100.

A _____normally connects LANs and WANs in the internet and has a table that is used for making
decisions about the route.
a. repeater
b. bridge
c. router
d. none of the above

99. In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer.
a. node – to – node delivery
b. process to process message delivery
c. synchronization
d. updating and maintenance of routing tables

98. The internet model consist of _____ layers

a. three b. five c. seven d. eight

97. A ___ is a data communication system within a building, plant or campus or between nearby
buildings
a. MAN B. LAN c. WAN d. none of the above

96. Mail services are available to network users through the _____ layer.
a. data link
b. physical
c. transport
d. application

95. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______ transmission.

a. simplex b. half duplex c. full duplex d. automatic

94. A type of digital encoding technique used to detect collision in CSMA/CD

a. UPRZ b. BPRZ c. UPNRZ d. Manchester

93. In local area network, the following topology or topologies are seldom used
a. star b. ring c. bus d. a and b

92. The RS – 232 interface

a. interconnects data sets and transmission circuits
b. uses several different connectors
c. permits custom wiring of signal lines to the connector pins as desired
d. all of the above

91. Class of orthogonal spreading coded used in CDMA communication

a. color code b. walsh code c. PCS code d. CDMA
61. calculate the time required to dial the number 932-51-74 using pulse dialing with 0.300 seconds
inter digit time
a. 4.8s b. 4.5s c. 4.9s d. 4.1s

62. Counterpoise are generally used for ______

a. loop antenna
b. Marconi antenna
c. rhombic antenna
d. satellite dish

63. An Ethernet bus is 200 meters long, uses a coaxial cable (velocity factor is 0.625) and a
communication speed of 10 Mbps. Determine the total number of bits that would be sent by each
station before it detects a collision, if both stations begin to transmit at the same time.
a. 5bits b. 13bits c. 11 bits d. 25 bits

64. A radio communication repeater antenna has an ERP of 796W, a 5db feedline loss, 6db duplexer and
circulator loss, and a 10 db antenna gain. Calculate the transmitted power of its transmitter.
a. 89.4W b. 394W c. 794W d. 1kW

65. What is the measured field intensity received in the antenna site of a broadcast antenna if the
voltage induced in the antenna is 2.7 volts and the effective height is 180 m?
a. 15 mV/m b. 27 mV/m c. 30 mV/m d. 41 mV/m

66. What is the characteristics impedance of a basic parallel wireline, if its diameter is 0.023 inches with
spacing of 0.4 inches apart, if it uses a dielectric material made of continuous polyvinyl chloride? E r = 3.3
a. 128.7 ohms b. 99 ohms c. 234ohms d.188 ohms

67. Crosstalk telephony , refers to unwanted coupling between signal paths and contribute to noise in
the telephone receiver. Calculate the crosstalk coupling loss in dbx (one unit of crosstalk in db above
reference coupling) if the crosstalk coupling is 20 bdx.
a. 60 b. 70 c.80 d. 90

68. What is the actual length in feet of a one half wavelength of a coax with the velocity factor of 0.57 at
25MHz?
a. 42.17 b. 44.87 c. 41.12 d. 43.25

69. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of 1.54 and is clad with another glass with
refractive index of 1.50. Launching takes place from air. Calculate the numerical aperture of the fiber.
a. 0.352 b. 0.00352 c. 0.0352 d. 3.52

70. An optical fiber and its cladding have refractive indexes of 1.55 and 1.32 respectively. Determine the
acceptance angle.
a. 52.38 degrees b. 54.34 degrees c. 51.37 degrees d. 55.68 degrees
1. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical program will
A. be complex and contain fundamental and harmonic frequencies *
B. contain harmonic frequencies
C. be complex
D. contain fundamental frequencies
2. Find two different continuous-time signals that will produce the sequence x(n) = cos (0.15nπ) when
sampled with the sampling frequency 8KHz
a. sine(1200πt) and cos (17200πt)
b. cos(1200πt) and sine (17200πt)
c. cos(1200πt) and cos (17200πt)
d. sine(1200πt) and sine (17200πt)

3. Determine the convolution sum of two sequence x(n) = (3, 2, 1, 2) and h(n) = (1, 2, 1, 2)
a. y(n) = (3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 4, 4)
b. y(n) = (3, 8, 3, 12, 9, 4, 4)
c. y(n) = (3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 1, 4)
d. y(n) = (3, 8, 8, 1, 9, 4, 4)

4. Which is the exact formula for sampling theorem:

a. fm<fs b. fs>fm c. fs>=2fm d. fs<=2fm

5. The fourier transform of a signal h(t) is H(jw) = (2cosw)(sin2w) / w. The value of h(0) is
a. ¼ b. ambot c. 1 d. 2

6. When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total power increase by what percentage over that on the
carrier alone?
a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%

