change on S.V.P at constant temperature

 When the volume of saturated vapour is decreased at constant temperature, the density of
vapour, the rate of condensation and S.V.P momentarily increases but the rate of
evapouration remains constant.
 An increase in the rate of condensation with out any increase in rate of evapouration.
Causes the vapour density, the rate condensation and SVP to decrease therefore dynamic
equilibrium is retained at original value.
NB: Volume change at constant temperature has no effect on SVP

pressure pressure
U
n
sa
T

Saturated vapour
em

tu nst
ra an
p

Temp constant
te
co

d
va
po
t

ru

volume volume

Saturated vapours do not obey Boyle’s law, unsaturated vapour obey Boyle’s law

3. Effects of increasing temperature on SVP at constant volume

An increase in temperature increases the average kinetic energy of molecules and therefore
evapouration rate increases. This causes an increase in vapour density which in turn increases the
rate of condensation and eventually equilibrium and saturation are re-obtained at higher saturated
vapour pressure than before.

206
 Pressure Pressure

Saturated vapour
Volume constant Unsaturated vapour

Temperature Temperature
Saturated vapour increases almost Pressure increases linearly with
exponentialy with temperature. temperature.
Saturated vapour donot obey Pressure Unsaturated vapours obey pressure
law law

EVAPOURATION
This is the process by which a liquid become a vapour.
It can take place at all temperatures and only at the surface but it is greatest when the liquid is at
it’s boiling point.
Explanation using kinetic theory
 In kinetic theory, the molecules of liquid are in continuous motion and make frequent
collision with each other. As they continue colliding with each other, they gain kinetic
energy and those which have acquired sufficient kinetic energy move up to the surface of
the liquid and over come the attractive forces holding them together and therefore escape
from the surface.
 Since the fast moving molecules which cause numerous collisions with in the liquid tending
to increased liquid temperature have escaped and leaving behind slow cold molecules this
lead to the cooling of the liquid.

Experiment to demonstrate cooling by evapouration

 Place a beaker filled with ether (volatile liquid) on the film of water on a wooden block and
blow air through a glass tube

Air
Glass tube

Ether
Can
Water

Wooden block

207
  Ether will evapourate when it gets the necessary heat from water under the beaker and loss
of heat makes the water to freeze
 It is then observed that water under the beaker turns in a solid ice because of evapouration
of ether takes place

Ways of increasing evapouration

 Increasing surface area of liquid
Increasing the surface area increases the rate of evaporation because a larger
surface area exposes many energetic molecules to escape.
 Increasing temperature of the liquid
Increase in temperature increases the rate of evapouration because at higher
temperatures more moelcules will move faster to the liquid surface where they will
escape
 Reducing air pressure above the liquid
At low pressure there is low exertion on the liquid surface hence allowing more
molecules to escape.
 Wind or air currents
The rate of evapouration increases when there is too much wind blowing since wind
blows away more energetic molecules which have already escaped from the liuid so
they can not return back to the liquid

BOILING
Boiling is a process which occurs when vapour pressure is equal to external atmospheric pressure.
Boiling point of liquid is the temperature at which liquid vapour pressure is equal to external
atmospheric pressure.
A liquid boils when its temperature is such that bubble of vapour forms through out it’s volume.

Explanation of boiling using kinetic theory

 In kinetic theory, the molecules of a liquid are in continuous motion and make frequent with
each other. As they continue colliding with each other they gain kinetic energy and those
which have acquired sufficient kinetic energy move up to the surface of the liquid and
overcome the attractive forces holding them together at boiling.

208
  At boiling point the saturated vapour pressure of the liquid is equal to the external pressure
(atmospheric pressure plus hydrostatic pressure plus the pressure due to surface tension).
The bubbles grows and rise to the surface where they burst and give off the vapour to the
atmosphere.

