ATAL SAHODAYA

CLASS – XII
MCQ QUESTION BANK
TERM - 1
 ACCOUNTANCY
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
LESSON: ACCOUNTING RATIOS
Read the following hypothetical extract of Surya Ltd. And answer the given questions on the basis of
the same:

YEAR 2021 2020 2019

AMOUNT (IN ₹) (IN ₹) (IN ₹)
Revenue from Operations 8,75,000 7,50,000 6,65,000
Creditors 90,000 60,000 55,000
Bills receivable 48,000 30,000 20,000
Bills payable 52,000 45,000 30,000
Purchases 4,20,000 3,60,000 2,75,000
Debtors 59,000 43,000 36,000

1.
Trade Receivables Turnover Ratio for the year 2021 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 7.95 times (b) 9.72 times (c) 6.11 times (d) 6.85 times
Answer : (b) 9.72 times
2.
Trade Payables Turnover Ratio for the year 2020 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 3.23 times (b) 2.91times (c) 2.11 times (d) 3.85 times
Answer : (b) 2.91times
3.
Average Collection Period for the year 2021 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 65 days (b) 52 days (c) 73 days (d) 38 days
Answer : (d) 38 days
4.
Average Payment Period for the year 2020 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 110 days (b) 125 days (c) 109 days (d) 115 days
Answer : (b) 125 days

Read the following hypothetical extract of Isko Ltd. and answer the given questions on the basis of
the same:

YEAR 2020 2019 2018

AMOUNT (IN ₹) (IN ₹) (IN ₹)
Inventory 1,00,000 2,50,000 80,000
Current Assets 1,60,000 2,10,000 1,12,000
Shareholders’ Funds 4,00,000 4,80,000 3,50,000
13% Debentures 3,00,000 3,50,000 2,60,000
Current Liabilities 1,00,000 1,35,000 80,000
Net Profit Before Tax 3,51,000 4,24,000 2,64,000
Revenue from Operations 6,00,000 6,50,000 5,00,000
Gross Profit 20% on cost 15% on cost 10% on cost

5.
Current Ratio for the year 2020 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 1.3 : 1 (b) 2.1 : 1 (c) 1.6 :1 (d) 2.8 : 1
Answer : (c) 1.6 : 1
6.
Liquid Ratio for the year 2018 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
 (a) 0.4 : 1 (b) 1.2 : 1 (c) 0.8 :1 (d) 1.8 : 1
Answer : (c) 0.4 : 1

7.
Debt-Equity Ratio for the year 2019 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 0.91 : 1 (b) 1.2 : 1 (c) 0.85 :1 (d) 0.73 : 1
Answer : (c) 0.73 : 1
8.
Interest Coverage Ratio for the year 2020 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 10 times (b) 8 times (c) 6 times (d) 9 times
Answer : (b) 10 times

From the following Balance Sheet and other information and answer the given questions on the
basis of the same:
Particulars Amount (₹)
I. EQUITY AND LIABILITIES
1. Shareholders’ funds
a) Share Capital 10,00,000
b) Reserves and Surplus 9,00,000
2. Non-Current Liabilities
Long-term borrowings 12,00,000
3. Current Liabilities
Trade Payables 5,00,000
Total 36,00,000
II. ASSETS
1. Non-Current Assets
a) Fixed Assets
Tangible Assets 18,00,000
2. Current Assets
a) Inventories 4,00,000
b) Trade receivables 9,00,000
c) Cash and Cash Equivalents 5,00,000
Total 36,00,000
Additional Information: Revenue from Operations ₹ 18,00,000
9.
Debt-Equity Ratio will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 0.63 : 1 (b) 1.20 : 1 (c) 0.81 :1 (d) 0.72 : 1
Answer : (c) 0.63 : 1
10.
Working Capital Turnover Ratio will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 1.87 times (b) 1.39 times (c) 1.25 times (d) 2 times
Answer : (b) 1.39 times
11.
Trade Receivables Turnover Ratio will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 1 times (b) 3 times (c) 0.9 times (d) 2 times
Answer : (d) 2 times

Read the following hypothetical extract of Ace Ltd. and answer the given questions on the basis of
the same:
YEAR 2020 2019
AMOUNT (IN ₹) (IN ₹)
Fixed Assets 75,00,000 60,00,000
Current Assets 40,00,000 20,00,000
Current Liabilities 27,00,000 14,00,000
12% Debentures 80,00,000 60,00,000
Net Profit before Interest, Tax and
Dividend 14,50,000 6,50,000

12.
Return on Investment for the year 2020 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 16.47 % (b) 15 % (c) 17.21 % (d) 13.1 %
Answer : (a) 16.47 %
13.
Total Assets to Debt Ratio for the year 2020 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 0.63 : 1 (b) 1.44 : 1 (c) 0.81 :1 (d) 0.72 : 1
Answer : (b) 1.44 : 1
14.
Return on Investment for the year 2019 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 11 % (b) 8.8 % (c) 9.84 % (d) 10 %
Answer : (a) 9.84 %
15.
Total Assets to Debt Ratio for the year 2019 will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 0.33 : 1 (b) 1.44 : 1 (c) 1.33 :1 (d) 0.22 : 1
Answer : (c) 1.33 : 1

From the following information answer the given questions:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Revenue from Operations 2,80,000
Cost of Revenue from Operations 1,00,000
Selling Expenses 65,000
Administrative Expenses 25,000
16.
Gross Profit Ratio will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 64.28% (b) 69.80 % (c) 58.33 % (d) 70 %
Answer : (a) 64.28 %
17.
Operating Ratio will be ________ (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 75.71 % (b) 72.80 % (c) 67.85% (d) 70 %
Answer : (c) 67.85 %
18.
If Debt-Equity Ratio is 2 : 1 and Total Assets to Debt Ratio is 2.5 : 1, what will be the Proprietary Ratio?
a) 0.2 : 1
b) 0.5 : 1
c) 1 : 1
d) 1.21 : 1
Answer : a) 0.2 : 1
19.
____________ reveals the efficiency of the business in utilisation of funds entrusted to it by shareholders,
debenture holders and long-term loans.
a) Working Capital Turnover Ratio
b) Net Profit Ratio
c) Return on Investment
d) Operating Ratio
Answer : c) Return on Investment
20.
Revenue from Operations = ₹ 2,50,000
Gross Profit Ratio = 40 %
Operating Expenses = ₹ 60,000
The Operating Profit Ratio will be _____________ (Choose the correct alternative):
a) 84 % b) 16 % c) 96 % d) 40 %
Answer : b) 16 %
 TERM -1 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
CHAPTER- ADMISSION OF A PARTNER

Q.no.1 Sun , Moon ,Star are partners in a partnership firm ,if Sky is admitted as a new partner
-
(a) Old firm is dissolved .
(b) Old partnership and Old firm is dissolved .
(c) Old Partnership is reconstituted .
(d) None of these .

Answer :- (c) Old Partnership is reconstituted .

Q.no.2 A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. They
admitted C as a new partner . A sacrificed 1 / 5 th of his share and B sacrificed 1 / 5 th from
his share in favour of C. C ‘s share in the profits of the firm will be -
(a) 5 / 25
(b) 8 / 25
(c) 6 / 25
(d) 2 / 5

Answer :- (b) 8 / 25

Q.no.3 At the time of Admission of a new partner, the Goodwill already appears in the Balance
Sheet of the firm is treated as -
(a) Debited in all partners’ Capital Accounts in new ratio .
(b) Debited in old partners ‘ Capital Accounts in old ratio .
(c) Credited in old partners’ Capital Accounts in old ratio .
(d) None of the Above .

Answer :- (b) Debited in old partners ‘Capital Accounts in old ratio .

Q.no.4 Amit and Sumit are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally .A new partner
Lalit is admitted for 20 % share and Goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs 60,000 . What is the
entry for Goodwill ,if Lalit does not bring his share of goodwill in cash .
(a) Premium for Goodwill A/c …..Dr. 15,000
To Amit’s Capital A/c 7,500
To Sumit’s Capital A/c 7,500
(b) Lalit’s Current A/c …..Dr. 15,000
To Amit ‘s Capital A/c 7,500
To Sumit’s Capital A/c 7,500

(c) Premium for Goodwill A/c …..Dr. 12,,000

To Amit’s Capital Alc 6,000
To Sumit’s Capital A/c 6,000

(d) Lalit’s Current A/c …..Dr. 12,000

To Amit ‘s Capital 6,000
To Sumit‘s Capital 6,000
Answer :-(d)Lalit’s Current A/c …..Dr. 12,000
To Amit ‘s Capital 6,000
To Sumit‘s Capital 6,000

Q.No.5 Arti & Amit Were Partners in a firm Sharing Profits & losses in the ratio of 2:1.Vipul
was admitted as a new partner for 1/5th Share in profits.Vipul acquired 2/3rd of his share from
Arti.The Share, which Vipul Acquired from Amit is _
(a) 2/15
(b) 1/15
(c) 1/9
(d) None of the above
Answers (b) 1/15
Q.No.6 X & Y are partners in a firm. Z is admitted for 1/5th Share . If there in no Partnership
Deed,the ratio in which X & Y sacrifice their share of profit in favour of new partner is _
(a) In the Ratio of capital
(b) Equally
(c) Either a or b
(d) None of the Above
Answer (b) Equally
Q.No.7 On the Admission of New partner, Increase in a Liability of the firm will be shown in _
(a) Credit Side of profit & loss appropriation A/c

(b) Debit Side of Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c

(c) Credit side of revaluation A/c

(d) Debit side of Revaluation A/c

Answer (d) Debit side of Revaluation A/c

Q.No.8 Match the following

Group A Group B
1.Unrecorded Assets i) Specific Reserve
2.Unrecorded Liabilities ii) Debited to Revaluation A/c
3.Workmen compensation Reserve iii) Old Share –New Share
4.Sacrificing Ratio iv) Credited to Revaluation A/c

(a) 1-iv , 2-ii , 3-i , 4-iii

(b) 1-ii , 2-iv , 3-i ,4-iii
(c) 1-ii , 2-i , 3-iii , 4-iv
(d)1-ii , 2-iv , 3-iv , 4-iii
Answer (a) 1-iv ,2-ii ,3-i ,4-iii

Q.No.9 In Case of Fixed Capitals,Undistributed Losses are transferred to –

(a) Debit of Partners Capital A/c
(b) Credit of Partners Capital A/c
(c) Debit of Partners Current A/c
(d) Credit of Partners Current A/c
Answer ;- (c) Debit of Partners Current A/c

Q.No.10. Hema & Seema were Partner in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:1.Their
Capitals Were Rs.4,00,000 and Rs.1,00,000/- respectively.They Admitted Dimple on 1st April
2021 for 1/5th share in future profits.Dimple Brought Rs.2,00,000/-as her capital.The Dimple’s
share of goodwill is
(a) Rs.50,000/-
(b) Rs.60,000/-
(c) Rs.1,00,000/-
(d) None of the Above
Answer :-(b) Rs.60,000
Q.no.11 In Case of Admission of a partner ,the entry for unrecorded Investment will be :-
(a) Debit Partners Capital A/c & Credit Investment A/c
(b) Debit Revaluation A/c & Credit Investment A/c
(c ) Debit Investment A/c & Credit Revaluation A/c
(d) None of the Above
Answer (c )Debit Investment A/c & Credit Revaluation A/c
Q.No.12 A, B ,C and D are Partners in a firm . A and B Share 2/3rd of profits Equally .C & D
Share remaining Profits in the Ratio of 3:2.Find the profit sharing Ratio of A ,B ,C, and D.
(a) 7:7:6:4
(b)5:5:3:2
(c)3:3:3:2
(d) 3:3:6:4
Answer (b) 5:5:3:2
Case Based Question
Ajay & Vijay were started the business of Air purifiers .Their capitals contributions were Rs.
50,00,000 and Rs.20,00,000 respectively and they decided to share the profit and loss in the
firm as 3:2 . As the demand of Air Purifiers increased ,they decided to expand their
business.They did not want to introduce additional capital .
To meet the need of further capital , they gave consent for admission of new partner ‘Sanjay’
.He was agreed to contribute capital of Rs.30,00,000 for 1/6th share and to bring sufficient
amount of Goodwill.
Goodwill was valued at 3 years’ purchase of Average profits of previous 4 years .The previous
four years profits are I- Rs. 5,00,000 ; ll – Rs. 4,00,000 ; lll – Rs. 3,00,000 : lV – Rs.4,00,000.

Based on the above information ,you are required to answer the following questions :-

Q.no.13 What is the new profit sharing ratio of Ajay , Vijay and Sanjay after Sanjay’s
admission ?
(a) 3 : 2 : 1
(b) 5 : 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 1 : 1
(d) 5 : 4 : 1

Answer :- (a) 3 : 2 : 1

Q.no.14 What is the value of Goodwill of the firm ?

(a) Rs. 3,00,000
(b) Rs. 12,00,000
(c) Rs. 13,00,000
(d) Rs. 14,00,000

Answer :- (b) Rs. 12,00,000

Q.no.15 What is the amount of Goodwill brought by Sanjay ?

(a) Rs.2,00,000
(b) Rs.3,00,000
(c) Rs. 4,00,000
(d) Rs. 5,00,000
Answer : - (a) Rs.2,00,000

Q .no.16 What will be the correct entry for withdrawal of premium for Goodwill, brought in
by Sanjay ?
(a) Ajay ‘s Capital A/c …Dr. XX
Vijay ‘s Capital A/c …Dr. XX
To Sanjay ‘s Capital A/c XX

(b) Ajay ‘s Capital A/c …Dr .XX

Vijay ‘s Capital A/c …Dr .XX
To Cash A/c XX

(c) Premium for Goodwill A/c…Dr. XX

To Ajay ‘s Capital A/c XX
To Vijay ‘s Capital A/c XX
(d) Cash A/c……Dr. XX
To Ajay ‘s Capital A/c XX
To Vijay ‘s Capital A/c XX.

Answer :- (b) Ajay ‘s Capital A/c …Dr.XX

Vijay ‘s Capital A/c …Dr.XX
To Cash A/c XX

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

Q.no.17 Assertion : In case of Admission of a partner , change in profit sharing ratio etc.The
Valued Goodwill is not shown in the books of account .
Reason : As per AS -26 , Goodwill should be recognized in the books of account only when
consideration in money or money’s worth is paid for it .

(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion .
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false .
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true .

Answer :- (a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion .

Q.no.18 Assertion : In case of Admission of Partner , Change in Profit sharing ratio etc. old
agreement is cancelled and new agreement is prepared .
Reason : Profit and Loss Adjustment A/c (Revaluation A/c ) is prepared to Revalue the assets
and Reassessment of liabilities .

(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion .
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false .
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true .

Answer :- ( b) Assertion and Reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion .

Q.no.19 Assertion : A minor can become a partner in a partnership firm .

Reason : The Indian Partnership Act ,1932 provides that minor can be admitted for the
benefits in the partnership firm .

(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion .
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false .
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true .

Answer :- (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true .

Q.no.20 Assertion : The ratio in which old partners sacrifice their share in favour of new
partner at the time of his/ her admission is known as Sacrificing Ratio .
Reason : The Sacrificing ratio is calculated by taking out difference between new share and old
share .

(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion .
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false .
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true .

Answer :-(c) Assertion is true but reason is false .

 MCQ Questions
Financial Statement of a
Co.

Q1. While preparing the Balance Sheet of a company which item is shown under the head
‘Long- term Borrowings’?
a) 6%Debentures
b) Security Premium Reserve
c) Trade Payables
d) None of the
above Ans- 1 (a) 6%Debentures
Q2. A company issued capital. A shareholder paid all money on allotment while first call is
not called by company. So you are required to show this advance in balance sheet of a
company as
a) Current Liability
b) Long-term liability
c) Current assets
d) None of the
above Ans-2 (a) Current
Liability
Q3. In a trading firm, if stock of finished goods held for a month and credit period is 2
months, then operating cycle will be for month/months?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Ans-3 (c) 3 months
Q4. . In a company’s Balance sheet Provision for Employees Benefits to be settled within 12
months
is shown under:
a) Non currentliabilities
b) Current liabilities
c) Non-currentassets
d) Current assets
Ans—4 (b)
Currentliabilities
Q5. Unclaimed dividend appears in a company’s Balance Sheet under the sub-
head_____________.
a) Short-term Borrowings
b) Trade Payables
c) Other Current Liabilities
 d) Short Term Provisions

Ans-5(c) Other Current Liabilities

Q6. Cash and cash equivalent does not include

a) Cheques
b) Balance with banks
c) Bank deposit with more than 12 months maturity
d) Inventories
Ans-6(d) Inventories

Q7. Which of the following is not a part of Finance Cost?

a) Bank charges

b) Interest paid on debentures

c) Interest paid on public deposits

d) Loss on issue of debentures

Ans-7 (a) Bank charges

Q8. ‘Loose tools’ appears in the company’s Balance Sheet under the head/sub head.
a) Inventory
b) Non-current assets
c) Other current assets
d) Stores and spares part
Ans-8(a) Inventory
Q9. If expected period of payment of trade payables is 13 months and operating cycle is 14
months, then it is a .
a) Current assets
b) Current liability
c) Non-current assets
d) Non-current liability
Ans-9(b) Current
Liability Q10. Match
thefollowing
(i) TradeMarks (a) Cash and CashEquivalents
(ii) StoresandSpares (b) Intangibleassets
(iii) Cheque inhand (c) Inventory

a) (i)-(c) (ii)-(b)(iii)-(a)

b) (i)-(c) (ii)-(a)(iii)-(b)
 c) (i)-(b) (ii)-(c)(iii)-(a)

d) (i)-(a) (ii)-(c)(iii)-(b)

Ans-10. (c) (i)-(b) (ii)-(c)(iii)-(a)

Q11. Assertion A: Profit and Loss Account and Balance sheet are financial statements
showing financial position of a business unit.
Reason (R): Profit and Loss Account and Balance Sheet are prepared at the end of the
financial year.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation ofA.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation ofA.
(c) A is true but R isfalse.
(d) A is false but R is
true. Ans-11(d)
Q12. Agony Ltd. a private limited has taken a loan from IDBI Bank which is due for
payment on 1st October 2021. In the Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2021. Answer the
questions
(1) Loan will beclassifiedas (Current Liability/Non-CurrentLiabilities)
(2) Can company postpone the liability to a later date i.e. extend the period of loan. (Yes
orNo)
(3) If the company has a liability due for settlement within 12 months of the date of
Balance sheet and it does not have the right to defer, i.e. postpone the settlement , it
is classified as (Current Liability/ Non-Current Liability)
Ans-1 Current
Liability Ans-2 No
Ans-3 Current Liability
Q13. ‘Bills discounted but not yet matured’ will be shown in the company’s Balance Sheet
under the head
a) Current Asset
b) Current Liabilities
c) Unamortized Expenditure
d) Contingent Liabilities
Ans-13 (d) Contingent Liabilities

(A) Subscribed and fuuly paid

1,00,000 Equity Shares of ₹ 100 each 10,00,000
Less: Call in Arrears 30,000 9,70,000
(B) Subscribed but not fully paid
1,00,000 Equity Shares of 100 each 10,00,000
Less: Call in Arrears 30,000 9,70,000
(C) Subscribed and fully paid
 9,000 Equity Shares of ₹ 100 each 9,00,000 Q14. A
Subscribed but not fully paid Company has
1000 Equity Shares of ₹ 100 each 1,00,000 issued 10000
Less: Call in Arrears 30,000 70,000 Equity Shares
9,70,000 of ₹ 100 each
(D) Can be shown as (B) or as (C) and it has
Ans-14 (C) called the
entire nominal value of the share. It has received the entire amount except final call of ₹ 30
per share on 1000 shares. Subscribed Capital will be shown as follows:

Q15. Change in Inventories means:

(A) Opening Inventories less ClosingInventories
(B) Closing Inventories less OpeningInventories
(C) Difference between Opening Inventories and Closing Inventories, if Opening
Inventories are higher
(D) Difference between Closing Inventories and Opening Inventories, if Closing
Inventories are higher.
Ans-15 (A)
Q16. Which of the following is not a sub-head under the Current Assets?
(A) Cash and CashEquivalents
(B) Trademarks
(C) Short-Term Loans andAdvances
(D) Inventories

Ans-16(B)
Q17. While preparing the Balance Sheet of a company ‘Underwriting Commission' is shown
under
which head?
(A) UnamortizedExpenditure
(B) CurrentAssets
(C) Non-CurrentAssets
(D) CurrentLiaibility
Ans – 17 (A)

Q18. Share Capital of a Company consists of 5,00,000 Shares of ₹ 10 each, ₹ 8 called up. All
the
shareholders have duly paid the called up amount. Share capital will be shown as :
(A) Subscribed and Fullypaid
(B) Subscribed but not Fullypaid
(C) Both A andB
(D) None of the

above Ans-18 (B)

Q19. appear in a Company’s Balance Sheet under the Sub-head Short-termProvision.

(A) Interest Accrued but not due onBorrowings
(B) Provision forTax
(C) UnpaidDividend
 (D) Calls in

Advance Ans-19(B)
Q20. Balance sheet of a company is required to be prepared in the format givenin

(A) Schedule III PartII

(B) Schedule III PartI
(C) Schedule III PartIII
(D) Table

A Ans-
20(B)
 LESSON: PARTNERSHIP

1. A and B are partners in a firm having no partnership deed. How much amount of interest
on capital will be allowed to them, if they have invested Rs. 5,00,000 and Rs. 4,00,000
respectively into the business?

(a) 6% p.a.
(b) 10% p.a.
(c) No interest on capital
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) No interest on capital
2. X is a manager in a firm, who is entitled to get a commission of 10% of the net profit
after charging such commission. The net profit of the firm before charging any
commission was Rs. 5,50,000. Calculate the amount of commission payable to X.

(a) Rs. 55,000

(b) Rs. 50,000
(c) Rs. 45,000
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Rs.50,000
3. If a partner withdraws fixed amount in the beginning of every month, how much
interest is charged on the whole amount?

(a) 6.5 months

(b) 6 months
(c) 5.5 months
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) 6.5 months
4. Ram and Sohan are partners in a firm, having no partnership deed. Sohan has given a
loan of Rs. 5,00,000 to the firm. At the end of the year, loss was incurred in the
business. How much interest will be paid to Sohan by the firm?

(a) @5% p.a.

(b) @5% p.m.
(c) @6% p.a.
(d) No interest is to be charged.
Answer: (c) @6% p.a.
5. Which of the following items are recorded in the Profit & Loss Appropriation Account
of a partnership firm?

(a) Interest on Drawings

(b) Salary to the partner
(c) Interest on Capital
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
6. According to Profit and Loss Account, the net profit for the year is Rs. 3,00,000. The
total interest on Partners’ Capital is Rs. 30,000 and partners’ salaries Rs. 20,000. The
net profit as per Profit and Loss Appropriation Account will be :

(a) Rs. 3,50,000

(b) Rs. 2,90,000
(c) Rs. 2,50,000
(d) Rs. 3,10,000
Answer: (c) Rs. 2,50,000
7. Sagrika and Niharika are partners are partners in a firm. Sagrika’s capital is Rs.
2,00,000 and Niharika’s capital is Rs. 3,00,000. Firm’s profit is Rs. 1,00,000.
Niharika’s share in profit will be:

(a) Rs. 50,000

(b) Rs. 35,000
(c) Rs. 40,000
(d) Rs. 46,000
Answer: (a) Rs. 50,000
8. Nishant and Niharika are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2.
Before profit distribution, Nishant is entitled to 4% of the net profit (after charging such
commission). Before charging commission, firm’s profit was Rs. 52,000. Niharika’s
share in profit will be ___________.

(a) Rs.2,080
(b) Rs. 25,000
(c) Rs. 20,000
(d) Rs. 26,000
Answer: (c) Rs 20,000
9. X, Y and Z are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1. Before
Y’s salary of Rs. 20,000, firm’s profit is Rs. 1,10,000. How much in total Y will receive
from the firm?

(a) Rs. 50,000

(b) Rs. 55,000
(c) Rs. 36,067
(d) Rs. 36,667
Answer: (a) Rs. 50,000
10. On 1st April, 2020, X’s capital was Rs. 3 lacs. On 1st Jan 2021, he introduces additional
capital of Rs. 2 lacs. Interest on capital at the rate of 5% p.a. on 31st March 2021 will be
–

(a) Rs. 15,000

(b) Rs. 16,250
(c) Rs. 17,500
(d) None of these
Answer – (c) Rs. 17,500
11. X and Y are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. Their
capitals are Rs. 5 lacs and Rs. 3 lacs respectively. Interest on capital is allowed at the
 rate of 7% p.a. Firm earned a profit of Rs. 80,000 for the year ended 31st March 2021.
Interest on capital will be –

(a) X – 35,000 , Y – 21,000

(b) X – 17,500 , Y – 10,500
(c) X – 25,000 , Y – 18,000
(d) No interest on capital will be allowed
Answer – (a) X – 35,000 , Y – 21,000
12. If the date of drawing of the partners is not given in the question, interest is charged for
how much time?
(a) 2 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 6 months
Answer – (d) 6 months
13. Rohan is a partner in a firm. He withdrew Rs. 5,000 per month on the last day of every
month during the year ended 31st March 2021. If interest on drawings is charged at the
rate of 8% p.a., the interest charged(in Rs) will be
(a) 2200
(b) 2400
(c) 2600
(d) 2800
Answer – (a) 2200
14. Radha is a partner in a firm. She withdrew Rs. 10,000 in the beginning of each quarter
during the year ended 31st March 2021. Interest on her drawings(in Rs.) at the rate of
9% p.a. will be –
(a) 2250
(b) 1800
(c) 1350
(d) None of these
Answer – (a) 2250
15. X, Y, Z are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1, having
capital balances of Rs. 1,00,000, Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 60,000 respectively. For the year
2021, they omitted interest on capital at the rate of 6% p.a. What will be the adjusting
journal entry?
(a) Debit X Rs. 1200, Credit Y by Rs. 1200
(b) Debit X Rs. 1200, Credit Z by Rs. 1200
(c) Debit Z Rs. 1200, Credit X by Rs. 1200
(d) No adjustment entry to be passed
Answer – (b) Debit X Rs. 1200, Credit Z by Rs. 1200
16. X, Y and Z are equal partners with fixed capitals of Rs. 5 lacs, Rs. 3 lacs and Rs. 1 lac
respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ended 31st March 2021, it was
discovered that interest on capitals was provided at the rate of 6% instead of 5% p.a. In
the adjusting entry,
(a) Debit X and Credit Z by Rs. 2000
(b) Credit X and debit Z by Rs. 2000
(c) Debit X and credit Y by Rs. 2000
(d) Credit X and debit Y by Rs. 2000
Answer – (a) Debit X and credit Z by Rs. 2000
17. When a partner is given guarantee by the other partners, loss on such guarantee will be
borne by –
(a) Partnership firm
(b) All the other partners
(c) Partners who give the guarantee
(d) Partner with highest profit sharing ratio
Answer – (c) Partners who give the guarantee
18. X, Y and Z are partners in the ratio of 2:2:1. X has given to Z a guarantee of minimum
Rs. 20,000 profit. For the year ending 31st March 2021, firm’s profit is Rs. 80,000. X’s
share in profit(in Rs.) will be –
(a) 28,000
(b) 32,000
(c) 36,000
(d) None of these
Answer – (a) 28,000
19. J, K and L are partners in 5:3:2. J is guaranteed that his share of profit will not be less
than Rs. 50,000. Any deficiency will be borne by K and L in the ratio of 3:1. Firm’s
profit was Rs. 90,000. Share of K(in Rs.) will be –
(a) 27,000
(b) 22,000
(c) 23,250
(d) 16,750
Answer – (c) 23,250
20. A and B are partners in a firm. They are entitled to interest on their capitals but the net
profit was not sufficient for this interest, then the net profit will be distributed among
partners in –
(a) Agreed ratio
(b) Profit sharing ratio
(c) Capital ratio
(d) Equally
Answer – (c) – Capital ratio
 SISSUE OF SHARES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Aladdin Co. Ltd issued 80,000 shares of Rs.10 each payable Rs.3 on Application, Rs.5 on
allotment and balance on call. Public had applied for 75,000 shares and all the calls were
made. All the money has been duly received except allotment and call money on 6,000 shares
held by Gaurav. His shares were forfeited and later on re-issued 4,000 shares @ Rs.12 per
share as fully paid up. What amount will be transferred to Capital Reserve?
A. Rs.18,000
B. Rs.12,000
C. Rs.20,000
D. Rs.6,000

2. Rahul, an applicant of 5,000 shares and who was allotted 4,000 shares paid application money
of Rs.3 per share but failed to pay allotment money of Rs.5 per share. Though he had paid
allotment arrear dues with First call of Rs.2 per share. What amount will be paid by Rahul at
the time of first call being received by company to clear his dues?
A. Rs.8,000
B. Rs.25,000
C. Rs.17,000
D. Rs.28,000

3. A company invited applications for 5,00,000 shares of Rs.10 each. What minimum amount
can be asked by the company on application per share?
A. Rs.2 per share
B. Rs.3 per share
C. Rs.0.50 per share
D. Rs.1 per share

4. Statement I :- Premium money received at the time of allotment can be forfeited.

Statement II :-In case of Over-subscription (Pro-rata allotment) Premium money received at
the time of Application can only be utilised with premium due on allotment.
A. Both statements are True
B. Only Statement I is True.
C. Both statements are False
D. Only Statement II is True.

5. Andaaz Ltd. company took over Assets of Rs.20,00,000 and Liabilities of Rs.4,50,000 from
Bebaak Ltd. and in consideration issued them 15,000, 12% Preference Shares of Rs.100 each
at 20% premium. Which of the following will hold true?
A. Capital Reserve will be created of Rs.2,50,000
B. Goodwill will be created of Rs.2,50,000
C. Capital Reserve will be created of Rs.6,50,000
D. Goodwill will be created of Rs.6,50,000

6. Z Ltd. forfeited 1,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each issued at a premium of 20% for the non-
payment of the final call of Rs. 3 per share. Calculate the maximum amount of discount at
which these shares can be reissued.
A. Maximum permissible discount is Rs.9,000
B. Maximum permissible discount is Rs.7,000
C. Maximum permissible discount is Rs.3,000
D. Shares can't be re-issued at discount
7. The company has to get minimum subscription within ___________ from the date of the issue
of the prospectus.
A. 110 days
B. 120 days
C. 130 days
D. 4 months

8. X Ltd forfeited 1,000 shares of Rs.10 each for non-payment of final call of Rs.4 each. After
the reissue of these shares Rs.1,500 were transferred to capital reserve. Shares were reissued
for Rs.____
A. Rs.4,500
B. Rs.6,000
C. Rs.5,500
D. Rs.8,500

9. Securities Premium Reserve cannot be utilised for which of the following purpose?
A. Writing off Preliminary Expenses
B. Issuing Bonus shares to convert partly paid up shares into fully paid up shares
C. Writing off discount/Loss on Issue of Debentures
D. Providing for premium payable on redemption of Debentures or Preference Shares

10. Assertion (A):- Maximum rate of Premium can be 10% of the face value.
Reason (R):- It is restricted by SEBI for maximum rate of Securities Premium at which shares
can be issued.
A. Both A and R are True and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are True but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. Both A and R are False

11. Assertion (A) :- Company may not provide for rate of Interest on calls in Arrears and Interest
on calls in advance in their Articles of Association ;
Reason (R) If Articles of Association is silent then Table F of Companies Act,2013 is
followed.
A. Both A and R are True and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are True but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is incorrect but R is correct
D. Both A and R are incorrect.

12. A Company invited applications for 2,00,000 shares of Rs.10 each issued at Rs.10 each
payable Rs.3 on application, Rs/.5 on allotment and balance whenever required. Public
applied for 2,50,000 shares. Shares were not yet allotted. How will you disclose the above
information in Balance Sheet of the company?
A. Share Application money pending allotment as Rs.7,50,000
B. Share Application money pending allotment as Rs.6,00,000 and Bank Overdraft of
Rs.1,50,000
C. Share Capital of Rs. 6,00,000 and Share Application money pending allotment of
Rs.1,50,000
D. Share Application money pending allotment as Rs.6,00,000 and Other Current
Liabilities of Rs.1,50,000

13. Eena Meena Deeka Ltd. issued 60,000 shares of Rs.10 each issued at Rs.2 premium, payable
Rs.2 on application, Rs.7 on allotment (including premium) and balance on call. Public had
applied for 80,000 shares out of which applications for 5,000 shares were rejected.
Mr.Chandermohan holding 3,000 shares failed to pay allotment money and his shares were
forfeited immediately. Out of these 2,000 shares were re-issued @Rs.6 per share as Rs.7 paid
 up. Final call was not yet made. What will be the balance of Share Forfeited account after re-
issue?
A. Nil
B. Rs.3,000
C. Rs.2,500
D. Rs.7,500

14. Azab Gazab Ltd. issued 50,000 shares of Rs.10 each issued at Rs.2 premium payable Rs.5 on
application (including premium), Rs.4 on allotment and balance on call. Public had applied
for 80,000 shares out of which applications for 10,000 shares were rejected. Mr.Mogambo
who had applied for 3,500 shares failed to pay allotment and call money and his shares were
forfeited. Out of these 2,000 shares were re-issued @Rs.8 per share as fully paid up. What
amount of Share Capital will be shown in the Balance Sheet?
A. Share Capital Rs.4,95,000
B. Share Capital Rs.5,94,000
C. Share Capital Rs.4,97,500
D. Share Capital Rs.5,01,000

Case Study
Anant and his 10 friends formed a Whatsapp group to discuss the Covid situations and
decided to help the society somehow. They thought of starting with a venture where they can
help the affected persons required medicines and oxygen cylinders at genuine prices.
They wanted to make an App for Android as well as I-Phones as that the patients or their
family members can fill their requirements quite easily.. They also need to make contacts with
some genuine medical stores of the country so that the medicines to be supplied timely at genuine
prices.
They need funds of Rs. 15,00,000 for IT work as well as working capital requirements. But
they had only Rs.2,00,000 with them. They discussed the idea with their friend Varun who was
Chartered Accountant. Varun suggested that they should start a public company and invite the
general public to finance in their project. Since the project is profitable as well as beneficial for
the masses, so good number of investors will be interested in buying the shares of such company.
For all the necessary formalities of starting a company like applying for starting a company with
Registrar of Companies as well as making important documents like Memorandum of
Association, Articles of Association and Prospectus the amount they had i.e Rs.2,00,000 was
sufficient. So these friends acted as promoters and suggested the name of company as Get Well
Soon Ltd. which was approved by Registrar. Registrar approved the required authorised capital
as filled by them in application form as Rs.50,00,000 divided in to 5,00,000 shares of Rs.10 each.
After incorporation, Get Well Soon Ltd. invited applications for 1,50,000 shares of Rs.10
each. The company also issued 10,000 shares to promoters for their services. Share was payable
as Rs.3 on application, Rs.4 on allotment and balance on call. Since the project was social and
beneficial for the society so their shares were over-subscribed and the company received
applications for 2,40,000 shares. Pro-rata allotment was made to applicants in proportion of 4:3
and remaining applications were sent letter of regret. .
Mr. Sultan holding 6,000 shares failed to pay allotment money and his shares were
immediately forfeited. After this call was made and received by the company except by Mr.
Baadshah holding 3,000 shares. Later on 4,000 shares were re-issued @Rs.12 per share as fully
paid up.

Answer the following questions on the basis of above mentioned information.

