MATHEMATICS

COURSE STRUCTURE
Class-X (Code No. 041) (2021-22)
One Paper
90 Minutes FIRST TERM
Units Marks
I NUMBER SYSTEMS 6
II ALGEBRA 10
III COORDINATE GEOMETRY 6
IV GEOMETRY 6
V TRIGONOMETRY 5
VI MENSURATION 4
VII STATISTICS & PROBABILITY 3
Total 40
INTERNAL ASSESSMENT 10
Total 50

INTERNAL ASSESSMENT MARKS TOTAL MARKS

Periodic Tests 3
Multiple Assessments 2
10 marks for the term
Portfolio 2
Student Enrichment Activities-practical work 3

Unit I: NUMBER SYSTEMS

Chapter–1 REAL NUMBER
Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic - statements after reviewing work done earlier and after illustrating
and motivating through examples. Decimal representation of rational numbers in terms of terminating/
non-terminating recurring decimals.

Unit II: ALGEBRA

Chapter–2 POLYNOMIALS
Zeroes of a polynomial. Relationship between zeroes and coefficients of quadratic polynomials only.

Chapter–3 PAIR OF LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES

Pair of linear equations in two variables and graphical method of their solution, consistency/
inconsistency. Algebraic conditions for number of solutions. Solution of a pair of linear equations in
two variables algebraically - by substitution and by elimination. Simple situational problems. Simple
problems on equations reducible to linear equations.

Unit III: COORDINATE GEOMETRY

Chapter–4 COORDINATE GEOMETRY
LINES (In two-dimensions)
 Review: Concepts of coordinate geometry, graphs of linear equations. Distance formula. Section
formula (internal division)

Unit IV: GEOMETRY

Chapter–5 TRIANGLES
Definitions, examples, counter examples of similar triangles.
1. (Prove) If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct
points, the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
2. (Motivate) If a line divides two sides of a triangle in the same ratio, the line is parallel to the third
side.
3. (Motivate) If in two triangles, the corresponding angles are equal, their corresponding sides are
proportional and the triangles are similar.
4. (Motivate) If the corresponding sides of two triangles are proportional, their corresponding angles
are equal and the two triangles are similar.
5. (Motivate) If one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of another triangle and the sides including
these angles are proportional, the two triangles are similar.
6. (Motivate) If a perpendicular is drawn from the vertex of the right angle of a right triangle to the
hypotenuse, the triangles on each side of the perpendicular are similar to the whole triangle and to
each other.
7. (Motivate) The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of the squares of their
corresponding sides.
8. (Prove) In a right triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on the
other two sides.
9. (Motivate) In a triangle, if the square on one side is equal to sum of the squares on the other two
sides, the angle opposite to the first side is a right angle.

Unit V: TRIGONOMETRY
Chapter–6 INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY
Trigonometric ratios of an acute angle of a right-angled triangle. Proof of their existence (well defined).
Values of the trigonometric ratios of 30°, 45° and 60°. Relationships between the ratios.
TRIGONOMETRIC IDENTITIES
Proof and applications of the identity sin2 A + cos2 A = 1. Only simple identities to be given.

Unit VI: MENSURATION

Chapter–7 AREAS RELATED TO CIRCLES
Motivate the area of a circle; area of sectors and segments of a circle. Problems based on areas and
perimeter / circumference of the above said plane figures. (In calculating area of segment of a circle,
problems should be restricted to central angle of 60° and 90° only. Plane figures involving triangles,
simple quadrilaterals and circle should be taken.)

Unit VII: STATISTICS & PROBABILITY

Chapter–8 PROBABILITY
Classical definition of probability. Simple problems on finding the probability of an event.
 1
MATHEMATICS
BASIC CONCEPTS & FORMULAE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(Including Competency-based MCQs)

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS

ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
Visit https://telegram.me/booksforcbse for more books.
 1 REAL NUMBERS

BASIC CONCEPTS & FORMULAE

1. The Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic: Every composite number can be expressed (factorised)
as a product of primes, and this factorisation is unique, apart from the order in which the prime
factors occur.
2. If p is a prime and p divides a2 , then p divides a, where a is a positive integer.

3. If x be any rational number whose decimal expansion terminates, then we can express x in the
p
form q , where p and q are coprime, and the prime factorisation of q is of the form 2n 5m, where n,
m are non-negative integers.
p
4. Let x = q be a rational number, such that the prime factorisation of q is of the form 2n 5m, where n,
m are non-negative integers, then, x has a decimal expansion which terminates.
p
5. Let x = q be a rational number, such that the prime factorisation of q is not of the form 2n 5m,
where n, m are non-negative integers, then, x has a decimal expansion which is non-terminating
repeating (recurring).
6. For any two positive integers a and b, HCF (a, b) × LCM (a, b) = a × b.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.

1. The LCM of smallest two digit composite number and smallest composite number is
(a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 20 (d) 44
2. The total number of factors of a prime number is [CBSE Sample Paper 2020]
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3
3. The sum of exponents of prime factors in the prime factorisation of 196 is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2
4. The HCF of 135 and 225 is [CBSE 2020(30/2/1)]
(a) 15 (b) 75 (c) 45 (d) 5
37
5. The decimal representation of will
50
(a) terminate after 1 decimal place (b) terminate after 2 decimal places
(c) terminate after 3 decimal places (d) not terminate
6. The largest number which divides 70 and 125 leaving remainders 5 and 8 respectively is
(a) 13 (b) 65 (c) 875 (d) 1750

Real Numbers 5
 15
7. The decimal representation of will
400
(a) terminate after 1 decimal place. (b) terminate after 2 decimal places.
(c) terminate after 3 decimal places. (d) terminate after 4 decimal places.
If 6370 = 2m . 5n . 7k . 13p, then the value of m + n + k + p is
8.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
9. The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 5 is
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 60 (d) 120
10. Which of these rational number is a terminating decimal?
7 13 8 16
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18 21 200 225

11. The largest number which divides 615 and 963 leaving remainder 6 in each case is
(a) 82 (b) 95 (c) 87 (d) 93
12. If 3 is the least prime factor of number a and 7 is the least prime factor of number b, then the
least prime factor of (a + b) is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 10
13. If a = 23 × 3, b = 2 × 3 × 5, c = 3n × 5 and LCM (a, b, c) = 23 × 32 × 5, then n is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
14. If p and q are prime numbers than the HCF of p3q2 and p2q is
(a) p3q2 (b) p2q (c) p2q2 (d) pq
15. HCF of 96 and 404 is
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 101
16. The pair of co-prime is
(a) 32, 40 (b) 21, 28 (c) 18, 25 (d) 9, 27
17. The product of two numbers is 320 and their LCM is 80. The HCF of the numbers is
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 16 (d) 10
18. The HCF of 8, 9 and 5 is
(a) 8 (b) 25 (c) 9 (d) 1
19. 5 is the prime factor of
(a) 78 (b) 240 (c) 1001 (d) 1547
20. Which of the following rational numbers will have a terminating decimal expansion?
17 7 9 13
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 105 14 30
21. A teacher creates the question “Which of the following could be the sum of two rational
numbers?”. She now needs to create three incorrect choices and one correct answer. Which
option shows the choices that the teacher should create? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) First choice: 125; Second choice: 36+42; Third choice: 81; Correct Answer: 169
(b) First choice: 227; Second choice: 25+16; Third choice: 64; Correct Answer: 5
(c) First choice: p; Second choice: 20+16; Third choice: 50 – 1; Correct Answer: 49
(d) None of them

6 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 3 7
22. The fractions a and are equivalent to decimals that terminate. Which best describes the
b
product of a and b? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) It is a prime number.
(b) It cannot be an odd number.
(c) It is of the form 21k, where k could be multiples of 7 or 9.
(d) It is of the form 21k, where k could be multiples of 2 or 5.
11
23. The decimal representation of 3
will [CBSE Sample Question Paper 2020]
2 ×5
(a) terminate after 1 decimal place (b) terminate after 2 decimal places
(c) terminate after 3 decimal places (d) not terminates
24. HCF × LCM for the numbers 150 and 10 is
(a) 1500 (b) 150 (c) 10 (d) None of these
n 4n
25. If (–1) + (–1) = 0, then n is
(a) any negative integer (b) any even natural number
(c) any positive integer (d) any odd natural number
26. 7 is
(a) an integer (b) an irrational number
(c) a rational number (d) none of these
47
27. The decimal expansion of the rational number will terminate after
23 52
(a) one decimal place (b) two decimal places
(c) three decimal places (d) more than three decimal places
28. The product of two consecutive integers is divisible by
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
2
29. n – 1 is divisible by 8 if n is
(a) an integer (b) a natural number (c) an odd integer (d) an even integer
30. The largest number which divides 70 and 125 leaving remainders 5 and 8 respectively is
 [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 13 (b) 65 (c) 875 (d) 1750
3 2 3
31. If two positive integers a and b are written as a = x y and b = xy ; x, y are prime numbers, then
LCM (a, b) is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) xy (b) xy2 (c) x3y3 (d) x2y2
32. The product of a non zero rational and an irrational number is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) always irrational (b) always rational
(c) rational or irrational (d) one
14587
33. The decimal expansion of the rational number will terminate after
1250
 [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) one decimal place (b) two decimal places
(c) three decimal places (d) four decimal places

Real Numbers 7
 34. The exponent of 2 in prime factorisation of 144 is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3
35. The LCM of two numbers is 1200. Which of the following cannot be their HCF?
(a) 600 (b) 500 (c) 400 (d) 200
36. If 3 is the least prime factor of number a and 7 is the least prime factor of number b, then the
least prime factor of (a + b) is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 10
37. If HCF (26, 169) = 13 then LCM (26, 169) is
(a) 26 (b) 52 (c) 338 (d) 13
38. 3. 27 is
(a) an integer (b) a rational number (c) a natural number (d) an irrational number
n n
39. If n is any natural number then 6 – 5 always end with
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
2 2
40. If a and b are co-prime numbers then a and b are
(a) co-prime (b) not co-prime (c) even number (d) odd number
129
41. The decimal form of is
2 .5 7 .7 5 2

(a) terminating (b) non-terminating

(c) non-terminating non-repeating (d) none of them
42. If two positive integers a and b are written as a = xy2 and b = x3y, where x, y are prime numbers,
then LCM (a, b) is
(a) x2y2 (b) xy (c) x3y2 (d) none of these
43. If the HCF of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form 65m –117, then the value of m is
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 11 (d) 3
44. Arnav has 40 cm long red and 84 cm long blue ribbon. He cuts each ribbon into pieces such
that all pieces are of equal length. What is the length of each piece? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 4 cm as it is the HCF of 40 and 84 (b) 4 cm as it is the LCM of 40 and 84
(c) 12 cm as it is the LCM of 40 and 84 (d) 12 cm as it is the HCF of 40 and 84
45. Three bulbs red, green and yellow flash at intervals of 80 seconds, 90 seconds and 110 seconds.
All three flash together at 8:00 am. At what time will the three bulbs flash altogether again?
[CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 8:12 am (b) 9:12 am (c) 10:12 am (d) 11:12 am

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a)
7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (c)
43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)

8 Mathematics–X: Term–1
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A Mathematics Exhibition is being conducted in your School and one of your friends is making
a model of a factor tree. He has some difficulty and asks for your help in completing a quiz for
the audience. [CBSE Question Bank]
Observe the following factor tree and answer the following:

5 2783

y 253

11 z

(i) What will be the value of x?

(a) 15005 (b) 13915 (c) 56920 (d) 17429
(ii) What will be the value of y?
(a) 23 (b) 22 (c) 11 (d) 19
(iii) What will be the value of z?
(a) 22 (b) 23 (c) 17 (d) 19
(iv) According to Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic 13915 is a
(a) Composite number (b) Prime number
(c) Neither prime nor composite (d) Even number
(v) The prime factorisation of 13915 is
(a) 5 × 113 × 132 (b) 5 × 113 × 232 (c) 5 × 112 × 23 (d) 5 × 112 × 132

2. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
To enhance the reading skills of grade X students, the school nominates you and two of your
friends to set up a class library. There are two sections- section A and section B of grade X. There
are 32 students in section A and 36 students in section B. [CBSE Question Bank]

Real Numbers 9
 (i) What is the minimum number of books you will require for the class library, so that they
can be distributed equally among students of Section A or Section B?
(a) 144 (b) 128 (c) 288 (d) 272
(ii) If the product of two positive integers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM is
true then, the HCF (32, 36) is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
(iii) 36 can be expressed as a product of its primes as
(a) 22 × 32 (b) 21 × 33 (c) 23 × 31 (d) 20 × 30
(iv) 7 × 11 × 13 × 15 + 15 is
(a) Prime number (b) Composite number
(c) Neither prime nor composite (d) None of the above
(v) If p and q are positive integers such that p = ab2 and q = a2b, where a, b are prime
numbers, then the LCM (p, q) is
(a) ab (b) a2b2 (c) a3b2 (d) a3b3

Answers
1. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (a) (v) (c)
2. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (b) (v) (b)

ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements—Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A) : 6n ends with the digit zero, where n is natural number.
Reason (R) : Any number ends with digit zero, if its prime factor is of the form 2m × 5n, where
m, n are natural numbers.
2. Assertion (A) : For any two positive integers a and b, HCF (a, b) × LCM (a, b) = a × b.
Reason (R) : The HCF of two numbers is 5 and their product is 150. Then their LCM is 40.
29
3. Assertion (A) : is a terminating decimal.
250
p
Reason (R) : The rational number q is a terminating decimal, if q = (2m × 5n) for some whole
numbers m and n.
4. Assertion (A) : A number N when divided by 15 gives the reminder 2. Then the remainder is
same when N is divided by 5.
Reason (R) : 3 is an irrational number.

Answers
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b)

10 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 HINTS/SOLUTIONS OF SELECTED MCQs
1. We have, smallest two digit composite number = 10
and smallest composite number = 4
∴ LCM(10, 4) = 20

Hence, option (c) is correct.
2. The total number of factors of a prime number is 2 i.e., 1 and number itself.
∴ Option (c) is correct.

3. We have,
196 = 22 × 72
∴ Sum of exponents = 2 + 2 = 4

∴ Option (b) is correct.

4. We have,
135 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 5
225 = 3 × 3 × 5 × 5
∴ HCF (135, 225) = 3 × 3 × 5 = 45

∴ Option (c) is correct.

5. We have,
37 37 37 × 2 74
= = = = 0.74
50 2×5 2
( 2 × 5) 2
(10) 2
∴ It will terminate after 2 decimal places.

Hence, option (b) is correct.
6. The required largest number is the HCF of (70 – 5) and (125 – 8).
i.e., HCF of 65 and 117 which is 13.
∴ Required largest number is 13.

Hence, option (a) is correct.
7. We have,
15 3× 5 15 52
= 2 = ×
400 5 × 24 2 4 × 52 52
15 × 25 375 375
= = = = 0.0375
^2 × 5 h4 ^10h4 10000
∴ It will terminates after 4 decimal places.

Hence, option (d) is correct.
8. We have,
6370 = 21 × 51 × 72 × 131
⇒ 6370 = 2m × 5n ×7k × 13p

⇒
m = 1, n = 1, k = 2, p = 1
∴ m + n + k + p = 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 5

Hence, option (d) is correct.
9. The required least number is the LCM(1, 2, 3, 4, 5) = 60
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Real Numbers 11
 8 4×2 4 4
10. We have, = = = = 0.04
200 200 100 100
It is a terminating decimal.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
11. The required number is the HCF of (615 – 6) and (963 – 6)

i.e. HCF of 609 and 957.
We have, 609 = 3 × 7 × 29
and 957 = 3 × 11 × 29

` HCF (609, 957) = 3 × 29 = 87

` Required number = 87
Hence, option (c) is correct.
12. Since, 3 is the least prime factor of a.
⇒ a is an odd number.

Again, 7 is the least prime factor of b.
⇒ b is also an odd number.

∴ (a + b) is an even number, because sum of two odds is even.

So, least prime factor of (a + b) is 2.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
13. We have, a = 23 × 3, b = 2 × 3 × 5, c = 3n × 5
\ LCM (a, b, c) = 23 × 32 × 5

23 × 3n × 5 = 23 × 32 × 5 ⇒ n = 2
Hence, option (b) is correct.
14. We have,
p3q2 = p × p × p × q × q
p2q = p × p × q
∴ HCF = p × p × q = p2q

Hence, option (b) is correct.
15. We have, 96 = 25 × 3
404 = 22 × 101
\ HCF (96, 404) = 22 = 4

Hence, option (a) is correct.
16. 18 and 25 have no common prime factor.
18 = 3 × 3 × 2
25 = 5 × 5
So, (18, 25) is a pair of coprime.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Product of numbers
17. HCF =
LCM
320
= =4
80
Hence, option (b) is correct.

12 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 18. No common prime factor in 8, 9 and 25.
So, HCF (8, 9, 25) = 1
Hence, option (d) is correct.
19. 5 is prime factor of that number, which ends with 0 or 5. So, there is only 240 which ends with
zero.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
17
20. 8 = 2 × 2 × 2 = 23.50. Hence, represents terminating decimals.
8
Hence, option (a) is correct.
21. Option (c) is correct.
3 7
22. We have, fractions a and which terminate if a = 3k1 and b = 7k2 where k1 and k2 are of the
b
form 2m . 5n.
\ ab = 21k1 k2 = 21k
(Let k = k1 k2)
⇒ ab = 21k, where k = 2 . 5n (m, n are non-negative integers)
m

\ Option (d) is correct.

11 11×52 275
23. 3
= 3 3
= = 0.275
2 ×5 2 ×5 (10) 3
So, it will terminate after 3 decimal places.

Hence, option (c) is correct.
24. LCM × HCF = Product of numbers
∴ For 150 and 10

LCM × HCF = 150 × 10 = 1500
Hence, option (a) is correct.
29. If n is an odd positive integer then
n = 4p + 1
n – 1 = (4p + 1)2 – 1
2

= 16p2 + 8p + 1 – 1
= 8p(2p + 1), which is divisible by 8.
⇒ (n2 – 1) is divisible by 8.

Hence, option (c) is correct.
31. We have, a = x3 y2 = x × x × x × y × y and b = xy3 = x × y × y × y
∴ LCM(a, b) = x × x × x × y × y × y = x3y3

Hence, option (c) is correct.
14587 14587 14587 23
33.
We have, = = ×
1250 2 × 54 10 × 53 23
14587 × 8 116696
= = = 11.6696
10000 10000
So the given rational number will terminate after four decimal places.
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Real Numbers 13
 37. HCF (26, 169) = 13
26 ×169
∴ LCM(26, 169) =
= 338
13
Hence, option (c) is correct.
38. We have, 3. 27 = 3.272727... is rational because, it is non-terminating but repeating decimal
expansion.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
44. Since each piece should be of equal length. Therefore, length of each piece is the HCF of 40 cm
and 84 cm.
Now, using Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, we have
40 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5
and 84 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7
\
HCF (40, 84) = 2 × 2 = 4
⇒ Length of each piece is 4 cm.

\ Option (a) is correct.

45. The required time is LCM of 80, 90 and 110 seconds.
80 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 5
90 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 5
110 = 2 × 5 × 11
\
LCM (80, 90, 110) = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 11
= 7920 seconds
7920
= minutes
60
= 132 minutes
= 2 hours and 12 minutes
So, three bulbs flash together again, after 2 hours and 12 minutes.
So, the three bulbs will flash altogether at 10:12 am.
\ Option (c) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF CASE-BASED QUESTIONS

1. (i) From the factor tree it is clear that
x = 5 × 2783 = 13915
Hence option (b) is correct.
(ii) From the factor tree
2783
y = = 11
253
Hence option (c) is correct.
(iii) From the factor tree
253
z = = 23
11
Hence option (b) is correct.

14 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (iv)  The given number 13915 is not an even number and have more than two factors.
∴ According to fundamental theorem of arithmetic 13915 is a composite number.

Hence option (a) is correct.
(v) The prime factorisation of 13915 5 13915

= 5 × 11 × 11 × 23 11 2783
11 253
= 5 × 112 × 23
23
Hence option (c) is correct.
2. (i) Minimum number of books required to distribute equally among student of both the sections
= LCM(32, 36)
LCM (32, 36) = 2 × 2 × 8 × 9 = 288 2 32, 36

Hence option (c) is correct. 2 16, 18

8, 9
(ii) It is given that
Product of two positive integers = HCF × LCM
Product of two integers
So, HCF =
LCM
32 × 36
= =4
288
Hence option (b) is correct.
(iii) Prime factorisation of 36 is 2 36

36 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 2 18
3 9
= 22 × 32
3 3
Hence option (a) is correct.
1

(iv) Given expression is 7 × 11 × 13 ×15 + 15
= 15(7 × 11 × 13 + 1)
= 15 × 1002
So, it is composite number.
Hence option (b) is correct.
(v) Given p = ab2 and q = a2b, where a, b are prime numbers.

 LCM of p and q is the highest power of the variables.
∴
LCM (p, q) = a2b2
Hence option (b) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS

1. 6n = (2 × 3)n = 2n × 3n, Its prime factors do not contain 5n i.e., of the form 2m × 5n, where m, n
are natural numbers. Here assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Real Numbers 15
 2. We have,
LCM (a, b) × HCF (a, b) = a × b
LCM × 5 = 150
150
∴
LCM = = 30
5
⇒
LCM = 30, i.e., reason is incorrect and assertion is correct.
Hence, (c) is the correct option.
29 29 29 × 22
3. We have, = =
250 2 × 53 23 × 53
29 × 4 116
= = = 0.116
]10g3 1000
Thus, it is a terminating decimal, which terminate after there decimal places.
Also, it is a rational number whose denominator is of the form 2m × 5n.

Thus option (a) is correct.
4. Clearly, both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
Hence, (b) is correct option.
zzz

16 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 2 POLYNOMIALS

BASIC CONCEPTS & FORMULAE

1. Polynomial: An algebraic expression of the form a0xn + a1xn–1 + a2xn–2 + ...+ an–1 x + an, where
a0, a1, a2, ...an are real numbers, n is a non-negative integer and a0 ≠ 0 is called a polynomial of
degree n.
2. Degree of polynomial: The highest power of variable in a polynomial is called the degree of
polynomial.

3. Types of polynomials:
(i) Constant Polynomial: A polynomial p(x) of degree zero is called a constant polynomial and it
is of the form p(x) = k.
(ii) Linear Polynomial: A polynomial of degree one is called linear polynomial and it is of the form

p(x) = ax + b, where a, b are real numbers and a≠ 0.
(iii) Quadratic Polynomial: A polynomial of degree two is called quadratic polynomial and it is of

the form p(x) = ax2 + bx + c, where a, b, c are real numbers and a≠ 0.
(iv) Cubic Polynomial: A polynomial of degree three is called cubic polynomial and it is of the

form p(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d, where a, b, c, d are real numbers and a≠ 0.
(v) Bi-quadratic Polynomial: A polynomial of degree four is called bi-quadratic polynomial and it
is of the form p(x) = ax4 + bx3 + cx2 + dx + e, where a, b, c, d, e are real numbers and a≠ 0.

4. Graph of polynomial:
(i) Graph of a linear polynomial p(x) = ax + b is a straight line.
(ii) Graph of a quadratic polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c is a parabola open upwards like ∪ if a > 0
(iii) Graph of a quadratic polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c is a parabola open downwards like ∩ if
a < 0.
(iv) In general a polynomial p(x) of degree n crosses the x-axis at atmost n points.

5. Zeroes of a polynomial: α is said to be zero of a polynomial p(x) if p(α) = 0.

(i) Geometrically, the zeroes of a polynomial p(x) are the x-co-ordinates of the points, where the
graph of y = p(x) intersects the x-axis.
(ii) A polynomial of degree ‘n’ can have atmost n zeros.
That is a quadratic polynomial can have atmost 2 zeroes and a cubic polynomial can have
atmost 3 zeroes.
(iii) 0 may a zero of a polynomial.
(iv) A non-zero constant polynomial have no zeroes.

Polynomials 17
 6. Discriminant of a quadratic polynomial: For polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c, a ≠ 0, the expression
b2 – 4ac is known as its discriminant ‘D’.
\ D = b2 – 4ac
7. Relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients of a polynomial:
(i) If α, β are zeros of p(x) = ax2 + bx + c, then
–b – ]Coefficient of xg
Sum of zeros = a + b = a =
Coefficient of x2
c Constant term
Product of zeros = a b = a =
Coefficient of x2
(ii) If α, β, γ are zeros of p(x) = ax2 + bx + cx + d, then
–b – ^Coefficient of x h
2
a + b + c = a =
Coefficient of x3
c Coefficient of x
ab + bc + ca = a =
Coefficient of x3
–d – ]Constant termg
abc = a =
Coefficient of x3
(iii) If α, β, are roots of a quadratic polynomial p(x), then
p(x) = x2 –(sum of zeroes)x + product of zeroes ⇒ p(x) = x2 –(α + β)x + αβ
(iv) If α, β, γ are the roots of a cubic polynomial p(x), then
p (x) = x3 – (sum of zeroes) x2 + (sum of product of zeroes taken two at a time) x
– product of zeroes
3 2
⇒ p (x) = x –(α + β + γ)x + (αβ + βγ + γα)x – αβγ

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.

1. The zeroes of the polynomial x2 – 3x – m(m + 3) are [CBSE 2020 (30/2/1)]

(a) m, m + 3 (b) –m, m + 3 (c) m, – (m + 3) (d) –m, – (m + 3)
2. The degree of polynomial having zeroes – 3 and 4 only is [CBSE 2020 (30/5/2)]
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) more than 3 (d) 3
3. The number of zeroes for a polynomial p(x) where graph of y = p(x) given in Fig. 2.1, is
Y [CBSE 2020 (30/4/1)]

y = p(x)

X
O

Fig. 2.1
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 0 (d) 5

18 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 4. In Fig. 2.2, the graph of the polynomial p(x) is given. The number of zeroes of the polynomial
is [CBSE 2020 (30/3/1)]
4
3
2
1

–4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5
–1
–2
–3
–4

Fig. 2.2

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0

5. The quadratic polynomial, the sum of whose zeroes is – 5 and their product is 6, is
[CBSE 2020 (30/1/1)]
2 2 2
(a) x + 5x + 6 (b) x – 5x + 6 (c) x – 5x – 6 (d) – x2 + 5x + 6
6. If one of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 3x + k is 2, then the value of k is
[CBSE 2020 (30/1/1)]
(a) 10 (b) – 10 (c) – 7 (d) – 2
7. The graph of a quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c = 0, having discriminant equal to zero, will
touch x-axis at exactly how many points?
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) can’t say
8. The quadratic polynomial p(x) with –24 and 4 as a product and one of the zeros respectively is
(a) x2 – 2x – 24 (b) x2 + 2x – 24 (c) x2 + 2x + 24 (d) Can’t be determined

9. The polynomial (x − a), where a > 0, is a factor of the polynomial q (x) = 4 2 x2 – 2 . Which

of these is a polynomial whose factor is c x – a m ?

1
[CBSE Question Bank]

(a) x2 + x + 6 (b) x2 + x – 6 (c) x2 – 5x + 4 (d) x2 + 4x – 3

10. Which of these is a factor of the polynomial p (x) = x 3 + 4x + 5 ? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) (x + 1) (b) (x – 1) (c) (x + 3) (d) (x – 3)
11. Given that m + 2, where m is a positive integer, is a zero of the polynomial q (x) = x2 – mx – 6 .
Which of these is the value of m? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
12. Which of these is a zero of the polynomials p (y) = 3y 3 – 16y – 8 ? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) –2 (d) –8
4 3
13. Consider the polynomial in z, p (z) = z – 2z + 3 . What is the value of the polynomial at
z = −1? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
m
2
14. Consider the expression x(m – 1) + 3x 2 , where m is a constant. For what value of m, will the
expression be a cubic polynomial? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) –1 (d) –2

Polynomials 19
 15. Which of the following graphs could be for the simple polynomial x2 ? [CBSE Question Bank]
Y Y

(a) X (b) X

Y Y

(c) (d) X
X

Fig. 2.3 (a to d)
16. Prashant claims that the polynomial p(x) = mxa + x2b (a > 2b) has 4b zeroes. For Prashant’s
claim to be correct, which of these must be true? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) a = 2 or a = 4b
(b) a = 4b
(c) m = 2b
(d) m = 4b
17. Which of the following statements is correct? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) A polynomial of degree 3 has two zeroes (b) A polynomial of degree 4 has four zeroes
(c) A polynomial of degree 5 has six zeroes (d) A polynomial of degree 6 has five zeroes
18. Product of zeros of a cubic polynomial is
–d c d –b
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a b b a
19. The zeros of the quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c, c ≠ 0 are equal, then
(a) c and a have opposite signs (b) c and b have opposite signs
(c) c and a have the same sign (d) c and b have the same sign
2
20. The zeros of the quadratic polynomial x + 99x + 127 are
(a) both positive (b) both negative
(c) one positive and one negative (d) both equal
21. A quadratic polynomial, whose zeros are – 3 and 4, is
x2 x
(a) x2 – x + 12 (b) x2 + x + 12 (c) – – 6 (d) 2x2 + 2x – 24
2 2

20 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 22. The product of the zeros of the polynomial 4x2 + 3x + 7 is
3 3 7 –7
(a) (b) – (c) (d)
4 4 4 4
23. If two of the zeros of the cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d are 0, then the third zero is
b c –d –b
(a) a (b) a (c) (d)
a a
24. If 2 and α are zeros of 2x2 – 6x + 2 then the value of α is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 5
25. A quadratic polynomial with sum and product of its zeros as 8 and –9 respectively is
(a) x2 –8x + 9 (b) x2 – 8x – 9 (c) x2 + 8x – 9 (d) x2 + 8x + 9
26. Which of the following is not the graph of a quadratic polynomial? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Fig. 2.4 (a to d)
27. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial x2 –5x + k is – 4 , then the value of k is
(a) 36 (b) –36 (c) 18 (d) –18
28. If the graph of a polynomial intersects the x-axis at exactly two points, then it
(a) cannot be a linear or a cubic polynomial (b) can be a quadratic polynomial only
(c) can be a cubic or a quadratic polynomial (d) can be a linear or a quadratic polynomial
29. The zeros of the quadratic polynomial x2 + kx + k, k ! 0
(a) both cannot be positive (b) both cannot be negative
(c) are always equal (d) are always unequal
30. The number of polynomials having zeros 1 and –2 is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) more than 3
31. A quadratic polynomial, whose zeros are 5 and – 8 is
(a) x2 + 13x – 40 (b) x2 + 4x – 3 (c) x2 – 3x + 40 (d) x2 + 3x – 40

Polynomials 21
 32. A quadratic polynomial with 3 and 2 as the sum and product of its zeros respectively is
(a) x2 + 3x – 2 (b) x2 – 3x + 2 (c) x2 – 2x + 3 (d) x2 – 2x – 3
33. Given that two of the zeros of the cubic polynomial ax 3 + bx2 + cx + d are 0, the value of c is
(a) less than 0 (b) greater than 0 (c) equal to 0 (d) can’t say
34. If one root of the polynomial p(y) = 5y2 + 13y + m is reciprocal of other, then the value of m is
1
(a) 6 (b) 0 (c) 5 (d)
5
35. If one of the zeros of the cubic polynomial x3 +ax2 + bx + c is – 1, then the product of the other
two zeroes is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) b – a + 1 (b) b – a – 1 (c) a – b + 1 (d) a – b – 1
36. The number of polynomials having zeros as – 2 and 5 is  [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) more than 3
2
37. If one of the zeros of the quadratic polynomial (k – 1) x + k x + 1 is – 3, then the value of k
is [NCERT Exemplar]
4 –4 2 – 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 3
38. If one of the zeros of a quadratic polynomial of the form x2 + ax + b is the negative of the
other, then it
(a) has no linear term and the constant term is negative.
(b) has no linear term and the constant term is positive.
(c) can have a linear term but the constant term is negative.
(d) can have a linear term but the constant term is positive.
39. Given that one of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial ax 3 + bx2 + cx + d is zero, then product
of the other two zeros is [NCERT Exemplar]
c c b
(a) – a (b) a (c) 0 (d) – a

40. If the zeros of the quadratic polynomial x2 + (a + 1) x + b are 2 and –3, then
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) a = –7, b = –1 (b) a = 5, b = –1 (c) a = 2, b = –6 (d) a = 0, b = –6
41. The zeros of the quadratic polynomial x 2 + ax + b, a, b > 0 are
(a) both positive (b) both negative
(c) one positive one negative (d) can’t say
2
42. If 5 is a zero of the quadratic polynomial, x – kx – 15 then the value of k is
(a) 2 (b) –2 (c) 4 (d) – 4

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a)
19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (d)
37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (a)

22 Mathematics–X: Term–1
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
The below pictures are few natural examples of parabolic shape which is represented by a
quadratic polynomial. A parabolic arch is an arch in the shape of a parabola. In structures, their
curve represents an efficient method of load, and so can be found in bridges and in architecture
in a variety of forms. [CBSE Question Bank]

Fig. 2.5

Fig. 2.6

(i) In the standard form of quadratic polynomial, ax2+ bx + c, where a, b, and c

(a) All are real numbers.
(b) All are rational numbers.
(c) ‘a’ is a non zero real number and b and c are any real numbers.
(d) All are integers.

(ii) If the roots of the quadratic polynomial are equal, where the discriminant D = b2 – 4ac,
then
(a) D > 0 (b) D < 0 (c) D ≥ 0 (d) D = 0
1
(iii) If a and a are the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – x + 8k then k is
1 –1
(a) 4 (b) (c) (d) 2
4 4
(iv) The graph of x2 + 1 = 0
(a) Intersects x-axis at two distinct points.
(b) Touches x-axis at a point.
(c) Neither touches nor intersects x-axis.
(d) Either touches or intersects x-axis.

Polynomials 23
 1
(v) If the sum of the roots is –p and product of the roots is – , then the quadratic polynomial
p
is

(a) k d –px2 + + 1 n (b) k d px2 + – 1 n (c) k d x2 + px – n (d) k d x2 – px + n

x x 1 1
p p p p

2. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
An asana is a body posture, originally and still a general term for a sitting meditation pose, and
later extended in hatha yoga and modern yoga as exercise, to any type of pose or position, adding
reclining, standing, inverted, twisting, and balancing poses. In the figure, one can observe that
poses can be related to representation of quadratic polynomial. [CBSE Question Bank]

Fig. 2.7
Y
2
1
–3 –2 –1 1 2 3 4 5
O
–1
X'
–2
–3

–4
–5

–6

–7
–8
Y'
Fig. 2.8

(i) The shapes of the poses shown are

(a) Spiral (b) Ellipse (c) Linear (d) Parabola
(ii) The graph of parabola opens downward, if _______
(a) a ≥ 0 (b) a = 0 (c) a < 0 (d) a > 0
(iii) In the graph, how many zeros are there for the polynomial?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

24 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (iv) The two zeroes in the above shown graph are
(a) 2, 4 (b) –2, 4 (c) –8, 4 (d) 2, –8
2
(v) The zeros of the quadratic polynomial 4 3 x + 5x – 2 3 are
2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3
(a) , (b) – , (c) ,– (d) – ,–
3 4 3 4 3 4 3 4

3. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Basketball and soccer are played with a spherical ball. Even though an athlete dribbles the
ball in both sports, a basketball player uses his hands and a soccer player uses his feet. Usually,
soccer is played outdoors on a large field and basketball is played indoor on a court made up
of wood. The projectile (path traced) of soccer ball and basketball are in the form of parabola
representing quadratic polynomial. [CBSE Question Bank]

Fig. 2.9

(i) The shape of the path traced shown is

(a) Spiral (b) Ellipse (c) Linear (d) Parabola
(ii) The graph of parabola opens upward, if ____________
(a) a = 0 (b) a < 0 (c) a > 0 (d) a ≥ 0
(iii) Observe the following graph and answer.
Y
4
3
2
1
1 2 3 4
X ' –4 –3 –2 –1 X
–1

–2

–3
–4
Y'
Fig. 2.10
In the above graph, how many zeros are there for the polynomial?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

Polynomials 25
 (iv) The three zeros in the above shown graph are
(a) 2, 3,–1 (b) –2, 3, 1 (c) –3, –1, 2 (d) –2, –3, –1
(v) What will be the expression of the polynomial of the shown graph?
(a) x3 + 2x2 – 5x – 6 (b) x3 + 2x2 – 5x + 6
(c) x3 + 2x2 + 5x – 6 (d) x3 + 2x2 + 5x + 6

4. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).

The wall of room is decorated with beautiful garlands, each garland forming a parabola.

X' X
O

Y'
Fig. 2.11
(i) What type of polynomial does a parabola represent?
(a) linear (b) quadratic (c) cubic (d) None of these
(ii) The number of zeros of a quadratic polynomial is
(a) equal to 2 (b) equal to 1 (c) more than 2 (d) atmost 2
(iii) A quadratic polynomial with the sum and product of its zeroes as –1 and –2 is
(a) x2 + x – 2 (b) x2 –x – 2 (c) x2 + 2x – 1 (d) x2 –2x – 1
(iv) If one of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial (k–2) x2 –2x –5 is –1, then the value of k
is
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) –5 (d) –3
1 1
(v) If a, b are the zeros of the polynomial f (x) = x2 – 7x + 12 then the value of a + is
b
7 –7
(a) –7 (b) 12 (c) (d)
12 12
5.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Water flowing in a fountain follows trajectory as shown below:

X' X
O

Y'
Fig. 2.12

26 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (i) The shape formed by the water trajectory is
(a) ellipse (b) oval (c) parabola (d) spiral
(ii) Number of zeroes of polynomial is equal to the number of points where the graph of
polynomial
(a) intersects x- axis (b) intersects y- axis
(c) intersects y- axis or x- axis (d) none of the above
2

(iii) If the trajectory is represented by x –3x – 18 , then its zeros are
(a) (6, – 3) (b) (–6, 3) (c) (3, – 3) (d) (–6, –3)
–1
(iv) If is one of the zeroes of 9x2 – kx – 5, then the value of k is
3
(a) 9 (b) 3 (c) 12 (d) 4
(v) If a and b are the roots of the equation 2x2 –3x – 5 then a + b is equal to
–3 3
(a) 3 (b) –3 (c) (d)
2 2

6. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
The path moved by a group of ants has been traced on a floor which is shown below:

Fig. 2.13

(i) The shape formed by the path is

(a) ellipse (b) oval (c) parabola (d) spiral
2
(ii) If the path is represented by x + 2x –3 , then its zeroes are
(a) (–3, 1) (b) (3, –1) (c) (2, –3) (d) (–2, 3)

(iii) The number of zeroes of the polynomial represented by the path is
(a) one (b) at most two (c) atleast two (d) less than two
(iv) If the sum and product of zeroes of the polynomial representing the path are 6 and –16,
then the polynomial is
(a) x2 –10x + 96 (b) x2 –6x + 16 (c) x2 –6x – 16 (d) x2 + 6x
(v) The number of zeroes of the polynomial f (x) = x2 –8 are
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

Polynomials 27
 7. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A runner is running along a straight path parallel to a given boundary.

O 1 2 3 4
1

Fig. 2.14
(i) The path of the runner represents the graph of a
(a) cubic polynomial (b) quadratic polynomial
(c) linear polynomial (d) None of these
(ii) The equation of this graph can be written as
(a) x = 2 (b) y = 2 (c) x = 0 (d) y = 0
(iii) How many zeros does it have?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) more than 1
(iv) If the graph would have been parallel to x-axis, then its number of zeroes would be
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) more than 1
2
(v) If one zero of the polynomial p (z) = 3z –10z + m is reciprocal of other, then value of m is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6

8. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).

A child was flying a kite, and its string got struck into a tree and touched ground as shown in
figure.

X' X
O

Y'
Fig. 2.15

(i) The string of the kite represents the graph of a

(a) linear polynomial (b) quadratic polynomial
(c) cubic polynomial (d) polynomial of degree more than
(ii) The number of zeros of a cubic polynomial is
(a) 2 (b) atmost 2 (c) 3 (d) atmost 3
2
(iii) If one zero of the polynomial x – 12x + (3k – 1) is five times the other, then the value of
k is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 10 (d) 7

28 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (iv) Which of the following could be the equation of the given graph?
(a) (x + 1)2 = (x – 3)2 + 5 (b) x + 9 = 3 – 2x
(c) 1 + x3 = 2 (d) 2x2 + 3x – 6 = 0
(v) The zeros of the polynomial 6x2 – 3 –7x are
3 –1 3 1
(a) 6, –7 (b) 3, –7 (c) , (d) ,
2 3 2 3

9. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A few children are playing with a skipping rope. When two of them hold it in their hands, as
shown in the figure, it formed a mathematical shape.
Y

X' X
O

Y'

Fig. 2.16

(i) The name of the shape formed is

(a) parabola (b) ellipse (c) oval (d) spiral
(ii) If the graph of a polynomial has such a shape, it is always
(a) linear (b) quadratic (c) cubic (d) None of these
2

(iii) If the polynomial x + kx – 15 represents such a curve, with one of its zeros as 3, then the
value of k is
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) –2
2
(iv) If both the zeros of a quadratic polynomial ax + bx + c are equal and opposite in sign,
then value of b is
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 2 (d) 0
(v) If the graph of a polynomial intersects the x-axis at only one point, then it
(a) is always a linear polynomial (b) can be a quadratic polynomial
(c) can never be a quadratic polynomial
(d) can neither be linear nor quadratic polynomial

Answers
1. (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (c) (v) (c)
2. (i) (d) (ii) (c) (iii) (c) (iv) (b) (v) (b)
3. (i) (d) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (c) (v) (a)
4. (i) (b) (ii) (d) (iii) (a) (iv) (b) (v) (c)
5. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (a) (iv) (c) (v) (d)
6. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (b) (iv) (c) (v) (c)
7. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (b) (iv) (a) (v) (b)
8. (i) (b) (ii) (d) (iii) (d) (iv) (d) (v) (c)
9. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (d) (v) (b)

Polynomials 29
ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements—Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A) : ^2 – 3 h is one zero of the quadratic polynomial then other zero will be ^2 + 3 h .
Reason (R) : Irrational zeros (roots) always occurs in pairs.
2. Assertion (A) : If both zeros of the quadratic polynomial x2 – 2kx + 2 are equal in magnitude
1
but opposite in sign then value of k is .
2
–b
Reason (R) : Sum of zeros of a quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c is a .
Assertion (A) : P(x) = 14x3 – 2x2 + 8x4 + 7x – 8 is a polynomial of degree 3.
3.

Reason (R) :
The highest power of x in any polynomial p(x) is the degree of the polynomial.
4.
Assertion (A) : The graph y = f(x) is shown in figure, for the polynomial f(x). The number of
zeros of f(x) is 4.
Y

X
O

Fig. 2.17
Reason (R) : The number of zero of the polynomial f(x) is the number of point of which f(x)
cuts or touches the axes.

Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c)

HINTS/SOLUTIONS OF SELECTED MCQs

1. Let p(x) = x2 – 3x – m (m + 3)
⇒ p(x) = x2 – (m + 3) x +mx – m (m + 3)

=
x{x – (m + 3)} + m {x – (m + 3)}
For zeros of p(x)
⇒ p(x) = (x + m) {(x – (m + 3)} = 0

⇒ x = – m, m + 3

∴ Its zeros are – m, m + 3.

