T.Y.

SC-IT SEMESTER VI SAMPLE QUESTION BANK

ITSM
Sr No Questions A B C D
ITSM define as “A set of specialized organizational capabilities for Design Services Product Strategy
1 providing value to customers in the form of______________”.
Service provider that provides IT services to external customers called Service Owner Internal Service Providers Process Owner External Service Providers
2 as__________.
3 The 4 P’s of ITSM are people, partners, processes and: Purpose Products Perspectives Practice
Service portfolio contains description of all the services engaged Given Statement is True Given Statement is False Neither True nor
4 throughout the service lifecycle. State True or False False
In ITSM, Which process ensures good relationship between service Business Relationship Service Catalogue Demand Finance Management
5 provider and the customer. Management Management Management
Financial Management does not deal with Accounting Establishing relationship Budgeting Charging activities for services.
6
ITIL stands for __________________. Information Technology Information Technology Internal Technology Internal Transformation
Infrastructure Library Integrated Language Infrastructure Library Integrated Language

7
Choose an incorrect option: 'Capabilities can be described as: The functions and processes Intangible assets of an Flow of activities to Delivery of services to the
utilized to manage services. organization that cannot be be carrying out. customer in effective and
purchased, but must be efficient customers way
developed and matured over
8 time
Select the correct flow of Service Life Cycle. Service Strategy, Service Service Strategy, Service Service Transition, Service Operation, Service
Transition, Service Design, Design, Service Transition, Service Design, Strategy, Service Transition,
Service Operation Service Operation Service Strategy, Service Design
9 Service Operation
Availability is calculated using the formula AST-DT/AST × 100. What do AST = assumed service AST = availability service AST = agreed AST = agreed service time, DT =
the terms AST and DT refer to? target, DT = delivery time target, DT = downtime service time, DT = delivery time
10 downtime
Availability management considers VBFs. What does VBF stand for? Viable business factors Vital business functions Visibility, benefits, Vital business facilities
11 functionality
Who is responsible for producing evidence that the process activities Process owner Process practitioner Process manager Service owner
12 have been carried out correctly, in the form of records?
Which of the following is true? Accountability can be shared. There may be more than one Someone must The process owner is the person
person responsible. always be consulted informed for every process step.
for each process
13 step.
Which of the following is not one of the responsibilities of a service Communicating with the Designing the metrics for the Representing the Being the escalation (notification)
owner? customer as required on all process and ensuring that service across the point for major incidents affecting
issues regarding the delivery these provide the necessary organization and the service
of the service information to judge the attending service
effectiveness and efficiency review meetings with
of the process the business.
14
A formal arrangement where an exterior organization provides and External Management Business Process External Business External Process Outsource
manages the other organization’s entire business process(es) or Outsourcing
15 functions(s) in a low-cost location called as
 What is the name of the activity within the Capacity Management Application Sizing Demand Management Modeling Tuning
process whose purpose is to predict the future capacity requirements of
16 new and changed services?
In which ITIL® process are negotiations held with the customer about the Availability Management Capacity Management Financial Service Level Management
availability and capacity levels to be provided? Management for IT
17 Services
Out of following which is not the objective of Service Design To convert the strategic To use a holistic approach To use an External To ensure consistent design
objectives defined during for design to ensure design for standards
Service Strategy into integrated end-to-end development.
Services. business-related functionality
18 and quality.
Service Design process does not involve Service Level Management Capacity Management Availability Customer Relationship
19 (Design) Management Management
Which of these statements best reflects the purpose of change To deliver successful To provide controlled change To provide success To deliver an accurate
management? projects to operations strategies for the configuration management
20 business system
. Which of these is part of the scope of IT change management? Business strategic changes Minor operational changes IT service changes Project changes
21
What is the benefit of using a change model? It allows a change to be It allows the customer to It allows project It allows predefined steps to be
accepted into release more bypass the normal change teams to use the used when handling similar types
easily. process. change process for of change.
project changes.
22
Which of these is the best description of the purpose of transition To provide overall planning To provide coordination for To provide planning To provide planning for
planning and support process? and coordination of all change management for all designs in the operational activities during
resources for service activities service lifecycle release management
23 transition
Which of these statements about transition planning and support is/are 1 only 2 only Both Neither
correct? 1. Transition planning and support identifies and manages risks,
in accordance with the risk management framework adopted by the
organization.
2. Transition planning and support ensures that repeatable processes
24 are adopted by all engaged in the transition
Which Process deals with management and control of movement of Release and Deployment Service validation and Testing Transition Planning Knowledge Management
releases to test and live environment in Service Transition phase of ITIL. Management and Support
25
A change that must be introduced as soon as possible e.g. to resolve a Emergency Change Normal Change Standard Change Abnormal Change
major incident or implement a security patch are called as __________.
26
Match the Column Change Impact Typical Escalation Level i, ii, iii ii, iii, i I, iii, ii Iii, ii, i
a.Normal Minor Change i. Manager (CM) or other operational process
manager
b.Normal Significant Change ii. Advisory Board (CAB)
27 c.Major Change iii. IT Management Board
Services to be adaptable to changing business requirements on dynamic Functionality, Resources, Clarity, Resource, Timetable Authorization, Order, Resources, Order, Functionality
basis. For this, a balance must be maintained between the following Timetable Cost
28 factors are:
Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a Supplier Management Service Level Management Service Portfolio Contract Management
29 regular basis? Management
 The diagram mapping the types of test to each stage of development to DIKW The service V-model The test plan The test strategy
ensure that testing covers business and service requirements as well as
30 technical ones is known as what?
Management support is critical for successful service management. Leadership, funding, and Higher first-time fix rate, Improved customer D.Reduced outages, funding,
What benefits are expected from management’s commitment to supporting commitment reduced outages, and funding satisfaction, reduced and supporting commitment
technology and tools? outages, and higher
first-time fix rate