15. Amount to be refunded at the time of Application money utilised was :-

A. Rs.2,70,000
B. Rs.1,20,000
C. Rs.1,50,000
D. Nil
16. Money received at the time of allotment received was :-
A. Rs.6,00,000
B. Rs.4,50,000
C. Rs.4,26,000
D. Rs.4,32,000

17. Amount forfeited of Mr. Sultan was :-

A. Rs.18,000
B. Rs.24,000
C. Rs.32,000
D. Rs.6,000

18. Amount due on First call was :-

A. Rs.4,50,000
B. Rs.4,41,000
C. Rs.4,32,000
D. Rs.4,23,000

19. Amount received on First call was :-

A. Rs.4,50,000
B. Rs.4,41,000
C. Rs.4,32,000
D. Rs.4,23,000

20. Remaining 2,000 shares can be issued at a minimum re-issue amount/price of Rs.._____
A. Rs.8,000 (Rs.4 per share)
B. Rs.12,000 (Rs.6 per share)
C. Rs.20,000 (Rs.10 per share)
D. Rs.4,000 (Rs.2 per share)

ANSWER KEY
Q.No. Correct Option Q.No. Correct Option
1. B 2. B
3. C 4. C
5. B 6. B
7. B 8. C
9. B 10. D
11. A 12. D
13. C 14. C
15. B 16. D
17. B 18. C
19. D 20. B

Prepared by
Gaurav Palia
Sr. PGT Commerce
DAV Centenary Public School, Paschim Enclave

GOODWILL
Q No 1) Which of the following statement is correct?
 a) Goodwill is a fictitious asset.
b) Goodwill is a current asset.
c) Goodwill is a wasting asset.
d) Goodwill is an intangible asset.
Answer: d) Goodwill is an Intangible asset.
Q No. 2) Average profit of a business over the last five years were Rs.60,000. The normal rate
of return on capital employed in such a business is estimated at 10% p.a. Capital invested in the
business 4,00,000. Amount of goodwill, if it is based on 3 years’ purchase of last 5 years super
profits will be
a) Rs.1,00,000
b) Rs.1,80,000
c) Rs.60,000
d) Rs.1,20,000
Answer: c) 60,000
Q No. 3) Mohan and Shreya are partners in a firm dealing in stationery items. The firm is well
managed and enjoys the advantage of being cost effective. The firm’s sales outlet is situated
near a school. As a result, the firm has a steady demand of stationery items and is earning good
profits.
Two factors affecting the value of Goodwill as highlighted in the above case are:
a) Nature of Business and Market Situation
b) Efficiency of Management and Location
c) Location and Market Situation
d) Efficiency of Management and Market Situation
Answer: b) Efficiency of Management and Location
Q No. 4) A business has earned average profits of Rs.1,00,000 during the last few years and
the normal rate of return in a similar business is 10% per annum. Goodwill of the firm based on
Capitalization of Average Profits is valued at Rs.1,80,000. The value of total assets of the
business is Rs.10,00, 000.Its external liabilities are
a) Rs.1,00,000
b) Rs.80,000
c) Rs.1,80,000
d) NIL
Answer: c) Rs.1,80,000
Q No.5) Goodwill of the firm was valued on the basis of 2 years purchase of last three years
average profits. The profits of last three years were:
Year Profits
2016-17 Rs.1,00,000
2017-18 Rs.1,40,000
2018-19 Rs.90,000

During the year 2018-19, there was a loss of Rs.30,000 due to fire which was not accounted for
while calculating the profit.
Calculate the Value of Goodwill.
a) Rs.2,20,000
b) Rs.2,40,000
c)Rs.2,00,000
d)None of the Above
Answer: a) Rs.2,20,000
Q No.6) A and B shared profits in the ratio 2:3. With effect from 1st April,2021, they agreed to
share profits equally. Goodwill of the firm was valued at Rs.60,000.The adjustment entry will
be:
a) Dr. B’s Capital A/C and Cr. A’s Capital A’/C by Rs.6,000
b) Dr. A’s Capital A/C and Cr. B’s Capital A’/C by Rs.600
c) Dr. A’s Capital A/C and Cr. B’s Capital A’/C by Rs.6,000
d) Dr. B’s Capital A/C and Cr. A’s Capital A’/C by Rs.600
Answer: c) Dr. A’s Capital A/C and Cr. B’s Capital A’/C by Rs.6,000
Q No.7) When Goodwill is not recorded in the books of the firm at all on Admission of a
partner:
a) If paid privately
b) If brought in cash
c) If not brought in Cash
d) If brought in kind
Answer: a) If paid privately
Q No.8) If the new partner brings his share of goodwill in Cash it will be shared by old
partners in:
a) Sacrificing Ratio
b) Old-Profit-Sharing Ratio
c)New-Profit-Sharing Ratio
d)Capital Ratio
Answer: a) Sacrificing Ratio
Q No. 9) A and B are partners in a firm. They admit C with 1/5th share in the profits of the
firm. C brings Rs.4,00,000 as his share of capital. Find the value of C’s share of Goodwill on
the basis of his capital ,given that the combined capital of A and B after all Adjustments is
Rs.10,00,000.
a) Rs.6,00,000
b) Rs.1,20,000
c) Rs.1,50,000
d) Rs.2,80,000
Answer: b) Rs.1,20,000
Q No.10) According to which accounting standard goodwill is not recognized in books unless
consideration is paid for it.
 a) AS-24
b) AS-26
c) AS-31
d) AS-32
Answer: b) AS-26
Q No. 11)
Mohan and Sohan were partners in a firm with capitals of Rs.3,00,000 and Rs.2,00,000
respectively. Aditya was admitted as a new partner 1/4 th share in the profits of the firm.
Aditya brought Rs.1,20,000 for his share of goodwill premium and Rs. 2,40,000 for his capital.
The amount of goodwill premium credited to Mohan will be
a) Rs.40,000
b) Rs.30,000
c) Rs.72,000
d) Rs.60,000
Answer: d) Rs.60,000
Q No.12) When goodwill existing in the books is written off at the time of admission of a
partner, it is transferred to Partners ‘ capital Accounts in their
a) Old profit sharing ratio
b) New profit sharing ratio
c) Sacrificing ratio
d) Gaining ratio
Answer: a) Old profit sharing ratio
Q No.13) When the new partner brings cash for goodwill , the amount is credited to
a) Revaluation Account
b) Cash Account
c) Premium for Goodwill Account
d) Realisation Account
Answer : c) Premium for Goodwill Account
Q No. 14) X,Y and Z are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:4:1. Two
New partners A and B are admitted. Profits are to shared in the ratio of 3:4:2:2:1 respectively.
A is to pay Rs.30,000 for his share of goodwill but E is unable to pay for goodwill. Calculate
the the gain of Z.
a) 12,000
b) 15,000
c) 16,000
d) 20,000
Answer : a) 12,000
Q No.15) Weighted Average profit method of calculating goodwill is used when
a) Profit has increasing trend
b) Profit has decreasing trend
c) Both
d) None of the above
Answer : c) Both
Q No. 16) Why new partner needs to bring goodwill?
 a) To compensate the sacrificing partners
b) For Revaluation Account
c) For Revaluation of Assets
d) For all of the above
Answer : a) To compensate the sacrificing partners
Q No.17 )
Assertion (A) : Purchased Goodwill is that Goodwill for which the firm has paid consideration
in cash or kind and purchased Goodwill only is recorded in the books of accounts.
Reason (R) : Value of Goodwill is a subjective assessment but it is ascertained when both
purchaser and seller agree to its valuation.
Choose the correct option from the following:
a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct.
b) Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
c) Only Assertion is correct.
d) Reason is correct but Assertion is not correct.
Answer: a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct.
Q No.1 8 Average profits of a firm during the last few years are Rs. 70,000 and normal
rate of return in a similar business is 10%. If the goodwill of the firm is Rs.1,00,000 at 4
years’ purchase of super profit, find the capital employed by the firm.
a) 5,00,000
b) 4,00,000
c) 4,50,000
d) 6,00,000
Answer : c) 4,50,000
Q no. 19) When Goodwill is not purchased goodwill account can
a) Never be raised in the books.
b) Be raised in the books.
c) Be partially raised in the books.
d) Be raised as per the agreement of the partners.
Answer : a) Never be raised in the books.
Q No.20) Under the Capitalisation , the formula for calculating the goodwill is :
a) Super profits multiplied by the rate of return.
b) Average profits multiplied by the rate of return.
c) Super profits divided by the rate of return.
d) Average profits divided by the rate of return.
Answer : c) Super profits divided by rate of return.
 CHAPTER-3 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
Correction in following questions:-

Given-
Q5. During fertilization which part of sperm enters the secondary oocyte?
a) Tail
b) Head
c) Middle part
d) (a) and (c) both
Answer- d) (a) and (c) both
CORRECTION- Answer is (b) Head

Given-
Q7 During movement of zygote into oviduct the division of zygote in 2 to 16 daughter cells,
the process is called as
CORRECTION IN SENTENCE FORMATION OF QUESTION
Q7. The mitotic division which starts as the zygote moves through the oviduct towards
uterus to form2 to 16 daughter cells is called

Given-
Q9
Which hormones are not produced by placenta?
a) hCG
b) hPL
c) Estrogens
d) Relaxin
Answer- c) Estrogen
CORRECTION- Answer is- LH/Gonadotropins … This option is not given

Given-
Q10. During delivery which gland sends signals for the release of Oxytocin?
a) Posterior pituitary gland
b) Anterior pituitary gland
c) Hypothalamus
d) None of the above
Answer- a) hCG
CORRECTION- Answer is- a) Posterior pituitary gland

Given-
Q17 i) The breakdown of endometrium is characteristic of:-
a) Proliferative phase
b) luteal phase
c) Ovulatory phase
d) Menstrual phase
Answer- Ovulatory phase
CORRECTION –Answer is- d) Menstrual phase
CHAPTER-4 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

Corrections in the following questions:-

Given-
Q6. The contraceptive method in which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus day 10/17 of
menstrual cycle is called
CORRECTION- IN FRAMING OF QUESTION:-
Q6. The contraceptive method in which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus from
day 10 to 17 of menstrual cycle is called

Given-
Q11. The presence of which of the following in the urine is tested for pregnancy diagnosis
a) GnRH
b) Oxytocin
c) HCG
d) Prolactin
Answer- B
CORRECTION- Answer is- c) HCG

Given-
Q18. Which method helps in contraception by temporary absence of sex?
a) Coitus interruptus
b) Rhythm method
c) Withdrawal method
 d) Lactational amenorrhea
CORRECTION- Two similar options are given
a) Coitus Interruptus
c) Withdrawal method
a) Coitus Interruptus can be replaced by - Barrier method
 TERM -1 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
XII – BUSINESS STUDIES
CHAPTER –ORGANISING

Q.no.1 The process of combining or grouping similar jobs into larger units called -
(a) Organizing
(b) Centalisation
(c) Departmentalisation
(d) Decentralisation
Answer :- (c) Departmentalisation

Q.no.2 Which function of management coordinates human efforts and assembles resources and integrates all
for achieving organization objectives ?
(a) Planning
(b) organizing
(c) Directing
(d ) Controlling
Answer :- (b) organizing

Q.no.3 Which of the following is an ideal situation ?

(a) Authority > Responsibility.
(b) Authority < Responsibility.
(c) Authority = Responsibility .
(d) None of the above .

Answer :- (c) Authority = Responsibility .

Q.no.4 Which of the following cannot be delegated ?

(a) Authority
(b) Responsibility
(c) Accountability
(d) None of these
Answer :- (c) Accountability

Q.no.5 Which type of Organisational Structure Facilitates occupational specialization ?

(a) Divisional Structure
(b) Functional Structure
(c) Formal Structure
(d) Informal Structure
Answer :- b) Functional Structure

Q.no.6 Arrange the Organising Process in correct order :-

1. Estabilishing reporting relationship .
2. Identification and division of work .
3. Departmentalisation .
4. Assignment of duties .
Correct order would be -
(a) 1 ,2 ,3 , 4 .
(b) 2 ,3 ,4 ,1 .
(c) 1 ,3 ,2 , 4 .
(d) 3 ,2 ,1 ,4 .
Answer :- (b) 2 ,3 ,4 ,1 .

Q.no.7 The concept which helps a manager to extend his area of operations ,as without it his activities would
be restricted -
(a) Delegation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Centralisation
(d) None of these
Answer :- (a) Delegation

Q.no.8 The framework within which operating and managerial task are performed -
(a) Delegation of Authority
(b) Centralisation
(c) Decentralisation
(d) Organisation Structure
Answer :- (d) Organisation Structure

Q.no.9 Responsibility Flows-

(a) Upwards
(b) Downwards
(c) Diagonally
(d) None of these
Answer :- (a) Upwards

Q.no.10 Span of Management refers to-

(a) Framework within which managerial activities are performed .
(b) Clearly defines Rules and Regulations .
(c) Number of subordinates that are effectively managed by a superior .
(d) None of these .
Answer :- (c) Number of subordinates that are effectively managed by a superior .

Q.no.11 The type of Organisational Structure which promotes flexibility and initiative -
(a) Functional Structure
(b) Divisional Structure
(c) Decentralisation
(d) All of these
Answer :- (b) Divisional Structure .
Q.no.12 How many persons are involved in the process of delegation ?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Ten
(d) Many
Answer :- (a) Two

CASE BASED MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Mr. Sindhu is the general manager of Air Purifier Manufacturing Company in Delhi. The Directors want to
expand the business operations and As per the resolution passed in meeting , it is decided that a new branch
will be started in Mumbai also . it is also decided to appoint Mr.Sanchit , his subordinates to take charge of
company’s new office in Mumbai

Mr.Sindhu grants necessary authority to Mr. Sanchit so that he can fulfill his all responsibilities .However,
within three months of feedback about Mr. Sanchit . Mr. Sindhu realizes that Mr. Sanchit is not doing the
work as per instructions and expectations . He decided to take away the authority from Sanchit and redelegate
the same to Mr. Ankur ,one of his another subordinate .

Due to this change in managerial position at the Mumbai office ,the work suffer a lot and the company is not
able to meet the desired goals.

Q.No.13 Why is Mr. Sanchit supposed to give regular feedback about his work to Mr. Sindhu ?
(a) As he has granted authority .
(b) As he has given responsibility .
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above.
Answer :- (c) both a and b

Q.no.14 Can Mr. Sanchit be held responsible for not meeting the work allotted to him ?

(a) Yes , it is obligation of subordinates to perform the assigned duties to the best of his ability .
(b) No , Mr. Sanchit was not held responsible as he is only subordinate of Mr Sindhu .
(c) Mr. Sanchit may or may not be responsible .
(d) Mr. Sindhu will be held responsible .
Answer :- (a) Yes , it is obligation of subordinates to perform the assigned duties to the best of his ability .

Q. no. 15 Can Mr.Sindhu take back the authority granted to Mr. Sanchit and redelegate to another ?
(a) No, Mr. Sindhu cannot take back the authority once delegated .
(b) yes, Mr. Sindhu can take back the authority and redelegate to another .
(c) Mr. Ankur cannot take the charge in place of Mr. Sanchit.
(d) none of these .
Answer :- (b) yes, Mr. Sindhu can take back the authority and redelegate to another .
Q.no.16 Responsibility is derived from _____________ and Accountability is derived from ____________ .
(a) Accountability , Authority .
(b) Accountability , Responsibility .
(c) Authority , Responsibility .
(d) None of the above .
Answer :- (c) Authority , Responsibility .

ASSERTION –REASON MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q.no. 17 Assertion : Decentralisation is an optional policy .
Reason : Decentralisation is the outcome of the policy decision taken by the top management .

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion .
(b)Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion .
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false .
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true .
Answer :- (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion .

Q.no.18 Assertion :- It is essential for effective performance that a proper match is made between the nature
of job and the ability of an individual.
Reason :- The work is divided into manageable activities which are similar in nature and then grouped
together .

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion .
(b)Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion .
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false .
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true .
Answer :- (b)Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

Q.no.19 Assertion :Pursuing departmental interest at the cost of organizational interest can hinder the
interaction between two or more departments .
Reason :- A manager when gain power in the organization and have independence ,may ignore organizational
interest .

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion .
(b)Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion .
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false .
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true .
Answer :- (b)Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion .

Q.no.20 Assertion : Avoidance of duplication of work helps in preventing confusion .

Reason : Organising leads to proper usage of raw material , financial resources and human resources .
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion .
(b)Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion .
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false .
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true .
Answer :- (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion .

LESSON:

1. A rational approach for achieving predetermined targets is provided by which of the following function
of management?
a) Organizing
b) Directing
c) Planning
d) Controlling
Answer: c) Planning

2. Identify the incorrect statement(s) .

Statement 1: Planning is concerned with both ends and means.
Statement 2: Planning helps in selecting the best possible alternative from available courses of action to achieve
desired objectives.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Which of the following component of business can be anticipated with the help of planning and though
it cannot be completely eliminated, but can be reduced?
a) Objectives
b) Business risk
c) Loss
d) Theft
Answer: b) Business Risk

4. Under which of the following situations, need for planning arises?

a) Only one way available
b) Alternatives available
c) No choice
d) All of these
Answer: b) Alternatives available

5. Planning cycle ensures that planning remains a continuous process. Which of the following is /are
step(s)under planning cycle?
a) Plan is implemented
b) Deviations are measured
c) New plan is made
d) Both A and C
Answer: d) Both A and C
6. Ram works as manager in a top company. In his company plans are based on guesswork of his boss and
does not involve any rational thinking process. The plans are framed in a random manner. This results in non-
achievement of targets. Which of the following changes should be introduced in the way of planning in this
case?
a) Orderly
b) Logical and systematic thinking
c) Rule of thumb
d) Both A and B
Answer: d) Both A and B

7. The planning function of management involves making decisions. For this purpose which of the
following step(s) are undertaken by management for choosing among various alternatives present?
a) Identification of alternatives
b) Evaluation of alternatives
c) Implementation of decision
d) Both A and B
Answer: d) Both A and B

8. Reema works in a corporate firm. There work is done randomly, as per the mood and preferences of
their boss. This leads to ineffective performance and lethargy on part of workers as well. Which of the following
function of management is ignored by the firm?
a) Controlling
b) Motivation
c) Setting of objectives
d) Planning
Answer: d) Planning

9. Assertion (A) - All other functions of management except planning i.e., organizing, staffing, directing,
controlling etc. are performed within the framework of plans drawn.
Reason (R) - Planning is primary function of management
a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Answer: a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.

10. Identify the statement is true or false.

If heavy cost is incurred on planning process, then results derived will definitely justify the burden of cost
incurred by the management.

a) False
b) True
c) Can’t say
d) Inadequate data
Answer: a) False

11. If employees do not bother to understand the plans and just go on implementing it, then which of the
following component will be lacking in the plans?
a) Logic
b) Rationality
c) Creativity
d) Science
Answer: c) Creativity

12. Assertion (A) – A business firm prepares its annual plan for production and sales on the basis of sales
forecasting.
Reason (R) - Planning is futuristic in nature.
a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Answer: a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.

13. Sam worked as an operation manager in a firm. He received plans from the top management which he
was to implement . the plans couldn’t be implemented as it was , because of some changes in related laws .But
he couldn’t modify them due to one of limitation of planning.Identify the limitation highlighted here .
a) Reduces creativ
b) Planning is rigid
c) Flexible process
d) Involves huge cost
Answer: b) Planning is rigid

14. Sheena was planning the next project of her company. She had time span of 30 days for this project. She
estimated that around 10 days will be required in planning. She kept this big slot for planning, due to which of
the following limitation of planning function?
a) No guarantee of success
b) Costly process
c) Reduces creativity
d) Time consuming process
Answer: d) Time consuming process

15. Identify the correct statement.

Statement 1: If plans are properly drawn, then success of the organization is guaranteed.
Statement 2: In terms of time, money and others, huge cost is involved in the process of planning.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b) Only 2

16. Identify the correct statement.

Statement 1: Adhering of plans is not always possible, therefore planning function should be avoided by the
management.
Statement 2: Once made, plans cannot be modified even if any unforeseen event arises.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. According to which of the following aspect basically, the alternatives are evaluated so as to achieve
desired objectives?
a) Feasibility
b) Profit
c) Risk
d) Revenue
Answer: a) Feasibility

18. Under which of the following steps of planning process, resources are organized and plans are put into
action?
a) Evaluating alternatives
b) Follow up
c) Implementation of plans
d) Setting objectives
Answer: c) Implementation of plans

19. Sam works as manager in a software company. He is responsible for performing the planning function
of management in the organization. Therefore, Sam and his team followed the planning process and plans were
implemented. But, after that he did not bother to check the implementation and this lead to non-achievement of
targets. Which of the following step of planning process is missed by Sam?
a) Evaluation of alternatives
b) Developing premises
c) Setting of objectives
d) Follow-up action
Answer: d) Follow-up action

20. Planners need various materials that act as a base for their plans. Which of the following provide base
to the plans?
a) Past experience
b) Logical thinking
c) Guess work
d) Both A and B
Answer: d) Both A and B

MARKETING MANAGEMENT

1. ______________ of products and services include activities that communicate features and merits of the
products to the target customers and persuade them to buy.
2. Which of the following ensures the marketer that there should not be a time gap between the production of
goods and their sale:
a. Transportation
b. Warehousing
c. Branding
d. Promotion
3. A popular brand of Hair Conditioners comes in different categories for different hair, say for normal hair
and for other categories. Which function of labeling is highlighted here:
a. Specifies its content
b. Helps in promotion
c. Product branding
d. Grading of product
4. Consumer activist groups need to be satisfied as they can impose restriction on the sale of the firm’s
product directly. Name the element of promotion mix in the above statement.
5. Apart from customer satisfaction, which of the following concept pays attention to the social, ethical and
ecological aspects of marketing:
a. Product
b. Production
c. Societal
d. marketing
6. “Satisfying needs of target market better than the competitors” is the main focus of traditional sense of
marketing or modern sense of marketing?
7. A marketer job in an organization is to identify ___________ of the target customers and develop products,
that gives them satisfaction.
a. Need
b. Motive
c. Want
d. desire
8. The _________________ concept holds that consumers will favor products that are available and highly
affordable.
a. Marketing
b. Selling
c. Product
d. Production

9. The term marketing mix describes:

a. A composite analysis of all environmental factors inside and outside the firm.
b. A series of business decisions that help in selling a product
c. The relationship between a firm’s marketing strength and its business weaknesses
d. A blending of 4 strategic elements to satisfy specific target markets.
10. Newsletters, catalogues and invitations to organization sponsored events are most closely associated
with the marketing mix activity of :
a. Pricing
b. Distribution
c. Product development
d. Promotion
11. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase “a good product will sell itself”, is a characteristic
of the ______________ concept:
a. Societal
b. Production
c. Marketing
d. Product
12. Diversification is best described as which of the following:
a. Existing product in new markets
b. Existing products in existing markets
c. New products for new markets
d. New products for existing markets
13. ______________ is a strategy of using a successful brand name to launch a new or modified product
in a new category.
a. Branding
b. Brand extension
c. Multi branding
d. New product development
14. Segmentation is the process of –
a. Dividing the market into homogeneous groups
b. Selling one group of consumers among several other groups
c. Creating a unique space in the minds of the target consumer
d. None of these
15. The emotional attachment of a consumer towards a brand is known as:
a. Brand association
b. Brand loyalty
c. Brand awareness
d. None of the above

Question No 16-18 are based on the following Paragraph:

Sara is very thirsty. She is on a vacation at Jodhpur. Soon she finds a cold drinks shop. She goes and purchases
two bottles and drinks them to satisfy her thirst. After drinking the cold drink she realizes that it has been
developed after analyzing the preferences of the potential customers. On observing the outer side of the bottle
he finds details finds contents, flavor, size, price etc.

16. What is Cold Drink and Thirst here in relation to each other?
a. Want & need
b. Want & desire
c. Need & desire
d. None of the above
17. Identify the feature of marketing which has been highlighted here.
a. Creating market offering
b. Customer value
c. Exchange mechanism
d. Focuses on the needs & wants
18. “On observing the outer side of the bottle he finds details like content, flavor, size, price etc”. Name
the product related decision taken by the marketer.
a. Branding
b. Packaging
c. Labeling
d. Brand loyalty
19. Mansi went for shopping to buy a bag for her friend’s birthday. She was delighted when on payment
she got a box along with the bag free of cost. Identify the element of promotion mix used by the company.
20. Mahabali enterprises, entered into the market with cycle and have now introduced Electric Scooty and
bikes. The company is not only offering the products but also handling complaints and offering after sales
services. Identify the element of marketing mix discussed above.
a. Place
b. Promotion
c. Price
d. Product

Chapter - Business Environment

Case-based.

Read the following text and answer Q1 to Q4.

CREA is an award-winning, innovation led carry solution company. When the first lockdown was announced
in March 2020 to restrict the spread of the novel Coronavirus the company had its gameplan ready. The firm,
which designs and manufactures bags for a diverse clientele, spans across cosmetics, fashion travel, health and
fitness and apparel , quickly pivoted its business. The moment they saw the global lockdowns were in process
, they understood that it is going to be a while before the business flourishes again. They immediately acted
and started manufacturing PPE kits,masks etc. required during these tough times. They spent five months
making PPE kits for the healthcare heroes. Many businesses change track during the lockdown to meet the
consumer demand. But the demand curve is again undergoing a shift, post the various unlock faces, it might
mean fight for flight for various MSMEs in the country.

Q1. Which forces have been covered by the CERA in the above case ?

(a) Specific forces

(b) General forces
(c) Both specific and general forces
(d) None of these
Answer : (c) Both specific and general forces

Q2. Name the related feature of the business environment which has influenced the business of CREA ?

(a) Totality of External forces.

(b) Dynamic nature.
(c) Interrelatedness
(d) Uncertainty
Answer : (b) Dynamic nature

Q3. The above case highlights one of the points related to the importance of the business environment and its
understanding which led the managers to do well even in lock down. Identify it.

(a) It helps in coping with rapid changes.

 (b) It helps in improving performance.
(c) It helps the firm to identify threats and early warning signals.
(d) It enables the firm to identify opportunities and getting the first mover advantage.
Answer : (a) It helps in coping with rapid changes

Q4. Identify the related dimensions of the business environment which led to the sudden spur in demand for
masks and PPE kits ?

(a) Social dimension

(b) Technological dimension
(c) Economic dimension
(d) Legal dimension
Answer : (d) Legal dimension

Q5. Assertion (A) : Agricultural and industrial production trends affect the business environment.

Reason (R): Technological environment like agriculture and industrial production trends have modified
the ways to produce and distribute goods through improved methods and techniques.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer: (c)A is true but R is false.

Explanation: Agricultural and industrial production trends are elements of economic environment and not of
technological environment.

Q6. Assertion : Entry of new players in the market may make an enterprise think afresh about how to deal
with the situations.

Reason : Business environment assists in planning and policy formulation.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q7. Since more people have become more beauty and health conscious, our economy has witnessed an
unprecedented surge in the number of health and beauty spas and wellness clinics. Related feature of the
business environment being described in the above lines is ___________.

(a) Totality of External forces

(b) Dynamic
(c) Interrelatedness
(d) Relativity
Answer : (c)Interrelatedness
Q8.Twinkle Stars’ is a well-known resort for organising parties, especially for children. However, in the past
6 months its popularity has reduced considerably as a new resort with better ambience and facilities has
opened within its vicinity. Name the related feature of the business environment which has influenced the
business of ‘Twinkle Stars’ adversely.

(a) Totality of external forces

(b) Dynamic
(c) Inter-relatedness
(d) Uncertainty
Answer: (b) Dynamic

Q9. According to the United Nations Environmental Agency, the world produces around 300 million tons of
plastic each year, half of which constitutes single-use items. Ford is recycling over one billion plastic bottles
every year to develop elements of the car’s interior, reducing the amount of plastic ending up in a landfill. The
American car maker has revealed that their Romanian-built EcoSport SUVs’ carpets are made using 470
recycled single-use plastic bottles. The process for making Ford EcoSport carpets involves shredding bottles
and their caps into tiny flakes and then heating them to 260° C. Identify the related dimension of the business
environment.

(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Technological
(d) Political
Answer : (c)Technological

Q10.Electric vehicles with zero tailpipe emission are emerging as a good alternative to the problems like
climate change, surging pollution leading to ill health, crude import bill and energy security. Identify the
related dimensions of the business environment.

(a) Economic, legal , social

(b) Social , Political and Economic
(c) Economic, technological and social
(d) Social, Political and legal
Answer: (c)Economic, Technological and Social

Q11.Yo Tummy’ began its business by offering the classic combo of hamburgers and fries. But over time,
their customers wanted healthier foods, so ‘Yo Tummy’ responded and began offering healthy alternatives
such as salads, fruits, wraps and oatmeal. If ‘Yo Tummy’ hadn’t responded, they may have lost customers that
wanted to eat healthier foods. The above case highlights one of the points related to the importance of the
business environment and its understanding by managers. Identify it.

(a) It helps in coping with rapid changes .

(b) It helps in improving performance.
(c) It helps in identifying threats and getting early warning signals.
(d) It helps in identifying opportunities and getting first mover advantage
Answer : (a) It helps in coping with rapid changes.
Q12. Assertion (A) : Suppliers affect any business directly but the political environment affects it indirectly.
Reason (R) : Business environment is a relative term . It differs from country to country and region to region .

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Q13. Match the column with respective features .

1. Dynamic A. Easier to understand in parts but difficult to grasp in totality

2. Uncertainty. B. Different political conditions in different nations
3. Complexity. C. Difficult to predict the future events
4. Relativity. D. Technological improvements. Find the
correct option
(a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A ,4-B
(b) 1-D , 2-C, 3-B ,4-A
(c) 1-C, 2-D , 3-A , 4-B
(d) 1-A, 2-B , 3-C , 4-D
Answer : (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A , 4-B

Q14. Which of the following is an example of a political environment?

(a) India is signing double taxation avoidance agreements with a number of countries.
(b) Good educational institutions are in great demand.
(c) Rates of saving in India are high as compared to other countries.
(d) New models of mobile phones are rich in features.
Answer : (a) India is signing double taxation avoidance agreements with a number of countries.

Q15. The purpose of introduction of GST was to introduce one nation and one tax, was to ease the taxation
system of the economy, ease in doing business and removal of multiple taxes. Which components of the
business environment are involved in the implementation of GST?

(a) Legal and political.

(b) Political and economic.
(c) Economic and legal.
(d) Social and legal.
Answer : (c) Economic and legal.

Q16. During the period of COVID-19 the cinema halls even after reopening really faced a lot of loss in
revenue. Which dimension of the business environment is responsible for the loss in revenue?

(a) Legal environment.

(b) Social environment.
(c) Technological environment.
(d) Political environment.
Answer : (b) Social Environment
Q17. Which of the following is an example of an economic environment?

(a) Demand for automatic machines and luxury items in middle class families.
(b) Permission to the private sector for entering into the financial sector.
(c) Replacement of traditional watches with digital watches.
(d) Delicensing policy of industries.
(e) Answer : (a) Demand for automatic machines and luxury items in middle class families.
Q18. Hindustan Unilever Ltd launched fairness cream, fair and lovely in 1975 which was gender neutral.
Later it launched ‘glow and lovely’ and ‘glow and handsome’ for females and males respectively. It was hit
by a trademark hurdle with its rival Emami which claimed that it was an unfair business practice to use a
similar name with Emami glow and handsome. Which component of the business environment does it relate
to?

(a) Legal environment.

(b) Social environment.
(c) Technological environment.
(d) Political environment
Answer : (a) Legal Environment

Q19. Seeing the surge in demand of sanitisers, several Indian companies were found supplying sanitisers
without GST. Which component of the business environment does this relate to?

(a) Legal Environment.

(b) Social environment.
(c) Technological environment.
(d) Economic environment.
Answer : (d) Economic Environment

Q20. “Sudden announcement of lockdown in the entire country by our Prime Minister” is an example of
which feature of the business environment?

(a) Relativity.
(b) Specific and general forces.
(c) Uncertainty.
(d) Inter-relatedness.
Answer: (c) Uncertainty

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

NATURE AND SIGNIFICANCE OF MANAGEMENT

Three teams of employees of XYZ Ltd. Are working at different positions.

a) Team A is responsible for survival and growth of organization. Team A continuously keeps a
watch over the business environment with a view of coping with the changes in the business
environment. Team A immediately discusses the change to be brought about in company’s plan.
b) Team B explains the policies of superiors to the employees and ensures a touch of cooperation
among all the departments.
c) Team C is responsible for maintaining quality and safety standards and minimize the wastage.
UseQ.1 “Team A immediately discusses the change to be brought about in company’s plan”

Which level of management is highlighted in this context?

a) Top Level Management
b) Middle Level Management
c) Lower Level Management
d) None of these
Answer : a) Top Level Management
Q.2 “Team B explains the policies of superiors to the employees”

Which level of management is highlighted in this context?

a) Top Level Management
b) Middle Level Management
c) Lower Level Management
d) None of these
Answer : b) Middle Level Management
Q.3 “Team C is responsible for maintaining quality and safety standards and minimize the wastage.”

Which level of management is highlighted in this context?

a) Top Level Management
b) Middle Level Management
c) Lower Level Management
d) None of these
Answer : c) Lower Level Management
Management consists of a series of interrelated functions that are performed by all managers, for
examples, managers have to plan the objective of the firm, organize resources to achieve that objective,
recruit and select employees who can implement these objectives. Giving directions, communicating and
motivating these employees to achieve objectives effectively and efficiently and ultimately checking
whether everything is going as per plan or not.
Q.4 By communicating and motivating, the manager performs which function of management?

a) Planning
b) Organising
c) Staffing
d) Directing
Answer : d) Directing
Q.5 By setting up of objective, management performs which function?

a) Planning
b) Organising
c) Staffing
d) Directing
Answer : a) Planning
Q.6 “Ultimately checking whether everything is going as per plan or not”, this line indicates which
function of management?

a) Planning
b) Organising
c) Staffing
d) Controlling
Answer : d) Controlling
Q.7 By recruiting and selecting of employees for implementing the objectives, Manager performs which
function?

a) Planning
b) Organising
c) Staffing
d) Directing
Answer : c) Staffing
The purchase manager of a leading book shop maintains stock on continuous basis. It helps him to place
orders well in advance, thus avoid facing the situation of stock shortage. This way he is able to save on
delivery cost and maintain his stock levels. He is already ready to fulfill customer’s need well in time.
Q.8 Identify the importance of management highlighted in the above case.

a) Management creates a Dynamic Organisation

b) Management Helps in Achieving Personal Objectives
c) Management helps in Achieving Group Goals
d) Management Increases Efficiency
Answer : d) Management Increases Efficiency
Q.9 The subject of management is taught at different institutions. Some of these have been set up with the
specific purpose of providing management education such as the Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs)
in India. Entry to different institutes is usually through an examination. Which aspect of management is
highlighted in aforesaid statement?

a) Management as a science
b) Management as an art
c) Management as a science and an art
d) Management as a profession
Answer : d) Management as a profession
Q.10 A company’s target production is 1000 bicycles in a year. To achieve this target the manager to
operate has to operate an double shifts due to power failure most of the time. The manager is able to
produce 1000 bicycles but at a higher production cost. In this case the manager is:

a) Effective
b) Efficient
c) Neither efficient nor effective
d) Efficient as well as effective
Answer : a) Effective
Q.11 Which of the following is not a characteristics of a profession?

a) Restricted Entry
b) Service Motive
c) Well-defined body of knowledge
d) Based on creativity
Answer : d) Based on creativity
Q.12 Which managerial function ensures that the right people with the right qualifications are available at
the right place and time to accomplish the goals of the organisation:

a) Planning
b) Organising
c) Staffing
 d) Directing
Answer : c) Staffing

Q.13 Your Grandmother is retired as the Medical Superintendent of a firm. At which level of management
was she working:

a) Top Level Management

b) Middle Level Management
c) Lower Level Management
d) None of these
Answer : b) Middle Level Management
Q.14 “Doctors have to get themselves registered with Medical Council of India and lawyers with Bar
Council of India.”

In the above context, Which feature of profession is highlighted?

a) Restricted Entry
b) Existence of ethical code
c) Professional Associations
d) Service Motive
Answer : c) Professional Associations
Q.15 On introduction of any changes in the firm, all employees hesitate to accept the changes, Managers
convince the employees and guide them to adopt the changes willingly.

This is related to which importance of management.

a) Management help in achieving group goal
b) Management increases efficiency
c) Management creates a dynamic organisation
d) Management helps in achieving personal objectives
Answer : c) Management creates a dynamic organisation
Q.16 Indus Ltd. has decided to contribute to Swaach Bharat Abhiyan by cleaning all plastics from Ganga
river. Which objective of management is highlighted by this act of the Indus Ltd. Company?

a) Organisational Objective
b) Social Objective
c) Personal Objective
d) None of these
Answer : b) Social Objective
Q.17 “When all the departments have their own objectives, policies and their own style of working.”

Identify the importance of coordination in the given context.

a) Growth in size
b) Functional Differentiation
c) Specialisation
d) None of these
Answer : b) Functional Differentiation
Q.18 _________, is not a separate function of management, but its essence.

a) Controlling
b) Planning
c) Coordination
d) None of these
Answer : c) Coordination
 Q.19 In which characteristic of management, a manager replaces ‘I’ with ‘We’.

a) Management is a Continuous Process

b) Management is a Group Activity
c) Management is a Dynamic Function
d) None of these
Answer : b) Management is a Group Activity
Q.20 “There are many qualified singers and cricketers but Lata Mangeshkar and Sachin Tendulkar has
achieved the highest degree of success.”

In the above lines, Identify the characteristics of an Art?

a) Existence of Theoretical knowledge
b) Creativity
c) Based on Practice and Creativity
d) Personalised Application
Answer : d) Personalised Application

Chapter-Principles of management

Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:

After completing her Bachelors in Fashion Designing from a well-known college in France, Aditi has opened
a boutique in a posh market in Kolkata. She has divided the work in smaller units and each employee is well
trained to perform his/her task efficiently. The sales persons are allowed to close a deal with a buyer by giving
a maximum of 5 percent discount, whereas the decision to give any further discount rests with Aditi as the
final authority.

In the earlier period of her business venture, employees were asked to put in extra hours of work. In return she
had promised to give them a special incentive within a year. Therefore, when the business was doing well, she
honoured her commitment by giving bonus to her employees. She also instructed her employees that
communication from top to bottom should follow the official lines of command. However, she tends to be
more biased towards her female employees, when it comes to solve the conflicts among employees.

1. Aditi has divided the work in smaller units and each employee is well trained to perform his/ her task
efficiently. Which principle of management is being followed here?

(a) Centralization and Decentralization

(b) Division of work

(c) Discipline

(d) Order

Answer: (b) Division of work

2. "The sales persons are allowed to close a deal with a buyer by giving a maximum of 5 percent discount,
whereas the decision to give any further discount rests with Aditi as the final authority." Identify the principle
of management being followed here:

(a) Centralization and Decentralisation

(b) Authority and Responsibility

(c) Unity of Command

(d) Unity of Direction

Answer: (a) Centralization and Decentralisation

3. “Therefore, when the business was doing well, she honoured her commitment by giving bonus to her
employees.” Which principle of management is being highlighted here?

(a) Discipline

(b) Order

(c) Remuneration to Employees

(d) Unity of Direction

Answer: (a) Discipline

4. Aditi tends to be more biased towards her female employees, when it comes to solve the conflicts among
employees. Which principle is being violated here?

(a) Discipline
(b) Order
(c) Equity
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Equity

Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:

Damini D’Souza took over the reins of Kinsa Retail’ as its managing director in India. Kinsa Retail with its
headquarters at Japan has been in retail business for the last 40 years. It has regional offices in many countries
with each regional office taking care of the shops in that particular region. As it is a large organisation, the
regional officers have been given the powers to decide and spend funds sanctioned to them by the headquarter
for the welfare of the customers of the region.
Kinsa Retail wants the highest possible standards of ethical conduct being followed for which a code of
conduct is in place for putting values into practice. All employees as well as Board members are required to
act in accordance with the highest standards of personal and professional integrity when acting on behalf of
the company. Non-compliance involves a heavy penalty including termination of employment. The
management of Kinsa Retail firmly believes that the principles of management are not rigid prescriptions
which have to be followed absolutely. Rather, the application of principles of management is dependent upon
the prevailing situation at a particular point of time. Their application has to be changed as per requirements.
Kinsa Retail selects and appoints personnel after due and rigorous procedure. But once selected, they are
given reasonable time to show results. All the employees are happy and satisfied working in the organisation.
5. As it is a large organisation, the regional officers have been given the powers to decide and spend funds
sanctioned to them by the headquarter for the welfare of the customers of the region. Identify the principle of
management discussed here.

(a) Authority and responsibility

(b) Division of work

(c) Centralisation and decentralisation

(d) Order

Answer: (c) Centralisation and decentralisation

6. All employees as well as Board members are required to act in accordance with the highest standards of
personal and professional integrity when acting on behalf of the company. Non-compliance involves a heavy
penalty including termination of employment. Identify the principle of management discussed here.

(a) Discipline

(b) Standardisation and simplification of work

(c) Esprit De Corps

(d) Initiative

Answer: (a) Discipline

7. The management of Kinsa Retail firmly believes that the principles of management are not rigid
prescriptions which have to be followed absolutely. Rather, the application of principles of management is
dependent upon the prevailing situation at a particular point of time. Their application has to be changed as
per requirements. What nature of management principles has been highlighted here?

(a) Universal applicability

(b) Flexibility

(c) Contingent

(d) Mainly behavioural

Answer: (c) Contingent

8. Kinsa Retail selects and appoints personnel after due and rigorous procedure. But once selected, they are
given reasonable time to show results. All the employees are happy and satisfied working in the organisation.
Identify the principle of management discussed here.

(a) Equity
(b) Subordination of individual interest to general interest
(c) Stability of personnel
(d) Initiative
Answer: (c) Stability of personnel

Read the following statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R), and select the correct alternative
in each case:
9. Assertion(A): Principles of management are mainly behavioural in nature.
Reason (R): Management principles aims at influencing behaviour of human beings.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R ) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R )is not the correct explanation of
Assertion( A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason( R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A) .

10. Assertion(A): Principles of management establish accurate cause and effect relationship.
Reason (R): The principles of management tell us if a particular principle was applied in a particular
situation, what would be its likely effect.

(a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R ) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R )is not the correct explanation of
Assertion( A)
(c )Assertion (A) is true and Reason(R) is false.
(d)Assertion (A) is false and Reason(R) is true.

Answer : (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason(R) is true.

11. Assertion(A): Prosperity for the employer cannot exist for a long time unless it is accompanied by
prosperity for employees and vice versa.
Reason (R): The principle of scientific management highlighted here is “Harmony, not discord”.
Taylor recognised that ‘managers versus workers’ conflict helped none, the workers, the managers or
the factory owners. He emphasised that there should be complete harmony between the management
and workers. Both should realise that each one is important.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason ® is correct explanation of Assertion (R)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R ) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason R is the correct explanation of
Assertion A
12. Assertion(A): There should be an almost equal division of work and responsibility between workers
and management.
Reason (R): The principle of scientific management highlighted here is “Cooperation, not
individualism”. Management should work almost side-by-side with the workers helping, encouraging
and smoothing the way for them. Management should not close its ears to any constructive suggestions
made by the employees. They should be rewarded for their suggestions which results in substantial
reduction in cost.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason R is correct explanation of Assertion A
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason R is not correct explanation of Assertion R.
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason R is correct explanation of
Assertion A.

13. Assertion(A): The intent of division of work is to produce more and better work for the same effort.
Specialisation is the most efficient way to use eminent human effort.
Reason (R): The principle of management highlighted here is “Division of work”. In business ,work
can be performed more efficiently if it is divided into special tasks; each performed by a specialist or
trained employee. This results in efficient and effective output.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason R is the correct explanation of Assertion
A.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason R is not the correct explanation of
Assertion A.
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason R is the correct explanation of
Assertion A.

14. The sales manager assigned a target of selling 50 electronic irons in one month to a group of 10 sales
executives. They mutually decided to sell five electric irons each. However, after selling one electric
iron, Arun (one of the sales executives) met with an accident. The other sales executives did not pay
any attention to the remaining target of Arun and concentrated on their individual sales target. At the
end of the month, only 46 electric irons could be sold. Identify the principle of management violated in
the given case:
(a) Discipline
(b) Esprit De Corps
(c) Subordination of individual interest to general interest
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Esprit De Corps

15. In the festive season Kapoor industries (manufacturers of gift items) decided to reduce the rest interval
of workers from 40 minutes to just eight minutes. However due to heavy workload and reduction in
time of rest interval, the workers efficiency level went down and it led to fall in production level
instead of rising. Which technique of scientific management should be followed by Kapoor industries?
(a) Time study
(b) Fatigue study
(c) Motion study
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Fatigue study
16. “Panchayats in our country have been given more powers to decide and spend funds granted to them
by the government for welfare of villagers.” Identify the principle of management highlighted in the
statement.
(a) Equity
(b) Centralisation and decentralisation
(c) Authority and responsibility
(d) Esprit de corps
Answer: (b) Centralisation and decentralisation

17. Karan Nath took over ‘D’ north Motor Company’ from his ailing father three months ago. In the past
the company was not performing well. Karan was determined to improve the company’s performance.
He observed that the methods of production as well as selection of employees in the company were not
scientific. He believed that there was only one best method to maximise efficiency. He also felt that
once the method is developed, the workers of the company should be trained to learn that ‘best
method’. He asked the production manager to develop the best method and carry out the necessary
training. The production manager developed this method using several parameters right from deciding
the sequence of operations, place for men, machines and raw materials till the delivery of the product
to the customers. This method was implemented throughout the organisation. It helped in increasing
the output, improving the quality and reducing the cost and wastage.
Identify the principles of scientific management being discussed above:
(a) Science, not rule of thumb
(b) Development of each and every person to his or greatest efficiency and prosperity
(c) Harmony, not discord
(d) Both a and b
Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

18. A Production Manager set a target to manufacture 2,000 shirts in 2 months and accordingly divided the
work among 10 employees. One of the workers fell ill and took medical leave for a month. The
production manager divided his work among other workers in order to achieve the target on time. The
workers cooperated for achievement of targets.
Which principle of management is highlighted here?
(a) Initiative
(b) Scalar chain
(c) Esprit De Corps
(d) Unity of direction
Answer: (c) Esprit De Corps

19. Beena, a student of management, likes to relate what she learnt in class to real life situations. She
observed many situations while watching educational programmes on television that remind her of
concepts of scientific Management. In one such programme, factories manufacturing parts for products
like automobiles, computers and mobile phones were being telecast. Name the technique of Scientific
management that should be adhered to, while manufacturing parts for such products.
(a) Functional foremanship
(b) Standardisation and Simplification of work
(c) Differential Piece Wage System
(d) Method Study
Answer: (b) Standardisation and Simplification of work

20. In order to set up standard target of performance for workers, it was necessary for Shiv Ltd. to fix
standard time for workers to perform a particular job. For this Mr. Ganesh, the Production Manager of
the company observed the workers when they were performing the job. He used a stop watch in hand
and noted down the average time taken by workers for completion of the job. He repeated the same
observation for 100 times and then calculated average time for the performance of the job. This was
fixed as the standard time on the basis of which efficient and inefficient workers were distinguished.
Identify technique of scientific management followed by Mr. Ganesh.
(a) Time Study
(b) Method Study
(c) Motion Study
(d) Fatigue Study
Answer: (a) Time Study
 BIOMOLECULES
1. Read the passage and answer the following questions
Carbohydrates are an essential part of our diet. It provides the energy for the most obvious functions
of our body, such as moving or thinking. Maximum amount of the carbohydrates are used by brain.
Approximately 120 g of glucose are needed per day to cover the energy needs of the adult brain and
for our body functions. During digestion, carbohydrates that consist of more than one sugar get broken
down into their dependent glucose as energy source, and is used. It is for this reason that our blood
glucose must be constantly maintained at an optimum level. The presence of glucose can be detected
by Molish test Fehling test and Benedict test. Glucose is poly hydroxy compound of aldehydes
whereas fructose is poly hydroxy compound of ketone.