7. ___________ is a frequency change process, whereby the phase deviation and frequency deviation
are multiplied by some fixed constant
a. translation b. multiplication c. division d. addition

8. A device which is capable of causing frequency translation.

a. high q tank circuit b. balanced modulator c. low q tank circuit d. IF strip

9. What is the NF for a system having an input S/N of 45db and an output S/N of 30db?
a. 15 b. 1.5 c. 1.76 d. 10

10. Burst noise are also called _____

a. pop corn noise b. static noise c. partition noise d. avalanche
11. Calculate the angle of declination for an antenna using a polar mount at a latitude of 35 degrees
a. 5.64 degrees b. 6.81 degrees c. 9.81 degrees d. 12 degress

12. A satellite receiver operating at 2GHz critical frequency is installed such that it would create an
elevation of 30 degrees. What be its MUF if it would be converted to receive ionosphere return?
a. 2GHz b. 2.3 GHz c. 3GHz d. 4GHz

13. What do you call the refracting and reflecting action of the ionosphere and ground?
a. jumping b. flying c. hopping d. skipping

14. In radio communication system, the purpose of AFC in an FM receiver is _______

a. to provide selectivity
b. to establish the gain
c. to increase the sensitivity
d. to help maintain the steady local oscillator frequency

15. A phase lock loop has a VCO with a free running frequency of 10 MHz. As the frequency of the
reference input is gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 8MHz and comes out of lock again when
the frequency is reduced to 4MHz. Determine the lock range.
a. 12MHz b. 8MHZ c. 4MHZ d. 6MHz

16. The oscillator of a CB transmitter is guaranteed accurate to plus or minus 0.005 percent. Calculate
the maximum frequency at which it could actually transmit if it is set to transmit on channel 18, with a
nominal carrier frequency of 27.175 MHz.
a. 27.2180 MHz b. 27. 1764MHz c. 27. 2064 MHz d. 27.1736MHz

17. In CMTS, a man inside his car is operating his cellphone and uses frequency 825MHz. If he is
travelling at a speed of 80 km/hr, what is the time between signal fades?
a. 7.27 ms b. 9.81 ms c. 8.19 ms d. 7.92 ms

18. Calculate the peak envelope power of a single sideband (SSB) transmitter that produce a peak-to-
peak voltage of 260 volts across a 100 ohms antenna load.
a. 144W b. 120W c. 172W d. 169W

19. Determine the shot noise for a diode with a forward bias of 1.35 mA over a 110 kHz bandwidth. (q =
1.6 x 10 raised to minus 19C)
a. 0.006 µArms b. 0.005 µArms c. 0.004 µArms d. 0.007 µArms

20. A frequency modulation system requires a signal-to-noise ratio of 40 db at the detector output. The
modulating frequency 2.5 kHz and the deviation is 50 kHz. Determine the required minimum S/N at the
detector input.
a. 12 db b. 25 db c. 14 db d. 83.3 db
21. A typical separation distance between satellites in a geostationary orbit is 1839.7 miles. In terms of
degree, it is equivalent to _____ degree.
a. 7 b. 6 c. 4 d. 5

22. An AM transmitter uses a high level modulation. The RF power amplifier runs from a 12 volt source
putting out a carrier power of 85 watts, with an efficiency of 85%, what load impedance is required to
order for it to deliver the rated power?
a. 0.85 ohms b. 1.44 ohms c. 1.7 ohms d. 0.72 ohms

23. The radio wavelength known as _____ falls within the medium frequency range
a. centemetric waves b. decametric waves c. hectometric waves d. myriametric waves

24. An uplink transmitter of a satellite system operates at 6 GHz with a transmitter power of 12 kW and
an antenna gain of 50 dBi. The receiver in a geostationary satellite has an antenna gain of 40 dBi. The
elevation angle to the satellite from the ground is 45 deg., calculate the received signal strength at the
satellite (height of the satellite above the equator is 365,000 km., earth radius is 6400 km).
A. 38.7 dBm C. –70.8 dBm
B. 70.89 dBm D. –38.7 dBm

25. An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency = 150 MHz; modulating frequency =
3MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40 volts and peak modulation voltage is 20 volts. Calculate the peak
voltage of the lower sideband frequency.
a. 15volts b. 10volts c. 70volts d. 20volts

26. A ship – to – ship communication system is plagued by fading. The best solution seems to be the use
of _______.
a. a more directional antenna c. a broadcast antenna
b. frequency-diversity d. space diversity

27. A filter-type SSB generator uses an ideal bandpass filter with a center frequency of 5.0 Mhz and a
bandwidth of 3.5 Khz. What frequency should be used for the carrier oscillator if the generator is to
produce a USB signal with a baseband frequency response having a lower limit of 380 Hz.
a. 4997.87 KHz. B. 4996.65 KHz c. 5001.35 KHz d. 5001.63 KHz