31
Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve To validate, justify, monitor To validate, direct, justify and To validate, check, To validate, analyse, direct and
32 services? and improve intervene act and improve improve
Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are 2 only 1 only Both of the above Neither of the above
CORRECT? 1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of
communication between IT and its users for all operational issues 2. The
Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
33
The MoSCoW approach is often adopted when preparing a request for a Mandatory, Should, Costed, Might, Should, Could, Wanted Mandatory, Should, Must, Should, Could, Would
new service management tool. What do the uppercase letters in the term Wanted Customizable, Won’t
34 MoSCoW stand for?
Which of the following statements is correct? IT spending needs a All IT service providers must The cost of the IT financial management is quite
business justification carry out the three core provision of IT different from the enterprise’s
financial processes of services should financial management.
accounting, budgeting, and always be visible to
35 charging. the customer.
Which of these statements is not part of the purpose of the SACM Control of the assets that Management of the changes Identification of Capture accurate information
process? make up our services to our service assets service assets about service assets
36
Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve To validate, check, act and To validate, direct, justify and To validate, justify, To validate, analyse, direct and
services? improve intervene monitor and improve improve
37
Which of these is an objective of service level management? Respond to service requests Monitor changes throughout Define, document, Establish the root cause of
and inquiries promptly their lifecycle agree, monitor, incidents and problems efficiently
measure, report, and cost effectively
and review services
38
The CSI Improvement Process is constructed on the….......... Cycle Deming Cycle Software Development life Process Cyle Asski Cycle
39 cycle
Which of the following responsibilities is not a responsibility of BRM? Strategic focus Identify customer needs Operational focus Deciding which services the
(utility and warranty) and service provider will deliver to
ensure that the service meet customer needs
provider is able to meet
40 these needs
Service operation includes which of the following activities? Testing the service Rolling out the service Deciding whether to Optimizing the service
41 retire the service
Many processes from other lifecycle stages also take place during the IT service continuity Availability management Service level Design coordination
operation stage. Which of the following processes does not fall into this management management
42 category?
 Match the activities to the following functions Activity Function 1d, 2a, 3c, 4b 1d, 2c, 3a, 4b 1a, 2b, 3c, 4d 1b, 2c, 3d, 4a
1 Console management a. Service desk
2 Identifying functional and manageability requirements for application
software b. Technical management
3 Providing a single point of contact c. Application management
4 Designing and managing the infrastructure d. Operations management
43
Which is the best description of an incident? An event that has An unplanned interruption to A fault that causes A user error
significance and impacts the an IT service or reduction in failures in the IT
service the quality of an IT service infrastructure
44
When should an incident be closed? When the technical staff When desktop support staff When the user When the target resolution time
members are confident that members say that the confirms that the is reached
it will not recur incident is over service has been
45 restored
Which of the following is not a recognized source of IT best practices Proprietary knowledge Industry standards Training Auditors
46 according to ITIL?
Which of the following is not an advantage of using tools during service They allow large amounts of They save time because less Tools provide a The use of tools helps
design? repetitive work to be carriedtesting of the solution will be wealth of standardize practices and
out quickly and consistently.required. management integrates processes.
47 information.
Which of the following shows the correct order of steps to be carried out Agree on selection criteria. Identify requirements. Identify Identify products. Identify
when selecting a tool? Identify requirements. Identify products. Agree on requirements. requirements. Agree on selection
Identify products. Evaluate selection criteria. Evaluate Identify products. criteria. Evaluate products. Rank
products. Rank the products. products. Score each Agree on selection the products. Compile a short list
Score each product. product. Rank the products. criteria. Evaluate of suitable products. Score each
Compile a short list of Compile a short list of products. Compile a product. Select product.
suitable products. Select suitable products. Select short list of suitable