(i ) Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to form

(a) Monoacetate
(b) Tetraacetate
(c) Penta-acetate
(d) Hexa-acetate

Answer: (c)

(ii)Which of the following has a branched chain structure

(a) Amylopectin
(b) Amylose
(c) Cellulose
(d) Nylon

Answer: (a)

(iii)Which of the following has not a glucosidic linkage?

(a) Sucrose
(b) Amylose
(c) Galactose
(d) Maltose
Answer: (c)

(iv)Which carbohydrates is an essential constituent of plant cells?

(a) Starch
(b) Cellulose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Vitamins

Answer: (b)

(v)Which of the following in the sweetest sugar:

(a) Sucrose
(b) Glucose
 (c) Fructose
(d) Maltose
Answer: (c)

2.Read the passage and answer the following questions

Proteins are naturally occurring unbranched polypeptides that contain more than 50 α amino acid
units. Most proteins are polymers of 100 to 300 α amino acids. Only α amino acids forms the protein,
insulin which regulates the sugar level in blood contains 51 amino acid residues, Amino acids which
are synthesized by our body are called nonessential amino acid and that are supplied through dietary
system are called essential amino acids . due to presence of acid and base group in amino acid it
behave like a salt, and forms Zwitter ion. Formation of Zwitter ion is an intramolecular acid base
reaction and have dipolar reaction.
(i)Which of the following protein is insoluble in water?
(a) a-Keratin
(b) hemoglobin
(c) albumin
(d) adenine
Answer: (a)

(ii) The number of subunits present in hemoglobin is

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer: (c)

(iii) The number of amino acid residue present in insulin

(a)51
(b)101
(c)201
(d) 251
Answer: (a)

(iv)The protein responsible for blood clotting is

(a) Albumins
(b) Globulins
(c) Fibroin
(d) Fibrinogen

Answer: (d)

(v)Amino acids are the building blocks of

(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Vitamins
 (c) Fats
(d) Proteins.

Answer: (d)

3. Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is

given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason explains the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are wrong statements.
(c) Assertion is correct statement and reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement and reason is correct statement.
(i) Assertion: Glycosides are hydrolysed in acidic conditions
Reason: Glycosides are acetal.
Answer: (a)

(ii) Assertion: Proteins are the polymer of α amino acids

Reason: Only α amino acid can form peptide bonds.

Answer: (a)

(iii) Assertion: the two strands of DNA are complementary to each other.
Reason: they are linked by Disulphide bonds
Answer: (c)

(iv)Assertion : Vitamins are essential part of dietary system of our body.

Reason : Our body can also synthesize almost all vitamins.

Answer: (b)
(v) Assertion : is not a carbohydrates.
Reason: It does not have free aldehyde group.
Answer: (b)

4.In following questions only one single option is correct. Choose the correct option.
(i) Which of the following carbohydrate is stored in liver
(a) Cellulose
 (b) Glucose
(c) Glycogen
(d) Maltose
Answer: (a)

(ii) The helical structure of protein is stabilized by:

(a) Peptide band
(b) Dipeptide band
(c) Hydrogen bands
(d) Vander Waal’s forces

Answer: (c)

(iii) which of the following is a vitamin?

(a) Acetic acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Palmitic acid
(d) Saccharic acid
Answer: (b)

(iv) Which of the following statements is true for protein synthesis

(a) Amino acids are directly recognized by m-RNA.
(b) The third base of codon is less specific.
(c) Only one codon codes for an amino acid.
(d) Every t-RNA has more than one amino acid attachment
Answer: (b)

(v) The number of chiral carbons in ß-D (+) glucose is:

(a) five
(b) six
(c) three
(d) four

Answer: (a)
 Solid State

(I) Crystalline solids have a sharp melting point and sharp boiling when it reaches a

particular temperature.The shape of crystalline solids are definite and having typical

arrangements of particles. They show cleavage property i.e. when they are cut with the

edge of a sharp tool they split into two pieces and the newly generated surfaces are

smooth and plain. They have definite heat of fusion (amount of energy needed to melt a

given mass of solid at its melting point).Crystalline solids are anisotropic which means

their physical properties like electrical resistance or refractive index show different

values when they are measured along with different directions in the same crystal

. Crystalline solids are true solids. Crystalline solids are of different types : Ionic solids,

Covalent solids , Molecular solids and Metallic Solids.

Amorphous solids are gradually softened over a range of temperature and they can be

moulded into different shapes on heating.Amorphous solids are pseudo solids or super

cooled liquids which means they have a tendency to flow very slowly. If you observe that

the glass panes which is fixed to windows of old buildings they are found to be slightly

thicker from the bottom than at the top. Amorphous solids have irregular shape i.e. their

constituent particles do not have definite geometry of arrangements. When amorphous

solids are cut with a sharp edge tool they form pieces with irregular surfaces. Amorphous

solids do not have definite heat of fusion due to its irregular arrangement of the particles.

Amorphous solids are isotropic in nature which means the value of any physical property

would be same along any direction because of the irregular arrangement of particles.

Q1. Which one of the following is non-crystalline or amorphous?

(a) Diamond

(b) Graphite

(c) Glass
(d) Common Salt

Ans. (c) Glass

Q2. A crystalline solid

(a) has no definite melting point

(b) undergoes deformation of its geometry easily

(c ) has irregular three dimensional arrangements

(d) changes abruptly from solid to liquid when heated

Ans . (d) changes abruptly from solid to liquid when heated

Q3. Why some glass objects from the ancient civilizations are found to become milky

(a) Glass is a crystalline solid, milky appearance is due to its crystalline nature

(b) Glass is amorphous but on heating it become crystalline at some temperature

(c ) Glass reacts with the impurities present in air

(d) None of these

Ans. (b) Glass is amorphous but on heating it become crystalline at some temperature

Q4. Silicon carbide is an example of

(a) Molecular solid

(b) covalent solid

(c) Metallic solid

(d) ionic solid

Ans . (b) covalent solid

Q5. Which of the following statement is not a characteristic property of amorphous solids

(a) Irregular shape

(b) Gradually soften over a range of temperature

(c )When cut with a sharp edged tool, they cut into two pieces with irregular surfaces

(d) They have a definite and characteristic heat of fusion

Ans. (d) They have a definite and characteristic heat of fusion

II) The adjective, ‘crystalline’ when applied to solids, implies an ideal crystal in which

the structural units, termed as unit cells, are repeated regularly and indefinitely in three

dimensions in space. The unit cell, containing at least one molecule has definite

orientation and shape defined by the translational vectors, a, b and c. The unit cell

therefore has a definite volume, V that contains the atoms and molecules necessary for

generating the crystal. Every crystal can be classified as a member of one of the seven

possible crystal systems or crystal classes that are defined by the relationships between

the individual dimensions, a, b and c of the unit cell and between the individual angles, α,

β, and γ of the unit cell. The structure of the given crystal may be assigned to one of the 7

crystal systems, to one of the 14 Bravais lattices, and to one of the 230 space groups.

These uniquely define the possible ways of rearranging atoms in a three dimensional

solid. Based on these observations, seven crystal systems were identified: triclinic,

monoclinic, trigonal or rhombohedral, tetragonal, hexagonal, rhombic or orthorhombic

and cubic

Q6. The following unit cell with the structure given below represents ............ crystal system

(a) Tetragonal

(b) Orthorombic

(c) Hexagonal

(d) trigonal

Ans. (a) Tetragonal

 Q7. The crystal system of compound with unit cell dimensions a= 10.48, b= 12.92, c= 24.55 Ao and
α=β=γ=90ois

(a) Monoclinic

(b) Orthorombic

(c) Hexagonal

(d) Rhombohedral

Ans . (b) Orthorombic

III) The discovery of imperfections in an other wise ideally perfect crystal is one of the

most fascinating aspects of solid state science. An ideally perfect crystal is one which has

the same unit cell and contains the same lattice points throughout the crystal. The

term imperfection or defect is generally used to describe any deviation of the ideally
perfect crystal from the periodic arrangement of its constituents. If the deviation occurs because

of missing atoms, displaced atoms or extra atoms, the imperfection is named as a point defect.

Such defects can be the result of imperfect packing during the original crystallisation or they

may arise from thermal vibrations of atoms at elevated temperatures because with increase in

thermal energy there is increased probability of individual atoms jumping out of their positions

of lowest energy.

Following diagram show the imperfections :

Q8. A perfect crystal of silicon is doped with some elements as given in the options.
Which of these options show n- type semiconductors.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
Ans. (a)

Q9. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to

(a) Schottky defect

(b) Frenkel defect

(c) Interstitial position

(d) F- centres

Ans . (d) F- centres

Q10. Which among the following statement is true about the Schottky defect?

(a) In the defect cation and anion are lacking in stoichiometric proportion

(b) Formation of metal alloy is example of this defect

(c) In this regular cation is replaced by different cation

(d) In this cation or anion moves from regular site to place between lattice site

Ans. (a) In the defect cation and anion are lacking in stoichiometric proportion

Q11. Which of the following compounds does not show metal deficiency defect?

(a) FeO

(b)FeS

(c) NaCl

(d) NiO

Ans. (c) NaCl

IV ) DIRECTION: Mark the option which is most suitable:

(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements and Reason is correct explanation

for Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements but Reason is not correct

explanation for Assertion.

(c) Assertion is correct statement but Reason is wrong statement.

(d) Assertion is wrong statement but Reason is correct statement.

Q12.Assertion: Fe3O4 is an example of ferrimagnetism.

Reason: Ferrimagnetism has resulting net magnetic moment

Ans. ( b) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements but Reason is not correct

explanation for Assertion.

Q13. Assertion : Distance between the nearest lattice points in BCC is greater than the

same in FCC having same edge length

Reason: FCC has greater packing efficiency than BCC.

Ans . (a) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements and Reason is correct

explanation for Assertion.

Q14. Assertion : In closed packed structure the number of tetrahedral void is twice the

number of atoms present

Reason : Tetrahedral voids are located above each atom in the first layer and below each

atom in second layer

Ans. (a) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements and Reason is correct

explanation for Assertion.

Q15. Assertion : Semiconductors show some conductivity.

Reason : They have only small difference in energy between the filled valence band and

empty conduction band.

Ans. (a) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements and Reason is correct

explanation for Assertion.

V) Multiple choice question with only one correct answer

Q16. A crystalline solid has a cubic structure in which tungsten (W) atoms are located at
 cubic corners of the unit cell, oxygen atoms at edges of the cube and sodium atom at the

cube centre. The molecular formula of the compound is

(a) Na2WO3

(b) NaWO4

(c) NaWO3

(d) Na2WO4

Ans. (c) NaWO3

Q17. If ‘a’ stands for edge length of cubic systems: body centered and face centered cubic then the ratio
of the radii of the sphere in these systems will be respectively

(a) √ 3 a: a/√ 2

(b) √ 3 a/2: √ 2 a/2

(c) √ 3 a/4:a/2√ 2

(d) √ 3 a: √ 2 a

Ans. (c) √ 3 a/4:a/2√ 2

Q18. An element crystallising in body centered cubic lattice has an edge length of 500

pm. If its density is 4 g cm-3, the atomic mass of the element (in g mol-1) is (consider

NA= 6x1023)

(a) 100

(b) 150

(c) 200

(d) 250

Ans. (b) 150

Q19. In face centered cubic unit cell, what is the volume occupied

(a) 4Πr3/3

(b) 8Πr3/3

(c) 16Πr3/3
(d) 64r3/3√ 3

Ans. (c) 16Πr3/3

Q20. Consider the bcc unit cells of the solids 1 and 2 with the position of atoms as shown

below . The radius of atoms B is twice that of atoms A . The unit cell edge length is 50%

more in solid 2 than 1. What is the approximate packing efficiency in solid 2.

(a) 45%

(b) 65%

(c) 90%

(d) 75%

Ans. (c) 90%

 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
MCQs

1. The heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI produces

(a) Iodobenzene
(b) Phenol
(c) Benzene
(d) Ethyl chloride

Answer: (b) Phenol

2. Which of the following gives positive iodoform test?
(a) C6H5CH2CH2OH
(b) CH3CH(CH3)CH2OH
(c) PhCHOHCH3
(d) CH3CH2CH(OH) CH2CH3

Answer: (c) PhCHOHCH3

3.

(a) Benzaldehyde
(b) Benzoic acid
(c) Benzene
(d) Toluene

Answer: (b) Benzoic acid

4. Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?
(a) CH3CHO; RMgX
(b) C6H5OH; NaOH, CH3I
(c) C6H5OH, neutral FeCl3
(d) C6H5—CH3; CH3COCl; AlCl3

Answer: (b) C6H5OH; NaOH, CH3I

5. Arrange the following in decreasing order of acidic character:

(a) IV > III > I > II

(b) II > IV > I > III
(c) I > II > III > IV
(d) III > I > II > IV
Answer: (d) III > I > II > IV

6.

(a) Etard reaction

(b) Gattermann Koch reaction
(c) Williamson synthesis
(d) Esterification

Answer: (c) Williamson synthesis

7. Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH yields.
(a) o-Cresol
(b) m-Cresol
(c) 2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene
(d) Benzyl alcohol

Answer: (a) o-cresol

8. How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral in nature?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer: (a) 1

9. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction?

R—OH + HCl R—Cl + H2O

(a) 1° > 2° > 3°
(b) 1° < 2° > 3°
(c) 3° > 2° > 1°
(d) 3° > 1° > 2°

Answer: (c) 3° > 2° > 1°

10. CH3CH2OH can be converted into CH3CHO by ________________.
(a) catalytic hydrogenation
(b) treatment with LiAlH4
(c) treatment with pyridinium chlorochromate
(d) treatment with KMnO4
Answer: (c) treatment with pyridinium chlorochromate

11. IUPAC name of the compound is _______________ .

(a) 1-methoxy-1-methylethane
(b) 2-methoxy-2-methylethane
(c) 2-methoxypropane
(d) isopropylmethyl ether

Answer: (c) 2-methoxypropane

12. Which of the following are used to convert RCHO into RCH2OH? (More than one answer may be
correct)
(a) H2/Pd
(b) LiAlH4
(c) NaBH4
(d) Reaction with RMgX followed by hydrolysis
Answer: (a), (b), (c) will convert RCHO into RCH2OH.
13. In the following question a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
(e) Both assertion and reason are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
Assertion: Bond angle in ethers is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle.
Reason: There is a repulsion between the two bulky (—R) groups.
Answer: (d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
14. Which of the following compound would not react with Lucas reagent at room temperature?
(a) CH2 = CH—CH2OH
(b) C6H5CH2OH
(c) CH3CH2CH2OH
(d) (CH3)3 COH

Answer: (d) (CH3)3 COH

15. Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in water?

(a) C6H5OH
(b) C6H5CH2OH
(c) (CH3)3 COH
(d) C2H5OH

Answer: (a) C6H5OH

16. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of boiling point.
Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol
(a) Propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol
(b) Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol
(c) Pentan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, propan-1-ol
(d) Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, propan-1-ol
Answer: (a) Propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol
17. In the following question a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
(e) Both assertion and reason are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
Assertion: Like bromination of benzene, bromination of phenol is also carried out in the presence of
Lewis acid.
Reason: Lewis acid polarises the bromine molecule.
Answer: (d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
18. (Cased Based) When phenol is reacted with sodium hydroxide, it forms sodium phenoxide which
is then further allowed to undergo distillation and dehydration. It is followed by carboxylation reaction
with carbon dioxide, which results in the formation of sodium salicylate (salt of salicylic acid).
Salicylic Acid is a type of beta hydroxy acid (BHA) and phenolic acid with a chemical formula
C7H6O3. Salicylic acid (2-hydroxybenzoic acid) is a white solid first isolated from the bark of willow
trees (Salix spp.), from which it gets its name. It also occurs as the free acid or its esters in many plant
species.
Answer the following questions:
18 (i). Salicylic acid on heating with acetic anhydride in basic medium gives
(a) Aspirin
(b) Methyl salicylate
(c) Phenyl salicylate
(d) Acetyl salicylate

Answer: (a) Aspirin

18 (ii). Phenol reacts with CO2 at 3-7 atm, on heating in presence of NaOH followed by acidification
to form
(a) Salicylic acid
(b) Aspirin
(c) Benzoic acid
(d) Methyl benzoate

Answer: (a) Salicylic acid.

18 (iii). Salicylic acid on reaction with CH3OH in presence of Conc. H2SO4 gives
(a) Methyl salicylate (Iodex)
(b) Benzoic acid
(c) Methyl benzoate
(d) Phenol

Answer: (a) Methyl salicylate (Iodex)

18 (iv). Salicylic acid reacts with Zinc dust on heating to give
(a) Benzene
(b) Benzoic acid
(c) Phenol
(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Benzoic acid

19. Which of the following reactions will yield phenol? (More than one option may be correct)

Answer: (a), (b), (c) will give phenol. (d) will not give phenol because high temperature is needed.

20. Write the IUPAC name of the given compound:

(a) 2,3- dinitrophenol

(b)2,5- dinitrophenol
(c) 2,4- dinitrophenol
(d)2,5- nitrophenol

Answer: (b) 2,5- dinitrophenol

 P Block Elements
Multiple Choice Questions

1) H2S is more acidic than H2O because

(a) oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur.
(b) atomic number of Sulphur is higher than oxygen.
(c) H — S bond dissociation energy is less as compared to H — O bond.
(d) H — O bond dissociation energy is less also compared to H — S bond

Ans. (b) atomic number of Sulphur is higher than oxygen.

2) Fluorine differs from rest of the halogens in some of its properties. This is due to
(a) its smaller size and high electronegativity.
(b) lack of d-orbitals.
(c) low bond dissociation energy
(d) All of the these

Ans. (b) lack of d orbitals

3) Nitrogen forms N2 but Phosphorous is converted into P4 from Phosphorous, the reason is
(a) Triple bond is present between Phosphorous atom
(b) Pπ-Pπ bonding is strong
(c) Pπ-Pπ Bonding is weak
(d) Multiple bonds are formed easily

Ans. (c) Pπ-Pπ Bonding is weak

4) Partial hydrolysis of XeF4 gives

(a) XeO3
(b) XeOF2
(c) XeOF4
(d) XeF2

Ans. (b) XeOF2

5) What is the correct order of reactivity of group 16 elements?
(a) O > Se > S > Tè > Po
(b) S > O > Tè > Po > Se
(c) S > O > Se > Tè > Po
(d) O > S > Se > Tè > Po

Ans. (d) O > S > Se > Tè > Po

6) Which of the following statements regarding group 16 elements is not true?

(a) The electronic configuration of Oxygen is [He]2s22p4
(b) The electronic configuration of Sulphur is [Ne]3s23p4
(c) The atomic radii of the elements of group 16 are larger than those of the
corresponding elements of group 15.
(d) The electronic configuration of Tellurium is [Kr]4d105s25p4

Ans. (c) The atomic radii of the elements of group 16 are larger than those of the
corresponding elements of group 15.

7) A gas (X) is obtained when Copper reacts with dilute nitric acid. The gas thus formed reacts
with oxygen to give brown fumes of (Y). (Y) when dissolved in water gives an important acid
(Z) and the gas (X).X, Y and Z respectively are
(a) Nitrogen monoxide, Nitrogen dioxide, Nitric acid.
(b) Nitrogen dioxide, Nitrogen monoxide, Nitric acid.
(c) Nitrous oxide, Nitrogen monoxide, Nitrous acid.
(d) Nitrogen monoxide, Nitrous oxide, Nitric acid.

Ans. (a) Nitrogen monoxide, Nitrogen dioxide, Nitric acid.

8) In which of the following sulphur is present in +5 oxidation state?

(a) Di thionic acid
(b) Sulphurous acid
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Disulphuric acid

Ans. (a) Di thionic acid

9) If Chlorine is passed through a solution of Hydrogen sulphide in water, the solution turns
turbid due to the formation of
(a) Free chlorine
(b) Free sulphur
(c) Nascent Oxygen
(d) Nascent Hydrogen

Ans. ( b) Free sulphur

10) Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than individual halogens because
(a) They are prepared by direct combination of halogens
(b) X-X" bond is weaker than X-X and X”-X” bond
(c) They are thermally more stable than Halogens
(d) There is large difference in their electronegativity

Ans. (d) X-X" bond is weaker than X-X and X”-X” bond

11) The set with correct order of acidity is

(a) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(b) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(c) HClO < HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2
(d) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO

Ans. (a) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

12) What happens when white phosphorous is heated at 473 Kelvin under high pressure?
(a) α-Black phosphorous is formed
(b) β-Black phosphorous is formed
(c) Red Phosphorous is formed
(d) No change is observed

Ans. (b) β-Black phosphorous is formed

13) Matching type questions – Match the entries of column I with appropriate entries of column
II and choose the correct option out of the four options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given at the end of
each question

Column I Column II
(A) PCl5 (p) Angular
(B) IF7 (q) Pyramidal
(C) H3O+ (r) Trigonal bipyramidal
(D) ClO2 (s) Pentagonal bipyramidal

(a) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p

(b) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s
(c) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r
(d) A-s, B-p, C-r, D-q

Ans. (a) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p

14) In BrF3 (bromine trifluoride) molecule the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize
-
(a) lone pair –bond pair repulsions only
(b) bond pair-bond pair repulsions only
(c) lone pair-lone pair and lone pair-bond pair repulsions
(d) lone pair-lone pair repulsions only

Ans. (c) lone pair-lone pair and lone pair-bond pair repulsion

Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices. (Q15 and Q 16)

(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If assertion is correct but reason is the wrong statement.
 (d) If both the assertion and reason are incorrect. (Q15 –Q16)

Q15) Assertion: Dinitrogen is less reactive than Phosphorous.

Reason: Nitrogen has more electron gain enthalpy than phosphorous.

Ans. (c) If assertion is correct but reason is the wrong statement because bond dissociation
enthalpy of Nitrogen is more than that of phosphorous.
Q16) Assertion: HI cannot be prepared by the reaction of KI with concentrated sulphuric acid.

Reason: HI has lowest H-X bond strength among halogen acids.

Ans. (b) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion because HI formed in the reaction is oxidised to I2 since it is a strong
oxidising agent.

Read the Passage given below and answer the following questions.
Ozone is an unstable, dark blue diamagnetic gas. It absorbs the UV radiations strongly,
thus protecting the people on earth from the sun. The use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) in
aerosol and refrigerator and their subsequent escape into the atmosphere, is blamed for making
holes in the ozone layer over the Antartica..Ozone acts as a strong oxidising agent in acidic
and alkaline medium. For this property, Ozone is used as a germicide and disinfectant for
sterilizing water. It is also used in laboratory for the ozonolysis of organic compounds and in
industry for the manufacture of potassium permanganate, artificial silk etc,
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Q17) Which of the following statement is not correct for ozone?

(a) It oxidises lead sulphide
(b) It oxidises KI
(c) It oxidises Mercury
(d) It cannot act as a bleaching agent in dry state.

Ans. (d) It cannot act as a bleaching agent in dry state.

Q18) Ozone reacts with moist iodine gives

 (a) HI
(b) HIO3
(c) I2O5
(d) I2O4

Ans. (b) HIO3

Q19) Ozone acts as an oxidising agent due to

(a) Liberation of nascent oxygen
(b) Liberation of oxygen gas
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Ans. (a) Liberation of nascent oxygen

Q20) The colour of ozone molecule is

(a) White
(b) blue
(c) pale green
(d) Pale yellow

Ans. (b) blue

 TOPIC: HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS TYPE 1
In each of the following questions only one option is correct option.
Q.no.1 Which of the following compound is allylic halide?
(a). 1- Chloropropane.
(b). 3- Chloropropene.
(c). 2- Chloropropene.
(d). 1-Chloropropene
Ans (2)
Q.no.2 Best reagent for preparing a cholroalkane from an alcohol is…….
(a) SOCl2.
(b) HCl/ZnCl2.
(c) PCl3.
(d) Cl2/CCl4
Ans (1)
Q.no 3 Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity ?
(a) F-
(b) OH-
(c) CH3-
(d) NH2-
Ans (3)
Qno.4 The order of reactivity of the following alkyl halides for a SN2 reaction is
(a) RF>RCl > RBr >RI.
(b) RF> RBr >RCl >RI.
(c) RCl >RBr >RF. >RI.
(d). RI. >RBr. >RCl. >RF
Ans (4)
Q.no5 In the presence of peroxide, hydrogen chloride and hydrogen iodide do not give anti
markownikov’s addition to alkenes because
(a) both are high ionic.
(b) one is oxidizing and the other is reducing
(c) one of the steps are exotheric in both the cases
(d) all the Steps are exotheric in both the reaction
Ans (3)
Q.no.6 The addition of propane with HOCl proceeds via the addition of
(a) H+ in the first step
(b) Cl+ in the first step
(c) OH- in the first step
(d) Cl+ and OH- in a single step
Ans (2)
Q.no 7 An SN2 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a compound always gives
(a) an a enantiomer of the substrate
(b) a of opposite optical rotation
(c) a mixture of diastereomers
(d) a single stereoisomer
Ans (4)
Q.no 8 Aromatic nitrile (ArCN) are not prepared by the reaction:
(a) ArX. +KCN.
(b) Ar N2+ + CuCN.
(c) Ar CONH2 + P2 O5
(d) ArCONH2 + SOCl2
Ans (1)
Q. no 9 Toluene reacts with a chlorine in the presence of iron (lll)chloride gives ortho and Para
chloro compounds . The reaction is………..
(a) Electrphilic elimination reaction
(b) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(c) Free radical substitution reaction
(d) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
Ans (2)
Q.no 10 The correct IUPAC name of the compound (C2H5)3CBr is……..
(a) 3- Bromo-3-ethylpentane
(b) 1-Bromo-3,3-diethylpropane
(c) 1 -Bromo -1,1,1-triethylmethane
(d) 1 Bromo-1,1-diethylpropane
Ans (1)
Q.no 11 Which of the following represents a gem halide?
(a) Ethylene dichloride.
(b) 2.2 Dichroichloroprpane
(c) 1,3 Dichloropropane
(d) 1,2- Dicholoprpane
Ans.(2)
Q.no 12 1,1 Dicholopropane on hydrolysis gives
(a) propanone.
(b) propapnal
(c) ethanol
(d) 1,1-Propanediol
Ans. (2)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS TYPE 2.
In each of the following questions two or more options are correct. Select the correct options
Q.no 13 Molecules whose mirror image is non superimposable over them are known as chiral.
Which of the following molecules are chiral in nature.
(a) 2-Bromobutane
(b)1-Bromobutane
(c) 2-Bromopropane
(d) 2-Bromobutane-2-ol
Ans.(1), (4)
Q.no14 Haloalkane contain halogen atom(s) attached to the sp2 hybridized carbon atom of an alkyd
group . Identify Haloalkanes among the following compounds.
(a) 2-Bromopentane
(b) vinyl chloride
(c) Allyl chloride
(d) Chlorocyclohexane
Ans.(1) ,(3) .(4)
Q.no 15 Which of the following statements are correct about the SN1 mechanism.
(a) reaction takes place via carbocation as the intermediate.
(b) The order of reactivity of various alkyl halide is 3°>2°>1°
(c) Inversion of configuration takes place
(d) The rate of the reaction depends upon the concentration of the nucleophile
Ans.(1), (2)
Q.no 16 Which of the following compound don’t under go Nucleophilic substitution reaction
easily?
(a) p-Chlorotoluene
(b) 3 -Chloropropene
(c) Benzyl chloride
(d) 2- Chloropentane
Ans. (1), (2)
Q.no 17 ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTION
The following questions consist of two statements one labelled as Assertion A and other REASON
R.
Examine both the statements carefully and mark the correct choice according to the instructions
given below
if both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason of A
If both A and R are correct but R is not correct reason of A
If A is correct R is wrong
If A is wrong R is correct.
1 ASSERTION A: Addition of halogen acids to alkenes takes place via carbocations as
intermediates.
REASON R: HBr adds to propene more readily than ethereal.
Ans (b)
2. ASSERTION A :Benzyl chloride undergoes nucleophilic substitution much more readily than
CH3Cl.
REASON R The intermediates Carbocation formed in case of substitution of Benzyl chloride is less
stable than in case of CH3Cl.
Ans (c)
3 ASSERTION A : Among the isomeric dichlorobenzenes o- dichlorobenzene has the highest
melting point.
REASON R: O -Dicholobenzene is the most polar among the isomeric dichlorobenzene
Ans (d).

18 Which of the following are the examples of vic – dihalide?

(a) Dichloromethane
(b) 1,2-dichloroethane
(c) Ethylidene chloride
(d)2,3-Dichloro butane
Ans.(2), (4)

Q.no19 Which of the following statements are correct for ethylene dichloride and ethylidene
chloride?
(a) There are structural isomers
(b) Both of these yield same product on reaction with alcoholic KOH solution
(c) both of these yield same product on treatment with aqueous KOH
(d) Both of these yield same product on reduction
Ans. (1), (2) ,(4)
COMPREHENSION TYPE QUESTION
Q.no 20 Free radical chlorination or bromination of alkanes usually gives a complex mixture of
isometric mono and poly- haloalkane which is difficult to separate into pure compounds . For
example , chlorination of propane yield 1-Chloropropane and 2 -Chloropropane in addition to
polychlorinated products .Therefore ,haloalkanes are generally not prepared in laboratory by
halogenation of alkanes .However, in certain cases Where formation of isometric products is not
possible or where there is large difference in the reactivity of halogen attached to different carbon
atoms ,this method can be used for the preparation of haloalkanes
Q NO (1) Chlorination of methane in the presence of light yield a mixture of CH 3Cl
,CH2Cl2,CHCl3 and CCl4
The most polar compound among these is .
(A) CH3Cl. (B) CH2Cl2. (C) CCl4 (D) CHCl3
Q.No 2 Which of the following lighter than water?
(A) CCl4. (B) CH2Cl2. (C) CH3Cl. (D) CHCl3
Q.No 3 How many isometric monochloinated products are possible for iso-pentane?
(A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6
Q.NO 4 Which of the following halide cannot be prepared in good yield by free radical
halogenatom of corresponding hydrocarbon?
(A) Benzyl chloride. (B) Allyl chloride. (C) neo-Pentyl chloride. (D) iso- Pentyl chloride
Ans 1. (B ) Ans 2. (C ) Ans 3. (B) Ans 4 (D)
 UNIT-2
SOLUTIONS
Q1. 5 cm3 of acetone is added to 100 cm3 of water, the vapour pressure of water over the solution
will be

a. equal to the vapour pressure of pure water.

b. less than the vapour pressure of pure water.
c. greater than the vapour pressure of pure water.
d. very large.

Answer: (b)
Q2. The law which indicates the relation’-hip between solubility of a gas in liquid and pressure rs
(a) Raoult’s law
(b) Henry’s law
(c) Lowering of vapour pressure
(d) Van’t Hoff lawAnswer

Answer(b) Henry’s law

Q3. Molarity of liquid HCl will be, if density of solution is 1.17 gm/cc
(a) 36.5
(b) 32.05
(c) 18.25
(d) 42.10

ANS: B

Q4. The relative lowering in vapour pressure is proportional to the ratio of number of
(a) solute molecules to solvent molecules
(b) solvent molecules to solute molecules
(c) solute molecules to the total number of molecules in solution
(d) solvent molecules to the total number of molecules in solution

Answer(c) solute molecules to the total number of molecules in solution

Q5. How much oxygen is dissolved in 100 rnL water at 298 K if partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5
atm and K = 1.4 × 10-3 mol/L/atm?
(a) 22.4 mg
(b) 22.4 g
(c) 2.24 g
(d) 2.24 mg

Answer: (d) 2.24mg

Q6. Which of the following solutions shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
(a) Acetone + Aniline
(b) Acetone + Ethanol
(c) Water + Nitric acid
(d) Chloroform + Benzene
Answer: (b) Acetone + Ethanol
Q7. The system that forms maximum boiling azetrope is
(a) Acetone-chloroform
(b) ethanol-acetone
(c) n-hexane-n-heptane
(d) carbon disulphide-acetone

Answer: (a) Acetone-chloroform

Q8. The osmotic pressure of a solution can be increased by
(a) increasing the volume
(b) increasing the number of solute molecules
(c) decreasing the temperature
(d) removing semipermeable membrane

Answer b) increasing the number of solute molecules

Q9. For carrying reverse osmosis for desalination of water the material used for making
semipermeable membrane is
(a) potassium nitrate
(b) parchment membrane
(c) cellulose acetate
(d) cell membrane

Answer: (B)
Q10.. If 2 gm of NaOH is present is 200 ml of its solution, its molarity will be
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.5
(c) 5
(d) 10

Answer: (A) 0.25

Q.11. A 5% solution of cane-sugar (molecular weight = 342) is isotonic with 1% solution of
substance A. The molecular weight of X is
(a) 342
(b) 171.2
(c) 68.4
(d) 136.8
 Subject: Computer science
Chapter-5 (Binary Files)
1. Out of the followings which mode is used for both reading and writing in binary format in file?
(a) wb
(b) wb+
(c) w
(d) w+
Answer: (b) wb+
2. Which of the following is not true about binary files?
(a) Binary files are store in terms of bytes
(b) When you open binary file in text editor will show garbage values
(c) Binary files represent ASCII value of characters
(d) All of the above
Answer : (c) Binary file represent ASCII value of characters
3. What is the difference between wb and wb+ mode?
(a) wb mode is used to open binary file in write mode and wb+ mode open binary file both for read and
write operation.
(b) In wb mode file open in write mode and wb+ in read mode
(c) File pointer is at beginning of file in wb mode and in wb+ at the end of file
(d) No difference
Answer: (a) wb mode is used to open binary file in write mode and wb+ mode open binary file both
for read and write operation.
4. The pickle module in Python is used for:
(a) Serializing any Python object structure
(b) De-serializing Python object structure
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Both a and b
5. Which method is used to convert Python objects for writing data in binary file?
(a) write()
(b) load()
(c) store()
(d) dump()
Answer: (d) dump()
6. seek() function is used for _______.
(a) positions the file object at the specified location.
(b) It returns the current position of the file object
(c) It writes the data in binary file
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) It positions the file object at the specified location.
7. Which is not the valid mode for binary files?
(a) r
(b) rb
(c) wb
(d) wb+
 Answer: (a) r
8. Which of the following function is used to read the data in binary file?
(a) read()
(b) open()
(c) dump()
(d) load()
Answer: (d) load()
9. Suresh wants to open the binary file student.dat in read mode. He writes the following statement but
he does not know the mode. Help him to find the same.
F=open(‘student.dat’, ____)
(a) r
(b) rb
(c) w
(d) wb
Answer: (b) rb
10. This method returns an integer that specifies the current position of the file object.
(a) seek()
(b) load()
(c) position()
(d) tell()
Answer: (d) tell()
11. What is pickling?
(a) It is the process to read binary file
(b) It is the process to position the file pointer
(c) It is a process by which a Python object is converted to a byte stream
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) It is a process by which a Python object is converted to a byte stream
Case Study Based Questions

Mr. Zack Sullivan loves programming. He joined an institute for learning. He is learning python. He
learned all the python concepts like strings, lists, tuple , dictionaries etc. but he wants to learn file
handling in python. He is trying to learn binary file handling. His teacher gave him partial code to write
and read data from employee.dat having structure empno, name, salary. Help Zack to complete the
code:

___________________ # statement 1
def addrecords():
fw= _____________ #statement 2
dict={}
ch=’y’
while ch==’y’:
eno=int(input(“enter employee number”))
nm= input(“enter employee name”)
sal=int(input(“enter employee salary”))
dict={‘empno’:eno,’name’:nm,’salary’:sal}
____________________ # statement 3
ch=input(“add more record”)
fw.close()

# function to diplay records

 def display():
dict={}
fr= _____________ # statement 4
dict=____________ # statement 5
fr.close()
print(“data :”,dict)
Answer questions 12-16 based on above case study
12. Help Zack to import the module to perform binary file operation in statement 1.
(a) csv
(b) random
(c) pickle
(d) file
Answer: (c) pickle
13. Which statement is used from the following for statement 2 to open the binary file in write mode?
(a) open(“employee.dat”,’w’)
(b) open(“employee.dat”,’wb’)
(c) open(“employee.dat”,’w+’)
(d) open(“employee.dat”,’r’)
Answer: (b) open(“employee.dat”,’wb’)
14. Which statement is used from the following for statement 3 to write dictionary data created in above
code, namely dict, is written in binary file employee.dat file?
(a) pickle.dump(dict,fw)
(b) pickle.write(dict,fw)
(c) pickle.save(dict,fw)
(d) pickle.store(dict)
Answer: (a) pickle.dump(dict,fw)
15. Which statement is used from the following for statement 4 to open the binary file in read mode?
(a) open(“employee.dat”,’r’)
(b) open(“employee.dat”,’r+’)
(c) open(“employee.dat”,’a’)
(d) open(“employee.dat”,’rb’)
Answer: (d) open(“employee.dat”,’rb’)
16. Compelete statement 5 to read data in dictionary namely dict from the opened binary file?
(a) dict=pk.read(fr)
(b) dict=pickle.load(fr)
(c) pickle.load(dict,fr)
(d) none of these
Answer: (b) dict=pickle.load(fr)
Case Study based
Now Mr. Zack has given the following code to modify the records of employees from employee.dat
used in above code. He has to increase Rs. 2000 in the salary of those who are getting less than 15000.
Mr. Zack has to find the records and change the salary in place. His teacher gave him partial code. Help
him to complete the code.
import pickle as pk
found=False
emp={}
 fin = ___________ #1 statement : open file both in read write mode
# read from file
try:
while true:
pos= _______ #2 store file pointer position before reading record
emp=_______ #3 to read the record in emp dictionary
if emp[‘salary’]<15000:
emp[‘salary’]+=10000
_________ #4 place file pointer at exact location of record
pickle.dump(emp,fin)
found=True
except EOFError:
if found==False:
print(“record not found”)
else:
print(“successfully updated”)
fin.close()
17. In #1 statement open the file in read and write mode. Which statement is used out of the followings?
(a) open(“employee.dat”,’rb+’)

(b) open(“employee.dat”,’r+’)
(c) open(“employee.dat”,’a’)
(d) open(“employee.dat”,’rb’)
Answer: (a) open(“employee.dat”,’rb+’)
18. Choose the appropriate statement to complete #2 statement to store file pointer position before reading
record.
(a) pk.seek(pos)
(b) fin.tell()
(c) pk.position()
(d) pk.tell() Answer: (b) fin.tell()

19. Choose the appropriate statement to complete #3 statement to read record in emp dictionary.
(a) pk.read(fin)
(b) pickle.load(fin,emp)
(c) pk.dump(emp)
(d) pk.load(fin)
Answer: (d) pk.load(fin)
20. Choose the appropriate statement to complete #4 statement to place file pointer at exact location of
record
(a) fin.seek(pos)
(b) pos=fin.seek()
(c) fin.position()
(d) none of the above
Answer: (b) fin.seek(pos)