Factors that affect boiling point of a liquid

1. Pressure
Increase in external pressure increases increases the boiling point of a liquid . This because
boiling takes place only when external pressure is equals to internal saturated vapour
pressure.
Explain why;
(i) Cooking takes longer at very high altitudes
Boiling of liquid occurs when the vapour pressure from boiling liquid equal the
atmospheric pressure and atbhigh altitudes atmospheric pressure (external
pressure) is low. Therefore, at higher altitudes liquid boil at low boiling point. As
a result cooking takes longer at higher altitude than at lower altitudes.
(ii) Food cooks more quickly using a pressure cooker
Food cooks more quickly in a pressure cooker because the pressure cooker has a
lid that prevents steam from escaping therefore the inter steam pressure from
boiling liquid causes the saturated steam (wet steam) to bombard the food
2. Impurities
Addition of impurities like salt raises the boiling point of a liquid

Differences between evaporation and boiling

 Boiling occurs through out the volume of the liquid while evaporation occurs at the surface.
 A liquid boils at single temp for any given external pressure whereas evaporation occurs at
any temperature.

Question: Explain why at a given external pressure a liquid boils at a constant temp.
Solution
A liquid boils when it’s saturated vapour pressure is equal to the external pressure. But since the
saturated vapour pressure is dependent on the temp of the liquid, then it implies that for a given
external pressure the boiling will occur at a constant temperature.

209
Question: Explain why the temperature of a liquid does not change when the liquid is boiling.
Solution
At boiling point all the heat supplied is used in increasing the potential energy of the molecules by
increasing their distances of separation as they change from liquid phase to the gaseous phase and
also in doing work against external atmospheric pressure during expansion. So there is no change
in the kinetic energy of the liquid molecules therefore the temperature of the liquid remains
constant
FREEZING AND MELTING POINT
Freezing point is the temperature at which a substance changes from liquid state to solid state
Melting point is the temperature at which a substance changes from sold to liquid state
Factors that affect freezing point
(i) Pressure:
Increasing pressure lowers the freezing point and melting point of a substance
(ii) Impurities
Addition of impurities like salt lowers the freezing and melting point of a liquid

REFRIGERATOR
In a refrigerator heat is taken in at one place and given out at another by refrigerating substance as
it is pumped round a circuit.

Freezer ( evaporator pipe)

Liquid
Cooling fins

Insulator Condenser
vapour tubes

Copper tube
Compressor
pump

Mode of operation
 The coiled copper pipe round the freezer contains a highly volatile liquid and as it enters
the. This evaporates and takes latent heat from the refrigerator content so causing cooling

210
  The vapour formed formed is compressed into a liquid and heat is taken to the tube by
conduction and lost through the cooling fins by convection and radiation. The liquid returns
to the coils round the freezer and the cycle is repeated.
Function of parts
(i) Compressor pump
This removes the vapour formed in the freezer and forces the vapour to condenser
tube.
(ii) Condenser tube ( heat exchanger)
This where the vapour is compressed and liquefies giving out latent heat of
vapourisation to the surrounding air
(iii) Cooling fins
These gives out latent heat of vaporization to the surrounding air. They are painted
black because black surfaces are good emitters of heat radiations
(iv) Insulators
This prevents the heat exchange between the inside and outside of the refrigerator.
(V) Evaporator pipe
This cools the liquid by evaporating volatile liquid under reduced pressure in the pipe

SECTIONA
1. The amount of heat absorbed by a body of mass 2 kg at constant temperature is called
A. latent heat B. heat capacity C. specific latent heat D. specific heat capacity
2. The lowest possible temperature on Kelvin scale is called the
A. Ice-point B. Steam point C. Absolute zero D. Dew-point
3. A heater rated 100 W melts 17.9 g of ice every minute. Find the specific latent heat of fusion of ice
1000 𝑥 1 𝑥 100 100 𝑥 60 𝑥 1000 100 𝑥 1000 17.9 𝑥 1000
A. B. C. D.
17.9 17.9 17.9 𝑥 60 100 𝑥 1

