SECTION I TIME 25 MTS

THERE ARE 15 QUESTIONS IN THIS SEGMENT.

You will be given 1 mark for every correct answer while every wrong answer will invite
0.25 mark as penalty

(Please note that in this question paper the term “Act, 1947” refers to the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947)
1. Tata Steel can build relationship with another G4S Security where G4S Security
performs work that is incidental to the trade or business of Tata Steel and in such
case Tata Steel is into ______ with G4S Security.
a. Contract of service
b. Bill of quantity
c. Contract of indemnity
d. Contract for service.

2. Worker is a term that is defined only under _______ and no other law has a mention
of the term as a beneficiary of the law.
a. The Industrial Disputes Act
b. The Factories Act
c. The Mines Act
d. The Shops and Establishment Act.

3. The only term, which has mention in both the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and the
Trade Unions Act, 1926 is ________.
a. Worker
b. Employee
c. Workman
d. Labour.

4. The Model Standing Orders has come with the ________.

a. Categorization of workers
b. Types of employment
c. Forms of contract
d. Classification of employees.

5. One who cannot be engaged beyond ______ continuously is called ________.

a. Two years Probationer
b. Six months Fixed term contract
c. Seven months Casual
d. One year Seasonal

6. A fresh definition of _______ is awaiting ratification vide amendment, as it is

incomplete.
a. Lay off
b. Strike
 c. Industry
d. Retrenchment.

7. One workman without support from ________ can move to the office of appropriate
government or court as the case may in case s/he raises dispute related to
_________.
a. Trade union only his/her discharge
b. Anyone wages paid to him/her
c. Anyone his/her dismissal
d. Fellow workman closure of establishment.

8. If dispute related to _____ is referred to labour court, then dispute related to _____
should be referred to industrial tribunal.
a. Wage transfer
b. Dismissal wage
c. Transfer discharge
d. Bonus discharge.

9. Without seeking approval from appropriate government, only a ____________

cannot retrench its workman.
a. Factory with more than 100 workmen
b. Establishment with whatever number of workman
c. Establishment with more than 20 workmen
d. Factory with more than 100 employees.

10. As per the definition of industrial dispute under the Act, 1947, while industrial
dispute can be between workmen and employer it must be related to ______
a. Performance at workplace
b. Terms of agreement between contractor and employer
c. Incentives and rewards
d. Employment or non-employment

11. Five supervisors drawing Rs. 24,500/- per month were laid off from treasury
department of State Bank of India will not receive any benefits because __________.
a. They are on contract
b. They were given alternative jobs for the period of lay off
c. There were asked to apply for earned leave
d. They are working in shops & establishment.

12. A strike called out in a Public Utility Service establishment can be called illegal if
________.
a. Strike is called without serving 6 weeks’ notice
b. Strike is called by unregistered trade union
c. Strike is lasting beyond 6 weeks
d. Strike is called after the expiry of 14 days from date of notice.
13. Once a strike notice is served under Section ______, the process of ______ should
begin under the Act, 1947.
a. 24 arbitration
b. 23 lock out
c. 22 conciliation
d. 27 adjudication.

14. Closure of a factory employing 360 workmen due to industrial accident or fire in the
factory will require _____________.
a. Approval from government
b. Payment of compensation up to 3 months’ wage
c. Notice to workmen who will be terminated on account of such closure
d. Payment of wage in lieu of notice in case employer fails to issue notice.