∴ Option (b) is correct.

2. The degree of polynomial having zeroes –3 and 4 only i.e only two zeros, is 2
because it will be a quadratic polynomial.

30 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 i.e p(x) = x2 – (–3 + 4) . x + (–3) × 4

⇒ p(x) = x2 – x – 12, which is a polynomial of degree 2.

∴ Option (a) is correct.

3. Since the graph of y = p(x) intersect (touch) x–axis at three points, therefore it has three zeros.
∴ Option (a) is correct.

4. Since the graph of the polynomial p(x) cuts the x-axis at two distinct points. Therefore it has two
zeros.
∴ Number of zeros of polynomial p(x) is 2.

∴ Option (b) is correct.

5. Given sum of zeros = –5 and their product = 6
∴ Quadratic polynomial is given by

x2 – (–5) x + 6 = x2 + 5x + 6
∴ Option (a) is correct.

6. Let given polynomial be p(x)= x2 + 3x + k and one of the zeros of p(x) is 2.
∴ p(2) = 0
⇒ (2)2 + 3 × 2 + k = 0
⇒ 4 + 6 + k = 0
⇒ k = – 10
∴ Option (b) is correct.

7. For a quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c = 0 has discriminant equal to zero, therefore it has equal
roots.
Hence, it will touch x-axis at one point.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
8. Let a and b are two zeros then
a.b = – 24 and a = 4
– 24 –24
⇒ b = a b= =–6
4
So, a + b = 4 – 6 = – 2
The quadratic polynomial is x2 – (a + b) x + a.b.
⇒ x2 – (–2)x + (–24)

⇒ x2 + 2x – 24

Hence, option (b) is correct.
9. We have q(x) = 4 2 x2 – 2
Since, (x – a) is a factor of q(x).
\
q(a) = 0
2
⇒
4 2 (a) – 2 = 0
⇒
4a2 – 1 = 0
1
⇒
a2 =
4
1
⇒
=4
a2
1
⇒
a = ±2
1
\
x – a = (x – 2) or (x + 2)
Now, x2 + x – 6 = x2 + 3x – 2x – 6 = x(x + 3) – 2(x + 3)
= (x – 2) (x + 3)

Polynomials 31
 ⇒ (x – 2) is a factor of x2 + x – 6

\ c x – a m is a factor of x2 + x – 6.
1

\ Option (b) is correct.

10. We have, p(x) = x3 + 4x + 5
Putting x = –1, we have
\
p(–1) = (–1)3 + 4 × (–1) + 5 = –1 – 4 + 5 = 0
⇒
p(–1) = 0
⇒ (x + 1) is a factor.

\ Option (a) is correct.

11. We have polynomial, q(x) = x2 – mx – 6.
Since (m + 2) is a zero of q(x).
\ (m + 2)2 – m (m + 2) – 6 = 0

m2 + 4m + 4 – m 2 – 2m – 6 = 0
⇒

⇒
2m – 2 = 0
⇒
2m = 2 ⇒ m=1
\ Option (d) is correct.

12. We have, p(y) = 3y3 – 16y – 8
\
p(–2) = 3 × (–2)3 – 16 × (–2) – 8
= –24 + 32 – 8
= –32 + 32 = 0
⇒
p(–2) = 0
\ y = –2 is the zero of p(y).


i.e., – 2 is the zero of p(y).
\ Option (c) is correct.

13. We have, p (z) = z 4 – 2z3 + 3
At z = –1, we have
p(–1) = (–1)4 – 2 × (–1)3 + 3
=1+2+3=6
\ Option (a) is correct.

2 m
(m – 1)
14. Let p (x) = x + 3x 2
For p(x) to be a cubic polynomial, we have
m2 – 1 = 3
⇒
& m2 = 4 & m= 4 =2
⇒ m = 2
[ m = –2 is not possible]
\ Option (b) is correct.

15. For the polynomial p(x) = x2, we have

x 0 1 –1 –2 2
y 0 1 1 4 4

32 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 Y

X
–4 –3 –2 –1 O 1 2 3 4
–1

–2

–3

–4

Fig. 2.18

\ Option (c) is correct.

16. We have a polynomial p(x) = mxa + x2b (a > 2b).
Since, it has 4b zeros.
\ Its degree must be 4b.

\
a = 4b.
\ Option (b) is correct.

17. As we know that a polynomial of degree n has n zeros.
Therefore, a polynomial of degree 4 has four zeroes.
\ Option (b) is correct.

d
18. From the formula that product of all zeros ie, α, β and γ is abc = – a .
\ Option (a) is correct.

19. Since zeros of the polynomial are equal, hence c and a both have equal sign.
So, option (c) is correct.
20. Since sum of zeros and product of zeros both are positive, so both zeros must be negative.
So, option (b) is correct.
21. The required quadratic polynomial is
x2 – (sum of zeros)x + product of zeros
x2 x
⇒ x2 – (–3 + 4)x + (–3 × 4) ⇒ x2 – x – 12 ⇒ – –6
2 2
So, option (c) is correct.
22. Given polynomial is 4x2 + 3x + 7.
c 7
Product of roots = a =
4
So, option (c) is correct.
23. Given polynomial is ax3 + bx2 + cx + d.
–b
Sum of roots = a
–b
a+b+ c = a

Polynomials 33
 But it is given sum of two roots is equal to zero
–b –b
0+c= a & c = a

So, option (d) is correct.

24. For the polynomial 2x2 – 6x + 2, 2 and α are its zeros.
Sum of roots = 2 + α
–b 6
⇒ a = 2 + a ⇒ =2+a
2
⇒ 3 – 2 = α
⇒ α = 1
So, option (c) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF CASE-BASED QUESTIONS

1. (i) In the standard form of quadratic polynomial ax2+ bx + c, a is a non zero real number and
b and c are any real numbers.
Hence option (c) is correct.

(ii) In case of quadratic polynomial if the roots are equal then the discriminant (D) should be
equal to 0.
Hence option (d) is correct.

(iii) Given quadratic polynomial is 2x2– x + 8k.
1 1 8k
If a and a are zeros then their product = a × a =

2
1
⇒
1 = 4k ⇒ k =
4
Hence option (b) is correct.
(iv) Given quadratic polynomial is x2 + 1 = 0.
⇒ x2 = –1

⇒ Zeros can’t be find out so its graph neither touches nor intersects x-axis.

Hence option (c) is correct.
–1
(v) Given: Sum of roots = –p and product of roots =
p
The general form of quadratic polynomial is
k(x2 – (sum of zeros)x + product of zeros)

k d x2 – ^–p h x + d nn k d x2 + px – n
–1 1
⇒
⇒
p p
Hence option (c) is correct.
2. (i) The shape of the poses shown is parabola.
Hence option (d) is correct.
(ii) The graph of the parabola opens downward if a < 0.
Hence option (c) is correct.
(iii) Since the given graph is intersecting x-axis at two places, therefore it should have 2 zeros.
Hence option (c) is correct.

34 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (iv) Two zeros of the given graph are –2 and 4.
Hence option (b) is correct.
(v) Given quadratic polynomial is 4 3 x2 + 5x – 2 3 .
By mid term splitting, we can write
4 3 x2 + 8x – 3x – 2 3 ⇒ 4x ^ 3 x + 2 h – 3 ^ 3 x + 2 h
3
^ 3 x + 2 h^4x – 3 h
–2
⇒
⇒ x= , x=
3 4
Hence option (b) is correct.
3. (i) The shape of the path traced shown is parabola.
Hence option (d) is correct.
(ii) The graph of parabola opens upward if a > 0.
Hence option (c) is correct.
(iii) From the given graph it is clear that number of zeros should be 3 as it intersecting x-axis at
three places.
Hence option (d) is correct.
(iv) From the given graph the three zeros are –3, –1 and 2.
Hence option (c) is correct.
(v) General form of the polynomial having three zeros is
x3 – (Sum of zeros) x2 + (Sum of product of zeros taken two at a time)x – Product of zeros

= x3 – ( –3 – 1 + 2)x2 + [(–3 × (–1) +(–1) × 2) + 2 × (–3)]x – [(–3) × (–1) × 2]
= x3 + 2x2 – 5x – 6
Hence option (a) is correct.
4. (i) A parabola represents a quadratic polynomial.
∴ Option (b) is correct.


(ii) A quadratic polynomial has atmost two zeros.

Option (d) is correct.

(iii) A quadratic polynomial is written as
x2 – (sum of zeros)x + product of zeros

So, required polynomial = x2 – (–1)x + (–2) = x2 + x – 2

∴ Option (a) is correct.


(iv) Since (–1) is a zero of the given polynomial.
So, (k – 2) (–1)2 – 2(–1) – 5 = 0

⇒k–2+2–5=0 ⇒ k=5

∴ Option (b) is correct.

–b c 1 1 a+b 7
(v) a + b = a = 7,
ab = a = 12, a + = =
b ab 12
∴ Option (c) is correct.

5. (i) parabola
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) Number of zeros of a polynomial is equal to the number of points where the graph of
polynomial intersects x-axis.
∴ Option (a) is correct.

Polynomials 35
 (iii) x2 – 3x –18 = x2 – 6x + 3x – 18
= x(x – 6) + 3(x – 6) = (x – 6)(x + 3)
For zeros, (x – 6)(x + 3) = 0 ⇒ x = 6, –3
∴ Option (a) is correct.
–1
(iv) Since, is one zero of given polynomial.
3
–1 2
` 9d n – kd n – 5 = 0
–1

3 3
k
⇒ 1 + –5 = 0 ⇒ k = 4 × 3 = 12

3
∴ Option (c) is correct.

–b 3
(v) a + b = a =
2
∴ Option (d) is correct.

6. (i) parabola
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) Given polynomial = x2 + 2x – 3 = x2 + 3x – x – 3
= x(x + 3) –1(x + 3) = (x + 3)(x – 1)
For zeros, (x +3)(x –1) = 0
x = –3, 1
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(iii) Parabola represents a quadratic polynomial which has atmost two zeros.
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iv) A quadratic polynomial is given by
x2 – (sum of zeros) x + product of zeros = x2 – 6x – 16

∴ Option (c) is correct.

(v) f(x) = x2 – 8
For zeros, x2 – 8 = 0 ⇒ x2 = 8
⇒ x = ! 8 = ! 2 2 (two zeros)
∴ Option (c) is correct.

7. (i) Linear polynomial
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) Equation of given graph is x = 2, it is a line parallel to y-axis intersecting x-axis at (2, 0).
∴ Option (a) is correct.


(iii) It has one zero, since it is a linear polynomial.
∴ Option (b) is correct.


(iv) If the graph would be parallel to x-axis it would have no zero, as it will not intersect x-axis at
any point.
∴ Option (a) is correct.

1
(v) Let the zeros of given polynomial are a and .
a
1 m m
Then a × a =
3
& 1=
3
& m=3

∴ Option (b) is correct.

36 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 8. (i) The string is in the shape of a parabola.
So, it represents quadratic polynomial.
∴ Option (b) is correct.


(ii) The number of zeros of a cubic polynomial is atmost 3.
∴ Option (d) is correct.

(iii) Let the zeros of given polynomial be a and 5a.

⇒ Sum of zeros = 6a = 12

⇒ a = 2
Product of zeros = 5a2 = (3k – 1)
21
⇒ 5 × 4 = 3k –1 ⇒ k = =7
3
∴ Option (d) is correct.

(iv) Only 2x2 + 3x – 6 = 0 is a quadratic equation out of the given equations.

So, option (d) is correct.
(v) Given polynomial = 6x2 – 3 – 7x
= 6x2 – 7x – 3
= 6x2 – 9x + 2x – 3
= 3x(2x – 3) + 1(2x – 3)

For zeros, (2x – 3)(3x + 1) = 0
3 –1
⇒
x= ,
2 3
∴ Option (c) is correct.

9. (i) The shape formed is a parabola.
∴ Options (a) is correct.


(ii) A quadratic polynomial is represented by a parabola graphically.
∴ Option (b) is correct.


(iii) Since 3 is one of the zero, so
(3)2 + k(3) – 15 = 0
⇒ 9 + 3k – 15 = 0
6
⇒ k = =2
3
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(iv) Let a and – a be the zeros of given polynomial.

–b
Then sum of zeros = a + (– a) =
a
–b
⇒
0= b=0
a
∴ Option (d) is correct.

(v) A quadratic polynomial has atmost two zeros, i.e., may intersect x-axis at only one point also.
Option (b) is correct.

Polynomials 37
 SOLUTIONS OF ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
1. As irrational roots/zeros always occurs in pairs therefore, when one zero is 2 – 3 then other will
be 2 + 3 . So, both A and R are correct and R explains A.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
2. As the polynomial is x2 – 2kx + 2 and its zeros are equal but opposition sign
– ( – 2k)
∴ Sum of zeros = 0 = = 0 ⇒ 2k = 0  ⇒  k = 0
1
So, A is incorrect but R is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
3. The highest power of x in the polynomial p(x) = 14x3 – 2x2 + 8x4 + 7x – 8 is 4.
∴ Degree of p(x) is 4. So, A is incorrect but R is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.
4. As the number of zeroes of polynomial f(x) is the number of points at which f(x) cuts (intersects)
the x-axis and number of zero in the given figure is 4. So A is correct but R is incorrect.
Y

X
O

Fig. 2.19

Hence, option (c) is correct.

zzz

38 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 PAIR OF LINEAR
3 EQUATIONS IN
TWO VARIABLES

BASIC CONCEPTS & FORMULAE

1. Algebraic expression: A combination of constants and variables, connected by four fundamental
arithmetical operations +, – , × and ÷ is called algebraic expression.
For example, 3x3 + 4xy – 5y2 is an algebraic expression.
2. Equation: An algebraic expression with equal to sign (=) is called the equation. Without an equal
to sign, it is an expression only.
For example, 3x + 9 = 0 is an equation, but only 3x + 9 is an expression.
3. Linear equation: If the greatest exponent of the variable(s) in an equation is one, the equation is
said to be a linear equation(s).
4. If the number of variables used in linear equation is one, then equation is said to be linear equation
in one variable.
For example, 3x + 4 = 0, 3y + 15 = 0; 2t + 15 = 0; and so on.
5. If the number of variables used in linear equation is two, equation is said to be linear equation in
two variables.
For example, 3x + 2y =12; 4x + 6z = 24, 3y + 4t =15, etc.
Thus, equations of the form ax + by + c = 0, where a, b, c are non-zero real numbers (i.e., a, b ≠ 0)
are called linear equations in two variables.
6. Solution: Solution(s) is/are the value/values for the variable(s) used in equation which make(s) the
two sides of the equation equal.
7. Two linear equations of the form ax + by + c = 0, taken together form a system of linear equations,
and pair of values of x and y satisfying each one of the given equation is called a solution of the
system.
8. To get the solution of simultaneous linear equations two methods are used:
(i) Graphical method (ii) Algebraic method
9. Graphical Method
(a) If two or more pair of values for x and y which satisfy the given equation are joined on paper,
we get the graph of the given equation.
(b) Every solution x = a, y =b (where a and b are real numbers), of the given equation determines
a point (a, b) which lies on the graph of line.
(c) Every point (c, d) lying on the line determines a solution x = c, y = d of the given equation.
Thus, line is known as the graph of the given equation.
c
(d) When a ≠ 0, b = 0 and c ≠ 0 then the equation ax + by + c = 0 becomes ax + c = 0 or x = – a
then the graph of this equation is a straight line parallel to y-axis and passing through a point
b– , 0l .
c
a

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 39

 c
(e) When a = 0, b ≠ 0 and c ≠ 0 then the equation ax + by + c = 0 becomes by + c = 0 or y = – a
then the graph of the equation is a straight line parallel to x-axis and passing through the
point c0, – m .
c
b
(f) When a ≠ 0, b = 0 and c = 0 then the equation is ax = 0 or x = 0. Then the graph is y-axis
itself.
(g) When a = 0, b ≠ 0, and c = 0 then equation becomes by = 0 or y = 0. Then the graph of this
equation is x-axis it self.
(h) When only c = 0 then the equation becomes ax + by = 0. Then the graph of this equation is a
line passing through the origin.
(i) The graph of x = constant is a line parallel to the y-axis.
(j) The graph of y = constant is a line parallel to the x-axis.
(k) The graph of y = ± x is a line passing through the origin.
(l) The graph of a pair of linear equations in two variables is represented by two lines.
(i) If the lines intersect at a point, then that point gives the unique solution of the two
equations. In this case, the pair of equations is consistent.
(ii) If the lines coincide, then there are infinitely many solutions—each point on the line
being a solution. In this case, the pair of equations is also consistent.
(iii) If the lines are parallel, then the pair of equations has no solution. In this case, the pair
of equations is inconsistent.
10. Algebraic Method
(a) Substitution Method
(b) Method of Elimination
11. Conditions for solvability (or consistency)
If a pair of linear equations is given by a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0, then the following
situations can arise :
a1 b1
(i) a !
2 b 2
In this case, the pair of linear equations has a unique solution (consistent pair of equations)
a1 b1 c1
(ii) a = ! c
2 b 22

In this case, the pair of linear equations has no solution (inconsistent pair of equations)
a1 b1 c1
(iii) a = = c
2 b 2
2
In this case, the pair of linear equations has infinitely many solutions [consistent pair of equations].

MULTIPLE
CHOICE QUESTIONS
Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.
1. The value of k for which the lines represented by the following pair of linear equations are
coincident is
2x + 3y + 7 = 0
8x + 12y + k = 0

40 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (a) all real values except 14 (b) 8
(c) 28 (d) 14
2. The value of a for which the pair of equations 10x + 5y = a – 5, 20x + 10y – a = 0 has infinitely
many solutions is
(a) 5 (b) –10 (c) 10 (d) 20
3. If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 8 and 2x + 5y – 4 = 0 are parallel, then the value of k is
–5 15 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 4 5 2
4. The value of k for which the pair of equation kx – y = 2 and 6x – 2y = 3 has unique solution
(a) k = 3 (b) k ≠ 3 (c) k ≠ 0 (d) k = 0
5. If a pair of linear equations has infinitely many solutions, then the lines representing them
will be
(a) parallel (b) intersecting or coincident
(c) always intersecting (d) always coincident
3x 5y
6. The pair of linear equations + = 7 and 9x + 10y = 14 is [CBSE 2020 (30/5/1)]
2 3
(a) consistent (b) inconsistent
(c) consistent with one solution (d) consistent with many solutions
7. The pair of linear equations x = 0 and x = – 4 has [CBSE 2020 (30/4/1)]
(a) a unique solution (b) no solution
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) only solution (0, 0)
8. The pair of linear equations y = 0 and y = – 6 has [CBSE 2020 (30/4/1)]
(a) a unique solution (b) no solution
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) only solution (0, 0)
9. The value of k, for which the pair of linear equations kx + y = k2 and x + ky = 1 have infinitely
many solutions is [CBSE 2020 (30/3/1)]
(a) ±1 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) 2
10. The value of k for which the system of linear equations x + 2y = 3, 5x + ky + 7 = 0 is
inconsistent is [CBSE 2020 (30/2/1)]
14 2
(a) – (b) (c) 5 (d) 10
3 5
11. The value of k for which the system of equations x + y – 4 = 0 and 2x + ky = 3, has no solution,
is [CBSE 2020 (30/1/1)]
(a) – 2 (b) ≠ 2 (c) 3 (d) 2
12. For which value(s) of p, will the lines represented by the following pair of linear equations be
parallel?
3x − y − 5 = 0
6x − 2y − p = 0 [CBSE Sample Paper 2020]
(a) all real values except 10 (b) 10
5 1
(c) (d)
2 2
13. The value of k for which the lines (k + 1) x + 3ky + 15 = 0 and 5x + ky + 5 = 0 are coincident is
(a) 14 (b) 2 (c) –14 (d) –2

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 41

 14. If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 8 and 2x + 5y – 4 = 0 are parallel, then the value of k is
–5 15 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 4 5 2
15. If the lines given by 3 x + 2 ky = 2 and 2x + 5y + 1 = 0 are parallel, then value of k is
[NCERT Exemplar]
–5 2 15 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 5 4 2
16. The value of k for which the system of equations x + 2y – 3 = 0 and 5x + ky + 7 = 0 has no
solution, is
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) None of these
17. Consider a pair of equations as shown.
5 7 31
+ =
x + 2 y + 2 12
4 3 17
+ =
x + 2 y + 2 12
What is the value of x and y? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) x = 2 and y = 4 (b) x = 3 and y = 4
(c) x = 4 and y = 2 (d) x = 4 and y = 3
18. Consider a pair of equations as shown.
7 2 33
+ =
x+2 y – 2 20
2 6 23
+ =
x+2 y – 2 20
Which of these pair of equations is equivalent to the given pair of equations?
[CBSE Question Bank]
33 23 33 23
(a) 7u + 2v = and 2u + 6v = (b) 7u + 6v = and 2u + 2v =
20 20 20 20
20 20 33 23
(c) 7u + 2v = and 2u + 6v = (d) 2u + 6v = and 7u + 2v =
33 23 20 20
19. Consider the equations as shown:

(x – a) (y – b) = (x – 2a) d y – n
b
2
o + y d y + n – 2xy = 5 + (x – y) 2
1 a
xe x +
2b 2
On comparing the coefficients, a student says these pairs of equations is consistent. Is he/she
correct? Which of these explains why? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) Yes; because they are parallel lines. (b) Yes; because they are intersecting lines.
(c) No; because they are parallel lines. (d) No; because they are intersecting lines.
20. Consider the equations as shown:
9x + 6y = 5
3x + 2y = 7
Which of these is true about the given equations? [CBSE Question Bank]
a1 b1 c1
(a) This is a pair of coincident lines as a = = c .
2 b2 2

42 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 a1 b1 c1
(b) This is a pair of parallel lines as a = ! c .
2 b2 2

a1 b1
(c) This is a pair of Intersecting lines as a = .
2 b2
a1 b1
(d) This is a pair of coincident lines as a = .
2 b2
21. Naveen wants to plant some saplings in columns. If he increases the number of saplings in a
column by 4, the number of columns decreases by 1. If he decreases the number of saplings
by 5 in a column, the number of columns increased by 2.
Which of these graphs relates the number, x, of columns and the number, y, of plants in a
column? [CBSE Question Bank]
Y Y
25 25

20 20

15 15

10 10

5 5

(a) X′
–10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10 X (b) X′–10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10
X
–5
–5

–10 –10

–15 –15

–20 –20

–25 –25
Y′ Y′
Y Y
25 25

20 20

15 15

10 10

5 5

(c)
X′ X (d) X′–10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10
X
–10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10
–5 –5

–10 –10

–15 –15

–20 –20

–25 –25
Y′ Y′

22. Shipra gave a note of ™ 2,000 for a pair of jeans worth ™ 500. She was returned 11 notes in
denominations of ™ 200 and ™ 100. Which pair of equations can be used to find the number
of ™ 200 notes, x, and the number of ™ 100 notes y? How many notes of ™ 200 did she get?
[CBSE Question Bank]
(a) x+y = 11 and 200x+100y = 1500; 4 (b) x = y+11 and 200x+100y = 2000; 4
(c) x+y = 15 and 200x+100y = 1800; 10 (d) x+y = 15 and 100x+200y = 1800; 12
23. Consider the equations shown: ax + by = ab & 2ax + 3by = 3b
Which of these is the value of y in terms of a? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) y = 5 − 3a (b) y = 3 – 2a (c) y = 9a − 35 (d) y = 2ab − 3b

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 43

 24. Consider the equations shown. p + q = 5 & p − q = 2.
Which of these are the values of p and q? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) p = 1.5, q = 3.5 (b) p = 3.5, q = 1.5 (c) p = 2, q = 3 (d) p = 3, q = 2
25. In the equations shown below, a and b are unknown constants.
3ax + 4y = −2
2x + by = 14
If (–3, 4) is the solution of the given equations, what are the values of a and b?
[CBSE Question Bank]
(a) a = 5, b = 2 (b) a = 5, b = –2 (c) a = 2, b = 5 (d) a = –2, b = 5
26. Consider the equations shown.
4x + 3y = 41
x + 3y = 26
Which of these is the correct way of solving the given pair of equations? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 4x + x + 3y − 3y = 41 − 26 (b) 4x + 3y + 3y = 41 − 26
(c) 4x − x + 3y − 3y = 41 − 26 (d) 4(x + 3y) + 3y = 41
27. Consider the graph shown. Y
[CBSE Question Bank]
10

8
x+y=5
6

X′ X
–10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10
–2
x–y=2
–4

–6

–8

–10
Y′

Which of these is true about the given graph?

(a) These lines have infinitely many solutions as they lie in the same quadrant.
(b) These lines have a unique solution as they are intersecting at a point.
(c) These lines have a unique solution as the coefficient of x in both the equations is one.
(d) These lines have infinitely many solutions as they lie in the same quadrant.
28. Which of these linear equations have a unique solution? [CBSE Question Bank]
Y Y
10 10

8 8

6 6

4 4
(a) (b) 2
2

X′ X X′ X
–10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10 –10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10

–2 –2

–4 –4

–6 –6

–8 –8

–10 –10
Y′ Y′

44 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 Y Y
10 10

8 8

6 6

4 4

2 2

(c) X′ X (d) X′
–10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10
X
–10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10
–2 –2

–4 –4

–6 –6

–8 –8

–10 –10
Y′ Y′

29. The cost of production per unit for two products, A and B, are ™ 100 and ™ 80 respectively.
In a week, the total production cost is ™ 32000. In the next week, the production cost reduces
by 20%, and the total cost of producing the same number of units of each product is ™ 25600.
Which of these are the equations that can be used to find the number of units of A, x, and the
number of units of B, y? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 100x + 80y = 32000 and 80x + 64y = 25600
(b) 100x + 64y = 32000 and 80x + 100y = 25600
(c) 80x + 64y = 25600 and 80x + 64y = 32000
(d) 80x + 80y = 32000 and 100x + 64y = 25600
30. Raghav earned ™ 3550 by selling some bags each for ™ 500 and some baskets each for ™ 150.
Aarav earned ™ 3400 by selling the same number of bags each for ™ 400 and the same number
of baskets each for ™ 200 as Raghav sold. Which of these equations relates the number of bags
x, and the number of baskets, y? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 500x + 150y = 3400 and 400x + 200y = 3550
(b) 400x + 150y = 3550 and 500x + 200y = 3400
(c) 500x + 150y = 3550 and 400x + 200y = 3400
(d) 500x + 200y = 3550 and 400x + 150y = 3400
31. If x2n – 1 + y m – 4 = 0 is a linear equation, which of these is also a linear equation?
[CBSE Question Bank]
n m
(a) x n + y m = 0 (b) x1/n + y m/5 = 0 (c) x n + 1 2 + y m + 4 = 0 (d) x 5 + y 5 = 0

32. Which of these is a linear equation in two variables? [CBSE Question Bank]
2
(a) 3x – 2y + 2 = 0 (b) x + x – 2y + 8 = 0
2
(c) x – 2y + 10 = x + y (d) 5x – 2y = 0
33. One of the common solution of ax + by = c and y-axis is
(a) (0, c/b) (b) (0, b/c) (c) (c/b, 0) (d) (0, –c/b)
34. Every linear equation in two variables has .............. solutions.
(a) no (b) one (c) two (d) infinitely many
35. Five years hence, fathers age will be three times the age of his daughter. Five years ago father
was seven times as old as his daughter. Their present ages are
(a) 20 years, 10 years (b) 40 years, 20 years
(c) 40 years, 10 years (d) 30 years, 10 years

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 45

 36. Point (4, 3) lies on the line
(a) 3x + 7y = 27 (b) 7x + 2y = 47
(c) 3x + 4y = 24 (d) 5x – 4y =1
37. A boat can row 1 km with stream in 10 minutes and 1 km against the stream in 20 minutes. The
speed of the boat in still water is
(a) 1.5 km/h (b) 3 km/h (c) 3.4 km/h (d) 4.5 km/h
38. The sum of two numbers is 1000 and the difference between their squares is 256000, then the
numbers are
(a) 616 and 384 (b) 628 and 372 (c) 564 and 436 (d) None of them
39. The sum of a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging its digits is 99. If
the digits differ by 3 then the number is
(a) 36 (b) 33 (c) 66 (d) None of them
40. The solution of the equations x + 2y = 1.5 and 2x + y = 1.5 is
(a) x = 1 and y = 1 (b) x = 1.5 and y = 1.5
(c) x = 0.5 and y = 0.5 (d) None of these
41. Sum of two numbers is 35 and their difference is 13, then the numbers are
(a) 24 and 12 (b) 24 and 11 (c) 12 and 11 (d) None of these
42. The value of k for which the system of equations x – 2y = 3 and 3x + ky = 1 has a unique

solution is
(a) k = – 6 (b) k ! – 6 (c) k = 0 (d) no value

43. The sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 12. If the denominator is increased
1
by 3, the fraction becomes , then the fraction is
2
4 5 6 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7 7
44. The coordinates of the vertices of triangle formed between the lines and y-axis from the graph is

Y
6

5 P

0
3 y=
x –2

2 Q

3x
+ 4y
1
S(2, 1) =2
0
O
X′ 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 X
Y′

46 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (a) (0, 5), (0, 0) and (6.5, 0) (b) (4, 2), (6, 0) and (6.5, 0)
(c) (4, 2), (0, 0) and (0, 5) (d) none of these
45. When L1 and L2 are coincident, then the graphical solution of system of linear equation have
(a) infinite number of solutions (b) unique solution
(c) no solution (d) one solution
46. The pair of linear equations 4x + 6y = 9 and 2x + 3y = 6 has
(a) no solution (b) many solutions (c) two solutions (d) one solution
47. Two numbers are in the ratio 1 : 3. If 5 is added to both the numbers, the ratio becomes
1 : 2. The numbers are
(a) 4 and 12 (b) 5 and 15 (c) 6 and 18 (d) 7 and 21
48. The value of c for which the pair of equation cx – y = 2 and 6x – 2y = 3 will have infinitely many
solutions is  [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 3 (b) –3 (c) –12 (d) no value
49. For what value of k, do the equations 3x – y + 8 = 0 and 6x – ky = – 16 represent coincident
lines? [NCERT Exemplar]

1 1
(a) (b) – (c) 2 (d) –2
2 2

50. Gunjan has only ™ 1 and ™ 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and
the amount of money with her is ™ 75, then the number of ™ 1, and ™ 2 coins are respectively
(a) 25 and 25 (b) 15 and 35 (c) 35 and 15 (d) 35 and 20
51. The pair of equations x +2y + 5 = 0 and – 3x – 6y + 1 = 0 have [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) a unique solution (b) exactly two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
52. A pair of linear equations which has a unique solution x = 3, y = –2 is
x + y =1 2x + 5y + 4 = 1 2x – y = 1 x – 4y = 14
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2x – 3y = 12 4x + 10y + 8 = 0 3x + 2y = 0 5x – y = 13
x y
+ = 1 with the coordinate axes is
53. The area of the triangle formed by the line
a b
1 1
(a) ab (b) 2ab (c) ab (d) ab
2 4
54. If 2x – 3y = 7 and (a + b)x – (a + b – 3)y = 4a + b represent coincident lines, then a and b
satisfy the equation
(a) a + 5b = 0 (b) 5a + b = 0 (c) a – 5b = 0 (d) 5a – b = 0
55. Graphically, the pair of equations [NCERT Exemplar]
6x – 3y + 10 = 0; 2x – y + 9 = 0 represents two lines which are
(a) intersecting at exactly one point (b) intersecting at exactly two points
(c) coincident (d) parallel
56. If a pair of linear equations is consistent, then the lines will be [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) parallel (b) always coincident
(c) intersecting or coincident (d) always intersecting

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 47

 57. The pair of equations y = 0 and y = –7 has [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) one solution (b) two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
58. The pair of equations x = a and y = b graphically represents lines which are
 [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) parallel (b) intersecting at (b, a) (c) coincident (d) intersecting at (a, b)
59. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 is added to it, the digit of number get
reversed. The number is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 25 (b) 72 (c) 63 (d) 36
24
60. The pair of equations 5 x – 15y = 8 and 3x – 9 y = has [NCERT Exemplar]
5
(a) one solution (b) two solutions
(c) infinite solutions (d) no solution
61. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years hence, the age of the father will be four
times his son. The present ages (in years) of the son and the father are, respectively.
 [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 4 and 24 (b) 5 and 30 (c) 6 and 36 (d) 3 and 24
62. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the equations x – y = 2 and x + y = 4, then the values of a and
b are, respectively [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 5 and 3 (c) 3 and 1 (d) –1 and –3
63. If am ≠ bl, then the system of equations, ax + by = c, lx + my = n
(a) has a unique solution (b) has no solution
(c) has infinitely many solutions (d) may or may not have a solution

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (c)
37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (b)
43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (c)
55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a)

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Amit is planning to buy a house and the layout is given figure. The design and the measurement
has been made such that areas of two bedrooms and kitchen together is 95 sq.m.
[CBSE Question Bank]

48 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 x 2m y
Bedroom 1 Bath Kitchen
5m room
2m
Living Room
5m Bedroom 2

15 m

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) The pair of linear equations in two variables from this situation are
(a) x + y = 19 (b) 2x + y = 19 (c) 2x + y = 19 (d) none of these
x + y = 13 x + 2y = 13 x + y = 13
(ii) The length of the outer boundary of the layout is
(a) 50 m (b) 52 m (c) 54 m (d) 56 m
(iii) The area of each bedroom and kitchen in the layout is
(a) 30 m2, 40 m2 (b) 30 m2, 35 m2 (c) 30 m2, 45 m2 (d) 35 m2, 45 m2
(iv) The area of living room in the layout is
(a) 60 m2 (b) 75 m2 (c) 80 m2 (d) 100 m2
(v) The cost of laying tiles in kitchen at the rate of ™50 per sq.m is
(a) ™1700 (b) ™1800 (c) ™1900 (d) ™1750

2. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
It is common that governments revise travel fares from time to time based on various factors
such as inflation (a general increase in prices and fall in the purchasing value of money) on
different types of vehicles like auto, rickshaws, taxis, radio cab etc. The auto charges in a city
comprise of a fixed charge together with the charge for the distance covered. Study the following
situations: [CBSE Question Bank]

Name of the city Distance travelled (km) Amount paid (`)

City A 10 75
15 110
City B 8 91
14 145

Situation 1: In city A, for a journey of 10 km, the charge paid is `75 and for a journey of 15 km,
the charge paid is `110.
Situation 2: In a city B, for a journey of 8 km, the charge paid is `91 and for a journey of 14 km,
the charge paid is `145.

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 49

 Refer situation 1
(i) If the fixed charges of auto rickshaw be ™ x and the running charges be ™ y per km, the
pair of linear equations representing the situation is
(a) x + 10y =110, x + 15y = 75 (b) x + 10y =75, x + 15y = 110
(c) 10x + y =110, 15x + y = 75 (d) 10x + y = 75, 15 x + y =110
(ii) A person travels a distance of 50 km. The amount he has to pay is
(a) `155 (b) `255 (c) `355 (d) `455

Refer situation 2
(iii) What will a person have to pay for travelling a distance of 30 km?
(a) ™185 (b) ™289 (c) ™275 (d) ™305
(iv) The graph of lines representing the conditions are: (situation 2)
(a) (b)

25 (20, 25) 25
20 20
15 15
10 10 (0, 10) (20, 10)
5 (0, 5) (30, 5) 5
(12.5, 0)
−5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 −5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
−5 −5
−10 −10 (5, −10) (25, −10)

(c) (d)
12
25
10 (19, 9)
20
8
15 (15, 15)
6 (35, 10)
4 10
5
2

−5 0 30 60 90120150 −5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
−5 −5
(15, −5)
−10 −10

(v) Out of both the city, which one has cheaper fare?
(a) City A (b) City A (c) Both are same (d) cannot decided

3. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A test consists of ‘True’ or ‘False’ questions. One mark is awarded for every correct answer while
¼ mark is deducted for every wrong answer. A student knew correct answers of some of the
questions. Rest of the questions he attempted by guessing. He answered 120 questions and got
90 marks. [CBSE Question Bank]

Marks given for Marks deducted for

Type of Question
correct answer wrong answer

True/False 1 0.25

50 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (i) If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were wrong, then number of questions
did he answer correctly are
(a) 90 (b) 100 (c) 96 (d) 105
(ii) Number of questions did he guess are
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 30
(iii) If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were wrong and answered 80 correctly,
then how many marks will he get?
(a) 60 (b) 70 (c) 80 (d) 90
(iv) If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were wrong, then how many questions
were answered correctly to score 95 marks?
(a) 90 (b) 95 (c) 98 (d) 100
(v) The maximum marks that a student can score is
(a) 110 (b) 115 (c) 120 (d) 125

4.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).

A man is trying to choose between two phone plans. The first plan of company A, cost
` 20 per month, with calls costing an additional 25 paise per minute.
The second plan of company B charges ` 40 per month, but calls cost 8 paise per minute. These
two situations are shown below which represent linear equations.
The total cost for the two company’s are given by
y = 0.25x + 20
and y = 0.08x + 40
where x is the minutes used and y is the total cost per month.

Y
Company A
Cost per month

80
Company B
60
40
20

X′ X
O 30 60 90 120 150 180
Y′ Minutes used

(i) If a person takes first plan and calls for 90 minutes in a month then how much amount
he will have to pay whose cost for a month is given by y = 0.25x + 20?
(a) ` 20 (b) ` 40 (c) ` 42.50 (d) ` 45
(ii) Another person takes second plan and also calls for 90 minutes in a month, then the
amount which he has to pay when total cost is given by y = 0.08x + 40, is
(a) ` 45 (b) ` 47 (c) ` 45.20 (d) ` 47.20
(iii) Solution of system of linear equations x + 2y = – 1 and 2x – 3y = 12 is
(a) (–3, 2) (b) (–3, –2) (c) (3, – 2) (d) (3, 2)
(iv) If the system of pair of linear equations kx + 2y = 5, 3x + y = 1 has a unique solution,
then
3 2
(a) k ! (b) k = 6 (c) k ≠ 6 (d) k !
2 3

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 51

 (v) Given system of linear equations x + 2y – 4 = 0, 2x + 4y – 12 = 0 represents
(a) parallel lines (b) intersecting lines
(c) coincident lines (d) can’t say
5. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).

A cricket bat manufacturer’s revenue is the function used to calculate the amount of money that
comes into the business. It can be represented by the equation R = xp, where x = quantity and
p = price.
The revenue function is shown in orange colour in the figure. The cost function is the function
used to calculate the costs of doing business. It includes fixed costs, such as rent and salaries, and
variable costs such as utilities. The cost function is shown in blue colour in figure.
Y

r
ou
ol
140

ec
Blue colour

ng
ra
O
120
y= 100x + 30000

Money (in thousands rupees)

100

80

60

0x
y= 15
40

20

X
O 5 10 15 20 25 30
Quantity (in hundred)

The x-axis represents quantity (in hundreds) of units, and the y-axis represents either cost or
revenue (in thousand of rupees).
The profit function is the difference of revenue function and the cost function, written as
P(x) = R(x) – C(x)
Now, let C(x) = 100x + 30000 and R(x) = 150x
If we replace function by y, we get
Linear equations are y = 100x + 30000
and
y = 150x
(i) The number of bat manufactured (x) so that there is no profit or loss for the manufacturer is
(a) x = 200 (b) x = 300 (c) x = 400 (d) x = 600
(ii) If the cost and revenue are given by the linear equations y = 0.85x + 35000 and y = 1.55x
respectively, and the break-even point is the point at which the two lines intersect, then
its break even point is
(a) (50000, 77500) (b) (50000, 60000) (c) (45000, 50000) (d) (45000, 60000)
(iii) The system of linear equations 3x + 2y = 12, 5x – 2y = 4 represents
(a) parallel lines (b) intersecting lines
(c) coincident lines (d) can’t say
(iv) Solution of the system of linear equations x + y = 1, 2x – 3y = 7, is
(a) (1, 2) (b) (2, 1) (c) (2, –1) (d) (–2, –1)
(v) The value of k for which the system of linear equations 4x + 5y = 3 and kx + 15y = 9 has
infinitely many solutions is
(a) k = 3 (b) k = 4 (c) k = 12 (d) k = 8

52 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 6. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
The scissors which is so common in our daily life use, its blades represent the graph of linear
equations.

(0,2)

1
X′ X
0 1 2 3 4 5 (6,0)
–1
–2

–3

D(0,–4)

Y′

Let the blades of a scissor are represented by the system of linear equations:
x + 3y = 6 and 2x – 3y = 12
(i) The pivot point (point of intersection) of the blades represented by the linear equation
x + 3y = 6 and 2x – 3y = 12 of the scissor is
(a) (2, 3) (b) (6, 0) (c) (3, 2) (d) (2, 6)
(ii) The points at which linear equations x + 3y = 6 and 2x – 3y = 12 intersect y – axis
respectively are
(a) (0, 2) and (0, 6) (b) (0, 2) and (6, 0)
(c) (0, 2) and (0, –4) (d) (2, 0) and (0, –4)
(iii) The number of solution of the system of linear equations x + 2y – 8 = 0 and 2x + 4y = 16 is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) infinitely many
(iv) If (1, 2) is the solution of linear equations ax + y = 3 and 2x + by = 12, then values of a
and b are respectively
(a) 1, 5 (b) 2, 3 (c) –1, 5 (d) 3, 5
(v) If a pair of linear equations in two variables is consistent, then the lines represented by
two equations are
(a) intersecting (b) parallel
(c) always coincident (d) intersecting or coincident
7.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A pen stand with a pen is represented by the system of linear equations y = 0 and 3x + 2y = 6.
Y

3
3x
+2

2
y=

1
6

X′ X
0 1 2 3
Y′

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 53

 (i) The system of linear equations y = 0 and 3x + 2y = 6 represents the pen stand and a pen
respectively then their point of contact (intersection) is
(a) (0, 3) (b) (2, 0) (c) (3, 2) (d) (3, 0)
(ii) The pair of linear equation y = x and x + y = 6 intersect each other at point
(a) (4, 2) (b) (4, 4) (c) (3, 3) (d) (3, 2)
(iii) The system of linear equations 3x + 6y = 3900 and x + 3y = 1300 represent the lines
which are
(a) parallel (b) intersecting (c) coincident (d) can’t say
(iv) The value of k for which the system of equations kx – 5y = 2 and 6x + 2y = 7 has no
solution, is
(a) 30 (b) –30 (c) 15 (d) –15
(v) The linear equation 3x + 2y = 6 intersects the y–axis at the point
(a) (0, 3) (b) (0, 2) (c) (0, –3) (d) (2, 3)
8. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).

