PAK MCQS

ELECTRICAL

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 CHAPTERS

 BASIC ELECTRICAL MCQS-------------------------------------------------------------- 4

 POWER ELECTRONICS MCQS---------------------------------------------------------- 11
 TRANSFORMERS--------------------------------------------------------------------------- 27
 TRANSMISSION & DISTRIBUTION---------------------------------------------------- 36
 D.C MOTORS--------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 43
 D.C GENERATORS-------------------------------------------------------------------------- 52
 POLYPHASE INDUCTION MOTORS--------------------------------------------------- 61
 SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION MOTORS----------------------------------------------- 68
 SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS--------------------------------------------------------------- 76
 NETWORK THEOREMS------------------------------------------------------------------- 86
 ECONOMICS OF POWER GENERATION--------------------------------------------- 90
 A.C FUNDAMENTALS, CIRCUITS & CIRCUITS THEORY----------------------- 96
 CABLES--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 104
 ELECTROLYSIS & STORAGE OF BATTERIES-------------------------------------- 108
 ELECTROSTATICS------------------------------------------------------------------------- 116
 MAGNETIC CIRCUIT---------------------------------------------------------------------- 128
 RECTIFIERS & CONVERTERS---------------------------------------------------------- 130
 MAGNETISM & ELECTROMAGNETISM--------------------------------------------- 134
 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION---------------------------------------------------- 140
 SWITCHGEAR & PROTECTION---------------------------------------------------------146
 OP-AMP CIRCUITS------------------------------------------------------------------------- 153
 HEATING & WELDING-------------------------------------------------------------------- 155
 EARTHING & GROUNDING-------------------------------------------------------------- 159
 PARALLEL CIRCUITS--------------------------------------------------------------------- 160
 OSCILLATORS------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 162
 AMPLIFIERS WITH NEGATIVE FEEDBACK--------------------------------------- 164
 TRANSISTORS------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 165
 SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE-------------------------------------------------------------- 169
 ANALOG ELECTRONICS---------------------------------------------------------------- 171
 HYBRID PARAMETERS------------------------------------------------------------------ 174
 MODULATION & DEMODULATION-------------------------------------------------- 175
 CONTROL SYSTEMS---------------------------------------------------------------------- 178
 DIGITAL ELECTRONICS----------------------------------------------------------------- 185
 ELECTRIC TRACTION-------------------------------------------------------------------- 187
 ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MATERIALS----------------------------------------- 192
 ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN------------------------------------------------------ 199
 ELECTRONICS INSTRUMENTS--------------------------------------------------------- 206
 FIELD EFFECT TRANSISTORS FET---------------------------------------------------- 209
 HYBRID PARAMETERS------------------------------------------------------------------- 212
 INDUSTRIAL DRIVES---------------------------------------------------------------------- 213
 INTEGRATED CIRCUITS------------------------------------------------------------------ 217
 MEASUREMENT & INSTRUMENTATION-------------------------------------------- 218
 MULTI-STAGE TRANSISTOR AMPLIFIERS------------------------------------------ 226
 POWER GENERATION--------------------------------------------------------------------- 229

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 REGULATED D.C POWER SUPPLY------------------------------------------------------ 237
 SCR(SILICON CONTROLLED RECTIFIER)--------------------------------------------- 240
 SEMICONDUCTOR THEORY-------------------------------------------------------------- 242
 SINGLE STAGE TRANSISTOR AMPLIFIERS------------------------------------------- 244
 SOLID-STATE SWITCHING CIRCUITS-------------------------------------------------- 247
 TRANSISTOR AUDIO POWER AMPLIFIERS------------------------------------------- 249
 TRANSISTOR BIASING---------------------------------------------------------------------- 251
 TRANSISTOR TUNED AMPLIFIERS------------------------------------------------------ 254
 SERIES-PARALLEL CIRCUITS------------------------------------------------------------- 257
 PASSIVE FILTERS----------------------------------------------------------------------------- 259