product. product. products. Score the
products. Rank the
products. Select
product.
48
The MoSCoW approach is often adopted when preparing a request for a Might, Should, Could, Mandatory, Should, Costed, Must, Should, Mandatory, Should,
new service management tool. What do the uppercase letters in the term Wanted Wanted Could, Would Customizable, Won’t
49 MoSCoW stand for?
Which of the following statements regarding the implementation of a new Customization will have to Configuration may affect An out-of-the box Following configuration, but
tool is correct? be repeated for each supplier support obligations. tool would require before deployment, all the new
upgrade customized training. processes should be defined.
50
Which of the following statements about a statement of requirements is An SoR should always An SoR should identify the The SoR should The SoR should specify the
incorrect? contain business mandatory facilities. always state the architecture on which the
requirements. maximum budget solution is required to run.
51 available.
 SOFTWARE QUALITY ASSURANCE
Sr No Questions A B C D
1 A ___________ is a recipient of a good, service, product. Developer Customer tester designer
2 Quality can be recongnized but not defined. This is called as the _________ view of quality Transcendental User Product
Manufacturing
3 The cost which arises from the efforts to prevent defects is called as ________. Appraisal cost cost Failure cost cost
4 The cost which aries from defects like rework, repair etc. are called as ________. Internal Failure Cost Failure Cost Cost Cost
5 The cost which aries from tasks like helpline support, warranty etc. are called as ________. Appraisal Cost Cost Failure Cost
Failure Cost
6 Cost of Quality = Cost of Control + _________ Cost of Failure of Control Cost Internal Cost
7 ______ is the conformity of the software with the actual requirements and specifications Reliability Performance Security
Functionality
8 ______ is the degree to which an application is protected against malicious attacks. Reliability Security Performance
Functionality
9 ______ is the ability of the program to adapt to possible changes in its requirements. Flexibility Functionality Security
Performance
10 ______ is the ability of an application to consistently perform the required function on demand with failure. Reliability Performance Usability Security
11 ______ is the ease of use and learning ability of the system. Performance Reliability FunctionalityUsability
12 "Delivering the right product" is part of _________ view of quality. Customer Developer Supplier Market
13 "Ishikawa diagram" is also known as ______. Fishbone diagram diagram diagram
Flow diagram
14 Testing covers how much time of a Software Development Lifecycle? 0 - 10 % 30 - 40 % 5 - 15 % 60 - 70 %
15 How is the concept of Productivity described for working projects? Output / Input Output x Input Output + Input
Output - Input
16 Improvement in Quality has a ________ effect on Productivity. Positive Negative No effect
Worsening
17 Which of the following are the mandatory way of doing things? Guidelines Standards Templates Format
18 __________ characteristic of a Software refers to its ability to be used in most effective manner. Functionality Reliability Efficiency
Maintainability
19 Ability to transform a software from one working platform to another is called as ______. Security Portability Usability
Functionality
20 Modifying the software to correct errors is referred to as ________. Efficiency Maintainability PortabilitySecurity
21 Abiliity to upgrade a software for more number of users is referred to as ________. Scalability Portability Security Efficiency
22 Which of the following is the 3rd Tier of Quality Management System Structure? Quality Manual Quality Policy Objectives Process
help line complaint
23 Which of the following is not included in External failure costs? Testing support warranty work resolution
quality
24 Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA? inter-process inspection maintenance planning testing
The cost
arises form The cost
defects The cost arises from
identified arises from efforts to
The cost arises from efforts internally to efforts to implement
25 What is prevention cost? to prevent defects. correct them prevent cost. cost
_________ is define as the degree of impact a defect has on the development of a component application
26 being test. Quality Product Severity Process
 Project
___________ matrix is used to trace the requirement to the test that are needed to verify whether the Requirement Requirement Quality
27 requirement are fulfilled Total quality management Traceability engineering Management
____________ Testing is a type of software testing where we change certain statements in the source Decision Boundary
28 code and check if the test case are able to find error. Mutation Table Big bang value
29 Software mistakes during coding are known as errors failures bugs defects
documentatio
30 Effective testing will reduce _______ cost. maintenance design coding n

