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Ecqb PPL 10 Alw SPL Int en

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Part-FCL Question Bank

SPL
Acc. (EU) 1178/2011
and
AMC FCL.115, .120, 210, .215

(Excerpt)

10 – Air Law
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

Publisher:
EDUCADEMY GmbH
info@aircademy.com

COPYRIGHT Remark:

All parts of this issue are protected by copyright laws.

Commercial use, also part of it requires prior permission of the publisher. For any requests,
please contact the publisher.

Please note that this excerpt contains only 75% of the total question bank content.
Examinations may also contain questions not covered by this issue.

Revision & Quality Assurance

Within the process of continuous revision and update of the international question bank for
Private Pilots (ECQB-PPL), we always appreciate contribution of competent experts. If you are
interested in co- operation, please contact us at experts@aircademy.com.

If you have comments or suggestions for this question bank, please contact us at
info@aircademy.com.

v2020.2 2
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

1 The holder of an SPL license or LAPL(S) license completed a total of 9 winch


launches, 4 launches in aero-tow and 2 bungee launches during the last 24 months.

What launch methods may the pilot conduct as PIC today? (1,00 P.)
 Winch and bungee.

 Winch, bungee and aero-tow.

 Winch and aero-tow.

 Aero-tow and bungee.

2 Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight?

a) Certificate of aircraft registration


b) Certificate of airworthiness
c) Airworthiness review certificate
d) EASA Form-1
e) Airplane logbook
f) Appropriate papers for every crew member
g) Technical logbook (1,00 P.)
 b, c, d, e, f, g
 a, b, c, e, f
 d, f, g
 a, b, e, g

3 Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions? (1,00 P.)


 No-fly zone
 Restricted area
 Prohibited area
 Dangerous area

4 Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found? (1,00 P.)
 AIC
 ICAO chart 1:500000
 AIP
 NOTAM

5 What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA?
(e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED) (1,00 P.)
 They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide
 Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding
 They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states
 They have the same status as ICAO Annexes

v2020.2 3
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

6 Which validity does the "Certificate of Airworthiness" have? (1,00 P.)


 Unlimited
 12 years
 6 months
 12 months

7 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "ARC"? (1,00 P.)


 Airworthiness Recurring Control
 Airspace Rulemaking Committee
 Airworthiness Review Certificate
 Airspace Restriction Criteria

8 The "Certificate of Airworthiness" is issued by the state... (1,00 P.)


 of the residence of the owner.
 in which the aircraft is registered.
 in which the airworthiness review is done.
 in which the aircraft is constructed.

9 A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is valid in... (1,00 P.)
 those countries that have accepted this license on application.
 the country where the license was acquired.
 all ICAO countries.
 the country where the license was issued.

10 What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1? (1,00 P.)


 Flight crew licensing
 Air traffic services
 Rules of the air
 Operation of aircraft

11 The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is...
(1,00 P.)
 12 Months.
 48 Months.
 24 Months.
 60 Months.

v2020.2 4
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

12 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SERA"? (1,00 P.)


 Selective Radar Altimeter
 Standardized European Rules of the Air
 Standard European Routes of the Air
 Specialized Radar Approach

13 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "TRA"? (1,00 P.)


 Transponder Area
 Temporary Reserved Airspace
 Terminal Area
 Temporary Radar Routing Area

14 What has to be considered when entering an RMZ? (1,00 P.)


 To obtain a clearance to enter this area
 To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact
 To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority
 The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000

15 What is the meaning of an area marked as "TMZ"? (1,00 P.)


 Transponder Mandatory Zone
 Transportation Management Zone
 Touring Motorglider Zone
 Traffic Management Zone

16 A flight is called a "visual flight", if the... (1,00 P.)


 visibility in flight is more than 5 km.
 flight is conducted under visual flight rules.
 visibility in flight is more than 8 km.
 flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions.

17 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "VMC"? (1,00 P.)


 Variable meteorological conditions
 Visual meteorological conditions
 Instrument flight conditions
 Visual flight rules

v2020.2 5
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

18 Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude.