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 CHAPTER # BASIC ELECTRICAL C. 4R Ω
MCQS D. 8R Ω
Which of the followings is/are active element? The resistivity of the conductor depends on
A. Voltage source A. area of the conductor.
B. Current source B. length of the conductor.
C. Both C. type of material.
D. None of these. D. none of these.
If P is the power of a star connected system then If 1 A current flows in a circuit, the number of
what will be power of an equivalent delta electrons flowing through this circuit isA.
connected system? 0.625 × 1019
A. P B. 1.6 × 1019
B. 3P C. 1.6 × 10-19
C. P/3 D. 0.625 × 10-19
D. None of the above Which of the following are the passive elements?
Magnetic flux has the unit of A. Resistor
A. Newton B. Bulb
B. Ampere-turn C. Both
C. Weber D. None of these.
D. Tesla Power dissipation in ideal inductor is
(more…) A. Maximum
The voltage induced in an inductor is represented B. Minimum
as, C. Zero
A. product of its inductance and current D. A finite value
through it. Inductor does not allow the sudden change of
B. ratio of its inductance to the current through A. current
it. B. voltage
C. ratio of the current through it to its inductance. C. power
D. product of its inductance and rate of change of D. None of the above
current through it. (more…)
Instantaneous power in inductor is proportional Capacitor does not allow the sudden change
to the of ?
A. product of the instantaneous current and A. current
rate of change of current. B. voltage
B. square of instantaneous current. C. power
C. square of the rate of change of current. D. None of the above
D Temperature of the inductor. Internal resistance of ideal voltage source is
The unit of resistivity is ?
A. Ω. A. zero
B. Ω – metre. B. infinite
C. Ω / metre. C. finite
D. Ω / m². D. 100 ohms
How many coulombs of charge flow through a
circuit carrying a current of 10 A in 1 Internal resistance of ideal current source is
minute? ?
A. 10 A. zero
B. 60 B. infinite
C. 600 C. finite
D. 1200 B. 100 ohms
Which quantity should be measured by the
The resistance of a conductor of diameter d and voltmeter ?
length l is R Ω. If the diameter of the conductor is A. Current
halved and its length is doubled, the resistance will B. Voltage
be C. Power
A. R Ω D. Speed
B. 2R Ω Which quantity consists of a unit 1KWh ?

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A. Energy A. length
B. Time B. area of cross-section
C. Power C. temperature
D. Charge D. resistivity
Which of the following has no units? With rise in temperature the resistance of pure
A. Permeability metals______________?
B. Moment of a magnet A. increases
C. Magnetic susceptibility B. decreases
D Permittivity C. first increases and then decreases
Which of the following quantities consists of SI D. remains constant
unit as WATT ? With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-
A. Force conductors_________________?
B. Charge A. decreases
C. Current B. increases
C. first increases and then decreases
D. Power
D. remains constant
Electric pressure is also called________? The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21
A. resistance Q. If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its
B. power specific resistance is around_______________?
C. voltage
D. energy
The substances which have a large number of free A. 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m
electrons and offer a low resistance are B. 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
C. 1.6 x 10″”8 Q-m
called____?
D. 1.8 x 10″8 Q-m
A. insulators
B. inductors
An instrument which detects electric current is
C. semi-conductors known as_____________?
D. conductors
Out of the following which is not a poor A. voltmeter
conductor__________? B. rheostat
A. Cast iron C. wattmeter
B. Copper D. galvanometer
C. Carbon
D. Tungsten
In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2
Out of the following which is an insulating
A. The voltage across the resistor is
material____________?
A. Copper
B. Gold A. 33 V
C. Silver B. 66 v
D. Paper C. 80 V
The property of a conductor due to which it passes D. 132 V
current is called___________?
A. resistance A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage
B. reluctance across it is 240 V. The resistance of the light bulb
C. conductance is___________?
D. inductance
Conductance is reciprocal of____________? A. 400 Q
A. resistance B. 600 Q
B. inductance C. 800 Q
C. reluctance D. 1000 Q
D. capacitance The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of
The resistance of a conductor varies inversely two branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of one
as___________? branch is 18 ohms, what is the resistance of the
other ?