Linear Model Waterfall

Build & FIX Model & Linear Model & Prototyping Model & RAD
31 The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models? Waterfall Model & RAD Model Model Mode

Strong Additional
High amount approval and Functionality
Doesn’t work well for of risk documentatio can be added
32 Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model. smaller projects analysis n control at a later date
33 A graph has 2 IF-conditions; what is itsMcCabe complexity? 1 2 3 4
34 A program has 4 slices in Slice Testing, the ___________ of all gives the complete program Intersection Union difference SUM
35 The number of input variables to be tested in a Normal Boundary Value system is 7 8 9 19
36 Boundary Value testing on NextDate program does not give _____________ results bad good poor excellent
37 Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method Black Box White box green box yellow box
A black box
testing A white box
technique A black box testing
than can only testing technique
be used technique appropriate
A black box testing during appropriate for
technique used only by system to all levels component
38 Equivalence partitioning is: developers testing of testing testing
39 Code Coverage is WhiteBox BlackBox GreyBox Green Box
40 A graph with McCabe complexity=3 has how many basis paths one two three four
41 __________isa formal type of review Self Review Peer Review Inspection Walkthrough
This audit checks whether all the requisite processes of delivery are followed or not and whether the work Phase End
42 product meets the delivery criteria or not. Predelivery Audit Audit Periodic Audit Product Audit
In this review the author of the artifact presents it to all the team members and the entire team discusses Superior
43 about the various aspects of the artifact Audit Review Inspection Walkthrough
 This is the one who leads the complete inspection process including planning the inspection, running it,
44 taking the follow up after the meeting. Manager Moderator Author Reviewer
To verify that
system To verify that
To verify that separately interfaces
system testable between
To verify that system is meets user modules are different
functioning according to expectation functioning parts of
45 What is the objective of integration testing? specified requirements and needs properly system
Business Independent
46 _______________are the Testers of System Testing? Developers Analysts Testers Customers
47 Faults are found most cost-effectively in which test activity? Design Execution Planning Release
Reusability testing
reduces code becomes Failure of
48 which of this is an disadvantages of small code? Avoids huge coding size easier project
________ Testing makes sure that the functionality of product is working as per requiments. Functionality Testing Recoverability Performance Reliability
49 Testing Testing Testing
________ Testing makes sure that system's stability is maintained after modifications. Usability Testing Scalability Regressive Recoverability
50 Testing Testing Testing
 GIS
SERIAL NUMBER QUESTION TEXT OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C OPTION D
1 GIS deals with which kind of data Numeric data Binary data Spatial Data Complex data
2 By spatial data we mean data that has Complex values Positional values Graphic values Decimal values
3 Among the following which do not come under the components of Hardware Software Data Compiler
4 which talks about scientific discipline of study in academia GIScience GPS Computer Science Data Science
5 What is DEM? Discrete Elevation model Data Elevation Model Digital Elevation Model Decision Enterprise Model
6 Which Database system offers the underlying database technology Relational DataBase System Object Oriented Spatial Data Base System Object Relational DataBase
7 What is SDT? Special Data Types Spatial data types Specific Data types selctive Data Types
8 GIS uses the information from which of the following sources? Non-spatial Information System Spatial information Global Information System Position Information System
9 which of the following is an example of Human Geographical River Overflow Valcano eruption Plague deforestation Construction of Roads
10 which data is comprised of lines or arcs Raster data vector data Raw data discrete data
11 Spatial databases are also known as Geodatabases Databases Concurrent databases Distributed Databases
12 SDI stands for Spatial Data Interface Infrastructure Spatial Data Intention Spatial Data International
13 video GIS HSDPA UMTS SDI
14 What can be expressed as an example of hardware component Keyboard Arc GIS Auto CAD Digitalization
15 Which data is the information about an object or feature Nominal Attribute Ratio Quantative
16 GIS deals with which kind of data Spatial Non-Spatial Complex Binary
17 What plays a key role in processing & analyzing geospatial data Data Storage Management Maintenance Data Capture & Preparation
18 Which data structure represents Vector Simple Spatial Complex Non-Spatial
19 Which data for image processing works with pixels Raster Vector Simple Complex
20 Which data allow Representing network Simple Complex Vector Raster
21 Earth are ________________________. Gid, Eid Geoid, Ellipse Gid, Ellipse Geoid, Ellipsoid
22 technique known as _________. Graph Levelling Geodetic levelling Ellipsodetic levelling Geo leveling point
23 The local vertical datum is implemented through a __________. Labeling Network Levelling Network Labeling Connection Levelling Connection
24 Earth's surface in a 3D space. Planar Global Local Parallel
25 Lines of equal longitude are called as ________ Parallels Perpendiculars Meridians Deviations
26 Lines of equal latitude are called as _________ Parallels Perpendiculars Meridians Deviations
A ________ is a mathematically described technique to represent
27 Earth’s curved surface on a flat map Map Selection Map Projection Map Distortion Map Reference