Which one has to divert? (1,00 P.)


 Both have to divert to the left
 The lighter one has to climb
 The heavier one has to climb
 Both have to divert to the right

19 Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks.

Which one has to divert? (1,00 P.)


 Both have to divert to the left
 The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority
 Both have to divert to the right
 The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority

20 Which distances to clouds have to be maintained during a VFR flight in airpaces C, D


and E? (1,00 P.)
 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically
 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically
 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically

21 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "E" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at FL75? (1,00 P.)
 8000 m
 1500 m
 3000 m
 5000 m

22 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at FL110? (1,00 P.)
 1500 m
 3000 m
 8000 m
 5000 m

v2020.2 6
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

23 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at FL125? (1,00 P.)
 8000 m
 1500 m
 5000 m
 3000 m

24 What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace "B"? (1,00 P.)
 Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m
 Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 1.000 m
 Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 300 m
 Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 1.500 ft

25 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" below FL 100 for an aircraft
operating under VFR? (1,00 P.)
 1.5 km
 8 km
 5 km
 10 km

26 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" at and above FL 100 for an aircraft
operating under VFR?

(1,00 P.)
 1.5 km
 10 km
 5 km
 8 km

27 The term "ceiling" is defined as the... (1,00 P.)


 height of the base of the highest layer of clouds
covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
 height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds
covering more than half of the sky below 10000 ft.
 height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds
covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
 altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds
covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.

v2020.2 7
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

28 Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the


following signal:

A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft


without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft? (1,00 P.)
 Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield
 You may continue your flight
 Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
 You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately

29 During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be... (1,00 P.)
 local QFE.
 local QNH.
 1030.25 hPa.
 1013.25 hPa.

30 What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule? (1,00 P.)


 To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP
 To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres
 To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude
 To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern

31 A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a... (1,00 P.)
 transponder approved for airspace "B".
 mode C or S transponder.
 pressure-decoder.
 mode A transponder.

32 Which transponder code indicates a loss of radio communication? (1,00 P.)


 2000
 7600
 7000
 7700

33 Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request?
(1,00 P.)
 7700
 7600
 7500
 7000

v2020.2 8
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

34 Which transponder code has to be set unrequested during an emergency? (1,00 P.)
 7500
 7700
 7000
 7600

35 Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights? (1,00 P.)
 ATC (air traffic control)
 AIS (aeronautical information service)
 ALR (alerting service)
 FIS (flight information service)

36 Air traffic control service is conducted by which services? (1,00 P.)


 ALR (alerting service)
SAR (search and rescue service)
TWR (aerodrome control service)
 FIS (flight information service)
AIS (aeronautical information service)
AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service)
 APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)
FIS (flight information service)
 TWR (aerodrome control service)
APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)

37 Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace "E"? (1,00 P.)
 VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic
 VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic
 VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic
 IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic

38 Which air traffic services can be expected within an FIR (flight information region)?
(1,00 P.)
 FIS (flight information service)
ALR (alerting service)
 ATC (air traffic control)
FIS (flight information service)
 ATC (air traffic control)
AIS (aeronautical information service)
 AIS (aeronautical information service)
SAR (search and rescue)

v2020.2 9
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

39 A pilot can contact FIS (flight information service)... (1,00 P.)


 by a personal visit.
 via telephone.
 via radio communication.
 via internet.

40 What is the correct phrase with respect to wake turbulence to indicate that a light
aircraft is following an aircraft of a higher wake turbulence category? (1,00 P.)
 Caution wake turbulence
 Be careful wake winds
 Danger jet blast
 Attention propwash

41 Which of the following options states a correct position report? (1,00 P.)
 DEABC reaching "N"
 DEABC, "N", 2500 ft
 DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft
 DEABC over "N" at 35

42 What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP? (1,00 P.)
 Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi
charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces
 Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples
and validity periods
 Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
 Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces

43 Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)? (1,00
P.)
 GEN
MET
RAC
 GEN
AGA
COM
 GEN
COM
MET
 GEN
ENR
AD

v2020.2 10
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

44 What information is provided in the part "AD" of the AIP? (1,00 P.)
 Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces.
 Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples
and validity periods
 Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts
 Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees

45 The shown NOTAM is valid until...

A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400


E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE. (1,00 P.)
 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC.
 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC.
 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.
 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC.