CH-3 WORKING WITH PYTHON

1. The function definition does not execute –

a. Function body
b. Parameters
c. Function Header
d. All of the above
Ans: a. Function body
2. The flow of execution refers to the _____ in which statements are executed during a program run.
a. Number
b. Type
c. Order
d. Value
Ans: c. Order
3. Consider the following function call statement:
Multiply(p,5)
here p and 5 are ?
a. variable and expression argument
b. literal and variable argument
c. variable argument and literal
d. None of the above
Ans: c. variable argument and literal
4. What is the area of memory called which stores the parameters and local variables of a function call?
a. A Heap
b. Storage area
c. A Stack
d. An Array
Ans: c. A Stack
5. Which of the following function is a built in function?
a. seed()
b. from()
c. sqrt()
d. for()
Ans: c. sqrt()
6. What are the outcomes of the functions shown below?
Sum(2,4,6)
Sum([1,2,3])

a. Error, 6
b. 12, Error
c. 12, 6
d. Error, Error
Ans: a. Error, 6
7. What is the output of the expression?
round(4.5676,2)
a. 4.5
b. 4.6
c. 4.57
d. 4.56
Ans: c. 4.57

8. Which of the following is the use of function in python?

a. Functions are reusable pieces of programs
b. Functions don’t provide better modularity for your application
c. you can’t also create your own functions
d. All of the mentioned
Ans: a. Functions are reusable pieces of programs

9. What is the output of the below program?

x = 50
def func():
global x
print('x is', x)
x=2
print('Changed global x to', x)
func()
print('Value of x is', x)

a. x is 50
Changed global x to 2
Value of x is 50
b. x is 50
Changed global x to 2
Value of x is 2
c. x is 50
Changed global x to 50
Value of x is 50
d. None of the mentioned
Ans: b. x is 50
Changed global x to 2
Value of x is 2
10. What is the output of below program?
def say(message, times = 1):
print(message * times)
say('Hello')
say('World', 5)
 a. Hello and WorldWorldWorldWorldWorld
b. Hello and World 5
c. Hello and World,World,World,World,World
d. Hello and HelloHelloHelloHelloHello
Ans: a. Hello and WorldWorldWorldWorldWorld
11. What is the output of the below program?
def C2F(c):
return c * 9/5 + 32
print C2F(100)
print C2F(0)

a. 212 and 32
b. 314 and 24
c. 567 and 98
d. None of the mentioned
Ans: a. 212 and 32
12. Arpita of class XII was writing a function code but missed some lines in between. Help her to
complete the code
……… func(message, num=1): #line 1
……(message*num) #line 2
………….. #line 3
(i) Line 1 will be replaced by:
a. call b. def c. invoke d. None
Ans: b. def
(ii) Line 2 missed :
a. input b. print c. for d. if
Ans: b. print
(iii) In Line 3 what she need to write to call a function?
a. func( ) b. func(‘Python’) c. func(‘Python’, 3) d. Both b and c
Ans: d. Both b and c
13. Ankit have a group of 3 friends. One day they learn about functions used in Python. They started
their discussion on its use , scope, terms used in functions. They start questioning each other about the
terms used in chapter. Help them to find answers of following questions
(i) A name inside the parentheses of a function header that can receive a value?
a. Formal argument b. Actual argument c. Global argument
Ans: a. Formal argument
(ii) A name defined outside of all function definitions
a. Formal argument b. Actual argument c. Global variable
Ans: c. Global argument
(iii) A variable created inside a function body
a. Local variable b. Universal variable c. Global variable
Ans : a. Local variable
14. What is the output of the code shown below?
e="butter"
def f(a):
print(a)+e
f("bitter")
a. error
b. butter error
c. bitter error
d. bitterbutter
Ans: d. bitterbutter
15. What is the output of this code?
def f():
x=4
 x=1
f()

a Error
b. 4
c. Junk value
d. 1
Ans: d. 1
16. Which keyword is use for function?
a. Fun
b. Define
c. def
d. Function
Ans: c. def
17. Where is function defined?
a. Module
b. Class
c. Another function
d. All of the mentioned
Ans: d. All of the mentioned
18. How are default arguments specified in the function heading?
a. identifier followed by an equal to sign and the default value
b. identifier followed by the default value within backticks (“)
c. identifier followed by the default value within square brackets ([])
d. identifier
Ans: a. identifier followed by an equal to sign and the default value
19. What is the error in the following code:
def fun(a=1,b): ?
a. Non default arguments cannot follow default arguments
b. Non default arguments can follow default arguments
c. No error
d. Invalid syntax
Ans: a. Non default arguments cannot follow default arguments
20. What is the order of resolving scope of a name in a Python program?
(L: Local namespace, E: Enclosing namespace, B: Builtin namespace, G: Global namespace)
a. B G E L
b. L E G B
c. G E B L
d. L B E G
Ans: b. L E G B

CH-4 USING PYTHON LIBRARIES

1. Which of these definitions correctly describes a module?
a. Denoted by triple quotes for providing the specification of certain program elements
b. Design and implementation of specific functionality to be incorporated into a
program
c. Defines the specification of how it is to be used
d. Any program that reuses code
Ans: b. Design and implementation of specific functionality to be incorporated into a
Program

2. Which of the following is not a valid namespace?

a. Global namespace
b. Public namespace
 c. Built-in namespace
d. Local namespace
Ans: b. Public namespace

3. A Python module has ______ extension

a. .mod
b. .imp
c. .py
d. ,mpy
Ans: c. .py

4. Which of the following is false about “import modulename” form of import?

a. The namespace of imported module becomes part of importing module
b. This form of import prevents name clash
c. The namespace of imported module becomes available to importing module
d. The identifiers in module are accessed as: modulename.identifier
Ans: a. The namespace of imported module becomes part of importing module

5. What is the output of the following piece of code?

from math import factorial
print(math.factorial(5))
a. 120
b. Nothing is printed
c. Error, method factorial doesn’t exist in math module
d. Error, the statement should be: print(factorial(5))
Ans: d. Error, the statement should be: print(factorial(5))

6. What is returned by math.ceil(3.4)?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 4.0 d. 3.0
Ans: b. 4

7. To include the use of functions which are present in the random library, we must use the option:
a. import random
b. random.h
c. import.random
d. random.random
Ans: a. import random

8. What is the output of the function shown below if the random module has already been
imported?
random.randint(3.5,7)
a. Error
b. Any integer between 3.5 and 7, including 7
c. Any integer between 3.5 and 7, excluding 7
d. The integer closest to the mean of 3.5 and 7
Ans: a. Error

9. What is the value returned by math.floor(3.4)?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 4.0 d. 3.0
Ans: a. 3

10. Which file must be a part of a folder to be used as a Python package?

a. package.py
b. _init_.py
 c. _package_.py
d. _module.py_
Ans: b. _init_.py

11. Ankita has used some predefined functions in her program like sin() and randint(). But when she
executes the program , it display error(s) that she hadn’t included required module. Help her to find
which Python Library module she needs to import?
a. math and trig module
b. random and string module
c. math and random module
d. random module only
Ans: c. math and random module

12. Read the following incomplete code snippet and answer the questions following it.
import …….. #Line1
Pick= ….. . randint(0,3) #Line2
City= [“Delhi’,”Mumbai”,:Chennai”]
for I in city:
for j in …..(1,Pick): #Line3
print(I, end=””)

(i)Identify the suitable code for blank space marked in Line1

a. math b. random c. math, random d. None of the above
Ans: b. random
(ii)Choose the keyword to be used in the given space of Line2
a. math b. math, random
c. date and time d. random
Ans: d. random
(iii) Which function will be used in Line3?
a. sqrt b. range c. limit d. min
Ans: b. range

13. Which is the correct command to load just the tempc method from a module called usable?
a. import usable, tempc
b. import tempc from usable
c. from usable import tempc
d. import tempc
Ans : c. from usable import tempc
14. The help <module> statement displays____ from a module
a. constants b. functions c. classess d. docstrings
Ans: d. docstrings

15. What is the value returned by math.fact(6)?

a. 720 b. 6 c. [1, 2, 3, 6]. d. error
Ans: d. error

16. Which of the following is false about “from-import” form of import?

a. The syntax is: from modulename import identifier
b. This form of import prevents name clash
c. The namespace of imported module becomes part of importing module
d. The identifiers in module are accessed directly as: identifier
Ans: b. This form of import prevents name clash

17. Read the following code snippet carefully and answer the questions following it-:
 import math
a= int(math.pow(3,2)) #Line1
b=math.exp(p) #Line2
x = math.isfinite(float(‘0.0’)) #Line3
(i) What will get stored in variable a of Line1?
a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 0
Ans: c. 9
(ii) What is the alternate way of writing exp() in Line2?
a. (math.e ** p) – 1 b. math.e ** (p – 1)
c. error d.none of the mentioned
Ans: a. (math.e ** p) – 1
(iii) What will x return in Line3?
a. True b. False c. None d. error
Ans: a. True

18. Which of the following aren’t defined in the math module?

a. log2() b. log10()
c. logx() d. none of the mentioned
Ans: c. logx()

19. All modular designs are because of a top-down design process? True or False?
a.True b.False
Ans: b.False

20. Which of the following random module function generates a floating point number?
a. random() b. randint() c. uniform() d. all of the above
Ans: b. randint()

FILE HANDLING (CSV FILES)

Q1. Sonal, a student of class 12th, is learning CSV File Module in Python. During examination, she
has been assigned an incomplete python code (shown below) to create a CSV file 'Customer.csv'
(content shown below). Help her in completing the code which creates the desired CSV file.
Cus_No Name Address Ph_No
11 Rohit Mumbai 8567843243
22 Sonal New Delhi 9645342345
Incomplete Code
______ csv #Statement 1
def Create_CSV():
fw=open("Customer.csv","w")
_______=csv.writer(fw) #Statement 2
Cuswriter.writerow(["Cus_No","Name","Address","Ph_No"])
n=int(input("Enter total number of Customer"))
for i in range(n):
Cusno=int(input("Enter Customer no."))
 Name=input("Enter Name")
Add=input("Enter Address")
Ph_No=int(input("Enter Phone No."))
Rec=[Cusno,Name,Add,Ph_No]
Cuswriter.writerow(____) #Statement 3
fw.close()
def Display_CSV():
fr=open("__________","r") #Statement 4
Cusreader=csv.reader(fr)
i=0
for ____ in Cusreader: #Statement 5
if i%2==0:
print(rec[0],'\t',rec[1],'\t',rec[2],'\t',rec[3])

else:
pass
i+=1
fr.close()
Create_CSV()
Display_CSV()
(i) Identify suitable code for the blank space in line marked as Statement-1.
(a) include
(b) add
(c) Import
(d) import
Answer: (d) import.
(ii) Identify the missing code for the blank space in line marked as Statement-2.
(a) Customer
(b) reader
(c) Cuswriter
(d) writer
Answer: (c) Cuswriter
(iii) Identify the argument name for the blank space in line marked as Statement-3?
(a) Row
(b) Rec
 (c) row
(d) rec
Answer: (b) Rec
(iv) Identify the missing file name for the blank space in line marked as Statement-4?
(a) Customer
(b) Customer.csv
(c) Customer.txt
(d) Customer.dat
Answer: (b) Customer.csv
(v) Identify the object name for the blank space in line marked as Statement-5?
(a) i
(b) Rec
(c) row
(d) rec
Answer: (d) rec
Q2. Mohan has written following program to create a CSV file “File_extent.csv” which will contain
file types and file extensions for some records. As a programmer, help him to successfully execute the
given task:
import ______ # Statement 1
def adddata(filetype,extension): # To write /add data into the file
f=open(______,_____,newline='') # Statement 2
newFileWriter = csv.writer(f)
newFileWriter.writerow([filetype,extension])
f.close()
#Csv file reading code
def readdata(filename): # To read data
with open(filename,'r') as f:
filereader = csv.______(f) # Statement 3
for row in filereader:
print (row[0],row[1])
f._______ # Statement 4
adddata("Notepad","txt")
adddata("Word","docx")
adddata("Excel","xlsx")
adddata("PowerPoint","pptx")
readdata("________") #Statement 5
(i) Identify the module he should import for Statement 1.
(a) math
(b) csv
(c) pickle
(d) random
Answer: (b) csv
(ii) Choose the correct option for Statement 2 to open file name and mode. (Suresh should open the file
to add data into the file)
(a) “File_extent.csv”,”r”
(b) “File_extent.csv”,”w”
(c) “File_extent.csv”,”a”
(d) “File_extent.csv”,”w+”
Answer: (c) “File_extent.csv”,”a”
(iii) Choose the correct option for Statement 3 to read the data from a csv file.
(a) read()
(b) readline()
(c) load()
(d) reader
Answer: (d) reader
(iv) Choose the correct option for Statement 4 to close the file.
(a) end()
(b) close()
(c) close
(d) from
Answer: (b) close()
(v) Choose the correct option for Statement 5 to send the file name as parameter.
(a) “File_extent.csv”
(b) File_extent.csv
(c) File_extent
(d) .csv
Answer: (b) File_extent.csv
Q3. Ashok Kumar of class 12 is writing a program to create a CSV file “empdata.csv” with empid,
name & mobile number. Also to search a particular empid and display its record details. He has written
the following code. As a programmer, help him to successfully execute the given task.
import ______ #Line1
fields=['empid','name','mobile_no']
rows=[['101','Rohit','8982345659'],['102','Shaurya','8974564589'],['103','Deep','8753695421'],['104','P
rerna','9889984567'],['105','Lakshya','7698459876']]
filename="empdata.csv"
f=open(filename,'w',newline='')
csv_w=csv.writer(f)
csv_w._________ #Line2
for row in rows:
csv_w.______ #Line3
f.close()
f=open(filename,'r')
csv_r=________ #Line4
ans='y'
while ans=='y':
found=False
emplid=input("Enter employee id to search=")
for row in csv_r:
if len(row)!=0:
if _______==emplid: #Line5
print("Name : ",row[1])
print("Mobile No : ",row[2])
found=True
break
if not found:
print("Employee id not found")
ans=input("Do you want to search more? (y)")

(i) Choose the module he should import in Line 1.

(a) math
(b) pickle
(c) csv
(d) random
Answer: (c) csv
(ii) Choose a code to write the fields (column heading) from fields list in Line2.
(a) writerows(fields)
(b) writerow(field)
(c) writerow(fields)
(d) writerows(fields)
Answer (c) writerow(fields)

(iii) Choose a code to write the row from rows list in Line3.
(a) writerows(row)
(b) writerow(row)
(c ) writerow(rows)
(d) write_row(row)
Answer : (b) writerow(row)

(iv) Choose a code for line 4 to read the data from a csv file.
(a) csv.reader(f)
(b) csv.read(f)
(d) pickle.load(f)
(e) f.read()
Answer: (a) csv.reader(f)
 (v) Choose the correct variable (list value) to check “emplid” in Line5.
(a) Row[0]
(b) Rec[0]
(c) row[0]
(d) rec[0]
Answer: row[0]

4. Sumit is making a software on “Countries and their Capitals” in which various records are to be
stored/retrieved in “CAPITAL.CSV” data file. It consists of few records of Countries and their
Capitals. He has written the following code in python. As a programmer, you have to help him to
successfully execute the program.
import csv
# Fn. to add a new record in CSV file
def _________(Country,Capital): # Statement-1
f=open("CAPITAL.CSV","__") # Statement-2
fwriter=csv.writer(f)
fwriter.writerow([_____]) # Statement-3
f.close()
def ShowRec(): # Fn. to display all records from CSV file
with open("CAPITAL.CSV","r") as NF:
NewReader=csv._____ (NF) # Statement-4
for rec in NewReader:
if len(rec)!=0:
print(rec[0],rec[1])
AddNewRec("INDIA","NEW DELHI")
AddNewRec("CHINA","BEIJING")
ShowRec() # Statement-5
(i) Choose the Name of the function in Statement-1.
(a) AddNewRec
(b) Addnew
(c) Addrec
(d) AddNewRec()
Answer: (a) AddNewRec
(ii) Choose the file mode to be passed to add new records in Statement-2.
(a) w
(b) r
(c) w+
(d) a
Answer: (d)a
(iii) Identify the correct variables in Statement-3 to store data to the file.
(a) country,capital
(b) Country,Capital
(c) Coun,Cap
(d) [Country,Capital]
 Answer: (b) Country, Capital
(iv) Choose the correct option for Statement-4 to read the data from a csv file.
(a) Reader()
(b) reader()
(c) read
(d) reader
Answer: (d) reader
(v) Choose the output which will come after executing Statement-5.
(a) ‘INDIA NEW DELHI’
‘CHINA BEIJING’
(b) ‘INDIA’ ‘NEW DELHI’
‘CHINA’ ‘BEIJING’
(c) INDIA NEW DELHI
CHINA BEIJING
(d) All the above
Answer: (c) INDIA NEW DELHI
CHINA BEIJING

Q5. Choose the possible output from the following code:

import csv
def addFile(Name,Phno):
f=open("Diary.csv","a",newline='')
newFileWriter = csv.writer(f)
newFileWriter.writerow([Name,Phno])
f.close()
def readFile():
with open("Diary.csv",'r') as f:
filereader = csv.reader(f)
for row in filereader:
print (row[0],row[1])
f.close()
addFile("SOMU","9867564534")
addFile("KRISH","9678564534")
readFile()
(a) KRISH 9678564534
SOMU 9867564534
(b) SOMU 9867564534
KRISH 9678564534
(c) somu 9867564534
krish 9678564534
(d) ‘SOMU’ 9867564534
‘KRISH’ 9678564534
 Answer: (b) SOMU 9867564534
KRISH 9678564534
Q6. To open a file c:\scores.csv for reading, we use _______ command.
(a) infile = open(“c:\scores.csv”, “r”)
(b) infile = open(“c:\\scores.csv”, “r”)
(c) infile = open(file = “c:\scores.csv”, “r”)
(d) infile = open(file = “c:\\scores.csv”, “r”)
Answer: (b) infile = open(“c:\\scores.csv”, “r”)
Q7. State True/False :
(i) The csv files are Binary Files:
(a) True
(b) False
Answer: (b) False
Q8. Which of the following statement(s) are true for csv files?
(a) When you open a file for reading, if the file does not exist, an error occurs
(b) When you open a file for writing, if the file does not exist, a new file is created
(c) When you open a file for writing, if the file exists, the existing file is overwritten
with the new file
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above
Q9. To read the entire content of the CSV file as a nested list from a file object infile, we
use __________ command.
(a) infile.read()
(b) infile.reader()
(c) csv.reader(infile)
(d) infile.readlines()
Answer: (c) csv.reader(infile)
Q10. State True/False :
The separator character of csv files is called delimiter.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer: (a) True
Q11. The full form of CSV is
(a) Comma Separated Values
(b) Comma Separated Value
 (c) Comma Separated Variables
(d) Comma Separate Values
Answer: (a) Comma Separated Values
Q12. State True/False:
The CSV files only take comma as delimiter.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer: (b) False
Q13. EOL character used in windows operating system in CSV file is
(a) \r
(b) \n
(c) \r\n
(d) \0
Answer: (c) \r\n
Q14. The CSV files are popular because they are
(a) capable of storing large amount of data
(b) easier to create
(c) preferred export and import format for databases and spread sheets
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above
Q15. The default delimiter character of CSV file is____.
(a) : (colon)
(b)\t (tab)
(c) , (comma)
(d) ; (semi-colon)
Answer: (c) , (comma)
Q16. State True/False:
A CSV file is open in the same way as text file.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer: (a) True
Q17. Which of the following is not a valid mode to open CSV file?
(a) a
(b) w
(c) ab
 (d) r
Answer: (c) ab
Q18. The file mode to open a CSV file for appending as well as reading is _____.
(a) a+
(b) w+
(c) r+
(d) All the above.
Answer: (a) a+
Q19. The file mode to open a CSV file for reading as well as writing is _____.
(a) a+
(b) w+
(c) r+
(d) All the above.
Answer: (a) r+
Q20. The CSV files are ____ files.
(a) Text
(b) Binary
(c) Data
(d) Python
Answer: (a) Text

1. Which of the following is an invalid identifier in Python

(a) H_e_wel_123
(b) Assert
(c) _
(d) in
Answer: (d) in
2. Which of the following is an invalid keyword in Python
(a) eval
(b) assert
(c) nonlocal
(d) import
Answer: (a) eval
3. Which of the following is invalid statement in Python
(a) _hello_=25
(b) __he_123=25
(c) _m=25
(d) None of the mentioned
Answer: (d) None of the mentioned
4. Evaluate the following expression :
3+4*2%8+12//6-2%9**2**1
(a) 11
(b) 3
(c) 17
(d) 1
Answer: (b)
5. Which of the following is a valid membership operator in Python
(a) and
(b) or
(c) in
(d) like
Answer: (c)
6. Write the output of the following code segment :
for i in range(-1,-6,-5):
print(i*i)
(a) 1
(b) 1
36
(c) Error
(d) Infinite loop
Answer: (a) 1
7. Consider the following string :
str=”Welcome_to_Computer_Science”
str1=str[-15:15]
print(str1**2)
(a) omp
(b) ompomp
(c) omp2
(d) Error
Answer: (d) Error
8. Which of the following is false in Python
(a) append() creates a new list rather than modifying the list on which it is operated
(b) Lists and strings in Python support two way indexing
(c) Lists , tuples and dictionaries can be nested
(d) Keys in dictionary must be immutable type
Answer: (a)
9. Assertion : We can use a list as a key in a dictionary
Reason : List is a mutable type and keys of dictionary must be an immutable type
(a) Both the assertion and reason is true and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(b) Assertion is true and reason is false and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is false but the reason is true and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(d) Both the assertion and reason are false
Answer: (c) Assertion is false and reason is true
10. Assertion : pop() is used to remove an element from list but not the tuple
 Reason : List and tuples support two way indexing
(a) Both the assertion and reason is true and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(b) Assertion is true and reason is true and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is false but the reason is true and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(d) Both the assertion and reason are false
Answer : (b) Assertion is true and reason is true and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion
11. What is the output of the following code segment :
fruits={}
dresses={}
toys={}
fruits[1]=”mango”
fruits[2]=”papaya”
dresses[3]=”frock”
toys[‘Fruits’]=fruits
toys[‘Dresses’]=dresses
print(toys)
(a) Error
(b) {'Fruits': {1: 'mango', 2: 'papaya'}, 'Dresses': {3: 'frock'}}
(c) {'Fruits': {1: 'mango', 2: 'papaya'}}
(d) {'Fruits': {1: 'mango'}, 'Dresses': {3: 'frock'}}
Answer: (b) {'Fruits': {1: 'mango', 2: 'papaya'}, 'Dresses': {3: 'frock'}}
12. Which of the following is false about dictionary
(a) More than one key is not allowed
(b) Keys must be immutable
(c) Keys must be strings
(d) In case of duplicate keys last assignment wins
Answer: (c ) Keys must be strings
13. What is the output of the following code snippet :
dict={“A”:1 ,”B” : 2 , “C”:3}
print(dict.get(“B”,6))
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) B
(d) Error
Answer: (a) 2
14. What is the output of the following code snippet :
dict={“A”:1 ,”B” : 2 , “C”:3}
dict1=dict.copy()
dict1[“B”]=”C”
print(dict)
(a) {“A”:1,”B”:”C”,”C”:3}
(b) {"A":1 ,"B" : 2 , "C":3}
(c) {"A":1 ,"B" : 2 , “B” :”C” , "C":3}
(d) Error
Answer: (b) {"A":1 ,"B" : 2 , "C":3}
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
15. Amit is planning to give a birthday party for his father’s 50 birthday . For arranging the birthday party ,
he needs to have a list of items from the nearby grocery store , suppose he has created a following list
of items to be purchased
 Items=[“cake”, ”balloons” ,”pizza”, ”burger”]
a) Suppose If before going to the store his mother gives him another list , vegetable=[“tomato”, ”onion”]
Amit writes the following code separately :
# CODE 1
list=items. extend (vegetable)
print(len(list))
# CODE 2
list1=items. append (vegetable)
print(len(list1))
What will be the outputs of the following
(a) Code 1 : 5 Code 2 : 6
(b) Code 1 : 6 Code 2: 5
(c) Code 1: 5 Code 2: 5
(d) Code1: 6 Code 2: 6
Answer: (b) Code 1 : 6 Code 2: 5
b) Suppose If before going to the store his mother gives him another list , vegetable=[“tomato”, ”onion”]
Amit writes the following code:
List=items. extend (vegetable)
Print(list)
Tell him the output of the following :
(a) [[“cake” , ”balloons”, ”pizza”, ”burger”],[“tomato”, ”onion”]]
(b) [“cake”, ”balloons”, ”pizza”, ”burger”,[“tomato”, ”onion”]]
(c) [“cake”, ”balloons”, ”pizza”, ”burger”, “tomato”, ”onion”]
(d) None of the above
Answer: ( c) [“cake”, ”balloons”, ”pizza”, ”burger”, “tomato”, ”onion”]
c) Now Amit has the two list :
Items=[“cake”,”balloons”,”pizza”,”burger”]
vegetable=[“tomato”, ”onion”]
Now Amit wants to delete the last element of list items
Help him to do so
(a) del Items[3]
(b) pop(3)
(c) pop()
(d) Any of he above
Answer: (d) Any of the above
d) Help Amit to add “icecream” as second element in list Items
Items=[“cake”,”balloons”,”pizza”,”burger”]
(a) Items.insert (1, ”icecream”)
(b) Items.insert(2, ”icecream”)
(c) Items.insert(“icecream”)
(d) Items.insert(4,”icecream”)
Answer: (a) Items.insert(1,”icecream”)
e) Suppose Amit wants to create a list items in alphabetical order , tell him the best suitable statement to
do so
(a) Items. sort(reverse=”True”)
print(Items)
(b) print(Items. sort())
(c) print(Items. sort(reverse=”True”))
(d) Items. sort()
print(Items)
Answer: (d) Items. sort()
print(Items)
16. Suppose list L is declared as L = [0.2 * i for i in range (0,5)], list L is
(a) [0,0.2,0.4,0.6,0.8,1.0]
(b) [0,1,2,3,4]
(c) [0,0.2,0.4,0.6,0.8]
(d) [0,1,2,3,4,5]
Answer: (c) [0,0.2,0.4,0.6,0.8]
17. Suppose a tuple is declared as follows:
tup=((1,2,3,(“A”,”B”,”C”),(“cat”, ”dog”)))
print(len(tup))
What is the output of the statement
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 9
(d) 5
Answer: (d) 5
18. Find the odd one out in the listed operations :
(a) /=
(b) **==
(c) >=
(d) //==
Answer: (c) >=
19. Suppose a tuple is declared as follows :
tup =(1,2,3,4,5)
Guess the minimum value for K so that the code prints “index out of range error”
for i in range(K)
print(tup[i])
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3
Answer: (b) 5
20. Find the output of the following code segment :
dict={“A”:”Toy”,”B”:”Fruit”,”C”:”Dress”}
for i in dict:
print(i)
(a) “A”
“B”
“C”
(b) “Toy”
“Fruit”
“Dress”
(c) “A”
“B”
“C”
“Toy”
“Fruit”
“Dress”
(d) Error
Answer: (a) “A”
“B”
“C”
CHAPTER
1. Which of the following is an invalid identifier in Python
(e) H_e_wel_123
(f) Assert
(g) _
(h) in
Answer: (d) in
2. Which of the following is an invalid keyword in Python
(e) eval
(f) assert
(g) nonlocal
(h) import
Answer: (a) eval
3. Which of the following is invalid statement in Python
(e) _hello_=25
(f) __he_123=25
(g) _m=25
(h) None of the mentioned
Answer: (d) None of the mentioned
4. Evaluate the following expression :
3+4*2%8+12//6-2%9**2**1
(e) 11
(f) 3
(g) 17
(h) 1
Answer: (b)
5. Which of the following is a valid membership operator in Python
(e) and
(f) or
(g) in
(h) like
Answer: (c)
6. Write the output of the following code segment :
for i in range(-1,-6,-5):
print(i*i)
(e) 1
(f) 1
36
(g) Error
(h) Infinite loop
Answer: (a) 1
7. Consider the following string :
str=”Welcome_to_Computer_Science”
str1=str[-15:15]
print(str1**2)
(e) omp
(f) ompomp
(g) omp2
(h) Error
Answer: (d) Error
8. Which of the following is false in Python
(e) append() creates a new list rather than modifying the list on which it is operated
(f) Lists and strings in Python support two way indexing
(g) Lists , tuples and dictionaries can be nested
(h) Keys in dictionary must be immutable type
Answer: (a)
9. Assertion : We can use a list as a key in a dictionary
Reason : List is a mutable type and keys of dictionary must be an immutable type
(e) Both the assertion and reason is true and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(f) Assertion is true and reason is false and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(g) Assertion is false but the reason is true and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(h) Both the assertion and reason are false
Answer: (c) Assertion is false and reason is true
10. Assertion : pop() is used to remove an element from list but not the tuple
Reason : List and tuples support two way indexing
(e) Both the assertion and reason is true and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(f) Assertion is true and reason is true and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion
(g) Assertion is false but the reason is true and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(h) Both the assertion and reason are false
Answer : (b) Assertion is true and reason is true and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion
11. What is the output of the following code segment :
fruits={}
dresses={}
toys={}
fruits[1]=”mango”
fruits[2]=”papaya”
dresses[3]=”frock”
toys[‘Fruits’]=fruits
toys[‘Dresses’]=dresses
print(toys)
(e) Error
(f) {'Fruits': {1: 'mango', 2: 'papaya'}, 'Dresses': {3: 'frock'}}
(g) {'Fruits': {1: 'mango', 2: 'papaya'}}
(h) {'Fruits': {1: 'mango'}, 'Dresses': {3: 'frock'}}
 Answer: (b) {'Fruits': {1: 'mango', 2: 'papaya'}, 'Dresses': {3: 'frock'}}
12. Which of the following is false about dictionary
(e) More than one key is not allowed
(f) Keys must be immutable
(g) Keys must be strings
(h) In case of duplicate keys last assignment wins
Answer: (c ) Keys must be strings
13. What is the output of the following code snippet :
dict={“A”:1 ,”B” : 2 , “C”:3}
print(dict.get(“B”,6))
(e) 2
(f) 6
(g) B
(h) Error
Answer: (a) 2
14. What is the output of the following code snippet :
dict={“A”:1 ,”B” : 2 , “C”:3}
dict1=dict.copy()
dict1[“B”]=”C”
print(dict)
(e) {“A”:1,”B”:”C”,”C”:3}
(f) {"A":1 ,"B" : 2 , "C":3}
(g) {"A":1 ,"B" : 2 , “B” :”C” , "C":3}
(h) Error
Answer: (b) {"A":1 ,"B" : 2 , "C":3}
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
15. Amit is planning to give a birthday party for his father’s 50 birthday . For arranging the birthday party ,
he needs to have a list of items from the nearby grocery store , suppose he has created a following list
of items to be purchased
Items=[“cake”, ”balloons” ,”pizza”, ”burger”]
f) Suppose If before going to the store his mother gives him another list , vegetable=[“tomato”, ”onion”]
Amit writes the following code separately :
# CODE 1
list=items. extend (vegetable)
print(len(list))
# CODE 2
list1=items. append (vegetable)
print(len(list1))
What will be the outputs of the following
(e) Code 1 : 5 Code 2 : 6
(f) Code 1 : 6 Code 2: 5
(g) Code 1: 5 Code 2: 5
(h) Code1: 6 Code 2: 6
Answer: (b) Code 1 : 6 Code 2: 5
g) Suppose If before going to the store his mother gives him another list , vegetable=[“tomato”, ”onion”]
Amit writes the following code:
 List=items. extend (vegetable)
Print(list)
Tell him the output of the following :
(e) [[“cake” , ”balloons”, ”pizza”, ”burger”],[“tomato”, ”onion”]]
(f) [“cake”, ”balloons”, ”pizza”, ”burger”,[“tomato”, ”onion”]]
(g) [“cake”, ”balloons”, ”pizza”, ”burger”, “tomato”, ”onion”]
(h) None of the above
Answer: ( c) [“cake”, ”balloons”, ”pizza”, ”burger”, “tomato”, ”onion”]
h) Now Amit has the two list :
Items=[“cake”,”balloons”,”pizza”,”burger”]
vegetable=[“tomato”, ”onion”]
Now Amit wants to delete the last element of list items
Help him to do so
(e) del Items[3]
(f) pop(3)
(g) pop()
(h) Any of he above
Answer: (d) Any of the above
i) Help Amit to add “icecream” as second element in list Items
Items=[“cake”,”balloons”,”pizza”,”burger”]
(e) Items.insert (1, ”icecream”)
(f) Items.insert(2, ”icecream”)
(g) Items.insert(“icecream”)
(h) Items.insert(4,”icecream”)
Answer: (a) Items.insert(1,”icecream”)
j) Suppose Amit wants to create a list items in alphabetical order , tell him the best suitable statement to
do so
(e) Items. sort(reverse=”True”)
print(Items)
(f) print(Items. sort())
(g) print(Items. sort(reverse=”True”))
(h) Items. sort()
print(Items)
Answer: (d) Items. sort()
print(Items)
16. Suppose list L is declared as L = [0.2 * i for i in range (0,5)], list L is
(e) [0,0.2,0.4,0.6,0.8,1.0]
(f) [0,1,2,3,4]
(g) [0,0.2,0.4,0.6,0.8]
(h) [0,1,2,3,4,5]
Answer: (c) [0,0.2,0.4,0.6,0.8]
17. Suppose a tuple is declared as follows:
tup=((1,2,3,(“A”,”B”,”C”),(“cat”, ”dog”)))
print(len(tup))
What is the output of the statement
(e) 1
(f) 3
(g) 9
(h) 5
Answer: (d) 5
18. Find the odd one out in the listed operations :
(e) /=
(f) **==
(g) >=
(h) //==
Answer: (c) >=
19. Suppose a tuple is declared as follows :
tup =(1,2,3,4,5)
Guess the minimum value for K so that the code prints “index out of range error”
for i in range(K)
print(tup[i])
(e) 4
(f) 5
(g) 6
(h) 3
Answer: (b) 5
20. Find the output of the following code segment :
dict={“A”:”Toy”,”B”:”Fruit”,”C”:”Dress”}
for i in dict:
print(i)
(e) “A”
“B”
“C”
(f) “Toy”
“Fruit”
“Dress”
(g) “A”
“B”
“C”
“Toy”
“Fruit”
“Dress”
(h) Error
Answer: (a) “A” “B” “C”
 CLASS- XII
SUBJECT -ECONOMICS
IED CHAPTER : 1
(Indian Economy On the Eve of Independence )
Read the following statement- Assertion (A) Reason (R)
Q.1
Assertion (A): The two important industries which were adversely affected by
partition were Cotton textile and Jute industry.
Reason (R): India faced problem of rehabilitation of large number of refugees from
Pakistan

Select the correct alternative from the following:-

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

Ans:
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion

Q.2
Assertion (A): The British introduced the railways in India in 1850 and it is considered
as one of their most important contributions.
Reason (R): Along with the development of roads and railways, the colonial
dispensation also took measures for developing the inland trade and sea lanes.

Select the correct alternative from the following :-

a. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
b. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
c. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Ans:
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)

Q
3. Assertion Postal services in colonial India were replaced by the expensive electric

Reason – Electric telegraph was introduced primarily to serve the Britisher’s interest.

Select the correct alternative from the following :-

a) Both Assertion and Reason are True and Reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) Both Assertion and Reason are True and Reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion is false but reason is true
Ans:
(b) Assertion is false but reason is true
Q The British introduced the railways in India in ________ ( 1853/ 1850)
4.

Ans: 1850

Q The economic policies pursued by the colonial government in India were concerned more with
5. the protection and promotion of the economic interests of India. (True / False)

Ans: False

Q ------------- refers to the average number of years for which people are expected to live?
6. (a) Infant mortality
(b) Life expectancy
(c) Low life expectancy
(d) None of these

Ans: (b) Life expectancy

Q Occupational structure refers to

7. (a )Distribution of working force among different occupations
(b) Nature of different occupations
(c)Size of working force in a country
(d) Number of people living in a country

Ans: (a) Distribution of working force among different occupations

Q 8 --------------- means production of crops for sale in the market rather than for self-consumption.

(a) Commercialization of agriculture

(b) Commercialization of vegetable

(c) Commercialization of fruits

(d) All of the above

Ans : (a) Commercialization of agriculture

CASE STUDIES:-
Q Before 1947, More than 90% of the national income relied on the Indian agricultural sector.
9. A significant portion of the country’s population resided in rural areas where agriculture
was the primary source of livelihood. The pre-colonised India produced primary two crops,
wheat and rice. Even if it was only two types of crops, country’s agriculture sector was
sustainable and self-sufficient. The British invasion resulted in total commercialization of
 India’s agriculture industry. On the eve of Independence the one most prominent sector of
this country was known to be suffering from stagnation and constant degradation.
Questions:
1. What is meant by commercialisation of agriculture?
(a) Production of crops for sale in the market
(b) Production of crops for self-consumption
(c) None
(d) Both

2. Reason for low productivity in agriculture sector

(a) HYV seeds
(b) low level of technology
(c) improved irrigation system
(d) all of these

3. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the zamindari system:-
1. The profit accruing out of the agriculture sector was proposed to go to the cultivators.
2. The main interest of the zamindars was only to collect the rent regardless of the iconic
condition of the cultivators
(a) Both are correct
(b) both are incorrect
(c) (i)correct (ii)incorrect
(d) (i) incorrect (ii)correct

Ans: 1 (a) Production of crops for sale in the market

2 (b) low level of technology
3 (d) (i) incorrect (ii)correct

Q By the time India won its independence the impact of the two century long British colonial rule
10 was already showing on all aspects of the Indian economy. The agricultural sector was already
saddled with surplus labour and extremely low productivity. The industrial sector was crying for
modernisation, diversification, capacity building and increased public investment. Foreign trade
was oriented to feed the industrial revolution in Britain.

1. The main reason for stagnation in agriculture during British rule was :
(a) Land settlement system
(b) De industrialization
(c) Lack of technology
(d) Commercialization of agriculture

2. Which industry received the major setback during the colonial rule?
(a) Cement. (b) Handicraft
(b) Paper. ( d) Iron and steel
3. At the time of Independence in the industry was crying for modernisation due to lack of
capital goods industries during British rule. (True/False)

4. Foreign trade was oriented to feed the industrial revolution in Britain as India became an -----
------- of primary products and an ------------- dash of finished consumer goods. ( Importer /
Exporter, Exporter / Import)

Ans: 1 (a) Land settlement system

2 (b) Handicraft
3 False
4 Exporter/ Importer
 Chapter- 2 ( Indian Economy 1950-1990)

Q 11 Assertion (A): Five-year plans give a big push to the basic and capital goods industries.

Reason (R): Indian economy is now ranked as the eleventh largest industrial economy
in the
world.
Select the correct alternative from the following :-
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion (A)
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Ans:
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

Q 12 Assertion : A good indicator of economic growth is steady increase in Gross

domestic
product (GDP).
Reason : GDP is the market value of all goods and services produced in a country during a
year

Select the correct Alternative from the following:

a. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of
Assertion (A)
b. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of
Assertion (A)
c. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Ans:
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation
of Assertion (A)

Q 13 Assertion (A): The major policy initiatives i.e. land reforms and Green revolution
helped
India to become self-sufficient in food grains production.
Reason (R): The proportion of people depending on agriculture did not decline as expected.

Select the correct alternative from the following :-

a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A .
 c) A is true R is false.
d) A is false and R is true.
Ans.
(d) A is false and R is true.

Full employment and equitable distribution of income and wealth are the _______ period
Q 14 objectives of planning in India. ( Long / Short)

Ans: Long

Q 15 Under Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR), 1956, Category II of the industrial sector includes
industries jointly owned and controlled by the private sector and the state. ( True/ False)

Ans: True

Q 16 Self –reliance is does not include

(a) To reduce our dependence on foreign countries, especially for food
(b) To reduce our dependence on foreign countries, especially for defence items
(c) Avoiding imports of those goods which could be produced in India itself
(d) To reduce the foreign interference in our policies.

Ans: To reduce our dependence on foreign countries, especially for defence items

Q17. Marketed surplus refers to the

(a) Portion of agriculture produce which is sold by the government
(b) Portion of agriculture produce which is sold by the farmers
(c) Earnings of the farmers which is left with the farmers
(d) Portion of agricultural product which is left with the farmers

Ans : (b) Portion of agriculture produce which is sold by the farmers

Q 18 During the initial stages of planning, special concession were given to the industries
producing goods to be used as substitutes for imported goods. This strategy was named as:
(a) Inward looking trade strategy
(b) Outward looking trade strategy
(c) Export promotion strategy
(d) None of these

Ans : (a) Inward looking trade strategy

Q 19 India which appears to have been pushed back to being the world’s 6th biggest economy in
2020, will again overtake the UK to become the 5th largest in 2025 and ace to the third spot
by 2030 , A think tank said on Saturday . India had overtaken the UK in 2019 to become fifth
largest economy in the world but has been relegated to 6th spot in 2020.