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A. 18 Q Which of the following materials has a negative
B. 36 Q temperature co-efficient of resistance?
C. 48 Q A. Copper
D. 64 Q B. Aluminum
Four wires of same material, the same cross- C. Carbon
sectional area and the same length when D. Brass
connected in parallel give a resistance of 25 Q. If Ohm’s law is not applicable to____________?
the same four wires are connected is series the A. vacuum tubes
effective resistance will be________? B. carbon resistors
A. 100 Ω C. high voltage circuits
B. 200 Ω D. circuits with low current densities
C. 300 Ω Which is the best conductor of electricity
D. 400 Ω _______________?
A current of 16 amperes divides between two A. Iron
branches in parallel of resistances 8 ohms and 12 B. Silver
ohms respectively. The current in each branch C. Copper
is_____________? D. Carbon
A. 6.4 A, 6.9 A For which of the following ‘ampere second’ could
B. 6.4 A, 9.6 A be the unit ?
C. 4.6 A, 6.9 A A. Reluctance
D. 4.6 A, 9.6 A B. Charge
Current velocity through a copper conductor C. Power
is___________? D. Energy
A. the same as propagation velocity of electric All of the following are equivalent to watt
energy except_____________?
B. independent of current strength A. (amperes) ohm
C. of the order of a few ^.s/m B. joules/seC.
D. nearly 3 x 108 m/s C. amperes x volts
Which of the following material has nearly zero D. amperes/volt
temperature co-efficient of A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10 W is likely
resistance_________? to be a__________?
A. Manganin A. metallic resistor
B. Porcelain B. carbon resistor
C. Carbon C. wire wound resistor
D. Copper D. variable resistor
You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You Which one of the following does not have negative
have no 1500 Q resistor but have several 1000 Q temperature co-efficient ____________?
ones which you would connect__________? A. Aluminium
A. two in parallel B. Paper
B. two in parallel and one in series C. Rubber
C. three in parallel D. Mica
D. three in series Varistors are______________?
Two resistors are said to be connected in series A. insulators
when___________? B. non-linear resistors
A. same current passes in turn through both C. carbon resistors
B. both carry the same value of current D. resistors with zero temperature coefficient
C. total current equals the sum of branch Insulating materials have the function
currents of______________?
D. sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f. A. preventing a short circuit between
Which of the following statement is true both for a conducting wires
series and a parallel D. C. circuit? B. preventing an open circuit between the
A. Elements have individual currents voltage source and the load
B. Currents are additive C. conducting very large currents
C. Voltages are additive D. storing very high currents
D. Power are additive

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The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed C. is zero in all branches
in________________? D. is zero in the highest resistive branch
A. ampere-hours If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is
B. ampere-volts doubled in length, its resistance
C. kWh becomes______________?
D. amperes A. 0.4 ohm
The minimum charge on an ion B. 0.6 ohm
is______________? C. 0.8 ohm
A. equal to the atomic number of the atom D. 1.0 ohm
B. equal to the charge of an electron Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V
C. equal to the charge of the number of power line. If one bulb burns
electrons in an atom (#) zero open_________________?
In a series circuit with unequal A. there will be heavy current in the main line
resistances______________? B. rest of the two bulbs will not light
A. the highest resistance has the most of the C. all three bulbs will light
current through it D. the other two bulbs will light
B. the lowest resistance has the highest voltage The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in
drop series swift a battery across them, which of the
C. the lowest resistance has the highest current following statement is true_______________?
D. the highest resistance has the highest voltage A. The current through each bulb in same
drop B. The voltage across each bulb is not same
The filament of an electric bulb is made C. The power dissipation in each bulb is not
of______________? same
A. carbon D. None of the above
B. aluminium Two resistances Rl and Ri are connected in series
C. tungsten across the voltage source where Rl>Ri. The largest
D. nickel drop will be across______________?
A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will dissipate A. Rl
the power of_______________? B. Ri
A. 2 watts C. either Rl or Ri
B. 4 watts D. none of them
C. 6 watts A closed switch has a resistance
D. 12 watts of_____________?
Which of the following statement is A. zero
true________________? B. about 50 ohms
A. A galvanometer with low resistance in C. about 500 ohms
parallel is a voltmeter D. infinity
B. A galvanometer with high resistance in The hot resistance of the bulb’s filament is higher
parallel is a voltmeter than its cold resistance because the temperature
C. A galvanometer with low resistance in series is co-efficient of the filament
an ammeter is___________________?
D. A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an A. zero
ammeter B. negative
The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor C. positive
in closed electrical circuit is____________? D. about 2 ohms per degree
A. practically zero The insulation on a current carrying conductor is
B. low provided__________?
C. high A. to prevent leakage of current
D. very high B. to prevent shock
If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the C. both of above factors
current_______________? D. none of above factors
A. increases in the branch of the lowest The thickness of insulation provided on the
resistance conductor depends on_____________?
B. increases in each branch A. the magnitude of voltage on the
conductor