4. A heater rated 240V, 500W boils off water at 100℃ in 6 minutes. Find the mass of the steam
formed. ( specific latent heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 𝑥 106 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1)
6 𝑥 60 𝑥 2.26 𝑥106 500 𝑥 2.26 𝑥106 6 𝑥 2.26𝑥 106 500𝑥 6 𝑥60
𝐴. 500
𝑘𝑔 B. 6𝑥60
𝑘𝑔 C. 500
𝑘𝑔 D. 2.26 𝑥 106
𝑘𝑔

5. The rate of evaporation of a liquid increases when

(i) temperature increases
(ii) pressure increases
(iii) its surface area increases
A. (i) and (ii) only B. (i) and (iii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

211
6. A mass of 800 g of molten metal at 1200℃ gives out 4 𝑥 105 𝐽 of heat on solidification. Find the
specific latent heat of fusion of the metal
A. 3.3 𝑥 102 𝐽𝑘𝑔−1 B. 2.7 𝑥 105 𝐽𝑘𝑔−1 C. 5.0 𝑥 105 𝐽𝑘𝑔−1 D. 6.0 𝑥 105 𝐽𝑘𝑔−1
7. The specific heat capacity of a substance is the quantity of heat
A. needed to change 1 kg mass from solid to liquid
B. needed to change 1 kg mass from liquid to gas
C. needed to change the temperature of 1 kg mass by 1 K
D. given out when 1 kg mass changes from liquid to solid
8. A given mass of gas occupies a volume of 200 c𝑚3 at a temperature of 27℃ and a pressure of one
atmosphere. Find the volume when its temperature rises to 54℃ at constant temperature
200 𝑥 1 𝑥 327 300 𝑥 327 200 𝑥300 327 𝑥 1
A. B. C. D.
300 200 𝑥 1 327 𝑥 1 200 𝑥 300

9. The specific heat capacity of a substance is the amount of

A. heat required to raise it through 1℃
B. heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg mass of the substance through 1℃
C. heat required to change 1 kg mass of the substance into liquid at the same temperature
D. heat required to raise its temperature a specific number of degrees.
10. Calculate the amount of heat required to change 100 g of water at 100℃ to steam at 100℃ [ specific
heat capacity of steam = 2.26𝑥 106 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1]
A. 2.26𝑥 108 𝐽 B. 2.26𝑥 107 𝐽 C. 2.26𝑥 105 𝐽 D. 2.26𝑥 10 𝐽
11. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 0.5 kg of salt solution from -5℃ to 15℃ is (
specific heat capacity of salt solution is 4000 J k𝑔−1 𝐾 −1)
A. 8000 J B. 20,000 J C. 40,000 J D. 160,000 J
12. A 100 g quantity of water at 24 ℃ is added to 50 g of water at 36 ℃. The final temperature of the
mixture is
A. 28℃ B. 32℃ C. 30℃ D. 34℃
13. The volume of a fixed mass of gas at 27.0℃ and a pressure of 750 mm of mercury is 300 𝑐𝑚3 . What
is its volume when the pressure is raised to 900 mm of mercury and the temperature is 327℃
A. 125 𝑐𝑚3 B. 180𝑐𝑚3 C. 500𝑐𝑚3 D. 720𝑐𝑚3
14. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 0.5 kg of iron from 25℃ to 50℃ is
( specific heat capacity of iron is 460 J k𝑔−1 𝐾 −1)
𝟎.𝟓 𝒙 𝟒𝟔𝟎 𝟒𝟔𝟎 𝒙 𝟐𝟓 𝟎.𝟓 𝒙 𝟐𝟓
A. 𝟐𝟓
B. 𝟎.𝟓
C. 𝟎. 𝟓 𝒙 460 x 25 D. 𝟒𝟔𝟎

15. A block of lead of mass 1000 g hits a hard surface without rebounding with a velocity of 23 m/s. If
its temperature rises from 25℃ to 27℃, calculate the specific heat capacity of lead