1. Which of the following is referred as a think tank of planning in India.

(a) Niti ayog of India
(b) National Development Council
(c) NABARD
(d) IDBI
2. The idea of five-year plans was borrowed from –----- ( Soviet union/ Denmark)
3. ———Finally approved the draft of Indian plans
(a)RBI (b) National Development Council
( c) Ayush Ministry (d) IDBI

Ans: 1 (a) Niti ayog of India 2 Soviet union 3 National Development Council

Q.20 The green revolution started in 1965 with the first introduction of HYV seeds in Indian
agriculture this was coupled with better than efficient irrigation and the correct use of
fertilisers to boost the crop. The end result of the green revolution was to make India self-
sufficient when it came to food grains.
After 1947 India had to rebuild its economy. Over three- quarters of the population depended
on agriculture in some way. But India was faced with several problems. Firstly the
productivity of grains was very low and India was still monsoon dependent because of lack
of education in at infrastructure.
There was also absence of modern technology. And India had previously faced severe
famines during the British Raj who had only promoted cash crops instead of food crops. The
idea was to never depend on any other country for food sufficiency.
So in 1965 the government with the help of Indian geneticists M.S. Swami Nathan, Known
as the father of Green Revolution, launched the Green Revolution. The moment lasted from
1967 to 1978 and was a great success.

1. Green Revolution is related with———-

(a) Modern technology
(b) Better irrigation facilities
(c) HYV seeds
(d) All of the above
2. Britishers encouraged Indian farmers to grow food crops ( True/False)

3. What was the need of revolution to make India———— Self-sufficient/ Modern

Ans:
1. (d) All of the above
2. False
3. Self - sufficient
 Government Budget and the Economy
Case Based Questions
Read the following article carefully and answer the question numbers 1 - 4 on the basis of the same.
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has pegged fiscal deficit for the coming year 2021-22 at 6.8% of
GDP and aims to bring it back below the 4.5% mark by 2025-26. The original fiscal deficit target for
2020-21 was 3.5%. However, in reality, the deficit shot up to a high of 9.5% of GDP due to the double
impact of the COVID-19 pandemic- low revenue flows due to the lockdown and negative economic
growth clubbed with the high government spending to provide essential relief to the vulnerable sections
of the society, as well as a stimulus package aimed at reviving domestic demand.

1. Deficit budget refers to a situation when:

(a) government’s budget expenditure is less than its budget receipts
(b) government’s budget expenditure is more than its budget receipts
(c) government’s budget expenditure is equal to its budget receipts
(d) government’s budget receipts are more than its budget expenditure
Answer: (b) government’s budget expenditure is more than its budget receipts

2. Fiscal deficit is equal to:

(a) Total expenditure -Total receipts other than borrowings
(b) Capital expenditure – Capital receipts
(c) Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts
(d) Revenue expenditure + Capital expenditure – Revenue receipts
Answer: (a) Total expenditure -Total receipts other than borrowings

3. Fiscal deficit is financed through:

(a) Borrowings
(b) Tax revenue receipts
(c) Disinvestment
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a) Borrowings

4. If fiscal deficit is ₹4000 crore and interest payments is ₹500 crore, then primary deficit is:
(a) ₹4,500 crore
(b) ₹ 3,500 crore
(c) ₹ 5,000 crore
(d) ₹ 4,200 crore
Answer: (b) ₹3,500 crore

Read the following article carefully and answer the question numbers 5 - 8 on the basis of the same.
Presenting the Union Budget for 2021-22, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said that the budget
proposals for this financial year rest on six pillars - health and well-being, physical and financial capital
and infrastructure, inclusive development for aspirational India, reinvigorating human capital, innovation
and R &D, and ‘Minimum Government, Maximum Governance’.
Significant announcements included a slew of hikes in customs duty to benefit Make in India, proposal to
disinvest two more public sector banks (PSBs) and a general insurance company, and numerous
infrastructure pledges to poll- bound states.

5. Disinvestment of a general insurance company is an example of:

(a) revenue receipt
(b) revenue expenditure
(c) capital receipt
(d) capital expenditure
Answer: (c) capital receipt

6. Expenditure on infrastructure is a capital expenditure because:

(a) It creates liability of the government
(b) It reduces assets of the government
(c) It increases assets of the government
(d) It neither creates any liability nor reduces any asset of the government
Answer: (c) It increases assets of the government

7. Which of the following is not an objective of government budget?

(a) Reallocation of resources
(b) Increasing regional disparities
(c) Economic Stability
(d) Economic Growth
Answer: (b) Increasing regional disparities

8. In which of the following taxes, the impact and incidence of the tax lies on different person?
(a) Goods and service tax
(b) Custom duty
(c) Income tax
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d): both (a) and (b)

Assertion-Reasoning Questions

9. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): Direct taxes levied by the government are revenue receipts.
Reason(R): Direct taxes refer to taxes that are imposed on property and income of individuals and
companies and are paid directly by them to the government.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).

10. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): Repayment of borrowings is a capital expenditure.
Reason(R): Capital expenditure reduces liabilities of the government.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
11. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): Primary deficit is the difference between fiscal deficit and interest payments made by the
government.
Reason(R): Primary deficit indicates borrowing requirements of the government.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.

12. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): Government imposes higher tax on rich and provides subsidies to poor.
Reason(R): Government reduces inequalities in income and wealth through its budget.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).

13. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): Government discourages production of harmful products through heavy taxes and
encourages production of socially useful goods like Khadi by providing subsidies.
Reason(R): Government reallocates resources in accordance with the economic and social priorities of the
country.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true
Answer: (a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).

14. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): Interest received on loan given by the Central Government to state government is a revenue
receipt.
Reason(R): Revenue receipts neither create any liability nor reduces assets of the government.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A)
.
 (c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).

Multiple Choice Questions

15. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Loans from IMF is a revenue receipt
(b) There can be fiscal deficit in government budget without revenue deficit
(c) Revenue deficit is the excess of capital receipts over the revenue receipts
(d) Grants given by the centre to state government is an example of capital expenditure.
Answer: (b) There can be fiscal deficit in government budget without revenue deficit

16. ___________deficit includes interest payments on past loan.

(a) Revenue deficit
(b) Fiscal deficit
(c) Primary deficit
(d) Both revenue and fiscal deficit
Answer: (d) Both revenue and fiscal deficit

17. Government can reduce revenue deficit by:

(a) reducing administrative expenses
(b) reducing subsidies
(c) increasing taxation
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d) all of the above

18. Which one of the following is a revenue expenditure?

(a)Purchases of shares
(b) Loans advanced
(c) Payment of salaries
(d) Expenditure on acquisition of land
Answer: (c) Payment of salaries

19. Two characteristic features of public goods are:

(a) rivalrous and excludable
(b) non- rivalrous and non- excludable
(c) rivalrous and non-excludable
(d) non-rivalrous and excludable
Answer: (b) non- rivalrous and non- excludable

20. Identify the correct statement:

(a) Government budget shows the actual receipts and actual expenditure of the government during a fiscal
year
(b) During deflation, government will increase its budget expenditure and give tax concessions and
subsidies
(c) Fiscal deficit is necessarily inflationary in nature
(d) Revenue deficit can be financed through taxes
Answer: (b) During deflation, government will increase its budget expenditure and give tax concessions
and subsidies
 MCQ of Chapter 4 & 5 IED

1. Which of the following institutes comes under the Health Sector?

a) NCERT
b) UGC
c) AICTE
d) ICMR

Answer: (d) ICMR

2. Which of the following is not the role of on – the – job training?

a) Eradicate Inequality
b) Encourages Innovations
c) Promotes modern method
d) Enhances productivity

Answer: (d) Enhances productivity

3. When was Right to education act enacted?

a) 2008
b) 2009
c) 2010
d) 2012

Answer: (d) 2009

4. What percentage of GDP was invested in education in the year 1952?

a) 7.92%
b) 11.7%
c) 0.64%
d) 3.31%

Answer: (c) 0.64%

5. The process of addition to the stock of Human Capital overtime is called:

a) Human Capital Addition
b) Human Capital Formation
c) Human Capital Augmentation
d) Human Capital Stock

Answer: (b) Human Capital Formation

6. Human Capital and Human Development are:

a) Opposite concepts
b) Different concepts
c) Both mean the same
d) Related concepts, but certainly not identical

Answer: (d) Related concepts, but certainly not identical

7. Which of the following is the problem of Human Capital formation in India?

a) Brain- Drain
b) Low Academic Standards
 c) Rising Population
d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these

8. ________ Five-year plan recognized the importance of Human Capital.

a) Seventh
b) Third
c) Eight
d) Sixth
Answer: (a) Seventh

9. How much educational cess has been imposed by the government on all Union Taxes?
a) 1%
b) 2%
c) 4%
d) None of these
Answer: (b) 2 %

10. Which of the following is a major source of Human Capital Formation in a country?
a) Expenditure on Education
b) Expenditure on Infrastructure
c) Expenditure on Defence
d) None of these
Answer: (a) Expenditure on Education

11. Distress sale by the farmers refers to:

a) The sale of rotten crop
b) The sale of crop through commission agents
c) The sale of crop at MSP fixed by the government
d) The sale of crop immediately after Harvest due to need of farmer
Answer: (d) The sale of crop immediately after Harvest due to need of farmer

12. Which of the following is not related to Agricultural Marketing?

a) Storage
b) Preservation
c) Processing
d) Use of chemical fertilizers
Answer: (d) Use of chemical fertilizers

13. The need for Organic farming arises due to which of the following reasons?
a) It is Environmentally friendly
b) It sustains soil fertility
c) Both A & B
d) None of these
Answer: (c) Both A & B

14. White revolution is associated with:

a) Horticulture
b) Fisheries
c) Dairying
d) Animal Husbandry
Answer: (c) Dairying

15. Which of the following is an Institutional source of Rural credit?

 a) Money lenders
b) Regional; Rural Banks
c) Traders
d) Landlords
Answer: (b) Regional; Rural Banks

16. When was National bank for Agriculture in Rural Development setup?
a) 1962
b) 1972
c) 1982
d) 1992
Answer: (c) 1982

17. Which Indian state has been held as a success story in the efficient implementation of milk
cooperatives?
a) Punjab
b) Gujarat
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) West Bengal
Answer: (b) Gujarat

18. Which of the following is an Institutional source of rural credit?

a) Co-operative Credit
b) Land Development Banks
c) NABARD
d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above

19. Which one of the following is not a non- institutional source of credit?
a) Money Lenders
b) Co-operative Credit
c) Traders and Commission Agents
d) Land Development Banks
Answer: (b) Co-operative Credit

20. The period between ________ is known as “Golden Revolution Period”.

a) 1991- 2001
b) 1991- 2003
c) 1993-2001
d) 1990- 2003
Answer: (b) 1991- 2003
 ECONOMICS
Ch. 3: Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal
1. The origin of the financial crisis in India in the 1980s can be traced from the _______.Choose the
correct alternative)
(a) Challenges like unemployment, poverty and population explosion
(b) Insufficient revenue generation from internal sources such as taxation.
(c) Sharp rise in the prices of essential goods.
(d) Inefficient management of the Indian economy.
Answer: (d) Inefficient management of the Indian economy
2. Goods and Services Tax Act, 2016 which came into effect from July 2017, is expected to:
(Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Generate additional revenue for the government
(b) Reduce tax evasion
(c) Create ’one nation, one tax and one market’
(d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of the above
3. Match the columns:
Column I Column II
(i)Turning the world into one whole or (A)Privatisation
creating a borderless world
(ii)Outright sale of public sector companies (B)Liberalisation
(iii)Putting an end to those restrictions, rule (C) Globalisation
and laws which were aimed at regulating the
economic activities but became major
hindrances in growth and development
(a) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C)
(b) (ii)-(A), (i)-B, (iii)-(C)
(c) (i)-(C) , (ii)-(A), (iii) –(B)
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) (i)-C, (ii)-(A), (iii)- (B)
4. In 1991, an immediate measure to resolve the balance of payments crisis was:
(a) To free the determination of rupee value in the foreign exchange market from government control.
(b) Devaluation of rupee against foreign currencies.
(c) Removing the trade barriers-quotas and tariffs.
(d) Simplification of export and import procedures.
Answer: (b) Devaluation of rupee against foreign currencies.
5. Which of the following is the reason for the decelerating growth rate of agriculture during the
reform period?
(a) Public investment in agriculture sector especially infrastructure has fallen in the reform period.
(b) Removal of fertilizer subsidy has led to increase in the cost of production.
(c) Due to number of policy changes such as reduction in import duties on agricultural products, etc.
Indian farmers now have to face increased international competition.
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
6. Government taxation and expenditure policy is known as
(a) Trade policy
(b) Monetary policy
(c) Fiscal policy
(d) Taxation policy
Answer: (c) Fiscal policy
7. The government has made efforts to improve the efficiency of PSU’s by giving them ______ in
taking managerial decisions.
(a) Money
(b) Financial Assistance
(c) Autonomy
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)Autonomy
8. Name the successor organization on General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT)
(a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) Food and Agricultural Organisation
(d) World Trade Organisation
Answer: (d) World Trade Organisation
9. ___________ have been removed to increase the competitive position of Indian goods in the
international markets.
(a) Import licensing
(b) Quantitative restrictions
(c) Export duties
(d) Tariffs
Answer: (c) Export duties
10. The opening up of Indian Economy has led to
(a) Fall in foreign exchange and rise in FDI
(b) Rise in foreign exchange and fall in FDI
(c) Rise in foreign exchange and rise in FDI
(d) Fall in foreign exchange and fall in FDI
Answer: (c) Rise in foreign exchange and rise in FDI
11. Aim of demonetization not included :
(a) Form a cashless economy
(b) Check on tax evasion
(c) It will lead to money supply contraction in the form of cash
(d) Adding savings into the formal financial system
Answer: (c) It will lead to money supply contraction in the form of cash
12. Assertion (A): Huge reforms have been made in indirect taxes to facilitate establishment of
common national market for goods and services.
Reason (R): In order to encourage better compliance on the part of taxpayers, many procedures
have been simplified.
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is true,
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
13. Assertion (A): Launch of LPG policies has caused a significant shift in the structure of the Indian
markets they are now increasingly shedding their monopoly nature and becoming more
competitive in nature.
Reason: (R) Equity limit of foreign capital investment has been raised from the initial 40, it now
ranges between 51-100%
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is true,

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
14. Assertion (A): Demonetisation refers to withdrawal of the status of “legal tender ‘to the currency
in circulation.
Reason (R): Demonetisation notes of Rs. 500 & Rs. 1000 with immediate effect on 08 Nov.2015.
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is true,

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

CASE STUDY 1
Developed countries have been trying to pursue developing countries to liberalize the trade and
allow more flexibility in business policies to provide equal opportunities to multinational firms in
their domestic market, International Monetary Fund (IMF) and World Bank helped them in this
endeavor, Liberalization began to hold its foot on barren lands of developing countries like India
by means of reduction in excise duties on electronic goods in a fixed time frame.
Indian government did the same and liberalized the trade and investment due to the pressure from
World Trade Organization. Import duties were cut down phase wise to allow MNCs operate in
India on equality basis. As a result globalization has brought to India new technologies, new
products and also the economic opportunities.
15. _____________ facilitates International Trade through removal of tariffs as well as non-tariff
barriers.
(a) UNO
(b) UNDP
(c) WTO
(d) GAAT

Answer: (c) WTO

16. India had compulsion to introduce reforms as dictated by:
(a) World Bank
(b) IMF
 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
17. Trade liberalization benefits developed countries more than developing economies. (True/false)

Answer: True

CASE STUDY 2
In his July 1991 Budget speech, marked by remarkable clarity. Dr. Manmohan Singh laid out his
analysis of what was ailing the Indian economy at the time, and his strategy to revive it.
His argument was that protection and state –supported industrialization had outlived their utility.
The protection granted to industry had made it uncompetitive in the global market. This has hurt
export growth, contributing to the Balance of Payments crises in 1991. The way out as Dr. Singh
saw it was to open up the Indian economy so that Indian manufacturers could compete with global
players in local conditions. Once they succeeded in the domestic market they would be able to
find a place in the global market as well. India would then move from being, primarily an exporter
of agricultural products to one that had a global presence in industrial products as well.
18. Economic reforms have___________ the role of public sector. (Increased/reduced)

Answer: Reduced
19. Industry, for which license is needed after 1991__________
(a) Defence Equipment
(b) Atomic Energy Generation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
20. Which of the following is not a tax reform
(a) Reduction in taxes
(b) Reforms in Indirect Taxes
(c) Simplification of Tax Process
(d) Devaluation of Rupee
Answer: (d) Devaluation of Rupee
 Money and Banking
Case Based Questions
Read the following case study carefully and answer the question numbers 1 - 4 on the basis of the
same.
Following the recommendations of the Second Working Group on Money Supply (SWG) in 1977, RBI
has been publishing four monetary aggregates – M1, M2, M3 and M4 - besides the reserve money. India
Money Supply M1 data reached an all-time high of 655.498 USD bn in Mar 2021.
“The year witnessed a higher than average increase in banknotes in circulation primarily due to
precautionary holding of cash by the public induced by the covid-19 pandemic, and its prolonged
continuance,” said the RBI annual report.
“Concerted efforts were made to ensure that currency chests remain adequately stocked with all
denominations of banknotes in order to maintain timely supply of fresh banknotes across the country.
Going ahead, the Reserve Bank’s endeavour would be to enhance the life span of banknotes, automate the
handling and processing of notes, and rationalise the available infrastructure for maximum utilisation,” it
further said.

1. Which of the following is not a part of M1 measure of money supply in an economy?

(a) Currency and coins with the public
(b) Current account deposits with commercial banks
(c) Inter- bank deposits
(d) Demand deposits with the banks
Answer: (c) Inter- bank deposits

2. Money supply refers to:

(a) Total flow of money in circulation in the economy
(b) Total volume of money held by the government
(c) Total stock of money held by the public at a particular point of time
(d) Total volume of money held by public over a period of time
Answer: (c) Total stock of money held by the public at a particular point of time

3. RBI’s endeavour to enhance life span of banknotes highlights ___________ function of the Central
bank.
(a) currency authority
(b) banker’s bank
(c) agent
(d) banker to the government
Answer: (a) currency authority
4. Which of the following agency is responsible for issuing ₹1 currency note in India?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Ministry of Commerce
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: (c) Ministry of Finance

Read the following case study carefully and answer the question numbers 5 - 8 on the basis of the
same.
To boost provision of immediate liquidity for ramping up COVID related healthcare infrastructure and
services in the country, an on-tap liquidity window of ₹50,000 crore with tenors of up to three years at the
repo rate is being opened till March 31, 2022. Under the scheme, banks can provide fresh lending support
to a wide range of entities including vaccine manufactures; importers/suppliers of vaccines and priority
medical devices; hospitals/dispensaries; pathology labs; manufactures and suppliers of oxygen and
ventilators; importers of vaccines and COVID related drugs; logistics firms and also patients for treatment.
The ₹50,000 crore emergency health service loans will be classified as priority sector loans till repayment
or maturity, whichever is earlier. Priority sector loans are exempted from maintaining cash reserve or
statutory liquidity ratios, and so banks can extend them at concessional rates too.

5. The apex institution of country’s monetary system is __________.

(a) commercial bank
(b) central bank
(c) Ministry of finance
(d) cooperative banks
Answer: (b) Central Bank

6. Which function of the central bank is highlighted in the above extract?

(a) Banker to the government
(b) Banker’s bank and supervisor
(c) Bank of issue
(d) Custodian of foreign exchange
Answer: (b) Banker’s bank and supervisor

7. Commercial banks are required to keep a minimum ratio of their net demand and time liabilities with
RBI. This is known as __________.
(a) cash reserve ratio
(b) statutory liquidity ratio
(c) bank rate
(d) repo rate
Answer: (a) cash reserve ratio

8. When RBI comes to the rescue of a bank that is solvent but faces temporary liquidity problems by
supplying it with much needed liquidity when no one else is willing to extend credit to that bank, it acts as
_____________.
(a) clearing house
(b) lender of last resort
(c) manager of public debt
(d) currency authority
Answer: (b) lender of last resort

Assertion-Reasoning Questions

9. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): All financial institutions can be termed as banking institutions.
Reason(R): A bank is a financial institution that accepts deposits from the public and creates a demand
deposit while simultaneously advancing loans.
Alternatives:
(e) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(f) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(g) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(h) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.

10. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): Central bank has the responsibility of managing public debt.
Reason(R): Central bank aims to maximize profits.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.

11. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): Commercial banks contribute to quantum of money supply in the economy.
Reason(R): Commercial banks create credit through the process of money creation.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).

12. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): Reserve ratio acts as a limit to money creation by commercial banks.
Reason(R): The value of money multiplier is determined by Reserve Ratio.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).

13. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): RBI acts as a banker to the central government and commercial banks act as a banker to
the state governments.
Reason(R): Central government keeps its cash balances with the RBI.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true

14. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives
given below:
Assertion(A): Central bank directly deals with the public.
Reason(R): All commercial banks have their accounts with the central bank.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
Answer: (d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.

Multiple Choice Questions

15. Identify the correct statement:
(a)Commercial banks acts as an agent to the government.
(b) Commercial banks are able to create credit which is far in excess of the initial deposits.
(c) Loans offered by commercial banks are equal to deposits received by them.
(d) Commercial banks do not contribute to stock of money supply in an economy.
Answer: (b) Commercial banks are able to create credit which is far in excess of the initial deposits.

16. Starting with an initial deposit of ₹1000 crores, if the final amount of credit created in an economy is
₹5000 crores, what is the value of legal reserve ratio?
(a)25%
(b) 4%
(c) 20%
(d) 50%
Answer: (c) 20%

17. Higher the legal reserve ratio _________will be the credit creation.
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c)constant
(d) infinite
Answer: (b) lower

18. Who regulates money supply in India?

(a) Government of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Panning Commission
(d) Commercial banks
Answer: (b) Reserve Bank of India

19. Demand deposits include _________.

(a) Saving account deposits and fixed deposits
(b) Saving account deposits and current account deposits
(c) Current account deposits and fixed deposits
(d) All types of deposits
Answer: (b) Saving account deposits and current account deposits

20. Credit creation by commercial banks is determined by

(a) CRR
(b) SLR
(c) Initial deposits
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d) all of the above
 Chapter 4 Poverty

1. Task Force on Projections of Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand was formed to
identify the number of poor in the country in which year
(a) 1962
(b) 1979
(c) 2005
(d) 2014
Answer: (b) 1979
2. The official data on poverty is made available to the public by the __________ and estimated on
the basis of consumption expenditure data collected by the_______.
(a) National Statistical Office, NITI Aayog
(b) National Sample Survey Office, CSO
(c) NITI Aayog, National Statistical Office
(d) CSO , National Sample Survey Office
Answer: (c) NITI Aayog, National Statistical Office
3. ______ is often used for measuring poverty in relative sense.
(a) HDI
(b) Lorenz Curve
(c) Planning Commission
(d) All of these
Answer: Lorenz Curve
4. The concept of poverty line was introduced in
(a) 1973
(b) 1975
(c) 1979
(d) 1981
Answer: (c) 1979
5. The approach to reduce poverty through specific poverty alleviation programmes has been
initiated from the _____________
(a) Second Five Year Plan
(b) Third Five Year Plan
(c) Fifth Five Year Plan
(d) Seventh Five Year Plan
Answer: (b) Third Five Year Plan
6. Which of the is not a main cause of poverty in India?
(a) Low capital formation
(b) Lack of social welfare nets
(c) Social exclusion
(d) Migration of people from rural to urban India
Answer: (d) Migration of people from rural to urban India
7. The calorie requirement for measuring poverty line is higher in rural area than urban areas because
in rural area:
(a) People do not enjoy as much as people in urban areas
(b) Food items are expensive
(c) People are engaged in mental work
(d) People are engaged in physical labour
Answer: (d) People are engaged in physical labour
8. Which of the following self-employment program provides financial assistance in the form of
bank loans to set small industries?
(a) Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP)
(b) Prime Minister’s RozgarYojana (PMRY)
 (c) SwarnaJayantiShahariRozgarYojana
(d) All of these
Answer: (a) Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP)
9. Which of the following is an action adopted under the minimum basic amenities to the poor.
(a) Prime Minister RozgarYojana
(b) SawarnJayantiShahariRozgarYojana
(c) Pradhan MantariGramodayaYojana
(d) National Rural Livelihood Mission
Answer: (c) Pradhan Mantari Gramodaya Yojana
10. Economist identify the poor on the basis of their _____ and ownership of assets:
(a) Income
(b) Occupation
(c) Expenditure
(d) Living Standard
Answer: (b) Occupation
11. The average calories required per person in urban area is
(a) 2400
(b) 2100
(c) 2500
(d) 2150
Answer: (b) 2100
12. Assertion (A):Calorie-based norm is not an adequate measure to identify the poor.
Reason (R): This method does not differentiate between the very poor and the other poor. This
mechanism takes into account expenditure on food and a few other items as proxy for income, It
ignores many other vital factors associated with poverty; for instance, the accessibility to basic
education, health care, drinking water and sanitation.
Alternatives
(e) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(f) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(g) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(h) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is true,

(i) Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion (A).

13. Assertion (A): Poverty is closely related to nature of employment

Reason (R): Unemployment or underemployment and the casual and intermittent nature of work
in both urban and rural areas that compels indebtedness, in turn, reinforces poverty.
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is true,
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
14. Assertion (A): Monthly Per Capita Expenditure (MPCE) mechanism satisfactorily identifies the
poor households in our country.
Reason (R): It groups all the poor together and does not differentiate between the very poor and
the other poor. Also this mechanism takes into account expenditure on food and only a few select
items as proxy for income.
 Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is true
Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is true.
15. Assertion (A): Most of the farmers are in debt-trap.
Reason (R): They borrow from money lenders, who charge high rates of interest, that push them
into chronic indebtedness.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason ® are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is true
Answer: (a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
16. Assertion (A): The government approach to poverty reduction was of three dimensions.
Reason (R): Poverty is the inability to fulfil the minimum requirements of the life.
Alternatives
(e) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(f) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(g) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(h) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is true.
Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion (A).

CASE STUDY
This paragraph talks about economic inequalities in India that have been driven by employment patterns
and changes in labour markets, which in turn have been affected by macroeconomics policies and
processes as well as forms of social discrimination and exclusion. While many Asian economies have
shown indications of rising inequality in recent decades, the Indian experience is particularly remarkable
in the way inequalities have intertwined with the economic growth process.
Structural change and the persistence of low productivity employment in India are strongly related to
falling wage shares of national income and growing wage inequalities and the close relationship between
formal and informal sectors is the sharpest exemplar of this. Patterns of social discrimination along with
gender and caste line have reinforced tendencies to create segmented labour markets that offer little
incentive for employers to focus on productivity improvement.
17. Why did the government shift its strategy from long term to short term programs to remove
unemployment?
(a) Short term policies are more effective.
(b) Long term policies do not give appropriate response
(c) It’s easy to check the progress
(d) All the above
Answer:(d) all the above
18.Increase in proportion of casual workers as a proportion of total work force is known as
(informalisation/casualisation)
Answer: Casualisation
19.-------------------is use to measure the concept of related poverty.
(a) Poverty Coefficient
(b) Ginicoefficient
(c) Poverty line
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Ginicoefficient
20. Women participation in rural area is found to be higher in rural areas as compared with urban areas in
India, due to which of the following reasons
(a) Widespread poverty
(b) Male members do not earn sufficient income
(c) Wage levels are low in rural areas
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) all the above
 LESSON

1. Balance of Trade refers to balance of exports and imports of:

a) Visible items
b) Invisible items
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) Visible items

2. An Indian Real Estate Company receives rent from Google in New York. This transaction would
be recorded on ______ side of ______ account.
a) Credit, current
b) Credit, capital
c) Debit, capital
d) Debit, current
Answer: a) Credit, current

3. Assertion (A) – Import of goods and services reflects demand of foreign currency.
Reason (R) – Import of goods and services show inflow of foreign currency.
a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Answer: c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

4. ____________ transactions refer to those international economic transactions which take place due
to some economic motive.
a) Autonomous
b) Accommodating
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Answer: a) Autonomous

5. An Indian company located in India invests in a company located abroad. This transaction is entered
in India’s balance of payments account on:
a) Credit side of current account
b) Debit side of current account
c) Credit side of capital account
d) Debit side of capital account
Answer: d) Debit side of capital account

6. Under the floating exchange rate system, when some exchange rate change makes domestic
currency (Rupee cheaper), it is called __________ of rupee.
a) Depreciation
b) Devaluation
c) Appreciation
d) Revaluation
Answer: a) Depreciation

7. Why does the central bank need to intervene in a managed floating system?
 a) To reduce fluctuations in the exchange rate.
b) To maintain the exchange rate at the specified level
c) To cover the surplus and deficits in BOP.
d) None of the above
Answer: a) To reduce fluctuations in the exchange rate.

8. Which of the following is a source of supply of Foreign Exchange?

a) Current transfers to abroad.
b) Speculation
c) Portfolio Investment
d) None of these
Answer: c) Portfolio Investment

9. Balance of payments deficit is the excess of:

a) Current account payments over current account receipts.
b) Capital account payments over capital account receipts.
c) Autonomous payments over autonomous receipts.
d) Accommodating payments over accommodating receipts.
Answer: c) Autonomous payments over autonomous receipts.

10. Which of the following items is not included in the current account of Balance of Payments of a
country?

a) Interest, profits and dividends on abroad.

b) Income from software services.
c) Remittances from abroad.
d) Foreign Direct Investment
Answer: d) Foreign Direct Investment

11. A country’s balance of trade is Rs. 100 crores and value of export goods is Rs.175 crores. Find out
value of import of goods.

a) Rs.100 crores
b) Rs.175 crores
c) Rs.75 crores
d) Rs.275 crores
Answer: c) Rs.75 crores

12. Unilateral transfers are a part of:

a) Capital Account
b) Current Account
c) Balance of Trade Account
d) Balance of Payment Account and Current Account
Answer: d) Balance of Payment Account and Current Account

13. Inflow of Foreign Investment is recorded on which side and account of BOP?
a) Credit, current
b) Credit, capital
c) Debit, capital
d) Debit, current
Answer: b) Credit, capital
 14. ____________ transactions of BOP are carried by the Central Bank to bring equilibrium.
a) Autonomous
b) Accommodating
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Accommodating

15. Decrease in demand for foreign currency leads to currency depreciation.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b) False

16. Assertion (A) – Balance of Accounts is always balanced.

Reason (R) – Autonomous Transactions restore balance in Balance of Payments Account.
a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Answer: c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

17. Assertion (A) – Fixed Exchange Rate System is also known as Floating Exchange Rate System.
Reason (R) – In fixed exchange rate system, currency of home country is tied with some external
standard like gold etc.
a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Answer: d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

18. Official Reserve Transactions are relevant under:

a) Floating exchange rate system
b) Fixed exchange rate system
c) Managed exchange rate system
d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: d) Both (b) and (c)

19. Which of the following is a major participant in foreign exchange market?

a) Commercial Banks
b) Foreign Exchange brokers and other authorized dealers
c) Monetary authorities
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

20. Official Reserve transactions are relevant under fixed exchange system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a) True
 QUESTION BANK
SUBJECT – ENGLISH
TOPIC – “THE LAST LESSON”
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
Read the following extracts and answer the questions that follow.
Q1. It was so warm, so bright! The birds were chirping at the edge of the woods; and in the open field
back of the sawmill the Prussian soldiers were drilling. It was all much more tempting than the rule for
participles, but I had the strength to resist, and hurried off to school. When I passed the town hall there
was a crowd in front of the bulletin-board. For the last two years all our bad news had come from there
— the lost battles, the draft, the orders of the commanding officer — and I thought to myself, without
stopping, “What can be the matter now?” Then, as I hurried by as fast as I could go, the blacksmith,
Wachter, who was there, with his apprentice, reading the bulletin, called after me, “Don’t go so fast,
bub; you’ll get to your school in plenty of time!”
i. What does the extract say about the narrator’s attitude towards French?
a. French was equally appealing to him as the beauty of nature.
b. He attends the lesson out of compulsion.
c. He was eager to receive the French lesson
d. He lacked interest in the lesson.
Answer: He lacked interest in the lesson.

ii. What can be inferred about the living condition of the place?
a. Everybody lived in peace and harmony.
b. Natives are intimidated by the foreign presence
c. The inhabitants coexisted with external force without qualms
d. There is a sense of uneasiness looming around the environment.
Answer: There is a sense of uneasiness looming around the environment

iii. Identify the factor that does not serve the purpose of implying the theme.
a. The reference to the bulletin board.
b. The presence of Prussian soldiers
c. The description of nature.
d. The narrator’s stand on French lesson.
Answer: The description of nature.

iv. Name the figure of speech used in the statement “Don’t go so fast, bub; you’ll get to your school in
plenty of time!”
a. Sarcasm
b. Paradox
c. Antithesis
d. Anaphora
Answer: . Sarcasm

Q2. How it must have broken his heart to leave it all, poor man; to hear his sister moving about in the
room above, packing their trunks! For they must leave the country next day.
(a) Who are ‘they’ here?
A. M. Hamel and his sister.
B. Franz
C. Villager
D. Houser
Answer: M. Hamel and his sister.

b) Why is M. Hamel’s heartbroken?

A. Because he has to leave the country the next day
B. Because of transfer
C. Because of retirement
D. Because of student’s misbehaviour.
Answer: Because he has to leave the country the next day
C) Why do they have to leave the country?
A. German would be taught in place of French.
B. French will be taught now.
C. New languages will be taught.
D. He has got a new job.
Answer: German would be taught in place of French.

d) Who is packing the trunks?

A. M. Hamel’s sister
B. M. Hamel’s wife
C. M. Hamel’s father
D.M. Hamel’s servant
Answer: M. Hamel’s sister

Q3. …reading the bulletin, called after me, “Don’t go so fast, bub; you’ll get to your school in plenty of
time!’’ I thought he was making fun of me and reached M. Hamel’s little garden all out of breath.
(a) Who was called ‘bub’?
(i) M. Hamel
(ii) villagers
(iii) Franz
(iv) postmaster
Answer: Franz
(b) Identify the tone in which the speaker said the words , “Don’t go so fast, bub; you’ll get to your
school
in plenty of time!’’?
(i) sarcastic
(ii) humorous
(iii) depressive
(iv) cheerful
Answer: Sarcastic

(c) M. Hamel taught the children.............................

(i) German
(ii) French
(iii) Russian
(iv) English
Answer: French
(d) Who advised him not to hurry?
(i) The teacher
(ii) The classmates
(iii) Friends
(iv) A villager
Answer: A villager

Q4. Then, as I hurried by as fast as I could go, the blacksmith, Wachter, who was there, with his
apprentice, reading the bulletin, called after me, “Don’t go so fast, bub; you’ll get to your school in
plenty of time!” I thought he was making fun of me, and reached M. Hamel’s little garden all out of
breath.
(i)The phrase ‘called after me’ here refers to
a. tease someone.
b. shout at
c. Summon or request something
d. To cause embarrassment
Answer: shout at
(ii)Who was called ‘bub’ here ?
a. Franz
b. M. Hamel
c. Villagers
d. Postmaster
Answer: Franz

(iii) What has M. Hamel’s little garden been referred to in the extract?
a. His country
b. His home
c. His garden
d. His school
Answer: His garden

(iv) Which word in the passage means same as ‘sufficient’?

a. breath
b. plenty
c. fast
d. hurried
Answer: plenty

Q5. Poor man! It was in honour of this last lesson that he had put on his fine Sunday clothes, and now
I understood why the old men of the village were sitting there in the back of the room. It was because
they were sorry, too, that they had not gone to school more.
i. Who was called ‘Poor man’?
(a) Old Hauser
(b) Franz
(c) M. Hamel
(d) Wachter
Answer: M. Hamel
ii. What feelings were expressed by the villagers when they came to attend the last lesson?
(a) regret for not learning French
(b) thanking their master for his forty years of faithful service
(c) showing their respect for the country that was theirs no more.
(d) All of the above
Answer: All of the above
iii. Why did the country belong to them no more?
(a) Because they were leaving the country.
(b) Because Germans had taken over their country.
(c) Because it was destroyed in the war.
(d) Because their country was merging with Prussia.
Answer: Because Germans had taken over their country.
iv. M. Hamel says, “...that’s the great trouble with Alsace; she puts off _________ till tomorrow.
(a) time
(b) money
(c) language
(d) learning
Answer: learning

Q6 Franz saw a huge crowd assembled in front of the bulletin board, but did not stop. How would you
evaluate his reaction?
a) Franz was too little to care about the news of lost battles.
b) Nobody in Franz’s family was in the army, so it did not matter.
c) Bad news had become very normal, so he went about his task.
d) It was too crowded for Franz to find out what news was up on the board.
Answer: Bad news had become very normal, so he went about his task.

Q7. All at once the church-clock struck twelve. Then the Angelus. At the same moment the trumpets of
the Prussians, returning from drill, sounded under our windows. M. Hamel stood up, very pale, in his
chair. I never saw him look so tall. “My friends,” said he, “I—I—” But something choked him. He could
not go on. Then he turned to the blackboard, took a piece of chalk, and, bearing on with all his might,
he wrote as large as he could — “Vive La France!” Then he stopped and leaned his head against the
wall, and, without a word, he made a gesture to us with his hand — “School is dismissed — you may
go.”

i. What does 'Angelus' refer to?

(a) Sound of church bell ringing.
(b) Roman catholic prayer.
(c) Sound of thanks giving.
(d) A prayer sung in a group.
Answer: Roman catholic prayer.
ii. What does the trumpets of the Prussians imply?
(a) Igniting patriotic fervour
(b) Playing the band to reduce war stress
(c) People of Alsace are now enslaved
(d) Prussians cheering up the victory over France
Answer: Prussians cheering up the victory over France
iii. Why is M. Hamel pale?
(a) He feels emotional and heart-broken.
(b) He is unwell.
(c) He is annoyed.
(d) He doesn’t like the sound of the trumpets.
Answer: He feels emotional and heart-broken.
iv. What does Franz mean when he says , ‘"I never saw him look so tall."
(a) M. Hamel had grown physically taller.
(b) M. Hamel seemed very confident.
(c) Franz had developed a lot of respect for M. Hamel.
(d) Franz looked at his teacher in a different way that day.
Answer :. Franz had developed a lot of respect for M. Hamel.

Q 8. While I was wondering about it all, M. Hamel mounted his chair, and, in the same grave and gentle
tone which he had used to me, said, "My children, this is the last lesson I shall give you. The order has
come from Berlin to teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine. The new master comes
tomorrow. This is your last French lesson..."
i. What was the tone of M. Hamel when he was addressing his students?
(a) cheerful
(b) excited
(c) heart-broken
(d) angry
Answer: heart-broken
ii. The grave and gentle tone in which M. Hamel spoke after getting the order from Berlin was due to:
(a) his patriotic feeling for his country
(b) his love for his mother tongue
(c) the grief of not being able to teach French in future
(d) All of these
Answer: the grief of not being able to teach French in future
iii. When would M. Hamel leave?
(a) the same day
(b) the next day
(c) after one week
(d) after two weeks
Answer: the next day
iv. What did M. Hamel want from the students on the last day of French lesson?
(a) To give him a farewell.
(b) To oppose the order from Berlin.
(c) To be very attentive.
(d) To guard their language.
Answer: To guard their language

Q9 What a thunderclap these words were to me! Oh, the wretches; that was what they had put up at
the town-hall! My last French lesson! Why, I hardly knew how to write! I should never learn any more!
I must stop there, then! Oh, how sorry I was for not learning my lessons, for seeking birds’ eggs, or
going sliding on the Saar! My books, that had seemed such a nuisance a while ago, so heavy to carry,
my grammar, and my history of the saints, were old friends now that I couldn’t give up. And M. Hamel,
too; the idea that he was going away, that I should never see him again, made me forget all about his
ruler and how cranky he was.
i. “What a thunderclap these words were to me!”. The words were:
(a) loud and clear.
(b) startling and unexpected.
(c) pleasant and welcome.
(d) None of these
Answer: startling and unexpected.

ii. Who are called as ‘Wretches’?

(a) People of France
(b) Germans
(c) Prussians
(d) None of these
Answer: Germans
iii. What regret did Franz have?
(a) that he could never play in the school.
(b) that he did not learn French.
(c) that he would miss his old friends and M. Hamel.
(d) None of these
Answer: that he did not learn French
iv. What had been put up on the bulletin-board at the town-hall?
(a) The news of the lost battles
(b) The draft of the commanding officer
(c) The order from Berlin to teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine.
(d) All of these
Answer: The order from Berlin to teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine.
Q10. What do the marching soldiers under the windows represent?
(a) The Dawn of Prussia in defeat of French people
(b) The defeat of Prussia
(c) The victory of French
(d) None of these
Answer: The Dawn of Prussia in defeat of French people
 ATAL SAHODAYA

L-2 LOST SPRING

TEXT-FLAMINGO

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS BASED ON AN EXTRACT

A. Food is more important for survival than an identity. “If at the end of the day we can feed
our families and go to bed without an aching stomach, we would rather live here than in
the fields that gave us no grain,” say a group of women in tattered saris when I ask them why
they left their beautiful land of green fields and rivers. Wherever they find food, they pitch
their tents that become transit homes. Children grow up in them, becoming partners in
survival. And survival in Seemapuri means rag-picking. Through the years, it has acquired
the proportions of a fine art. Garbage to them is gold. It is their daily bread, a roof over
their heads, even if it is a leaking roof. But for a child it is even more.