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B. the magnitude of current flowing through it When electric current passes through a metallic
C. both A. and (b) conductor, its temperature rises. This is due
D. none of the above to__________?
Which of the following quantities remain the same A. collisions between conduction electrons
in all parts of a series circuit ____________? and atoms
A. Voltage B. the release of conduction electrons from
B. Current parent atoms
C. Power C. mutual collisions between metal atoms
D. Resistance D. mutual collisions between conducting electrons
A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will
heater. If now 40 W bulb is replaced by 100 W have resistance ratio as________?
bulb, the heater output will__________ A. 4 : 25
A. decrease B. 25 : 4
B. increase C. 2 : 5
C. remain same D. 5 : 2
D. heater will burn out A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged
In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It because__________?
is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes, using A. it takes in proton
same supply mains______________? B. its atoms are removed
A. length of heating element should be C. it gives away electrons
decreased D. it gives away positive charge
B. length of heating element should be Whether circuit may be AC. or D. C. one,
increased following is most effective in reducing the
C. length of heating element has no effect on heating magnitude of the current?
if water A. Reactor
D. none of the above B. Capacitor
An electric filament bulb can be worked C. Inductor
from____________? D. Resistor
A. D. C. supply only It becomes more difficult to
B. A. C. supply only remove_________________?
C. Battery supply only A. any electron from the orbit
D. All above B. first electron from the orbit
Electric current passing through the circuit C. second electron from the orbit
produces_____________? D. third electron from the orbit
A. magnetic effect When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the
B. luminous effect total current will______________?
C. thermal effect A. reduce
D. chemical effect B. increase
E. all above effects C. decrease
Resistance of a material always decreases D. become zero
if___________? In a lamp load when more than one lamp are
A. temperature of material is decreased switched on the total resistance of the
B. temperature of material is increased load_____________?
C. number of free electrons available A. increases
become more B. decreases
D. none of the above is correct C. remains same
If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what D. none of the above
should be low __________? Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in
A. Input power series across 230 V (alternating). Which of the
B. Losses following statement is correct ?
C. True component of power A. 100 W lamp will glow brighter
D. kWh consumed B. 40 W lamp will glow brighter
E. Ratio of output to input C. Both lamps will glow equally bright
D. 40 W lamp will fuse
In the case of direct current____________?

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A. magnitude and direction of current A field of force can exist only
remains constant between_____________?
B. magnitude and direction of current changes A. two molecules
with time B. two ions
C. magnitude of current changes with time C. two atoms
D. magnitude of current remains constant D. two metal particles
When electric current passes through a bucket full A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar
of water, lot of bubbling is observeD. This atoms is called____________?
suggests that the type of supply is____________? A. semi-conductor
A. A. C. B. super-conducto
B. D. C. C. compound
C. any of above two D. insulator
D. none of the above International ohm is defined in terms of the
Bulbs in street lighting are all connected resistance of________________?
in_____________? A. a column of mercury
A. parallel B. a cube of carbon
B. series C. a cube of copper
C. series-parallel D. the unit length of wire
D. end-to-end Three identical resistors are first connected in
For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp parallel and then in series. The resultant
should be_____________? resistance of the first combination to the second
A. very low will be_________________?
B. low A. 9 times
C. high B. 1/9 times
D. any value C. 1/3 times
Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the D. 3 times
radio. This is because switching operation Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a
produces________? triangle. What is the resistance between any two
A. arcs across separating contacts corners ___________?
B. mechanical noise of high intensity A. 3/2 Q
C. both mechanical noise and arc between B. 6 Q
contacts C. 4 Q
D. none of the above D. 8/3 Q
74. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off Which method can be used for absolute
because the circuit has high_________? measurement of resistances
A. resistance _______________?
B. inductance A. Lorentz method
C. capacitance B. Releigh method
D. impedance C. Ohm’s law method
Copper wire of certain length and resistance is D. Wheatstone bridge method
drawn out to three times its length without change Ohm’s law is not applicable to__________?
in volume, the new resistance of wire A. semi-conductors
becomes__________? B. D. C. circuits
A. 1/9 times C. small resistors
B. 3 times D. high currents
C. 9 times Two copper conductors have equal length. The
D. unchanged cross-sectional area of one conductor is four times
When resistance element of a heater fuses and that of the other. If the conductor having smaller
then we reconnect it after removing a portion of it, cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms
the power of the heater will___________? the resistance of other conductor will
A. decrease be_____________?
B. increase A. 160 ohms
C. remain constant B. 80 ohms
D. none of the above C. 20 ohms
D. 10 ohms