A boy enjoying the pizza with his friends and share with them by slicing it. During slicing the
pizza, he noticed that the pair of linear equations formed.
Let these pair of linear equations be y – 2x = 1 and 5y – x = 14. [CBSE Question Bank]

Y
=14
5y–x
3
2
1

X′ X
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3
–1
–2

y–2x=1–3

Y′

(i) The point of intersection of the lines given by the equations y – 2x = 1 and 5y – x = 14 is
(a) (–2, 3) (b) (–4, 2) (c) (6, 4) (d) (1, 3)
(ii) The linear equation y – 2x = 1 intersect the y–axis at point
1 14
(a) d – , 0 n (b) (0, 1) (c) (0, –14) (d) d 0, n
2 5
(iii) The system of linear equations 2x – 3y + 6 = 0 and 2x + 3y – 18 = 0
(a) has a unique solution (b) has no solution
(c) has infinitely many solution (d) may or may not have a solution
(iv) The value(s) of k for which the system of linear equations 2x – ky + 3 = 0 and 3x + 2y – 1 = 0
has no solution, is
4 4
(a) (b) – (c) 6 (d) –6
3 3
(v) If a pair of linear equations in two variables is inconsistent, then the lines represented by
two equations are
(a) intersecting (b) parallel
(c) always coincident (d) Intersecting or coincident

54 Mathematics–X: Term–1
Answers
1. (i) (c) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (b) (v) (d)
2. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (c) (v) (a)
3. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (b) (iv) (d) (v) (c)
4. (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (c) (iv) (c) (v) (a)
5. (i) (d) (ii) (a) (iii) (b) (iv) (c) (v) (c)
6. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (a) (v) (d)

7. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (d) (v) (a)
8. (i) (d) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (b) (v) (b)

ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements—Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A) : Pair of linear equations: 9x + 3y + 12 = 0, 18x + 6y + 24 = 0 have infinitely

many solutions.
Reason (R) : Pair of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 have infinitely
a1 b1 c1
many solutions, if a = = c .
2 b 2 2
2. Assertion (A) : For k = 6, the system of linear equations x + 2y + 3 = 0 and 3x + ky + 6 = 0 is
inconsistent.
Reason (R) : The system of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 is
inconsistent if
a1 b1 c1
a2 = b = c2 .
2

3. Assertion (A) : The value of q = ! 2 , if x = 3, y = 1 is the solution of the line 2x + y – q2 – 3 = 0.

Reason (R) : The solution of the line will satisfy the equation of the line.
4. Assertion (A) : The value of k for which the system of equations kx – y = 2, 6x – 2y = 3 has a
unique solution is 3.
Reason (R) : The system of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 has a
a1 b1
unique solution if a ! .
2 b 2

Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d)

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 55

 HINTS/SOLUTIONS OF SELECTED MCQs
1. For lines to be coincident, we have
a1 b1 c1 2 3 7
a2 = b2 = c2 ⇒ = =
8 12 k
1 1 7
⇒
= = ⇒ k = 7 × 4 = 28 ∴ k = 28
4 4 k
∴ Option (c) is correct.

2.
For infinitely many solutions, we have
a1 b1 c1 10 5 – ( a – 5)
a2 = b2 = c2 ⇒ = = –a
20 10
1 a–5
⇒ = a ⇒ a = 2a – 10
2
⇒ a – 2a = – 10 ⇒ – a = – 10 ⇒ a = 10

∴ Option (c) is correct.
3. Since two lines are parallel.
a1 b1 c1 3 2k –8
Therefore, a = ! ⇒ = !
2 b2 c2 2 5 –4
15 15
⇒
2k = ⇒ k =
2 4
∴ Option (b) is correct.

4.
For unique solution, we have
a1 b1 k –1
a2 ! b2 ⇒ !
6 –2
k 1 6
⇒
! ⇒ k! =3 ⇒ k≠3
6 2 2
∴ Option (b) is correct.

6. Given pair of linear equations,
3x 5
+ y–7 =
0
2 3
and, 9x + 10y – 14 = 0
a1 3 1 b1 5 1 c1 –7 1
∴
= = =
, = and = =
a2 2 × 9 6 b2 3 × 10 6 c2 –14 2

a1 b1 c1
∴
= ≠
a2 b2 c2
∴ Both lines are parallel.

Hence, there is no solution and the given system of equations is inconsistent.
∴ Option (b) is correct.

7. Since the lines x = 0 and x = – 4 are parallel to each other, therefore there is no solution for the
given pair of equations.
∴ Option (b) is correct.

56 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 8. Given pair of linear equations y = 0 and y = – 6 are parallel lines, therefore it has no solution.
∴ Option (b) is correct.

9. Given pair of linear equations,
k x + y = k2 k x + y – k2 = 0
⇒
and x + k y = 1 ⇒ x + k y – 1 = 0
For infinitely many solutions,
a1 b1 c1 k 1 –k2
a2 = = c2 ⇒ = =
b2 1 k –1
1 1
⇒ k =
= k2 ⇒ k=
k k
⇒ k2 = 1 ⇒ k = ±1
and k3 = 1   ⇒ k = 1
∴ k = 1

Also, when k = k2  ⇒  k(k – 1) = 0  ⇒  k = 0, 1
Hence common value of k = 1.
∴ k = 1 is the required value of k.

∴ Option (b) is correct.

10. Given system of linear equations
x + 2y = 3 and 5
x + ky + 7 = 0
⇒ x + 2y – 3 = 0 and 5
x +ky + 7 = 0
For inconsistent, we have
a1 b1 c1 1 2 –3 1 2
a2 = b ! c2 ⇒ = ! & = ⇒ k = 10
2
5 k 7 5 k

∴ Option (d) is correct.

11. Given system of equations:
x + y – 4 = 0 and 2x + ky – 3 = 0
For no solution
a1 b1 c1 1 1 –4
=
a2 b ! c2 & 2
= !
k –3
⇒ k=2
2
∴ Option (d) is correct.

12. For pair of linear equations to be parallel, we have

a1 b1 c1
a2 = b ] c2
2

3 –1 5 1 1 5
⇒
= ] ⇒
= ] ⇒ p ≠ 10
6 –2 p 2 2 p
∴ Option (a) is correct.

13. Given lines,
(k + 1) x + 3ky + 15 = 0 ...(i)
5x + ky + 5 = 0 ...(ii)
For both lines to be coincident, we have
k+1 3k 15
= =
5 k 5

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 57

 k+1
&

5
= 3 & k + 1 = 15 & k = 15 – 1 = 14
` k = 14

` Option (a) is correct.
14. Since two lines are parallel.
a1 b1 c1 3 2k –8
Therefore, a = ! c ⇒ = !
2 b2 2 2 5 –4
15 15
⇒ 2k = ⇒ k =
2 4
∴ Option (b) is correct.
16. For no solution; we have
a1 b1 c1 1 2 –3
a2 = b2 ! c2 ⇒ = ! ⇒ k = 10
5 k 7
∴ Option (b) is correct.

17. Given system of equations
5 7 31
+ =
x + 2 y + 2 12
4 3 17
+ =
x + 2 y + 2 12
1 1
Let = u and =v
x+2 y+2
\ Equations becomes

31
5u + 7v = ...(i) × 3
12
17
4u + 3v = ...(ii) × 7
12
   – – =–
–26 1
– 13u   = & u=
12 6
1
Putting the value of u = in equation (i), we get
6
1 31
5 × + 7v =
6 12
31 5 21 1
⇒
7v = – = ⇒ v=
12 6 12 4
1 1 1
\ u =

6
& =
x+2 6
& x +2=6 & x = 4
1 1 1
and v =
4
& =
y+2 4
& y+2= 4 & y=2
\ Option (c) is correct.
18. Given pair of linear equations
7 2 33 2 6 23
+ = and + =  
x + 2 y – 2 20 x + 2 y – 2 20
1 1
Let = u and =v
x+2 y–2
We get
33 23
7u + 2v = and 2u + 6v =
20 20

58 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 Hence, the equivalent pair of equations are
33 23
7u + 2v = and 2u + 6v =
20 20
\ Option (a) is correct.
19. Given equations,
(x – a) (y – b) = (x – 2a) d y – n
b

2
bx
⇒
xy – bx – ay + ab = xy – – 2ay + ab
2
bx
⇒
– ay = 0
2
⇒
bx – 2ay = 0 ...(i)

x e x + o + y d y + n – 2xy = 5 + (x – y)2
1 a
Also,
2b 2
x ay
⇒
x2 + + y2 + – 2xy = 5 + x2 + y2 – 2xy
2b 2
x ay
⇒
+ =5
2b 2
x + aby
⇒
=5
2b
⇒
x + aby = 10b ...(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii), we have
bx – 2ay = 0 ...(i)
x + aby = 10b ...(ii) × b
  – – = –
– a(2 + b2)y = –10b2
10b2
⇒
y =
a (b 2 + 2)
From (i), we have
10b2 20b2
bx = 2ay = 2a × 2
= 2
a ( b + 2) b + 2
20b
⇒
x = 2
b +2
20b
\
Point of intersection is x = 2
b +2
10b2
⇒
y =
a (b 2 + 2)
Hence, these two lines are intersecting lines.
\ Option (b) is correct.
20. Given equations of lines
9x + 6y = 5 & 9x + 6y – 5 = 0
and 3x + 2y = 7 & 3x + 2y – 7 = 0
a1 9 b1 6 c1 –5 5
Now, a = = 3, = = 3 and c = =
2 3 b2 2 2 –7 7
a1 b1 c1
\ a2 = b2 ! c2

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 59

 \ This is a pair of parallel lines.

Thus, option (b) is correct.
21. We have x columns and in each column there are y plants.
\ Total number of plants = xy

According to question,
(y + 4) (x – 1) = xy
4x – y = 4 ...(i)
and (y – 5) (x + 2) = xy
5x – 2y = –10 ...(ii)
On solving equation (i) and (ii), we have
4x – y = 4 ...(i) × 2
5x – 2y = –10 ...(ii)
   – + = +
3x = 18
18
⇒ x = =6
3
Putting the value of x = 6 in equation (i), we get
4 × 6 – y = 4
⇒
24 – 4 = y ⇒ y = 20
\ Point of intersection is x = 6 and y = 20.

The graph shown in the option (c) is correct since both lines intersect at (6, 20) or x = 6, y = 20.
\ Option (c) is correct.
22. Since total number of notes is 11.
\ x + y = 11
...(i)
and remaining amount = 2000 – 500
200x + 100y = 1500 ...(ii)
From equations (i) × 100 – (ii), we get
100x + 100y – 200x – 100y = 1100 – 1500
⇒
– 100x = – 400
⇒
x = 4
\ Option (a) is correct.
23. Given equations,
We have ax + by = ab ...(i) × 2
2ax + 3by = 3b ...(ii)
    – – = –
–by = 2ab – 3b
⇒ y = 3 – 2a

\ Option (b) is correct.
24. Given equations,
p + q = 5 ...(i)
p – q = 2 ...(ii)
On adding (i) and (ii), we get
7
⇒ 2p = 7
⇒ p = = 3.5
2

60 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 Putting the value of p = 3.5 in equation (i), we have
⇒ 3.5 + q = 5
⇒ q = 5 – 3.5 ⇒ q = 1.5
\ p = 3.5 and q = 1.5

\ Option (b) is correct.
25. Given system of equations:
3ax + 4y = –2 ...(i)
2x + by = 14 ...(ii)
Since, (–3, 4) is the solution of the system of equations.
\ From equation (i), we have
⇒
3a × (– 3) + 4 × 4 = – 2
⇒
– 9a + 16 = – 2
⇒ 9a = 18
⇒ a = 2
From equation (ii), we have
⇒
2 × (– 3) + b × 4 = 14
⇒
4b = 14 + 6
⇒ 4b = 20
⇒ b = 5
\ a = 2 and b = 5

\ Option (c) is correct.
26. Given system of equations:
4x + 3y = 41 ...(i)
x + 3y = 26 ...(ii)
To eliminate y, we subtract (ii) from (i), we get
(4x – x) + 3y – 3y = 41 – 26
\ Option (c) is correct..
27. Since in the given graph, two lines intersect at a point so it has a unique solution.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
28. Option (b) is correct, because in this graph two lines intersect at a point. So, it has a unique
solution.
29. Initially, total production costs for two products A and B is given by
100x + 80y = 32000
After reducing 20% production cost, we have
Total production costs = 25600
80x + 64y = 25600
\ Option (a) is correct.
30. Raghav earned ™3,550 by selling x bags and y baskets.
\ 500x + 150y = 3550

And, Aarav earned ™3400 by selling same number of bags and baskets.
\ 400x + 200y = 3400

\ Option (c) is correct.
31. Given, x2n – 1 + y m – 4 = 0 is a linear equation.
1
\ 2n = 1 and m – 4 = 1 ⇒ n = and m = 5
2
1 m 1 5
\ x 2n + y 5 = 0
⇒ x1 + y 5 = 0

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 61

 ⇒ x + y = 0 is a linear equation.

\ Option (b) is correct.
32. Any equation of the form ax + by + c = 0 (where a, b ≠ 0) is called linear equation in two

variables, where a, b and c are constants.
\ 5x – 2y = 0 is a linear equation in two variables.
\ Option (d) is correct.
33. Given equation is ax + by = c and y-axis.
Equation of y-axis = x = 0
From given equation a×0 + by = c
c
& 0 + by = c & y = b
∴ Option (a) is correct.
34. Every linear equation in two variables has infinitely many solutions.
∴ Option (d) is correct.
35. Let the present age of father be x years and that of daughter be y years.
Five years hence.
Father’s age = (x + 5) years
Daughter’s age = (y + 5)
From question,
x + 5 = 3 ( y + 5)
x – 3y = 10 … (i)
Five years ago
Father’s age = (x – 5) years
Daughter’s age = (y – 5) years
From question,
x – 5 = 7 ( y – 5)
⇒ x – 7y = – 30 … (ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
x – 3y = 10
x – 7y = –30
(–) (+) (+)

4y = 40 & y = 10
From equation (i), we have
x – 3 ×10 = 10 & x = 40
So, age of father is 40 years and that of daughter is 10 years.
∴ Option (c) is correct.
36. The point (4, 3) satisfies the euqation 3x + 4y = 24 only.
LHS = 3x + 4y
& 3 × 4 + 4 × 3 = 12 + 12 = 24 = RHS
Hence (4, 3) lies on the line 3x + 4y = 24.
∴
Option (c) is correct.
37. Let the speed of boat be x km/h and stream be y km/h.
Now, speed in upstream = (x – y) km/h
Speed in downstream = (x + y) km/h

62 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 According to question,
1 10

x+ y
=
60
& x + y = 6 … (i)
1 20
and
x– y
=
60
& x – y = 3 …(ii)
By adding (i) and (ii), we get
9
2x = 9 & x = = 4.5 km/h
2
Hence speed of boat in still water is 4.5 km/h.
∴ Option (d) is correct.
38. Let the two numbers are x and y.
According to question, x + y = 1000 … (i)
x – y2 = 256000
2

(x + y) (x – y) = 256000 & 1000 (x – y) = 256000 [From (i)]

256000
x– y=
1000
& x – y = 256 … (ii)
By adding (i) and (ii), we get
1256
2x = 1256 &x= 2
= 628
From equation (ii), we have
628 – y = 256 & y = 372
` Numbers are 628 and 372.
∴ Option (b) is correct.
39. Let ones place digit be x and tens place digit be y.
The given number is 10y + x.
Number formed by interchanging digits is 10x + y.
According to question,
x + 10y + 10x + y = 99 & x + y = 9 …(i)
x – y = 3 ...(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
2x = 12 & x = 6
From equation (i), 6 + y = 9 & y = 3
So, the number is 10y + x = 10 × 3 + 6 = 36
∴ Option (a) is correct.
40. Given equation are
x + 2 y = 1. 5 … (i)
2x + y = 1. 5 … (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii)
3x + 3y = 3
or x + y = 1& y = 1– x
From equation (ii)
2x + (1 – x) = 1.5
x = 1.5 – 1 & x = 0.5
Now, y = 1 – x & y = 1 – 0 .5 = 0 .5
∴ Option (c) is correct.

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 63

 41. Let the two numbers be x and y.
According to question,
x + y = 35 … (i) and x – y = 13 … (ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i)
x + y = 35
x – y = 13
(–) (+) (–)
2y = 22 & y = 11
From equation (i)
x + 11 = 35 & x = 24 .
Therefore numbers are 24 and 11.
∴ Option (b) is correct.
42. Given equations are
x – 2y = 3 and 3x + ky = 1
a1 b1
For unique solution !
a2 b2
1 –2

3
!
k
&k!–6
∴ Option (b) is correct.
43. Let the numerator be x and denominator be y.
According to question,
x 1
x + y = 12 … (i) and = … (ii)
y+3 2
⇒ y = 12 – x

Put value of y in equation (ii), we have
x 1 x 1
= & =
12 – x + 3 2 15 – x 2
& 2x = 15 – x & 3x = 15 & x = 5

So, y = 12 – x = 12 – 5 = 7
5
Hence, the fraction is .
7
∴ Option (b) is correct.
44. Coordinates of the triangle OPQ are Q(4, 2), O(0, 0) and P(0, 5) on y-axis.
∴ Option (c) is correct.
45. All coincident lines have infinite number of solutions.
∴ Option (a) is correct.
46. From the given pair of linear equations
a1 4 2 b1 6 2 c1 9 3
a2 = 2 = 1 , b2 = 3 = 1 , c2 = 6 = 2
a1 b1 c1
So, a = ! which is condition of parallel lines.
2 b2 c2
Hence, it has no solutions.
∴ Option (a) is correct.

64 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 47. Let two numbers be x and 3x.
According to question
x+5 1
=
3x + 5 2
⇒ 2x + 10 = 3x + 5 ⇒ 2x – 3x = 5 – 10 ⇒ x = 5
So, two numbers are 5 and 15.
∴ Option (b) is correct.

48. Given lines are cx – y = 2 and 6x – 2y = 3
For infinitely many solutions, we have
a1 b1 c1 c –1 –2 c 1 c 2
= = ⇒ = = ⇒ = and =
a2 b2 c2 6 –2 –3 6 2 6 3
6
⇒ c = and c = 4 ⇒ c = 3 and c = 4
2
Since, c has different values, hence, for no value of c, the pair of equations will have infinitely
many solutions.
∴ Option (d) is correct.

51. Given, pair of equations
x + 2y + 5 = 0  and  –3x – 6y + 1 = 0
1 2 5 a1 b1 c1
∴
= !   ⇒  a2 = b2 ! c2
–3 –6 1

⇒ Lines are parallel ⇒

No solution.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
54. Given lines,
2x – 3y – 7 = 0 …(i)
and, (a + b)x – (a + b – 3)y – (4a + b) = 0 …(ii)
For both lines to be coincident
2 –3 –7
=– =
(a + b) (a + b–3) – (4a + b)
2 3
⇒
=
a+b a+ b – 3
⇒
2a + 2b – 6 = 3a + 3b
⇒ 3a + 3b – 2a – 2b + 6 = 0
⇒
a + b + 6 = 0 ⇒ a +b = – 6 …(iii)
2 7
Again, =
a+ b 4a + b
⇒
8a + 2b = 7a + 7b
⇒ 8a – 7a = 7b – 2b ⇒ a = 5b
⇒
a – 5b = 0 …(iv)
Hence, option (c) is correct.
55. Given equations: 6x – 3y + 10 = 0 and 2x – y + 9 = 0;
Here, a1 = 6 b1 = –3 c1 = 10
a2 = 2 b2 = –1 c2 = 9
a1 6 3 b1 –3 c1 10 a1 b1 c1
a2 = 2 = 1 b = –1 = c2 = 9 ⇒ =
a2 b ! c2
2 2

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 65

 Hence, the given system has no solution and the equations will represent parallel lines.
So, option (d) is correct.
56. A pair of linear equations is consistent.
∴ It has unique or infinite solutions.

Hence, lines are either intersecting or coincident.
∴ Option (c) is correct.

57. Since both lines y = 0 and y = –7 are parallel, therefore there is no solution.
∴ Option (d) is correct.

58. If we represent x = a and y = b graphically then we get one is the y
lines parallel to y-axis and other is parallel to x-axis that intersect at b y = b (a, b)
point (a, b). x=a
∴ Option (d) is correct.
x
o a
59. Let unit digit be x and tens digit be y.
∴ Number = 10y + x

Given, x + y = 9 ...(i)
Also, 10y + x + 27 = 10x + y
⇒ 9x – 9y = 27
⇒
x – y = 3 ...(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii), we have
x+y=9
x–y=3
On adding 2x = 12 ⇒ x=6
Putting x = 6 in (i), we get y = 3
∴ Number = 10y + x = 36

Hence, option (d) is correct.
24
60. Given equations are: 5 x – 15 y = 8 and 3x – 9y =
5
a1 = 5 b1 = –15 c1 = –8
–24
a2 = 5 b2 = – 9 c2 =
5
a1 5 b1 –15 5 c1 –8 5
a2 = 3 , b2
=
–9
= , c =
3 2 – 24
×5=
3
a1 b1 c1
⇒
a2 = b = c2
2
Hence, the given system has infinitely many solutions. So option (c) is correct.
61. Let present age of son be x years.
Therefore, present age of father be 6x years.
After four years, we have
6x + 4 = 4 (x + 4) ⇒ 6x + 4 = 4x + 16
⇒ 6x – 4x = 16 – 4 = 12
⇒ 2x = 12
⇒  x = 6

66 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 ∴ Present age of son = 6 years

and present age of father = 6x = 6 × 6 = 36 years.
∴ Option (c) is correct.

62. By putting x = a and y = b, we get
a– b = 2 ... (i)
a+ b= 4 ... (ii)
(–) (–) (–)

–2b = –2 ⇒ –2
b = –2 = 1

From equation (i)
a – 1 = 2 ⇒ a = 3 and b = 1
∴ Option (c) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF CASE-BASED QUESTIONS

1. We have length of each bedroom be x m and length of kitchen be y m.
(i) Areas of two bedrooms and kitchen together = 2(x × 5) + y × 5
⇒ 95 = 10x + 5y

⇒
2x + y = 19 ...(a)
Also, Total length = x + 2 + y
⇒
15 = x + 2 + y ⇒ x + y = 13 ...(b)
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) Length of outer boundary of the layout = 15 + 12 + 15 + 12 = 54 metre
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(iii) Subtracting (b) from (a), we get
x=6
Putting x = 6 in (b), we get y = 7
∴ x = 6 and y = 7
Area of each bedroom = length × breadth = x × 5 = 6 × 5 = 30 m2

and area of kitchen = length × breadth
= y × 5 = 7 × 5 = 35 m2

∴ Option (b) is correct.
(iv) Area of living room = 15 × 7 – area of bedroom 2
= 15 × 7 – x × 5 = 15 × 7 – 6 × 5 = 105 – 30 = 75 m2

∴ Option (b) is correct.
(v) We have area of kitchen = 35 m2
∴ Total cost of laying tiles in the kitchen at the rate of `50 per m2


= 35 × 50 = 1750 = `1750
∴ Option (d) is correct.

2. (i) In city A, for journey of 10 km, the charge paid is `75.
∴ x + 10y = 75
...(i)
where x be the fixed charge and y be the running charge per km.

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 67

 Also, for journey of 15 km, the charge paid is `110.
∴
x + 15y = 110 ...(ii)
∴ Option (b) is correct.
(ii) When a person travels a distance of 50 km.
∴ Amount he has to pay = x + 50 y
...(iii)
On solving equation (i) and (ii), we get x = 5, y = 7
putting in (iii), we have
Total payment = x + 50y
= 5 + 50 × 7 = ` 355
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(iii) Referring Situation 2

We have, In a city B, for a journey of 8 km, the charge paid is `91 and for a journey of
14 km, the charge paid is `145.
∴ x + 8y = 91
...(i)
x + 14y = 145 ...(ii)
be the required pair of linear equations.
Subtracting (i) from (ii), we have
6y = 54 ⇒ y=9
from (i), we have
x + 8 × 9 = 91 ⇒ x = 91 – 72 = 19
∴ x = 19

Total payment for travelling a distance of 30 km
= x + 30y = 19 + 30 × 9 = 19 + 270 = `289
∴ Option (b) is correct.
(iv) From situation 2, we have pair of linear equations
x + 8y = 91
x + 14y = 145

12
10 (19, 9)
8
6
4
2

−5 0 30 60 90120150
−5
−10

and point of intersection of these lines is (19,9).

∴ Option (c) is correct.

68 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (v) From the table given, we can easily find out that city A is more cheaper than city B as per the
fare charge.
∴ Option (a) is correct.

3. Let the student answered x question correctly and y question incorrectly (wrong).
∴
Total number of questions = 120
x + y = 120 ...(i)
Also, one mark is awarded for each correct answer and ¼ mark is deducted for every wrong answer.
∴
Total marks student got = 90
1
x – y = 90 ...(ii)
4
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
1
y + y = 120 – 90 = 30
4
5y
= 30 ⇒ y = 24
4
⇒ x = 96
1
From (ii), x – × 24 = 90
4
(i) The student answered correctly 96 questions.
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) The number of questions student guess (do incorrect) = 120 – 96 = 24.
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iii) As the student answered all 120 questions in which 80 questions answered correctly i.e. rest
40 questions do incorrectly.
1
∴ Student got the marks = 80 –
× 40 = 70 marks
4
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iv) Let student answered correctly x questions.
∴ x – × ]120 – xg = 95
1

4
x 5x
⇒ x – 30 + = 95 ⇒ = 125 ⇒ x = 100
4 4
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(v) Since the total question are 120.
If a student answered all questions correctly then he can score maximum marks i.e; 120.
∴ Option (c) is correct.

4. (i) We have, y = 0.25x + 20
When x = 90
∴
y = 0.25 × 90 + 20 = 42.50
∴ Total cost for a month is `42.50.

∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) We have, total cost, y = 0.08x + 40
When x = 90 minutes then

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 69

 Total cost for him = y = 0.08 × 90 + 40 = 47.20
∴ Cost = ` 47.20

∴ Option (d) is correct.

(iii) We have, x + 2y = –1 ...(i) × 2
– 2x 3y = –12 ...(ii)
On subtracting 7y = – 14 ⇒ y=–2
Putting y = –2 in equation (i), we get
x + 2 × (–2) = –1
⇒
x=–1+4=3 ⇒ x=3
∴
Solution is (3, –2).
∴
Option (c) is correct.
(iv) Given system of linear equations
kx + 2y = 5
3x + y = 1
For unique solution we have
k 2
⇒ ! ⇒ k≠6
3 1
∴
Option (c) is correct.
(v) Given linear equations
x + 2y – 4 = 0
2x + 4y – 12 = 0
1 2 –4 1 1 1
We have, = ! ⇒ = !
2 4 –12 2 2 3
a1 b1 c1
i.e., a2 = !
b2 c2
∴
It represent parallel lines.
∴
Option (a) is correct.
5. (i) Given linear equation y = 100x + 30000
and y = 150x
For there is no profit or loss, we have
150x = 100x + 30000 ⇒ 150x – 100x = 30000
⇒
50x = 30000 ⇒ x = 600
∴ Option (d) is correct.

(ii) Given linear equations,
y = 0.85x + 35000 and y = 1.55x
0.85x + 35000 = 1.55x (for break even point)
⇒ 0.70x = 35000
⇒
x = 50000
∴
y = 1.55x = 1.55 × 50000 = 77500
∴
Break even point is (50000, 77500).
∴
Option (a) is correct.
(iii) We have, system of linear equations
3x + 2y = 12
5x – 2y = 4

70 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 a1 3 b1 2
Here, a = , = = –1
2 5 b2 –2
a1 b1
∴
a2 ! b2
∴
It has unique solution i.e., lines are intersecting.
∴
Option (b) is correct.
(iv) We have, x+y=1 ...(i) × 3
2x – 3y = 7 ...(ii)
On adding 5x = 10
10
x= =2
5
Putting x = 2 in (i), we get y = –1
∴
Solution is (2, –1).
∴
Option (c) is correct.
(v) Given system of equation,
4x + 5y = 3
and kx +15y = 9
For infinitely many solution
a1 b1 c1
a2 = b2 = c2
4 5 3 4 1
= = ⇒ = ⇒ k = 12
k 15 9 k 3
∴ Option (c) is correct.
6. (i) We have,
x + 3y = 6 ...(i)
2x – 3y = 12 ...(ii)
On adding 3x = 18 ⇒ x = 6
Putting x = 6 in (i), we get
y=0
∴
Point of intersection pivot point is (6, 0).
∴
Option (b) is correct.
(ii) Given linear equations
x + 3y = 6 ...(i)
Its point on y–axis is when x = 0.
∴
0 + 3y = 6 ⇒ y=2
∴ Point on y–axis is (0, 2).

and 2x – 3y = 12 ...(ii)
When x = 0
0 – 3y = 12 ⇒ y = –4
∴
Point on y–axis is (0, –4).
∴
Option (c) is correct.

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 71

 (iii) Given system of linear equations
x + 2y – 8 = 0
and 2x + 4y – 16 = 0
a1 1 b1 2 1 c1 –8 1
∴ a = , = = and c = =
2 2 b2 4 2 2 –16 2
a1 b1 c1
⇒
= =
a2 b2 c2

∴ System has infinitely many solution.

∴ Option (d) is correct.

(iv) Since (1, 2) is the solution of ax + y = 3 ...(i)
and 2x + by = 12 ...(ii)
∴ From (i), we have

a×1+2=3 ⇒ a=1
From (ii), we have
2 × 1 + b × 2 = 12
⇒ 2b = 10
⇒ b=5
∴
Values of a and b are 1 and 5.
∴
Option (a) is correct.

(v) The system of equations is consistent. It means the lines are intersecting or coincident, i.e it
has unique solution or infinitely many solution.
∴
Option (d) is correct.
7. (i) We have, y = 0 ....(i)
and 3x + 2y = 6
⇒
3x + 2 × 0 = 6
⇒ 3x = 6 (from (i))

⇒
x=2
∴ Point of contact is (2, 0).

∴ Option (b) is correct.

(ii) We have, y = x ....(i)
and x+y=6
⇒ x + x = 6
(from (i))
⇒
2x = 6 ⇒ x=3
⇒
y=3 (from (i))
∴ Point of intersection is (3, 3).

∴ Option (c) is correct.


(iii) We have, 3x + 6y = 3900
x + 3y = 1300
a1 3 b1 6 a1 b1
∴
a2 = 1 , b2 = 3 = 2 ⇒ a2 ! b2
∴ It is intersecting.

∴ Option (b) is correct.

72 Mathematics–X: Term–1

(iv) Given system of linear equations
kx – 5y = 2 and 6x + 2y = 7
has no solution if
a1 b1 c1 k –5 2
a2 = b2 ! c2 ⇒ = !
6 2 7
k –5
⇒ = ⇒ k = –15
6 2
∴ Option (d) is correct.

(v) We have equation
3x + 2y = 6
Point where this line intersects the y–axis is x = 0 on putting we get
3 × 0 + 2y = 6
⇒ 2y = 6
⇒ y=3
∴ Point on y–axis is (0, 3).

∴ Option (a) is correct.

8. (i) We have pair of linear equations
y – 2x = 1 ...(i) × 5
5y – x = 14 ...(ii)
– + –
–9x = –9 ⇒ x=1
From (i), we get y = 1 + 2x = 1 + 2 × 1 = 3
∴
Point of intersection of lines is (1, 3).
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(ii) We have, y – 2x = 1
We know any point on y-axis has x co-ordinate 0.
∴ Putting x = 0, we get

y–2×0=1 ⇒ y=1
∴ Point on y–axis is (0, 1).

∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iii) We have system of linear equations
2x – 3y + 6 = 0 and 2x + 3y – 18 = 0
∴
For unique solution, we have
a1 2 b1 –3
a2 = 2 = 1, b2 = 3 = –1
a1 b1
∴
a2 ! b2 ⇒ It has a unique solution.

∴ Option (a) is correct.

(iv) Given system of linear equations
2x – ky + 3 = 0 and 3x + 2y – 1 = 0
a1 b1 c1
For no solution we have, a = ! c
2 b2 2

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 73

 2 –k 3 2 –k –4
⇒
= ! ⇒ = ⇒ k=
3 2 –1 3 2 3

∴ Option (b) is correct.

(v) When two lines are parallel then the pair of linear equations is inconsistent.
∴ Option (b) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS

1. From the given equations, we have
9 3 12 1 1 1 a1 b1 c1
= = ⇒ = = i.e., a = = c
18 6 24 2 2 2 2 b2 2

So, both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Hence, option (a) is correct.
2. For inconsistent solution we have
a1 b1 c1
a2 = ! c2
b 2

So, A is correct but R is incorrect.

Hence, option (c) is correct.
3. As x = 3, y = 1 is the solution of 2x + y – q2 – 3 = 0.
∴ 2 × 3 + 1 – q2 – 3 = 0 ⇒ 4 – q2 = 0

⇒ q2 + 4
⇒ q =  2
So, both A and R are correct and R explains A.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
k –1
4. Given system of linear equations has a unique solution if ! .
6 –2
k 1
⇒
! & k!3
6 2
So, A is incorrect and R is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
zzz

74 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 COORDINATE
4 GEOMETRY

BASIC CONCEPTS & FORMULAE

1. The distance between two points A(x1, y1) and B(x2, y2) is given by
AB = _ x2 – x1 i + _ y2 – y1 i
2 2

2. The distance of a point (x, y) from the origin (0, 0) is _ x2 + y2 i .
3. The coordinates of a point on x-axis is taken as (x, 0) while on y-axis it is taken as (0, y) respectively.
4. Section formula: The coordinates of the point P (x, y) which divides the line segment joining
A(x1 , y1) and B(x2 , y2 ) internally in the ratio m : n are given by
mx2 + nx1 my2 + ny1
x= , y=
m+ n m+ n
5. Mid-point formula: Coordinates of mid-point of AB, where A(x1, y1) and B(x2, y2) are
x1 + x2 y1 + y2
f , p
2 2
6. Centroid of a triangle and its coordinates: The medians of a triangle are concurrent. Their point
of concurrence is called the centroid. It divides each median in the ratio 2 : 1. The coordinates of
centroid of a triangle with vertices A(x1, y1), B(x2, y2) and C(x3, y3) are given by.
x + x2 + x3 y1 + y2 + y3
e 1 , o
3 3

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.
1. Point on y-axis has coordinate
(a) (–a, b) (b) (a, 0) (c) (0, b) (d) (– a, – b)
2. The perimeter of a triangle with vertices (0, 4), (0, 0) and (3, 0) is
(a) 5 units (b) 12 units (c) 11 units (d) 10 units
3. The ratio in which x-axis divides the line segment joining A(2, –3) and B(5, 6) is
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 3
4. If the point C (x, 3) divides the line joining points A(2, 6) and B(5, 2) in the ratio 2 : 1 then the
value of x is
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 3
5. The mid point of the line segment joining the points (– 5, 7) and (– 1, 3) is
(a) (– 3, 7) (b) (– 3, 5) (c) (– 1, 5) (d) (5, – 3)
6. The distance of the point P(3, 4) from the origin is
(a) 7 units (b) 5 units (c) 4 units (d) 3 units

Coordinate Geometry 75
 7. The distance between the lines 2x + 4 = 0 and x – 5 = 0, is
(a) 9 units (b) 1 unit (c) 5 units (d) 7 units
8. A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the points P and Q, respectively. If (2, –5) is the mid-
point of PQ, then the coordinates of P and Q are, respectively [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) (0, –5) and (2, 0) (b) (0, 10) and (–4, 0) (c) (0, 4) and (–10, 0) (d) (0, –10) and (4, 0)
9. The perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining the points A (1, 5) and B (4, 6) cuts the
y-axis at [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) (0, 13) (b) (0, –13) (c) (0, 12) (d) (13, 0)

10. If P c , 4 m is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q (–6, 5) and R (–2, 3), then
a

3
the value of a is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) –4 (b) –12 (c) 12 (d) –6
11. If the point P (2, 1) lies on the line segment joining points A (4, 2) and B (8, 4), then
1 1 1
(a) AP = AB (b) AP = PB (c) PB = AB (d) AP = AB
3 3 2
12. The points which lie on the perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining the points
A (–2, –5) and B (2, 5) is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) (0, 0) (b) (0, 2) (c) (2, 0) (d) (–2, 0)
13. The point which divides the line segment joining the points (7, –6) and (3, 4) in ratio 1 : 2
internally lies in the [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) I quadrant (b) II quadrant (c) III quadrant (d) IV quadrant
x y
14. The coordinates of the point where line a + = 7 intersects y-axis are
b
(a) (a, 0) (b) (0, b) (c) (0, 7b) (d) (7a, 0)
15. The coordinates of the point which is equidistant from the three vertices of the triangle shown
in the given figure are
Y

A
(0, 2y)

X' X
O B
Y' (2x, 0)

x y y x
(a) (x, y) (b) (y, x) (c) e , o (d) e , o
2 2 2 2
16. The end points of diameter of circle are (2, 4) and (–3, –1). The radius of the circle is
5 2 !5 2
(a) units (b) 5 2 units (c) 3 2 units (d) units
2 2
17. The point A (–5, 6) is at a distance of
(a) 61 units from origin (b) 11 units from origin
(c) 61 units from origin (d) 11 units from origin
18. The distance of the point P (–6, 8) from the origin is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 8 units (b) 2 7 units (c) 10 units (d) 6 units

76 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 19. The distance between the points A (0, 6) and B (0, –2) is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 6 units (b) 8 units (c) 4 units (d) 2 units
20. The distance of the point P (2, 3) from the x-axis is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 2 units (b) 3 units (c) 1 units (d) 5 units
21. The points A (9, 0), B (9, 6), C (–9, 6) and D (–9, 0) are the vertices of a [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) square (b) rectangle (c) rhombus (d) trapezium

22. The mid-point of the line segment joining the points A (–2, 8) and B (–6, –4) is
 [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) (–4, –6) (b) (2, 6) (c) (–4, 2) (d) (4, 2)
23. If the distance between the points (2, –2) and (–1, x) is 5, one of the values of x is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) –2 (b) 2 (c) –1 (d) 1
24. Komal was asked to plot a point 10 units on the left of the origin and other points 4 units
directly above the origin. Which of the following are the two points? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) (10, 0) and (0, 4) (b) (–10, 0) and (0, 4) (c) (10, 0) and (0, –4) (d) (–10, 0) and (4, 0)
25. Three points lie on a vertical line. Which of the following could be those points?
[CBSE Question Bank]
(a) (– 8, 3), (– 8, 8), (8, 7) (b) (–8, 7), (–8, –8), (–8, –100)
(c) (4, 3), (5, 3), (–12, 3) (d) (0, 4), (4, 0), (0, 0)
26. On a graph, two-line segments, AB and CD of equal length are drawn. Which of these could be
the coordinates of the points, A, B, C and D? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) A(–3, 4), B(–1, –2) and C(3, 4) D(1, 2) (b) A(3, 4), B(–1, 2) and C(3, 4), D(1, 2)
(c) A(–3, 4), B(–1, 2) and C(3, 4) D(1, 2) (d) A(–3, –4), B(–1, 2) and C(3, 4), D(1, 2)
27. The distance between two points, M and N, on a graph is given as 102 + 72 . The coordinates
of point M are (–4, 3). Given that the point N lies in the first quadrant, which of the following
is true about the all possible x coordinates of point N? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) They are multiple of 3. (b) They are multiple of 4.
(c) They are multiple of 5. (d) They are multiple of 6.
28. The graph of a circle with centre O with point R on its circumference is shown.
Y
12

10

8 R

4
O
2

X′ X
–12 –10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10 12
–2

–4

–6

–8

–10

–12

Y′

Coordinate Geometry 77
 What is the side length of the square that circumscribes the circle? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 41 (b) 2 41 (c) 17 (d) 3 17
29. On a coordinate grid, the location of a bank is (–4, 8) and the location of a post office is (2, 0).
The scale used is 1 unit = 50 m. What is the shortest possible distance between the bank and
the post office? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 200 m (b) 300 m (c) 400 m (d) 500 m
30. A point G divides a line segment in the ratio 3:7. The segment starts at the origin and ends at
a point K having 20 as its abscissa and 40 as its ordinate. Given that G is closer to the origin
than to point K,
Which of the following are the coordinates of point G? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) (6, 12) (b) (12, 6) (c) (14, 28) (d) (28, 14)
31. Two poles are to be installed on an elevated road as shown in the diagram. The diagram also
shows the starting and ending points of the road.