Universal Transformation Universal Transverse Universal Transformation

28 UTM stands for ____________________ Mercator Mercator Meridian Universal Transverse Meridian
29 Which of this is not a class of map projection? Cylindrical Ellipsical Conical Azimuthal
Global Communication
30 GCP stands for ___________ Global Control Points Ground Control Points Points Ground Communication Points
Spatial Spatial stratified
31 Which of these is not type of spatial analysis? Spatial data Analysis autocorrelation heterogeneity Geospatial
 The process of
combining one or more
The process of data ranges into a new
An analytical technique based simplifying data in a data range to create a The process of combing
32 What is reclassification? on point data. data layer. new data layer. two or more data layers.

Calculating the
number of
observations within Determining the area
Calculating the area of overlap a set distance of a within a set distance from
between two polygon data point, line or area a point, line or area
33 Which of the following could you use a buffer operation for? layers. feature. feature Both B and C
34 ______is a proprietary “ESRI” format for raster data ESRI grod X and Y grod DOQ Geospatial

The process of
establishing values
The process of establishing a for areas between The process of modelling The process of establishing
statistical relationship between an existing set of spatial pattern from a set values for areas outside the
two spatially correlated discrete of one or more data boundary of an existing set
35 What is spatial interpolation? variables. observations. layers. of data points.
Which of the following overlay methods would you use to
36 calculate the length of road within a forest polygon? Union Point-In-Polygon Erase Line-in-Polygon