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A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the D. low but not zero
resistance of 2 £2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at 200 are the materials having electrical conductivity
V, the length of wire required will much less than most of the metals but much
be_____________? greater than that of typical
A. 80 m insulators______________?
B. 60 m A. Varistors
C. 40 m B. Thermistor
D. 20 m C. Semi-conductors
Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed D. Variable resistors
in terms of___________? All good conductors have high____________?
A. ohms/°C A. conductance
B. mhos/ohm°C B. resistance
C. ohms/ohm°C C. reluctance
D. mhos/°C D. thermal conductivity
When current flows through heater coil it glows Voltage dependent resistors are usually made
but supply wiring does not glow from________________?
because______________? A. Charcoal
A. current through supply line flows at slower B. Silicon Carbide
speed C. Nichrome
B. supply wiring is covered with insulation D. Graphite
layer Voltage dependent resistors are
C. resistance of heater coil is more than the supply used_____________?
wires A. for inductive circuits
D. supply wires are made of superior material B. to supress surges
The condition for the validity under Ohm’s law is C. as heating elements
that_______________? D. as current stabilizers
A. resistance must be uniform The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is
B. current should be proportional to the size of nearly_____________?
the resistance A. 1840
C. resistance must be wire wound type B. 1840
D. temperature at positive end should be more than C. 30
the temperature at negative end D. 4
Which of the following statement is The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of
correct_______________? carbon atom is___________?
A. A semi-conductor is a material whose A. 3
conductivity is same as between that of a B. 4
conductor and an insulator C. 6
B. A semi-conductor is a material which has D. 7
conductivity having average value of conductivity of With three resistances connected in parallel, if
metal and insulator each dissipates 20 W the total power supplied by
C. A semi-conductor is one which con¬ducts only the voltage source equals_____________?
half of the applied voltage A. 10 W
D. A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate B. 20 W
layers of conducting material and insulator C. 40 W
A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the D. 60 W
respect that it_____________? A thermistor has_____________?
A. has lower wattage rating A. positive temperature coefficient
B. has higher wattage rating B. negative temperature coefficient
C. has large number of turns C. zero temperature coefficient
D. offers large number of tapping D. variable temperature coefficient
An open resistor, when checked with an ohm- If/, R and t are the current, resistance and time
meter reads_____________? respectively, then according to Joule’s law heat
A. zero produced will be proportional
B. infinite to_______________?
C. high but within tolerance

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A. I2Rt D. Independent on both the load current and load
B. I2Rf voltage
C. I2R2t The effects of EMI can be reduced
D. I2R2t*
by_____________?
Nichrome wire is an alloy of_____________?
A. lead and zinc A. Suppressing emissions
B. chromium and vanadium B. Reducing the efficiency of the coupling path
C. nickel and chromium C. Reducing the susceptibility of the receptor
D. copper and silver D. All of these
When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit An SCR is made up of silicon
allows one micro ampere current to flow through because_____________?
it. The conductance of the circuit is___________?
A. silicon has large leakage current than
A. 1 n-mho
B. 106 mho germanium
C. 1 milli-mho B. silicon has small leakage current than
D. none of the above germanium
Which of the following can have negative C. silicon has small leakage voltage than germanium
temperature coefficient _____________? D. silicon has large leakage voltage than germanium
A. Compounds of silver AC power in a load can be controlled by
B. Liquid metals
C. Metallic alloys using_____________?
D. Electrolytes A. two SCR’s in parallel opposition
Conductance : mho :: ____________? B. two SCR’s in series
A. resistance : ohm C. three SCR’s in series
B. capacitance : henry D. four SCR’s in series
C. inductance : farad The switching function of semiconductor devices
D. lumen : steradian
can be characterized with____________?
1 angstrom is equal to______________?
A. 10-8 mm A. Duty ratio only
B. 10″6 cm B. Frequency only
C. 10″10 m C. Duty ratio and frequency
D. 10~14 m D. Duty ratio, frequency and time delay
One newton meter is same
Electrical power output in a D.C. generator is
as_____________?
A. one watt equal to_____________?
B. one joule A. Electrical power developed in armature –
C. five joules copper losses
D. one joule second B. Mechanical power input – iron and friction losses
C. Electrical power developed in armature – iron and
copper losses
Chapter # Power Electronics D. Mechanical power input – iron and friction
For similar carrier and modulating signals, the losses – copper losses
line current used in CSI is_____________? If a shunt motor is started with its field winding
A. Identical to line voltage in a VSI open then___________?
B. Identical to line current in VSI A. It will rotate at the same speed as that with
C. Identical to phase voltage in VSI its field winding closed
D. Identical to phase voltage in CSI B. It will rotate at less speed as that with its field
During the commutation period in 3 phase winding closed
converter, overlap time is____________? C. It will rotate at dangerously high speed
A. Dependent on the load current D. None of these
B. Dependent on the voltage The power demand can be estimated
C. Dependent on both the load current and load approximately by____________?
voltage behind the short circuit current