1. “Food is more important for survival than an identity”. Why?

a. It leads us to immortality
b. Food is the necessity of life
c. Food is an obligation one needs to satisfy in ones life
d. There is no requirement for an identity card
Answer: (b) Food is the necessity of life

2. The phrase “transit home” refers to the dwellings that are-

a. Unhygienic
b. Inadequate
c. Fragile
d. Temporary.
Answer: (d) Temporary

3. Why has rag picking acquired the proportions of a fine art?

a. Rag picking has regained its lost status.
b. A segment of rag pickers is skilled in fine arts.
c. Only a few people are expert in rag picking.
d. Rag picking has attained the position of a skill.
Answer: (d) Rag picking has attained the position of a skill.
4. Identify the figure of speech used in the sentence “Garbage to them is gold.”
a. Hyperbole
b. Simile
 c. Synecdoche
d. Personification
Answer: (a) Hyperbole

B. Savita, a young girl in a drab pink dress, sits alongside an elderly woman, soldering pieces of
glass. As her hands move mechanically like the tongs of a machine, I wonder if she knows the
sanctity of the bangles she helps make. It symbolizes an Indian woman’s suhaag, auspiciousness
in marriage. It will dawn on her suddenly one day when her head is draped with a red veil, her
hands dyed red with henna, and red bangles rolled onto her wrists. She will then become a bride.
Like the old woman beside her who became one many years ago. She still has bangles on her

5. “As her hands move mechanically, like the tongs of a machine, I wonder if I wonder if she knows the
sanctity of the bangles she helps make.” Identify the literary device used in the sentence.
a. Simile
b. Metaphor
c. Contrast
d. Alliteration
Answer: (a) Simile

6. “I wonder if she knows the sanctity of the bangles she helps make.” The underlined phrase symbolizes:
a. Richness
b. Auspiciousness associated to bangles
c. Bangle making requires purity
d. Making of bangles requires a sanction
e. Answer: (b) Auspiciousness associated to bangles

7. Why does the author wonder if Savita knows the sanctity of the bangles she helps make?
a. because she is too young to know that it symbolizes an Indian woman’s Suhag, an auspiciousness in
marriage
b. because she hasn’t seen any sanctity associated to bangles.
c. because she is immature and impractical
d. all of the above
Answer: (a) because she is too young to know that it symbolizes an Indian woman’s Suhag,
auspiciousness in marriage

8. “She still has bangles on her wrist but no light in her eyes.” Why does the author say so?
a. Mukesh’s grandmother had seen her husband go blind with the dust from polishing the glass of
bangles
b. Like Savita, the young girl, the grandmother also does not know the sanctity of the bangles.
c. The grandmother has not enjoyed even one full meal in her entire lifetime
d. The grandmother has grown too old.
Answer: (a) Mukesh’s grandmother had seen her husband go blind with the dust from polishing the
glass of bangles

STAND ALONE MCQs

 9. What resonated with survival in Seemapuri?
a. Food
b. Identity
c. Rag picking
d. Garbage
Answer: (c) Rag picking

10. “The steel canister seems heavier than the plastic bag he would carry so lightly over his shoulders.”
Identify the literary device used in the sentence.
a. Simile
b. Metaphor
c. Contrast
d. Paradox
Answer: (c) Contrast

11. Why did ragpickers stay barefoot according to Anees Jung?

a. Because of perpetual state of poverty
b. Because of the nexus between politicians, bureaucrats, policeman
c. It was tradition for them to stay barefoot
d. It was easy for them to do rag picking when they are barefoot
Answer: (a) Because of perpetual state of poverty

12. “Sahib-e-Alam which means the Lord of the universe is directly in contrast to what Saheb is in reality.”
which device is used here?
a. Metaphor
b. contrast
c. simile
d. irony
Answer: (d) irony

13. “And survival in Seemapuri means rag picking through the years it has acquired the proportions of a
fine art.” Name the device.
a. Paradox
b. Metaphor
c. Contrast
d. Hyperbole
Answer: (d) Hyperbole

14. Saheb’s discarded and worn-out tennis shoes are an indication-

a. To procure different ones
b. A dream comes true
c. His being ambitious
d. And insults to sports itself
Answer: (b) A dream come true

15. What two distinct worlds does the author see in the lives of the bangle makers?
a. Policemen – bureaucrats
b. Sahukaras – policemen
c. Middlemen – poor people
d. Poor people – influential people
Answer: (d) poor people-influential people

16. It is karam, his destiny”’ says Mukesh’s grandmother who has watched her own husband go blind with
the dust from polishing the glass of bangles. What character trait of the grandmother is shown?
a. Religious
b. Atheist
c. Superstitious
d. Fatalist
Answer: (d) Fatalist

17. Why did bangle makers lack initiative and ability to dream?
a. They had no leader.
b. They were not a part of any cooperative
c. Their mind-numbing toil left them with no energy
d. Daring was not part of their growing up
e. Answer: (c) Their mind-numbing toil left them with no energy

18. Name the forces responsible for poor condition of bangle makers.
a. Caste and poverty
b. Vicious circle of sahukaras middlemen, policeman, bureaucrats and politician
c. No zeal to initiate
d. Both a and b
Answer: (d) Both a and b

19. How was Mukesh different from his family members?

a. He had connections with influtential people
b. He was daring
c. He was willing to work hard to achieve his dream
d. He wanted to be a motor mechanic
Answer: (c) He was willing to work hard to achieve his dream

20. Why did bangle makers not organize themselves into a cooperative?
a. They had no leaders
b. Dare was not a part of their growing up.
c. They feared that police would beat them.
d. All the above
Answer: All the above
 Flamingo-Deep Waters
MCQ’s
Q1. How old was Douglas when he went to YMCA for learning swimming?
a. 3-4 years
b. 5-6 years
c. 10-11 years
d. 12-13 years
Answer: 10-11 years
Q2. What is the name of the autobiography of William Douglas?
a. Men from Mountains
b. Of Men and Mountains
c. From Mountains to Men
d. From Men to Mountains
Answer: Of Men and Mountains
Q3. 'But I subdued my pride and did it.' Which word can replace the word 'pride' in the given line?
a. Arrogance
b. Comfort
c. Self esteem
d. Shyness
Answer: Self- esteem
Q4. 'I was frightened'. Why was the author frightened?
a. because he felt breathless and out of life for sometime.
b. because his father laughed instead of consoling him.
c. because the waves had hurt him.
d. all of the above
Answer: because he felt breathless and out of life for sometime.
Q5. 'My introduction to the Y.M.CA. swimming pool revived unpleasant memories and stirred childish
fears. ‘Childish fears’ refers to-
a. the fearful experience in childhood.
b. the fears known only to children.
c. the fear a child would feel in the pool.
d. the silly things that came to his mind.
Answer: the silly things that came to his mind.
Q6. Why did Douglas sit at the side of the pool?
a. He was waiting for his friends.
 b. He was hesitant in going in the pool alone.
c. He was waiting for his instructor.
d. He was looking at the clean tiled bottom of the pool.
Answer: He was hesitant in going in the pool alone.
Q7. Why did Douglas land in a sitting position in the pool?
a. because this is how the boy who had thrown him desired.
b. because this is how the boy who had thrown him desired.
c. because it happened so quickly that Douglas could hardly react.
d. because the boy had thrown him with a lot of force.
Answer: because it happened so quickly that Douglas could hardly react.
Q8. Which of the following statement isn't true as per Douglas' plan to come out of the pool?
a. As soon as he hits the bottom of the pool, he would jump up.
b. He would come to the surface of the pool.
c. He would lie flat on the surface of the pool.
d. He would swim to the edge of the pool.
Answer: He would swim to the edge of the pool.
Q9. Which of the following emotions did Douglas experience when he was coming up ?
a. Desperation
b. Helplessness
c. Suffocation
d. All of these
Answer: All of these
Q10. ‘And then in the midst of terror came a touch of reason.’ Which of the following words can replace the
word ‘reason’ in the above line?
a. Logic
b. Sense
c. Cause
d. Fear
Answer: Sense
Q11. My toes reached out as if to grab them. Why did Douglas want to grab the tiles at the bottom of the
pool?
a. He was too tired now and wanted to rest there.
b. He had surrendered to the situation.
c. It was a move to make a jump up from the bottom of the pool.
d. He was full of terror and wanted to grab the tiles for security.
Answer: It was a move to make a jump up from the bottom of the pool.
Q12. When Douglas says he had crossed to oblivion, he means that-
a. he had crossed to the other side of the pool
b. he had crossed to the safer side of the pool
c. he had touched the threshold of death.
d. he had become unconscious.
Answer- he had become unconscious.
Q13. “But I was only fooling”. Who is the speaker of this line ?
a. The big boy who threw him in the pool.
b. The man who brought him out of the pool
c. His mother
d. William Douglas.
Answer: The big boy who threw him in the pool.
Q14. Of the following what is NOT true about the feelings of Douglas after the experience in the pool.
a. The slightest amount of work would depress him.
b. He often had a sick feeling in his stomach
c. He kept crying very often
d. He kept recalling the dreadful experience for many days
Answer: He kept crying very often.
Q15. Why did Douglas want to overcome his fear?
a. He wasn’t able to enjoy fishing
b. He felt it as a handicap for himself
c. He wanted to enjoy boating and canoeing
d. All the above
Answer: All the above
Q16. How much time did the instructor take to teach Douglas to swim?
a. Many weeks
b. 5 months
c. 7 months
d. 1 year
Answer: 7 months
Q17. What does Douglas mean when he says- “But I was not finished”.
a. He had yet not learnt to swim.
b. He wanted to learn some more styles of swimming.
c. He was not yet confident on himself.
d. All of these
Answer: He was not yet confident on himself.
Q18. What did Douglas do to ensure he had overcome his fear completely?
a. He tried to swim in the pool alone for another few months.
b. He went to different natural water bodies to try swimming.
c. He practised swimming regularly for a year.
d. He asked his instructor to give him a lot of practice.
Answer: He went to different natural water bodies to try swimming.
Q19. Name the figure of speech in the line- “Well, Mr. Terror, what do you think you can do to me?”
a. Personification
b. Metaphor
c. Oxymoron
d. Hyperbole
Answer: Personification
Q20. “I shouted with joy.” Why did Douglas shout with joy?
a. He was able to swim across the other shore of Warm Lake and back.
b. He had conquered his fear of water.
c. He could swim like Doug Corpron
d. His voice was echoed back by Gilbert Peak.
Answer: He had conquered his fear of water.
 MY MOTHER AT SIXTY-SIX (POETRY- FLAMINGO)
Multiple Choice Questions based on extract:
I looked again at her, wan, pale
As a late winter’s moon and felt that old familiar ache, my childhood’s fear,
But all I said was, see you soon, Amma
All I did was smile and smile and smile…...

1. What was the poet’s childhood fear?

(a) Fear of separation from her mother
(b) Fear separation from her parents
(c) Fear of not doing well in academics
(d) Fear of separation from her father
Answer: fear of separation from her mother
2. What is the poetic device used in the lines 1-2?
(a) Metaphor
(b) Alliteration
(c) Simile
(d) Allegory
Answer: simile
3. Explain: ‘late winter’s moon’.
(a) Shining brilliantly
(b) Dull and obscure
(c) Vibrant
(d) Cold
Answer: dull and obscure
4. What is the reason behind the repetition of the word ‘smile’?
(a) Hope of seeing her mother again
(b) Lay stress on the emotional side
(c) Make the poem attractive
(d) Poet likes the word
Answer: hope of seeing her mother again
And
Looked out at Young
Trees sprinting, the merry children spilling
Out of their homes, but after the airport’s
Security check, standing a few yards
Away, I looked again at her, wan, pale
As a late winter’s moon and felt that old familiar ache...
 5. What is the most likely reason the poet capitalized ‘Young Trees’?
(a) Convey a clearer meaning
(b) Highlight the adj- noun combination
(c) Enhance the contrast
(d) Draw a connection with the title
Answer: enhance the contrast
6. Choose the option that appropriately describes the relationship between the two statements
given below.
Statement 1: The poet knows her mother has aged.
Statement 2: The poet feels the pain of separation.
(a) Beginning- ending
(b) Cause- effect
(c) Question- answer
(d) Introduction- conclusion
Answer: cause- effect
7. Choose the option that completes the sentence given below.
Just as the brightness of the winter’s moon is veiled behind the haze and mist, similarly, _______,
(a) The pain of separation has shaded mother’s expression
(b) Age has fogged mother’s youthful appearance.
(c) Growing up has developed a seasoned maturity in the poet
(d) Memories warm the heart like the pale moon in winter.
Answer: age has fogged mother’s youthful appearance
8. Choose the correct option out of the ones given below:
1. Simile: the merry children spilling, Metaphor: old familiar ache
2. Metaphor: pale as a late winter’s moon, Imagery: young trees sprinting
3. Imagery: all I did was smile, Personification: the merry children spilling
4. Personification: young trees sprinting, Simile: pale as a late winter’s moon
(a) Option 1
(b) Option 2
(c) Option 3
(d) Option 4
Answer: option 4
Stand- alone MCQs
9. The mood in the last two lines is that of
(a) Regret
(b) Guilt
(c) Acceptance of reality
(d) Anger
 Answer: acceptance of reality
10. What was the expression on the narrator’s face?
(a) Smiling face
(b) Angry look
(c) Sarcastic expression
(d) Frowning face
Answer: smiling face
11. The poem is made up of
(a) Twenty lines
(b) A single sentence
(c) Ten stanzas
(d) Five stanzas
Answer: a single sentence
12. Quote an example of alliteration used in the poem.
(a) Like ashen
(b) Smile, smile and smile
(c) Friday morning
(d) None of these
Answer: none of these
13. What is the universality of the theme of the poem?
(a) Death is a truth
(b) Life is a reality
(c) Everyone is happy
(d) To show old age
Answer: death is a truth
14. Why does the poet feel parted, upset and sad?
(a) Because of her fears
(b) Because she was getting late
(c) Fear of missing her flight
(d) Because of her duty towards mother and her own needs
Answer: because of her duty towards mother and her own needs
15. What does ‘ashen face’ signify?
(a) color of face
(b) face is covered with ash
(c) pale and lifeless face of poet’s mother
(d) an ugly face
Answer: pale and lifeless face of poet’s mother
 16. What do the running trees signify?
(a) Fast moving appearance
(b) Speed of the moving car
(c) Fast moving change in human life from childhood to old age
(d) None of these
Answer: fast moving change in human life from childhood to old age
17. She soon put that thought out of her mind and
(a) Smiled
(b) Laughed heartily
(c) Cried bitterly
(d) Looked out of the window
Answer: looked out of the window
18. What does the narrative single sentence style of the poem highlight?
(a) Poet’s feelings
(b) Poet’s insecurities
(c) Poet’s thoughts
(d) Poet’s intertwining thoughts
Answer: poet’s intertwining thoughts
19. Who lives at Cochin?
(a) Poet
(b) Her parents
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of them
Answer: poet
20. What is the tone of the poem towards the end?
(a) Sad
(b) Hopeless
(c) Cheerful
(d) Resignation with acceptance
Answer: Resignation with acceptance
 KEEPING QUIET
1. What can human beings learn from nature?
(a) beauty

(b) keeping quiet

(c) to be happy
(d) working in silence
Answer: (d) working in silence

2. The last line of the poem is

(a) and later proves to be alive
(b) life is what it is about
(c) I want no truck with death
(d) and you keep quiet and I will go
Answer: (d) and you keep quiet and I will go

3. What is the poetic device used in ‘Cold sea’

(a) personification
(b) transferred epithet
(c) metaphor
(d) alliteration
Answer: (b) transferred epithet

4. ‘Without rush, without engines’ refers to

(a) no noise
(b) no hurry to go anywhere
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
Answer: both a and b

5. ‘I want no truck with death’ means

(a) will not die of the truck accident
(b) will not struggle for death
(c) have no association or deal with death
(d) will not drive a truck
Answer: (c) have no association or deal with death

6. The type of wars the poet talks about are

(a) green wars, wars with gas, wars with fire
(b) verbal wars
 (c) technological warfare
(d) nuclear wars
Answer: (a) green wars, wars with gas, wars with fire

7. ‘Fishermen in the cold sea would not harm whales. The poet is here referring to
(a) The hard work of the fishermen
(b) The man being responsible for harming environment
(c) The man being responsible for extinction of marine life
(d) He considers fishing a tiring profession
Answer: The man being responsible for extinction of marine life

8. Why does the poet appeal to the readers to keep quiet ?

(a) To bring peace to the world
(b) To unite the world
(c) To introspect and reflect
(d) To remain inactive
Answer: To introspect and reflect

9. What symbol from nature does the poet use to prove that keeping quiet is not total inactivity?
(a) sun
(b) soil
(c) earth
(d) nature
Answer: earth

10. How will silence benefit the man and nature?

(a) both will be friends
(b) man will know nature better
(c) man will be healthy
(d) man will stop hurting nature and nature would get time to revive
Answer: (d) man will stop hurting nature and nature would get time to revive

11. What would everyone feel at that exotic moment?

(a) happy
(b) content
(c) peaceful
(d) strange blissful oneness
Answer: (d) strange blissful oneness
 12. Why is the poet asking everyone not to speak any language?

(a) to avoid noise

(b) to avoid people
(c) to avoid wars
(d) to avoid conflicts and misunderstanding
Answer: (d) to avoid conflicts and misunderstandings

13. What is the sadness in the poem that the poet speaks about?
(a) Conflict with our ownseleves
(b) Fear of Death
(c) Not clear of the purpose of our existence
(d) All of these
Answer: All of these

14. What does hurt hand refer to?

(a) Growing needs of the man
(b) Unfulfilled desires
(c) Growing greed of man
(d) Growing insensitivity of man to pain
Answer: (d) growing insensitivity of man to pain

15. Of the following images what does the poet not condemn?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

16. What does the title of the poem suggest?

(a) inactivity
(b) noise
(c) unhappiness
(d) maintenance of silence
Answer: (d) maintenance of silence

17. How does the poet perceive life?

(a) as stillness
(b) as silence
(c) a continuous evolution of nature
(d) a noisy place
Answer: (c) a continuous evolution of nature

18. What is the rhyming scheme used in the poem?

(a) enclosed rhyme
(b) monorhyme
(c) sonnet
(d) free verse
Answer: (d) free verse

19. What is the essence or message of the poem?

(a) Introspection and retrospection to be more peaceful and be in harmony
(b) To prosper
(c) To be happier
(d) To reach out to more people
Answer: (a) Introspection and retrospection to be more peaceful and be in harmony

20. Statement 1: The poet appeals to all to remain quiet for sometime.
Statement 2: The poet does not appeal to anyone to be inactive.
a. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
b. Statement 2 is true but statement 1 is false.
c. Both the statements are true.
d. Both the statements are false.
 MCQ of
An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum
1. Stephen Spender concentrates in the poem on the themes of:
a) Social Injustice and Class Injustice.
b) Class Injustice and Social Inequalities.
c) Social Injustice and Class Inequalities.
d) Both a and b.
Answer: c) Social Injustice and Class Inequalities.
2. An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum refers to:
a) Primary school children.
b) Middle school children.
c) Higher school children.
d) Lower middle school children.
Answer: a) Primary school children
3. The stunted unlucky heir is a victim of:
a) Genetic Disorder
b) Anxiety Disorder
c) Cognitive Disorder
d) Sleep Disorder
Answer: a) Genetic Disorder
4. One un noted boy is, representative of:
a) Hope and brightness
b) Grim and despair
c) Dark reality of life
d) Both b and c
Answer: a) Hope and brightness
5. Stephen Spender is petitioning______________ to bring transformation in the lives of slum children.
a) Governors and Bureau crats
b) Governors and Inspectors
c) Governors and Visitors
d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c
6.’ White and Green leaves ‘refer to
a) Pages of books and Greenery.
b) Pages of books and Nature.
c) Pages of books and Trees.
d) Pages of books and Grass.
Answer: b) Pages of books and Nature
7. The literary device in’ rat's eyes’ is :
a) Simile
b) Metaphor
c) Alliteration
d) Assonance
Answer: b) Metaphor
8.’ Sour cream ‘symbolizes:
a) a glorious future
b) Faded dreams
c) Bitter whiteness
d) Unpleasant picture
Answer: b) Faded dreams
9. Run azure on gold sands, and let their tongues,
Run naked into books
The expression Run has _______________ poetic device
a) Repetition
b) Anaphora
c) Alliteration
d) Assonance
Answer: b) Anaphora
10.. Far, Far from gusty waves stresses upon
a) How far the children are from home.
b) How far the children are from brightness.
c) Children are very far from progressive and civilized world.
d) Children are very far from progressive life.
Answer: c) Children are very far from progressive and civilized world.
11.’ Like rootless weeds refers that
a) Slum children are unsafe
b) Slum children are insecure
c) Slum children are underfed
d) Slum children are weak
Answer: c) Slum children are insecure.

12. The walls in the school classroom are adorned with

a) Donations, civilized dome and open-handed map.
b) Shakespeare's head and beautiful picture of Tyrolese valley.
c) Openhanded map
d) Both a and b
 Answer: d) Both a and b

13. ‘Catacombs’ symbolizes:

a) Darkness and illiteracy among slum children.
b) Pathetic and grim life of slum children.
c) Endless sufferings and miseries of slum children.
d) Sad and deprived life of slum children.
Answer: c) Endless sufferings and miseries of children

14. Slyly in the poem means

a) Jointly
b) Secretly
c) Unitedly
d) Lively
Answer: b) Secretly

15. Which world is awarded on the open-handed map

a) Rich and glamorous world

b) Bleak and dull world
c) Wonderful and worth seeing world
d) Progressive and lifeless world

Answer: c) Wonderful and worth seeing world

16. History theirs whose language is sun. The sun in this line refers to
a) Love and warmth
b) Brightness and glimmer
c) Love and support
d) Richness and prosperity
Answer: a) Love and warmth

17. The transformation can be brought in the lives of slum children by:
a) Showing them blue sky and golden sands.
b) Educating and giving them knowledge.
c) Teaching them Art and Craft.
d) Both a and b.
 Answer: d) Both a and b

18 the hair torn round their pallor shows that the children were
a) Malnourished and thin.
b) Unhygienic and plump.
c) Sad and depressed.
d) Like rootless weeds
Answer: d) were like rootless weeds

19 Shakespeare is wicked because:

a) They do not like Shakespeare.
b) They are ignorant about Shakespeare.
c) They are not taught about Shakespeare.
d) They do not want to know about Shakespeare.
Answer: c) They are not taught about Shakespeare

20.
Which line from poem suits the above image
a) The tall girl with her weighed down head.
b) The paper seeming boy with rat's eyes.
c) One unnoted boy with dreams in his eyes.
d) These children’s faces like rootless weeds.
Answer: d) These children’s faces like rootless weeds.
 THE THIRD LEVEL
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which railway station is central to the story?

(a) New Haven and Hartford
(b) Trans-Continental
(c) Grand Central
(d) Oxford Grand
Answer: (c) Grand Central

2. What does 'The Third Level' refer to?

(a) a level in the game that Charley was playing
(b) the third floor of the Roosevelt Hotel
(c) the third floor of the office where Charley was working
(d) an additional imaginary floor at the Grand Central Station
Answer: (d) an additional imaginary floor at the Grand Central Station

3. “He said I was unhappy. That made my wife kind of mad.” Why did the wife react so?
(a) implies marital discord.
(b) implies the wife’s incapability to manage the household.
(c) implies that the wife is the root of the narrator’s problem.
(d) the wife disagrees with the doctor’s diagnosis.
Answer: (c) implies that the wife is the root of the narrator’s problem.

4. The genre of the chapter ‘The Third Level’ is ___________.

(a) science fiction
(b) adventure
(c) satire
(d) drama
Answer: (a) Science Fiction
5. Charley says, "Yes, I’ve taken the obvious step". Which step is he talking about?
(a) entering the Third level
(b) narrating the incident to his wife
(c) talking to the railroad authorities about the incident
(d) talking to his psychiatrist friend about the incident
Answer: (d) talking to his psychiatrist friend about the incident

6. First day covers are ____________.

(a) envelopes mailed by people to themselves on the first day of the year.
(b) envelopes mailed by people to themselves on the first day when a new stamp is issued.
(c) envelopes mailed by people to themselves on the first day of the month.
(d) envelopes mailed by people to their grandfathers on the first day when a new stamp is issued.
Answer: (b) envelopes mailed by people to themselves on the first day when a new stamp is issued.

7. "The modern world is full of insecurity, fear, war and worry". who said this?
(a) Charley
(b) Psychiartist friend Sam
(c) Louisa
(d) Grandfather
Answer: (b) Psychiartist friend Sam

8. The date on the newspaper ‘The World’ was _________.

(a) July 11,1984
(b) June 11, 1894
(c) June 11, 1984
(d) July 11, 1894
Answer: (b) June 11, 1894

9. Which one of these was NOT seen by Charley when he landed at the Third Level?
(a) The man in the booth wearing a green eyeshade
(b) flickering gaslights
(c) so many beards, sideburns and fancy mustaches
(d) people lining up for the approaching metro
Answer: (d) people lining up for the approaching metro
10. How does Charley describe Galesburg?
(a) a serene wonderful town
(b) a Utopian city
(c) a town for sophisticated people
(d) a city bustling with activity
Answer: (a) a serene wonderful town

11. The end of the story brings out __________.

(a) Satire
(b) Pathos
(c) Irony
(d) Tragedy
Answer: (c) Irony

12. Read the following two statements and identify the correct relation between them.
STATEMENT 1 – Charley swears to see a third level at the Grand Central Station.
STATEMENT 2 – Charley wants to seek attention.
(a) Statement 1 is right but Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is right.
(c) Statement 1and 2 are correct.
(d) Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Answer: (a) Statement 1 is right but Statement 2 is false.

13. The comparison of the Grand Central Station with a tree is an example of a ________.
(a) simile
(b) metaphor
(c) anachronism
(d) allegory
Answer: (b) metaphor

14. Why couldn’t Charley purchase the tickets at the third level?
(a) he didn’t have adequate amount of money.
(b) he didn’t have the proper style of notes.
(c) the ticket-collector refused to sell him.
(d) he changed his mind at the last minute.
Answer: (b) he didn’t have the proper style of notes.

15. Which face among the given options has a handlebar moustache?

(a) face A
(b) face B
(c) face C
(d) face D
Answer: (d) face D

16. What is Charley’s attachment to Galesburg?

(a) he went to school there.
(b) he learnt farming there.
(c) he played professional baseball there.
(d) he liked to live in a peaceful town.
Answer: (a) he went to school there.
17. Which of the following dress is known as ‘leg of mutton sleeve’?

(a) dress 1
(b) dress 2
(c) dress 3
(d) dress 4
Answer: (b) dress 2

18. Read the following two statements and select the correct option.
STATEMENT 1 – Charley is unhappy with the modern day lifestyle and longs for the simple times.
STATEMENT 2 – Charley converted all his money to old-style bills to purchase tickets to Galesburg.
(a) Statement 1 is right but Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is right.
(c) Statement 1and 2 are correct.
(d) Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Answer: (c) Statement 1and 2 are correct.

19. Which of the following patient room is most likely to be a psychiatrist’s?

Room 1 Room 2

Room 3
Room 4
(a) Room 1
(b) Room 2
(c) Room 3
(d) Room 4
Answer: (d) Room 4

20. According to Charley, who was fond of stamp collecting?

(a) President Carter
(b) President Roosevelt
(c) President Garfield
(d) President Cleveland
Answer: (b) President Roosevelt
 THE ENEMY
QUESTION BANK
Q.1. Where did Dr. Sadao first meet Hana?
a) at the Japanese university
b) at his neighbour’s home
c) at the American university
d) at the home of his American professor
Answer: d) at the home of his American professor

Q.2. The characteristic of Dr. Sadao’s father which is incorrect is?

a) he did not play with him
b) he sent his son to America because he liked the country
c) he did not joke with him
d) he had infinite plans for him
Answer: b) he sent his son to America because he liked the country

Q.3. Dr. Sadao knew that he would not be sent with the troops because
a) he was a famous surgeon
b) the General might need an operation
c) the Japanese government wanted him to pursue his discovery of “wound cleaning”
d) the General knew his late father
Answer: b) the General might need an operation

Q.4. On examination of the unconscious white man lying on the beach, Dr. Sadao found out….
a) he had been shot on the left side of his upper back
b) he had been shot on the right side of his upper back
c) he had been shot on the right side of his lower back
d) he had been shot on the left side of his lower back
Answer: c) he had been shot on the right side of his lower back
Q.5. After the General recovered from his operation, he confirmed to Dr. Sadao that he did not send the
assassins because
a) of lack of patriotism
b) of lack of dereliction of duty
c) he forgot his promise to Dr. Sadao
d) the assassins were unavailable at that time
Answer: c) he forgot his promise to Dr. Sadao

Q.6. In the first meeting of Dr. Sadao with the General, the option which the General chose regarding the
white man was?
a) send soldiers to dump the white man in the sea
b) send soldiers to kill the white man
c) send assassins to kill and dispose of the body of the white man
d) send Police to arrest the white man
Answer: c) send assassins to kill and dispose of the body of the white man

Q.7. The burden of waiting for assassins by Dr. Sadao ended after?
a) the first night
b) the fourth night
c) the second night
d)the third night
Answer: d) after the third night

Q.8. Fathom is a unit for measurement of?

a) area
b) volume
c) depth
d) weight
Answer: c) depth
Q.9. What did Dr. Sadao not provide the white man with at the time of his departure?
a) boat
b) gun
c) food and bottled water
d) flashlight
Answer: b) gun

Q.10. Dr. Sadao’s most important instruction to the white man while planning his departure was?
a) eat raw fish
b) until you saw a Korean fishing boat
c) use flashlight at the instant the sun drops over the horizon
d) a fire would be seen
Answer: b) until you saw a Korean fishing boat

Q.11. For the old gardener, the best of fertilizers is?

a) eggshells
b) coffee grounds
c) banana peels
d) blood
Answer: d) blood

Q.12. The messenger came to the door in official uniform and Hana thought?
a) he has come to arrest Dr. Sadao and herself
b) he has come to arrest the white man
c) he has come to arrest Dr. Sadao
d) he has come with an important message.
Answer: c) he has come to arrest Dr. Sadao
Q.13. How shall I do the anesthetic, Hana asked? Dr. Sadao replied-
a) simply saturate the cotton and hold it near his nose
b) simply fill the syringe from the bottle and administer an injection on the leg
c) simply pour the contents of the bottle on the wound
d) simply fill the syringe from the bottle and administer injection on the arm
Answer: a) simply saturate the cotton and hold it near his nose

Q.14. While performing the operation, Dr. Sadao had the habit of?
a) speaking with the patient
b) saying a prayer
c) listening to music
d) looking up to the ceiling
Answer: a) speaking with the patient
Q.15. Hana crouched close to the sleeping face of the young American and thought?
a) she should not assist Dr. Sadao in the operation
b) the police might catch them performing the operation
c) it was a piteously thin face, and the lips were twisted
d) some family friends may unexpectedly visit them
Answer: c) it was a piteously thin face and the lips were twisted

Q.16. The concluding argument by Yumi for not washing the white man was?
a) I have never washed a white man
b) I am a poor person and it is not my business
c) I will not wash so dirty a one now
d) I have never washed any man
Answer: b) I am a poor person and it is not my business

Q.17. He spelled it out: “U.S. Navy.” The man was a prisoner of war! The thought which did not occur to
Dr. Sadao and Hana was?
a) he has escaped and that is why he is wounded
b) can we put him back in the sea
c) all Americans are my enemy
d) that Dr. Sadao will have to perform the operation to save his life
Answer: d) that Dr. Sadao will have to perform an operation to save his life

Q.18. “I feel I ought to thank you, Doctor, for having saved my life.” Dr. Sadao responded as?
a) I was just following the profession as a doctor
b) I ought, of course, to give you to the police
c) Don’t thank me too early
d) I do not know myself what I shall do with you
Answer: c) Don’t thank me too early

Q.19. An escaped prisoner of war washed up on the shore in front of Dr. Sadao’s house on
a) the twenty-fifth day of February
b) on the twenty-first day of February
c) on the twenty-ninth day of February
d) on the twenty-seventh day of February
Answer: b) on the twenty-first day of February
Q.20. Tokonoma refers to:
a) the floor of a Japanese room
b) a cupboard in a Japanese room
c) a decoration space in a Japanese room
d) a window in a Japanese room
Answer: c) a decoration space in a Japanese room
 WRITING SECTION
NOTICE WRITING
MCQS
1. Your school is going to organize a cultural evening to collect funds for the covid victims of slums.
Draft a notice to be placed on the notice board of your school . mention all the required details. You
are Mukul, Head Boy of the school.

ABC PUBLIC SCHOOL

DWARKA

NOTICE
15August 2021
Fund Collection For Covid victims

A cultural evening is being organized by our school in the school to collect

Funds for the Covid victims of slum. Students are requested to participate whole heartedly for its
great success.
M
Mukul
(Head Boy)

Which one of the following is missing in the above Notice?

[a] date of the event
[b] date and time of the the event
[c] date ,time and venue of the event
[d]None
Answer: [c] date ,time and venue

2. You are Ram , secretary of CBA Residents’ welfare Association, Vikas Puri, New Delhi.
Water Supply will be restricted for two days due to repair work of pipe line. Inform residents about it
.

CBA RESIDENTS’ WELFARE ASSOCIATION

VIKAS PURI, NEW DELHI

NOTICE
15 August 2021
[a]…………………………………..

This is to inform all the residents that there will no water supply for [b]………………..
 Due to [c]……………. In the pipeline ,so everyone is advised to store [d] ……………… , to avoid
inconvenience.

[a] [i] No water supply [ii]Power cut [iii]Due to Repair work -No water supply[iv]arrange water
[b][i] two days [ii]three days[iii] four days [iv] none of the above
[c][i] repaired[ii] repairing [iii] repairs [iv] repair
[d] [i] water [ii] water tank[iii] water storage [iv]
Answer:[a] [iii]Due to repair- work no water supply

[b] [i] two days

[c] [iv] repair
[d] [i] water
[3] You are Akash and you want to change your name , which of the following will be used
for this purpose?
[i]Advertisement [ii] Notice [iii] Public Notice [iv] Institutional Notice
Answer: [iii] Public Notice

[4] The content of the notice must have ……

[i]What [ii] When [iii] why [iv] All the above
Answer : [iv] All the above.

[5] A notice is a ………….. means of communication.

[i] formal [ii] informal [iii] verbal [iv] oral
Answer: [i] Formal

[6] Through Notice one can

[i] inform [ii] invite [iii] aware [iv] all the above
Answer: [iv]. All the above
[7] At the end of the notice it is a must to mention…………….
[i] Name only [ii] Name, Signature and post [iii] post only [iv] None
Answer: [ii]Name, Signature and post

[8] Notice can be written for ……………. Purposes.

[i] General [ii] Specific [iii] General and specific both [iv] None
Answer : [iii] General and specific both

[9] Govt. issues the notices through…….

[i] Display boards [ii] Public Notice board [iii] Newspaper [iv] none
Answer: [iii] Newspaper

[10] A notice is incomplete without mentioning……..

[i] Its purpose
[ii] All the details
[iii] Name and signatures of the concerned person
[iv] All the above
Answer:[iv] All the above

[11] You lost your black bag in the school play ground what description will you be giving?
[i] Found a black bag
[ii] lost a black bag containing books….
[iii] lost a black and white bag
[iv] None
Answer: [ii] lost a black bag containing books.

[12] Which one of the following is irrelevant for notice ?

[i] Date
[ii] Details of the event
[iii] Name of the concerned person
[iv] Age of the concerned person
Answer: [iv] Age of the concerned person

[13] A notice can be given in the columns of a newspaper in the form of

[i] An article
[ii] Display advertisement
[iii] A classified advertisement
[iv] A Report
Answer: [iii] A classified advertisement

[14] A notice should be written in ….

[i] First person ,present tense
[ii] First person , past tense
[iii] Third person, present tense
[iv] Third person ,past tense
Answer: [iii] Third person , present tense

[15] Which of the following is mentioned on the top of the Notice?

[i] Notice
[ii] Date
[iii] Name of the Institution
[iv] Name of the issuing authority
Answer: [iii] Name of the Institution

[16] Language of the notice must be

[i] Easy to understand
[ii] Clear and concise
iii] Must cover all the relevant points
[iv] All the above
Answer : All the above

[17]. Which of the following is correct form to be written in the format ?

[i] abc public school
[ii] Abc public school
[iii] ABC public school
[iv] ABC PUBLIC SCHOOL
Answer: ABC PUBLIC SCHOOL

[18] Where will you place the content while writing a notice?
[i] Before NOTICE
[ii] Before heading
[iii] After heading
[iv] After signature
Answer: After heading

[19] Notice is an informal document?

[i] True
[ii] False
Answer: False

[20] While writing a notice- future time references predominate over other tense forms.
[i] True
[ii] False
Answer: True
 ADVERTISEMENT
1.Which type of advertisement is written by an employer who is looking for the services of a person in his
organisation?
(a)Situation Vacant
(b)Situation Wanted
(c)Accommodation Required
(d) Job Available
Answer: (a) Situation Vacant

2.A person looking for tenants for his/her property writes this type of advertisement:
(a)Accommodation Required
(b)To Let
(c)For Sale
(d)Sale and Purchase
Answer:(b) To Let

3. SALE/PURCHASE
Wanted second hand car, in good condition,2019 model, medium sedan, good mileage,
Maruti and Honda preferred, preferably owner driven, fully insured, documents should
What isbe
missing in the
in order. above advertisement?
Interested sellers contact: Simar Singh, A40, Ashok Nagar, Delhi.
(a)colour of the car
(b)reason for buying
(c)terms and conditions
(d)contact number
Answer:(d) contact number

4.Find the correct order of the following ‘Lost and found’ advertisement.
I. Wearing black collar
II. Finder will be rewarded
III. Contact: A.K Das, Civil Lines, Hyderabad,9834562780
IV. Lost golden brown spaniel,2 years old, Whippy
(a)I,II,III,IV
(b)IV,II,III,I
(c)IV,I,II,III
(d)IV,III,II,I
Answer:(c)IV,I,II,III

5.Heritage Travels, Central Market, Punjabi Bagh, New Delhi, offers attractive holiday packages to Goa for
3nights /4 days, 4 star accommodation, all meals, sight seeing, airport transfers, special discounts on bulk
bookings.
Choose the most appropriate heading for the above classified advertisement:
(a)Sale/Purchase
(b)Tours & Travels
(c)Accommodation Available
(d) Package Available
Answer: (b) Tours & Travels

6.Which of these is not an appropriate category of a classified advertisement?

(a)Situation Vacant
(b)Groom Wanted
(c Birthday Event
(d)Sale/Purchase
Answer: (c) Birthday Event

7. Which of these phrases is inappropriate for a classified advertisement titled ‘Groom

Wanted’?
(a) Salary Negotiable
(b)Salary in 6 figures
(c)Well mannered
(d)Well educated
Answer: (a) Salary Negotiable

8. Select the most appropriate phrase for a classified advertisement titled ‘Accommodation Wanted’
(a)Well mannered
(b)Heavy discount
(c)Fully furnished
(d)Price negotiable
Answer: (c) Fully furnished

9.Which of these is true about Notices and not about Advertisements?