212
 A. 5.75 J k𝑔−1 ℃−1 B. 9.79 J k𝑔−1 ℃−1 C. 132.25 J k𝑔−1 ℃−1 D. 264.5 J k𝑔−1 ℃−1
16. 450 g of water at 60 ℃ is to be cooled to 35℃ by addition of cold water at 20℃. . How much cold
water is to be added.
A. 0.169 kg B. 0.270 kg C. 0.281 kg D. 0.75 kg
17. Calculate the time required for a kettle taking 10A from a 240V supply, to heat 5 kg of water
through 80℃. Assuming no heat loss.
A. 700s B. 292 s C. 8.8 s D. 1.7 s
18. When 1 kg of a certain liquid is heated for 10 s its temperature rises by 25℃, if the power supplied
is 1000W, find the specific heat capacity of the liquid.
A. 40 J k𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 B. 400 J k𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 C. 1000 J k𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 D. 2500 J k𝑔−1 𝐾 −1
SECTION B .
1. (a) What is meant by heat capacity
(b) State two thermal quantities of a substance that can be measured in the laboratory
(c) Calculate the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of a metal of mass 4 kg
through 10℃ if the specific heat capacity of the metal is 390 J kg 𝐾 −1
2. (a) What is meant by temperature of a body?
(b) Diagram below shows a thermometer

copper
Galvanometer
Iron

(i) Name the type of thermometer

(ii) State the physical property it uses to measure temperature
(iii) What is the use of the galvanometer?
3. (a) What is meant by absolute zero temperature?
(b) A sealed flask contains gas at a temperature of 27℃ and a pressure of 90 k Pa. If the
temperature rises to 127℃ what will be new pressure
4. (a) What is meant by specific latent heat of vaporization
(b)

213
 100 S
Temperature 0C T

0 V U
-10 R Time

Figure above represents a cooling curve of steam. State what takes place over regions
(c) Why is a burn from steam is more harmful than one due to boiling water?
5. (a) What is meant by boiling point of a liquid
(b) Why is cooking faster with a pressure cooker
(c) State two differences between boiling and evapourization
6. (a) Sketch a graph of volume against absolute temperature for a gas which obeys Charles’ law
(b) The volume of a gas is 58 𝑐𝑚3 at a temperature of 290 K and a pressure of 8.0 𝑥 104 Pa. Find
the volume of the gas at s.t.p [standard pressure = 1.01𝑥 105 Pa]
7. (a) State Boyle’s law
(b) A volume of fixed mass of a gas increases from 300 c𝑚3 to 500 c𝑚3 at a constant
temperature. Find the new pressure if the initial pressure is 70 cm Hg
8. (a) What is meant by specific latent heat vaporization?
(b) State two factors which affect the boiling point of water
(c) Calculate the heat required to convert 0.8 kg of water at 100℃ to steam [ specific latent heat
of vaporization of water =2.26𝑥 106 𝐽𝑘𝑔−1 ]
9. (a) Name any two physical properties which change with temperature
(b) Convert a temperature of 25℃ to kelvin
(c) Explain why evaporation causes cooling
10. (a)

Temperature
(0C) A
0

B C

Time (s)

Diagram above shows temperature versus time curve for a liquid. State what is happening along BC