Which of the following spatial interpolation techniques is an Spatial moving

37 example of a local, exact, abrupt and deterministic interpolator? TIN average Thiessen polygon polygons
A method of
allocating A method of matching
resources within an supply with demand across
A method of site location area of interest A method within network a network by locating a
based on overlaying multiple using buffer analysis used to limited set of resources
38 What is location-allocation modelling? siting criteria maps analyses. determine delivery routes. using network analysis.
Slope is the
gradient of the fall
line relative to Slope is the distance
vertical, while down the fall line from
aspect is the the top of the slope to its
Slope is the gradient directly direction of the fall bottom, while aspect is
down the fall line, while aspect line relative to the the percentage gradient Slope is the direction of the
is the direction of the fall line line of greatest of this line averaged over fall line, while aspect is the
39 What is the difference between slope and aspect? relative to north. slope. its full distance. gradient of the fall line.
40 What is not needed for Successful Spatial analysis? Competent User Soil Sample Appropriate Software Appropriate Hardware
 Which of the following overlay methods would you use to calculate
41 the length of road within a forest polygon? Union Point in polygon Line in polygon Polygon in polygon
Which function allow the retrieval of features that fall within a given
42 search window? Classification Overlay Search Buffer zone generation
43 Select properties of vector features Location Temperature Pressure Moisture
Intersection, union, difference and complement are the operations of
44 which function? Classification Overlay Neighbourhood Connectivity

45 Determination of contour lines comes under which type of function? Classification Overlay Neighbourhood Connectivity
Raster’s anchor point, the cell resolution, and the position of the cell
46 in the raster determine ______ Location of an individual cell Size of individual cell Width of cell Height of cell
47 What are the primitives of vector data set? Point Circle Rectangle Triangle
The anchor point is fixed by convention to be _______ location of the
48 raster Lower left Lower right Upper right Center
Spatial selection by Combined attribute Spatial selection using
49 Area < 400000 is which type of query? Interactive spatial selection attribute condition topological selection
__________ is calculated as the number of cells multiplied by the
50 cell area size Location of an individual cell Size of individual cell Width of cell Area of raster
 SIC
Sr No Questions option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4
1 What does CIA stand for? Content,interface,Advanceme Confidentiality, Content, Intervention, Compatibility,
2 What is an important Asset in an Communication Synergy Information Mobility
3 Who is intended to see or use Students General public, government Teachers, PTA members employees,contractors
4 VPN stands for? Virtual private network Visually paired network Vital prevention network Virtual public network
5 SaaS stands for? Software as a setup Software as a service Softnet as a service Signal as a service
6 PaaS stands for? Platform as a setup Project as a service Platform as a service Projection as a
7 IaaS stands for? Infrastructure as a Service Infrastructure as a setup Input as a setup Infrastructure as a
8 Which attack doesn’t allow a person Virus BUGS Trojan horse Denial of service
9 What is Portability? Can be used on multiple Cannot be transmitted. Cannot be used on Is at a fixed place and
10 Which field is concerned with Software Security Service Platform
11 _____ is a characteristic of a system, Integrity Confidentiality High availability Authenticity
12 _____ attack is an attempt to make a Brute force Man-in-the middle Denial-of-service Data leakage
13 _____ is any unexpected downtime or Data leakage Outage Fraud Espionage
14 ____ means when the response time Fraud Slowness Espionage Data leakage
15 _____ improves security through Array Server Zoning Offsite data storage
16 _____ security allows you to limit the Password Storage Application Network
17 _____ backup consists of making a Differential Full Transaction log Incremental
18 ____ backup consists of copying all of Differential Full Transaction log Incremental
19 _____ is a protocol for authenticating HTTP SSH Kerberos FTP
20 The infrastructure used to support Public Key Infrastructure Public Key architecture Public Key Interface Private Key Encryption
21 Firewall is a type of ________? Virus Security Worm Trojan Horse
22 How many types of Firewalls are 1 2 3 4
23 which type of filter works in the Frame filter Packet filter Content filter Virus filter
24 _________ effectively hides the true proxy server Packet filter Content filter Application Gateway
25 Among given which is not a Security Proper Network Design The Principle of Least Distinguishing Security Digital signatures

A radio frequency signal is a

_______________ alternating current
(AC) passed along the conductor and
26 radiated into the air via an antenna Low-frequecy High-frequency Moderate-frequency No-frequency
Gain describes an __________ in RF
27 signal amplitude Vaccum Nopower Increase Decrease
 __________________happens
because of the radio wave front
broadening and transmitted signal
28 dispersion Free space path loss No Space path loss Paid space path loss Extra space path loss