(a)An appropriate title
(b)Use of sentences
(c)Limit of 50 words
(d)All the above
Answer: (b) Use of sentences

10.Amazon India wants to hire new delivery boys, what will be the most appropriate title for the classified
advertisement to be printed in the newspaper?
(a)Situation Wanted
(b)Situation Vacant
(c)Sales Boy Available
(d)Job Wanted
Answer: (b) Situation Vacant

11.Your pet dog went missing from your house for the last two days. Which of the following piece of
information should not be a part of the classified advertisement?
(a)Breed
(b)Height
(c)Colour of collar belt
(d)Qualities
Answer: (d) Qualities

12.Which of the following is an appropriate heading for a classified advertisement if you are looking for a
house on rent?
(a)Accommodation Wanted
(b)Wanted a House
(c) To-Let
(d)House for Sale
Answer: (a)Accommodation Wanted

13.Yamaha 100cc motorbike fully loaded with accessories for sale. Done 8000 km, excellent condition,
2013 model, expected price Rs 28,000 (non-negotiable). Genuine buyers contact: Raj Malhotra, Mob:
9xxxxxx120.
Supply a suitable heading to the above classified advertisement
(a)Vehicle for Sale
(b)Vehicle Wanted
(c)Matrimonial
(d)Tours and Travels
Answer: (a) Vehicle for Sale

14.An electronic engineer who has recently returned from the U.S. and looking for a suitable job in the IT
industry, what will he not mention in the classified advertisement to be inserted in the newspaper?
(a)Qualifications
(b)Experience
(c)Complexion
(d)Salary Expected
Answer: (c) Complexion

15.A classified advertisement is (i) published on road side walls (ii) published in newspaper (iii) an audio-
video advertisement (iv) published in magazines
Choose the most appropriate option from the ones given below:
(a)Only (i) is correct
(b)Only (iv) is correct
(c)Both (i) and (iii) are correct
(d)Both (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer: (d) Both (ii) and (iv) are correct

16.You are looking for a match for your son who is working as a Senior Manager in an MNC in Gurugram.
You want to write a classified advertisement giving all the necessary details. Identify the type of classified
advertisement from the options given below:
(a)Marriage
(b)Looking for a Bride
(c)Matrimonial
(d)None of these
Answer:(c) Matrimonial
Amit Bajaj’s pet dog has been missing for the last one week. Draft a suitable advertisement for him for the
classified columns of the local daily.
17_________________
Missing pet dog, Walter, Saint Bernard,18_________ ,white tail,1 year old ,brown collar with
retractable leash, missing since 10th March 2021 from central park, Model Town, Delhi,
19______,contact:20________________________

Choose the most appropriate option:

17.
(a)Missing
(b)Lost and Found
(c)Lost!Lost!Lost!
(d)Kennel
Answer: (a)Missing

18.
(a)smart
(b)white fur
(c)mix breed
(d)clever
Answer:(b) white fur

19.
(a)reward
(b)suitable reward for information
(c)price negotiable
(d)cash prize
Answer: (b)suitable reward for information

20.
(a)Amit Bajaj,18/37
(b)Amit Bajaj,18/37, Model Town
(c)Amit Bajaj,18/37, Model Town, Delhi
(d) Amit Bajaj,18/37, Model Town, Delhi,9811XXXXXX
Answer:(d)Amit Bajaj,18/37, Model Town, Delhi,9811XXXXXX
 PART 1
SPEECH WRITING
The following are the different paragraphs of a script. However, the paragraphs have been putin the wrong
sequence. Answer the questions given below :

A. Hence, my friends! I conclude by saying that……………

B. We must learn to manage our time effectively and judiciously. Some of the ways
tomanage time well are…………………………………………....

C. Good morning teachers and my dear friends! I am Shiva/Shivani of class XII. Today, I
am going to express my views on the topic ……………………….

D. However, there are some prominent causes of this rampant problem. Nowadays, people
waste their time in unproductive activities such as playing video games, watching television,
using mobile phones etc…………………….

E. It is rightly said : ‘Time and tide wait for none’. Once lost, it cannot be retrieved or
restored. Therefore, it is very essential to manage our time for a blissful, successful and
happy life. Time management is the key to a happy and successful life. It makes us more
productive, satisfied and goal-oriented in our life……………………………...

Question 1. The given paragraphs seem to be parts of a ……………….

a. Letter
b. Article
c. Speech
d. ReportAnswer

1:c

Question 2. What should be the correct sequence of the paragraphs to draft a coherent piece.

a. E-C-B-D-A
b. C-B-E-D-A
c. C-E-D-B-A
d. A-B-C-D-EAnswer 2

:c

Question 3. Which of the following seems to be an appropriate title of the given composition?
 a. Time and tide wait for none
b. Importance of Time management
c. Mantra of success
d. Some of the ways to manage time

Answer 3 : b
Question 4. Which of the paragraphs seems to be discussing the SOLUTIONS ORSUGGESTIONS regarding the
topic/theme of the composition?

a. Para A
b. Para B
c. Para C
d. Para D
e. Para EAnswer

4:b
Question 5. Which of the paragraphs seems to be discussing the MAIN IDEA/TOPIC/THEMEof the given
composition?

a. Para A
b. Para B
c. Para C
d. Para D
e. Para EAnswer

5:e
Question 6. Which of the paragraphs seems to be the INTRODUCTORY PARA of the givencomposition?

a. Para A
b. Para B
c. Para C
d. Para D
e. Para EAnswer

6:c

Question 7. Which of the paragraphs seems to be the CONCLUSION of the given composition?

a. Para A
b. Para B
c. Para C
d. Para D
e. Para EAnswer
7:a
Question 8. Which of the paragraphs seems to be discussing the REASONS OF THEPROBLEM in the given
composition?

a. Para A
b. Para B
c. Para C
d. Para D
e. Para EAnswer

8:d
Question 9. Which of the following is written at the end of the composition?

a. Writer’s name
b. Yours sincerely
c. Thank you
d. Yours trulyAnswer

9:c
 PART 2
ARTICLE WRITING
Question 10. The article can be made more interesting by …….

a. writing long sentences the entire time.

b. writing short sentences the enitre time.
c. asking rhetorical questions.
d. using really formal language.Answer

10 : c

Question 11. Statement: Humour is an integral part of articles.

a. True
b. False Answer

11 : b

Question 12. Subheadings are useful in articles because...

a. They help organise ideas.

b. They keep things fresh.
c. They don't do anything useful.
d. They repeat the important points

Answer 12 : a
Question 13. In article writing, a by-line is…….

a. an extra piece of information

b. the name of the writer
c. pointless
d. part of a goal lineAnswer

13 : b

Question 14. What should NOT be included in an article?

a. Writer’s own opinion

b. Rhetorical questions
c. A range of different techniques to persuade/argue
d. Lots of technical language and jargon.Answer

14 : d
Question 15. Why should the last paragraph make some reference to the opening paragraph?
 a. To make it look neater
b. It shouldn't, ideally
c. To confuse the reader
d. To draw the points together and conclude

Answer 15 : d
Question 16. An article needs a headline...

a. only if you can think of one

b. that is catchy and encourages people to read it
c. to be in capital letters and bold
d. to be long and detailed

Answer 16 : b
Question 17. Which of the following is the first part of an article?

a. Writer's name
b. Conclusion
c. Heading
d. Body Answer

17 : c

Question 18. This part of the article will help you recognize who wrote it.

a. heading
b. conclusion
c. by line
d. body Answer

18 : c
Question 19. In here, you will find the main part of the article.

a. conclusion
b. body
c. opinion
d. heading

Answer 19 : b
Question 20. An article is basically written for a small audience/readers.

a. True
b. False Answer

20 : b
 ASSIGNMENT CLASS XII, CHAPTER: L.P.P

1. Objective function of a L.P.P is

(a) A quadratic function
(b) A constraint
(c) A linear function to optimized
(d) None of these
Ans ; (c) A linear function to optimized
2. The optimal value of the objective function is attained at the points
(a) Given by the intersection of inequations with x-axis only
(b) Given by the corner points of the feasible region
(c) Given by the intersection of inequations with the axes only
(d) None of these
Ans; (b) Given by the corner points of the feasible region
3. The solution set of the inequation 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 < 4 is
(a) Open half plane not containing the origin.
(b) When xy-plane except the points lying on the line 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 4
(c) Open half plane containing origin.
(d) None of these.
Ans: (c) Open half plane containing origin.
4. The solution set of the inequation 𝑥 + 3𝑦 ≥ 6 is
(a) Half plane not containing the origin.
(b) Whole xy-plane except the points lying on the line 𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 6
(c) Open half plane containing the origin.
(d) None of these.
Ans : (a) Half plane not containing the origin.

5. Of all of the points of the feasible region for maximum or minimum of objective function the points
(a) Inside the feasible region
(b) At the boundary line of the feasible region
(c) Vertex point of the boundary of the feasible region
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) Vertex point of the boundary of the feasible region
6. A set of values of decision variables which satisfies the linear constraints and non-negativity conditions
of L.P.P is called its
(a) Unbounded solution
(b) Optimum solution
(c) Feasible solution
(d) None of these
Ans; (c) Feasible solution
7. Maximize 𝑍 = 11𝑥 + 8𝑦 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡𝑜 𝑥 ≤ 4, 𝑦 ≤ 6, 𝑥 + 𝑦 ≤ 6, 𝑥, 𝑦 ≥ 0
(a) 44 at (4,2)
(b) 60 at (4,2)
(c) 62 at (4,0)
(d) 48 at (4,2)
 Ans: (b) 60 at (4,2)
8. Maximize 𝑍 = 4𝑥 + 6𝑦, 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡𝑜 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 ≤ 12, 𝑥 + 𝑦 ≥ 4, 𝑥, 𝑦 ≥ 0
(a) 16 at (4,0)
(b) 24 at (0,4)
(c) 24 at (6,0)
(d) 36 at (0,6)
Ans; (d) 36 at (0,6)
9. If the objective function for an L.P.P. Z= 3x-4y and the corner points for the bounded feasible region are
(0,0)(5,0)(6,5)(6,8), (4,10)𝑎𝑛𝑑(0,8) then the minimum value of Z occurs at
(a) (0,0)
(b) (0,8)
(c) (5,0)
(d) (4,10)
ANS: (b) (0,8)
10. Refer to Q.9 above , the maximum Z occurs at
(a) (5,0)
(b) (6,5)
(c) (6,8)
(d) (4,10)
Ans: (a) (5,0)
11. Objective function of L.P.P is
(a)a constraint
(b) a function to be optimized
(c)a relation between variables
(d)none
Ans: (b)a function to be optimized
12. The feasible region always for an L.L.P is always
(a)convex
(b)concave
(c)may be convex or concave
(d)none
Ans: (a) convex
13. In a L.P.P, if the objective function Z = ax +by has same maximum value on two corner points of the
feasible region, then every point on the line segment joining these two points give the same
……………. Value.
(a) minimum
(b)maximum
(c)may or may not maximum
(d) none
Ans: (b) maximum
14. The corner points of the feasible region for an L.P.P. are (0,3), (1,1), and (3,0). If objective function is
𝑍 = 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞𝑦, 𝑝, 𝑞 >0, then the condition on p and q so that the minimum of Z occurs at (3,0) and (1,1)
is
(a) p=2q (b) p=q/2 (c)p=3q (d)p=q
 Ans: (b) p =q/2
15. If the corner points of the feasible region for an L.P.P. are (0,2), (3,0) ,(6,0), (6,8) and (0,5), then
minimum value of the objective function F = 4X+6Y occurs at
(a) (0,2) only
(b)(3,0) only
(c) the mid point of the line segment joining the points (0,2) and(3,0) only
(d)every point on the line segment joining the points (0,2) and (3,0)
Ans:(d) every point on the line segment joining the points (0,2) and (3,0)
16. The point at which the maximum value of x + y , subject to the constraints 𝑥 + 2𝑦 ≤ 70, 2𝑥 + 𝑦 ≤
95, 𝑥, 𝑦, ≥ 0 is obtained , is
(a) (30,25)
(b)(20,35)
(c)(35,20)
(d)(40,15)
Ans : (d) (40,15)
17. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a)Every L.P.P admits an optimal solution
(b)A LPP admits unique optimal solution
(c)if a LPP admits two optimal solutions it has an infinite number of optimal solutions (d) the set of
all feasible solutions of a LPP is not a converse set
Ans (c)if a LPP admits two optimal solutions it has an infinite number of optimal solutions
18. If the constraints in a linear programming problem are changed
(a) The problem is to be re-evaluated
(b) Solution is not defined
(c) The objective function has to be modified
(d) the change in constraints is ignored.
Ans: (a) The problem is to be re-evaluated.
19. The maximum value of 𝑍 = 4𝑥 + 2𝑦 subjected to the constraints 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 ≤ 18, 𝑥 + 𝑦 ≥ 10; 𝑥, 𝑦 ≥
0 𝑖𝑠
(a) 36
(b) 40
(c) 20
(d) None of these
ANS: (d) none of these
20. The objective function 𝑍 = 4𝑥 + 3𝑦 𝑐𝑎𝑛 𝑏𝑒 𝑚𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑧𝑒𝑑 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑠
3𝑥 + 4𝑦 ≤ 24, 8𝑥 + 6𝑦 ≤ 48, 𝑥 ≤ 5, 𝑦 ≤ 6; 𝑥, 𝑦 ≥ 0
(a) At only one point
(b) At two points only
(c) At an infinite number of points
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) At an infinite number of points
 CH-DETERMINANTS & MATRICES (MCQ)

Q.1 If aij= i + j then A = [𝑎𝑖𝑗 ]3×4 is :

1 2 3 4
(a) [4 5 6 7]
8 9 10 11
2 3 4 5
(b) [3 4 5 6]
4 5 6 7
2 3 4 5
(c) [3 4 5 6]
4 5 6 17
(d) none of these

Answer 1: Option (b)

𝑎+𝑏 2 6 2
Q.2 If [ ]=[ ] then (a,b) is :
5 𝑎𝑏 5 8
(a) (2,4), (4,2)

(b) (3,3),(3,4)

(c) (2,2),(1,1)

(d) none of above

Answer 2 : Option (a)

2 3 −4 5 1 2
Q.3 If A = [ 1 0 6 ] , B = [6 −1 4 ] , then 2A – 3B is :
−2 1 5 5 3 −4
7 3 −4
(a) [1 0 6]
−2 1 5
2 3 −4
(b) [ 11 10 16 ]
−2 1 5
−11 3 −14
(c) [−16 3 0 ]
19 −7 22
(d) none of above

Answer 3 : Option (c)

Q.4 If A= [aij]mxn and B= [bij]pxq and AB= BA then

(a) n=p

(b) n=p, m=n

(c) m=n=p=q

(d) m=q

Answer 4 : Option (c)

Q.5 If A is of order 2x3 and B is of order 3x2, then the order of AB is :

(a) 3x3

(b) 2x2

(c) 3x2

(d) 2x3

Answer 5 : Option (b)

2 0 2
Q.6 If A = [0 2 0], then the value of A5 is :
0 0 2
(a) 5A

(b) 10A

(c) 16 A

(d) 32 A

Answer 6 : Option (c)

Q.7 If A= [ 𝑎𝑏2 𝑏 2 ], then value of A2 is :

−𝑎 −𝑎𝑏
(a) 0

(b) I2

(c) -I2

(d) none of these

Answer 7 : (a)

2 −1 0 4
Q.8 If A=[ ] and B= [ ], then value of 3A2 – 2B + I is :
3 2 −1 7
 4 −20
(a) [ ]
38 −10
(b) 0

4 −20
(c) [ ]
38 10
(d) none of these

Answer 8 : (a)

4 3
Q.9 If A = [ ] and A2 – xA + y I = 0 , then (x,y) is :
2 5
(a) (3,7)

(b) (9,14)

(c) (5,14)

(d) (3,14)

Answer 9 : (b)

2 −3
Q.10 If A = [ ] , then 6A- 6 A2 is equal to :
−2 4
(a) I

(b) 2I

(c) 3I

(d) 4A

Answer 10 : (b)

Q.11 If A is a square matrix , then AAT + ATA is :

(a) Unit matrix

(b) null matrix

(c) symmetric matrix

(d) skew-symmetric matrix

Answer 11 : Option (c)

0 𝑥+2
Q.12 If A = [ ] is a skew-symmetric matrix, then x is equal to :
2𝑥 − 3 0
1
(a) 3
 (b) 5

(c) 3

(d) 1

Answer 12: (a)

4 −3 −2 −1
Q.13 If A and B are 2x2 square matrix and A + B =[ ] and A- B = [ ], then AB = ?
1 6 5 2
4 −20
(a) [ ]
38 −10
7 −5
(b) [ ]
1 5
4 −20
(c) [ ]
8 10
7 −5
(d) [ ]
1 −5
Answer 13 : (b)

2𝑥 0 1 0
Q.14 If A = [ ] and A-1 = [ ] , then x = ?
𝑥 𝑥 −1 2
(a) 1

(b) 2
1
(c) 2

(d) -2

Answer 14 : (c)

3 2 4 1
Q.15 If A[ ]=[ ] then A = ?
1 −1 2 3
1 −1
(a) [ ]
1 1
1 1
(b) [ ]
−1 1
1 1
(c) [ ]
1 −1
(d) none of these

Answer 15: (c)

−2 3
Q.16 If A = [ ], then | A -1 | = ?
1 1
 (a) -5
1
(b) -5

1
(c) 25

(d) 25

Answer 16 : (b)

3 −4
Q.17 If A= [ ] and B is a square matrix of order 2 such that AB = I, then B = ?
−1 2
−2 3
(a) [ ]
1 1
−2 4
(b) [ ]
1 −1
1 2
(c) [1 3]
2 2

(d) not possible to find

Answer 17 : (c)

3 −1
Q.18 If |A|= 3 and A-1 = [−5 2 ], then Adj. A = ?
3 3

9 3
(a) [ ]
−5 −2
9 −3
(b) [ ]
−5 2
−9 3
(c) [ ]
5 −2
9 −3
(d) [ ]
5 −2
Answer 18 : (b)

3 4
Q.19 If A is an invertible matrix and A-1 = [ ], then A = ?
5 6
6 −4
(a) [ ]
−5 3
1 1

(b) [31 4
1]
5 6
 −3 2
(c) [ 5 −3]
2 2

(d) not exist

Answer 19 : (c)

1 −1 𝑎 1
Q.20 If A= [ ] and B = [ ] and (A+ B )2 = A2 + B2, then :
2 −1 𝑏 −1
(a) a = 2, b = -3

(b) a = -2, b = -3

(c) a = 1, b = 4

(d) none of above

Answer 20 : (c)
 RELATION AND FUNCTIONS

STAND ALONE MCQ

1.Let R be a relation on the set L of lines defined by 𝑙1 R 𝑙2 if 𝑙1 is perpendicular to 𝑙2 , then relation R is

(a) Reflexive and Symmetric

b) Symmetric and Transitive

(c) Equivalence relation

(d) Symmetric

2. Given triangles with sides T1 ( 3, 4, 5) T2 (5, 12, 13) T3 ( 6, 8, 10) T4 ( 4, 7, 9) and a relation R in set of
triangles defined as R = {(T1,T2) : T1 is similar to T2}. Which triangles belong to the same equivalence
class?

(a) T1 and T2

(b) T2 and T3

(c) T1 and T3

(d) T1 and T4.

3. Given set A = {1, 2, 3} and a relation R = {(1, 2), (2, 1)}, the relation R will be

(a) Reflexive if (1, 1) is added

(b) Symmetric if (2, 3) is added

(c) Transitive if (1, 1) and (2,2) are added

(d) Symmetric if (3, 2) is added

4. Given set A = {p, q, r}. An identity relation in set A is

(a) R = {(p, q), (p, r)}

(b) R = {(p, p), (q, q), (r, r)}

(c) R = {(p, p), (q, q), (r, r), (p, r)}

(d) R = {(r, p), (q, p), (p, p)}

5. A relation S in the set of real numbers is defined as xSy x – y + √11 is an irrational number, then
relation S is

(a) Reflexive

(b) Reflexive and symmetric

(c) Transitive

(d) Equivalence.

6. Let R be a relation on the set N of natural numbers defined by yRx if y divides x. Then R is

(a) Reflexive and symmetric

(b) Transitive and symmetric

(c) Equivalence

(d) Reflexive, transitive but not symmetric

7. Let L denote the set of all straight lines in a plane. Let a relation R be defined by 𝑙 R m if and only if 𝑙is
perpendicular to m for all 𝑙, m  L. Then R is

(a) Reflexive

(b) Symmetric

(c) Transitive

(d) none of these

8. Let N be the set of natural numbers and the function f : N → N be defined by f (n) = 5n + 7n N. Then
f is:

(a) Surjective

(b) Injective

(c) Bijective

(d) None of these

9. Set A has 4 elements and the set B has 5 elements. Then the number of injective mappings that can be
defined from A to B is

(a) 144

(b) 12

(c) 120

(d) 64

10. Consider the non-empty set consisting of children in a family and a relation R defined as pRq if p is
sister of q. Then R is

(a) Symmetric but not Transitive

(b) Transitive but not Symmetric

(c) Neither Symmetric nor Transitive

(d) both Symmetric and Transitive

CASE STUDY BASED

11. In Sh. Sksharma memorial match under 2 different categories-boys and girls. Totally there were 250
participants. Among all of them finally three from Category 1 and two from Category 2 were selected
for the final race. Ravi forms two sets B and G with these participants for his college project
Let B = {𝑏1 , 𝑏2 , 𝑏3 } G= {𝑔1 , 𝑔2 } where B represents the set of boys selected and G the set of girls who
were selected for the final race.

Avi decides to explore these sets for various types of relations and functions
1. Avi wishes to form all the relations possible from B to G. How many such relations are possible?
a. 26
b. 25
c. 0
d. 23
2. Let R: B→B be defined by R = {(𝑥, 𝑦): 𝑥 and y are students of same sex}, Then this relation R
is_______
a. Equivalence
b. Reflexive only
c. Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
d. Reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
3. Ravi wants to know among those relations, how many functions can be formed from B to G?
a. 22
b. 212
c. 32
d. 23

4. Let 𝑅: 𝐵 → 𝐺 be defined by R = {(𝑏1 , 𝑔1 ), (𝑏2 , 𝑔2 ), (𝑏3 , 𝑔3 )}, then R is__________

a. Injective
b. Surjective
c. Neither Surjective nor Injective
 d. Surjective and Injective
5. Avi wants to find the number of injective functions from B to G. How many numbers of injective
functions are possible?
a. 0
b. 2!
c. 3!
d. 0!
12. There are two small libraries A and B
Both the libraries have four books each . library A has different books for science students whereas
library B has different books for non-science students.

No of pages of each book of both the libraries is given in the table given below –
Library A
Books of various subjects Page count

Maths 132

Physics 140

Chemistry 160

Biology 165

Library B
Books of various subjects Page count

Economics 145

Accountancy 149
 History 154

Geography 170

Let 𝑅1 = {(𝑀𝑎𝑡ℎ𝑠 , 𝑃ℎ𝑦𝑠𝑖𝑐𝑠), (𝐶ℎ𝑒𝑚𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑦, 𝐵𝑖𝑜𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦)} be a relation on A and 𝑅2 ={(Economics

,Accountancy),( Economics ,History), (Accountancy, History) be a relation B
On the basis of the information given above the information, answer the following:

i) The relation 𝑅1 on A is
a) Reflexive only
b) Symmetric only

c)Reflexive and transitive

d)Transitive only

ii) The relation 𝑅1 on A is

a) Reflexive only
b) Symmetric only
c) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
d) Transitive but not symmetric
iii) Let { ( Maths ,Maths), ( physics, physics) (chemistry, chemistry), ( biology ,biology)} be a
relation defined in a different manner on A then the relation is
a) Reflexive only
b) Identity only
c) Reflexive and identity only
d) Neither reflexive nor Transitive only
iv) As library A has four different books that is n(A)= 4 then what will be no of reflexive relations
that can be defined on A
a) 212
b) 26
c) 1
d) None
 v) What will be the no of reflexive and symmetric relations that can be defined on B?
a) 212
b) 26
c) 210
d) None

13. There are two families, Family A and family B both the families have four members each

Daily expenses of each member of both the families are given in the table given below -

Family A

Richa Rs 130

Reeta Rs 140

Ritesh Rs 160

Rahul Rs 165

Family B

Arpita Rs 145
 Ankur Rs 149

Anjali Rs 154

Agyat Rs 170

Let 𝑅1 = {(𝑅𝑖𝑐ℎ𝑎, 𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑡𝑎), (𝑅𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑠ℎ, 𝑅𝑎ℎ𝑢𝑙 )} be a relation on A and 𝑅2 ={(Arpita,Ankur) , (Arpita,

Anjali), (Ankur, History) be a relation B.

On the basics of the information given above, answer the following:

i) The relation on the family A is
a) Reflexive only
b) Symmetric only
c) Reflexive and transitive
d) Transitive only

ii) The relation on the family B is

a) Reflexive only
b) Symmetric only
c) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
d) Transitive but not symmetric

iii) Let {(Richa, Richa), ( Rita, Rita) (Ritesh, Ritesh), ( Rahul, Rahul)} be a relation defined in a
different manner on the family A then the relation is
a) Reflexive only
b) Identity only
c) Reflexive and identity only
d) Neither reflexive nor Transitive only

iv) What will be the no. of symmetric relations that can be defined on A?

𝑎)212

b) 210
 c) 26

d) None of these

v) What will be the no of reflexive and symmetric relations that can be defined on B?

a)212

b) 26

c) 210

e) None of these

REASON ASSERTION BASED

14. Directions: In the following questions, the Assertion (A) and Reason ( (R) have been put forward. Read
both the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:

(A) Both the A and the R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false.

(D) A is false but R is true.

(E) Both A and R are false.

Assertion: A relation R={(1,1), (1,2), (2,2), (2,3), (3,3)} is defined on the set A ={1,2,3} is symmetric

Reason : A relation R on set A is said to be symmetric if (a, b)∈ 𝑅, then (b, a)∈ 𝑅

15. Directions: In the following questions, the Assertion (A) and Reason ( (R) have been put forward. Read
both the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:

(A) Both the A and the R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false.

(D) A is false but R is true.

 (E) Both A and R are false.

Assertion: Domain and range of the relation R={(𝑥, 𝑦): 𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 0} defined on the set A={1,2,3,4} are
respectively {1,2,3,4} and {2,4,6,8}

Reason : Domain and Range of a relation R are respectively the sets {a: a∈A and (a, b)∈ 𝑅} and {b: b ∈A and (a,
b)∈ 𝑅}

16. Directions: In the following questions, the Assertion (A) and Reason( (R) have been put forward. Read both
the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:

(A) Both the A and the R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false.

(D) A is false but R is true.

(E) Both A and R are false.

Assertion: A relation R={(a,b) : |a-b| < 2} defined on set A={1,2,3,4,5} is reflexive.

Reason : A relation R on set A is said to be reflexive for (a, b) ∈ 𝑅 and (b, c) ∈ 𝑅

We have (a, c) ∈ 𝑅

17. Directions: In the following questions, the Assertion (A) and Reason ( (R) have been put forward. Read
both the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:

(A) Both the A and the R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false.

(D) A is false but R is true.

(E) Both A and R are false

Assertion: The Greatest integer Function 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅 is given by 𝑓(𝑥) = [𝑥] is not onto

Reason : A function 𝑓: 𝐴 → 𝐵 is said to be injective if 𝑓(𝑎) = 𝑓(𝑏) ⟹ 𝑎 = 𝑏

 18. Directions: In the following questions, the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) have been put forward. Read both
the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:

(A) Both the A and the R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false.

(D) A is false but R is true.

(E) Both A and R are false

Assertion: The Function 𝑓: 𝑍 → 𝑍 is given by 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 is injective

Reason : A function 𝑓: 𝐴 → 𝐵 is said to be injective if every element of B has a pre image in A

19. Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read
both the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:

(A) Both the A and the R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false.

(D) A is false but R is true.

(E) Both A and R is false

𝑥−2
Assertion: For two sets A=R-{3} and B=R-{1} defined a function f: A→B as f(x) = 𝑥−3 is bijective .

Reason : A function f:A→B is said to be surjective if for all y∈B,∃, x∈ 𝐴 such that f(x)=y
20. Directions: In the following questions, the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) have been put forward. Read both
the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:

(A) Both the A and the R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false.

(D) A is false but R is true.

 (E) Both A and R are false

Assertion: the relation R in the set A ={ 1,2,3,4,5,6} defined as R={(x, y) : y is divisible by x } is an

equivalence relation
Reason :A relation R on the set A is equivalence if it is Reflexive, symmetric and transitive .

ANSWER

1 D 2 C 3 C 4 B 5 D 6 D 7 B 8 B 9 C 10 D 11 (i )a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) b (v) a 12 (i)

d (ii) d (iii) c (iv) a (v) b 13 (i) d ( ii) d (iii) c (iv) b (v) b 14 D 15 D 16 C 17 B 18 E

19 B 20 D
 CHAPTER : Continuity and Differentiability (MCQs Assignment )

Choose the correct option in each of the following questions:

Q1.If y = log(1−x²/1+x²), then derivative of y with respect to x is

(a) 4x³/(1−𝑥 4 )
(b) −4x/(1−𝑥 4 )
(c) 1/ (4−𝑥 4 )
(d) −4x³/ (1−𝑥 4 )
Answer: (b) - 4x/ (1- 𝑥 4 )

Q2. Let f(x) = |sin x| Then

(a) f is everywhere differentiable
(b) f is everywhere continuous but not differentiable at x = nπ , n ∈ Z
(c) f is everywhere continuous but not differentiable at x = (2n + 1) π/2 , n ∈ Z
(d) None of these
Answer : (b) f is everywhere continuous but not differentiable at x= nπ , n∈ Z

Q3. The derivative of cos-1 (2x² – 1) with respect to cos-1 x is

(a) 2
(b) 1- 2x
(c) 2/x
(d) 1 – x²
Answer :(a) 2

Q4. If x = t², y = t³, then the value of d² y/ dx² is

(a) 3/2
(b) 3/4t
(c) 3/2t
(d) 34t
Answer : (b) 3/4t

Q5. The derivative of f(x) = 3| 2+ x | at x = -3 is

(a) 3
(b) 0
(c) -3
(d) does not exist
Answer :(c) - 3

Q6. If y = a( 1+ cost) and x = a( t –sint) , then dy/dx is equal to

(a) tan(t/2)
(b) – tan(t/2)
(c) – cot(t/2)
(d) none of these
 Answer :(c) –cot (t/2)

Q7.The set of points where the Function f(x) = |2x-1|cosx is differentiable is

(a) R
(b) R – {1/2}
(c) (0 , ∞)
(d) None of these
Answer :(b) R – {1/2}

Q8.The function f(x) = e|x| is

(a) continuous everywhere but not differentiable at x = 0
(b) continuous and differentiable everywhere
(c) not continuous at x = 0
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) continuous everywhere but not differentiable at x= 0

Q9.The function f(x) = cot x is discontinuous on the set

(a) {x = nπ , n ∈ Z}
(b) {x = 2nπ , n ∈ Z}
(c) {x = (2n + 1) π/2 , n ∈ Z}
(d) {x = nπ/2 , n ∈ Z}
Answer :(a){x = n π , n∈Z }

Q10. If y = √(sinx + y) , then dy/dx is equal to

(a) cosx/(2y−1)
(b) cosx/(1−2y)
(c) sinx/(1−xy)
(d) sinx/(2y−1)
Answer: (a) cosx / (2y- 1)

Q11. The function f(x) = [x] , where [x] denotes the greatest integer function , is continuous and differentiable
at
(a) -2
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d)1.7
Answer: (d) 1.7

Q12. The function f(x) = x | x| ;at x = 0 is

(a) Continuous but not differentiable
(b) Differentiable but not continuous
(c) Continuous and Differentiable
(d) Neither Continuous nor differentiable
Answer: (c) Continuous and Differentiable
Q13. If sec (x−y/ x+y) = a, then dy/dx is
(a) –y/x
(b) x/y
(c) –x/y
(d) y/x

Answer : (d) y/x

Q14.If xx = yy, then dy/dx is equal to

(a) –y/x
(b) –x/y
(c) 1 + log (x/y )
(d) ( 1+logx)/(1+logy)

Answer :(d) (1+logx)/(1+logy)

Q15. If y = (tan x)sin x, then dy/dx is equal to

(a) sec x + cos x
(b) sec x+ log tan x
(c) (tan x)sin x
(d) None of these

Answer: (d) None of these

Q16. If xy = ex-y , then the value of dy/dx is

(a) (1+x)/(1+logx)
(b) (1−logx)/(1+logy)
(c) not defined
(d) logx/(1+logx) ²

Answer : (d) logx/ ( 1+ logx)²

Q17.If x = a cos4 θ, y = a sin4 θ ; then dy/dx at θ = 3π/4 is

(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) -a²
(d) a²

Answer :(a) - 1

Q18. If x = sin-1 (3t – 4t³) and y = cos-1 √(1-t ²) then dy/dx is equal to
(a) ½

(b) 2/5

(c) 3/2

(d) 1/3
Answer:(d)1/3

Q19. Assertion(P) :Sin |x| is differentiable at x= 0

Reason (Q) :Sinx is continuous at x= 0.

Which of the following is true ?

(a) Both P and Q are true and Q is the correct explanation for P.
(b) Both P and Q are true but Q is not correct but Q is false.
(c) P is true but Q is false.
(d) P is false but Q is true
Answer : (d) P is false but Q is true.

Q20. The derivative of sin-1 (2x/1+x ²) with respect to cos-1 (1−x²/1+x² ) is

(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer :(b) 1
 APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVES

1. The interval in which y= x²e-x is increasing is

(a) (-∞,
∞)(b) (-
2, 0)

(c) (2,
∞)(d)
(0, 2)
Answer: (d) (0, 2)

2. The tangent to a given curve f(x) = y is perpendicular to x-axis if

(a) 𝑑𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑥

(b) 𝑑𝑦 = 1
𝑑𝑥
(c) 𝑑𝑥 = 0
𝑑𝑦

(d) 𝑑𝑥 = 1
𝑑𝑦

Answer: (c) 𝑑𝑥 = 0

𝑑𝑦
3. If a function f(x) has ƒ′ (a) = 0 and ƒ′′(a) = 0, then
(a) x = a is a maximum for f(x)
(b) x = a is a minimum for f(x)
(c) It is difficult to say (a) and (b)
(d) f(x) is necessarily a constant
function Answer: (c) It is difficult to
say (a) and (b)

4. If the curves y=2𝑒𝑥 and y = a𝑒−𝑥 intersect orthogonally then the value of a
is(a) -1/2
(b) -2
(c) 1/2
(d) 2
Answer: (c) 1/2

5. The function f(x) = 2 𝑥3- 9 𝑥2 + 12𝑥 + 29 i𝑠 strictly 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠i𝑛𝑔 when

(a) x < 2
(b) x > 2

(c) x > 3
(d) 1 < x < 2
Answer: (d) 1 < x < 2
6. The given function f(x) = 2x+5 is
(a) Increasing on R
(b) Decreasing on R
(c) Strictly increasing on R
(d) Strictly decreasing on R
Answer: (c) Strictly increasing
on R
7. The given function f(x) = -3x +15 is
(a) Increasing on R
(b) Decreasing on R
(c) Strictly increasing on R
(d) Strictly decreasing on R
Answer: (d) Strictly decreasing on R

8. The interval in which the given function f(x) = 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1(𝑠i𝑛𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥) is increasing is
(a) (0, 𝜋)
2

(b) (0, 𝜋)
6
(c) (0, 𝜋)
4

(d) ( , 𝜋)
2

Answer: (c) (0, 𝜋)

4

10. The two curves 𝑥3 − 3𝑥𝑦2 + 2 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥2𝑦 − 𝑦3 − 2 = 0 intersect at an angle of

(a) 𝜋
4

(b) 𝜋
3

(c) 𝜋
2

(d) 𝜋
6

Answer: (c) 𝜋
2

11. The slope of tangent to the curve x = 𝑡2 + 3t – 8, y = 2𝑡2 – 2t – 5 at the point (2, –1) is

(a) 22
7

6
(b)
7

(c) −6
7

(d) -6

Answer: (b) 6
7

12. The points at which the tangents to the curve y = 𝑥3 – 12x + 18 are parallel to x-axis
are:(a) (2, –2), (–2, –34)
(b) (2, 34), (–2, 0)
(c) (0, 34), (–2, 0)
 (d) (2, 2), (–2, 34)
Answer: (d) (2, 2), (–2, 34)

13. The equation of tangent to the curve y (1 + 𝑥2) = 2 –x, where it crosses x-axis is:
(a) x + 5y = 2
(b) x – 5y = 2
(c) 5x – y = 2
(d) 5x + y = 2

(e) Answer: (a) x +

5y = 2

14. The equation of normal to the curve 3𝑥2 –𝑦2 = 8 which is parallel to the line x + 3y = 8 is
(a) 3x – y = 8
(b) 3x + y + 8 = 0
(c) x + 3y ± 8 =
0

(d) x + 3y = 0
Answer: (c) x + 3y ± 8 = 0

Q15-16 ARE ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

DIRECTION: Following question consist of two statements- Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
thequestion selecting the appropriate option given.

a. Both A and R are correct; R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct; R is incorrect.
d. R is correct; A is incorrect.

15. ASSERTION (A): From the graph, x = 2 is a point of local maxima

 REASON (R): The slope of the curve changes from positive to

negative.Answer: a. Both A and R are correct; R is the correct

explanation of A.

16. ASSERTION (A): The equation of tangent at (3, 2) is y = 2.

REASON (R): The slope of tangent of the curve at (3, 2) is zero.

Answer: a. Both A and R are correct; R is the correct explanation of
A.

CASE STUDY QUESTION

Suppose a car is travelling around the hill, and the path car follows along the hill is represented as y =
𝑥3-3𝑥2+2.
1. Determine the continuity of the function at x = 3?
(a) Continuous and value is 3
(b) Continuous and value is 2
(c) not continuous
(d) data insufficient
2. When the car follows the path from x= 2 to x = 1, then what is the change in the slope of the path of
thehill?
(a) Increases
(b) decreases
(c) no change
(d) cannot be determined

3. When the car is at the instant (0, 2), suddenly landslide starts and on applying brakes the car
slides tangentially. What is the equation of the path in which the car slides?
(a) x = 2

(b) y = 2
(c) x + y =2
 (d) x – y = 2
4. When the car is at the instant (2,-2), the driver realized some slippery material like oil is spilled on the
road. The driver applied brakes but the car slides normal at the instant. Find the equation of the normal path
car took.
(a) x=2
(b) y=2
(c) x + y =2
(d) x–y=2

5. What is the maximum value the path of the curve reaches in the domain [-1, 2]
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

Answers: 1. Continuous and value is 22. Increases3. y = 2

4. x = 2
5. 2
 Chapter 7: Alternating Current

#1. Average value of

(b) 63.7% of maximum values sinusoidal current for a half cycle is
(a) Zero
of current
(c) 70.7% of maximum value of current
(d) equal to the maximum value of current
Answer: (b) 63.7% of maximum value of current

2. For AC, V = 155 sin 377t, the value of supply frequency and rms value of voltage are approximately equal
to
(a) 40 Hz, 100 V
(b) 50 Hz, 120 V
(c) 60 Hz, 110 V
(d) 70 Hz, 130 V
Answer: (c) 60 Hz, 110 V

3. Variation of capacitive reactance with frequency is

Answer: (c)
#4. Resonance frequency of the given circuit is

(a) 50 Hz
(b) 60 Hz
(c) 100 Hz
(d) 120 Hz
Answer: (a) 50 Hz (n=½*3.14*(0.1*0.0001)^½)=50Hz

#5. Given the graph, low resistance is depicted by

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer: (a) A

6. If resistance is 8 Ω, then impedance at 300 Hz is

(a) 5 Ω
(b) 6 Ω
(c) 8 Ω
(d) 10 Ω
Answer: (d) 10 Ω

7. If voltage drop across a resistor, inductor, and capacitor are 120 V, 70 V, and 20 V respectively, then supply
voltage is
(a) 120 V
(b) 130 V
(c) 140 V
(d) 220 V
Answer: (b) 130 V

8. The square root of the product of inductance and capacitance has the dimension of
(a) length
(b) mass
(c) time
(d) no dimension
Answer: (c) time

9. In a step-up transformer, 220 V is converted into 2200 V. The number of turns in the primary coil is 600.
What is the number of turns in the secondary coil?
(a) 60
(b) 600
(c) 6000
(d) 100
Answer: (c) 6000

#10.In RL circuit voltage and current are

(a) in same phase
(b) differ by right angle
(c) differ by complete angle
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)

11. Given impedance of secondary coil is 220 Ω, if the voltage drops from 220 V to 22 V, current in the primary
coil will be
(a) 0.1 A
(b) 1 A
(c) 10 A
(d) 0.01 A
Answer: (d) 0.01 A

Assertions and Reasons

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct
choice as
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

#12. Assertion. At resonance, the inductive reactance is equal to the capacitive reactance.
Reason. In series L-C-R circuit, the inductive reactance is equal and opposite to the capacitive reactance.
Answer: (c)

13. Assertion. It is advantageous to transmit electric power at high voltage.

Reason. High voltage implies high current.
Answer: (c)

14. Assertion. At resonance, L-C-R series circuit has a minimum current.

Reason. At resonance, in L-C-R series circuit, the current and emf are not in phase with each other.
Answer: (d)

#15. Assertion. Transformers are used only in alternating current source, not in direct current.
Reason. Only AC can be stepped up or down by means of transformers.
Answer: (a)

16. Assertion. In series L-C-R circuit, the resonance occurs at one frequency only.
Reason. At resonance, the inductive reactance is equal and opposite to the capacitive reactance.
Answer: (a)

17. Assertion. The quantity L/R possesses the dimension of time

Reason. In order to reduce the rate of increase of current through a solenoid, we should increase the time
constant.
Answer: (c)

18. Transformer is a device which is used to increase or decrease the alternating voltage. A transformer can be
a step-up transformer or a step-down transformer. Transformer is based upon the principle of mutual induction.
It consists of two coils, primary coil (p) and secondary coil (s), insulated from each other and wound on a soft
iron core. Often the primary coil is the input coil and the secondary coil is the output coil. These soft iron cores
are laminated to minimise eddy current loss.