214
 (b) Use the kinetic theory of matter to explain what is along OA
11. (a) Sketch the variation of volume with temperature in kelvin, for a gas at constant pressure
(b) State any two advantages of mercury as thermometric substance.
(c) What is a saturated vapour?
12. (a) What is meant specific latent capacity of a substance
(b) When a block of iron of mass 2 kg absorbs 19 kJ of heat, its temperature rises by 10℃. Find
the specific heat capacity of the iron
13. (a) The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 . What is meant by the above statement
(b) State two reasons why water is used in the cooling system of a car engine
PAPER TWO TYPE
1. (a) Define specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance
(b) (i) A calorimeter of mass 20g and specific heat capacity 800 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 contains 500 g of
water at 30 ℃. Dry steam at 100℃ is passed through the water in the calorimeter until
the temperature of water rises to 70℃. If the specific latent heat of vaporization of
water is 2260000 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1, calculate the mass of steam condensed
(ii) Water initially at 25℃ was heated. Sketch a graph to show how its temperature varies
with time
(c) Describe briefly one application of evaporation
2. (a) Distinguish between specific heat capacity and heat capacity
(b) Explain how a hot object standing on a metallic table on the surface of the moon loses heat
(c) Outline the steps and precautions needed in measuring the specific heat capacity of a liquid
by method of mixtures
(d) The 0℃ and 100℃ marks on a liquid- glass thermometer are 10 cm apart. What would be the
temperature if the liquid fell 2 cm below the 0℃ mark?
3. (a) What is the absolute zero of temperature
(b) Explain, using the kinetic theory, why the pressure of air inside a car tyre increases on a hot
day
(c) Describe with the aid of a labelled diagram an experiment to investigate the effect of
temperature on the volume of a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure
(d) The same quantity of heat was supplied to 5.0 kg of sea water and 12.0 kg methylated
spirit. The temperature rise was 3.0℃ and 2.0℃ respectively. Find the ratio of the specific
heat capacity of sea water to that of methylated spirit
4. (a) What is the absolute zero of temperature

215
 (b) Explain, using the kinetic theory, why the pressure of air inside a car tyre increases on a
hot day
(c) Describe with the aid of a labelled diagram an experiment to investigate the effect of
temperature on the volume of a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure
(d) The same quantity of heat was supplied to 5.0kg of sea water and 12.0kg of methylated
spirit. The temperature rise was 3.0℃ and 2.0℃ respectively. Find the ratio of the specific
heat capacity of sea water to that of mythylated spirit.
5. (a) (i) Define latent heat of fusion
(ii) Describe with aid of a labelled diagram, an experiment to show the effect of increase in
pressure on the melting point of ice
(iii) If the melting of point of lead is 327℃, find the amount of heat required to melt 200 g of
lead initially at 27℃. [ specific heat capacity of lead is 140 Jk𝑔−1 𝐾 −1, specific latent
heat of fusion of lead is 2.7 𝑥 105 J 𝑘𝑔−1]
(b) What is meant by the terms;
(i) temperature, (ii) heat?
(c) The fundamental interval of mercury in glass is 192mm. Find the temperature in degrees
celcius when the mercury thread is 67.2mm long
(d) State two physical properties which change with temperature.
6. (a) Define specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance
(b) A calorimeter of mass 35.0 g and specific heat capacity 840 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝐾 −1 contains 143.0 g of
water at 7 ℃. Dry steam at 100℃ is bubbled through the water in the calorimeter until
the temperature of water rises to 29℃. If the mass of steam condensed is 5.6 g,
(i) calculate the heat gained by the water and calorimeter
(ii) obtain an expression for the heat lost by the steam in condensing at 100℃ and in
cooling 29℃.
(iii) find the specific latent heat of vaporization of water
(c) Explain, in terms of molecules, what is meant by saturated vapour.
7. (a) What is an equation of state of a gas
(b) (i) With the aid of a sketch graph, describe how absolute zero of temperature can be
defined
(ii) Use the kinetic theory of gases to explain the existence of absolute zero of
temperature
(c) A volume of 2500 𝑐𝑚3 of hydrogen gas is collected at 67℃ at a pressure of 730 mm Hg.