FHSS stands for Frequency high spread Frequency hopping Frequency high set Frequency hopping
29 _____________________________. system standard spectrum standard spread spectrum

DSSS stands for Direct sequence spread Division set spread Division spread set Direct set spread
30 ______________________________. spectrum spectrum standard system

__________ provides a framework for

authenticating and encrypting RTP
and RTCP streams, including
definition of a default set of transforms
and extensibility for inclusions
31 of future transform sets. SRTP SIP RTP TCP
PBX stands for Permanent Branch Private Branch
32 ____________________. Public Branch Exchange Exchange Pure Branch Exchange Exchange

TEM stands for Telecommunication Telecom Exchange Telecom Expense Television Exchange
33 ___________________. Exchange Management Management Management Management
SMS stands for Session Message
34 __________________. Short Message Service Single Message Service Sample Message Service Service
The __________________ also
known as the trusted computing base, operating system security
35 or TCB. layer security model model firewall antivirus
______________ is the term for
establishing a connection with a
36 forged sender address. Tapping Mac flooding buffer overflow Spoofing
 SYN flooding takes advantage of the
____________________in
37 establishing a connection. one-way handshake two-way handshake three-way handshake four-way handshake

An __________________ is defined
as a table that tells a computer
operating system which access rights
each user has to a particular system
object, such as a file directory or an
38 individual file. DNS table pivot table lookup table access control list

SACL stands for simple access control

39 ___________________________. serial access control list single access control list system access control list list
MAC stands for
40 __________________________. Model Access Control Music Access Control Media Access Control More Access control

A ________________ program must

be conducted for development teams,
which includes technical security
awareness training for everyone and
role-specific training for most
41 individuals. Testing program Debugging program Security training program Desigining program

_____________ is a technique for

reviewing the security properties of a
design and identifying potential issues
42 and fixes. Threat modeling Test Modelling Design Modelling Doument Modelling
 _____________ review is time-
consuming and may miss mechanical
issues that require tracing large
numbers of lines of code or
43 remembering many details. Automatic code Manual code Semi code Design code

Any application that includes third-

party code should monitor that
______________ for known security
issues and updates, and issue a
patch to update the application when
44 any are discovered. backward dependency internal dependency external dependency forward dependency

_____________ is a technique to
inject crafted SQL into user input
fields that are part of web forms—it is
mostly used to bypass custom logins
45 to web sites. Mac flooding Phishing DOS SQL injection
_______________ is a method of Passing parameters via
46 exploiting forms. DOS hidden fields MITM MAC flooding
The post method sends the data
using the __________ HTTP
47 command. POST GET SET SUBMIT
GUID stands for general universal
48 ___________________. general unique identifier graphic unique identifier globally unique identifier identifier