(i) What is not possible in a transformer?

(a) Eddy current
(b) Direct current
(c) Alternating current
(d) Induced current
Answer: (b) Direct current

#(ii) Which quantities do not change during transformer operation?

(a) Power
(b) Frequency
(c) Voltage
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

(iii) A transformer has 150 turns in its primary and 1000 turns in its secondary coil. If the primary coil is
connected to a 440 V DC supply, what will be the induced voltage in the secondary
(a) zero
(b) 3 V
(c) 5 V
(d) 10 V
Answer: (a) zero

(iv) The ratio of secondary to primary turns in an ideal transformer is 4 : 5. If power input is P, then the ratio of
power output to power input is
(a) 4 : 9
(b) 9 : 4
(c) 5 : 4
(d) 1 : 1
Answer: (d) 1 : 1

(v) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step-down transformer with its primary coil
having 4000 turns. What should be the number of turns in the secondary in order to get output power at 230V?
(a) 600
(b) 550
(c) 400
(d) 375
Answer: (c) 400 please check

19. An AC generator produces electrical energy from mechanical work, just the opposite of what a motor does.
In it, a shaft is rotated by some mechanical means, such as when an engine or a turbine starts working and an
emf is induced in the coil. It is based on the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction which states that
whenever magnetic flux linked with a conductor (or coil) changes, an emf is induced in the coil.

#(i) Which method is used to induce an emf or current in a loop in AC generator?

(a) A change in the loop’s orientation
(b) A change in its effective area
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

(ii) When the coil is rotated with a constant angular speed ω, the angle θ between the magnetic field vector B
and the area vector A of the coil at any instant t, is
(a) θ = AB
(b) θ = At
(c) θ = ωt
(d) θ = Bt
Answer: (c) θ = ωt

#(iii) The change of flux is maximum at θ (given Φ = NBAcos θ)

(a) 90°, 270°
(b) 90°, 45°
(c) 60°, 90°
(d) 180°, 90°
Answer: (a) 90°, 270°

(iv) The graph below shows the voltage output plotted against time. Which point on the graph shows that the
coil is in a vertical position?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
Answer: (b) Q

(v) An AC generator consists of a coil of 1000 turns and a cross-sectional area of 100 cm2, rotating at an angular
speed of 100 rpm in a uniform magnetic field of 3.6 X 10-2 T. The maximum emf produced in the coil is
(a) 1.77 V
(b) 2.77 V
(c) 3.77 V
(d) 4.77 V
Answer: (c) 3.77 V

20. Electrical resonance is said to take place in a series L-C-R circuit when the circuit allows maximum current
for a given frequency of the source of alternating supply for which capacitive reactance becomes equal to the
inductive reactance. Impedance of this L-C-R circuit is minimum and hence current is maximum. Resonant
circuits are used to respond selectively to signals of a given frequency while discriminating against signals of
different frequencies. If the response of the circuit is more narrowly peaked around the chosen frequency, we
say that the circuit has higher “selectivity of sharpness”. This sharpness is measured as Q-factor.
(i) Bandwidth of the resonant L-C-R circuit is
(a) R/ L
(b) R/ 2L
(c) 2R/ L
(d) 4R/ L
Answer: (b) R/ 2L

(ii) To reduce the resonant frequency in an L-C-R series circuit with a generator
(a) the generator frequency should be reduced
(b) another capacitor should be added in parallel to the first
(c) the iron core of the inductor should be removed
(d) dielectric in the capacitor should be removed
Answer: (b) another capacitor should be added in parallel to the first

(iii) In a series L-C-R circuit, the capacitance C is changed to 4C. To keep the resonant frequency the same, the
inductance must be changed by
(a) 2 L
(b) L/ 2
(c) 4 L
(d) L/ 4
Answer: (d) L/ 4
(iv) In a non-resonant circuit, what will be the nature of a circuit for frequencies higher than the resonant
frequency?
(a) Resistive
(b) Capacitive
(c) Inductive
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Inductive

(v) The figure shows a series L-C-R circuit connected to a variable frequency 200 V source. C = 80 µF and R =
40 Ω. The source frequency which drives the circuit at resonance is

(a) 25 Hz
(b) 25/π Hz
(c) 50 Hz
(d) 50/π Hz
Answer: (b) 25/π Hz

Physics

A galvanometer is a device used to detect current in electric circuit. It cannot as such be used as an ammeter to
measure current in the given circuit. This is because a Karana meter is a very sensitive device, it gives a full
scale deflection for a current of the order of microampere. Moreover, for measuring currents, the Karana metre
has to be connected in series, and it has a large resistance,This will change the value of current in the circuit. To
overcome these difficulties, we connect to resistance S, called Saint resistance in parallel with the galvanometer
coil so that most of the current passes through shunt . Now to use galvanometer as voltmeter, it has to be
connected in parallel with the circuit element across which we need to measure potential difference. Moreover,
it must draw a very small current otherwise it will appreciably change the voltage which we are measuring.
Twin sure there is a large resistance R is connected in series with the Galvanometer.

Q1. A sensitive galvanometer like a moving coil galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter or a voltmeter
by connecting a proper resistance to it. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) A voltmeter is connected in parallel and current through it is negligible.
(b) an ammeter is connected in parallel and potential difference across it is small.
(c) The voltmeter is connected in series and potential difference across it is small.
(d) an Ammeter is connected in series in a circuit and the current through it is ; negligible
Ans (a)please check options
Q 2. By mistake a voltmeter is connected in series and an Amita is connected in parallel with the resistance in
an electric circuit. What will happen to the instrument?
(a) Voltmeter is damaged.
(b) Ammeter is damaged.
(c) Both are damaged.
(d) None Is damaged.
Ans (d)please improve the wordings of the question
Q 3.A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 ohm and gives full scale deflection for a current of 4mA . To
convert it to an ammeter of range 0 to 6A
(a) 10mOhm Resistance is to be connected in parallel to the galvanometer.
(b) 10mohm Resistances to be connected in series with the galvanometer.
(c) 0.1 ohm Is to be connected in parallel to the galvanometer.
(d) 0.1 ohm Is to be connected in series with the galvanometer.
Ans (a)0.01ohm
Q4 . Do identical galvanometer Sir converted into an ammeter and a millimetre. Resistance of the shunt of
millimetre through which the current passes through will be
a) more
b) Equal
c) Less ( please improve wordings of the questions)
d)Zero.
Ans. (a)

Q5. A voltmeter( galvanometer) has resistance of G ohm and range of V volt. The value of resistance used in
series to convert it into a voltmeter of range nV is
a) nG
b) (n-1) G
c) G/n
d) G/n-1.
Ans (b)

In the following questions statement S of assertion is followed by statement of reason R. Mark the correct choice
as
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason or false.

Q6.Assertion. If a proton and an alpha particle enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly with the same
speed, the time period of revolution of alpha particle is double that of Proton.

Reason. In a magnetic field, the period of revolution of charge particle is directly proportional to the mass of
the particle and is inversely proportional to the charge of the particle.
Ans.(a)
Q7. Assertion. Magnetic field interacts with a moving charge and not with a stationary charge.

Reason. A moving charge produces a magnetic field.

Ans.(a)
Q8. Assertion. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter should be infinite.
Reason. The lower resistance of voltmeter gives a reading lower than the actual potential difference across
the terminals.
Ans.(a)

Q9. Assertion. When radius of a circle on low carrying current is doubled, its magnetic moment becomes four
times.

Reason. Magnetic moment depends directly proportionalon area of the loop.

Ans.(a)
Q10.Assertion. Magnetic susceptibility is pure number.
Reason . Value of magnetic susceptibility for vacuum is one.

Ans.(c)
11) The plane at which the earth‘s magnetic field is horizontal
1. plane through magnetic meridian
2. plane through magnetic equator
3. Plane through magnetic poles
4. It is not horizontal anywhere
Ans.(b)
12) The angle of dip at the place on the earth gives

a) The horizontal component of the earth‘s magnetic field

b) The location of geography meridian
c) The vertical component of the earth’s field
d) The direction of the earth’s magnetic field.
Ans.(d)
13). Angle of dip is 90° at
a) poles
b) equator
c) both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above.
Ans.(a)
14) A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole
a) Will become rigid showing no movement
b) Will stay in any position
c) Will stay in north-south direction only
d) Will stay in east-west direction only
Ans.(b)
15) The universal (or inherent) property among all substances is( not in syllabus)
a) Diamagnetism
b) Paramagnetism
c) Ferromagnetism
d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans.(a)
16) when a bar is placed near a strong magnetic field and it is repelled, then the material of bar is( not in syllabus)
 a) diamagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic
d) Anti-ferromagnetic
Ans.(a)
17) Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance( not in syllabus)

a) decreases with temperature

b) Is not affected by temperature
c) Increases with temperature
d) First increases then decreases with temperature
Ans.(b)
18) The value of a magnetic susceptibility for a superconductor is ( not in syllabus)

a) zero
b) infinity
c) +1
d) -1
Ans.(d)
19) The main use of studying a hysteresis for a given material is to estimate the

current loss ( not in syllabus)

a)
b) Power loss
c) voltage loss
d) Hysteresis loss
Ans.(d)
20) The material suitable for making electromagnets should have

high retentivity and high coercivity ( not in syllabus)

a)
b) low retentivity and low coercivity
c) high retentivity and low coercivity
d) low retentivity and high coercivity
Ans.(c)

PHYSICS ASSIGNMENT
ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
Q1. Charges q1 and q2 are separated by some distance in air. Electrostatic force between them is F. If these
charges are kept in a medium of permittivity ε at same distance, then the force between the charges will be
(a) εo F/ ε
(b) ε F/ εo
(c) F/ ε εo
(d) F ε εo
Answer : (a) εo F/ ε
Q2. The angle between dipole moment and electric field due to a dipole on its equatorial line is
(a) 0o
(b) 90o
(c) 180o
(d) 45o
Answer : (c) 180o
Q3. A uniform electric field is given by , 𝐸⃗ = 3 × 10 3 𝑖̂ N/C. What is the flux of this field through a square of
side 10cm whose plane is parallel to the YZ plane?
(a) 0
(b) 3 Nm2 /C
(c) 30 Nm2 /C
(d) 0.3 Nm2 /C
Answer : (c) 30 Nm2 /C
Q4. Identify the correct statement about the given figures :

+Q +Q +Q +Q

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(a) The electric flux is maximum in figure (ii).
(b) The electric flux in figure (i) is the least.
(c) The electric flux is same in figure (i) and (iv) but it is smaller than that in figure (iii).
(d) The electric flux is same through all the surfaces shown in the above figures.
Answer : (d) The electric flux is same through all the surfaces shown in the above figures.
Q5. A spherical surface of radius r encloses a dipole having charges +Q and -Q. What is the electric flux through
the sphere?
(a) zero
(b) Q / εo
(c) 2Q / εo
(d) Q/ 4πr2
Answer : (a) zero
Q6. An electron of mass me initially at rest moves through a certain distance in a uniform electric field in time
t1. A proton of mass mp also initially at rest, moves through equal distance in the same electric field in time t2.
Neglecting the effect of gravity, the ratio t1 : t2 is nearly equal to
(a) 1836
(b) me/mp
(c) (me/mp)1/2 (
check it please)
(d) (mp/me)1/2
Answer : (d) (mp/me)1/2
Q7. Two small identical electric dipoles, each of dipole moment p are kept as shown. This system is subjected
to an external uniform electric field E directed along Y axis. The magnitude and direction of the torque acting
on the system is
(a) pE along X axis
(b) pE/2 along Z axis
(c) √3 pE/2 along Z axis
(d) pE/2 along negative Z axis.
Answer : (c) √3 pE/2 along Z axis
Q8. Two point charges 3µC and -3µC are located 20cm apart in vacuum. The electric field at the mid-point of
the line joining these two charges is
(a) Zero
(b) 2.7 × 106 N/C
(c) 5.4 × 106 N/C
(d) 10.2 × 106 N/C
Answer : (c) 5.4 × 106 N/C
Q9. A 10µC charge is kept 5 cm directly above the centre of a square of side 10cm as shown. What is the electric
flux through the square?
(a) 1.8 × 102 m2 N/C
(b) 1.8 × 104 m2 N/C
(c) 1.8 × 105 m2 N/C
(d) 1.8 m2 N/C
Answer : (c) 1.8 × 105 m2 N/C
Q10. Two point charges A and B having charges +Q and -Q respectively are placed at a distance r from each
other. The force of attraction between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force between the
charges becomes
(a) 4F/3
(b) F
(c) 9F/16
(d) 16F/9
Answer : (c) 9F/16

Instructions for Q No 11 – 18.

In the following questions, two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given. mark the
correct answer according to the following:
a : If Assertion and reason are both true and reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b : If Assertion and reason are both true but reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
c : If Assertion is true but reason is false.
d : If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Q11. Assertion (A) : Electric field lines do not form closed loops.( in case of EMI they can form close loop)
Reason(R) : Electric field lines are always normal to the surface of a conductor.
Answer : b
Q12. Assertion (A): The net force and net torque on an electric dipole kept in an external uniform electric field
is always zero.
Reason (R) : Electric dipole moment is a vector quantity directed from -q to +q.
Answer : d
Q13. Assertion (A) : Electric force acting on a proton and an electron moving in a uniform electric field is same
whereas the acceleration of the electron is more than that of the proton.
Reason (R) : Charge on an electron and a proton have same magnitude but the masses of proton and electron
are different
Answer : a
Q14. Assertion (A) : A point charge is lying at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through each surface of
the cube is 1/6th of the total flux though the cube.
Reason (R) : Electric flux is a scalar quantity.
Answer : b
Q15. Assertion (A) : Charge is quantised.
Reason (R) : A charge of less than 1 C is not possible
Answer : c
Q16. Assertion (A) : Charging by friction is due to transfer of charges.
Reason (R) : Mass of a body decreases slightly when it gets negatively charged
Answer : c
Q17. Assertion (A) : Electric field intensity is a vector quantity.
Reason (R) : Electric field is equal to force per unit charge and force is a vector quantity.
Answer : a
Q18. Assertion (A) : Electric flux emerging out of a surface is 8 × 103 Nm2/C and entering the surface is 2
×103 Nm2/C. The charge enclosed by the surface is positive.
Reason (R) : Electric flux is a scalar quantity
Answer : b
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
Q19 and Q20 are case study based questions. Each passage is followed by 4 multiple choice questions.
Q19. Quantization of Electric Charge
Smallest charge that can exist in nature is the charge of an electron. During friction it is only the transfer of
electrons which makes the body charged. Hence net charge on any body is an integral multiple of charge of an
electron. If N is the number of electrons transferred from one body to another during charging, then the charge
acquired by the body is given by
Q = Ne where e is the charge on an electron. (e = 1.6 × 10-19C) and N can never be a fractional number. Hence
no object can have a charge represented by 1.5e, 3e/5, e/4 etc.
but Quantization of charges is not applicable for macroscopic charges.
However, recently it has been discovered that elementary particles such as protons and neutrons are composed
of elemental units called QUARKS.
1. Which of the following properties is not satisfied by an electric charge?
(a) Total charge conservation
(b) Two types of charges
(c) Quantization of charges
(d) Charge having directional property
2. Which of the following charges is possible?
(a) 5.8 × 10-18 C
(b) 3.2 × 10-18 C
(c) 4.5 × 10-19 C
(d) 8.6 × 10-19 C
3. If charge on a body is 1 nC then how many electrons are lost/gained by the body?
(a) 6.25 × 1027
(b) 6.25 × 1028
(c) 6.25 × 109
(d) 1.6 × 1019
4. If a body loses 109 electrons every second, then how much time is required by the body to get a total charge
of 1.6 pC?mC
(a) 1 s
(b) 106 s
(c) 107 s
(d) 105 s
Answers: 1. (d) Charge having direction
2. (b) 3.2 × 10-18 C
3. (c) 6.25 × 109
4. (c) 107 s

Q20. A Thin Plane Sheet of Charge

A thin plane sheet having charge on its surface is a source of electric field. If the surface charge density of the
sheet is uniform, then the electric field produced by the sheet is found to be directly proportional to the surface
charge density. At the same time, it is observed that for an infinite plane sheet , the electric field is independent
of the distance from the sheet. The nature of charge distribution on the sheet decides the direction of the electric
field. If the charge density of the sheet is greater than zero, then the electric field is directed perpendicular to
the sheet in outwards direction. If the surface charge density of the sheet is negative, then the electric field is
directed towards the sheet.
1. A thin infinite plane sheet having charge Q distributed uniformly over its surface is kept in free space. Two
identical point charges are kept at a distance of 4cm and 10 cm respectively from the sheet. The ratio of force
experienced by the point charges is
(a) 5 : 2
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 2 : 5
2. The figure that correctly represents the variation of electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge with
distance from the sheet is

(a) (c)

(b) (d)

3. The SI unit of surface charge density is

(a) N/Cm
(b) C/m3
(c) Cm2
(d) C/m2
4. Two identical infinite plane sheets having uniform surface charge density +σ and -σ are held parallel to each
other. Electric field between the sheets is
(a) zero
(b) σ/εo
(c) 2 σ/εo

(d) σ/2εo
Answers : 1. (c) 1 : 1
2 (b)
3 (d) C/m2
4 (b) σ/εo

CHAPTER 2 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE

Q1. A point charge +Q is fixed at the origin. Work done by the external force in moving a charge +Q from
infinity to a fixed point distant r from the origin is
(a) kQ/r
(b) – kQ/r
(c) kQ2 /r
(d) – kQ2 /r
Answer : (c) kQ2 /r
Q2. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10cm is charged such that the potential at its surface becomes 80V. The
potential at the centre of the sphere is
(a) 8V
(b) 80 V
(c) 0.8 V
(d) Zero
Answer : (b) 80 V
Q3. A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance 18μF. The distance between its plates is doubled and a dielectric
medium of constant K is completely filled between its plates. Its capacitance now becomes 72μF. The value of
K is
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 2
Answer : (c) 8
Q4. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V. It is then disconnected from the
cell and an uncharged capacitor of capacitance 2C is now connected in parallel with it. Identify the correct
statement.
(a) The two capacitors finally have equal charge.
(b) The energy stored by the combination of capacitors is lesser than the energy stored by the first capacitor.
(c) ) The energy stored by the combination of capacitors is equal to the energy stored by the first capacitor.
(d) The capacitance of the combination is lesser than the capacitance of the first capacitor.
Answer : (b) The energy stored by the combination of capacitors is lesser than the energy stored by the first
capacitor
Q5. An electric dipole of diploe moment p is placed in an external electric field, E = 104 N/C such that the dipole
moment makes 30o angle with the direction of electric field. Torque experienced by the dipole is 10√3 Nm.
The magnitude of electrostatic PE of the dipole is
(a) 30 x 104 J

(b) 3J
(c) 0.3J
(d) 30J
Answer : (d) 30J
Q6. Three point charges Q, -Q and -2Q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. The
separation between the charges is increased to 2a by applying an external force. The change in electrostatic
potential energy of the system is
(a) 2kQ2 /a
(b) kQ2 /a
(c) kQ2 /2a
(d) 3kQ2 /2a
Answer : (c) kQ2 /2a
Q7. A parallel plate capacitor has uniform electric field E between its plates. If the distance between the plates
is d and area of each plate of capacitor is A then energy stored by the capacitor is
(a) εo E2 /2
(b) εo E2 /2dA
(c) εo E Ad/2
(d) εo E2 Ad /2
Answer : (d) εo E2 Ad /2
Q8. Four capacitors each of capacitance C are connected as shown.
The ratio of charge stored by C2 and C4 is

(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 3 : 1
Answer : (c) 1 : 3 PLEASE CHECK IT FOR 1/9
Q9. The diagram below shows regions of equipotentials. A positive point charge is moved from A to B. Identify
the correct statement:FIGURE IS A LITTLE BIT NOT CLEAR FOR VALUES

(a) Work done in moving the point charge is same in all the four cases.
(b) Minimum work is required to move the point charge in figure I
(c) Maximum work is required to move the point charge in figure III
(d) No work is required to move the point charge in figure IV.
Answer : (a) Work done in moving the point charge is same in all the four cases.
Q10. Potential in a region of space is expressed as V(x,y,z) = 6xy – y + 2yz
The component of electric field along Y axis at (1, 1, 0) is
(a) 1unit
(b) 6 units (c) 5 units PARTIAL DIFFERENTIATION IS INVOLVED NOT JUSTIFIED WITOUT
MATHS
(d) 4 units
Answer : (c) 5 units

Instructions for Q No 11 – 18.

In the following questions, two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given. mark the
correct answer according to the following:
a : If Assertion and reason are both true and reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b : If Assertion and reason are both true but reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
c : If Assertion is true but reason is false.
d : If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Q11. Assertion (A) : A and B are two conducting spheres of same radii , A being solid and B hollow. Both are
charged to same potential. Then the Charge on A = Charge on B.
Reason (R) : Potential on both are same.
Answer : b
Q12. Assertion (A): The expression of potential energy, U = KQ1 Q2 /r is unaltered whatever way the charges
are brought to the specified location.( NOT ALWAYS IF EXTERNAL ELECTRIC FIELD IS PRESENT)
Reason (R) : Electrostatic force is a conservative force.
Answer : a
Q13. Assertion (A): A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. While the battery remains connected, a
dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates of the capacitor. Energy stored by the
capacitor becomes K times.
Reason (R) : Surface charge density of the capacitor plates remain constant.
Answer : c
Q14. Assertion (A): Work done by electrostatic force in bringing a negative test charge (-q) from infinity to
point P is Negative in the given situation.

Reason (R) : Work done by a force is a scalar quantity.

Answer : d
Q15. Assertion (A) : A positively charged particle is released from rest in a uniform electric field region. The
electrostatic PE of the SYSTEM OF CHARGES will decrease.( PE OF A SINGLE CHARGE IS NOT
DEFINED)
Reason (R) : KE of the positive charge increases due to electrostatic force.
Answer : a
Q16. Assertion (A): Electric potential at any point on the equator of a dipole is zero whereas the electric field
at the same point is non zero.
Reason (R) : Electric potential is a vector quantity.
Answer : c
Q17. Assertion (A): Charge on all the capacitors joined in series is same.
Reason (R) : Charge stored by a capacitor is inversely proportional to the potential difference across its
plates.
Answer : c
Q18. Assertion (A): On increasing the charge on the plates of a capacitor, its capacitance also increases.
Reason (R): C = Q/V
Answer : d

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

Q19 and Q20 are case study based questions. Each passage is followed by 4 multiple choice questions.
Q19. Dielectric
A dielectric is a substance which does not allow the flow of charges through it but permits them to exert forces
on one another. Some common examples of dielectric materials are paper, mica and water.
When a dielectric slab is placed between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, then the electric field between
the plates of the capacitor Eo polarizes the dielectric. This induces charges on the surface of the dielectric and
an electric field is induced inside the dielectric (Ep). Ep is opposite to the direction of Eo. Hence, the net electric
field inside a dielectric is (Eo – Ep). The dielectric constant of a dielectric is defined as the ratio of electric field
outside the dielectric to the electric field inside the dielectric.
𝐸𝑜
𝐾 =
𝐸𝑜 − 𝐸𝑝
The value of K is more than 1.

1. In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance increases from 4µF to 80µF on introducing a dielectric between
the plates. The dielectric constant of the medium is
(a) 40
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 76
2. When a dielectric material is placed between the plates of a charged capacitor then
(a) Electric field between the plates increases
(b) Capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor decreases
(c) Electric field between the plates decreases
(d) Electric field remains the same, only capacitance is increased.
3. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. After it is fully charged, the battery is disconnected, and a
dielectric medium of dielectric constant 20 is filled between the plates of the capacitor. Identify the correct
statement among the following :
(a) Energy stored by the capacitor remains constant.
(b) Potential difference across the plates of capacitor remains constant.
(c) Charge stored by the capacitor remains constant.
(d) Energy density of the capacitor remains constant.
4. For a polar dielectric material, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The centres of gravity of positive and negative charges coincide
(b) The charge distribution is always symmetrical
(c) The dipole moment of each molecule is zero and the dipole moment of the specimen is also zero in the
absence of external electric field
(d) The dipole moment of each molecule is non-zero but the dipole moment of the specimen is zero in the
absence of external electric field
Answers : 1. (b) 20
2. (c) Electric field between the plates decreases
3. (c) Charge stored by the capacitor remains constant
4. (d) The dipole moment of each molecule is non-zero but the dipole moment of the specimen is
zero in the absence of external electric field
Q20. Electric Potential Energy
Consider a system of two charges q1 and q2 with position vector r1 and r2 relative to some origin. Let us calculate
the work done (externally) in building up this configuration. Suppose, first
the charge q1 is brought from infinity to the point r1. There is no external
field against which work needs to be done, so work done in bringing q1 from
infinity to r1 is zero. This charge produces a potential in space given by :
WHERE ARE R1 AND R2
V = kQ/r
where r is the distance of a point P in space from the location of q1. Now, work done in bringing charge q2 from
infinity to the point r2 is q2 times the potential at r2 due to q1
W = kq1 q2 /r12
where r 12 is the distance between points 1 and 2. Since electrostatic force is conservative, this work gets stored
in the form of potential energy of the system. Thus, the potential energy of a system of two charges q1 and q2 is
U = Kq1q2/r12
The potential energy expression is unaltered whatever way the charges are brought to the specified locations,
because of path-independence of work for electrostatic force.

1. A charge Q is placed at the origin. The electric potential due to this charge at a point P in space is V. The
work done by an external force in bringing another charge q from infinity upto the pointP is
(a) ( q + Q) V
(b) ( Q – q ) V
(c) QV
(d) qV
2. The work done in separating two electrons from a distance of 1m to 2m in air is
(a) ke2
(b) e2/2
(c) -ke2/2
(d) zero
3. Four charges Q, -Q, Q and -Q are placed at four corners of a square of side a. Work done in moving a charge
-q from its centre to infinity is( BETTER TO PROVIDE FIGURE)
(a) zero
(b) kQ2 /a
(c) 4kQ2/ a
(d) kQ2/4a
4. A system consists of twoPOINT charges 7 µC and –2 µC placed at (–9 cm, 0, 0) and (9 cm, 0, 0) respectively
in an external electric field E = A (1/r 2 ); A = 9 × 105 NC–1 m2 . The electrostatic energy of this system is
(a) 0.7 J
(b) 49.3 J
(c) 29.6 J
(d) – 0.7 J
Answers : 1. (d) qV
2. (c) -ke2/2
3. (a) zero
4. (b) 49.3 J

CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. Select an incorrect statement about movement of charges, from given options:
(a) In few materials, free electrons are in influence of nuclei of neighbouring atoms such that
they cannot move freely even in presence of external electric field.
(b) In solid conductors, negatively charged electrons move in the background of fixed positive
ions.
(c) In electrolytic solutions, only positive ions can move.
(d) During lightning, movement of charges across clouds and earth, produces electric current
of the order of ten thousand of amperes.
 Ans: (c) In electrolytic solutions, only positive ions can move.

2. In the given diagram, the total charge transported across the conductor, to the right, in time
Δt is: what are A,n V e not mentioned

(a) neAvd Δt
(b) -neAvd
(c) nevd Δt
(d) -neAvd Δt
Ans: (d) -neAvd Δt

3. The resistance of a wire, used in a toaster, is found to be 75.3 Ω at room temperature (27oC)
and its resistance at steady temperature 847oC is found to be 85.8 Ω. Then the temperature
coefficient of this material is:
(a) 10-4 oC-1
(b) 1.70 X 10-4 oC-1
(c) 10.70 X 10-4 oC-1
(d) 100.70 X 10-4 oC-1
Ans: (b) 1.70 X 10-4 oC-1

4. Two cities are 120 Km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to other city through
copper wires. The fall in potential per Km is 6 V and the average resistance per Km is 1.2Ω.
The power loss in the wire is
(a) 36 W
(b) 3.6 KW
(c) 360 W
(d) 0.36 KW
Ans: (b) 3.6 KW

5. In which of the following conditions, internal resistance of a cell can be neglected?

(a) When current drawn from the cell is small.
(b) When emf of cell is negligible.
(c) When current drawn from cell is large.
(d) When External resistor has large value.
Ans: (a) When current drawn from the cell is small.( why not d as I=E/(r+R)

6. In the given circuit, the LED will not glow when the value of resistor X =
(a) 726 Ω
(b) 11 Ω
(c) 121 Ω
(d) 6 Ω
Ans: (d) 6 Ω

7. Potential difference between A and B in the circuit shown here is:

(a) 4 V
(b) 5.6 V
(c) 2.8 V
(d) 6 V
Ans: (b) 5.6 V

8. Which of the following is SI unit of temperature coefficient resistivity?

(a) (Temperature)-1
(b) (oC)-1
(c) (oF)-1
(d) (oK)-1
Ans: (d) (oK)-1

9. The resistivity of a typical insulator (e.g.Amber) is greater than that of a metal by a factor
of the order of
(a) 103
(b) 100
(c) 1022
(d) 10-3
Ans: (c) 1022
 10. A potential difference of 3 V has been applied across a metal conductor of length 60 cm.
If relaxation period of electrons in this metal is 2.5 X 10-14 s, then the magnitude of drift
velocity will be
(a) 2.2 X 10 -2 m/s
(b) 2.2 X 10 -4 m/s
(c) 1.1 X 10 -4 m/s
(d) 1.1 X 10 -6 m/s
Ans: (a) 2.2 X 10 -2 m/s

11. The current density in a wire of diameter 0.2 cm carrying a current of 10 A is:
(a) 6.18 X 106 A/m2
(b) 2.18 X 106 A/m2
(c) 5.18 X 106 A/m2
(d) 3.18 X 106 A/m2
Ans: (d) 3.18 X 106 A/m2

12. Which of the following R-r curves is correct? (R: Resistance, r: radius of the solid
conducting wire of uniform composition)
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (c)

13. The current at steady state through 4 Ω resistor in given circuit is:
 (a) 9 A
(b) 0.9 A
(c) 0 A
(d) 1/0.9 A
Ans: (c) 0 A

14. The current flowing through a wire at instant t second is given as I= 3t2 + 2t + 5. The
charge flowing the cross section of the wire between time 0 s and 2 s is
(a) 21 C
(b) 10 C
(c) 22 c
(d) 1 c
Ans: (c) 22 C

15. Two wires of same dimensions but resistivities 1 and 2 are connected in series. The
equivalent resistivity of the combination is:
(a) √12
(b) 1 + 2
(c) (1 + 2)/2
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) 1 + 2 please check for option c

For question numbers 16 and 17, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion and other
labelled as Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

16. Assertion: It is advantageous to transmit electric power at high voltage.

Reason: High voltage implies high current.
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d
Ans:(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
 17. Assertion: Ohm’s law is not a fundamental law of nature.
Reason: I depends on V non-linearly at high temperature for conductors.
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d
Ans:(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Questions 18 and 19 are ‘Fill in the blank’ type questions. You have to select correct option,
out of given, to complete the statement.

18. During thermal motion, an electron colliding with an ion emerges with the same
____________ as before the collision’. ( it may be get combined )
(a)velocity
(b) speed
(c)Acceleration
(d) Momentum
Ans: (b) speed

19. Wires of standard resistors are made up of Constantan or Manganin because their
resistivities vary ______________ with temperature.
(a) Weakly (please use slowly)
(b) strongly
(c) moderately
(d) negligibly
Ans: (a) Their resistivities weakly varies with temperature.

Case – Study based Question:

20. Read the paragraph given below and choose the correct alternative for questions given
after paragraph:
Low-power potentiometers, both slide and rotary, are used to control audio equipment,
changing loudness, frequency attenuation, and other characteristics of audio signals. The
'log pot', that is, a potentiometer has a resistance of a logarithmic (log) form, is used as the
volume control in audio power amplifiers, where it is also called an "audio taper pot",
because the amplitude response of the human ear is approximately logarithmic. It ensures
that on a volume control marked 0 to 10, for example, a setting of 5 sounds subjectively
half as loud as a setting of 10. There is also an anti-log pot or reverse audio taper which is
simply the reverse of a logarithmic potentiometer. It is almost always used in a ganged
configuration with a logarithmic potentiometer, for instance, in an audio balance control.
SLIDER POTENTIOMETER

20(i): The principle of potentiometer is derived from: irrelevant

(a) Wheatstone bridge
(b) Joule’s law of heating
(c) Ohm’s law
(d) Kirchoff’s loop rule
Ans: (c)Ohm’s Law

20(ii): Two cells of emfs 5 V and 10 V are to be accurately compared using a potentiometer
of length 400 cm. Which of the following is true for this potentiometer?

(a)The battery that runs the potentiometer should have voltage of 7.5 V.
(b) The battery that runs the potentiometer should have a voltage of 15 V and external
resistance to be adjusted so that potential drop across the wire slightly exceeds 10 V.
(c)The first 50 cm of wire itself should have a potential drop of 10 V
(d) Potentiometer is usually used to compare resistances not voltages.
Ans: (b) The battery that runs the potentiometer should have a voltage of 15 V and external
resistance to be adjusted so that potential drop across the wire slightly exceeds 10 V.

20(iii) The material preferred to make wire of potentiometer is:

(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Nichrome
(d) Manganin
Ans: (d) Manganin

20(iv) At null point, the power of potentiometer is

(a) Zero
(b) Maximum
(c) Minimum
(d) Infinite

Ans: (a) zero (not exact)

 Moving charges and magnetism

1. Just as static charges produce electric field, moving charges produce:

a) Electric field only
b) magnetic field only
c) Both electric and magnetic fields
d) drift velocity
Ans: (c) Both electric and magnetic fields

2. Which of the following is an incorrect formula for magnetic force experienced by a

conductor in magnetic field? Options are not readable due to notation
a) I (LXB)
b) (jAL) X B
c) nALqvd X B
d) I (jL X B)
Ans: (d) I (jL X B)

3. If a straight current carrying wire is suspended horizontally in mid-air by a uniform

magnetic field, then what could be the possible reason for it?
a) The gravitational force is balanced by electric field produced by wire.
b) The external magnetic field is balanced by magnetic field due to conductor.
c) The magnetic field produced by conductor is balanced by magnetic field of Earth.
d) The gravitational force on the conductor is balanced by external magnetic field.
Ans: (d) The gravitational force on the conductor is balanced by magnetic force.

4. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle having charge -3µC in a magnetic field
of 2 T acting in y direction, when the particle velocity is (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂) X 106 m/s is
a) 12 N in -z direction
b) 12 N in y direction
c) 12 N in z direction
d) 18 N in -z direction.
Ans: (a) 12 N in -z direction

5. In definition of 1 A, the force between two very long, straight, parallel conductors of
negligible cross-section, placed 1 m apart in vacuum is
a) 2 X 10-7 N
b) 0.2 X 10 N
c) 20 X 10 N
d) None of the above
Ans: (d) None of the above

6. When a rectangular coil carrying current is suspended in magnetic field, then net force
experienced by the coil is:
a) nIBAsinφ
b) M X B
c) zero
 d) nIBA
Ans: (c) zero

7. If magnetic field inside a solenoid is 15 T, then what will be the approximate magnetic
field near its one end?
a) 30 T
b) 7.5 T
c) 15 T
d) 0
Ans: (b) 7.5 T

8. A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90 A in east to west direction. What
are the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field due to this current 1.5 m below the
line?
a) 1.2 x 10-5T perpendicularly outwards to the plane of paper
b) 1.9 x 10-5T perpendicularly outwards to the plane of paper
c) 2.6x 10-5T perpendicularly inwards to the plane of paper
d)2.6 x 10-5T perpendicularly outwards to the plane of paper
Ans: (a) 1.2 x 10-5T perpendicularly outwards to the plane of paper (direction can not be
described in this way )

9. A galvanometer cannot be used as such as an ammeter because

a) it has low resistance
b) it has low sensitivity
c) it has high resistance
d) it is not well calibrated always.
Ans: (c) it has high resistance

10. If the force per unit length between two long straight wires carrying currents 4 A and 6
A is 1.6 X 10-4 N/m, then the distance between the wires is
a) 5 cm
b) 3 cm
c) 3 m
d) 1 cm
Ans: (b) 3 cm

11. A galvanometer having a resistance of 9Ω is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 Ω. If the

total current is 1A, the part of it passing through the shunt will be
a) 0.2 A
b) 0.8 A
c) 0.25 A
d) 0.5 A
Ans: (b) 0.25 A (please calculate )
12. Calculate the force experienced by the loop in the given figure:

a) 17.8 X 10-4 N (Attractive)

b)7.8 X 10-4 N (Attractive)
c) 17.8 X 10-6 N (Attractive)
d) 7.8 X 10-4 N (Repulsive)
Ans: (b) 7.8 X 10-4 N (Attractive)( length not given)

µ 𝑒
13. The value of gyromagnetic ratio, 𝑙 = 2𝑚, for an electron is:
a) 6.6 X 10-34 C/kg
b) 8.8 X 1010 C/Kg
c) 8.85 X 1012 C/kg
d) 1.6 X 10-19 C/kg
Ans: (b) 8.8 X 1010 C/Kg

14. The magnetic field in the outside region of the given figure is :

a) µ0nI
b) µ0NI
c) infinite
d) zero
Ans: (d) zero this is true only for ideal solenoid.

For question numbers 15 and 16 , two statements are given- one labelled Assertion and
other labelled as Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) as given.
(e) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(f) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(g) A is true but R is false.
(h) A is false and R is also false
15. Assertion: If an electron and proton move in a uniform magnetic field with same speed
in perpendicular direction, then they will experience same force (IN MAGNITUDE)
Reason: These particles have same charges.
Ans: (c) A is true but R is false.

16. Assertion: The range of ‘galvanometer converted into an ammeter’ can be increased by
reducing the value of shunt.
Reason: Shunt is connected in parallel TO galvanometer.
Ans: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Questions17, 18 and 19 are ‘Fill in the blank’ type questions. You have to select correct
option, out of given, to complete the statement.

17. ‘Parallel current CARRYING WIRES__________ and antiparallel current

CARRYING WIRES ____________.
a) attract, repel
b) repel,attract
c) attract, attract
d) repel,repel
Ans: (a) attract,repel

18. As per Ampere's circuital law, the magnetic field at every point on a circle of radius r,
HAVING current carrying wire along the axis, possesses ____________symmetry.
a) spherical
b) Linear
c) cylindrical
d) none of these
Ans: (c) Cylindrical

19. According to Biot Savart’s law, the magnetic field produced by a current carrying
conductor is perpendicular to the plane containing:
a) r
b) Idl
c) the conductor
d) r and Idl
Ans: (d) r and Idl (BETTER TO PUT ARROWS )

Case – Study based Question:

20. Read the paragraph given below and choose the correct alternative for questions given
after paragraph:
Mass spectrometry (MS) is an analytical technique that is used to measure the mass-to-
charge ratio of ions.
In a typical MS procedure, a sample, which may be solid, liquid, or gaseous, is ionized, for
example by bombarding it with a beam of electrons HAVING SAME KINETIC ENERGY.
 This may cause some of the sample's molecules to break up into positively charged
fragments or simply become positively charged without fragmenting. These ions
(fragments) are then separated according to their mass-to-charge ratio, for example by
accelerating them and subjecting them to an electric or magnetic field: ions of the same
mass-to-charge ratio will undergo the same amount of deflection. The ions are detected by
a mechanism capable of detecting charged particles, such as an electron multiplier. Results
are displayed as spectra of the signal intensity of detected ions as a function of the mass-to-
charge ratio. The atoms or molecules in the sample can be identified by correlating known
masses (e.g., an entire molecule) to the identified masses or through a characteristic
fragmentation pattern.

20(i) A particle is subjected in a region where crossed electric field and magnetic field are
present. The particles with velocity v=E/B, will go at an angle of
a) 90o to the initial direction of motion
b) 0o to the initial direction of motion
c) 180o to the initial direction of motion
d) 45o to the initial direction of motion
Ans: (b) 0o to the initial direction of motion

20(ii) An alpha particle and proton having same momentum enter into a region of uniform
magnetic field and move in a circular path. The ratio of the radii of curvatures of their paths:
a) 1
b) ¼
c) ½
d) 4
Ans: (c) ½

20(iii) If magnetic force experienced by the charged particle is perpendicular to the velocity
of the particle, then work done is:
a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) None of these
Ans: (a) Zero

20(iv) When a charged particle enters a magnetic field at some angle, then which of the
following forces provide necessary centripetal force for its motion.
a) Lorentz force
b) Magnetic force
c) electric field
d) gravitational force
Ans: (b) Magnetic force