15. An act of negligence can be construed as a misconduct only if one finds _________
a. Malafide intention behind the act
b. Consequence of such negligent act is tremendous
c. Fine has already been imposed on him for negligence in past
d. Such act of negligence is repetitive.
 SECTION II: (105 MTS)
THERE ARE 75 QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
You will be given 1 mark for every correct answer while every wrong answer will invite
0.25 mark as penalty
1. Choose the correct statement from the following:
a. Time to fill the vacancies has gone down significantly from year 2005 to 2016
b. Time to fill the vacancies has gone up to some extent from year 2006 to 2016
c. There is no difference in time to fill the vacancies from year 2006 to 2016
d. Any difference in time to fill the vacancies between the year 2006 to 2016 can be
attributed to the unemployment rate

2. According to the HR competency model by RBL (Ulrich), Technology and Media

Integrator role is considered as a part of:
a. Paradox enabler
b. Organization enabler
c. Core driver
d. Delivery enabler

3. Which one of the following is not a vulnerability related to the technology

opportunities and risks?
a. Inability to analyse the patterns and causes
b. Overreliance on technology
c. Over-collection of information
d. Potential loss of privacy

4. Final result of using technology as an organizational tool

a. Deeper and broader awareness
b. Improved visibility of patterns and relationships
c. Better decision making
d. Continuous improvement

5. According to Mc Kinsey Global Institute discussion paper, Creativity is considered as

a _____ skill
a. Technological
b. Social and emotional
c. Higher cognitive
d. Basic cognitive

6. Discussion paper by Mc Kinsey Global Institute, identifies various structural design

changes to cope with realities of shifting skill needs due to technology. The rise in
freelancers and independent contractors during booming gig economy can be
identified as a part of change in:
a. Mind-set shift
b. Work force composition
c. New collar jobs
d. Organizational set up
 7. Quality challenges associated with the data is represented by
a. Veracity related issues
b. Velocity related issues
c. Volume related issues
d. Variety related issues

8. According to FrontRunners report, HR software applications are categorized into

three groups based on functionality. Which one of the following functionality is not
belonging to strategic HR category?
a. Benefits administration
b. Applicant tracking system
c. Performance review
d. Learning Management

9. Usage of common working environment by people who are self-employed or

working for different employers to share equipment, ideas, knowledge etc. is known
as:
a. Agile working
b. Coworking
c. Gig economy
d. Workplace of the future

10. Choose the correct option associated with ‘big bang approach’
a. Integrates components as they are developed into multiple mini-versions of the HRIS
system
b. Yields results successively closer to the final HRIS
c. Allows identification and troubleshooting of most problems as they arise
d. Time-consuming testing and troubleshooting

11. Multivariate statistical modelling is an example for

A. Descriptive analytics
B. Prescriptive analytics
C. Diagnostic analytics
D. Predictive analytics

12. Engagement is an example of:

a. Proprietary Metrics
b. Efficiency Metrics
c. Outcome Metrics
d. Effectiveness Metrics

13. If a company exports a product or service to foreign countries and may open local
production facilities or service centres, but develops products and strategy in the home
country, which global local model is it?
a. Low Global Integration and High Local responsiveness
b. Low Global Integration and Low Local responsiveness
c. High Global Integration and High Local responsiveness
 d. High Global Integration and Low Local responsiveness

14. According to Perlmutter’s headquarters Orientations, subsidiaries develop strategies

consistent with local business practices and cultures and believe in having ‘Many
best ways’. Which orientation would it be?
a. Ethnocentric orientation
b. Geocentric orientation
c. Polycentric orientation
d. Regiocentric orientation

15. During the the strategic planning and management process, organisations can reap
the benefit if
a. Strategic processes are handed off to consultants completely
b. Risks are taken without any standards or guidelines
c. HR is asked to analyse current competencies against a proposed strategy.
d. Function leaders make well-reasoned strategic decisions based on their
operational needs 

16. In Strategic Management, a systems thinking approach helps to

a. see potential interactions of the organisation's components 
b. understand the strategic asset of each unit within the Organisation
c. deploy all the organisation's strength in the right direction
d. create better efficiency in resource utilisation

17. HR can assist “control of drift” from organizational strategy best, through
a. a Competency-based recruitment system
b. Regular training and development program
c. Reminding the CEO about strategy in various meetings
d. a carefully designed performance management system

18. Environmental scanning is an important process in strategic management because

a. it helps in improving the relations with the stakeholders
b. it helps provide early warning of changes that could affect strategy
c. it focuses on learning more about local legislation
d. it increases accountability and transparency