28. A portable radio transmitter has to operate at temperature from -5 degrees C to 35 degrees C. If its
signal derived from a crystal oscillator with temperature coefficient of 1 ppm per degree centigrade, and
it transmit at exactly 145 MHz at 20 degrees C. find the transmitting frequency at -5 degrees C.
A. 144.9964 MHz B. 144.9956 MHz C. 145.0029 MHz D. 145.00435 MHz

29. what is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise characteristics?
A. signal-to-noise C. noise factor
B. thermal agitation noise D. noise margin
30. given the audio power of 500W which will modulate an RF amplifier to 50% modulation. Find the DC
power input.
A. 1000W B. 250W C. 5000W D. 4000W

31. A province in the Philippines has an area of 2500 sq. kms. It has to be covered by a cellular mobile
telephone service using cells with a radius of 2kms. Assuming hexagonal cells. Find the number of
cellsites needed.
A. 100 B. 500 C. 181 D. 145

32. A vehicle travels through a cellular system at 100 km per hour. Approximately how often will
handoffs occur if the cell radius is 10km.
A. 12min B. 14min C. 16min D. 18min

33. Determine the channel capacity if 7 macrocells with 10 channels per cell is split into 4 minicells.
A. 120 channels per areal C. 280 channels per area
B. 360 channels per area D. 460 channels per area

34. A receiver requires 0.9 uV of the signal for satisfactory reception. How strong in microvolts must the
signal be at the signal be at the antenna if the receiver is connected to the antenna by 40m of the
matched line having an attenuation of 6 dB per 100m?
A. 1.861 uV B. 1.186 uV C. 0.954 uV D. 0.594 uV

35. the antenna and feedline combination with equivalent noise temperature if 143 K. calculate the
thermal noise power in dBm, referred to the receiver input, if the receiver input has a bandwidth of 15
MHz.
A. -100 dBm B. -150 dBm C. -101 dBm D. -105 dBm

36. which of the following is not an advantage of digital transmission?

A. noise immunity C. bandwidth utilization
B. ease of multiplexing D. ease of encryption

37. What is the quantization error of a certain digital communication system with a resolution of 75?
A. 0.1 B. 150 C. 110 D. 37.5

38. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit quantizing.
A. 11.12 dB B. 76.45 dB C. 255 dB D. 98.08 dB

39. Calculate the capacity of a telephone channel that has a S/N of 1023.
A. 40,000 bits per sec C. 12,000 bits per sec
B. 15,000 bits per sec D. 10,000 bits per sec

40. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and signal-to-noise ratio of 140. A signal is transmitted
down this line using a eight-level code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate?
A. 22.8 kbps B. 12.8 kbps C. 19.2 kbps D. 25.6 kbps
41. An asynchronous communication system uses ASCII at 9600 bits/sec, with 8 data bits, one start bit,
one start bit, one stop bit, and no parity bits. Calculate the maximum percent efficiency in this system.
A. 75% B. 80% C. 85% D. 90%

42. Determine the resolution for an 8-bit PCM for a maximum decoded voltage of 2.55 Vp.
A. 0.02V B. 0.02V C. 0.05V D. 0.07V

43. Given the pulse-spreading constant equal to 10 ns/m and the cable length equal to 100 meters,
determine the maximum bit rate in Mbps for UPRZ transmission.
A. 500 Mbps B. 1.0 Mbps C. 1000 Mbps D. 0.5 Mbps

44. The modulator transmits symbols, each of which has 128 different possible states, 15,000 times per
second. How much is the bit rate?
A. 64 Kbps B. 105 kbps C. 60 kbps D. none of the above

45. In a frequency hopping. Spread spectrum system, a ________ circuit generates the transmitter
frequency.
A. exclusive OR C. PSN code generator
B. Frequency synthesizer D. multiplexer

46. the length of time a frequency-hopping, spread spectrum transmitter stays on one frequency is
called the _______.
A. propagation time B. acquisition time C. dwell time D. storage time

47. It is the parameter equivalent to TLP except that it is used as a reference for data transmission.
A. transmission level point C. voice level point
B. data level point D. baseband transmission point

48. Technique of spread spectrum that breaks message into fixed-size blocks of data with each block
transmitted in sequence except on the different carrier frequency.
A. spread spectrum C. frequency-hopping
B. time-division multiplexing D. direct sequence

49. What is the new designation of PAM?

A. J3F B. M3E C. K3E D. L3E

50. The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is

A. excessive noise producing errors
B. slope overload
C. insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal
D. complexity of design
51. the circuit used to produce BPSK is ________.
A. field effect transistor C. amplifier
B. balanced modulator D. multiplexer

52. the key circuit used in DPSK modulator is the ________.