(8, 8) Q R (14, 11)

Which of the following are the coordinates of the poles? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) Q (10, 9) and R (12, 8) (b) Q (10, 9) and R (12, 10)
(c) Q (10, 8) and R (12, 11) (d) Q (–10, 9) and R (0, 11)

32. Which of the following are the coordinates of the intersection points of the diagonals of the
rectangle ABCD with vertices A(0, 3), B(3, 0), C(1, –2) and D(–2, 1)? [CBSE Question Bank]

(a) d , n (b) d – , – n
1 1 1 1
(c) (1.5, 1.5) (d) (2, –1)
2 2 2 2
33. The figure shows a parallelogram with one of its vertices intersecting the y-axis at 3 and
another vertex intersecting the x-axis at 2.
Y
10

6 (x, 5)

2 5
4

X′ X
–10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10
–2

–4

–6

–8

–10
Y′

78 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 If (m, n) is the intersection point of the diagonals of the parallelogram, which relation is
correct? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) m = n – 0.5 (b) m = n – 1.50 (c) m = 0.5 + n (d) m = 1.50 + n
34. The point P(1, 2) divides the line joining of A(–2, 1) and B(7, 4) in the ratio
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 3:2 (d) 2:3
35. Let A(4, 2), B(6, 5) and C(1, 4) be the vertices of DABC. The median from A meets BC at D. Then
the co-ordinates of the point D are

(a) d 5, n (b) d , n (c) d , 3 n (d) d , n

7 7 9 5 5 7
2 2 2 2 2 2
36. Centre of circle is at (–1, 3) and one end of a diameter has coordinates (2, 5), the co-ordinates
of the other end are
(a) (–4, 1) (b) (1, –4) (c) (4, –1) (d) (3, 2)
37. The points A(0, 6), B(–5, 3) and C(3, 1) are the vertices of a triangle which is
(a) isosceles (b) equilateral
(c) scalene (d) none of these
38. The point which divides the line segment joining the points (8, – 9) and (2, 3) in ratio 1 : 2
internally lies in the [CBSE Sample Question Paper 2020]
(a) I quadrant (b) II quadrant
(c) III quadrant (d) IV quadrant

39. The distance of the point P (−3, −4) from the x-axis (in units) is
[CBSE Sample Question Paper 2020]
(a) 3 (b) – 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

40. If A c , 5 m is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q(– 6, 7) and R(–2, 3),
m

3
then the value of m is [CBSE Sample Question Paper 2020]
(a) –12 (b) – 4 (c) 12 (d) – 6
41. lf the point P(k, 0) divides the line segment joining the points A(2, – 2) and B(– 7, 4) in the ratio
1 : 2, then the value of k is [CBSE 2020 (30/1/1)]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) – 2 (d) – 1
42. The point P on x-axis equidistant from the points A (–1, 0) and B (5, 0) is [CBSE 2020 (30/2/1)]
(a) (2, 0) (b) (0, 2) (c) (3, 0) (d) (2, 2)
43. The co-ordinates of the point which is reflection of point (–3, 5) in x-axis are
[CBSE 2020 (30/2/1)]
(a) (3, 5) (b) (3, –5) (c) (–3, –5) (d) (–3, 5)
44. If the point P (6, 2) divides the line segment joining A (6, 5) and B (4, y) in the ratio 3 : 1,
then the value of y is [CBSE 2020 (30/2/1)]
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
45. If (a, b) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points A(10, –6) and B(k, 4) and
a – 2b = 18, the value of k is [CBSE 2020 (30/3/1)]
(a) 30 (b) 22 (c) 4 (d) 40

Coordinate Geometry 79
 46. Point P c , 4 m is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points A (–5, 2) and B (4, 6). The
a

8
value of ‘a’ is [CBSE 2020 (30/4/1)]
(a) – 4 (b) 4 (c) – 8 (d) – 2
47. The point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (–4, 0) and (10, 0) is [CBSE 2020 (30/5/1)]
(a) (7, 0) (b) (5, 0) (c) (0, 0) (d) (3, 0)
48. The centre of a circle whose end points of a diameter are (–6, 3) and (6, 4) is
[CBSE 2020 (30/5/1)]

(c) c0, m (d) c 4, m

7 7
(a) (8, –8) (b) (4, 7)
2 2
49. The distance between the points (m, – n) and (– m, n) is [CBSE 2020 (30/5/1)]
(a) m2 + n2 (b) m + n (c) 2 m2 + n2 (d) 2m 2 + 2n 2
50. If the distance between the points (4, p) and (1, 0) is 5, then the value of p is
(a) 4 only (b) ± 4 (c) –4 only (d) 0
51. What point on x-axis is equidistant from the points A(7, 6) and B(–3, 4)?
(a) (0, 4) (b) (–4, 0) (c) (3, 0) (d) (0, 3)
52. A point P divides the join of A(5, –2) and B(9, 6) in the ratio 3:1. The co-ordinates of P are
11
(a) (4, 7) (b) (8, 4) (c) e , 5 o (d) (12, 8)
2
53. If C(–1, 1) is the mid point of the line segment joining A(–3, b) and B(1, b + 4), then the value
of b is
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) –1 (d) 2

Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a)
37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (d) 42. (a)
43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c)
49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c)

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
In order to conduct Sports Day activities in your School, lines have been drawn with chalk
powder at a distance of 1 m each, in a rectangular shaped ground ABCD, 100 flowerpots have
been placed at a distance of 1 m from each other along AD, as shown in given figure below.
Niharika runs 1/4 th the distance AD on the 2nd line and posts a green flag. Preet runs 1/5th
distance AD on the eighth line and posts a red flag. [CBSE Question Bank]

80 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 D C

A B

Now she asked some questions to the students as given below:

(i) The position of green flag is
(a) (2, 25) (b) (2, 0.25) (c) (25, 2) (d) (0, –25)
(ii) The position of red flag is
(a) (8, 0) (b) (20, 8) (c) (8, 20) (d) (8, 0.2)
(iii) The distance between both the flags is
(a) 41 (b) 11 (c) 61 (d) 51
(iv) If Rashmi has to post a blue flag exactly halfway between the line segment joining the two
flags, where should she post her flag?
(a) (5, 22.5) (b) (10, 22) (c) (2, 8.5) (d) (2.5, 20)
(v) If Joy has to post a flag at one-fourth distance from green flag in the line segment joining
the green and red flags, then where should he post his flag?
(a) (3.5, 24) (b) (0.5, 12.5) (c) (2.25, 8.5) (d) (25, 20)
2. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
SUN ROOM [CBSE Sample Paper 2020-21]
The diagrams show the plans for a sun room. It will be built onto the wall of a house. The four
walls of the sun room are square clear glass panels. The roof is made using
• Four clear glass panels, trapezium in shape, all the same size
• One tinted glass panel, half a regular octagon in shape
Y

A B C D

J I H

B E
P F
A
Top view
B
A 1 cm
P Q R S

Not to scale

Front view
O Scale 1 cm = 1m X

Coordinate Geometry 81
 (i) Refer to Top View
The mid-point of the segment joining the points J (6, 17) and I (9, 16) is
(a) (33/2, 15/2) (b) (3/2, 1/2) (c) (15/2, 33/2) (d) (1/2, 3/2)
(ii) Refer to Top View
The distance of the point P from the y-axis is
(a) 4 (b) 15 (c) 19 (d) 25
(iii) Refer to Front View
The distance between the points A and S is
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 20
(iv) Refer to Front View
The co-ordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points A and B
in the ratio 1:3 internally are
(a) (8.5, 2.0) (b) (2.0, 9.5) (c) (3.0, 7.5) (d) (2.0, 8.5)
(v) Refer to Front View
If a point (x, y) is equidistant from Q(9, 8) and S(17, 8), then
(a) x + y = 13 (b) x – 13 = 0 (c) y – 13 = 0 (d) x – y =13

3. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Shaurya made a map of his locality on a coordinate plane

Y
Kartik’s Temple
House

Post Office
School Park
O
X
Shaurya’s
Market House Railway
Station
Scale : 1 Square = 1 unit

(i) If he considered his house as the origin, then coordinates of market are
(a) (3, –1) (b) (–3, –1) (c) (–3, 1) (d) (3, 1)
(ii) The distance of his friend Kartik’s house from his house is
(a) 20 units (b) 10 units (c) 20 units (d) 10 units
(iii) There is a fort at a distance of 10 units from his house. If its ordinate is 6, then its
abscissa is
(a) ± 2 (b) 0 (c) ± 4 (d) ± 8
(iv) The coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining school and park
internally in the ratio 3 : 2 are
(a) (–2, 2) (b) (–2, –2) (c) (2, 3) (d) (2, –2)
(v) If you form a polygon with vertex as position of park, Shaurya's home, railway station,
post office and temple, then the polygon is
(a) Regular polygon (b) Convex Polygon
(c) Concave Polygon (d) Rhombus

82 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 4.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).

A coach is discussing the strategy of the game with his players. The position of players is marked
with ‘×’ in the figure.
Y
B
A
D

X’ O E F
H X
G

Scale : 1 Square = 1 unit

X’

(i) If O is taken as the origin, the point whose abscissa equal to zero is
(a) H (b) E (c) G (d) F
(ii) The distance between the player C and B is
(a) 5 units (b) 4 2 units (c) 2 5 units (d) 5 2 units
(iii) The player who is 6 units from x-axis and 2 units to the right of y-axis is at position
(a) J (b) B (c) I (d) A
(iv) If (x, y) are the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining A and H, then
(a) x = – 4, y = 2 (b) x = 2, y = 4
(c) x = –2, y = 4 (d) x = –4, y = – 2
(v) According to sudden requirement coach of the team decided to increase one player in
the 4th quadrant without increasing the total number of players, so he decided to change
the position of player F in such a way that F becomes symmetric to D w.r.t x axis, then new
position of F is
(a) (3, 4) (b) (3, – 4) (c) (–4, 3) (d) (4, 3)
5. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).

The children of a school prepared a dance item for Republic Day parade for which they were
asked to form a rectangle by standing at a fixed distance, taken as one unit. Some children, then
formed a pattern inside the rectangle.

Coordinate Geometry 83
 S R

B C

A D
W X

Z Y
H E

G F

P Q

(i) If P is considered as the origin, the coordinates of B are

(a) (8, 5) (b) (3, 8) (c) (8, 0) (d) (0, 3)

(ii) The distance between the children standing at H and G is

(a) 8 units (b) 2 units (c) 5 units (d) 8 units

(iii) The coordinate of the point that divides the line segment joining the points A and D in
the ratio 2 : 3 internally are

(a) d 6, n (b) (6, 6) (d) d , 6 n

19 19
(c) (6, 2)
5 5
(iv) If a point (x, y) is equidistant from C(6, 8) and F(6, 1) then
(a) 2x – 7y + 36 = 0 (b) 144y = 63 (c) x – y = 5 (d) x + y = 5
(v) The coordinates of the point P if H is taken as the origin are
(a) (2, 3) (b) (–1, –3) (c) (–2, 3) (d) (2, –3)
6. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).

The top of a table is shown in the figure given below:

Y B C

M N

A T D
O

S P
H E

R Q

G F
O X
Scale : 1 Square = 1 unit

84 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (i) The coordinates of the points H and G are respectively
(a) (1, 5), (5, 1) (b) (0, 5), (5, 0) (c) (1, 5), (5, 0) (d) (5, 1), (1, 5)
(ii) The distance between the points A and B is
(a) 4 units (b) 4 2 units (c) 16 units (d) 32 units

(iii) The coordinates of the mid point of line segment joining points M and Q are
(a) (9, 3) (b) (5, 11) (c) (14, 14) (d) (7, 7)
(iv) Which among the following have same ordinate?
(a) H and A (b) T and O (c) R and M (d) N and R
(v) If G is taken as the origin, and x, y axis put along GF and GB, then the point denoted by
coordinate (4, 2) is
(a) H (b) F (c) Q (d) R

7. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A rangoli design was made by Ishita using coordinate plane.

A B
(-6, 0) X (6, 0)

(i) If coordinates of centre X are (0, 0) and B is a point on circle with coordinates (7, 0), then
coordinate of C and D are respectively
(a) (0, 7), (0, – 7) (b) (0, –7), (0, 7) (c) (7, 7), (–7, – 7) (d) (–7, –7), (7, 7)
(ii) The coordinates of the point on the circle in first quadrant whose abscissa equal to 3 is
(a) (3, 3) (b) (3, –3) (c) _2 10 , 3 i (d) _3, 2 10 i
(iii) PQRS is a square inside the circle where P is (–1, 1) then coordinates of R are
(a) (–1, –1) (b) (–1, 1) (c) (1, –1) (d) (1, 1)
(iv) The coordinates of the mid point of the line segment joining PR is
(a) (1, 1) (b) (0, 0) (c) (–1, –1) (d) (1, 2)
(v) The distance of the point M on the circle from x-axis is

(a) 4 units (b) 3 units (c) 2 units (d) 5 units

Coordinate Geometry 85
Answers
1. (i) (a) (ii) (c) (iii) (c) (iv) (a) (v) (a)
2. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (d) (v) (b)
3. (i) (b) (ii) (a) (iii) (d) (iv) (a) (v) (c)
4. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (a) (v) (b)
5. (i) (b) (ii) (d) (iii) (d) (iv) (b) (v) (b)
6. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (d) (iv) (b) (v) (c)
7. (i) (a) (ii) (d) (iii) (c) (iv) (b) (v) (d)

ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements—Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A) : The point (0, 4) lies on y-axis.
Reason (R) : The x co-ordinate of the point on y-axis is zero.
2. Assertion (A) : The value of y is 6, for which the distance between the points P(2, –3) and Q (10, y)
is 10.
Reason (R) : Distance between two given points A (x1, y1) and B (x2, y2) is given 6,
AB = (x2 – x1) 2 + (y2 – y1) 2 .
3. Assertion (A) : The point (– 1, 6) divides the line segment joining the points (– 3, 10) and (6, – 8)
in the ratio 2 : 7 internally.

Reason (R) : Mid point of line segment PQ whose co-ordinate are P(x1, y1) and Q(x2, y2) is
x + x2 y1 + y2
given by R f 1 , p.
2 2
4. Assertion (A) : Centroid of a triangle formed by the points (a, b), (b, c) and (c, a) is at origin, Then
a + b + c = 0.
Reason (R) : Centroid of a ∆ABC with vertices A (x1, y1), B (x2, y2) and C (x3, y3) is given by
x + x2 + x3 y1 + y2 + y3
e 1 , o.
3 3
Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a)

HINTS/SOLUTIONS OF SELECTED MCQs

1. As we know that all points on y-axis should have x-coordinate 0.
Then coordinate is (0, b).
∴ Option (c) is correct.

86 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 Y
2. Let the vertices be A (0, 4), O (0, 0), B (3, 0).
We have
AB = (3 – 0) 2 + (0 – 4 ) 2 A
(0,4)
= 9 + 16 = 25 = 5 units
5
∴ Perimeter of ∆OAB = OA + AB + OB 4

= 4 +5 + 3 B
X
O 3 (3,0)
= 12 units
∴ Option (b) is correct.

3. Given x-axis divides the segment joining points (2, –3) and (5, 6)
Let the ratio be k : 1
m1 x2 + m2 x1
Then x =
m1 + m2
m1 y2 + m2 y1 6k – 3 ]1 g
y= = 0 ⇒ =0
m1 + m2 k +1
3 1
⇒ 6k – 3 = 0 ⇒ k = =
6 2
\ Required ratio = 1 : 2
So, option (b) is correct.
4. Given points are A(2, 6), B(5, 2), divided by C(x, 3) in ratio 2 : 1
2 1
A C B
(2, 6) (x, 3) (5, 2)

By section formula
2 ]5g + 1 ]2g 10 + 2 12
x= = = =4
2 +1 3 3
⇒
x=4
So, option (a) is correct.
5. Mid points of line joining the points (–5, 7) and (–1, 3) is given by
–5 –1 7 + 3
d n=< ,
–6 10
, F = ^ –3, 5h
2 2 2 2
So, option (b) is correct.
6. Distance of point P(3, 4) from origin (0, 0) is given by:
]3 – 0g2 + ]4 – 0g2 = 9 + 16 = 25 = 5 units
So option (b) is correct.
10. We have,
a –6 + (–2) a
= ⇒ = –4 ⇒ a = –12
3 2 3
∴ Option (b) is correct.

11. We have, AP = (8 – 4) 2 + (4 – 2) 2 = 16 + 4) = 20 = 2 5
AP = (4 – 2) 2 + (2 – 1) 2 = 4 +1 = 5
1
Clearly, AP = AB
2
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Coordinate Geometry 87
12. Since perpendicular bisector of line segment AB passes through mid point of AB.

–2 + 2 –5 + 5
∴ Mid point of AB / e , o ≡ (0, 0)
2 2
∴ Point (0, 0) lies on perpendicular bisector.

∴ Option (a) is correct.
15. Let the required point be P(α, β).
∴ OP = PA (by distance formula)

⇒ (a – 0) 2 + (b – 0) 2 = (a – 0) 2 + (b – 2y) 2
A (0, 2y)
2 2 2 2
⇒ a + b = a + (b – 2y) (Squaring both sides)

⇒ b2 = b2 + 4y2 – 4by
P (α, β)
⇒ 4y2 = 4by
& y=b
Similarly,
O B (2x, 0)
OP = PB
⇒ a2 + b2 = (a – 2x) 2 + b2

⇒ a2 + b2 = a2 + 4x2 – 4ax + b2   (Squaring both sides)

⇒ 4x2 = 4αx ⇒ α = x

∴ Point is P (a, b) = P (x, y) .

Hence, option (a) is correct.
17. Distance of the point A(–5, 6) from O(0, 0) is given by
OA = (0 + 5) 2 + (0.6) 2 = 25 + 36 = 61
∴ Option (a) is correct.

18. We have, P(2, 3), O(0, 0)
Required distance = OP = (–6 –0) 2 + (8 – 0) 2
= 36 + 64 = 100 = 10 units
∴ Option (c) is correct.

19. Distance, AB = (0 – 0) 2 + (–2 – 6) 2 = 8 units.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
20. Since coordinates of point P are (2, 3).
∴ Its distance from X–axis is 3 i.e., its y–co-ordinate.

∴ Option (b) is correct.

21. We have,
AB = (9 – 9) 2 + (6 – 0) 2 = 6

BC = (–9 – 9) 2 + (6 – 6) 2 = 18
CD = (–9 + 9) 2 + (0 – 6) 2 = 6

DA = (9 + 9) 2 + (0 – 0) 2 = 18

Here, AB = CD and BC = DA
⇒ ABCD is a rectangle.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

88 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 24. We have the points
Y

(0, 4)

X
(–10, 0) O

(–10, 0) and (0, 4), since first lies on x-axis, left of origin and second lies on y-axis above the origin.
∴ Option (b) is correct.
25. As we know that all the points lying on the same vertical line has same x-coordinates

` Points (–8, 7), (–8, –8), (–8, –100) lie on the one vertical line.
` Option (b) is correct.
26. Since given points A(–3, 4), B(–1, 2) and C(3, 4), D(1, 2).
We have, AB = (–1 + 3) 2 + (2 – 4) 2 = 4 + 4 = 2 2
CD = (1 – 3) 2 + (2 – 4) 2 = 4 + 4 = 2 2
` AB = CD
` Option (c) is correct.

27. Given coordinate of point M are (– 4, 3).
Let x be the x-coordinate of point N
` (x + 4) 2 = 102 or (x + 4) 2 = 72
& x + 4 = ! 10 or x + 4 = ! 7

& x = ! 10 – 4 or x = ! 7 – 4
& x = 10 – 4, – 10 – 4 or x = 7 – 4, – 7 – 4
& x = 6, – 14, or x = 3, –11
But x lies in the first quadrant.
` x = 6 or 3


` x coordinate is multiple of 3.
` Option (a) is correct.
28. We have coordinates of centre of circle O be (– 4, 3) and coordinate of R be (0, 8).
` Radius, OR = (0 + 4) 2 + (8 – 3) 2 = 16 + 25 = 41


` Diameter of circle = 2 × radius = 2 41 units
Hence, length of the side of the square that circumscribes the circle = Diameter of the circle =
2 41 units

` Option (b) is correct.
29. We have location of a bank is (– 4, 8) and location of a post office is (2, 0).

` Shortest distance between them
= (2 + 4) 2 + (0 – 8) 2 = 36 + 64
= 100 = 10 unit
= 10 × 50 =
500 m

` Option (d) is correct.

Coordinate Geometry 89
 30. Using section formula, we have
Coordinate of G 3 7
3 × 20 + 7 × 0 60 0 (0, 0) G (x, y) K (20, 40)
x= ⇒
x= =6
3+7 10
3 × 40 + 7 × 0 120
and, y= = = 12
3+7 10
` Coordinates of point G(6, 12).

` Option (a) is correct.
31. For the coordinates of point Q(x1, y1) we have AQ : QB = 1 : 2.
1 1 1
A (8, 8) Q (x1, y1) R (x2, y2) B (14, 11)

` Using section formula, we have
1×14 + 2 × 8 30
x1 = ⇒ x1 = = 10
1+2 3
1×11 + 2 × 8 11 + 16 27
and y1 = = = =9
1+2 3 3
` Coordinate of point Q (x1, y1) be (10, 9) .
Now for point R ratio be 2 : 1.
` Using section formula
2 ×14 + 1× 8 28 + 8 36
x2 = = = = 12
2+1 3 3
2 ×11 + 1× 8 22 + 8 30
y2 = = = = 10
+
2 1 3 3
Coordinate of point R be (12, 10).
Thus, option (b) is correct.
32. Since the diagonals of a rectangle bisect each other. D (–2, 1) C (1, –2)
Let intersection point be O.

` Co-ordinates of point O be mid point of AC and BD.
0 + 1 –2 + 3
d n=d , n
1 1 O
,
2 2 2 2

` Option (a) is correct.
A (0, 3) B (3, 0)
33. Let ABCD is a parallelogram
We have,
C (x, 5)
DC = 2 5
& DC2 = 20 2√
5

& (x – 0) + (5 – 3) = 20
2 2
O
& x2 + 4 = 20 & x2 = 16 D (0, 3)
(m, n)
B (6, 2)

& x = 4 (Since x lies in Ist quadrant)

5
Midpoint of AC = mid point of BD = d 3, n
2
5 A (2, 0)
= ( m , n ) & m = 3 , n = = 2. 5
2
& m = n + 0.5
∴ Option (c) is correct.

90 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 34. Let ratio be k : 1 .
Using section formula, we have
kx2 + x1
x=
k+1
k × 7 + (–2)
⇒ 1= ⇒ k + 1 = 7k – 2
k+1
⇒ 1 +2 = 7k – k ⇒ 3 = 6k
3 1 1
⇒ = ⇒ k =
k=
6 2 2
∴ Ratio be 1 : 2.

∴ Option (a) is correct.

35. We have AD is the median of DABC.
∴ D is the mid point of BC

6 +1 5 + 4
∴ Coordinates of D are e o=e , o
7 9
,
2 2 2 2
∴ Option (b) is correct.

36. Since O(–1, 3) is the centre of diameter AB.
∴ O be the mid point of AB.

Let coordinates of B be (x, y).
2+x y+5
∴ –1 = and 3 = A(2, 5) B(x, y)
2 2 O (–1, 3)
⇒ –2 = 2 + x and 6 = y + 5
⇒ x = – 4 and y = 1

∴ Coordinates of other end are (–4, 1).

∴ Option (a) is correct.

37. We have, AB = (–5 – 0) 2 + (3 – 6) 2 = 25 + 9 = 34
AC = (3 – 0) 2 + (1 – 6) 2 = 9 + 25 = 34
BC = (3 + 5) 2 + (1 – 3) 2 = 64 + 4 = 68
Here, AB = AC  ⇒  ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
38. We have point p(x, y) is given by
1× 2 + 2 × 8 1× 3 + 2 × (–9)
x= = 6, y = = –5
+
1 2 1+2
∴ Point is p ^6, –5 h

Which lies in IVth quadrant.
∴ Option (d) is correct.

39. Since, the distance of the point from x-axis is the y-coordinate of the point, and distance is always
positive.
∴ Distance from x–axis = 4

∴ Option (c) is correct.

40. We have,
m – 6 + ( – 2) –8
= ⇒ m = × 3 ⇒ m = –12
3 2 2
∴ Option (a) is correct.

Coordinate Geometry 91
 41. Using section formula, we have
1× (–7) + 2 × 2 –7 + 4 –3
⇒ k= = = –1 ⇒ k = –1
k= 3 3
1+ 2
∴ Option (d) is correct.

42. The required point P an x-axis is the mid point of the line joining the points A (–1, 0) and B(5, 0)
–1 + 5 0 + 0
∴ Co-ordinates of point P = d , n = (2, 0)
2 2
∴ Option (a) is correct.
P(–3, 5)
43. Since the point (– 3, 5) lies in second quadrant therefore
its reflection in x-axis will be in third quadrant.
∴ Its co-ordinates are (– 3, – 5)

∴ Option (c) is correct. P′(–3, –5)

44. Using section formula,

We have
3 × y + 1× 5
2= y
3+1
3y + 5
⇒ 2 =

4
& 8 = 3y + 5 & 3y = 8 – 5 = 3
3
∴ y=
=1 ⇒ y=1
3
∴ Option (d) is correct.
10 + k –6 + 4
45. We have, a =   and b = ⇒ b = –1
2 2
Also given, a – 2b = 18
– 2 # ]–1g = 18 ⇒
k + 10 k + 10 + 4
⇒ = 18 ⇒ k + 14 = 36
2 2
⇒ k = 36 – 14 = 22

∴ Option (b) is correct.

46. Since P c , 4 m is the mid point of line segment joining points A (– 5, 2) and B (4, 6)
a

8
a – 5+ 4 a –1 –8
∴ = ⇒ = ⇒ a= =– 4
8 2 8 2 2
∴
a=–4
∴ Option (a) is correct.

47. The point on x-axis equidistance from (–4, 0) and (10, 0) is its mid-point
 –4 + 10 0 + 0 
∴ Required point = 
,  = (3, 0)
 2 2 
∴ Option (d) is correct.

48. We have,
Centre of the circle is the mid-point of the end points of its diameter.
 –6 + 6 3 + 4   7
∴ Co-ordinates of the centre are 
,  i.e  0, 
 2 2   2
∴ Option (c) is correct.

49. Given points be A(m, –n) and B(–m, n)
2 2
∴ AB =
( m + m)2 + (– n – n)2 = 4 m 2 + 4 n2 = 2 m + n

92 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 ∴ Required distance = 2 m2 + n2

∴ Option (c) is correct.
We have, 5 = (4 – 1) 2 + (p – 0) 2 = 9 + p2
50.
⇒ 25 = 9 + p2 ⇒
p2 = 16 ⇒ p=±4
∴ Option (b) is correct.

52. Let co-ordinates of P be (x, y)
3 × 9 + 1× 5 32 3×6 + 1× (–2) 16
∴ x=
= =8 and y = = =4
+
3 1 4 3+1 4
∴ Co-ordinates of P are (8, 4).
∴ Option (b) is correct.

53. Since C(–1, 1) is the mid point of AB.
–3 + 1 b+b+4
∴ –1 =
and 1 =
2 2
⇒ –1 = –1
and 1 = b + 2 ⇒ b = –1
∴ Option (c) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF CASE-BASED QUESTIONS

1
1. (i) Niharika runs
th the distance AD on the second line, post a green flag.
4
∴ Position of the green flag is c2, ×100 m , i.e., (2, 25).
1

4
∴ Option (a) is correct.
1
(ii) Preet runs th distance AD on the eight line and posts a red flag.
5

∴ Position of the red flag is c8, ×100 m , i.e., (8, 20).

1

5
Its position is (8, 20).
∴ Option (c) is correct.
(iii) Distance between by green flag and red flag is given by
= (20 – 25) 2 + (8 – 2) 2 = 25 + 36 = 61 units
∴ Option (c) is correct.

2 + 8 25 + 20
(iv) Position of the blue flag = d , n = (5, 22.5)
2 2
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(v) Let P (x, y) be the position of a flag posted by Joy using section formula, we have
1× 8 + 4 × 2 16 1 4
x= = = 3 .2
1+4 5
1× 20 + 4 × 25 120 G P R
y= = = 24 (2, 25) (x, y) (8, 20)
1+4 5
∴ Position of the flag posted by Joy is (3.2, 24).
∴ Option (a) is correct.
x1 + x2 y1 + y2
2. (i) Mid point = f , p
2 2
6 + 9 17 + 16
=e o=e ,
15 33
, o
2 2 2 2
∴ Option (c) is correct.
Coordinate Geometry 93
 (ii) From top view P point is 4 boxes away.
∴ Option (a) is correct.
(iii) Distance between A and S = 16 boxes.
∴ Option (c) is correct.
(iv) Coordinates of A and B are (1, 8) and (5, 10) respectively.
Coordinates of point dividing AB in the ratio 1 : 3 internally are:
1× 5 + 3 ×1 1×10 + 3 × 8
x= , y=
1+ 3 1+ 3
8 34
⇒
x= =2 y= = 8 .5
4 4
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(v) P.(x, y) is equidistant from Q(9, 8) and S(17, 8) then
PQ = PS

(9 – x) 2 + _8 – y i = ^17 – xh + _8 – y i
2 2 2
⇒
⇒
(9 – x)2 + (8 – y)2 = (17 – x)2 + (8 – y)2
= 81 + x2 – 18x + 64 + y2 – 16y
= 289 + x2 – 34x + 64 + y2 – 16y
= 145 – 18x = 353 – 34x = 16x = 208
⇒
x = 13 or x – 13 = 0
∴ Option (b) is correct.
3. (i) If Shaurya's house is at (0, 0), then market is at (–3, –1).

∴ Option (b) is correct.
(ii) Kartik's house is at (–2, 4).
Distance between (0, 0) and (–2, 4) = (–2 – 0) 2 + (4 – 0) 2 = 4 + 16 = 20 units
∴ Option (a) is correct.
(iii) Let coordinate of the fort be (x , 6).
Then distance between (0, 0) and (x, 6) = 10.
⇒ (x – 0) 2 + (6 – 0) 2 = 10 ⇒ x2 + 36 = 100
⇒
x2 = 64 ⇒ x = ± 8
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(iv) Coordinate of school = (–5, 2) and park = (0, 2)
3 × 0 + 2 × ^ –5 h 3 × 2 + 2 × 2
Coordinate of required point = f , p
3+2 3+2
=d , n = _ –2 , 2 i
–10 10

5 5
∴ Option (a) is correct.
(v) The Polygon formed is a concave polygon.
∴ Option (c) is correct.
4. (i) The abscissa, i.e., x-coordinate of G is 0 as it lies on y-axis.
∴ Option (c) is correct.
(ii) Distance between C(–3, 2) and B(1, 6) is
^1 + 3 h + (6 – 2) 2 = 16 + 16 = 4 2 units.
2

∴ Option (b) is correct.

94 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 (iii) Coordinates of the required player are (2, –6), or (2, 6). J is at (2, – 6).
∴ Option (a) is correct.
(iv) Let (x, y) is the mid point of A(–4, 5) and H(–4, –1).
–4 – 4 5 –1
So, x = , y= ⇒ x = – 4, y = 2
2 2
∴ Option (a) is correct.
(v) If player F is shifted to IV Quadrant symmetric to D w.r.t x-axis, coordinates of F are (3, –4).
∴ Option (b) is correct.
5. (i) Coordinate of point B = (3, 8)
∴ Option (b) is correct.
(ii) Distance between H(1, 3) and G(3, 1) = ^3 – 1h2 + ^1 – 3h2 = 4+4 = 8
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(iii) Let point P(x, y) divides line segments joining A(1, 6) and D(8, 6) in the ratio 2 : 3.
8 × 2 + 1× 3
6×2+ 6×3
Then, x = y=
2+3 2+3
19 30
x = , y= =6
5 5

Required coordinates are d , 6 n .

19
5
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(iv) Let P(x, y) is equidistant from C(6, 8) and F(6, 1).
∴ CP = FP ⇒ CP2 = FP2
⇒ (6 – x) + (8 – y) = (6 – x) + (1 – y)2
2 2 2

⇒ (8 – y)2 = (1 – y)2 ⇒ 64 + y2 – 16y = 1 + y2 – 2y

⇒ 64 – 16y – 1 + 2y = 0 ⇒ 63 = 14y
⇒ 14y = 63
∴ Option (b) is correct.
(v) If H is origin then coordinates of P are (–1, –3).
∴ Option (b) is correct.
6. (i) Coordinate of H = (1, 5) and G = (5, 1)
∴ Option (a) is correct.
(ii) Distance between A(1, 9) and B(5, 13) is
(5 – 1) 2 + (13 – 9) 2 = 42 + 42 = 16 + 16 = 32 = 4 2 unit
∴ Option (b) is correct.
(iii) Mid point of line segment joining M(5, 11) and Q(9, 3) is given by
5 + 9 11 + 3
e o=e ,
14 14
, o = _7, 7 i
2 2 2 2
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(iv) Points T and O have same ordinate as 9.
∴ Option (b) is correct.
(v) If G is (0, 0), then Q = (4, 2).
∴ Option (c) is correct.
7. (i) Coordinate of point C = (0, 7) and D = (0, – 7).
∴ Option (a) is correct.

Coordinate Geometry 95
 (ii) Let the required point be (3, y).
Then, radius = 7 ⇒ ( 0 – 3) 2 + y 2 = 7 & 9 + y2 = 49
y = 40 = 2 10 (Since point lies in I quadrant)
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(iii) Coordinates of R = (1, –1)
∴ Option (c) is correct.
(iv) Coordinate of mid point of the line segment joining P(–1, 1) and
–1 + 1 1 –1
R(1, –1) = e , o = ( 0, 0)
2 2
∴ Option (b) is correct.
(v) y-coordinates of M is 5, so its distance from x-axis in 5 units.
∴ Option (d) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS

1. The x co-ordinate of the point (0, 4) is zero.
∴ Point (0, 4) lies on y-axis.

So, both A and R are correct and R explains A.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
2. PQ = 10 ⇒ PQ2 = 100 ⇒ (10 – 2)2 + (y + 3)2 = 100
⇒
(y + 3)2 ⇒ 100 – 64 = 36 ⇒ y+3=6
⇒
y = – 3  6 ⇒ y = 3, – 9
So, A is incorrect but R is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
3. Using section formula, we have
k× 6 + 1 × ] – 3 g
– 1= ⇒ – k – 1 = 6k – 3
k+1
2
⇒ 7k = 2 ⇒ k =
7
⇒ Ratio be 2 : 7 internally.
So, both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
a+b+c b+c+a
4. Centroid of a triangle with vertices (a, b), (b, c) and (c, a) is d , n.
3 3
a+b+c b+c+a
⇒
d , n = (0, 0) ⇒ a + b + c = 0
3 3
So, both A and R are correct and R explains A.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
zzz

96 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 5 TRIANGLES

BASIC CONCEPTS & FORMULAE

1. Two figures having the same shape but not necessarily the same size are called similar figures.
2. All congruent figures are similar but the converse is not true.
3. Two polygons with same number of sides are similar, if (i) their corresponding angles are equal and
(ii) their corresponding sides are in the same ratio (i.e., proportion).
4. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct points, then
the other two sides are divided in the same ratio (Basic Proportionality Theorem or Thales Theorem).
5. If a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio, then the line is parallel to the third side.
6. If in two triangles, corresponding angles are equal, then the two triangles are similar (AAA similarity
criterion).
7. If in two triangles, two angles of one triangle are respectively equal to the two corresponding
angles of the other triangle, then the two triangles are similar (AA similarity criterion).
8. If in two triangles, corresponding sides are in the same ratio, then the two triangles are similar
(SSS similarity criterion).
9. If one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of another triangle and the sides including these angles
are in the same ratio (proportional), then the two triangles are similar (SAS similarity criterion).
10. The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding
sides.
11. If a perpendicular is drawn from the vertex of the right angle of a right triangle to the hypotenuse,
then the triangles on both sides of the perpendicular are similar to the whole triangle and also to
each other.
12. In a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two
sides (Pythagoras Theorem).
13. If in a triangle, square of one side is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides, then the
angle opposite the first side is a right angle.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.
1. In figure, ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥ BC. Then, [NCERT Exemplar]

(a) BD . CD = BC2 (b) AB . AC = BC2 (c) BD . CD = AD2 (d) AB . AC = AD2

Triangles 97
 2. The length of each side of a rhombus whose diagonals are of lengths 10 cm and 24 cm is
(a) 25 cm (b) 13 cm (c) 26 cm (d) 34 cm
3. If DABC ~ DEDF and DABC is not similar to DDEF, then which of the following is not true?
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) BC. EF = AC. FD (b) AB. EF = AC. DE (c) BC. DE = AB. EF (d) BC. DE = AB. FD
ar (DABC) 9
4. If DABC ~ DDEF, = , BC = 21 cm, then EF is equal to
ar (DDEF) 25
(a) 9 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 35 cm (d) 25 cm
5. D and E are respectively the points on the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC such that
AD = 3 cm, BD = 5 cm, BC = 12.8 cm and DE || BC. Then length of DE (in cm) is
(a) 4.8 cm (b) 7.6 cm (c) 19.2 cm (d) 2.5 cm
AB BC CA
6. If in two triangles ABC and PQR, = = , then
QR PR PQ
(a) DPQR ~ DCAB (b) DPQR ~ DABC (c) DCBA ~ DPQR (d) DBCA ~ DPQR
7. If DPRQ ~ DXYZ, then
PR RQ PQ PR PQ QR QR PR
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
XZ YZ XY XZ XZ YZ XZ XY
8. A square and a rhombus are always
(a) similar (b) congruent
(c) similar but not congruent (d) neither similar nor congruent
9. In triangles ABC and DEF, ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3DE. Then, the two triangles are
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) congruent but not similar (b) similar but not congruent
(c) neither congruent nor similar (d) congruent as well as similar
10. It is given that DABC ~ DDFE, ∠A = 30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and DF = 7.5 cm.
Then, which of the following is true? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 50° (b) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°

(c) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 100° (d) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 30°
11. Two circles are always
(a) congruent (b) neither similar nor congruent

(c) similar but may not be congruent (d) none of these
12. In figure, two line segments AC and BD intersect each other at the point P such that
PA= 6 cm, PB = 3 cm, PC = 2.5 cm, PD = 5 cm, ∠APB = 50° and ∠CDP = 30°. Then, ∠PBA
is equal to [NCERT Exemplar]

A D
6 cm
m 30°
5c
P
50°
2.5 c
m m
3c C
B

(a) 50° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 100°

98 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 ar (DABC) 9
13. If DABC ~ DQRP,
= , AB = 18 cm and BC = 15 cm, then PR is equal to
ar (DPQR) 4
[NCERT Exemplar]
20
(a) 10 cm (b) 12 cm (c) cm (d) 8 cm
3
14. In DLMN and DPQR, ∠L = ∠P, ∠N = ∠R and MN = 2QR. Then the two triangles are
(a) Congruent but not similar (b) Similar but not congruent
(c) neither congruent nor similar (d) Congruent as well as similar

15. In DABC and DRPQ, AB = 4.5 cm, BC = 5 cm, CA = 6 2 cm, PR = 12 2 cm, PQ = 10 cm,
QR = 9 cm. If ∠A = 75° and ∠B = 55°, then ∠P is equal to
(a) 75° (b) 55° (c) 50° (d) 130°

16. If DABC ~ DEDF and DABC is not similar to DDEF, then which of the following is not true?
(a) BC . EF = AC . FD (b) AB . EF = AC . DE
(c) BC . DE = AB . EF (d) BC . DE = AB . FD
PQ 5 ar (DXYZ)
17. If DPQR ~ DXYZ and = , then is equal to
XY 2 ar (DPQR)
4 2 25 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25 5 4 2

18. It is given that ar(DABC) = 81 square units and ar(DDEF) = 64 square units. If DABC ~ DDEF,
then
AB 81 AB2 9
(a) = (b) =
DE 64 DE2 8
AB 9
(c) = (d) AB = 81 units, DE = 64 units
DE 8
19. DABC and DBDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the mid-point of BC. Ratio of the
area of triangles ABC and BDE is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
20. In triangle ABC, if AB = 6 3 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm, then ∠B is
(a) 120° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 45°
21. In DABC, DE  BC in given figure, then BD is equal to
A

4 cm 6 cm

D E
3 cm

B C

(a) 2 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 9 cm

22. If Manish goes 3 km towards East and then 4 km towards North. His distance from starting
point is
(a) 3 km (b) 4 km (c) 5 km (d) 2 km
23. In a triangle ABC if AB = 13 cm, BC = 12 cm and AC = 5 cm, then the triangle is right angled at
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) can’t say

Triangles 99
 ar (DABC) 9
24. If DABC ~ DPQR and = , also AB = 4 cm, then PQ is equal to
ar (DPQR) 4
8 8 3
(a) units (b) units (c) units (d) 8 units
3 2 2
AB DE
25. If in DABC and DDEF, = , then both will be similar when
BC FD
(a) ∠B = ∠E (b) ∠A = ∠D (c) ∠B = ∠D (d) ∠A = ∠F
26. In DABC, AB = 6 7 cm, BC = 24 cm and CA = 18 cm. Then angle A is
(a) an acute angle (b) an obtuse angle (c) a right angle (d) can’t say
BC 1 ar (PRQ)
27. It is given that DABC ~ DPQR, with = . Then, is equal to [NCERT Exemplar]
QR 3 ar (BCA)
1 1
(a) 9 (b) 3 (c) (d)
3 9
28. If S is a point on side PQ of a DPQR such that PS = QS = RS, then [NCERT Exemplar]
2 2 2 2
(a) PR . QR = RS (b) QS + RS = QR
2 2 2
(c) PR + QR = PQ (d) PS2 + RS2 = PR2
29. If in two triangles DEF and PQR, ∠D = ∠Q and ∠R = ∠E, then which of the following is not true?

EF DF DE EF DE DF EF DE
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
PR PQ PQ RP QR PQ RP QR
30. Given that DABC ~ DDEF. If DE = 2AB and BC = 3 cm then, EF equals
(a) 12 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 1.5 cm (d) 6 cm
31. The straight line distance between A and B is (See figure)
B

1 2

1 2
A
2

(a) 5 3 units (b) 5 units (c) 3 5 units (d) 5 2 units

32. In a DABC, +A = 25°, +B = 35° and AB = 16 units. In DPQR, +P = 35°, +Q = 120° and
PR = 4 units. Which of the following is true?
(a) ar (DABC) = 2ar (DPQR) (b) ar (DABC) = 4ar (DPQR)
(c) ar (DABC) = 8ar (DPQR) (d) ar (DABC) = 16ar (DPQR)
33. The altitude of an equilateral triangle, having the length of its side as 12 cm, is
(a) 6 2 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 8.5 cm (d) 6 3 cm
34. All the equilateral triangles are
(a) similar (b) congruent (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none
35. A DPQR is similar to another triangle ABC such that ar (DPQR) = 4ar (DABC) . The ratio of
their perimeter is given as
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 4 : 1 (d) none of these

100 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 36. If the three sides of a triangle are a, 3 a, 2 a then the measure of the angle opposite to the
longest side is
(a) 60° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 30°
37. QA and PB are perpendicular on AB, if AO = 10 cm, BO = 6 cm and PB = 9 cm, then measure
of AQ (see figure) is
P

A O
B

Q
(a) 15 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 10 cm (d) none of these
38. The areas of two similar triangles are 144 cm2 and 81 cm2. If one median of the first triangle
is 16 cm, length of corresponding median of the second triangle is
(a) 9 cm (b) 27 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 16 cm

39. O is a point on side PQ of a DPQR such that PO = QO = RO, then which of the following is
true?
(a) RO2 = PR × QR (b) PR2 + QR2 = PQ2
(c) QR2 = OQ2 + QR2 (d) OP2 + OR2 = PR2
AB BC CA
40. If in two triangles ABC and DEF, = = then
DF FE ED
(a) DABC ~ DDEF (b) DABC ~ DEDF (c) DABC ~ DEFD (d) DABC ~ DDFE
BC 1 ar (DDEF)
41. It is given that DABC ~ DDEF and = . Then is equal to
EF 5 ar (DABC)
1 1
(a) 5 (b) 25 (c) (d)
25 5
42. If DABC ~ DDEF then which of the following is not true?
(a) BC.DF = AC.EF (b) AB.DF = AC.DE (c) BC.DE = AB.EF (d) BC.DE = AB.FD
AD AE
43. In the given figure = and +ADE = 70° and +ACB = 50° then +BAC is equal to
BD EC
A

D E

B C
(a) 70° (b) 50° (c) 80° (d) 60°

Triangles 101
 44. In the given figure AD = 3 cm, AE = 5 cm, BD = 4 cm. CE = 4 cm, CF = 2 cm,
BF = 2.5 cm then which of the following is true?
A

3 cm 5 cm

D
E

4 cm
4 cm

B 2.5 cm F 2 cm C

(a) DE ; ; BC (b) DF ; ; AC
(c) EF ; ; AB (d) none of them
45. Two triangles BAC and BDC, right angled at A and D respectively, are drawn on the same base
BC and on the same side of BC. If AC and DB intersect at P, then AP × PC is equal to
(a) AB × CD
(b) AB × BC

(c) BC × CD
(d) DP × PB

46. XY is drawn parallel to the base BC of a DABC cutting AB at X and AC at Y. If AB = 4 BX and

YC = 2 cm, then AY is equal to
(a) 2 cm (b) 6 cm
(c) 8 cm (d) 4 cm
47. If D, E and F are mid points of sides BC, CA and AB repspectively of DABC, then the ratio of
the areas of triangles DEF and ABC is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 5
BX
48. ABCD is a parallelogram with diagonal AC. If a line XZ is drawn such that XZ ; ; AB then
XC
is equal to
A Z D

B X C

AY DZ AZ AC
(a) (b) (c) (d)
AC AZ ZD AY
49. Sum of squares of the sides of rhombus is equal to
(a) Sum of diagonals (b) Difference of diagonals
(c) Sum of squares of diagonals (d) none of them

102 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 50. In the given figure, if AD = BC, then AB2 + CD2 equals
C

B A

(a) AD + BC (b) AD + CD (c) BD2 + AC2 (d) none of them

2 2 2 2

51. Sides of triangles are given below. Which of these is a right triangle?
(a) 7 cm, 5 cm, 24 cm (b) 34 cm, 30 cm, 16 cm
(c) 4 cm, 3 cm, 7 cm (d) 8 cm, 12 cm, 14 cm
52. The ratio of areas of two similar triangles is equal to
(a) ratio of their corresponding sides
(b) ratio of their corresponding altitudes
(c) ratio of the square of their corresponding sides
(d) ratio of the squares of their perimeter
53. The areas of two similar triangles are 144 cm2 and 64 cm2. If one median of the first triangle
is 12 cm, length of corresponding median of the second triangle is
(a) 9 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 7 cm (d) 16 cm
ar (DABD)
54. In DABC, if AD is the bisector of +A then is equal to
ar (DACD)
AB AB AC AB
(a) (b) (c) (d)
BC AD BC AC
55. The ratio between the area of an equilateral triangle described on one diagonal of square and
area of an equilateral triangle described on one side of the square is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1

56. In an equilateral triangle ABC if AD = BC, which of the following is true?
(a) 2AB2 = 3AD2 (b) 4AB2 = 3AD2 (c) 3AB2 = 4AD2 (d) 3AB2 = 2AD2

57. If DABC is an equilateral triangle such that AD = BC, then which of the following is true?
3
(a) DC2 (b) 2 DC2 (c) 3CD2 (d) 4DC2
2
58. DABC is a right triangle right angled at A and AD = BC . Then, BD/DC is equal to
AB 2 AB
(a) (AB/AC)2 (b) AB/AC (c) d n (d)
AD AD
59. Vatsal claims that congruent figures are similar as well. Vinayak claims that similar figures are
congruent as well. Who is/are correct? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) Only Vatsal (b) Only Vinayak
(c) Both Vatsal and Vinayak (d) Neither Vatsal nor Vinayak

Triangles 103
 60. Consider the statements below.
(i) All circles are similar. (ii) All squares are similar.
(iii) All right triangles are congruent. (iv) All equilateral triangles are congruent.
Which statement is/are correct? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
61. Two similar figures are shown. R

10 m 76°

C
4m
5m 76° S x
2m
D 58° 2m y 98°
130° 98°
1m
B P Q
A 3m 6m

What are the values of x and y? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) x = 58°, y = 130° (b) x = 98°, y = 76° (c) x = 82°, y = 84° (d) x = 130°, y = 84°
62. Two quadrilaterals are such that their diagonals bisect each other. What additional information
is required to conclude that the quadrilaterals are similar? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) Opposite angles are equal
(b) Opposite sides are equal
(c) Diagonals bisect at right angle and adjacent angles are equal
(d) Diagonals are equal and opposite sides are equal
C
63. Consider the figure below.
cm
2.4

A
1.6 c
70° m
70°
O
0.8 c
m D

4.8 cm

B
Which of the following statement is correct about the triangles in the figure?
[CBSE Question Bank]
AO BO
(a) DAOB ~ DDOC because =
DO CO
(b) DAOB ~ DDOC because +AOB = +DOC
AO BO
(c) DAOB ~ DDOC because = and +BAO = +CDO
DO CO
AO BO
(d) DAOB ~ DDOC because = and +AOB = +DOC
DO CO

104 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 64. Consider the figure below.
A B
(7x + 1)°

60°

(3x + 29)°
C D

Which of the following statement help proving that triangle ABO is similar to triangle DOC?
(i) ∠B = 70° and (ii) ∠C = 70° [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) Statement (i) alone is sufficient, but statement (ii) alone is not sufficient.
(b) Statement (ii) alone is sufficient, but statement (i) alone is not sufficient.
(c) Each statement alone is sufficient.
(d) Both statement together is sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.