19. According to a survey it was found out that the family structures were changing, and
so was the lifestyle. Which PESTEL category would include this information?
a. Political
b. Ethical
c. Economical
d. Social

20. During which phase of the Industry Life cycle, performance management and
rewards become more pronounced?
 a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline

21. Which of the following is true?

a. Competition may be fierce in a shrinking industry than in an expanding industry
b. Threat of substitution occurs when it is very difficult for a competitor to capture
your existing customers
c. Threat of exiting an industry is one of Porter's five forces categories
d. Low bargaining power of suppliers means less number of suppliers in an industry

22. HR's role in a strategic alliance means

a. to verify the known and uncover the unknown
b. not doing anything as there is no HRM integration
c. to identify differences in HRM that affect staffing and development
d. to make changes in the organisation's culture based on other organisations

23. An organization that follows a global strategy would most probably

a. Be more centralized than decentralized with respect to HR practices
b. Be more decentralized than centralized with respect to HR practices
c. Possess an organizational culture that is imposed upon all its units
d. Both a and c

24. It is important that there is strong internal communication during a divestiture

because
a. it helps to safeguard intellectual property
b. it helps to retain key talent during and after the process from both sides
c. it helps to avoid litigation in any form from other stakeholders
d. it helps to select the best negotiation team

25. An organization’s development focus is more pronounced in this stage of industry

life cycle
a. startup stage
b. maturity stage
c. growth stage
d. decline

26. For effective management of Organisational change, the following four steps must
be followed
a. Identify change parameters...plan the change....prepare for the change...measure
the change
b. Plan the change....identify change parameters...measure the change...prepare for
the change
c. Identify change parameters...plan and prepare the change....manage the
change...measure the change
 d. Plan the change...Identify the change parameters....manage the
change...measure the change

27. According to the BCG matrix, a business unit that is a prime candidate for divestiture
and has slow growth or declining markets would clearly be
a. Cash cow
b. Star
c. Dog
d. Question Mark

28. ___________ include/s direct and indirect remuneration approaches that employers
use to attract, recognise and retain workers.
a. Perquisites
b. HRA
c. Total Rewards
d. The cost to company (CTC)

29. An Organisation's HR strategy related to Compensation and benefits should

a. be kept separate from the strategic business plan
b. attract the right people to the right jobs except at the right cost as it cannot be
determined
c. also be aware of the organisation's life cycle to take the right decision
d. not fall for the market pressure created by the labour market 

30. If an employee is well aware and gets motivated by the fact that there is room for
base pay to grow, it indicates
a. Pay transparency
b. a contribution-oriented culture
c. Performance driven pay 
d. communication channels

31. Calculate the compa ratio for an employee of ABC Organisation who earns $30 per
hour where the salary range has a midpoint of $20 per hour and a maximum of $50
per hour. 
a. 1.50
b. 0.66
c. 1.66
d. 0.40

32. An organization that is confident of the talent it has within the organization and feels
facilitating their performance is the focus, shall most probably
a. Differentiate through rewards for small differences in performance
b. Choose a performance management system that solely helps differentiates
performance
c. Choose a development-oriented performance management system
d. Not bother about designing a performance management
33. If a position or job’s compar-ratio is more than one, which of the following could
most probably be true?
a. More employees in that position or job will be fresh recruits
b. That position or job might be a level where employees tend to get stagnated
c. More employees in that position or job might have been recently promoted
d. Organization is focusing on inflation adjustment over performance

34. Which of the following is a lead indicator of performance?

a. Return on capital employed
b. Stock options
c. Labor cost reduction on a year to year basis
d. Market share

35. If the sales performance is difficult to measure with longer sales cycle and the job of
the sales personnel is to handle customer queries mostly, an organisation should opt
for this compensation plan
a. Straight Salary 
b. Straight Commission
c. Salary plus commission
d. Sales Commission