216
 Calculate the volume of the gas at s.t.p
(d) Smoke is confined in a smoke cell and observe through a microscope. Explain what is
observed when the temperature of the smoke cell is raised.
8. (a) With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe an experiment to show how the volume of a gas
varies with pressure at constant temperature.
(b) A gas of volume 1000 𝑐𝑚3 at a pressure of 4 𝑥 105 Pa and temperature 17℃ is heated to
89.5 ℃ at constant pressure. Find the new volume of the gas.
(c) A balloon is filled with 50 𝑐𝑚3 of hydrogen and tied to the ground. The balloon alone, and
the container which it carries have a mass of 2.0 kg. If the densities of hydrogen and air are
9.0 𝑥 10−2 𝑘𝑔 𝑚−3 and 1.29𝑘𝑔 𝑚−3 respectively, how much load can the balloon lift when
released?
9. (a) What is meant by specific latent heat of vaporization
(b) With the aid of a labelled diagram describe how a refrigerator works
(c) The cooling system of a refrigerator extracts 0.7 kW of heat. How long will it take to convert
500 g of water at 20℃ into ice
(d) Explain how evaporation takes place
10. (a) Define specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance
(b) Describe an experiment to determine the specific latent heat of vaporization of steam
(c) A copper container of heat capacity 60 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 contains 0.5 kg of water at 20 ℃. Dry steam is
passed into the water in the calorimeter until the temperature of water rises to 50℃.
Calculate the mass of steam condensed
(d) (i) What is meant by saturated vapour pressure
(ii) Explain what may happen when one is to cook food from a very high altitude

217
 DENSITY AND RELATIVE DENSITY
Density of a substance is defined as the mass per unit volume of a substance.
𝑚
𝜌=
𝑣
S.I unit’s kgm-3
Relative density
Definition
It is the ratio of the density of a substance to density of an equal volume of water at 40c
It is at 40c because water has maximum density of 1000kgm-3 at that temperature
𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑚𝑠 𝑚𝑠
𝑅. 𝐷 = ⁄𝑣𝑠 𝑅. 𝐷 =
𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑡 4℃ 𝑅. 𝐷 = 𝑚 𝑚𝑤
𝑤⁄
𝑣𝑠
It can also be defined as the ratio of the mass of a substance to mass of an equal volume of
water
𝑚
𝑅. 𝐷 = 𝑚 𝑠 for 𝑤𝑠 𝑤
R.D = 𝑤 𝑠
⁄𝑔
𝑤 𝑤
W = mg 𝑤 𝑤⁄𝑔

It can also be defined as the ratio of weight of a substance to weight of an equal volume of
water.
Note: Relative density has no units.

ARCHIMEDE’S PRINCIPLE
It states that when a body is wholly or partially immersed in a fluid, it experiences an up thrust
equals to the weight of the fluid displaced.
I.e. Up thrust = weight of fluid = apparent loss of weight of the object in a fluid.
Definition
Up thrust is the apparent loss of weight of an object immersed in a fluid
Or
It is the resultant upward force on the body due to the fluid.

Verification of Archimedes’s principle using a spring balance.

 Fill the displacement can with water till water flows through the spout and wait until the water
stops dripping.
 Weigh a solid object in air using a spring balance and record its weight 𝑊𝑎
 Place a beaker of known weight beneath the spout of the can.
 With the help of the spring balance, the solid object is carefully lowered into the water in the
displacement can and wait until water stops dripping when it is completely immersed, its
weight (apparent weight) is then read and recorded from the spring balance as 𝑊𝑤 .
 Re weigh the beaker and the displaced water and record the weight as 𝑊(𝑏+𝑤)
Clamp

Spring balance

Displacement can

Object beaker
Displaced water

Results
218
 Let the weight of the empty beaker be 𝑊𝑏
Weight of water displaced = weight of (beaker +water) – weight of beaker
Weight of water displaced = 𝑊(𝑏+𝑤) − 𝑊𝑏 …………………………..1
Apparent loss of weight of object = weight of object in air – weight of object in water
Apparent loss of weight of the object = 𝑊𝑎 - 𝑊𝑤
If (𝑊𝑎 - 𝑊𝑤 ) = (𝑊(𝑏+𝑤) − 𝑊𝑏 ), then Archimedes’s principle is verified

Application of Archimedes’s principle

It can be used to determine density and relative density of a solid and a liquid.
a) Determination of density and relative density of a solid
 Weigh the solid in air and its weight (𝑊𝑎 ) recorded using a spring balance.
 Immerse the solid wholly in water and record its apparent weight from balance (𝑊𝑤 )