65. In the figure below, PQ || CB.

C

cm
3.3
P

cm
2.4

A B
1.3 cm Q

To the nearest tenth, what is the length of QB? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 1.4 cm (b) 1.7 cm (c) 1.8 cm (d) 2.2 cm
66. In the given figure, QR || AB, RP || BD, CQ = x + 2, QA = x, CP = 5x + 4, PD = 3x.
A
x
Q
x+
2

B C
R

+4
5x
P
5x
D

The value of x is _____________. [CBSE Question Bank]

(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 9

Triangles 105
 67. Observe the two triangles shown below.

P 4.8
F E
y
y

3.2 4 6

Q R
D

Which statement is correct? [CBSE Question Bank]

(a) Triangles are similar by SSA
(b) Triangles are similar by SAS
(c) Triangles are not similar as sides are not in proportion
(d) No valid conclusion about similarity of triangles can be made as angle measures are not
68. Consider the triangles below. [CBSE Question Bank]
P

40°

10 cm
A
5c
m
5c

B C Q R
10 cm

Which statement is correct?

(a) For triangles to be similar, the measure of ∠A = 40°.
(b) For triangles to be similar, the measure of ∠A = 100°.
(c) Triangles are similar as all isosceles triangles are similar.
(d) Triangles are similar as corresponding sides of the triangles are in the ratio 1 : 2.
69. Rohit is 6 feet tall. At an instant, his shadow is 5 feet long. At the same instant, the shadow of
a pole is 30 feet long. How tall is the pole? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 12 feet (b) 24 feet (c) 30 feet (d) 36 feet
70. Ankit is 5 feet tall. He places a mirror on the ground and moves until he can see the top of a
building. At the instant when Ankit is 2 feet from the mirror, the building is 48 feet from the
mirror. How tall is the building? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 96 feet (b) 120 feet (c) 180 feet (d) 240 feet
71. The area of two similar triangles are a and k2a. What is the ratio of the corresponding side
lengths of the triangles? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 1 : k (b) 1 : k2 (c) 1 : a (d) 1 : a2
72. In the figure below, PQ || BC. A

P Q

B C

106 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 The ratio of the perimeter of triangle ABC to the perimeter of triangle APQ is 3:1. Given that
the numerical value of the area of triangle APQ is a whole number, which of the following
could be the area of the triangle ABC? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 28 (b) 60 (c) 99 (d) 120
73. The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles, ABC and PQR shown below is 25 : 144. What is
the ratio of their medians AM and PN? [CBSE Question Bank]
A P

B C Q R
M N
(a) 5 : 12 (b) 5 : 16 (c) 12 : 5 (d) 25 : 144
74. The ratio of the areas of two similar right triangles is 9 : 16. The length of one of the sides of
the smaller triangle is 15 cm. How much longer is the length of the corresponding side of the
larger triangle from smaller triangle? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 5 cm
75. Observe the right triangle ABC, right angled at B as shown below.
A
x
P

5 x+
5

B C

What is the length of PC? [CBSE Question Bank]

(a) 2.5 cm (b) 4.5 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 7.5 cm
76. Observe the right triangle ABC, right angled at A as shown below. If BP ⊥ AC, then which of
the following is NOT correct? [CBSE Question Bank]
B

A P C

(a) ΔAPB ~ ΔABC (b) ΔAPB ~ ΔBPC (c) BC2 = CP . AC (d) AC2 = AB . CB
77. Consider the figure below.
B

A P C

Triangles 107
 Mr Shah follows the below step to prove AB2 + BC2 = AC2.
AP AB
(i) ΔAPB ~ ΔABC (ii) = (iii) AB2 = AP . AC. [CBSE Question Bank]
AB AC
Which of these could be his next step?
(a) Prove ΔABC ~ ΔPAB (b) Prove ΔAPB ~ ΔCPB
(c) Prove ΔBPC ~ ΔABC (d) Prove ΔAPB ~ ΔBPC

78. From point X, Alok walks 112 m east to reach at point Y. From point Y, Alok walks 15 m toward
north to reach point Z. What is the straight-line distance between position when he started and
his position now? N [CBSE Question Bank]

Z
15 m
W E
X 112 m Y

S
(a) 113 m (b) 117 m (c) 123 m (d) 127 m
79. Which set of lengths forms a right triangle? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 5 cm, 12 cm, 16 cm (b) 7 cm, 24 cm, 25 cm
(c) 3 cm, 3 cm, 4 cm (d) 6 cm, 7 cm, 9 cm
80. Consider the following three clamis about a triangle ABC with side lengths m, n and r.
(i) ABC is a right triangle provided n2 − m2 = r2.
(ii) Triangle with side lengths m + 2, n + 2 and r + 2 is a right-angle triangle.
(iii) Triangle with side lengths 2m, 2n and 2r is a right-angle triangle.
Which of these is correct? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) Statement (i) would be correct if n > m, n > r and statement 2 would be correct if ABC is a
right triangle.
(b) Statement (i) would be correct if r > m, r > n and statement 2 would be correct if ABC is a
right triangle.
(c) Statement (i) would be correct if n > m, n > r and statement 3 would be correct if ABC is a
right triangle.
(d) Statement (i) would be correct if r > m, r > n and statement 3 would be correct if ABC is a
right triangle.

81. In the adjoining figure, D, E and F are the mid-points of the side BC, AC and AB respectively
of ∆ABC then ar(∆DEF) : ar(∆ABC) is
A

F E

B C
D
1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
2 4 9

108 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 82. If DABC ∼ DDEF such that AB = 1.2 cm and DE = 1.4 cm, the ratio of the areas of DABC and D
DEF is [CBSE 2020 (30/3/1)]
(a) 49 : 36 (b) 6 : 7 (c) 7 : 6 (d) 36 : 49
83. In figure, ABC is an isosceles triangle, right-angled at C. Therefore [CBSE 2020 (30/5/1)]
B

C A
2 2 2 2
(a) AB = 2AC (b) BC = 2AB (c) AC2 = 2AB2 (d) AB2 = 4AC2
AD 3
84. In figure, DE  BC. If = and AE = 2.7 cm, then EC is equal to [CBSE 2020 (30/5/3)]
DB 2
A

2.7 cm

D E

B C

(a) 2.0 cm (b) 1.8 cm (c) 4.0 cm (d) 2.7 cm

85. It is given that DABC ~ DDFE, ∠A = 30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and
DF = 7.5 cm. Then, which of the following is true.
(a) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 50° (b) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°
(c) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 100° (d) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 30°
AB AC
=
86. If in triangles ABC and DEF,
, then they will be similar when
EF DE
(a) ∠A = ∠D (b) ∠A = ∠E (c) ∠B = ∠E (d) ∠C = ∠F

Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c)
19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b)
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (d)
43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (c)
49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d)
55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (a)
67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (c)
73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (a)
79. (b) 80. (c) 81. (b) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (b)
85. (b) 86. (b)

Triangles 109

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).

Vijay’s House Tower Ajay’s House

Vijay is trying to find the average height of a tower near his house. He is using the properties
of similar triangles. The height of Vijay’s house if 20 m when Vijay’s house casts a shadow 10 m
long on the ground. At the same time, the tower casts a shadow 50m long on the ground and the
house of Ajay casts 20 m shadow on the ground. [CBSE Question Bank]

(i) What is the height of the tower?

(a) 20 m (b) 50 m (c) 100 m (d) 200 m
(ii) What will be the length of the shadow of the tower when Vijay’s house casts a shadow of
12m?
(a) 75 m (b) 50 m (c) 45 m (d) 60 m
(iii) What is the height of Ajay’s house?
(a) 30 m (b) 40 m (c) 50 m (d) 20 m

(iv) When the tower casts a shadow of 40m, same time what will be the length of the shadow
of Ajay’s house?

(a) 16 m (b) 32 m (c) 20 m (d) 8 m

(v) When the tower casts a shadow of 40m, same time what will be the length of the shadow
of Vijay’s house?

(a) 15 m (b) 32 m (c) 16 m (d) 8 m

2. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).

Rohan wants to measure the distance of a pond during the visit to his native. He mark points A and
B on the opposite edges of a pond as shown in the figure below. To find the distance between the
points, he makes a right-angled triangle using rope connecting B with another point C at a distance
of 12 m, connecting C to point D at a distance of 40m from point C and then connecting D to the
point A which is at a distance of 30 m from D such that ∠ADC = 90° . [CBSE Question Bank]

110 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 A B 12 m C

30
m

m
40

(i) Which property of geometry will be used to find the distance AC?
(a) Similarity of triangles (b) Thales Theorem
(c) Pythagoras Theorem (d) Area of similar triangles
(ii) What is the distance AC?
(a) 50 m (b) 12 m (c) 100 m (d) 70 m
(iii) Which is the following does not form a Pythagorian triplet?
(a) 7,24,25 (b) 15,8,17 (c) 5,12,13 (d) 21,20,28
(iv) The length AB is
(a) 12 m (b) 38 m (c) 50 m (d) 100 m
(v) The length of the rope used
(a) 120 m (b) 70 m (c) 82 m (d) 22 m

3. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
SCALE FACTOR
A scale drawing of an object is the same shape as the object but a different size.
The scale of a drawing is a comparison of the length used on a drawing to the length it represents.
The scale is written as a ratio.
SIMILAR FIGURES
The ratio of two corresponding sides in similar figures is called the scale factor.

Length in image
Scale Factor =
Corresponding length in object

If one shape can become another using Resizing then the shapes are
similar.

Rotation or Turn



Reflection or Flip Translation or Slide

Triangles 111
 Hence, two shapes are Similar when one can become the other after a resize, flip, slide or turn.
(i) A model of a boat is made on the scale of 1 : 4. The model is 120 cm long. The full size of
the boat has a width of 60 cm. What is the width of the scale model?

(a) 20 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 240 cm
(ii) What will effect the similarity of any two polygons?
(a) They are flipped horizontally (b) They are dilated by a scale factor
(c) They are translated down (d) They are not the mirror image of one another
(iii) If two similar triangles have a scale factor of a : b. Which statement regarding the two
triangles is true?
(a) The ratio of their perimeters is 3a : b (b) Their altitudes have a ratio a : b
a
(c) Their medians have a ratio : b (d) Their angle bisectors have a ratio a2 : b2
2
(iv) The shadow of a stick 5 m long is 2 m. At the same time the shadow of a tree 12.5 m high is

Tree

Stick

Shadow Shadow

(a) 3 m (b) 3.5 m (c) 4.5 m (d) 5 m

(v) Below you see a student’s mathematical model of a farmhouse roof with measure-ments.
The attic floor, ABCD in the model, is a square. The beams that support the roof are the
edges of a rectangular prism, EFGHKLMN. E is the middle of AT, F is the middle of BT, G
is the middle of CT, and H is the middle of DT. All the edges of the pyramid in the model
have length of 12 m.
T

12
H G m

E
F

D
C
N M
m
K L 12
A 12 m B

What is the length of EF, where EF is one of the horizontal edges of the block?
(a) 24 m (b) 3 m (c) 6 m (d) 10 m

112 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 4. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Two trees are standing parallel to each other. The bigger tree 8 m high, casts a shadow of 6 m.

E
A C

(i) If AB and CD are the two trees and AE is the shadow of the longer tree, then
(a) TAEB + TCED (b) TABE + TCED (c) TAEB + TDEC (d) TBEA + TDEC
(ii) Since AB CD , so by basic proportionality theorem, we have
AE BD AC DE AE AB AE BE
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
CE DE AE BE CE CD CE DE

(iii) If the ratio of the height of two trees is 3 : 1, then the shadow of the smaller tree is
8
(a) 2 m (b) 6 m (c) m (d) 8 m
3
(iv) The distance of point B from E is
10
(a) 10 m (b) 8 m (c) 18 m (d) m
3
ar (TABC) 4
(v) If TABC + TPQR, = , PQ = 10 cm, then AB is equal to
ar (TPQR) 25
8
(a) 4 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 5 cm (d) cm
5

5. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A ladder was placed against a wall such that it touches a point 4 m above the ground. The
distance of the foot of the ladder from the bottom of the ground was 3 m. Keeping its foot at
the same point, Akshay turns the ladder to the opposite side so that it reached the window of his
house. E

4m

B 3m C D

(i) The theorem which can be used for find the length of the ladder is
(a) Thales Theorem (b) Converse of Thales Theorem
(c) Pythagoras Theorem (d) Converse of Pythagoras Theorem
(ii) The length of the ladder, in metre is
(a) 4 m (b) 5 m (c) 9 m (d) 2 m
(iii) If the window of the house is 3 m above the ground, then the distance of the point C from
D is
(a) 3 m (b) 4 m (c) 5 m (d) 3.5 m

Triangles 113
 (iv) In an isosceles right triangle PQR, right angled at P, then
(a) QR2 = 2PQ2 (b) QP2 = 2PR2 (c) QP2 = 2QR2 (d) PR2 = 2QR2
(v) If OA2 = OB2 + AB2, then
(a) TOBA is an equilateral triangle.
(b) TOAB is an isosceles right triangle.
(c) TOAB is a right triangle right angled at O.
(d) TOAB is a right triangle right angled at B.

6. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Two buildings (say A and B) are located 12 m apart. The height of the two buildings are 32 m
and 41 m. E

D C

A B
(i) The distance between the top of the two buildings can be calculated using
(a) Thales Theorem (b) Pythagoras Theorem
(c) Converse of Thales Theorem (d) Converse of Pythagoras Theorem
(ii) The length EF in the figure is
41
(a) 32 m (b) 41 m (c) m (d) 9 m
2
(iii) The distance DF is equal to
(a) 15 m (b) 12 m (c) 9 m (d) 21 m
(iv) In a triangle PQR, PQ = 7 cm, QR = 25 cm, RP = 24 cm, then the triangle is right angled at
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) can’t say
(v) ABC is an equilateral triangle of side ‘2a’ units. The length of each of its altitude is
(a) a units (b) 2a units (c) 2 a units (d) 3 a units

7. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A farmer had a triangular piece of land. He put a fence, parallel to one of the sides of the field
as shown in the figure.
A

D E

B C

114 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 (i) Which of the following statements is true?
AD AE AD AE
(a) = , using Thales Theorem (b) = , using Pythagoras Theorem
DB EC DB EC
AD AE AD AE
(c) = , using Pythagoras Theorem (d) = , using Thales Theorem
AB EC AB EC
(ii) If the point D is 20 m away from A, where as AB and AC are 80 m and 100 m respectively,
then
(a) AE = 20 m (b) EC = 25 cm (c) AE = 25 cm (d) EC = 60 cm
(iii) If AD = x + 1, DB = 3x – 1, AE = x + 3, EC = 3x + 4, then
(a) x = 5 (b) x = 7 (c) x = 8 (d) x = 4
(iv) Which of the following is not true?
AD AE AD AB AB AC BD AE
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
AB AC AE AC BD EC AD EC
(v) If P and Q are the mid points of sides YZ and XZ respectively, then
(a) PQ ;; XY (b) PQ ;; YZ (c) PQ ;; ZX (d) None of these

8. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
The ratio of two corresponding sides in similar figures is called scale factor.
Length of image
Scale factor =
Actual length of object

(i) A model of a car is made on the scale 1 : 8. The model is 40 cm long and 20 cm wide. The
actual length of car is
(a) 320 cm (b) 160 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 2.5 cm
(ii) If two similar triangles have a scale factor of 2 : 5, then which of the following statements
is true?
(a) The ratio of their medians is 2 : 5.
(b) The ratio of their altitudes is 5 : 2.
(c) The ratio of their perimeters is 2 × 3 : 5.
(d) The ratio of their altitudes is 22 : 52.
(iii) The shadow of a statue 8 m long has length 5 m. At the same time the shadow of a pole
5.6 m high is
(a) 3 m (b) 3.5 m (c) 4 cm (d) 4.5 m
(iv) For two similar polygons which of the following is not true?
(a) They are not flipped horizontally.
(b) They are dilated by a scale factor.
(c) They cannot be translated down.
(d) They are mirror images of each other.
(v) Two similar triangles have a scale factor of 1 : 2. Then their corresponding altitudes have
a ratio
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1

Triangles 115
Answers
1. (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (a) (v) (d)
2. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (d) (iv) (b) (v) (c)
3. (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (d) (v) (c)
4. (i) (a) (ii) (d) (iii) (a) (iv) (a) (v) (a)
5. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (b) (iv) (a) (v) (d)
6. (i) (b) (ii) (d) (iii) (a) (iv) (a) (v) (d)
7. (i) (a) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (d) (v) (a)
8. (i) (a) (ii) (a) (iii) (b) (iv) (d) (v) (c)

ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements—Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A) : ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF such that ar(∆ABC) = 36 cm2 and ar(∆DEF) = 49 cm2 then,
AB : DE = 6 : 7.
ar (DABC) AB2 BC2 AC2
Reason (R) : If ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF, then = = =
ar (DDEF) DE2 EF2 DF2
2. Assertion (A) : In DABC, DE || BC such that AD = (7x – 4) cm, AE = (5x – 2) cm,
DB = (3x + 4) cm and EC = 3x cm than x equal to 5.
Reason (R) : If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides
in distant point, than the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
3. Assertion (A) : DABC is an isosceles triangle right angled of C, then AB2 = 2AC2.
Reason (R) : In right DABC, right angled at B, AC2 = AB2 + BC2.
4. Assertion (A) : In the DABC, AB = 24 cm, BC = 10 cm and AC = 26 cm, then DABC is a right
angle triangle.
Reason (R) : If in two triangles, their corresponding angles are equal, then the triangles are
similar.

Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b)

HINTS/SOLUTIONS OF SELECTED MCQs

1. a DABC is a right angled triangle A

` The line drawn from right angled vertex to the
hypotenuse divides the triangle into two similar triangles.
So, DABD ~ DCAD
BD AD
`
AD
=
CD
& AD2 = BD × CD.
B D C
Hence, option (c) is correct.
116 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 3. Since, DABC ~ DEDF
Therefore the ratio of their corresponding sides are equal.
BC AB
But !
EF DE
& BC.DE ! AB.EF
Hence, option (c) is correct.
7. Since, TPRQ + TXYZ
 The ratio of their corresponding sides are equal.
PQ QR
⇒ =
XZ YZ
Hence, option (c) is correct.
9. In two triangles ABC and DEF
+B = +E, +C = +F and AB = 3DE
So DABC ~ DDEF (By AA similarity)
But both triangles are not congruent. Since there is no information about sides.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
12. We have,
In DPAB and DPDC
BP AP
=
PC PD
∠APB = ∠DPC = 50° (Vertically opposite angles)
∴
DPAB ~ DPDC (By SAS similarity criteria)
∴
∠A = ∠D = 30°
In DABP, we have
∠A + ∠B + ∠P = 180° ⇒ 30° + ∠B + 50° = 180°
⇒
∠B = 100° ⇒ ∠PBA = 100°
Hence, option (d) is correct.
13. Given, ∆ABC ∼ ∆QRP
ar (TABC) BC2
∴
=
ar (TQRP) RP2
2
9 (15) 15 3
⇒
= ⇒ =
4 (RP) 2 RP 2
15 × 2
⇒
RP = = 5 × 2 = 10 ⇒ RP = 10 cm
3

Hence, option (a) is correct.
17. We have,
2
ar (DXYZ) XY2 A
f p
XY
= =
ar (DPQR) PQ2 PQ
2
ar (DXYZ) 2
=e o =
4

ar (DPQR) 5 25
Hence, option (a) is correct.
19. a D is mid point of BC D
B
C
Let BC = a.

a
` BD = BC/2
& BD = 2
E

Triangles 117
 3 2
ar (DABC) =
a
4
3 a 2 3 a2
ar (DBDE) =
d n = e o
4 2 4 4
ar (DABC) 3 a2 4
Now = a2 = ×4 = = 4 :1
ar (DBDE) 4 a 2 1
3 a2
4 4
Hence, option (d) is correct.
20. a AC is the longest side.
AC2 = AB2 + BC2 & 144 = (6 3 ) 2 + (6) 2
& 144 = 108 + 36 & 144 = 144
` +B is right angle. [By converse of Pythagoras theorem]

Hence, option (c) is correct.
21. In DABC
A
DE|| BC
AD AE 4 cm 6 cm
Then = [By BPT]
BD EC
D E
4 6
=   ⇒  4 × 3 = BD × 6 3 cm
BD 3
4×3 B C
     ⇒  BD = = 2cm
6
` Option (a) is correct.
22. By Pythagoras theorem in DABC C
2 2 2
AC = AB + BC
= (3)2 + (4)2 = 9 + 16 North

AC2 = 25 4 km
AC =5
East

` Option (c) is correct.
B
23. Given AB = 13 cm, BC = 12 cm and AC = 5 cm A 3 km B
Here longest side is 13 cm, So, it is the hypotenuse,
AB2 = AC2 + BC2
169 = 25 + 144
cm

169
= 169
13

12 cm

So ∠C is 90° [Angle opposite to hypotenuse is 90°]

` Option (c) is correct.
ar ]TABCg 9 A C
24. Given =
ar ^TPQR h
5 cm
4
A
Since DABC ~ DPQR
ar ]TABCg AB2 P
=
ar ^TPQR h PQ2 4
2
9 4 9 4
=
4 PQ2 sq. units sq. units

PQ2 × 9 = 4 × 16
B C Q R

118 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 4 ×16
⇒ PQ2 =

9
4 ×16 2× 4 8
PQ = ⇒ PQ = = cm
9 3 3
Hence, option (a) is correct.
AB DE
25. In DABC and DEDF, =
BC FD
A E

B C D F

In given figure included angle is ∠B and ∠D

So, ∠B = ∠D
B
Thus option (c) is correct.

26. In ∆ABC,
AB2 + AC2 = ^6 7 h + ]18g
2 2
6√7 cm 24 cm
= 252 + 324 = 576
= BC2
So, by Pythagoras theorem, it is a right angle. A 18 cm C

Hence, option (c) is correct.

27. a B
 oth, the triangles are similar, so the ratio of their areas is equal to the ratio of square of
their corresponding sides.
ar _3 PRQ i QR 2
3 2 9
⇒
=f p = d n = or 9
ar ^3 BCA h BC 1 1
Hence, option (a) is correct.
28. In ∆PQR, P
PS = QS = RS (Given) ...(i)
2
In ∆PSR,
PS = RS S
⇒ ∠1 = ∠2 ... (ii) 1
Similarly in ∆SQR, 4 3
QS = RS Q R
⇒ ∠3 = ∠4 [Corresponding angles of equal sides are equal]
Now, in ∆PQR,
∠P + ∠Q + ∠R = 180° [Angle sum property]
⇒ ∠2 + ∠4 + ∠1 + ∠3 = 180°
⇒ ∠1 + ∠3 + ∠1 + ∠3 = 180° [From equation (i) and (ii)]
⇒ 2 [∠1 + ∠3] = 180° ⇒ ∠1 + ∠3 = 90°
So, ∠R = 90°
In ∆PQR, by Pythagoras theorem,
PR2 + QR2 = PQ2
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Triangles 119
 29. Two triangles DEF and PQR, in which
+D = +Q and +R = +E (Given)
& DDEF ~ DQRP [By AA similarity]

So, ratio of corresponding sides are equal.
DE DF EF
= =
QR QP RP
DE EF
Hence, = is not true.
PQ RP
Hence, option (b) is correct.
30. a DABC ~ DDEF (Given)
AB BC AB 3
& DE = EF & 2AB = EF
1 3
& 2 = EF & EF = 6 cm
Hence, option (d) is correct.
B
31. In DAQM
AQ2 = 4 + 1 & AQ = 5 P
1

In DPQN 1 2 O

PQ2 = 4 + 1 & PQ = 5
Q
N
2
In DBPO 1
A
PB2 = 4 + 1 & PB = 5 2
M

AB = AQ + QP + PB
= 5 + 5 + 5 = 3 5 units
Hence, option (c) is correct.
32. In DABC and DPQR P
+A = +R = 25° B

+B = +P = 35° 35°
35°

4u

` DABC ~ DRPQ (By AA similarity)
its

nit
un

s
ar (DABC) AB2 162
16

So, = =
ar (RPQ) PR2 42 25° 120° 120° 25°
256 16 A C Q R
= =
16 1
& ar (DABC) =16 ar (DRPQ)

Hence, option (d) is correct.
A
33. As we know that altitude also acts as a median of
an equilateral triangle.
BC 12
` BM = CM = = = 6 cm
2 2
In DABM
AM2 = AB2 – BM2
= 122 – 62 = 144 – 36 = 108 C M B
AM = 108 = 36 × 3 = 6 3 cm 12 cm

Hence, option (d) is correct.

120 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 34. Since the ratio of corresponding sides of all equilateral triangles are same. So all equilateral
triangles are similar.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
ar (DPQR) 4
35. It is given that =
ar (DABC) 1
We know that in similar triangles ratio of areas is equal to ratio of square of its corresponding
sides.
ar (DPQR) PQ2 4 PQ 2
So, = = ⇒ =
ar (DABC) AB 2 1 AB 1
Again ratio of perimeters is equal to ratio of corresponding sides.
Perimeter of DPQR PQ 2
So, = = i.e., 2 : 1
Perimeter of DABC AB 1
Hence, option (a) is correct.
B
36. Three sides are a, 3 a and 2 a ,
let AB = 2 a, AC = a, BC = 3 a
Here, AB2 + AC2 = BC2 3
2
& ( 2 a) 2 + (a) 2 = ( 3 a) 2

& 2a 2 + a 2 = 3a 2 & 3 a 2 = 3a 2

Here sum of squares of two sides is equal to square of third side.
So, the triangle is right angled triangle. A C

& Angle opposite to longest side is 90°.

Hence, option (b) is correct.
37. In DAOQ and DBOP, we have P

+AOQ = +BOP (Vertically opposite angle)

9 cm
+OAQ = +OBP (Both of 90°)
10 cm O
A

` DAOQ ~ DBOP (By AA similarity) 6 cm B

AO AQ 10 AQ 10×9
So
BO
=
PB
& 6
=
9
& AQ = 6
= 15 cm

Hence, option (a) is correct. Q

38. As we know that ratio of area of two triangles is equal to ratio of square of medians of both the
triangle.
area of triagle 1 (median 1) 2
So, =
area of triangle 2 (median 2) 2
144 (16) 2 81× 256
& 81 = & (median 2) 2 = 144 = 144
2
(median)
⇒ median 2 = 144 = 12 cm

Hence, option (c) is correct.
39. In DPQR , PO = QO = RO (Given)
In DPOR,
OP = OR & +1 = +2 …(i) (Equal sides have equal opposite angles)
Similarly in DROQ
+3 = +4 …(ii)
Now in DPQR,

Triangles 121
 +P + +Q + +R = 180° R
& +2 + +4 + +1 + +3 = 180°

1
& +1 + +3 + +1 + +3 = 180°
3
& 2 (+1 + +3) = 180°

& +1 + +3 = 90°

& DPQR is right angled triangle. 2 4
So, PQ2 = PR2 + QR2 P O Q

Hence, option (b) is correct.

40. From the correspondence of sides we can clearly say that DABC ~ DDFE.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
41. As we know ratio of areas of two similar triangles is equal to ratio of squares of its corresponding
sides.
ar (DDEF) EF2 EF 2 5 2 25
So, = = d n = d n = = 25
ar (DABC) BC2 BC 1 1
Hence, option (b) is correct.
42. a DABC ~ DDEF
` Ratio of corresponding sides are equal.
AB BC AC
So,
DE
=
EF
=
DF
& BC.DF = AC.EF is true
or AB.DF = AC.DE is true or BC.DE = AB.EF is true
But BC.DE = AB.FD is not correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
AD AE A
43. Given that = and +ADE = 70°
BD EC
By BPT, DE ; ; BC 70°
& +AED = +ACB (Corresponding angles) D E

= 50°
In DADE
+A + +ADE + +AED = 180° (By ASP) 50°
B C
& +A = 180° – 70° – 50°
A
& +A = 60° & +BAC = 60°

Hence, option (d) is correct.
3 cm 5 cm
CE 4
44. a = = 0.8 and
AE 5 D
E
CF 2 20 4
= = = = 0. 8
BF 2.5 25 5 4 cm
CE CF 4 cm
& AE = BF & EF ; ; AB [By converse of BPT]
2.5 cm F 2 cm C
Hence, option (c) is correct. B
D
45. In DAPB and DDPC , we have A
P
+A = +D (Both of 90°)
+APB = +DPC (Vertically opposite angles)
` DAPB ~ DDPC (By AA similarty)
AP PB
& DP = PC & AP× PC = DP × PB B C

Hence, option (d) is correct.

122 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 46. Given AB = 4BX and YC = 2 cm A

a XY ; ; BC
AB AC 4 AC 4
` = = & =
BX CY 1 CY 1 X Y

AC 4
= [a YC = 2 cm]
2 1
& AC = 8 cm B C
Now AY = AC – CY & (8 – 2) cm & 6 cm
Hence, option (b) is correct. A
47. a D, E and F are mid points of BC, AC and AB respectively.
1 1 1
` DE =
AB, EF = BC and DF = AC
2 2 2
and DE ; ; AB, EF ; ; BC, DF ; ; AC F E

Therefore DDEF ~ DABC

ar (DDEF) EF2 EF2
So, = =
ar (DABC) BC2 (2EF) 2 B D C
2
EF 1
= = or 1: 4.
4EF 2 4
Hence, option (b) is correct.
48. In DABC
a AB ; ; XY
BX AY Z D
A
` = (By BPT) …(i)
XC YC
In parallelogram ABCD,
Y
AB ; ; CD ; ; XZ
In DACD,
a CD ; ; YZ B C
X
AY AZ
& YC = ZD (By BPT) …(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get
BX AZ
=
XC ZD
Hence, option (c) is correct.
49. a Diagonals of rhombus bisect each other at 90°.
` DAOB, DAOD, DBOC and DCOD are right angled triangles.
1 1
Here, OA = OC = AC and OB = OD = BD
2 2 A B
In DAOB,
AB2 = OA2 + OB2
AC 2 BD 2
& AB2 = d

2
n +d
2
n
O
AC2 BD2
& AB2 = 4 + 4

& 4AB2 = AC2 + BD2

D C

Triangles 123
 & AB2 + AB2 + AB2 + AB2 = AC2 + BD2

& AB2 + BC2 + CD2 + AD2 = AC2 + BD2

Hence, option (c) is correct. C
50. Here AD = BC
In DABD
AB2 = AD2 + BD2 …(i)

In DACD
AC2 = AD2 + CD2 … (ii)
D
From (i) and (ii)
AB2 = (AC2 – CD2) + BD2 [Put value of AD2]

& AB2 + CD2 = AC2 + BD2
B A
Hence, option (c) is correct.
51. All right angle triangles should satisfy the Pythagoras Theorem
So, h2 = p2 + b2
(34) 2 = (30) 2 + (16) 2
⇒ 1156 = 900 + 256
& 1156 = 1156

So, sides of a right triangle are 34 cm, 30 cm and 16 cm
Hence, option (b) is correct.
52. We know from theorem that if two triangles are similar then ratio of area of these triangles is
equal to ratio of square of their corresponding sides.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
53. As we know that in two similar triangles ratio of area of two triangles is equal to ratio of square
of their corresponding medians
Area of triangle 1 (median1) 2
So, =
Area of triangle 2 (median2) 2
144 (12) 2 64 ×144
& 64 =
& (median 2) 2 = 144
(median 2) 2
median 2 = 8 cm
Hence, option (b) is correct.
54. In DABC, AD is the bisectors of +A .
AB BD A
` = … (i)
AC DC
From A draw AL = BC
1
ar (DABD) BD × AL BD
` = 2 =
ar (DACD) 1 CD
CD×AL
2
ar (DABD) AB
& ar (DACD) = AC [From (i)]
B L D C
Hence, option (d) is correct.
55. ABCD is a square and APC is a triangle described on diagonal and BCQ, is a triangle described
on a side of square.
Let each side of square be of length a unit.

124 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 P
Diagonal AC = a2 + a2 = a 2 units
D C
a Both triangles are equilateral triangles.
3
ar (DAPC) × (a 2 ) 2 a2 × 2 2
` = 4 = = i.e., 2 : 1 Q
ar (DBCQ) 3 2 a 2 1
a
4
Hence, option (c) is correct.
A B
56. a Perpendicular of an equilateral triangle act as a median.
BC A
` BD = CD =
2
In DABD,
AB2 = AD2 + BD2
BC 2 BC2
AB2 = AD2 + d n & AB2 = AD2 +
2 4
AB2
& AB2 = AD2 +

4
[a AB = BC = AC]
2 2
4AD + AB
& AB2 = 4
& 3AB2 = 4AD2 B D C

Hence, option (c) is correct. A

57. a Perpendicular of an equilateral triangle act as a median.
` BD = CD = BC/2
In DADC
AC2 = AD2 + CD2
& BC2 = AD2 + CD2 [a AB = BC = AC]

& (2CD) 2 = AD2 + CD2

& 4CD2 = AD2 + CD2 & AD2 = 3CD2
B D C
Hence, option (c) is correct.
B
58. As we know that the perpendicular from the right angle vertex on
hypotenuse divides the triangle into two similar triangles.

` DABD ~ DACD
D
Ratio of corresponding sides are equal.
BD AB
=
CD AC
Hence, option (b) is correct.
A C
59. Since we know that all the congruent figures are similar. Therefore only
Vatsal is correct.
` Option (a) is correct.
60. We know that all circles are similar, all squares are also similar because their angles are equal
but all right triagles are not congruent because different right triangles can have different sides.
Also, all equilateral triangles are not congruent due to same reason.

` Option (a) is correct.
61. We have,
AB = 3 m, BC = 2 m, CD = 5 m, DA = 1 m
and PQ = 6 m, QR = 4 m, RS = 10 m, SP = 2 m
AB BC CD DA 1
` = = = =
PQ QR RS SP 2

Triangles 125
 ` Quadrilateral ABCD ~ 4PQRS
` +A = +P and +D = +S (Corresponding angles)
& 130° = y and 58° = x
` x = 58° and y = 130°
` Option (a) is correct.
62. For two quadrilaterals to be similar whose diagonals bisect each other, the diagonals should
bisected at right angles and their adjacent angles should be equal.

` Option (c) is correct.
63. In DAOB and DDOC, we have
AO 1.6 OB 4.8
= = 2 and = =2
OD 0.8 OC 2.4
AO OB
` =
OD OC
+AOB = +COD (Vertically opposite angles are equal)
` DAOB ~ DDOC (By SAS similarity criteria)
Thus, option (d) is correct.
64. Statement (i), +B = 70
` +A = 180° – (60° + 70°) = 50°
& 7x + 1 = 50 & 7x = 49 & x = 7
` +D = 3x + 29 = 3 × 7 + 29 = 21 + 29 = 50
` +A = +D and +AOB = +COD = 60°
Also third angle +B = +C = 70°
DAOB~DDCO (By AAA similarity criteria)
Now, if we take statement (ii), +C = 70°, then also same result will be found i.e.,
DAOB ~ DDOC
Thus, option (c) is correct, i.e; each statement alone is sufficient.
65. We have
In DABC PQ ; ; BC
AQ AP 1.3 2.4 24
`
QB
=
PC
& QB =
3.3
=
33
1.3 8 1.3 ×11
& QB
=
11
& QB = 8
= 1.78 = 1.8 cm

` Option (c) is correct.

66. It is given that
QR ; ; AB, RP ; ; BD
and, CQ = x + 2, QA = x,
CP = 5x + 4, PD = 3x,
Now,
In DABC, QR ; ; AB
CQ CR
` = … (i)
AQ RB
In DBCD, RP ; ; BD
CR CP
` = …(ii)
RB PD

126 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 From (i) and (ii), we have
CQ CP x+2 5x + 4 x+2 5x + 4
= & = & =
AQ PD x 3x 1 3
& 3x + 6 = 5x + 4 & 2 = 2x & x = 1
` Option (a) is correct.
67. We have,
PQ = 3.2, PR = 4 and +P = y
Also, EF = 4.8, DE = 6 and +E = y
In DPQR and DEFD, we have
PQ 3. 2 2 PR 4 2
= = , = =
EF 4. 8 3 DE 6 3
and +P = +E = y
PQ PR
& EF = DE and +P = +E
` Both triangles are similar by SAS similarity criteria.

` Option (b) is correct.
68. In DPQR we have
PR = QR & +Q = +P = 40°
+R = 180° – (+P + +Q) = 180° – (40° + 40°) = 100°
` +R = 100°
AB 5 1 AC 5 1 AB AC 1
We have, = = , = = & = =
PR 10 2 QR 10 2 PR QR 2
Condition for both be triangles to be similar is
+A = +R = 100°
` Option (b) is correct.
69. Let AB be position of Rohit and PQ be the pole.
Now, at the same instant +C = +R
+B = +Q = 90° P
+C = +R
A
` DABC ~ DPQR (By AA similarity criteria)
AB BC
` = (Corresponding sides) 6 ft
PQ QR
6 5 B C Q R
& PQ = 30 & PQ = 36 ft . 5 ft 30 ft

` Height of the pole be 36 ft

` Option (d) is correct.
70. Let h feet be the height of the building.
Since both the triangle formed by Ankit and a building, are similar.
5 h

2
=
48
& h = 24 × 5 = 120 feet A D

` Option (b) is correct.

71. Let DABC and DDEF are two similar triangles.

ar (DABC) AB2 BC2 AC2
` = = =
ar (DDEF) DE2 EF2 DF2
a AB2
& = B C E F
k2 a DE2
Triangles 127
 1 AB2AB 1
& = & DE = k
k2 DE2
` AB : DE = 1 : k
` Option (a) is correct.
72. In DABC, PQ ; ; BC
` DAPQ ~ DABC (By AAA similarity criteria)
Perimeter of DABC 3 AB 3
`
Perimeter of DAPQ
=
1
& AP
=
1
… (i)

area of DABC AB2 3 2 ar (DABC)

Now, = = d n & =9
area of DAPQ AP2 1 ar (DAPQ)
& ar (DABC) = 9 × ar (DAPQ)
a ar (DAPQ) is whole number.
` ar (DABC) is a multiple of 9.
In the given option it is only 99.
` Option (c) is correct.
73. We have
DABC ~ DPQR
ar (DABC) 25 AM2 25 52
and = & = =
ar (DPQR) 144 PN2 144 122
AM 5
=
PN 12

` Option (a) is correct.
74. Let x cm be length of corresponding sides of larger triangle.
(15) 2 9 15 3 60
` 2
=
16
& x = 4 & x=
3
= 20 cm
x
Difference between both sides = 20 – 15 = 5 cm

` Option (d) is correct.
75. We have
In DAPB and DABC
+APB = +ABC = 90°
+BAP = +BAC (Common)
` DAPB ~ DABC (By AA similarity criteria)
AB AP
`
AC
=
AB
& AB2 = AC $ AP & 25 = (2x + 5) . x
& 25 = 2x2 + 5x & 2x2 + 5x – 25 = 0 & 2x2 + 10x – 5x – 25 = 0
& 2x (x + 5) – 5 (x + 5) = 0 & (x + 5 ) (2x – 5) = 0
& 2x – 5 = 0 (a x + 5 ! 0 & x ! – 5 and length cannot be negative)
5
` x = = 2.5
2
Length of PC = x + 5 = 2.5 + 5 = 7.5 cm
` Option (d) is correct.
76. We have
In DAPB and DABC
+APB = +ABC = 90

128 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 +BAP = +BAC (Common)
` DAPB ~ DABC (By AA similarity criteria) …(i)
Similarly, DBPC ~ DABC (BY AA similarity criteria) ...(ii)
BC AC

PC
=
BC
& BC2 = CP $ AC
Also DAPB ~ DBPC (From (i) and (ii))
So, all the option (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
The only option (d) is not true.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
77. To prove AB2 + BC2 = AC2
In right DABC, we have to prove first DAPB ~ DABC and again DBPC ~ DABC.
Mr Shah follows steps to prove DAPB ~ DABC and
AP AB

AB
=
AC
& AB2 = AP.AC
So the next step be to prove DBPC ~ DABC .
` Option (c) is correct. N
78. In right DXYZ, we have
XZ2 = XY2 + YZ2 Z

& XZ2 = (112) 2 + (15) 2 = 12544 + 225 15 m

W E
& XZ2 = 12769 X 112 m Y
` XZ = 12769 = 113 m
` Required distance = 113 m
` Option (a) is correct. S
79. Option (b) is correct.
Because its given length of sides are 7 cm, 24 cm, 25 cm
` (7)2 + (24)2 = (25)2
It satisfies Pythagoras Theorem.
80. We have DABC with sides m, n and r.
A
So, claim (i): ABC is a right triangle provided
n2 – m2 = r2 & n2 = r2 + m2 (Pythagoras theorem)
m n
` Claim (i) would be correct.
Also, triangle with side lengths 2m, 2n and 2r is a right angle triangle, if
DABC is right triangle. B r C
` Claim (iii) would be correct.
` Option (c) is correct.
81. We have,
ar (DAEF) 1 2 1 ar (DDEF)
= e o =
1
⇒ = [ ar(DAEF) = ar(DDEF)]
ar (DABC) 2 4 ar (DABC) 4
Hence, option (b) is correct.
82. Since D ABC ∼ D DEF

ar (TABC) AB2 AB 2 1 .2 2
∴ = = d n = e o
ar (TDEF) DE2 DE 1 .4
12 2 6 2 36
  = c m =d n =
14 7 49
∴ Option (d) is correct.