A ___________________ is attack
49 attempted using a dictionary. Phishing Brute-force attack MITM DOS
 A ______________ is a security
application that intercepts the system
calls of the application that it is
running and makes sure the
application will have access only to
the resources the administrator has
50 allowed. google chrome mozilla firefox internet explorer sandbox
 BI
Sr No. Questions A B C D
1 conformity of a given system to the objectives for which it Effectiveness Efficiency Evaluation Feedback
2 support system. Analysis Design Knowledge Acquisition Planning
3 Data by itself is not useful unless It is massive It is processed to obtain information It is collected from diverse sources It is properly stated
4 Decision support systems are used for Management decision making Providing tactical information to management Providing strategic information to management Better operation of an organization
5 programs which includes : Decision support Data mining OLAP All of the mentioned
6 performed using ________ . standard SQL only extensions to SQL only OLAP only both standard SQL and extensions to SQL
7 warehouse? programs Data warehouse data Data metadata None of the above are data warehouse components.
8 Information has three dimensions. There are Time, consent, and form Time, content, and form Cost, content, and form Time, content, and Value
9 information system developed to support managerial decision Management information systems Decision Support systems Management Tracking Systems Strategic Information System
10 structured or unstructured data? variety of format there is a need to develop a standarized terminolgy data and not semi structured data Both a & b
11 models ? to identify regular patterns in the data to identify irregular patterns in the data to identify negative patterns in the data to identify neutral patterns in the data
12 popular class of mathematical models for decision making, optimization models stochastic models supervised models iconic models
13 What is the aim of Data Mining? extracting information and knowledge useful for knowledge workers in decision making extracting raw data Both A & B
14 based? inductive learning methods deductive learning methods basic learning methods comprehensive learning methods
15 What is the purpose of Interpretation? to identify regular patterns in the data to express the rules and criteria for easy understanding to identify irregular patterns in the data Both A & B
16 Which is not the Phase of data Mining Process Data Gathering Selection of Attributes Prediction and interpretation Data Discarding
17 Data Inception Means inspection of each missing value identify missing values replacement of missing Data discard all records
18 Data Elimination Means inspection of each missing value identify missing values replacement of missing Data discard all records
19 investigation streams , which are interpretation and Sampling Interpretation and Prediction. Forecast and Prediction Forecast and Interpretation
20 Which is the Application of Data Mining Fraud Detection Risk Analysis Both a & b Only b
21 Reinforcement learning learns from Trail and error Internet Intranet DBMS
22 Supervised learning is known as Clustering Classification Data Collection Information gathering
23 __________________________learning Supervised learning Unsupervised learning Reinforcement learning Semi-supervised
24 __________________learning Supervised learning Unsupervised learning Reinforcement learning Knowledge learning
25 model_______________________ Heuristic model Separation model Regression model legacy model
26 Which of the following is NOT supervised learning? PCA Decision Tree Linear Regression Naive Bayesian
27 incorrect? Attributes are equally important. the class value. the class value. Attributes can be nominal or numeric
Predicting the amount of rainfall in a region based on various
28 cues is a ______ problem. Supervised learning Unsupervised learning Reinforcement learning Clustering
Acquiring information and storing for
29 Learning in computer means future reference Acquiring just information Observation Collection of data
30 Machine learning is subset of Database management system Artificial Intelligence Operating System Knowledge management
Selling the right room to the right customer at a right time for
the right price with full facility with right channel is the
31 example of Supply Chain Management Revenue Management System Task Management Sysytem Resource Management System
Which one is not the example of Revenue Management
32 System Air transportation Tourism Hotel sector Education Sector
Which one is not the function of Revenue Management
33 System Rate Recommendations Key Performance Data Market survey and Data collection Revenue Estimation
In Revenue Management System, the task of mathematical
34 model is to forcast action of customer forcast market forcast sales forcast production
35 Forcasting of future demand can be implemented using PCA LDA Regression model Survey
Selling the right room to the right customer at a right time for
the right price with full facility with right channel is the
36 example of Supply Chain Management Revenue Management System Task Management Sysytem Resource Management System
 Which one is not the example of Revenue Management
37 System Air transportation Tourism Hotel sector Education Sector
Which one is not the function of Revenue Management
38 System Rate Recommendations Key Performance Data Market survey and Data collection Revenue Estimation
In Revenue Management System, the task of mathematical
39 model is to forcast action of customer forcast market forcast sales forcast production
40 Forcasting of future demand can be implemented using PCA LDA Regression model Survey
41 Strategy followed for finding cause or reasons. Backward Chaining Forward Chaining Facts Decisions
Strategy followed for working on conclusion, results or
42 effects. Backward Chaining Forward Chaining Facts Decisions
43 Levels in ES technology Shells Design Both None
44 Knowledge Management Activity aims at Total turning test The rational agent approach To build knowledge infrastructure Thinking humanly

45 The challenges faced by Knowledge Management System are Psychology Communication and Collaboration Control theory and cybernetics Computer Engineering
Which of the following is not a Capabilities of Expert
46 Systems? Advising Demonstrating Explaining Expanding
47 What is the form of Knowledge representation? IF-THEN IF-THEN-ELSE IF-ELSE ELSE

48 Which of the following is not a benefits of Expert Systems? Availability Speed Time Less Error Rate
Which is the key area in which Knowledge Management is
49 applied Technological Advances Inference Engine Globalization of Business a&c
50 The advantage of AI over Natural Intelligence are Fabulous speed Less baised Error prone a&b