Spring balance

Solid Solid water

 Up thrust in water = 𝑊𝑎 - 𝑊𝑤
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑎 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
 𝑅. 𝐷 = 𝑈𝑝 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑢𝑠𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟
𝑊𝑎
 𝑅. 𝐷 = 𝑊𝑎 − 𝑊𝑤
 Density of solid = RD of solid x density of water

Example
1. An object suspended from the spring balance is found to have a weight of 4.92N in air and
3.87N when immersed in water. Calculate the density of the material from which the object is
made of the density of water is 1000kgm-3
Solution
𝑊𝑎 = 4.92, 𝑊𝑤 = 3.87N RD = 4.686
𝑊𝑎 Density of substance = RD x 𝜌 of water
𝑅. 𝐷 =
𝑊𝑎 − 𝑊𝑤 = 4.686 x 1000
4.92 = 4686kgm-3
𝑅. 𝐷 =
4.92 − 3.87

Exercise :
1. A piece of glass weighs 0.5N in air and 0.30N in water. Find the density of the glass.
An[2500kgm-3]
2. A glass block weighs 25N in air. When wholly immersed in water, the block weighs 15N.
calculate
i. The up thrust on the block
ii. The density of the glass in kgm-3 [ans 10N, 2500kgm-3]

b) Determination of density and relative density of a liquid

 Weigh a solid (sinker) in air and record its weight 𝑊𝑎 using a spring balance.
 Immerse the solid (sinker) wholly in water and record the apparent weight 𝑊𝑤
219
 Wipe the surface of the solid (sinker) with a piece of dry cloth and immerse it wholly in the
liquid whose relative density is to be measured, read and record its apparent weight in the
liquid 𝑊𝐿

Water Liquid

Solid Solid Solid

Weight of water displaced (up thrust in water) = 𝑊𝑎 - 𝑊𝑤

Weight of liquid displaced (up thrust in liquid) = 𝑊𝑎 - 𝑊𝐿
𝑢𝑝𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑢𝑠𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝐿𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑
Relative density =
𝑢𝑝𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑢𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟
𝑊 −𝑊
 𝑅. 𝐷 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑 = 𝑊𝑎− 𝑊𝐿
𝑎 𝑤
Density of liquid = R.D of liquid x density of water

HYDROMETER
A hydrometer is an instrument used to measure relative density of liquids.
It consists of stem, bulb and sinker.

Stem Stem – Carries the scale

Bulb – Increases the buoyancy

Bulb
Sinker – Enables the hydrometer to float vertically
Sinker

A hydrometer is placed in a liquid whose R.D is required and the scale read at the level of
the liquid surface.
A hydrometer floats deeper in a lighter liquid than in a liquid of high density.

Uses of a hydrometer
(i) Car hydrometer ; used to test the R.D of a car battery
(ii) Lactometer : used to test the purity of milk

Terminal velocity

Terminal velocity is the maximum constant speed attained by a body falling through a fluid

Consider a sphere falling from rest through a viscous fluid.

220
  The forces acting on the sphere are its weight (mg), up thrust due to the displaced fluid and
the viscous drag, F.
 Initially the downward force mg is greater than the upward force(U + F) and the sphere
increases so too does the viscous drag and eventually U+F becomes equal to mg.
 The sphere continues to move downwards but because there is now no net force acting on
it. Its velocity has a constant maximum value known as terminal velocity.
u F

ams-2

mg

At the terminal velocity

Mg = U + F……………………………(1)

A graph of velocity against time for an object falling in a fluid

velocity
Vt

acceleration

time

Revision questions: Section A

1) A parachute released from an aero plane will fall with a constant velocity when
A. Its weight is equal to the up thrust
B. Its weight is equal to the air resistance
C. Air resistance is equal to the up thrust
D. The up thrust plus the air resistance are equal to its weight

2) When a balloon filled hydrogen is released into the air on a calm day, it
A. Rises to definite height when the pressure inside and outside are equal
B. Rises until the pressure inside reduces to zero
C. Rises for a while and then bursts
D. Comes to the ground and darts around.