A. XOR B. OR C. XNOR D. AND

53. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be ________.
A. equal to the lowest frequency of a signal C. twice the bandwidth of a signal
B. equal to the highest frequency of a signal D. twice the highest frequency of a signal

54. In a _______ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of time axis, either above or below.
A. polar B. bipolar C. unipolar D. all of the above

55. if the bit rate for a 16 QAM signal is 4000 bps. What is the baud rate?
A. 300 B. 400 C. 1000 D. 1200

56. A telephone signal takes 2 quarters of a second to reach its destination. Calculate the via net loss
necessary for an acceptable amount of echo.
A. 104dB B. 10.4dB C. 100dB D. 100.4dB

57. The twists in twisted wire pairs.

A. reduced electromagnetic interference C. eliminate loading
B. occur at a 30-degree angle D. were removed due to cost

58. the characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its
A. length C. conductor spacing
B. conductor diameter D. dielectric material

59. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
A. capacitor C. series resonant circuit
B. inductor D. parallel resonant circuit

60. Herts antennas are predominantly used for frequencies above _________.
A. 2MHz B. 1MHz C. 500khz D. 100khz

81. how many codes are there in the EBCDIC coding, making it the most powerful character set.
A. 512 codes B. 32 codes C. 1024 codes D. 256 codes

82. how many hamming bits are required for a block length of 21 message bits?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5

83. what is the name of the receiver used for CDMA?

A. rake receiver B. preston receiver C. walsh receiver D. foster-seeley
84. what layer of the open systems interconnection (OSI) model handles the transmission of bits over a
communication channel?
A. physical channel B. transport layer C. data link layer D. network layer

85. In spread-spectrum frequency hopping system, a ______ circuit selects the frequency modulated by
the synthesizer.
A. frequency synthesizer C. PSN code generator
B. FSK oscillator D. frequency shifter

86. In FDM how many voice band channels are there in a jumbo group?
A. 7200 B. 3600 C. 10,800 D. 1600

87. find the frequency to which a 400Hz baseband frequency will be translated for channel 7 of a group
of FDM systems.
A. 84.4 khz B. 80 khz. C. 84 khz D. 83.6 khz

88. A direct sequence spread-spectrum system uses FSK with a chipping rate of 20 to 1. The signal-to-
noise ratio for spread signal is -5 dB (that is the signal is 5 dB weaker than the noise in the same
bandwidth). If the data is transmitted at 50kbps, what is the signal-to-noise ratio for the despread signal
at the receiver?
A. 8 dB B. 15 dB C. 16 dB D. 7 dB

89. the process of comparing one direct-sequence spread spectrum signal to another in an effort to
obtain a match is called _________.
A. synchronism B. correlation C. communication D. transmission

90. it is identified as a network architecture that relocates specific services and databases from the
switches to one or more network control and decision points.
A. intelligent network C. Switching system
B. base station system D. switching network

71. The best terrain between antennas is ______ which will prevent reflection effects on hop
a. rocky b. plain and flat c. forested d. water surface

72. Calculate the minimum bandwidth required to pass a pulse train without distortion if it rise time is
4ns.
a. 114.28 kHz b. 25 kHz c. 40 kHz d. 87.5 kHz

73. Given the pulse spreading constant equal to 10ns/m and the cable length to 100 meters determine
the maximum bit rate in Mbps for UPRZ transmission.
a. 500 Mbps b. 1.0 Mbps c. 1000 Mbps d. 0.5 Mbps
74. A transmitter and receiver operating at 7GHz are separated by 90 km. How much power (in dbm) is
delivered to the receiver if the transmitter has an output power of 5W, the transmitting antenna has a
gain of 20dbi, and the receiving antenna has a gain of 40dbi?
a. -51. 4 dbm b. -62.1dbm c. -54.1 dbm d. -26.1dbm

75. the receive GCE system in earth station performs what function?
a. Up conversion b. modulation and multiplexing
c. demodulation and demultiplexing d. down conversion

76. A source code whose average world length approaches the fundamental limit set by the entropy of a
discrete memoryless source.
a. prefix code b. source code c. entropy code d. Huffman code

77. In ______ transmission, we send bits one after another without start or stop bits or gaps. It is the
responsibility of the receiver to group the bits.
a. synchronous b. asynchronous c. isochronous d. none of the above

78. How many channels does a super group have?

a. 60 b. 600 c. 1800 d. 10800

79. What is produced by a longitudinal redundancy check (LRC)?

a. parity bit b. block check character (bcc) c. CRC d. hamming code

80. Alphabet no. 2 is commonly known as ____________________.

a. ASCII code b. Gray code c. Baudot code d. EBCDIC