Triangles 129
 84. We have, A
In D ABC, DE || BC
2.7 cm
AD AE 3 2.7
⇒
= ⇒ = D E
DB EC 2 EC
2.7 × 2
⇒ EC =
= 1.8 cm
3 B C
∴ Option (b) is correct.

85. Given, DABC ~ DDFE,
\ ∠A = ∠D, ∠B = ∠F and ∠C = ∠E

⇒ ∠D = 30°, ∠E = 50° ⇒ ∠F =180° – (30° + 50°) = 100°  (Using angle sum property)

AB AC 5 8
Also, = ⇒ = ⇒ DE = 12 cm
DF DE 7.5 DE
\ DE = 12 cm and ∠F = 100°

Hence, option (b) is correct.
AB AC
86. Given, = A E
EF DE
For two triangles (ABC and EFD) to be similar when
∠A = ∠E (Corresponding angles)
∴ Option (b) is correct.
B C F D

SOLUTIONS OF CASE-BASED QUESTIONS

1. (i) Let h m be the height of tower, therefore using property of similar triangle between two
triangle i.e. for Vijay’s house and for tower with shadows.
We have,
20 10
= ⇒ h = 100 m
h 50
∴ Height of tower is 100 m.

∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) When Vijay’s house casts a shadow of 12 m, we have
20 12
= x , where x is the length of shadow of tower.
h
20 12
⇒
= x ⇒ x = 60 m
100
∴ Option (d) is correct.

(iii) Let H m be the height of Ajay’s house.
20 H
∴
= ⇒ H = 40 m
10 20
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iv) When the tower casts a shadow of 40 m.
100 Height of Ajay's house
∴ =
40 Length of shadow of Ajay's house
5 40
⇒ =
2 Shadow length

130 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 ⇒ Length of shadow of Ajay house = 16 m.

∴ Option (a) is correct.
(v) We have,
100 Height of Vijay's house 5 20
= ⇒ =
40 Length of its shadow 2 Length of its shadow
⇒
Length of shadow of Vijay house = 8 m
∴ Option (d) is correct.

2. (i) Pythagoras Theorem will be used to find the distance AC in right angle ∆ACD.
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) In right angle ∆ACD, we have
AC2 = AD2 + CD2 (Pythagoras Theorem)
2 2 2
⇒ AC = (30) + (40) = 900 + 1600 = 2500
⇒ AC = 50 m
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(iii) Here, (21, 20, 28) is not a Pythagorean triplet because
(21)2 + (20)2 ≠ (28)2

⇒ 441 + 400 ≠ 784 ⇒ 841 ≠ 784
∴ Option (d) is correct.

(iv) AB = AC – BC = 50 – 12 = 38 m
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(v) Total length of rope used
= BC + CD + DA = 12 + 40 + 30 = 82 m
∴ Option (c) is correct.

3. (i) S­ince scale is 1 : 4.
Let the width of the scale model is x cm.
60
So 4x = 60 ⇒ x = = 15 cm
4
∴ Option (c) is correct.
(ii) They are not the mirror image of one another.
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(iii) Since the scale factor is a : b then their altitudes have the ratio a : b.
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iv) By basic proportionality theorem
5 2 25
=x ⇒ x= =5 m
12.5 5
∴ Option (d) is correct.
AT
(v) E is the mid point of AT i.e; ET = =6 m
2
BT
F is the mid point of BT i.e; FT =
=6 m
2
Now in ∆TEF and ∆TAB
a
Both are similar. (By AA similarity)
ET EF 6 EF
∴
= ⇒ = ⇒ EF = 6 m­
AT AB 12 12
∴ Option (c) is correct.

Triangles 131
 4. (i) In DAEB and DCED,
∠E = ∠E (Common)
∠EDC = ∠EBA (Corresponding angles)
DAEB ~ DCED (By AA similarity)
∴ Option (a) is correct.
AE BE
(ii) = (By BPT)
CE DE
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(iii) We have, TAEB + TCED
AB AE 3 6 6
&
=
CD CE
& 1 = CE & CE =
3
=2m

∴ Option (a) is correct.

(iv) In right triangle ABE
BE = AB2 + AE2 (Pythagoras theorem)
2 2
= 8 + 6 = 64 + 36 = 10 m
∴ Option (a) is correct.
ar (DABC) AB2
(v) DABC ~ DPQR & =
ar (DPQR) PQ2
4 AB2 4
&

25
= 2
& AB2 = 25 ×100 = 16 & AB2 = 16 cm & AB = 4 cm
10
∴ Option (a) is correct.
5. (i) Since the ladder placed against wall forms a right angled triangle, so length of ladder can be
found using Pythagoras theorem.
∴ Option (c) is correct.
(ii) In DABC,
AB2 = 42 + 32 = 16 + 9 = 25 & Length of ladder (AB) = 5 m
∴ Option (b) is correct.
(iii) Let C be the window, CE be the ladder. C
∴
In ∆CDE
5m
ED = CE2 – CD2 = 25 – 9 = 16
2
3m

ED = 4 m
∴ Option (b) is correct. E D

(iv) In right DPQR R

RQ2 = RP2 + PQ2 (By Pythagoras theorem)

= PQ2 + PQ2 (a RP = PQ)
2
= 2PQ
∴ Option (a) is correct. Q
P
(v) OA2 = OB2 + BA2 O

B A

132 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 &   DOAB is a right triangle, right angled at B (Converse of Pythagoras theorem)

∴ Option (d) is correct.
6. (i) Since a right triangle is formed, so distance between two buildings can be calculated using
Pythagoras theorem.
∴ Option (b) is correct.
(ii) EF = BF – BE = 41 – 32 = 9 m
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(iii) DF = DE2 + EF2 (Using Pythagoras theorem)
= 122 + 92 = 144 + 81 = 225 = 15 m
Option (a) is correct.
(iv) Longest side = QR (25 cm)
& +P is a right angle.

[ a Angle opposite to longest side is equal to 90°.]
∴ Option (a) is correct. A
(v) Altitude, AD = AB2 – BD2
= (2a) 2 – a 2 2a
= 4a2 – a2 = 3 a units
Option (d) is correct.
AD AE B a D a C
7. (i) = [By Thales theorem]
DB EC A
Option (a) is correct
AD AE D E
(ii) Since DE ; ; BC, = [By Thales Theorem]
AB AC
20
& 80 =
AE
100
& AE = 14 ×100 = 25 cm B C

∴ Option (c) is correct.

AD AE
(iii) We have = (By Thales Theorem)
DB EC
& 3xx+– 11 = 3xx++34
& (x + 1) (3x + 4) = (x + 3) (3x – 1)
& 3x2 + 4x + 3x + 4 = 3x2 – x + 9x – 3
& 7x – 8x = –3 – 4 & x = 7

∴ Option (b) is correct.
BD AE
(iv) Out of the given options, !
AD EC
Option (d) is correct.
(v) P and Q are midpoints of sides YZ and XZ respectively.
Z
YP XQ YP XQ
` = 1, = 1 & =
PZ QZ PZ QZ
& PQ ; ; YX
∴ Option (a) is correct. P Q
8. (i) Given scale = 1 : 8
Let actual length of car = x cm.
40 1
Then x = & x = 320 cm Y X
8
∴ Option (a) is correct.

Triangles 133
 (ii) Ratio of medians = 2 : 5, since two similar triangles have ratio 2 : 5.
∴ Option (a) is correct
Length of statue Length of pole
(iii) =
Length of shadow of statue Length of its shadow
8 5.6 5.6 × 5
&

5
= x & x=
8
= 3.5 m

∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iv) Two similar polygons are not the mirror images of each other.
So, (d) is correct option.
(v) The ratio of corresponding altitude of two similar triangles is equal to their scale factor.
So, (c) is correct option.

SOLUTIONS OF ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS

ar ]DABCg AB2 36 AB2
1. =
ar (DDEF) DE2
& 49
=
DE2
AB 6
& DE =
7
& AB : DE = 6 : 7

So, both A and R are correct and R explain A.

Hence, option (a) is correct.
AD AE 7x – 4 5x – 2
2. We have,
DB
=
EC
& 3x + 4
=
3x
2 2
⇒
21x – 12x = 15x + 20x – 6x – 8 ⇒ 6x2 – 26x + 8 = 0
2
⇒
3x – 13x + 4 = 0 ⇒ 3x2 – 12x – x + 4 = 0
⇒
3x(x – 4) –1 (x – 4) = 0 ⇒ (x – 4)(3x –1) = 0
1
⇒ x = 4,
3
So, A is incorrect but R is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
3. In an isosceles DABC, right angled at C is AB2 = AC2 + BC2
⇒ AB2 = AC2 + AC2
⇒ AB2 = 2AC2 (AC = BC)
So, both A and R are correct and R explains A.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
4. We have, AB2 + BC2 = (24)2 + (10)2
= 576 + 100 = 676 = AC2
AB2 + BC2 = AC2
∴ ABC is a right angled triangle.

Also, two triangles are similar if their corresponding angles are equal.
So, both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
zzz

134 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 INTRODUCTION TO
6 TRIGONOMETRY

BASIC CONCEPTS & FORMULAE

1. Trigonometry is the branch of mathematics which deals with the measurement of sides and angles
of the triangles.
C
Trigonometric ratios:
Let ABC be a right-triangle, right angled at B. Let ∠CAB = q.
Then,
θ
BC AB BC B
sin i = cos i = tan i = A
AC AC AB
AB AC AC
cot i = sec i = cosec i =
BC AB BC
Relation between trigonometric ratios:
(i) Reciprocal Relations
1 1
sin i = ⇒ cosec i = ⇒ sin q . cosec q = 1
cosec i sin i
1 1
cos i = ⇒ sec i = ⇒ cos q . sec q = 1
sec i cos i
1 1
tan i = ⇒ cot i = ⇒ tan q . cot q = 1
cot i tan i
(ii) Quotient Relations
sin i cos i
tan i = and cot i =
cos i sin i
2. An expression having equal to sign (=) is called an equation.
3. An equation which involves trigonometric ratios of an angle and is true for all values of the angle
is called a trigonometric identity.
Some common trigonometric identites are
(i) sin2 q + cos2 q = 1 for 0° ≤ q ≤ 90°
(ii) sec2 q = 1 + tan2 q for 0° ≤ q ≤ 90°
(iii) cosec2 q = 1 + cot2 q for 0° ≤ q ≤ 90°
4. Values of Trigonometric Ratios of Standard Angles

30° 45° 60°

1 1 3
sin q
2 2 2
3 1 1
cos q 2
2 2

Introduction to Trigonometry 135

 1
tan q 1 3
3
1
cot q 3 1
3

2
sec q 2 2
3
2
cosec q 2 2
3

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.

1. The value of (sin 30° + cos 30°) – (sin 60° + cos 60°) is  [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) – 1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
tan 30°
2. The value of is [NCERT Exemplar]
cot 60°
1 1
(a) (b) (c) 3 (d) 1
2 3
3. The value of (sin 45° + cos 45°) is [NCERT Exemplar]
1 3
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) 1
2 2

4. If 6cot θ + 2cosec θ = cot θ + 5cosec θ, then cos θ is

4 5 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 3 5 4
2 tan 30°
5. The value of is equal to
1 – tan2 30°
(a) cos 60° (b) sin 60° (c) tan 60° (d) sin 30°
1
6. If sin A = , then the value of cot A is [NCERT Exemplar]
2
1 3
(a) 3 (b) (c) (d) 1
3 2
a
7. Given that sin i = , then cos θ is equal to  [NCERT Exemplar]
b
b b b2 – a2 a
(a) (b) a (c) (d)
2
b –a 2 b b – a2
2

8. If sin A + sin2 A = 1, then the value of the expression (cos2A + cos4A) is

 [NCERT Exemplar]
1
(a) 1 (b) (c) 2 (d) 3
2

4 sin i – cos i
9. If 4 tan θ = 3, then d
n is equal to  [NCERT Exemplar]
4 sin i + cos i
2 1 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 2 4

136 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 10. Value of sin 30° tan 45° is
3 1
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) 0
2 2
4
11. If cos A = , then the value of tan A is [NCERT Exemplar]
5
3 3 4 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 4 3 3
tan2 60° – sin2 30°
12. The value of is
tan2 45° + cos2 30°
7 11 13 11
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11 13 11 7
13. If x = r sin q and y = r cos q then the value of x2 + y2 is
1
(a) r (b) r2 (c) (d) 1
r
14. If 3 sec i – 5 = 0 then cot i is equal to

5 4 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 5 4 5
15. If a + b = 90° and a = 2b, then cos2 a + sin2 b is equal to
1
(a) 1 (b) (c) 0 (d) 2
2
16. If tan x + sin x = m and tan x – sin x = n then m2 – n2 is equal to
(a) 4 mn (b) mn (c) 2 mn (d) none of them
17. If sec i + tan i = x, the value of sec i is

1 1 x2 – 1 1 1
(a) d x – n (b) 2 (c) d x + n (d) none of them
2 x x +1 2 x
1 + cos i
18. The value of is
1 – cos i
(a) cot i – cosec i (b) cosec i + cot i (c) cosec2 i + cot2 i (d) (cot i + cosec i) 2
sin i cos i
19. + is equal to
1 – cot i 1 – tan i
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) sin i + cos i (d) sin i – cos i
a
20. Given that sin i = , then tan i is equal to
b
b b2 – a2 a b2 – a2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
b2 – a2 b b2 – a2 a

21. Considering the diagram below.

P

x y
Q R
M

Introduction to Trigonometry 137

 Which of the following statements is true? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) Side PR is adjacent to ∠y in triangle PMR and side QR is adjacent to ∠y in triangle PQR
(b) Side MR is adjacent to ∠y in triangle PMR and side PR is adjacent to ∠y in triangle PQR
(c) Side PR is adjacent to ∠y in triangle PMR and side MR is adjacent to ∠y in triangle PQR
(d) Side PR is adjacent to ∠y in triangle PMR and triangle PQR
22. Consider the triangle shown below.
X 15 Y
θ

8
17

What are the values of tan q, cosec q and sec q? [CBSE Question Bank]
8 17 17 8 17 17
(a) tan i = , cosec i = , sec i = (b) tan i = , cosec i = , sec i =
15 8 15 15 15 8
17 8 17 8 17 8
(c) tan i = , cosec i = , sec i = (d) tan i = , cosec i = , sec i =
15 15 8 15 15 17
7
23. If sin q = , what are the values of tan q, cos q and cosec q? [CBSE Question Bank]
85
6 7 85 7 7 85
(a) tan i = , cos i = and cosec i = (b) tan i = , cos i = and cosec i =
7 85 7 6 85 7
7 6 85 7 6 85
(c) tan i = , cos i = and cosec i = (d) tan i = , cos i = and cosec i =
6 85 7 6 85 6

24. The two legs AB and BC of right triangle ABC are in a ratio 1 : 3. What will be the value of
sin C? [CBSE Question Bank]
1 3 1
(a) 10 (b) (c) (d)
10 10 2
3 – sin2 60°
25. What is the value of ? [CBSE Question Bank]
tan 30° tan 60°
1 1 3 3
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3
4 4 4 4
2
4 – sin 45°
26. The value of is 3.5. [CBSE Question Bank]
cot k tan 60°
What is the value of k?
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
2
2 tan x (sec x – 1)
27. Which of these is equivalent to ? [CBSE Question Bank]
cos3 x
(a) 2 tan3 x cosec x (b) 2 cot3 x cosec3 x (c) 2 tan3 x sec3 x (d) 2 cot3 x sec3 x
28. Which of the following option makes the statement below true?
1
sec x + sec x
[CBSE Question Bank]
cos2 x – 1 – tan2 x
(a) −cosec x tan x (b) −sec x tan x (c) −cosec x cot x (d) −sec x cot x

138 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 1
29. If sin i = , the value of (2cot2 q + 2) is
3
(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 12 (d) 18
2 2 2 2
30. If x = a cos q and y = b sin q, then the value of b x + a y is
a2
(a) a2 + b2 (b) (c) a2b2 (d) None of these
b2
31. If 3 tan q = 3 sin q, (q ≠ 0) then the value of sin2 q – cos2 q is
1 2 3
(a) (b) 3 (c) (d)
3 3 2
32. (cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ) is equal to
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) none of these
33. (sec A + tan A) (1 – sin A) is equal to
(a) sec A (b) sin A (c) cosec A (d) cos A
1 1
34. Given that sin a = and cos b = , then the value of (a + b) is
2 2
(a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 90°
35. If sin q + cos q = 2 cos q, (q ≠ 90) then the value of tan q is
[CBSE Sample Question Paper 2020]
(a) 2 – 1 (b) 2 + 1 (c) 2 (d) – 2
1
36. If 2x = sec θ and x = tan i , then the value of d x – 2 n is
2 2

x
1 1
(a) 4 (b) (c) 2 (d)
4 2
37. The value of (1 + cot q – cosec q)(1 + tan q + sec q) is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) –1 (d) None of these

38. If sin 77° = x, than the value of tan 77° is
1 x x
(a) 2
(b) (c) . (d) None of these
1+ x 1 + x2 1 – x2
39. sec4 A – sec2 A is equal to
(a) tan2A – tan4A (b) tan4A – tan2A (c) tan4A + tan2A (d) None of these
40. If a cos θ + b sin θ = m and a sin θ – b cos θ = n, then a2 + b2 is equal to
(a) m2 – n2 (b) m2n2 (c) n2 – m2 (d) m2 + n2
41. If cos A + cos2A = 1, then sin2A + sin4A is equal to
(a) –1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) None of these
sin 60°
42. The value of the expression is
cos 30°
3 1
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) 2
2 2
cos x + sin x
43. If 4 tan x = 3, than is equal to
cos x – sin x
1 1
(a) 7 (b) (c) – 7 (d) –
7 7
44. cos4 A – sin4 A is equal to
(a) 2cos2A + 1 (b) 2cos2A – 1 (c) 2sin2A – 1 (d) 2sin2 A + 1

Introduction to Trigonometry 139

 3
45. If tan A = , then the value of cos A is
2
3 2 2 13
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13 13 3 2
2
1 + tan A
46. is equal to
1 + cot2 A
(a) sec2A (b) –1 (c) cot2 A (d) tan2 A
sin i
47. is equal to
1 + cos i
1 + cos i 1 + cos i 1– cos i 1– sin i
(a) (b) (c) (d)
sin i cos i sin i cos i

Answers
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (d)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b)
37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (c)
43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c)

ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements—Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A) : sin2 67° + cos2 67° = 1
For any value of θ, sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1.
Reason (R) :
2. Assertion (A) : If cos A + cos2 A = 1 then sin2 A + sin4 A = 2.
Reason (R) : 1 – sin2 A = cos2 A, for any value of A.
3 3
3. Assertion (A) : In a right angled triangle, if tan θ = then sin i = .
4 5
1
Reason (R) : sin 60° =
2
1 3
4. Assertion (A) : In a right angled triangle, if cos i = and sin i = , then tan θ = 3.
2 2
sin i
Reason (R) : tan i =
cos i

Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a)

140 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 HINTS/SOLUTIONS OF SELECTED MCQs
2. We have,
1
tan 30° 3
= =1
cot 60° 1
3
` Option (d) is correct.
3. We have,
1 1 2
sin 45° + cos 45° = + = = 2
2 2 2
∴ Option (b) is correct.
1
6. Given, sin A =
2
⇒ sin A = sin 30° ⇒ A = 30°
∴ cot A = cot 30° = 3
∴ Option (a) is correct.

8. Given sin A + sin2 A = 1 ...(i)
2
⇒ sin A = 1 – sin A
⇒ 1 – cos2 A = 1 – sin A ...(ii)
Now, we have to find value of cos2A + cos4A
Put value from (ii), we get
sin A + sin2 A = 1 [From equation (i)]
∴ Option (a) is correct.

3
9. If 4 tan θ = 3 ⇒ tan θ =
4
sin i
4 –1
4 sin i – cos i cos i
Now, = (Divide Nr and Dr by cos θ)
4 sin i + cos i sin i
4 +1
cos i
3
4× –1
4 tan i – 1 4
= =
4 tan i + 1 3
4× + 1
4
3 –1 2 1
= = =
3+1 4 2
Hence, option (c) is correct.
1 1
10. sin 30° tan 45° = ×1 =
2 2
Hence option (c) is correct.
4
11. cos A = , (Given)
5
4 2
1– c m =
16 9 3
sin A = 1 – cos2 A =
1– = =
5 25 25 5

Introduction to Trigonometry 141

 3
sin A 5 3
tan A =

cos A
& tan A =
4
=
4
5

` Option (b) is correct.
tan2 60° – sin2 30°
12. Given expression is
tan2 45° + cos2 30°
1 2
1 ^ 3h – c m
2
2 3–
4
= =
3
2 3
(1) 2 + e o 1+
4
2
12 – 1
4 11
= =
4+3 7
4
` Option (d) is correct.
13. Given x = r sin i and y = r cos i then
x2 + y2 = (r sin i) 2 + (r cos i) 2
= r2 sin2 i + r2 cos2 i = r2 (sin2 i + cos2 i)
= r2

` Option (b) is correct.
5
14. 3 sec i – 5 = 0 & sec i =
3
Hypotenuse A
But sec i =
base
& h = 5 and b = 3
By Pythagoras theorem, 5
2
h = p +b 2 2
& ( 5) = p + ( 3)
2 2 2

⇒ p
2
= 25 – 9 = 16 & p = 4 
base b 3 B
3
C
So cot i = = =
perpendicular p 4
` Option (c) is correct.
15. Given a + b = 90° and a = 2b
& 2b + b = 90° & b = 30°

So, a = 2b = 2 × 30° = 60°
Now value of cos2 a + sin2 b
Put the values of a and b, we get
& cos2 (60°) + sin2 30°

1 2 1 2 1 1 2 1
& d 2 n +d 2 n = 4 + 4 = 4 = 2
` Option (b) is correct.
16. Given tan x + sin x = m and tan x – sin x = n
Now m2 – n2 = (tan x + sin x) 2 – (tan x – sin x) 2
= tan2 x + sin2 x + 2 sin x tan x – tan2 x – sin2 x + 2 sin x tan x

142 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 = 4 sin x tan x
= 4 sin2 x tan2 x
sin2 x sin2 x (1 – cos2 x)
=4 sin2 x × =4
cos2 x cos2 x
2 2 2
sin x – sin x cos x
=4 = 4 tan2 x – sin2 x
cos2 x
= 4 (tan x – sin x) (tan x + sin x) = 4 mn
` Option (a) is correct.
17. Given sec i + tan i = x ...(i)
From identity sec2 i – tan2 i = 1
& (sec i – tan i) (sec i + tan i) = 1
& (sec i – tan i) x = 1
1
& sec i – tan i = x ...(ii)
By adding (i) and (ii), we get
1 1 1
2 sec i = x +
x
& sec i = 2 d x + x n

` Option (c) is correct.
1 + cos i
18.
1 – cos i
By rationalisation, we get
1 + cos i 1 + cos i (1 + cos i) 2
× &
1 – cos i 1 + cos i (1 – cos2 i)
1 + cos i 1 + cos i 1 cos i
&
2
& sin i & sin i + sin i & cosec i + cot i
sin i

` Option (b) is correct.
sin i cos i sin i cos i
19. +
1 – cot i 1 – tan i
& cos i
+
sin i
1– 1–
sin i cos i
sin cos i sin2 i cos2 i
& sin i – cos i + cos i – sin i & sin i – cos i + cos i – sin i

sin i cos i
sin2 i cos2 i sin2 i – cos2 i (sin i – cos i) (sin i + cos i)
& sin i – cos i – sin i – cos i & sin i – cos i =

(sin i – cos i)
& sin i + cos i


` Option (c) is correct.
a a2
20. a sin i =
b
& sin2 i =
b2
a2 b2 – a2 b2 – a2
cos2 i = 1 – sin2 i = 1 –
= & cos i = b
b2 b2
a
sin i b a
tan i =
= =
cos i b2 – a2 b – a2
2

b

` Option (c) is correct.

Introduction to Trigonometry 143

 21. Clearly side MR is adjacent to ∠y in DPMR and side PR is adjacent to ∠y in DPQR.

x y
Q R
M

` Option (b) is correct.

P YZ 8
22. We have, tan i = & tan i = =
B XY 15
H XZ 17
and cosec i = = =
P YZ 8
H XZ 17
Also sec i = = =
B XY 15

` Option (a) is correct.
2
7 7
23. Given, sin i = & cos i = 1– e o
85 85
49 36 6
& cos i =
1–
85
=
85
& cos i =
85
sin i 7/ 85 7 1 85
tan i = = = and cosec i = =
cos i 6 85 6 sin i 7
` Option (c) is correct.
A
24. Let AB = x, BC = 3x
` AC = AB2 + AC2 = x2 + 9x2 = 10x2 = 10 x 10x
x
AB x 1
` sin C = = =
AC 10 x 10
` Option (b) is correct. B 3x C
25. We have,
2
3
3 – sin2 60° 3–e o
3 1
2
= =3– =2
tan 30° . tan 60° 1 4 4
× 3
3

` Option (a) is correct.
4 – sin2 45°
26. Given = 3.5
cot k tan 60°
1 2
4–e o 1
2 4–
2 =
& = 3. 5 & 3.5
cot k 3 3 cot k
7 7 1
& = cot k & = cot k & = cot k & cot 60° = cot k
2 3 × 3.5 7 3 3
& k = 60°


` Option (c) is correct.

144 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 27. We have
2 tan x (sec2 x – 1)

cos3 x
2 tan x × tan2 x
= = 2 tan3 x sec3 x
cos3 x
` Option (c) is correct.
1
+ sec x (cos x + sec x)
28. sec x =
2 2
cos x – 1 – tan x cos2 x – (1 + tan2 x)
(cos x + sec x) cos x + sec x
= =
2 2
cos x – sec x (cos x – sec x) (cos x + sec x)
1 1
= =–
cos x – sec x sec x – cos x
1 1
= – =– ×cos x
1 1 – cos2 x
– cos x
cos x
cos x cos x 1
= – =– × = – cosec x × cot x
2
sin x sin x sin x
` Option (c) is correct.
1 Perpendicular
29. sin q = =
3 Hypotenuse
∴ (3)2 = (Perpendicular)2 + (Base)2
(Base)2 = 9 – 1 = 8
Base = 2 2
Base 2 2
cot2θ = =
Perpendicular 1
∴ 2cot2 θ + 2
= 2 (2 2 ) 2 + 2 = 2(8) + 2 = 16 + 2 = 18
Hence, option (d) is correct.
30. We have,
b2 x2 + a2 y2 = b2 × a2 cos2 i + a2 × b2 sin2 i = a2 b2 (cos2 i + sin2 i)
= a2 b2 ×1 = a2 b2

` Option (c) is correct.
31. We have, 3 tan q = 3 sin q
sin i
⇒ 3
= 3 sin q
cos i
3 3 1
⇒ = 3 ⇒ = cos q ⇒ = cos i
cos i 3 3
1
∴ cos q =
3
Now, sin2 q – cos2 q = 1 – cos2 q – cos2 q = 1 – 2 cos2 q
2
1
=1–2× e o =1– =
2 1

3 3 3

` Option (a) is correct.

Introduction to Trigonometry 145

 32. We have,
(cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ)
1 1 sin i cos i
=d – sin i n d – cos i n d + n
sin i cos i cos i sin i
1 – sin2 i 1 – cos2 i sin2 i + cos2 i
=e oe oe o
sin i cos i sin i cos i
cos2 i sin2 i 1
×= × =1
sin i cos i sin i cos i

` Option (b) is correct.
33. We have, (sec A + tan A) (1 – sin A)
(1 + sin A) (1 – sin A)
= c m (1 – sin A) =
1 sin A
+
cos A cos A cos A
1 – sin2 A cos2 A
= = = cos A
cos A cos A
` Option (d) is correct.
1
34. We have, sin a = = sin 30° & a = 30°
2
1
and, cos b = = cos 60° & b = 60°
2
` a + b = 30° + 60° = 90°
Hence, option (d) is correct.
35. Given, sin i + cos i = 2 cos i
Dividing both sides by cos θ, we get
sin i
+ 1 = 2 & tan i = 2 – 1
cos i

` Option (a) is correct.
2 2
36. We have, (2x) 2 – c x m = sec2 i – tan2 i
1
4d x – n =1
4 2
⇒ 4x2 –
=1 ⇒
x2 x2
1
∴ d x – 2 n =
2 1

x 4

∴ Option (b) is correct.

37. We have,
(1 + cot q – cosec q) (1 + tan q + sec q)
cos i 1 sin i 1
= d1 + – n d1 + + n
sin i sin i cos i cos i
sin i + cos i – 1 sin i + cos i + 1
= d nd n
sin i cos i
(sin i + cos i) 2 – (1) 2 sin2 i + cos2 i + 2 sin cos i – 1
= f p=
sin i cos i sin i cos i
1 + 2 sin i cos i – 1 2 sin i cos i
= = =2
sin i cos i sin i cos i
∴ Option (b) is correct.

146 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 38. We have, sin 77° = x A
2 2 2
cos 77° = 1 – x [a cos i = 1 – sin i]
x
tan 77° =
1 – x2 x

` Option (c) is correct.

77°
39. We have, B C
sec4A – sec2A = sec2A (sec2A –1)
= sec2A × tan2A = (1 + tan2A) tan2A
= tan2A + tan4A
= tan4A + tan2A
∴ Option (c) is correct.

40. We have,
m2 + n2 = (a cos i + b sin i) 2 + (a sin i – b cos i) 2
= a2 cos2 i + b2 sin2 i + 2ab cos i sin i + a2 sin2 i + b2 cos2 i – 2ab sin i cos i
= a2 (cos2 i + sin2 i) + b2 (sin2 i + cos2 i)
⇒ m2 + n2 = a2 ×1 + b2 ×1 = a2 + b2

∴ a2 + b2 = m2 + n2

∴ Option (d) is correct.

41. Given, cosA + cos2A = 1
⇒ cos A = 1 – cos2A = sin2A

⇒ sin2 A = cos A

⇒ sin4 A = cos2A

∴ sin2 A + sin4 A = cos A + cos2 A = 1

∴ Option (c) is correct.
3
sin 60° 2
42. = =1
cos 30° 3
2
∴ Option (c) is correct.

43. We have,
3
4 tan x = 3 ⇒ tan x =
4
cos x + sin x 1 + tan x
∴
= (Divide Nr and Dr by cos x)
cos x – sin x 1 – tan x
3
1+
4
= =7
3
1–
4
∴ Option (a) is correct.
cos 4 A – sin 4 A = (cos2 A – sin2 A) (cos2 A + sin2 A)
44.
= (cos2 A – sin2 A) ×1 = cos2 A – (1 – cos2 A) = 2 cos2 A – 1
∴ Option (b) is correct.

Introduction to Trigonometry 147

 3
45. Given tan A =
2
1 1 1 1
` cos A = = = =
sec A 1 + tan2 A 2 9
1 +c m
3 1+
2 4
1 1 2
= = =
13 13 13
4 2
2
` cos A =
13
∴ Option (b) is correct.

1
1 + tan2 A sec2 A cos2 A sin2 A
46. = = = = tan2 A
1 + cot2 A cosec2 A 1 cos2 A
sin2 A
Hence, option (d) is correct.

sin i sin i 1 – cos i sin i (1 – cos i)

47. = × =
1 + cos i 1 + cos i 1 – cos i 1 – cos2 i
sin i (1 – cos i) 1 – cos i
= =
sin2 i sin i
` Option (c) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS

1. sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1 ⇒ sin267° + cos267° = 1
Hence, option (a) is correct.
2. cos A + cos2A = 1 ⇒ cos A = 1 – cos2A = sin2A
∴ sin2 A + sin4 A = cos A+cos2A = 1

⇒ sin2A+sin4A = 1

Hence, option (d) is correct.
3. Let ∆ABC be a right angled triangle and ∠C = q. A
3 AB
It is given that tan θ = =
4 BC
Let AB = 3K, BC = 4K 5K
3K
∴ AC = AB2 + BC2 = 9K2 + 16K2 = 5K
AB 3K 3 θ
∴ Sin i = = = Thus, Assertion (A) is true. B C
AC 5K 5 4K
3
But sin 60° = , ∴ Reason (R) is false.
2
Hence, option (c) is correct.
sin i 3 /2
4. We have, tan i = = = 3
cos i 1/2
Hence, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for A.
Hence option (a) is correct.
zzz

148 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 AREAS RELATED
7 TO CIRCLES

BASIC CONCEPTS & FORMULAE

1. Circle: A circle is the locus of a point which moves in a plane in such a way that its distance from
a fixed point always remains same. The fixed point is called the centre and the given constant
distance is known as the radius of the circle.
2. If r is the radius of a circle, then
(i) Circumference = 2pr or pd, where d = 2r is the diameter of circle.
rd 2
(ii) Area = pr2 or
4
rr 2
(iii) Area of semi-circle =
2
rr 2
(iv) Area of quadrant of a circle =
4
3. Area enclosed by two concentric circles: If R and r are radii of two
concentric circles, then
Area enclosed by the two circles = pR2 – pr2 r R
2 2
= p(R – r )
= p(R + r)(R – r)
4. (i) If two circles touch internally, then the distance between their centres is equal to the difference
of their radii.
(ii) If two circles touch externally, then distance between their centres is equal to the sum of their
radii.
(iii) Distance moved by a rotating wheel in one revolution is equal to the circumference of the
wheel.
(iv) The number of revolutions completed by a rotating wheel in one minute
Distance moved in one minute
=
Circumference of the wheel
5. Segment of a circle: The portion (or part) of a circular region enclosed between a chord and the
corresponding arc is called a segment of the circle.

Q
t
en
m
eg

B
rs
o
aj
M

t
en
gm
se

P
or
in
M

Here, APB is called minor segment and AQB is called major segment.

Areas Related to Circles 149

 6. Sector of a circle: The portion (or part) of the circular region enclosed by the two radii and the
corresponding arc is called a sector of the circle.
Q

Major sector

Minor
sector
A B
P

Here, OAPB is called minor sector and OAQB is called the major sector.
7. (i) The sum of the arcs of major and minor sectors of a circle is equal to the circumference of the
circle.
(ii) The sum of the areas of major and minor sectors of a circle is equal to the area of the circle.
i 1 1
8. Area of the sector of angle i = × rr2 or × length of arc × radius = lr
360° 2 2
i Q
9. Length of an arc of a sector of angle i = × 2rr
360°
10. Area of segment APB
O
= Area of the sector OAPB – Area of DOAB
θ
i 1 r r
= × rr2 – r2 sin i
360° 2
A B
11. (a) Angle described by minute hand in 60 minutes = 360° P

Angle described by minute hand in one minute = c m = 6°

360 °
∴
60
Thus, minute hand rotates through an angle of 6° in one minute.
(b) Angle described by hour hand in 12 hours = 360°
360 °
∴ Angle described by hour hand in one hour = d n = 30°
12

⇒ Angle described by hour hand in one minute = c m =

30 ° 1 °
60 2

Thus, hour hand rotates through c m in one minute.

1 °
2

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.
1. The perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of their areas is
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 22 : 7 (b) 14 : 11 (c) 7 : 22 (d) 11 : 14

2. Area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r units is 
 [NCERT Exemplar]
2 1
(a) r sq. units (b) r2sq. units 2
(c) 2r sq. units (d) 2 r2sq. units
2

150 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 3. If the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a square are equal, then [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Area of the circle = Area of the square
(b) Area of the circle > Area of the square
(c) Area of the circle < Area of the square
(d) Nothing definite can be said about the relation between the areas of the circle and square.
4. If the sum of the circumferences of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the circumference
of a circle of radius R, then [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) R1 + R2 = R (b) R1 + R2 > R (c) R1 + R2 < R (d) None of these
5. If the area of a circle is 154 cm2, then its perimeter is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 11 cm (b) 22 cm (c) 44 cm (d) 55 cm
6. It is proposed to build a single circular park equal in area to the sum of areas of two circular
parks of diameters 16 m and 12 m in a locality. The radius of the new park would be
 [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 10 m (b) 15 m (c) 20 m (d) 24 m
7. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 6 cm is [NCERT Exemplar]
2 2
(a) 36 π cm (b) 18 π cm (c) 12 π cm (d) 9 π cm2
2

8. The area of the square that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 8 cm is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 256 cm (b) 128 cm (c) 64 2 cm (d) 64 cm2
2 2 2

9. The radius of a circle whose circumference is equal to the sum of the circumferences of the
two circles of diameters 36 cm and 20 cm is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 56 cm (b) 42 cm (c) 28 cm (d) 16 cm
10. The diameter of a circle whose area is equal to the sum of the areas of the two circles of radii
24 cm and 7 cm is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 31 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 62 cm (d) 50 cm
2
11. If the area of circle is 1386 cm , then its circumference is
(a) 66 cm (b) 88 cm (c) 132 cm (d) 264 cm
12. The diameter of a wheel is 1 m. The number of revolutions it will make to travel a distance of
22 km will be
(a) 2,800 (b) 4,000 (c) 5,500 (d) 7,000
13. A circular park has a path of uniform width around it. The difference between the outer and
inner circumferences of the circular park is 132 cm. Its width is
(a) 20 cm (b) 21 cm (c) 22 cm (d) 24 cm
14. The ratio of the areas of a circle and an equilateral triangle whose diameter and a side are
respectively equal is
(a) r : 2 (b) r : 3 (c) 3 : r (d) 2 :r
15. The area of a circular path of uniform width b surrounding a circular region of radius r is

(a) r (2r + b) r sq. units (b) r (2r + b) b sq. units
(c) r (b + r) r sq. units (d) r (b + r) b sq. units
16. The area of a circle whose area and circumference are numerically equal is
(a) 2π sq. units (b) 4π sq. units (c) 6π sq. units (d) 8π sq. units

Areas Related to Circles 151

 17. The area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 616 cm will be
(a) 7546 cm2 (b) 7500 cm2 (c) 7456 cm2 (d) 7564 cm2
18. The circumference of two circles are in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of their areas is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 9 (c) 9 : 4 (d) None of these
19. If the perimeter of a semicircular protractor is 36 cm; its diameter is
(a) 14 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 12 cm
20. The area of a sector of a circle with radius 14 cm and central angle 45° is
(a) 76 cm2 (b) 77 cm2 (c) 66 cm2 (d) 55 cm2
21. If θ is the angle (in degrees) of a sector of a circle of radius r, then area of the sector is
rr 2 i rr 2 i 2rri 2rri
(a) (b) (c) (d)
360° 180° 360° 180°
22. A wire can be bent in the form of a circle of radius 35 cm. If it is bent in the form of a square,
then its area will be
3025
(a) 3025 cm2 (b) cm2 (c) 1225 cm2 (d) 2450 cm2
2
23. The difference between the circumference and radius of a circle is 37 cm. The area of circle is
(a) 111 cm2 (b) 184 cm2 (c) 154 cm2 (d) 259 cm2
24. On increasing the distance of circle by 40%, its area will be increased by
(a) 40% (b) 80% (c) 96% (d) none of them
25. The area of the square is same as the area of circle. Then their perimeter are in the ratio
(a) 1 : 1 (b) r : 2 (c) 2 : r (d) none of them
26. A paper is in the form of a rectangle ABCD in which AB = 18 cm and BC = 14 cm. A semicircular
portion with BC as diameter is cut off. The area of the remaining paper is
D C

14 cm

A 18 cm B

(a) 175 cm2 (b) 165 cm2 (c) 145 cm2 (d) none of them

27. The area of the shaded region in the given figure is (Take r = 3.14).

D C
12 cm
5 cm

A B

(a) 75 cm2 (b) 73 cm2 (c) 70 cm2 (d) none of them

152 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 28. A square ABCD is inscribed in a circle of radius ‘r’. The area of the square in square units is

A B

D C

(a) 3r2 (b) 2r2 (c) 4r2 (d) none of them

29. The perimeter of a sector of a circle of radius 5.6 cm is 27.2 cm. The area of sector is
(a) 44 cm2 (b) 44.6 cm2 (c) 44.8 cm2 (d) none of them
30. A racetrack is in the form of a ring whose inner circumferences is 352 m and outer circumference
is 396 m. The width of the track is

(a) 4 m (b) 6 m (c) 8 m (d) 7 m

31. A chord AB of a circle of radius 10 cm makes a right angle at the centre of the circle. The area
of major segment is

O
cm

90°
10

A B
(a) 210 cm2 (b) 285.7 cm2 (c) 185.5 cm2 (d) 258.1 cm2
32. The ratio of outer and inner perimeters of circular path is 23:22. If the path is 5 m wide, the
inner circle is
(a) 55 m (b) 110 m (c) 220 m (d) 230 m
33. The area of the incircle of an equilateral triangle of side 42 cm is
(a) 22 3 cm2 (b) 231 cm2 (c) 462 cm2 (d) 924 cm2
34. The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semicircle is
(a) r2 (b) 2r2 (c)
r3 (d) 2r3
35. If the circumference of a circle increases from 4r to 8r , then the area is
(a) halved (b) doubled (c) tripled (d) quadrupled
36. A horse is placed for grazing inside a rectangular field 70 m by 52 m is tethered to one corner
by a rope 21 m long. The area it can graze is
(a) 340.5 cm2 (b) 345 cm2 (c) 346.5 cm2 (d) none of them
37. A drain cover is made from a square metal of side 40 cm having 441 holes of diameter 1 cm
each drilled in it. The area of remaining square plate is
(a) 1250.5 cm2 (b) 1256.5 cm2 (c) 1253.5 cm2 (d) none of them

Areas Related to Circles 153

 38. A pendulum swings through an angle of 30° and describes an arc 8.8 cm is length. The length
of the pendulum is
(a) 16 cm (b) 16.8 cm (c) 16.4 cm (d) none of them
39. A wheel has diameter 84 cm. The number of complete revolution it take to cover 792 m is
(a) 330 (b) 400 (c) 360 (d) 300
40. A rectangular sheet of card board is 4 cm by 2 cm. The greatest possible circle is cut off form
the card board then the remaining area is
A B

1 cm

D 4 cm C

(a) (16 – r) cm2 (b) (16 – 4r) cm2 (c) (8 – r) cm2 (d) none of them
41. If the length of an arc of a circle of radius r is equal to that of an arc of a circle of radius 2r
then the relation between corresponding angles i1 and i2 is
1
(a) i1 = 2i2 (b) i1 = i2 (c) i1 = i (d) i1 = 4i2
2 2
42. The area of the shaded region in fig, where arcs drawn with centres P, Q, R and S intersect in pairs
at mid points A, B, C and D of the sides PQ, QR, RS and SP respectively of a square PQRS, is
A
P Q
12 cm

D B

S R
C

(a) 30.86 cm2 (b) 30.86 m2 (c) 30.86 mm2 (d) 30.86 km2
43. If the sum of the areas of two circles with radii r1 and r2 is equal to the area of a circle of radius
r, then r12 + r22 is
(a) > r2 (b) = r2 (c) < r2 (d) none of them
44. ABC is an equailateral triangle. The area of the shaded region if the radius of each of the circle is
1 cm, is
A B

r r r
(a) 2 – (b) 3 – r (c) 3 – (d) 3–
3 2 4

154 Mathematics–X: Term–1

45. Which of these is equivalent to p?
[CBSE Question Bank]
Circumference Circumference
(a) (b)
Radius Diameter
(c) Circumference × Diameter (d) Circumference × Radius
46. David draws a circle with diameter 6 units. He draws another circle by increasing the radius
of the previously drawn circle by 4 units. What would be the quotient if he divides the
circumference of the newly formed circle by its diameter? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) p (d) 2p
47. A circular garden, of circumference 88 m is surrounded by a pathway of width 3.5 m. Ajay
wants to put fence around the pathway. What is the cost of fencing the pathway at the rate of
22
™70 per metre? e Use r = o [CBSE Question Bank]
7
(a) ™ 3,080 (b) ™ 3,850 (c) ™ 6,160 (d) ™ 7,700
48. A fountain is enclosed by a circular fence of circumference 11 m and is surrounded by a
circular path. The circumference of the outer boundary of the path is 16 m. A gardener
increased the width of the pathway by decreasing the area enclosed by the fence such that the
length of the fence is decreased by 3 m. The path is to be covered by the bricks which cost
™125 per m2. What will be the total cost, to the nearest whole number, required to cover the
22
area by the bricks? e Use r = o [CBSE Question Bank]
7
(a) ™ 1,910 (b) ™ 9,878 (c) ™ 39,772 (d) ™ 79,545
49. Consider a circle below.