221
3) When a metal sphere is dropped in a viscous fluid, it eventually attains a steady velocity called
A. Turbulence velocity C. Viscous velocity
B. Terminal velocity D. Streamline velocity

4) The graph below shows a velocity- time graph for a moving body
Which of the following statements is
v/ms-1 A B true about the motion?
A. Velocity of the body is constant
between O and A
B. Velocity of the body is constant
between A and B
C. The body is accelerating between A
O Time/s
and B
D. The body is not accelerating between
O and A
5) Which of the following statements are true about hydrometer?
(i) It measures density of a liquid
(ii) Its sensitivity is improved by narrowing its stem
(iii) Its reading increases upwards on the stem
(iv) Its buoyancy is provided by the large bulb
A. (i) (ii) and (iii) C. (i) (ii) and (iv)
B. (ii) (iii) and (iv) D. (ii) and (iv) only

6) A hollow glass sphere of mass 60𝑔 floats in water such that two-thirds of its volume is under
water of density𝑔 𝑐𝑚−3. Find the volume in 𝑐𝑚3 of the sphere.
A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 90

7) When an inflated balloon is released in air with its neck open, it will
A. Rise up
B. Drop to the ground instantly
C. Move in the opposite direction to the escaping air
D. Remain in one position

222
 Section: B
8) (a) (i) What is meant by terminal velocity
(ii) State a factor that affects terminal velocity of a body falling in a fluid
(b) A ball bearing is released at the surface of a viscous liquid and allowed to sink
through the liquid. Draw a velocity- time graph for the motion of the ball bearing.

9) (a) state
(i) Archimedes’ principle
(ii) The law of floatation
(b) When a metal is completely immersed in a liquid A, its apparent weight
is 20N . When its immersed in another liquid B , the apparent weight is
9
16N. If the density of B is 8 times that of A, calculate the mass of the

metal.

10) A balloon filled with 50𝑚3 of hydrogen weighs 40kg. the balloon is held in place by a rope fixed
to the ground. If the density of air is 1.2kg𝑚−3, find
a. The up thrust on the balloon
b. The force needed to hold the balloon in place
(density of hydrogen = 0.089kg𝑚−3,)

11) (a) (i) state Archimedes’ principle

(ii) Describe an experiment to verify the law of floatation
(iii) Give one example where the law of floatation is applied
(b) (i) Define density
(ii) A piece of glass weighs 0.50N in air and 0.30N in water. Find the density of
the glass

12) (a) State the following :

(i) Archimede’s principle
(ii) The law of floatation
(a) A wooden sphere of mass 6kg and volume 0.02𝑚3 floats on water. Calculate
the;
(i) Volume of the sphere below the surface of water

223
 (ii) Density of the wood
(iii) Fraction of the volume of the sphere that would be submerged if it floats in a liquid of
density 800𝑘𝑔𝑚−3
(b) Explain why a cork stopper held below the surface of water rises when released.
(c) Describe an experiment to measure atmospheric pressure.

13) (a) Define density and state it S.I units

(b) With the aid of a labeled diagram, describe the motion of a ball bearing which is dropped
centrally into a tall jar containing oil.
(c) (i) State Archimedes’ principle
(ii) A n object weighs 30N in air and 20N when immersed in water of density 1000𝑘𝑔𝑚−3 . If the
same object weighs 22N when immersed in methylated spirit, what is the density of the spirit?
(d) Explain why a ship is able to float on water in spite of being made of metal.

14) (a) State Archimedes’ principle

(b) (i) Describe an experiment to verify the law of floatation.
(ii) Give one example where the law of floatation is applied
(b) (i) Define density
(ii) A piece of glass weighs 0.5N in air and 0.30N in water. Find the density of glass

15) (a) State Archimedes’ principle

(b) A rubber balloon of mass 5𝑥10−3kg is inflated with hydrogen and held stationary by means of a
string. If the volume of the inflated balloon is 5𝑥10−3 𝑚3, calculate the tension in the string.(Density
of hydrogen=0.080𝑘𝑔𝑚−3 , Density of air=1.150𝑘𝑔𝑚−3 )

224