46 A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current... (1,00 P.)


 AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
 AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
 NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
 ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight.

47 The term "aerodrome elevation" is defined as... (1,00 P.)


 the highest point of the apron.
 the lowest point of the landing area.
 the highest point of the landing area.
 the average value of the height of the manoeuvring area.

48 The term "runway" is defined as a... (1,00 P.)


 round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
 rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters.
 rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
 rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

49 How can a wind direction indicator be marked for better visibility? (1,00 P.)
 The wind direction indicator may be mounted on top of the control tower.

 The wind direction indicator could be made from green materials.


 The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle.
 The wind direction indicator could be located on a big black surface.

v2020.2 11
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

50 Of what shape is a landing direction indicator? (1,00 P.)


 T
 A straight arrow
 L
 An angled arrow

51 What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome? (1,00 P.)


 It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed
 It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying
aircraft
 Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance
 It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects

52 How are two parallel runways designated? (1,00 P.)


 The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway remains unchanged
 The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway "R"
 The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1
 The left runway gets the suffix "-1", the right runway "-2"

53 What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed


symmetrically about the centerline of a runway? (1,00 P.)
 At this point the glide path of an ILS hits the runway
 Do not touch down before them
 Do not touch down behind them
 A ground roll could be started from this position

54 Which runway designators are correct for 2 parallel runways? (1,00 P.)
 "26" and "26R"
 "06L" and "06R"
 "18" and "18-2"
 "24" and "25"

55 An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a... (1,00 P.)


 fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the
air.
 rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to aircraft
pilots from the air.
 rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from
the air.
 rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from
the ground.

v2020.2 12
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

56 What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome?

See figure (ALW-011) (1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 1
 After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right
 Caution, manoeuvring area is poor
 Glider flying is in progress
 Landing prohibited for a longer period

57 What is the meaning of "DETRESFA"? (1,00 P.)


 Distress phase
 Alerting phase

 Uncertainty phase
 Rescue phase

58 Who provides search and rescue service? (1,00 P.)


 Only civil organisations
 Both military and civil organisations
 Only military organisations
 International approved organisations

59 How can a pilot confirm a search and rescue signal on ground in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Push the rudder in both directions multiple times
 Fly in a parabolic flight path multiple times
 Rock the wings
 Deploy and retract the landing flaps multiple times

v2020.2 13
10 Air Law ECQB-PPL - SPL

60 With respect to aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three
categories regarding aircraft occurrences? (1,00 P.)
 Event
Crash
Disaster
 Event
Serious event
Accident
 Happening
Event
Serious event
 Incident
Serious incident
Accident

61 What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation? (1,00 P.)


 To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations
 To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers
 To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents
 To Determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences

62 During slope soaring you have the hill to your left side, another glider is approaching
from the opposite side at the same altitude.

How do you react? (1,00 P.)


 You divert to the right
 You expect the opposite glider to divert
 You divert to the right and expect the opposite glider to do the same
 You pull on the elevator and divert upward

63 Along with other gliders, you are circling in a thermal updraft.

Who determines the direction of circling? (1,00 P.)


 Circling is general to the left
 The glider who entered the updraft at first
 The glider with greatest bank angle
 The glider at highest altitude

64 Is it possible to enter airspace C with a glider plane? (1,00 P.)


 Yes, but only with transponder activated
 No
 With restrictions, in case of less air traffic
 Yes, but only with approval of the respective ATC unit

v2020.2 14
Anlagen zu den Aufgaben

Anlage 1

v2020.2 1

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