Aman shades a part in the circle which is enclosed by two radii and its corresponding arc.
Which of these could he have drawn? [CBSE Question Bank]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

50. Consider the statements below.

(i) A quarter circle represents a sector of the circle.

Areas Related to Circles 155

 (ii) A semicircle represents both sector and segment of the circle.
Which of these statements is correct? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
51. Which of the following options represents the shaded region as the major sector and unshaded
region as the minor sector? [CBSE Question Bank]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

52. To form a circle of radius r, four minor sectors of equal measure are joined. Which of these
options completes the sentence below? [CBSE Question Bank]
..
.. ....... ... ...
.............
............................
..........................
The sum of the area of the four minor sectors is equal to the ___________. ............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................

. . .. . .
............................
............................
............................

...............
............................
(a) area of the semicircle of diameter 2r. ............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
............................
(b) area of the circle of diameter 2r. ............................
r
r o
(c) circumference of the circle of radius r.
(d) circumference of the circle of diameter r.

53. To show the minor segment of a circle, a student shades the region enclosed between a chord
and the minor arc.
Which of these shows the region the student could have shaded? [CBSE Question Bank]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

156 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 54. Which of these is equivalent to the sum of the lengths of arc corresponding to the minor and
major segment of a circle of radius 12 cm? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 24p cm (b) 48p cm (c) 12p cm (d) 144p cm
55. Observe the figure below:
R

Q
O

P
22
What is the area of the segment PQR, if the radius of the circle is 7 cm? e Use r = o
7
[CBSE Question Bank]

(a) 14 cm2 (b) 17.3 cm2 (c) 28 cm2 (d) 91 cm2

56. Two concentric circles of radii 8 cm and 5 cm are shown below, and a sector forms an angle of
60° at the centre O. What is the area of the shaded region? [CBSE Question Bank]

B
5 cm C
O 60°
8c
m D

38r 77r 195r 295r

(a) cm2 (b) cm2 (c) cm2 (d) cm2
2 2 6 6
57. An arc of a circle of radius 14 cm, subtends an angle of 45° at the centre as shown:
[CBSE Question Bank]

O
14
cm
45°

Which of these options is correct?

(a) The arc shown is a minor arc and its length is 5.5 cm.
(b) The arc shown is a major arc and its length is 77 cm.
(c) The arc shown is a major arc and its length is 38.5 cm.
(d) The arc shown is a minor arc and its length is 11 cm.

Areas Related to Circles 157

 58. A circle with centre O of diameter 28 cm and a chord BC of length 14 cm is shown below:
C

14 cm
O

What is the length of the major arc of the circle, to the nearest tenth? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 14.7 cm (b) 73.3 cm (c) 146.7 cm (d) 216.3 cm
59. An equilateral triangle of side 28 cm is inscribed in a circle of diameter 32 cm, as shown
below:

What is the area of the shaded region? (Use p = 3.14 and 3 =1.73) [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 75.68 cm (b) 125.68 cm (c) 411.84 cm (d) 464.76 cm2
2 2 2

60. Smita shaded a square cardboard, as shown below:

3.5 cm
3.5 cm

3.5 cm

23 cm

3.5 cm

23 cm

Which of these is closest to the area of the shaded region? [CBSE Question Bank]
2 2 2
(a) 364.52 cm (b) 439.9 cm (c) 492.4 cm (d) 572.4 cm2
61. The area of a square inscribed in a circle of diameter p cm is
p p2 p
(a) p2 cm2 (b) cm2 (c) cm2 (d) cm2
4 2 2

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a)
7.
(d) 8.
(b) 9.
(c) 10.
(d) 11.
(c) 12.
(d)
13. (b) 14.
(b) 15.
(b) 16.
(b) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20.
(b) 21.
(a) 22.
(a) 23. (c) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (d)

158 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (a) 42. (a)
43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (a)
49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (a)
55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (c)

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A brooch is a small piece of jewellery which has a pin at the back so it can be fastened on a dress,
blouse or coat.
Designs of some broochs are shown below. Observe them carefully.

A B

Design A: Brooch A is made with silver wire in the form of a circle with diameter 28 mm. A wire
used for making 4 diameters which divide the circle into 8 equal parts.
Design B: Brooch B is made of two colours gold and silver. Outer part is made with gold. The
circumference of silver part is 44 mm and the gold part is 3 mm wide everywhere.
[CBSE Question Bank]
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
Refer to design A

(i) The total length of silver wire required is
(a) 180 mm (b) 200 mm (c) 250 mm (d) 280 mm
(ii) The area of each sector of the brooch is
(a) 44 mm2 (b) 52 mm2 (c) 77 mm2 (d) 68 mm2
Refer to design B
(iii) The circumference of outer part (golden) is
(a) 48.49 mm (b) 82.2 mm (c) 72.50 mm (d) 62.86 mm
(iv) The difference of areas of golden and silver parts is
(a) 18π (b) 44π (c) 51π (d) 64π
(v) A boy is playing with brooch B. He makes revolution with it along its edge. How many
complete revolutions must it take to cover 80π mm ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

2. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
The art department of a school prepared circular hanging for the annual function of the school.
The circle with diameter 42 cm was placed at the bottom and the size of the middle circle was
half the size of the bottom one and the smallest circle was half the size of the middle circle.

Areas Related to Circles 159

 (i) The radius of the smallest circle is

(a) 7 cm (b) 14 cm (c) 10.5 cm (d) 5.25 cm

(ii) The area of the middle circle is
(a) 154 cm2 (b) 616 cm2 (c) 346.5 cm2 (d) 1386 cm2
(iii) The area of the bottom circular region that is visible is
1323 1323
(a) rcm2 (b) rcm2 (c) 245π cm2 (d) 340π cm2
2 4
(iv) The ratio of the areas of the three circles, starting from the bottom circle is
(a) 16: 4 : 1 (b) 4 : 2 : 1 (c) 1: 2 : 4 (d) 1 : 4 : 16
(v) A colourful tape was used to decorate the boundary of the bottom circle. The length of
tape used is
(a) 42 cm (b) 42p cm (c) 21 cm (d) 21p cm

3. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Gauri got her wall painted in a different manner. The whole wall was painted pink, leaving
a circular portion of diameter 4.2m. In this circle, she asked the painter to paint a beautiful
scenery in one half of it by drawing a full size triangle possible (as shown in the figure). In the
other half of the circle, she drew the largest circle possible and pasted some of her pictures. The
remaining part of the big circle was filled with dotted design.

8m

12 m

(i) The area of the triangular region is

(a) 4.41 m2 (b) 8.82 m2 (c) 2.205 m2 (d) 17.64 m2
(ii) The radius of the circle allotted for her pictures is
(a) 4.2 m (b) 2.1 m (c) 1.05m (d) cannot be determined
(iii) The area of the wall that is not painted pink is given by
(a) (96 – 4.41π) m2 (b) (40 – 4.41π) m2 (c) (96 – 17.64π) m2 (d) (40 – 17.641π) m2

160 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 (iv) The area of the dotted design is approximately
(a) 10 m2 (b) 6 m2 (c) 9 m2 (d) 8 m2
(v) The cost of designing the whole circular region at the rate of ` 80 per m2 is
(a) ™4,435.2 (b) ™110.88 (c) ™1,108.80 (d) ™346.50
4. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Raghav was standing outside his home. He then tried to find how many times does the wheel
of the car move in a certain time.

(i) Raghav measured the diameter of his car’s wheel and found it to be 84 cm. The distance
travelled by the wheel in one revolution is
(a) 84π cm (b) 42π cm (c) 21π cm (d) 176π cm
(ii) He observed that an average speed of car in front of his house is 45 km/h. The distance
travelled in 1 minute is
(a) 450 m (b) 750 m (c) 500 m (d) 760 m
(iii) The number of revolutions made by the wheel in eleven minutes is
(a) 31 (b) 32 (c) 18 (d) 25
(iv) If the circumference and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then diameter of the
circle is
(a) 2 units (b) 4 units (c) 6 units (d) 1 unit
(v) The area of a circular ring formed by the circles of radii a and b respectively is given by
(a) 2p(a – b) (b) 2p(a2 – b2) (c) p(a2 – b2) (d) p(a2 + b2)
5. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A horse and an ox are tied to a peg at opposite corners of a rectangular field of dimensions
35 m × 20 m by ropes of length 5 m and 10 m respectively. (use π = 3.14)

(i) The area of the field that the horse can graze is given by
25 25
(a) 25π m2 (b) 10π m2 (c) r m2 (d) r m2
2 4

Areas Related to Circles 161

 (ii) The area of the field the ox can graze is
(a) 78.5 m2 (b) 157 m2 (c) 314 m2 (d) 62.8 m2
(iii) The area of the field left to be grazed is
125r 2 125r 2 125r 2 125r 2
(a) 700 – m (b) 700 – m (c) 110 – m (d) 110 – m
2 4 2 4
(iv) If the rope to which horse is tied would have been 8 m long, then the increase in the
grazing area is given by
39 35 37 35
(a) r m2 (b) r m2 (c) r m2 (d) r m2
4 4 2 2
(v) The area of a sector of a circle bounded by an arc of length 5π cm is equal to 20r cm2,
then its radius is
(a) 12 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 10 cm

Answers
1. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (c) (v) (c)
2. (i) (d) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (a) (v) (b)
3. (i) (a) (ii) (c) (iii) (a) (iv) (b) (v) (c)
4. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (b) (v) (c)
5. (i) (d) (ii) (a) (iii) (b) (iv) (a) (v) (c)

ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements—Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A) : In a circle of radius 6 cm, the angle of a sector is 60°. Then the area of the sector is
6
18 cm2.
7
Reason (R) : Area of the circle with radius r is pr2.
2. Assertion (A) : The length of the minute hand of a clock is 7 cm. Then the area swept by the
5
minute hand in 5 minutes is 12 cm2.
6
i
Reason (R) : The length of an arc of a sector of angle θ and radius r is given by l = × 2 rr .
360
3. Assertion (A) : If the circumference of two circles are in the ratio 2 : 3, then ratio of their areas is
4 : 9.
Reason (R) : The circumference of a circle of radius r is 2pr and its area is pr2.
4. Assertion (A) : A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in covering 11 km. Then diameter of
the wheel is 35 cm.
i 1
Reason (R) : Area of segment of a circle is ×rr2 – r2 sin i .
360 2
Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d)

162 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 HINTS/SOLUTIONS OF SELECTED MCQs
1. Perimeter of circle = perimeter of square
rr
2rr = 4a &a= 2
Area of circle rr 2 rr 2 × 4 4 4 28 14

Area of square
= 2
= 2 2
= =
r 22
& 22 =
11
rr
d n
11 r
2 7

Option (b) is correct.
3. According to given condition
Circumference of a circle = Perimeter of square
2rr = 4a
4 × a×7 7a
r=
2 × 22
& r = 11 ...(i)
Now area of circle,
2
7a 2 14a
A1 = rr2 = r d n = ...(ii)
11 11
Area of square, A2 = a2 …(iii)
From equation (ii) and (iii), we get
A1 > A2 .

Option (b) is correct.
circumference of circle 1 2rr1 2 r1 2
18.
circumference of circle 2
=
2rr2
=
3
& r2 = 3
A D

r
rr12 r1
2
2 2
f p c m = = 4:9
Area of cirlce 1 4
= = =
Area of circle 2 rr22 r2 3 9
r

Option (b) is correct. B C

19. Perimeter of protractor = rr + d = rr + 2r = 36
36 36 36 × 7
r= = = = 7 cm
r+2 22 36
+2
7
d = 2r = 2 × 7 =14 cm
Option (a) is correct.

rr 2 i
20. Area of sector =
360
22×14×14×45 22×2×14
= = = 77 cm2
7×360 8

Option (b) is correct.
21. From the formula of area of sector.

Option (a) is correct.
22
22. Length of wire = circumference of circle = 2πr = 2 × × 35 = 220 cm
7
So, the perimeter of square is also 220 cm.
220
Length of one side = = 55 cm
4

Areas Related to Circles 163

 Now, area of square = side × side
= 55 × 55 = 3025 cm2

Option (a) is correct.
23. According to question
2rr – r = 37
22 44r – 7r
& 2 × 7 ×r – r = 37 & 7 = 37
37r
& 7 = 37 & r = 7 cm
22
Now area of circle = rr2 = ×(7) 2 = 154 cm2

7
Option (c) is correct.
rd 2
24. Let the distance be d and area be A =
4
40 2 7d
Now distance = d + d & d+ d &
100 5 5
2 2
7d 1 49d2
New area = r d n × = r e o = re o
49d
5 4 25 × 4 100
r49d2 rd2
Area increased = –
100 4
49d2 – 25d2 24d2
Area increased = r e o = r×
100 100
2
24d
r×
% increase = 100 ×100 = 96%
rd 2
4

Option (c) is correct.
25. Given area of square = area of circle
(side) 2 = rr2
1 r
& a 2 = rr 2 & = a
r
2rr rr r 1 r
Again
4a
=
2a
& 2
× & 2
r

Option (b) is correct.
26. Area of remaining paper = area of rectangle – area of semicircle
r× ( 7 ) 2
= 18 ×14 –
2
22 7 × 7
= 252 – × = 252 – 77 = 175 cm2
7 2

Option (a) is correct.
27. Area of shaded region = area of circle – area of rectangle
Diagonal of rectangle = 122 + 52 = 144 + 25 = 13 cm
13
Radius of circle = cm
2 13 2 3.14 169
Area of shaded region = r × d n – 12 × 5 = × – 60
2 100 4
53060
= – 60 = 132.66 – 60.00 = 72.66 cm2 = 73 cm2 (approx)
400

Option (b) is correct.

164 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 a +O = 90°
28.
` AD = AO2 + DO2 = r2 + r2 = r 2 square units
So, area of square = side × side = r 2 ×r 2 = 2r2

Option (b) is correct.
29. Perimeter of sector = 2 × radius + length of arc
27.2 = 2 × 5.6 + l ⇒ l = 27.2 – 11.2 = 16 cm
2rri rri
l= ⇒ 16 =
360° 180°
i 16
⇒ = ...(i)
180° rr
rr 2 i rr2 16
Now area of sector = = × [From (i)]
2 ×180° 2 rr
= 8r = 8 × 5.6 = 44.8 cm2

Option (c) is correct.
30. Let radius of outer circle be R m and of inner circle be r m
So, 2rR = 396 and 2rr = 352
396 × 7 352 × 7
R= = 63 m and r = = 56 m
2×22 2 × 22
So, width of the track is R – r = 63 – 56 = 7 m

Option (d) is correct.
31. Area of minor segment = Area of sector – area of triangle
rr 2 i 1 22 100×90 1
= – × OA × OB = × – ×100
360° 2 7 360° 2
550 550 – 350 200
= – 50 = = cm2
7 7 7
Area of major segment = Area of circle – area of minor segment
200
= rr2 –
7
100 × 22 200 2200 – 200 2000
= – = = = 285.7 cm2
7 7 7 7
Option (b) is correct.
32. Let the radius of outer and inner circles be R and r.
2 rR 23 R 23 23
So,
2 rr
=
22
& r
=
22
& R=
22
r
aR–r=5
23 23 r – 22 r
& 22 r – r = 5 & 22 = 5 & r = 110 m
So, the diameter is equal to 220 m.

Option (c) is correct.
33. Here, AM is median and equal to h and side of triangle is a. A
Now in DABM
a 2
a2 = h2 + d
n
2
a a
a2 3a 2 3a
& h2 = a2 – 4 = 4 &h= 2 h
But h = 3r
r
3a
= 3r B C
2 a/2 M

Areas Related to Circles 165

 3a 3 a× 3 a
&r=

2 ×3
& &r=
2×3× 3 2 3
42 21
So, radius of incircle = = cm
2 3 3
22 21×21
Area of incircle = rr2 = × = 462 cm2
7 3

Option (c) is correct. C
34. Largest triangle inscribed in a semicircle is an isosceles triangle which
has diameter as base and height is the radius r

1 A B
So, area of triangle = × 2r × r = r2 2r
2

Option (a) is correct.
35. If C = 4r

4r
& 2rr = 4r & r = 2r & r = 2 units
The area (A1) = rr2 = 4r square units
8r
If C = 8r & 2 rr = 8 r & r = 2 r & r = 4 units
The area (A2) = rr2 = 16r square units
So, the area is quadrupled the previous area.

Option (d) is correct.
1 2
36. Calculate the required area = rr , where r = 21 m
4
1 22
= × × 21× 21 = 346.5 m
4 7 m
21
Option (c) is correct.
37. Find the area of remaining square plate = Area of square metal plate – area of 441 holes
= 40 × 40 – 441× rr2
22
= 40 × 40 – 441× × .5 × .5
7
= 40 × 40 – 63 × 22 × .25 = 1600 – 346.5 = 1253.5 cm2

Option (c) is correct.
38. We will find the radius by using formula of length of arc by taking l = 8.8 cm and i = 30° .
2rri rr × 30
l=
360°
& 8.8 = 180
rr 8. 8 × 6 × 7
& 6 = 8.8 & r = 22 = 16.8 cm

Option (b) is correct.
39. First find the circumference of the wheel and then find number of revolution
distance covered
=
circumference of wheel
Circumference of wheel = 2rr
22
= 2 × × 42 = 12 × 22
7
79200
Number of revolution = = 300
12 × 22

Option (d) is correct.
166 Mathematics–X: Term–1
 40. Remaining area = area of rectangle – area of circle
= 4 × 2 – r × (1) 2 = (8 – r) cm2

Option (c) is correct.
41. According to question,
i1 i2
l1 = l2 & × 2rr1 = × 2rr2
360° 360
& i1 r1 = i2 r2
& i1 ×r = i2 (2r) [a r2 = 2r1]
i 2 × 2r
& i1 =

r
& i1 = 2i2

Option (a) is correct.
42. Area of shaded region = area of square + 4 × area of 4 quadrates
= area of square – area of circle.
22
= 12 × 12 – rr2 = 144 – ×36
7
= 144 – 113.14 = 30.86 cm2

Option (a) is correct.

43. a Sum of areas of two circles with radii r1 and r2 = area of circle with radius r
& rr12 + rr22 = rr2 & r12 + r22 = r2

Option (b) is correct.
44. Side of triangle = 2 cm
3
` Area of an equilateral D = × 22 = 3 cm2
4
60° 1 1
Area of 3 sectors = 3 × × r ×12 = 3 × × r = r cm2
360° 6 2
` Area of shaded region = Area of equilateral D – area of 3 sectors

= 3 – = d 3 – n cm2
r r

2 2

Option (c) is correct.
45. We know that circumference of a circle = 2πr
C Circumference
⇒ C = 2πr ⇒ r= =
2r Diameter
∴ Option (b) is correct.
46.
Radius of the newly formed circle = 3 + 4 = 7 units
∴ Its circumference = 2πr = 2π × 7 = 14π

14r 14r
∴ Quotient = = =r
2×7 14
∴ Option (c) is correct

47.
Let r be the radius of circular garden
22
∴ 2πr = 88 m ⇒ 2 × × r = 88 ⇒ r = 14 m
7
Now, Radius of fence(circular) = 14 + 3.5 = 17.5 m
22
∴ Circumference of circular fence = 2πr = 2 × ×17.5 = 2 × 22 × 2.5 = 110 m
7
∴ Cost of fencing = `110 × 70 = `7700
∴ Option (d) is correct.

Areas Related to Circles 167

 48. We have,
r1
Circumference of the outer boundary of the path = 16 m
8
⇒ 2πr1 = 16 ⇒ r1 = m
r r2
O
and, length of decreased fence = 11 – 3 = 8m
4
2πr2 = 8 ⇒ r2 = m
r
∴ Area of the path = r ` r1 – r2 j = r d n=
2 2 64 – 16 48 2
m
r2 r
∴ Total cost to cover the path by bricks
48 48
= ` ×125 = ` × 7 ×125 = ` 1909.09 = ™1910
r 22
∴ Option (a) is correct.

49.

Option (c) is correct, because shaded region is enclosed by two radii and its corresponding arc.
50. As we know that a quarter circle also represents a sector of the circle. Also a semi circle represents
both sector and segment of the circle.
∴ Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
∴ Option (c) is correct.
51. In the adjoining figure OACB is a major sector and OADB is a minor sector.

C D
O

∴ Option (b) is correct.

1 2
52. The sum of the area of the four minor sectors = 4 × rr
4
2
= πr = Area of circle of radius r.
= Area of circle of diameter 2r.
∴ Option (b) is correct.

53.

Minor Segment

∴ Option (a) is correct.

54. Sum of the lengths of arc corresponding to the minor and major segment of a circle of radius 12 cm
= Circumference of the circle
= 2pr = 2p × 12 = 24p cm
∴ Option (a) is correct.

168 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 55. We have, radius of circle = 7 cm
⇒ r = 7 cm
∴ Area of segment PQR = area of sector OPQRO – ar(∆OPR)
90 1
= × rr2 – × OP × OR
360 ° 2
× ^7 h – × 7 × 7 =
1 22 2 1 77 49 28
= × – = = 14 cm2
4 7 2 2 2 2
∴ Option (a) is correct.
56. We have,
Area of the shaded region = Area of the circular ring – area of ABCDA

= r `(8) 2 – ^5 h2 j – × r `^8 h2 – ^5 h2 j
60°
360°
= r × ^64 – 25 h – × r × ^64 – 25 h
1

6
39r 195 r
= 39r – = cm2
6 6
∴ Option (c) is correct.
i
57. Length of the minor arc = × 2rr
360°
45 22 1
= ×2× ×14 = × 88 = 11 cm
360° 7 8
∴ Option (d) is correct.
58. Given diameter of the circle is 28 cm
∴ Radius of circle = 14 cm C
Since length of chord BC = 14 cm

cm
∴ ∆OBC is an equilateral triangle ⇒ ∠BOC = 60°

14

14 cm
60° O 60°
Now, length of the major arc = 2rr – × 2 rr
360°

cm
14
= 2rr d1 – ×1 n = × 2rr
1 5
B
6 6
5 22 220
= × 2 × ×14 = = 73.3 cm
6 7 3
∴ Option (b) is correct.
59. Area of shaded region
= area of circle – area of an equilateral triangle

× ^28 h = 3.14 × 256 –

3
= r × ^16h –
2 2 1.73 × 28 × 28
4 4
2
= 803.84 – 339.08 = 464.76 cm
∴ Option (d) is correct.
60. Given side of square = 23 cm
∴ Area of largest square = (23)2 = 529 cm2
There are four semi circles that means we have two complete circles of diameter 2r cm.
∴ 3.5 + r + 2r + r + 3.5 = 23 ⇒ r = 4 cm
∴ Radius of circle is 4 cm
Now, area of non shaded region = area of two circle + area of square of side 8 cm
= 2π × (4)2 + (8)2
= 2 × 3.14 × 16 + 64 = 164.48 cm2
∴ Area of shaded region = 529 – 164.48 = 364.52 cm2
∴ Option (a) is correct.

Areas Related to Circles 169

 61. Diameter of circle forms diagonal of the square.
(Side)2 + (Side)2 = p2
2(Side)2 = p2 [ a Diameter = p]
p
p O
Side =
2
2
p2
Area of square = (Side) = cm2
2
Hence, (c) is the correct option.

SOLUTIONS OF CASE-BASED QUESTIONS

1. (i) We have diameter of the wire = 28 cm
⇒
d = 28 mm
∴
Radius (r) = 14 mm
Total length of silver wire required = circumference of circle + 4 × diameter of the circle
= 2r + 4 × dD
22
= 2× ×14 + 4 × 28 = 88 + 112 = 200 mm
7
∴ Option (b) is correct.

360°
(ii) Angle of the each sector = = 45°
8
i
∴ Area of each sector of the brooch =
× rr 2
360°
45° 22 1
= × ×14 ×14 = × 22 × 2 ×14 = 77 mm2
360° 7 8
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(iii) Now, refer to design B, we have
Circumference of silver part = 44 mm
2πr = 44 (where r is the radius of inner circle)
44 44
⇒
r= ⇒ r=
= 7 mm
2r 22
2×
7
∴ Radius of outer part (R) = (7 + 3) = 10 mm

Circumference of outer part = 2πR = 2π × 10 = 20 π
22 440
= 20 × = = 62.86 mm
7 7
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(iv) Difference of areas of golden and silver part = πR2 – πr2

= π [(10)2 – (7)2] = π(100 – 49) = 51π mm2
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(v) Circumference of outer part(circular) = 2πR = 2π × 10 = 20π
80r
∴ Number of revolution =
=4.
20r
∴ Option (c) is correct.

170 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 42
2. (i) Diameter of middle circle = = 21 cm
2
Diameter of middle circle = 21 cm
21
Radius of smaller circle = cm = 5.25 cm
4
Option (d) is correct.
22 21 21 693
(ii) Area of middle circle = × × = = 346.5 cm2
7 2 2 2
Option (c) is correct
21 2
(iii) Area of bottom circle visible = r >212 – d nH
2
21 21
= r d 21 – nd 21 + n = r×
21 63 1323
× = r cm2
2 2 2 2 4
Option (b) is correct.
r 2 r 2 r2 r2
(iv) Ratio of the three circles = rr2 : r c m : r c m = r2 : : = 16 : 4 : 1
2 4 4 16
Option (a) is correct
(v) Length of tape used to decorate outer circle = 2p × 21 = 42p cm
Option (b) is correct.
1
3. (i) Area of triangular region = × 4.2 × 2.1 = 4.41 m2
2
Option (a) is correct.
2.1
(ii) Radius of the circle alloted for pictures = = 1.05 m
2
Option (c) is correct.
(iii) Area of the wall painted pink = 12 × 8 – p(2.1)2 = (96 – 4.41p) m2
Option (a) is correct.
(iv) Area of dotted design = p(2.1)2 – Area of triangle – Area of small circle
2 .1 2
n = r ;4.41 – E – 4.41
4.41
= r (2.1) 2 – 4.41 – r d
2 4

= 4.41 <r c1 – m – 1F = 4.41 d ×

3 22
– 1n
1

4 4 7
19
= 4.41× = 6 m2 (approx.)
14
Option (b) is correct.
22
(v) Area of whole circular region = r (2.1) 2 = 4.41×
7
22
Cost of designing = `80 × 4.41× = `1108.80
7
Option (c) is correct.
4. (i) Distance covered by the wheel in one revolution = 2p ×42 = 84p cm
Option (a) is correct.
45 ×1000 m
(ii) Distance covered in one minute = = 750 m
60 min ute
Option (b) is correct.
(iii) Distance covered in 11 min = 11 × 750 = 8250 m
8250 8250 × 7
Number of revolution made in 11 minute = = = 31 revolution (approx)
84r 84 × 22
Option (a) is correct.

Areas Related to Circles 171

 (iv) Given 2rr = rr 2 & 2=r & d = 2 × 2 = 4 units
Option (b) is correct.
(v) Area of ring = r (a 2 – b 2)
Option (c) is correct.
1 25
5. (i) Area of field horse can graze = × r (5) 2 = r m2
4 4
Option (d) is correct.
1
(ii) Area of field ox can graze = × r (10) 2 = 25r = 25 × 3.14 = 78.5 m2
4
∴ Option (a) is correct.

r – 25r = c700 – r m m2
25 125
(iii) Area of the field left to be grazed = 20 × 35 –
4 4
Option (b) is correct.
1 1 39
(iv) Increase in grazing area = r (82 – 52) = r (13 × 3) = r m2
4 4 4
Option (a) is correct.
1 1 40r
(v) Area of sector = lr
2
& 20r =
2
× 5r × r & r=
5r
= 8 cm
Option (c) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS

i 60 22
1. Area of the sector = × rr2 = × ×6×6
360° 360° 7
132 6
= = 18 cm2 .
7 7
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
2. Area swept by minute hand in 5 minutes
i 30 22
= × rr 2 = × ×7×7
360° 360° 7
77 5
= = 12 cm2 ( Angle in 5 minutes by minute hand is 30°)
6 6
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
2rr1 2 r1 2
3. Given, = & r =
2 rr 3
2 2 3
rr12 r12 2 2 4
Now, ratio of their areas be = = c m =
rr22 r22 3 9

Also, circumference of circle = 2pr.
Hence, (a) is the correct option.
4. We have,
11000 11 11
2rr = = m= ×100 cm
5000 5 5
11×100 11× 20
⇒ 2r =
= ×7 ⇒ 2r = 70
5× r 22
⇒ Diameter = 70 cm


A is false and R is true.
Hence, (d) is the correct option.
zzz

172 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 8 PROBABILITY

BASIC CONCEPTS & FORMULAE

1. Probability is a quantitative measure of certainty.
2. Random Experiment: Any activity which is associated to certain outcome is called random
experiment, e.g., (i) tossing a coin (ii) throwing a die.
3. Elementary Events: An outcome of a random experiment is called an elementary event.
4. Sure Events : Those events whose probability is one.
5. Impossible Events: Those events whose probability is zero.
6. Probability of any event always lies between 0 and 1, i.e.,
(i) Probability of an event cannot be negative.
(ii) Probability of an event cannot be more than 1.
7. Negation of an Event: Corresponding to every event A associated with a random experiment we
define an event “not A or A which occurs when and only when does not occur.
8. For any event A, P(A) + P ( A ) = 1 ⇒ P ( A ) = 1 – P(A)
9. Probability: If there are n elementary events associated with a random experiment and m of them
are favourable to an event A, then the probability of happening of event A is defined as the ratio
m
n and is denoted by P(A).
m
∴ P ( A) = n
10. Compound Event: An event associated to a random experiment is a compound event if it is
obtained by combining two or more elementary events associated to the random experiment.
11. Occurrence of an Event: An event A associated to a random experiment is said to occur if any one
of the elementary events associated to the event A is an outcome.
12. Playing Cards: The details of playing card having 52 cards are as:
Total playing cards = 52
Red cards = 26 and Black cards = 26
Heart cards = 13, Diamond cards = 13, Club cards = 13, Spade cards = 13
Each suit consists 1 ace, 1 king, 1 queen, 1 jack and nine number cards 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10.
Face cards : 3 Jack, 3 queen and 3 king.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.
1. If an event cannot occur, then its probability is [NCERT Exemplar]
3 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d) 0
4 2

Probability 173
 2. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event? [NCERT Exemplar]
1 17
(a) (b) 0.1 (c) 3% (d)
3 16
3. An event is very unlikely to happen. Its probability is closest to
(a) 0.0001 (b) 0.001 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.1

4. The probability that a non-leap year selected at random will contain 53 sunday’s is
 [NCERT Exemplar]
1 2 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7 7

5. A card is selected from a deck of 52 cards. The probability of being a red face card is
 [NCERT Exemplar]
3 3 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26 13 13 2

6. A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. The event E is that card is not an ace of hearts. The
number of outcomes favourable to E is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 4 (b) 13 (c) 48 (d) 51

7. One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. The probability that it is black queen is
1 1 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26 13 52 13

8. Which of the following can be probability of an event?

(a) 2 (b) –1 (c) 0.3 (d) 1.12

9. A die is thrown once. The probability of getting an even number is

1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 6 4 2
10. The probability of throwing a number greater than 2 with a fair die is
1 2 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 4 5
11. The probability of getting exactly one head in tossing a pair of coins is
1 1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d)
3 2
12. Which of the following can be the probability of an event?
18 8
(a) – 0.04 (b) 1.004 (c) (d)
23 7
13. A card is selected at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. The probability of
its being a face card is
3 4 6 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13 13 13 13
14. Kirti has a box containing four cards labelled A, B, C and D. She randomly picks a card from
the box, records the label on the card and put it back in the box. She repeats this experiment
80 times and records her observation in the table shown below.

174 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 Card A Card B Card C Card D
11 16 25 28

Which of the following shows the empirical probability and theoretical probability of picking
Card C the next time? [CBSE Question Bank]
5 5
(a) Empirical probability = (b) Empirical probability =
11 11
1 1
Theoretical probability = Theoretical probability =
2 4
5 5
(c) Empirical probability = (d) Empirical probability =
16 16
1 1
Theoretical probability = Theoretical probability =
2 4

15. Smita has a bag containing 1 red, 1 green, 1 yellow, 1 black and 1 blue ball. She randomly
picks the ball from the bag notes it colour and keeps it back in the bag. She repeats this 40
times. The table shows the number of times each colour ball she gets. The number of times the
black ball is picked is missing in the table. [CBSE Question Bank]

Red ball Green ball Yellow ball Black ball Blue ball
10 6 5 ? 10

She then repeats the experiment 10 more times and gets red ball twice, green ball once, yellow
ball thrice, black ball once and blue ball thrice.
Which of these is a valid conclusion as the number of trials of the experiment increases?
(a) The empirical probability of picking red ball becomes equal to its theoretical probability.
(b) The empirical probability of picking red ball does not get closer to its theoretical probability.
(c) The empirical probability of picking yellow ball gets closer to its theoretical probability.
(d) The empirical probability of picking yellow ball gets further away from its theoretical
probability.
16. If a card is drawn from a deck of cards, what is the probability of a card drawn to be a red or
a black card and what can we say about that event? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 0 and it is a sure event. (b) 1 and it is a sure event.
(c) 0 and it is an impossible event. (d) 1 and it is an impossible event.
17. A spinner is shown below.
Some of the events are listed below, when the spinner is spinned.

Event A: The spinner lands on a multiple of 11.
Event B: The spinner lands on a number less than 11.
Event C: The spinner lands on a number more than 10.
Which of the following statement is true about the three events? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) Probability of Event A is 1, so A is a sure event while the probabilities of Events B and C are
0, so they are impossible events.
(b) Probability of Event B is 1, so B is a sure event while the probabilities of Events A and C are
0, so they are impossible events.

Probability 175
 (c) Probability of Event A is 1, so A is an impossible event while the probabilities of Events B and
C are 0, so they are sure events.
(d) Probability of Event B is 1, so B is an impossible event while the probabilities of Events A and
C are 0, so they are sure events.

18. When four coins are tossed simultaneously, which of the following represents the sample
space? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a)
HHHH HHHT HHTH HTHH
THHH HHTT TTHH HTTT
THTT TTHT TTTH TTTT

(b)
HHHH HHHT HHTH HTHH
THHH THHT HTTH HTTT
THTT TTHT TTTH TTTT

(c)
HHHH HHHT HHTH HTHH
THHH HHTT HTHT HTTH
THHT THTH TTHH HTTT
THTT TTHT TTTH TTTT

(d)
HHHH HHHT HHTH HTHH
THHH HHTT HTHT HTTH
HTTH HTHT TTHH HTTT
THTT TTHT TTTH TTTT

19. To win a prize in a game, you need to first choose one of the 4 doors, 1, 2, 3, 4 and then need
to choose one of the three boxes A, B, C and then need to choose between two colours red
and green. How many of the possible outcomes of this game include selecting Box A and red
colour? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 12
20. A box has 10 equal size cards. Of the 10 cards, 4 are blue, 3 are green, 2 are yellow and 1 is
red. If a card is randomly drawn from the box, which is the colour that the card is most likely
to have? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Blue (d) Yellow
21. Of 50 students in a class, 16 prefer cricket, 8 prefer football, 8 prefer basketball and rest of the
students prefer either tennis or hockey. There are twice as many students who prefer tennis
as the number of students who prefer hockey. A student is randomly selected from the class.
Which statement is correct? [CBSE Question Bank]
(a) The probability of selecting a student who prefer hockey is more than that of selecting a
student who prefer football.
(b) The probability of selecting a student who prefer tennis is more than that of selecting a
student who prefer football.

176 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 (c) The probability of selecting a student who prefer hockey is more than that of selecting a
student who prefer tennis.
(d) The probability of selecting a student who prefer basketball is more than that of selecting a
student who prefer cricket.

22. If a bag contains 3 red and 7 black balls, the probability of getting a black ball is
3 4 7 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 10 10 10

23. A coin is tossed 1000 times and 640 times a ‘head’ occurs. The empirical probability of
occurrence of a head in this case is
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.64 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.064

24. If P(A) denotes the probability of an event A, then [NCERT Exemplar]

(a) P(A) < 0 (b) P(A) > 1 (c) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1 (d) –1 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1

25. In a lottery, there are 8 prizes and 16 blanks. The probability of getting a prize is
2 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 2 4
26. A bag contains 3 red, 5 black and 7 white balls. A ball is drawn from the bag at random. The
probability that the ball drawn is not black, is [CBSE 2020 (30/4/1)]
1 9 5 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 15 10 3
27. The probability that a number selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3 ... 15 is a multiple
of 4 is
4 2 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15 15 5 3
28. A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 white balls and 7 black balls. What is the probability that a ball
drawn from the bag at random will be neither red nor black?
1 1 7 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 3 15 15
29. When a die is thrown, the probability of getting an even number less than 4 is
1 1 1
(a) (b) 0 (c) (d)
4 2 6
30. A card is selected at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. The probability of
its being a face card is
3 4 6 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13 13 13 13
31. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?
1 17
(a) (b) 0.1 (c) 3% (d)
3 6
32. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting atmost one head is
1 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
4 2 4

Probability 177
 33. A girl calculates that the probability of her winning the first prize in a lottery is 0.08. If 6,000
tickets are sold, how many tickets has she bought? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 40 (b) 240 (c) 480 (d) 750

34. If a number x is chosen from the numbers 1, 2, 3 and a number y is selected from the numbers
1, 4, 9. Then P(xy < 9) is [NCERT Exemplar]
3 4 1 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 9 9 9
35. A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. The event E is that card is not an ace of hearts. The
number of outcomes favourable to E is
(a) 4 (b) 13 (c) 48 (d) 51

36. A bag contains three green marbles, four blue marbles and two orange marbles. If a marble is
picked at random, then the probability that it is not an orange marble is
7 2 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
9 9 9
37. If the probability of an event is p, the probability of its complementary event will be
[NCERT Exemplar]
1
(a) p – 1 (b) 1 – p (c) 1 – (d) p
p

38. The probability of getting a number from 1 to 100, which is divisible by 7 is

1 14 7 23
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 100 100 98
39. If a pair of dice is thrown, the probability of getting a sum of 10 is
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12 36 9 4
40. If a pair of dice is thrown, then the probability of getting a doublet is
1 1 5 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 6 12 3
41. If a letter of English alphabet is chosen at random, than the probability that the letter is a
consonant is
21 10 21 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
23 13 26 26

Answers
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c)
19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (a)
37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (c)

178 Mathematics–X: Term–1

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
On a weekend Rani was playing cards with her family .The deck has 52 cards. If her brother
drew one card. [CBSE Question Bank]

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) The probability of getting a king of red colour is
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26 13 52 4
(ii) The probability of getting a face card is
1 1 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26 13 13 13
(iii) The probability of getting a jack of hearts is

1 1 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26 52 52 26
(iv) The probability of getting a red face card is
3 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26 13 52 4
(v) The probability of getting a spade is
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26 13 52 4

2. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Rahul and Ravi planned to play Business ( board game) in which they were supposed to use two
dice. [CBSE Question Bank]

Probability 179
 Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Ravi got first chance to roll the dice. What is the probability that he got the sum of the
two numbers appearing on the top face of the dice as 8?
1 5 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 0
26 36 18

(ii) Rahul got next chance. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two numbers
appearing on the top face of the dice as 13?
1
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) (d) 0
36 18

(iii) Now it was Ravi’s turn. He rolled the dice. What is the probability that he got the sum of
the two numbers appearing on the top face of the dice less than or equal to 12?
5 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d) 0
36 18
(iv) Rahul got next chance. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two numbers
appearing on the top face of the dice equal to 7?
5 5 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 0
9 36 6
(v) Now it was Ravi’s turn. He rolled the dice. What is the probability that he got the sum of
the two numbers appearing on the top face of the dice greater than 8?
5 1 5
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
36 18 18
3. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Vasu’s mother bought 3 kg apples and 2 kg oranges from the market. Vasu counted them and
found there were 15 apples and 12 oranges.

(i) Vasu’s brother picks one fruit from the bag. The probability that he picks an apple is
1 1 1 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
27 15 2 9
(ii) After his brother Vasu picks one fruit from the bag. The probability that he picks an
orange is (given that his brother picked an apple).
6 1 1 12
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13 12 11 27
(iii) Vasu kept remaining apples and oranges in two separate baskets. He found 13 apples
were left out of which 2 were rotten. The probability of picking a good apple from the
apple basket now, is
1 1 11 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15 13 13 11
(iv) The probability of an event can never be
(a) zero (b) less than zero
(c) one (d) greater than zero and less than one

180 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 (v) If probability of an event E is 0.75, then P(not E) is
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.75 (c) 0 (d) 1
4. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Two kids are playing with balls in a playing zone. They both are given basket full of balls.

(i) If the basket contains 9 blue , 6 red and 12 yellow balls, then the probability of picking a
yellow ball is
1 12 1 12
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12 27 3 15
(ii) The probability that the ball drawn from the above basket is not blue is
2 1 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 2 9
(iii) The probability that the ball drawn from the basket given is either red or blue, is
2 5 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 9 3 3
(iv) If the probability of getting a red ball from the basket containing 35 balls is 0.2, then
number of red balls in the basket is
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 10
3
(v) The probability of drawing a green ball from a bag is . If there are 9 green balls in the
11
bag, then the total number of balls in the bag is
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 22 (d) 99
5. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Akriti and Sukriti have to start the game of ludo. They are fighting for who will start the game.
They found two coins and decided to toss them simultaneously to know who will start the game.