36. For task-oriented jobs like shipping and receiving or call centre operators, which Job
analysis method would best suit an organisation?
a. Observation
b. Work diary or log
c. Highly structured questionnaire
d. Interview

37. Weights, in a point factor based job evaluation system

a. Recognize that the organization emphasizes one factor over others, across all
jobs
b. Recognize that the organization believes some factors are more important for
some jobs while it is different for others
c. Ensure that different job families can be compared easily
d. Do not play any significant role in the job evaluation

38. When an organisation operates in a jurisdiction where there are multiple sets of laws
and regulations in force, the organisation must
a. supersede the laws legislated by the country
b. comply with all employment laws, codes and practices
c. follow the company policy
d. meet the minimum standards that apply to the employment relationship

39. An organisation plans to provide Maternity benefits to women employees which is

an example of
a. Pay equity
 b. Contribution oriented Culture
c. External equity 
d. Philanthropist organisation

40. An organization posts the job listing on a career opportunities page on the company
website and create a blog post about it. This is an example of
a. Benchmarking
b. Social recruiting
c. Cherry picking
d. Brain drain

41. A job _________ is a systematic study of the job's activities, the personal
qualification required for it, and the working conditions in which it exists.
a. Analysis
b. Specification
c. Design
d. Evaluation

42. A cluster of highly interrelated attributes, including knowledge, skills and abilities
that give rise to the behaviours needed to perform a job effectively is known as
a. Job description
b. Job specification
c. Job Competencies
d. Job design

43. _______ is a process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to
apply for jobs.
a. Selection
b. Induction
c. Recruitment
d. Orientation

44. In the context of recruitment process, the term inside moonlighting refers to
a. An opportunity offered by an employer to potential employees to work at the
organization for a finite period of time
b. An event where walk in applicants are invited to visit and learn about an
organization
c. A contract relationship with an external staffing firm to supply talent through
different service arrangements
d. An employee is enticed to take a second job in the organization when there is a
short term need and the amount of additional work is minimal

45. All of the following are sources of internal recruiting except:

a. Job posting
b. Employee referrals
c. Advertisements
d. Succession Planning

46. What may not be an advantage of using the internet to support recruitment
activities?
a. Internet recruitment provides almost immediate responses to job advertisements
b. It facilitates better candidate matching
c. High volume of responses many of which may be from unqualified candidates
d. Can target specialized skills.

47. Which recruitment source is most beneficial when an organization targets passive
job candidates?
a. Skill banks
b. Social media sites
c. Contract agencies
d. Employee referrals

48. Which of the following order is followed in a typical selection process?

a. Test and/or interview, application form, reference check and offer of employment
b. Application form, test and/or interview, reference check and offer of employment
c. Reference check, application form, test and/or interview and offer of employment
d. Offer of employment, test and/or interview, application form and reference check

49. An interviewer asks a candidate to cite an example of a conflict he had with his
superior and how he responded to it. This best exemplifies which type of interview?
a. Structured interview
b. Unstructured interview
c. Stress interview
d. Competency based interview

50. What type of interviewer bias occurs when the hiring manager feels that women and
minorities cannot do a job or do not want certain jobs?
a. Stereotyping
b. First impression error
c. Negative emphasis
d. Cultural noise

51. What type of interviewer bias occurs when the interviewer judges a potential
employee unfavorably in all areas on the basis of one trait?
a. Halo effect
b. Horn effect
c. Contrast effect
d. Negative emphasis

52. The part of the selection process when the candidate is provided honest and
complete information about the job and the working environment is known as
a. Job description
b. Contingent job offer
c. Realistic job preview
d. Specialized pre-employment test
53. According to Nadler, which of the following is not an activity area of human resource
development
a) Training
b) Education
c) Career planning
d) Development

54. __________refers to the way individuals take in and process new information
a) Training style
b) Learning style
c) Teaching style
d) Development style

55. In _________phase of ADDIE model, the broad training goals and objectives are
developed
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Development
d) Implementation