(i) How many possible outcomes are there?

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 0
(ii) Akriti says if I get atleast one head, I will win and start the game. The probability that
Akriti will start the game is
1 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
2 4 4
(iii) Sukriti says if I get atmost one tail, I will start the game. The probability that Sukriti will
start the game is
1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 0
4 4 2

Probability 181
 (iv) Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?
1 49
(a) (b) 1.05 (c) 0.07 (d)
99 50
(v) The probability of success is 73%. Then the probability of failure is
(a) 0.27 (b) 0.37 (c) 0.73 (d) 0.5
6. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A lot of garments consists of 30 round neck T-shirts out of which 12 are red and remaining are
green and 25 V-neck T-shirts out of which 11 are red and remaining are green. Apoorv will buy
either green round neck or red V-neck T-Shirt.
Shekhar will buy only round neck T-shirt. Varun will buy only red colour T-shirt.

(i) The total possible outcomes is

(a) 30 (b) 25 (c) 55 (d) 78
(ii) One T-shirt is selected at random from the lot. The probability that it is acceptable to
Shekhar is
6 42 5 23
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11 55 13 55
(iii) The probability that the randomly selected T-shirt is acceptable to Varun is
12 23 11 30
(a) (b) (c) (d)
55 55 55 55
(iv) The probability that the randomly selected T-shirt is not acceptable to any of them is
25 32 14 18
(a) (b) (c) (d)
55 55 55 55
(v) The selected T-shirt was green round neck, so Apoorv accepted it. Another T-shirt was
selected at random. The probability that it is again accepted by Apoorv is
17 18 30 14
(a) (b) (c) (d)
54 55 54 27
7. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A teacher conducted a fun activity in the class. She put cards numbered from 9 to 90 in a box.
Then she called students one by one, from the teams formed by her. The child speaks out any
property related to numbers. If he gets a number satisfying that property, the team scored
marks otherwise not.

182 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 (i) Vanshika speaks out ‘divisible by 6’. The probability that her team gets mark is
1 7 7 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 41 45 27
(ii) Sam speaks out ‘a perfect square number’. The probability of his team getting marks is
7 8 10 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
82 82 82 90
(iii) Preeti says ‘a prime number’. The probability of her team getting marks is
19 11 10 21
(a) (b) (c) (d)
82 41 41 82
(iv) Karan says ‘an odd number’. The probability of getting score in this case is
20 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
41 2 4 3
(v) Which of the following property will have maximum chances of getting marks?
(a) an even prime number (b) an even number
(c) a one digit number (d) a two-digit number
8. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Aisha took a pack of 52 cards. She kept aside all the face cards and shuffled the remaining cards
well.

(i) The number of total possible outcomes is

(a) 52 (b) 40 (c) 36 (d) 48
(ii) She drew a card from the well-shuffled pack of remaining cards. The probability that the
card drawn is a red card is
1 1 4 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 2 13 13
(iii) The probability of drawing a black queen is
1 1
(a) (b) (c) 0 (d) 1
26 6
(iv) The probability of getting neither a black card nor an ace card is
9 11 3 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
20 20 5 13
(v) The number of favourable outcomes for the event a club card or a ‘4’ is
(a) 13 (b) 17 (c) 14 (d) 12

Probability 183
 9. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Two friends are travelling in a bus. They were feeling bored, so they started playing a game
with a pair of dice that one of them had. Each of them started rolling the pair of dice one by one,
stating one condition before rolling. If the person gets the numbers according to the condition
stated by him, he wins and get a score

(i) The number of possible outcomes on rolling a pair of dice is

(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 36 (d) 8
(ii) First friend says, “a doublet”. The probability of his winning is
5 1 5 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 6 18 2
(iii) Second friend says, ‘sum less than 9’. The probability of his winning is
13 31 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18 36 2 6
(iv) First one says, “6 will not come up either time”. The probability of his losing is
1 25 11 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 36 36 6
(v) Second one says, “sum is an even number”. The probability of his losing is
1 1 1
(a) less than (b) more than (c) equal to (d) 1
2 2 2

Answers
1. (i) (a) (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (a) (v) (d)
2. (i) (b) (ii) (d) (iii) (a) (iv) (c) (v) (d)
3. (i) (d) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (b) (v) (a)
4. (i) (b) (ii) (a) (iii) (b) (iv) (c) (v) (b)
5. (i) (c) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (b) (v) (a)
6. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (b) (iv) (c) (v) (d)
7. (i) (b) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (b) (v) (d)
8. (i) (b) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (a) (v) (a)
9. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (c) (v) (c)

ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements—Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

184 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 1. Assertion (A) : The probability of winning a game is 0.4, then the probability of losing it, is
0.6.
Reason (R) : P(E) + P (not E) = 1
2. Assertion (A) : When two coins are tossed simultaneously then the probability of getting no tail
1
is .
4
1
Reason (R) : The probability of getting a head (i.e., no tail) in one toss of a coin is .
2
3. Assertion (A) : Card numbered as 1, 2, 3 ... 15 are put in a box and mixed thoroughly, one card
1
is then drawn at random. The probability of drawing an even number is .
2
Reason (R) : For any event E, we have 0 # P (E) # 1 .
4. Assertion (A) : In a simultaneously throw of a pair of dice. The probability of getting a double
1
is .
6
Reason (R) : Probability of an event may be negative.

Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c)

HINTS/SOLUTIONS OF SELECTED MCQs

5. Total number of red face cards = 6
6 3

` Probability of being a red face cards = =
52 26

Hence, option (a) is correct.
7. Number of black queens = 2
2 1
P(black queen) = =
52 26
∴ Option (a) is correct.

8. The probability of an event cannot be negative or greater than one.
∴ Option (c) is correct.

9. Total outcomes = 6.
Even numbers on die = 2, 4, 6 i.e., 3
3 1
P(even number) = =
6 2
∴ Option (d) is correct.
10. Total outcomes = 6
Numbers greater than 2 on die = 3, 4, 5, 6, i.e., 4
4 2
P(number greater than 2) = =
6 3
∴ Option (b) is correct.
11. Total outcomes = HT, TH, HH, TT = 4
Outcomes of getting exactly one head = (H T), (T H), i.e., 2
2 1
P(getting exactly one head) = =
4 2
∴ Option (d) is correct.

Probability 185
 12. As we know that, 0 ≤ P ≤ 1.
Means probability is +ve and lie between 0 and 1.
18
Here, only is correct.
23
∴ Option (c) is correct.

13. Total number of cards = 52
Number of face cards = 12
12 3
So, P(face card) = =
52 13
∴ Option (a) is correct.
25 5
14. Empirical probability of picking card C= =
80 16
1
and Theoretical probability =
4
∴ Option (d) is correct.
15. When Smita experiments 40 times, we get the table
Red ball Green ball Yellow ball Black ball Blue ball
10 6 5 9 10

When she repeats 10 more times, we get the table

Red ball Green ball Yellow ball Black ball Blue ball
12 7 8 10 13

We have,
1
Theoretical probability of getting a yellow ball = = 0.2
5
Empirical probability of getting yellow ball when experiment is repeated 40 times
5 1
= = = 0.125
40 8
and Empirical probability of getting yellow ball when experiment is repeated 50 times
8
= = 0.16
50
∴ Empirical probability of picking yellow ball gets closer to its theoretical probability.
∴ Option (c) is correct.
16. We know that the card has only two colours red and black.
∴ When a card is drawn, then it is either red or black so this is a sure event.
∴ Its probability is 1.
∴ Option (b) is correct.
17. We have,
A = φ ⇒ n(A) = 0 ⇒ P(A) = 0
B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
n(B) = 10 ⇒ P(B) = 1
C = φ ⇒ n(C) = 0 ⇒ P(C) = 0
∴ Option (b) is correct.
18. When four coins are tossed simultaneously, we get the sample space as given in option (c).
∴ Option (c) is correct.

186 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 19. Since selecting box A and red colour, are prefixed, so there are only four choices to choose
doors.
∴ Total number of possible outcomes is 4.
∴ Option (b) is correct.
20. Since out of 10 cards, the maximum number of cards are blue i.e., 4.
So, the card is most likely to have blue colour.
∴ Option (c) is correct.
21. Let the number of students who prefer hockey be x.
Therefore, number of students who prefer tennis = 2x
∴ x + 2x = 50 – (16 + 8 + 8) = 50 – 32 = 18
⇒ 3x = 18 ⇒ x = 6
∴ Number of students prefer hockey = 6
and that of tennis = 12
6
∴ Probability of selecting a student who prefers hockey =
50
12
and probability of selecting a student who prefers Tennis =
50 8
Also, we have probability of selecting a student who prefers football =
50
Clearly, the probability of selecting a student who prefers tennis is more than that of selecting a
student who prefers football.
∴ Option (b) is correct.
22. Total number of balls = n(S) = 7 + 3 = 10
Number of black balls = 7
7
P (black ball) =
10
Hence, option (c) is correct.
640
23. Required probability = = 0.64
1000
Hence, option (b) is correct.
24. We have, 0 # P (A) # 1
Hence, option (c) is correct.
8 8 1
25. The probability of getting a prize = = =
8 + 16 24 3
Hence, option (b) is correct.
26. Total number of balls = (3 red + 5 black + 7 white) balls
= 15 balls
∴ Total number of possible outcomes = 15

and number of favourable outcomes i.e. not black = 3 + 7 = 10
10 2
∴ Required probability = =
15 3
∴ Option (d) is correct.
27. Total number of possible outcomes = 15 ⇒ n(S) = 15
and numbers multiple of 4 are = 4, 8, 12 ⇒ n(E) = 3
n (E ) 3 1
` Probability = =
n (S) 15 5
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Probability 187
 28. Total number of balls = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15
Number of white balls = 5
5 1
∴ Probability of drawn a ball which is neither red nor black i.e., white =
=
15 3
Hence, option (b) is correct.
29. When a die is thrown once.
The total number of possible outcomes = 6 ⇒ n(S) = 6
and, even number less than 4 = {2} ⇒ n(E) = 1
1
∴ Probability =

6
Hence, option (d) is correct.
30. Total number of cards = 52
and, total number of face cards = 12
12 3 3

` Required probability = = =
52 13 13
Hence, option (a) is correct.
17 17
31. can not be the probability of an event because > 1.
6 6
Hence, option (d) is correct.
32. When two coins are tossed once then
the total possible outcomes are {HH, HT, TH, TT}.
⇒
n (S) = 4
and favourable outcomes = {HT, TH, TT}
⇒
n (E) = 3
n ( E) 3
\ Required probability =
=
n (S) 4
Hence, option (c) is correct.
33. Number of required tickets = 6000 × 0.08 = 480
Hence, option (c) is correct.
34. xy = 1, 4, 9, 2, 8, 18, 3, 12, 27
Favourable outcomes = 5
5
P (xy < 9) =
9
Hence, option (d) is correct.
35. Total number of cards in a deck = 52
and number of cards which is ace of hearts = 1

 The number of outcomes favourable to E = 52 – 1 = 51.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
36. Total number of marbles = 3 green + 4 blue + 2 orange = 9 marbles
and Total number of not orange marbles = 3 green + 4 blue = 7 marbles
7

 P(not an orange marble) =
9
Hence, option (a) is correct.

188 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 37. Probability of its complementary event = 1 – p
∴ Option (b) is correct.

38. Numbers from 1 to 100, which is divisible by 7 are
7, 14, 21, . . . 98
∴ Total number of favourable outcomes = 14

and total possible outcomes = 100
14 7
Required probability = =
100 50
∴ Option (b) is correct.

39. When a pair of dice is thrown once then
total number of possible outcomes = 36
⇒
n(S) = 36
Favourable outcomes = {(5, 5), (4, 6), (6, 4)}
n(E) = 3
n (E ) 3 1
∴ Required probability =
= =
n (S) 36 12
Hence, option (a) is correct.
40. When a pair of dice is thrown then
total number of possible outcomes = 36
⇒
n(S) = 36
∴ Doublets are = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)}

n(E) = 6
6 1
∴ Probability of getting a doublet =
=
36 6
Hence, option (b) is correct.
41. Total number of English alphabets = 26
and number of consonant = 26 – 5 = 21
21
` Required probability =
26
` Option (c) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF CASE-BASED QUESTIONS

1. (i) Total no. of possible outcomes = 52
and no. of favourable outcomes = 2
2 1
∴ P(getting a king of red colour) =
=
52 26
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(ii) We have, number of face card = 12
12 3
∴ P(getting a face card) = =
52 13
∴ Option (d) is correct.
(iii) There is only one jack of hearts.
1
∴
P(getting a jack of hearts) =
52
∴ Option (b) is correct.

Probability 189
 (iv) No. of red face card = 6
6 3
∴
P(getting a red face card) = =
52 26
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(v) No. of spade cards = 13
13 1
∴
P(getting a spade card) = =
52 4
∴ Option (d) is correct.

2. (i) When two dice are rolled once, we have
total number of possible outcomes = 36
and favourable outcomes = {(2, 6), (3, 5), (4, 4), ), (5, 3), (6, 2)}
∴ No. of favourable outcomes = 5

5
∴ Required probability =

36
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(ii) Favourable outcomes for getting sum 13 = φ
∴ No. of favourable event = 0

0
∴ Required probability =
=0
36
∴ Option (d) is correct.

(iii) No. of favourable outcomes of getting sum less than or equal to 12 = 36
36
∴ Required probability =
=1
36
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(iv) Favourable outcomes for Rahul = {(3,4), (4, 3), (1, 6), (6, 1), (5, 2), (2, 5)}
No. of favourable outcomes = 6
6 1
∴ Required probability =
=
36 6
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(v) Favourable outcomes = {(3, 6), (6, 3), (4, 5), (5, 4), (5, 5), (6, 4), (4, 6), (5, 6), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
No. of favourable outcomes = 10
10 5
∴ Required probability =
=
36 18
∴ Option (d) is correct.

3. (i) Total possible outcomes = 27
Favourable outcomes = 15
15 5
P(an apple) =
=
27 9
∴ Option (d) is correct.

(ii) Total possible outcomes after picking one fruit = 26
Favourable outcomes = 12
12 6
P(an orange) =
=
26 13
∴ Option (a) is correct.

190 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 (iii) Total possible outcomes = 13
Favourable outcome = 11
11
P(a good apple) =

13
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(iv) The value of probability P satisfy
0GPGI
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(v) P(E) = 0.75

P(not E) = 1 – 0.75 = 0.25
∴ Option (a) is correct.

4. (i) Total possible outcomes = 9 + 6 + 12 = 27
12
P(yellow ball) =

27
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(ii) Favourable outcomes = 6 + 12 = 18
18 2
P(not blue) =
=
27 3
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(iii) Favourable outcomes = 6 + 9 = 15
15 5
P(either red or blue) =
=
27 9
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iv) Total balls = 35,
Let number of red balls be x.
x
Then, P(red ball) = = 0 .2
35
&
x = 0.2 × 35 = 7
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(v) Let the total number of balls be x.
9
Then P(green ball) = x

3 9 9 ×11
&

11
= x & x=
3
= 33

∴ Option (b) is correct.

5. (i) Total possible outcomes = 4 that are (HT, TH, TT, HH)
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) Favourable outcomes = (HT, TH, HH) = 3
3
P(Akriti will start) =

4
∴ Option (c) is correct.

Probability 191
 (iii) Favourable outcomes = (HH, TH, HT) = 3
3
P(Sukriti will start) =
4
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iv) The value of probability of an event is, 0 # P # 1
1.05 > 1
∴ Option (b) is correct.
73
(v) P(success) = = 0.73
100

P(Failure) = 1 – 0.73 = 0.27
∴ Option (a) is correct.

6. (i) Total possible outcomes = 30 + 25 = 55
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) Favourable outcomes for Shekhar = 30
30 6
P(T-shirt acceptable to Shekhar) =
=
55 11
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(iii) Favourable outcomes for Varun = 12 + 11 = 23
23
P(T-Shirt acceptable to Varun) =

55
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iv) Favourable outcomes for the event that the T-shirt is not acceptable by any of them = 14
14

P(T-shirt not acceptable by any three of them) =
55
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(v) Total possible outcomes after one T-shirt is selected = 54
Favourable outcomes for Apoorv = 17 + 11 = 28
28 14
P(T-shirt is again accepted by Apoorv) =
=
54 27
∴ Option (d) is correct.

7. (i) Total possible outcomes = 82
Favourable outcomes (divisible by 6) = 14 that are (12, 18, ...90)
14 7
P(Vanshika gets marks) =
=
82 41
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(ii) Favourable outcomes (Perfect square number) = 7
7
P(Sam gets marks) =

82
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(iii) Favourable outcomes (Prime number) = 20
20 10
P(Preeti gets marks) =
=
82 41
∴ Option (c) is correct.

192 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 (iv) Favourable outcomes (Odd number) = 41
41 1
P(Karan gets marks) =
=
82 2
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(v) Favourable outcomes be two digit number = 81

P(a two digit number) will have greatest value.
∴ Option (d) is correct.

8. (i) Total possible outcomes = 52 – 12 = 40
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(ii) Number of favourable outcomes = 20
20 1
P(red card) =
=
40 2
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iii) Number of black queen in the shuffled cards = 0
P(black queen) = 0
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(iv) Number of black cards and ace = 20 + 2 = 22

` Number of favourable outcomes = 40 – 22 = 18
18 9
P(neither a black card nor an ace) = =
40 20
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(v) Number of favourable outcomes for ‘a club card or a 4’
= 10 + 3 = 13
∴ Option (a) is correct.

9. (i) Total possible outcomes = 36
∴ Option (c) is correct.

(ii) Favourable outcomes (doublet) = 6 that are {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)}
6 1
P(winning) = =
36 6
∴ Option (b) is correct.

(iii) Favourable outcomes are {(1, 1), ... (1, 6), (2, 1), ... (2, 6), (3, 1), ... (3, 5), (4, 1), ... (4, 4),
(5, 1), ... (5, 3), (6, 1), (6, 2)}
Number of favourable outcomes = 26
26 13
P(Second friend winning) =
=
36 18
∴ Option (a) is correct.

(iv) Let E be the event ‘6 will come atleast once’
Then outcomes favourable to E = {(1, 6), (2, 6), (3, 6), (4, 6), (5, 6) (6, 1), .... (6, 6)}
11
P ( E) = = P (First Friend losing)
36
∴ Option (c) is correct.

Probability 193
 (v) Outcomes favourable to ‘Sum is an even number’
= {(1, 1), (1, 3), (1, 5), (2, 2), (2, 4), (2, 6) ....}
18 1
P(Sum is an even number) =
=
36 2
1 1
P(Second friend losing) = 1 –
=
2 2
∴ Option (c) is correct.

SOLUTIONS OF ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS

1. We have, P(E) = 0.4, where E = event of winning

∴ P(not E) = 1 – P(E) = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
Hence, option (a) is correct.
2. Probability of getting no tail when two coins tossed simultaneously i.e., both are head.
1 1 1
∴ Probability of both head =
× =
2 2 4
Hence, option (a) is correct.
3. Total possible outcomes = 15 ⇒ n(S) = 15
Total favourable numbers are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14.
E = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14}
n(E) = 7
7
∴ Probability of drawing an even number =

15
Hence, option (d) is correct.
4. When two dice are tossed. Total possible outcomes = 36 ⇒ n(S) = 36 and total favourable
outcomes (doublet) = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)}
⇒   
n(E) = 6
6 1
∴ Probability =
= and, we know that 0 # P (E) # 1 .
36 6
Hence, option (c) is correct.
zzz

194 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 1
MATHEMATICS
BLUE PRINTS

PRACTICE PAPERS

OMR SHEETS
 Blue Print – 01
(FOR PRACTICE PAPER–1)
Multiple Case-Based Assertion-
Choice Questions Reason
Units Chapters Total
Questions (1 Mark) Questions
(1 Mark) (1 Mark)

I. Number Systems Real Numbers 5(5) – 1(1) 6(6)

Polynomials 1(1) 4(4)

II. Algebra Pair of Linear Equations 10(10)
5(5)
in Two Variables
III. C
 oordinate
Coordinate Geometry 2(2) 4(4) 6(6)
Geometry
IV. Geometry Triangles 2(2) 4(4) 6(6)
Introduction to
V. Trigonometry 4(4) – 1(1) 5(5)
Trigonometry
VI. Mensuration Areas Related to Circles 4(4) – 4(4)
VII. Statistics and
Probability 3(3) – 3(3)
Probability
Total 26(26) 12(12) 2(2) 40(40)

Blue Print – 02
(FOR PRACTICE PAPER–2)
Multiple Case-Based Assertion-
Choice Questions Reason
Units Chapters Total
Questions (1 Mark) Questions
(1 Mark) (1 Mark)

I. Number Systems Real Numbers 2(2) 4(4) – 6(6)

Polynomials 5(5) – –
II. Algebra Pair of Linear Equations 10(10)
4(4) – 1(1)
in Two Variables
III. C
 oordinate
Coordinate Geometry 5(5) – 1(1) 6(6)
Geometry
IV. Geometry Triangles 2(2) 4(4) – 6(6)
Introduction to
V. Trigonometry 5(5) – – 5(5)
Trigonometry
VI. Mensuration Areas Related to Circles – 4(4) – 4(4)
VII. Statistics and
Probability 3(3) – – 3(3)
Probability
Total 26(26) 12(12) 2(2) 40(40)

Blue Prints 197

 Blue Print – 03
(FOR PRACTICE PAPER–3)
Multiple Case-Based Assertion-
Choice Questions Reason
Units Chapters Questions (1 Mark) Questions Total
(1 Mark) (1 Mark)

I. Number Systems Real Numbers 6(6) – – 6(6)

Polynomials 4(4) – 1(1)

II. Algebra Pair of Linear Equations 10(10)
1(1) 4(4) –
in Two Variables

III. C
 oordinate
Coordinate Geometry 2(2) 4(4) – 6(6)
Geometry

IV. Geometry Triangles 5(5) – 1(1) 6(6)

Introduction to
V. Trigonometry 5(5) – – 5(5)
Trigonometry
VI. Mensuration Areas Related to Circles – 4(4) – 4(4)
VII. Statistics and
Probability 3(3) – – 3(3)
Probability

Total 26(26) 12(12) 2(2) 40(40)

Note: 1. Number of question(s) is/are given in the brackets.

  2. C
 ase-Based Questions contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
3. The given Blue Prints are only a sample. Suitable internal variations may be made for generating
similar Blue Prints keeping the overall weightage to different form of questions and typology of
questions same.

198 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 1 PRACTICE PAPER

BASED ON BLUE PRINT-01

Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 40

General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) There are 40 questions in all.
(iii) This question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), Case-Based MCQs and Assertion-
Reason MCQs.
(iv) Only one of the options in every question is correct.
(v) An OMR sheet of every practice paper is given. The candidate has to give his/her answer of the
question by darkening the circle against that question.

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.

1. The product of three consecutive integers is divisible by
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) none of these
2. The largest number which divides 615 and 963 leaving remainder 6 in each case is
(a) 82 (b) 95 (c) 87 (d) 93
46
3. The decimal expansion of number 2 is
2 ×5×3
(a) terminating (b) non-terminating repeating
(c) non-terminating non-repeating (d) none of these
4. If two positive integers a and b are written as a = x4 y2 and , b = x2 y3; x, y are prime numbers,
then HCF (a, b) is
(a) x4 y3 (b) xy (c) x2 y3 (d) x2 y2
5. If the LCM of p and 18 is 36 and the HCF of p and 18 is 2 then p =
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
6. If the product of zeroes of the polynomial x2 – 9x + a is 8, then its zeroes are
(a) –1, –8 (b) 1, –8 (c) –1, 8 (d) 1, 8
7. The value of k for which the system of equations 2x + ky = 12, x + 3y – 4 = 0 are inconsistent is
21 1 4
(a) (b) (c) 6 (d)
4 6 21
8. One equation of a pair of dependent linear equations is – 5x +7y = 2. The second equation can be
(a) 10x + 14y + 4 = 0 (b) –10x – 14y + 4 = 0
(c) –10x + 14y + 4 = 0 (d) 10x – 14y = – 4

Practice Papers 199

 9. A pair of linear equation is consistent if their graph lines will be
(a) intersecting or parallel (b) intersecting or coincident
(c) coincident or parallel (d) can’t say
10. The value of k for which the system of equations 2x + 3y = 5 and 4x + ky = 10 has infinitely
many solutions is
(a) k = – 3 (b) k ! – 3
(c) k = 0 (d) none of these
11. The graph of the equation x – y = 0 is
(a) parallel to x-axis (b) parallel to y-axis
(c) passing through origin (d) none of them
12. The perimeter of triangle formed by the points (0, 0), (2, 0) and (0, 2) is
(a) 4 units (b) 6 units
(c) 6 2 units (d) 4 + 2 2 units
13. The distance of the point P (5, –1) from the y-axis is
(a) 5 units (b) 2 units
(c) 3 units (d) 7 units
14. If a perpendicular is drawn from the vertex of the right angle of a right triangle to the
hypotenuse then triangle on both sides of the perpendicular is similar to
(a) whole triangle (b) each other
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of them
15. O is any point inside a rectangle ABCD. Then OB2 + OD2 is equal to
(a) OA2 + OC2 (b) BA2 + OB2
(c) OB2 + OC2 (d) none of them
16. If sin θ – cos θ = 0, then the value of (sin4 θ + cos4 θ) is:
3 1 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
4 2 4
tan i tan i
17. + is equal to
sec i – 1 sec i + 1
(a) 2 tan θ (b) 2 sec θ

(c) 2 cosec θ
(d) 2 tan θ sec θ
2 2
18. 9 sec A – 9 tan A is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 0
1 + sin i
19. is equal to
1 – sin i
(a) sec θ + tan θ (b) sec θ – tan θ
2 2
(c) sec θ + tan θ (d) (sec2 θ – tan2 θ)
20. The ratio of area of two circles whose ratio of circumference is 3:1 will be
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 9 (d) 9 : 1

200 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 21. The area of a circle is 49p cm2. Its circumference is
(a) 7p cm (b) 14p cm (c) 21p cm (d) 28p cm
22. An arc of a circle is of length 5π cm and the sector it bounds has an area of 20π cm2. The
radius of circle is
(a) 1 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 10 cm
23. A wire can be bent in the form of a circle of radius 35 cm. If it is bent in the form of a square,
then its area will be
3025
(a) 3025 cm2 (b) cm2 (c) 1225 cm2 (d) 2450 cm2
2

24. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?
1 1
(a) (b) 0 (c) – (d) 0.8
4 2
25. The probability expressed as a percentage of a particular occurrence can never be
(a) less than 100 (b) less than 0
(c) greater than 1 (d) anything but a whole number
26. When a die is thrown once, the probability of getting an odd number less than 3 is
1 1 1
(a) .(b) (c) (d) 0
6 3 2

Case-based Question–1 :

A piece of ribbon is lying on the table as shown in the figure.

27. What type of polynomial is represented by the given curve?

(a) linear (b) cubic (c) quadratic (d) None of these
28. How many zeroes does it have?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
3 2
29. If ax + bx + cx + d is a cubic polynomial, tshen sum of its zeros taken two at a time is
–b –c c b
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a a a a

30. If one of the zeroes of cubic polynomial x 3 + ax2 + bx + c is –1, then product of other two
zeroes is
(a) a – b – 1 (b) a – b + 1 (c) b – a + 1 (d) b – a – 1

Practice Papers 201

 Case-based Question–2 :
An officer explains his army men the route they need to follow to reach their target.
Y

I
H

D E

F
B
C

A
Scale : 1 Square = 1 unit
O X

31. The distance of the point B from the x-axis is

(a) 2 units (b) 5 units (c) 1 unit (d) 4 units
32. The coordinates of the points D and E are respectively
(a) (8, 7), (8, 10) (b) (7, 8), (10, 8) (c) (8, 10), (8, 7) (d) (10, 8), (7, 8)
33. The coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points
F(12, 7) and G(15, 11) in the ratio 1 : 2 internally, are
(a) (13, 8.3) (b) (8.3, 13) (c) (14, 9.6) (d) (9.6, 14)
34. A point (x, y) is equidistant from the points B and C. Then
(a) 2y – 7 = 0 (b) y – x = 0 (c) 2x – 7 = 0 (d) x + y = 0

Case-based Question–3 :
There is a 40 m long boundary in the middle of a playground. In order to perform a marching
activity, another boundary was drawn from the middle of the previous boundary as shown in the figure,
15 m each on both the sides. Then the four corners were joined.

15 m 15 m

35. What special name can be given to the four sided figure?
(a) Rectangle (b) Rhombus (c) Square (d) Trapezium

202 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 36. What property can be used to justify the name of the figure?
(a) Diagonals of a square are equal and bisect each other.
(b) Diagonals of a rectangle are equal.
(c) Diagonals of a rhombus are perpendicular bisector of each other.
(d) One pair of opposite sides of a trapezium is parallel.
37. The theorem that can be used to find the length of each side of the figure is
(a) Pythagoras Theorem (b) Thales Theorem
(c) Converse of Pythagoras Theorem (d) Converse of Thales Theorem
38. The perimeter of the four sided figure formed is
(a) 20 m (b) 40 m (c) 60 m (d) 100 m

Assertion-Reason Questions:
For question numbers 39 to 40, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

39. Assertion (A) : The exponent of 3 in the prime factorisation of 2520 is 2.

Reason (R) : If n is an odd natural number greater then 1, then n is an irrational number.

4
40. Assertion (A) : The value of sin θ =
3
is not possible.

Reason (R) : Hypotenuse is the largest side in any right angled triangle.
zzz

Practice Papers 203

 PRACTICE PAPER 2
BASED ON BLUE PRINT-02
Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 40

General Instructions: Same as Practice Paper - 1.

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.

1. If (–1)n + (–1)4n = 0, then n is
(a) any negative integer (b) any even natural number
(c) any positive integer (d) any odd natural number
2. The largest number which divides 77 and 85 leaving remainder 7 and 5 respectively, is
(a) 25 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 8
1 1
3. If a, b are the zeroes of the polynomial x2 – px + q, then 2 + 2 is equal to
a b
p 2 – 2q p 2 – 2q p 2 + 2q p 2 + 2q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
p2 q2 q2 p2
4. If zeroes of polynomial x2 + ax – b be reciprocal of each other, then b is equal to
1
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) a (d) a
5. If zeroes of the polynomial x2 + ax – b are equal and opposite, then a is equal to
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) b (d) 0
6. If the product of two zeroes of the polynomial 3x3 + 5x2 – 7x – 27 be 3, then third zero is
1
(a) 9 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d)
3
7. The quadratic polynomial p(x) with –24 and 4 as a product and one of the zeroes respectively is
(a) x2 + 2x – 24 (b) x2 – 2x + 24 (c) x2 – 2x – 24 (d) x2 – 6x – 24
8. Five years ago, A was thrice as old as B and ten years later, A shall be twice as old as B. What
is the present age of A?
(a) 20 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 40
9. The value of k for which the lines (k + 1)x + 3ky + 15 = 0 and 5x + ky + 5 = 0 are coincident is
(a) 14 (b) 2 (c) –14 (d) –2
10. Sum of two numbers is 50 and their difference is 10, then the numbers are
(a) 30 and 20 (b) 10 and 40 (c) 12 and 38 (d) None of these
11. Graphically, the pair of equations 6x – 3y + 10 = 0; 2x – y + 9 = 0 represents two lines which are
(a) intersecting at exactly one point (b) intersecting at exactly two points
(c) coincident (d) parallel

204 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 12. The distance of the point (–8, –7) from y-axis is
(a) 5 units (b) 1 units (c) 8 units (d) 7 units
13. The point which lies on the perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining the points
A (–2, –5) and B (2, 5) is
(a) (0, 0) (b) (0, 2) (c) (2, 0) (d) (–2, 0)
14. The value of y for which the distance between the points A(3, –1) and B(11, y) is 10 units, is
(are)
(a) 5 (b) –5, 7 (c) 5, – 7 (d) 5, 7
15. The ratio in which the line 2x + y – 4 = 0 divides the line segment joining A(2, –2) and
B(3, 7) is
(a) 5 : 2 (b) 2 : 9 (c) 7 : 2 (d) 2 : 7
16. AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are vertices A(0, 3), O(0, 0) and B(5, 0). The length of
its diagonal is
(a) 5 units (b) 3 units (c) 34 units (d) 4 units

17. The perpendicular from A on side BC of a triangle ABC of intersects BC at D such that
DB = 3CD then 2AC2 + BC2 is equal to
(a) AB2 (b) 3AB2 (c) 2AB2 (d) 4AB2
18. Two similar triangles are congruent only when
(a) their perimeters are equal (b) their areas are equal
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of them

19. (cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ) is equal to

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) none of these
20. If a cos θ – b sin θ = c, then a sin θ + b cos θ is equal to
1
(a) ! a2 + b2 + c2 (b) ! a2 + b2 – c2 (c) ! c2 – a2 – b2 (d)
3
x2 y2
21. If x = a sec θ cos φ, y = b sec θ sin φ and z = c tan θ, then 2 +
a b2
2 2 2
z z z z2
(a) 2 (b) 1 – 2 (c) 2 – 1 (d) 1 + 2
c c c c
22. If 60° + A = 90°, then the value of cosec A is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) d
1
23. If 2x = sec θ and x = tan i , then the value of 2 d x – 2 n is
2 2
x
1 1
(a) 4 (b) (c) 2 (d)
4 2
24. A die is thrown once, the probability of getting a prime number is
2 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 2 6
25. The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 is 0.035. The number of bad eggs in the
lot is
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 28

Practice Papers 205

 26. The probability that a number selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3 ... 15 is a multiple
of 4 is
4 2 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15 15 5 3

Case-based Question–1 :
A seminar is being conducted by an Educational Organisation, where the participants will be
educators of different subjects. The number of participants in Hindi, English and Mathematics are 60,
84 and 108 respectively.

27. In each room the same number of participants are to be seated and all of them being in the
same subject, hence maximum number of participants that can accommodated in each room
are
(a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 18
28. What is the minimum number of rooms required during the event?
(a) 11 (b) 31 (c) 41 (d) 21
29. The LCM of 60, 84 and 108 is
(a) 3780 (b) 3680 (c) 4780 (d) 4680
30. The product of HCF and LCM of 60,84 and 108 is
(a) 55360 (b) 35360 (c) 45500 (d) 45360

Case-based Question–2 :
A farmer has a field in the shape of a trapezium, whose map with scale 1 cm = 20 m, is given below.
The field is divided into four parts by joining the opposite vertices.

A 5 cm B

D 10 cm C

31. The two triangular regions AOB and COD are

(a) similar by AA criteria (b) similar by SAS criteria
(c) similar by RHS criteria (d) not similar
32. The ratio of the areas of ∆AOB and ∆COD is
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1

206 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 33. If the ratio of the perimeters of ∆AOB and ∆COD would have been 1 : 4, then which of the
following would be true?
(a) AB = 2 CD (b) AB = 4 CD (c) CD = 2 AB (d) CD = 4 AB
PQ PR QR
34. If in triangles PQR and XYZ, = = , then
XZ YX YZ
(a) TPQR + DXYZ (b) TPRQ + TXZY (c) TPQR + TXZY (d) TQRP + TYXZ

Case-based Question–3 :
A circular race - track was formed in the playground of a school for the sports day.

35. If the circumference of the outer circle is 220 m. Its diameter is equal to
(a) 42 m (b) 35 m (c) 21 m (d) 70 m
36. The width of the track is 3.5 m, then the radius of the inner circle is
(a) 66.5 m (b) 63 m (c) 31.5 m (d) 35 m
37. The area covered in the track is equal to
(a) 731.5 m2 (b) 1155 m2 (c) 2926 m2 (d) 1463 m2
38. The circumference of the inner circle is given by
63r
(a) 63π m (b) 70 π m (c) m (d) 31.5π m
2
Assertion-Reason Questions:
For question numbers 39 to 40, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
39. Assertion (A) : The lines 2x – 5y = 7 and 6x – 15y = 8 are parallel lines.
Reason (R) : The system of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 have
a1 b1 c1
infinitely many solutions if a = = c .
2 b 2 2

40. Assertion (A) : If the distance between (x, 3) and (4, 5) is 5 , then x = 3 or 5.
Reason (R) : The third vertex of a triangle, if two of its vertices are at (–3, 1) and (0, –2) and
the centroid is at (0, 0) is (3, 1).
zzz

Practice Papers 207

 PRACTICE PAPER 3
BASED ON BLUE PRINT-03
Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 40

General Instructions: Same as Practice Paper - 1.

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.

6
1. The decimal representation of will terminate after how many places of decimal?
1250
(a) three (b) four (c) two (d) one
2. The LCM of two numbers is 1200. Which of the following cannot be their HCF ?
(a) 600 (b) 500 (c) 400 (d) 200
n n
3. If n is any natural number then 6 – 5 always ends with
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
4. Which of these rational number is a terminating decimal?
7 13 8 16
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18 21 200 225

5. The HCF and the LCM of 12, 21, 15 respectively are

(a) 3,140 (b) 12,420 (c) 3,420 (d) 420, 3
6.
LCM (x, 18) = 36 and HCF (x, 18) = 2 then x is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
7. Seven times a two digit number is equal to four times the number obtained by reversing the
order of its digit. If the difference between the digits is 3, then the number is
(a) 36 (b) 33 (c) 66 (d) None of them
The degree of polynomial (x – 1)(x4 + x3 + x­2 + 1) is
8.
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 2
9. If x + 2 is a factor of x2 + ax + 2ab­ and a + b = 4 then
(a) a = 5, b = –1 (b) a = –1, b = 5 (c) a = 3, b = 1 (d) a = 1, b = 3
1 1 1
10. If a, b, c are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d­ then a + + c is equal to
b
(a) –c/d (b) –c/a (c) –b/d (d) c/d
11. If 2 is zero of polynomials p(x) = ax2 – 3(a – 1)x – 2 then value of a is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) –1 (d) –2
12. The distance between the points A (0, 7) and B (0, –3) is
(a) 4 units (b) 10 units (c) 7 units (d) 3 units

208 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 13. The line segment joining points (– 3, – 4) and (1, – 2) is divided by y-axis in the ratio
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) none of these
14. If AD and PM are medians of triangles ABC and PQR respectively where DABC ~ DPQR then
AB
is equal to
PQ
BC AC AD
(a) (b) (c) (d) all of them
QR PR PM

15. D is point on the side BC of a triangle ABC such that +ADC = +BAC then CA2 equals
(a) AB.BC
(b) AB.CD
(c) CB.CD
(d) none of them
16. In the given figure DE ; ; BC. If AD = x, BD = x – 2, AE = x+2 and EC = x – 1 the value of x is
C
1
x–

E
2
x+

A x D x– 2 B

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32

17. Two polygons of the same number of sides are similar, if their corresponding angles are
_________ and their corresponding sides are _____________.
(a) equal, proportional (b) equal, equal
(c) proportional, equal (d) none of them

18. A girl of height 90 cm is walking away from the base of lamp post at a speed of 1.2 m/s. If the
lamp is 3.6 m above the ground then the length of her shadow after 4 seconds is
(a) 1.2 m (b) 1.6 m (c) 2 m (d) none of them
2 2
19. If 8 tan x = 15, then the value of sin x – cos x is
161 289 161 64
(a) (b) (c) (d)
289 161 64 225
sin i + cos i
20. If 4 cot θ = 3, then the value of is
sin i – cos i
1 1
(a) (b) 7 (c) –7 (d) –
7 7
21. If x = a cos θ and y = b sin θ, then the value of b2x2 + a2y2 is
a2
(a) (b) a2b2 (c) a2 + b2 (d) ab2
b2
22. If 3 tan θ = 3 sin θ, then the value of sin2θ – cos2θ is
1 2 3
(a) (b) 3 (c) (d)
3 3 2

Practice Papers 209

 4 sin i – cot i
23. If sin θ = , then the value of is
5 2 sin i
1 1
(a) 32 (b) (c) 23 (d)
32 23
24. A coin is tossed 1000 times and 640 times a ‘head’ occurs. The empirical probability of
occurrence of a head in this case is
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.64 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.064
25. A bag contains three green marbles, four blue marbles and two orange marbles. If a marble is
picked at random, then the probability that it is not an orange marble is
7 2 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
9 9 9
26. If a number x is chosen from the numbers 1, 2, 3 and a number y is selected from the numbers
1, 4, 9. Then P(xy < 9) is
3 4 1 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 9 9 9
Case-based Question–1 :
Two roads cross each other, these two roads represent the pair of linear equations.
Let the pair of linear equations be represented by the roads is given by x = 4 and y = 3.

4
y=3
3
2
1

X′ X
0 1 2 3 x=4
Y′

27. Point of intersection of the pair of linear equations x = 4 and y = 3 is

(a) (4, 0) (b) (3, 4) (c) (4, 3) (d) (3, 3)
28. If the system of linear equations x + 3y – 4 = 0 and 2x + 6y – 7 = 0 represent the two roads
respectively then the roads are
(a) parallel (b) intersecting
(c) coincident (d) can’t say
29. The value of k for which the system of linear equations 2x + 3y – 5 = 0 and 6x + ky – 15 = 0
has infinitely many solutions.
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) –3
30. The line y = 3 intersects y–axis at the point
(a) (–3, 0) (b) (3, 0) (c) (0, 3) (d) (0, –3)
Case-based Question–2 :
Chintu made a drawing with the help of grid formed by mutually perpendicular lines drawn
horizontally and vertically.

210 Mathematics–X: Term–1

 J
H
G
I
F

B C
P Q
A

D E
O

31. If O is the origin, then the distance of point B from x axis is

(a) 8 units (b) 6 units (c) 3 units (d) 2 units
32. The coordinates (5, 11) represent the point
(a) G (b) I (c) F (d) B
33. The distance AD is
(a) 9 units (b) 29 units (c) 5 units (d) 27 units
34. The point Q divides the line segment BC in the ratio
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 3

Case-based Question–3 :
A group of friends ordered two pizzas for them. One of them was divided into four equal parts while
the other in six equal parts. The pizzas were served in pans, exactly the size of pizza, having diameter
of 35 cm each.

35. The area of the pan covered by one part of pizza I is

(a) 962.5 cm2 (b) 240.625 cm2 (c) 481.25 cm2 (d) 120.32 cm2
36. The area of the pan covered by each part of pizza II is
(a) 160.42 cm2 (b) 240.625 cm2 (c) 962.5 cm2 (d) 481.25 cm2
37. The circumference of the pan is
(a) 440 cm (b) 3850 cm (c) 220 cm (d) 110 cm
38. The ratio of area of two circles when ratio of circumference is 3 : 1 will be
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 1 : 9 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 3

Practice Papers 211

 Assertion-Reason Questions:
For question numbers 39 to 40, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1 1
39.
Assertion (A) : The sum and product of the zeros of a quadratic polynomial are – and
4 4
respectively. Then the quadratic polynomial is 4x2 + x + 1.
Reason (R) : 
The quadratic polynomial whose sum and product of zeros are given is
x2 – (sum of zeros). x + product of zeros.
40. Assertion (A) : Two similar triangles are always congruent.
Reason (R) : If the areas of two similar triangles are equal then the triangles are congruent.
zzz

Answers of Practice Paper–1

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (d)
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c)
37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (a)

Answers of Practice Paper–2

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (c)
37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)

Answers of Practice Paper–3

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a)
37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d)
zzz

212 Mathematics–X: Term–1