56. Which of the following is not one of the pillars of mentoring?

a) Inquire
b) Share
c) Decide
d) Care

57. ____ is an element in a person’s self-concept, which he or she will not give up, even
in the face of difficult choices.
a) Career orientation
b) Career anchor
c) Career review
d) Career conscious

58. In implementation phase of ADDIE model, which of the following activity is not done
a) Piloting the program
b) Revision of contents
c) Measuring training impact
d) Participant scheduling

59. The methods used for data gathering at level 3 of training evaluation are:
a) Pre-and- post tests
b) Observations & performance test
c) Smile sheets and pre-and-post test
d) Cost-benefit analysis & ROI
 60. Identify the sequence of steps in Miller’s approach to systematic training
a) Needs assessment, design, objective setting, implementation and evaluation
b) Needs assessment, implementation, design, development and evaluation
c) Needs assessment, objective setting, design, implementation and evaluation
d) Needs assessment, design, implementations, objective setting and evaluation

61. The timeframe for assessing learning is

a) During /at the end of the training program or after a few days
b) After three months of training program
c) After six months of the training program
d) No time frame required, can be assessed at any time

62. Identify the sequence of levels of evaluation as proposed by Kirkpatrick

a) Reaction, learning, behavior, and results
b) Reaction, behavior, learning, and results
c) Behavior, reaction, learning, and results
d) Learning, reaction, behavior, and results

63.The coaching contract includes except:

a) Preference & preparation
b) Meeting modalities
c) Resources & Commitments
d) Establishing a need

64. Centralization is most effective when an organization

a. has complex environmental forces.
b. operates in a stable environment.
c. operates in a poor environment.
d. operates in a dynamic environment.

65. The union does not like the work rules of an automobile plant. The plant forms a joint
union-labor committee and gets key union leaders to join the committee. his is an example
of
a. a change in the specific environment.
b. a joint venue.
c. a change in organizational domain.
d. co-optation.

66. If the environment is segmentable and dynamic the best suited structure would be
a. functional lateral
b. lateral matrix
c. divisional
d. none of the above
67. _______ can sometimes overcome control problems in a functional structure, making it
unnecessary to move to a more complex structure.
a. Improving integration
b. Increasing horizontal differentiation
c. Increasing vertical differentiation
d. Diversification

68. A company will Be able to handle more complex product choices when it moves from a
_______ structure to a ________ structure.
a. functional/product division
b. functional/geographic
c. multidivisional/matrix
d. multidivisional/market

69. The creation of an internal labor market is an advantage of the ________ structure.
a. functional
b. matrix
c. market
d. multidivisional

70. Specialist activities are duplicated in a structure.

a. functional
b. geographic
c. multidivisional
d. matrix

71. Which of the following structures maximizes the use of employees?

a. Functional
b. Geographic
c. Matrix
d. Multidivisional matrix

72. Interpretations of ____ concluded that positive treatment of employees improved their
motivation and productivity.
a) bureaucratic organizations
b) stakeholder approaches
c) scientific management
d) the Hawthorne Studies

73. A computer manufacturer was concerned about its effectiveness, so it eliminated a level
in its hierarchy and decentralized decision-making authority. Which of the following
approaches is it using to evaluate organizational effectiveness?
a) External resource
b) Internal system
c) Technical
d) Transaction cost
74. Company XYZ is missing many new opportunities because employees do not take
responsibilities or risks. What is the primary design challenge facing this organization?
a) Establishing levels of horizontal and vertical differentiation
b) Balancing differentiation and integration
c) Balancing centralization and decentralization
d) Coordinating the formal and informal organization

75. A regular customer went to a retail store that required two forms of identification to
process a cheque. Because the customer had only one form of identification, the clerk
refused to accept the check, and this action resulted in lost business. What is the design
challenge this organization faces?
a) Balancing differentiation and integration
b) Balancing centralization and decentralization
c) Coordinating the informal and formal organizations
d) Balancing standardization and mutual adjustment