11
A. Load survey method B. Improves the reverse bias safe operating area
B. Mathematical method C. Dissipates a fair amount of switching power
C. Statistical method D. All of these
D. Economic parameters The ac output voltage waveform of VSI and AC
Power electronics essentially deals with control of output current waveform of CSI respectively is
a.c. power at____________? composed of___________?
A. Frequencies above 20 kHz A. High dv / dt, low di / dt
B. Frequencies above 1000 kHz B. Low dv / dt, low di / dt
C. Frequencies less than 10 Hz C. Low dv / dt, high di / dt
D. 50 Hz frequency D. High dv / dt, high di / dt
In a push – pull converter, the filter capacitor can If energy is taken from the AC side of the inverter
be obtained as____________? and sends it back into the DC side, then it is
A. Cmin = V / ( Vr L f2 ) known as___________?
B. Cmin= ( 1 – D ) V / ( Vr L f2 ) A. Motoring mode operation
C. Cmin= ( 1 – 2 D ) V / 32 ( Vr L f2 ) B. Braking mode operation
D. Cmin= ( 1 – 2 D ) V / 42 ( Vr L f2 ) C. Regenerative mode operation
MOSFET stands for______________? D. None of these
A. Metal – oxide semiconductor field effect A combination of synchronized leading edge and
transistor trailing edge modulation has also been used to
B. Molybdenum – oxide semiconductor field effect control a____________?
transistor A. Boost single – phase power factor converter
C. Metal – oxide silicon field effect transistor B. A buck dc – dc converter to reduce ripple in
D. Metal – oxide semiconductor field effect the intermediate dc bus capacitor
transmitter C. Both A. and B.
In a flyback converter, the inductor of the buck- D. None f these
boost converter has been replaced by Regulator sampling PWM is usually used
a_____________? in___________?
A. Flyback capacitor A. High power inverters
B. Flyback resistor B. Rectifiers
C. Flyback transformer C. Low power inverters
D. Flyback transistor D. Only A. and B.
Advantages of Cuk converter is / In a 3 phase VSI SPWM to use a single carrier
are_____________? signal and preserve the features of PWM
A. Large number of reactive component technique, the normalized carrier frequency
B. Low stress on switch should be____________?
C. Low stress on capacitor A. Multiple of two
D. None of these B. Odd multiple of three
A MOSFET, for its conduction C. Odd multiple of five
uses_____________? D. Odd multiple of seven
A. Only minority carriers In square wave operation mode of 3 phase VSI,
B. Only majority carriers the VSI
C. Both minority and majority carriers A. Can control the load voltage
D. None of these B. Cannot control the load voltage
An RC snubber network used in C. Cannot control the load voltage except by
BJT__________? means of dc link voltage
A. Divert the collector current during turn – off D. Cannot control the load voltage except by means
of dc link current

12
For commutation in three phase PAC, normally A. Equal to the average power supplied by
balanced three phase voltages VR, VY and VB are the dc source
connected to the three legs of the converter B. Greater than the average power supplied by the dc
via______________? source
A. Three inductances C. Lesser than the average power supplied by the dc
B. Three capacitances source
C. Three resistance D. Equal to the average power supplied by the ac
D. Three transistors source
If all the SCR’s of 3 phase PAC is replaced by The ac voltage controller can be used for
diodes, they would be triggered_____________? ___________?
A. 120 degree after the zero crossing of the A. Lighting and heating control
corresponding line voltages B. On – line transformer tap changing
B. 60 degree after the zero crossing of the C. Soft starting
corresponding line voltages D. All of these
C. 120 degree before the zero crossing of the In a full bridge VSI, in order to avoid the short
corresponding line voltages circuit across the DC bus and the undefined AC
D. 60 degree before the zero crossing of the output voltage condition, the modulating
corresponding line voltages technique should ensure that___________?
The ability of an electronic system to function A. Top switch of each leg is on at any instant
properly in its intended electromagnetic B. Bottom switch of each leg is on at any
environment and should not be a source of instant
pollution to that electromagnetic environment is C. Either A. or B.
known as____________? D. None of these
A. Susceptibility The phase angle of gate signal in TRIAC can be
B. Emission shifted by using_____________?
C. Interference A. A capacitor
D. Electromagnetic compatibility B. A variable resistor
The opposite of susceptibility C. An inductor
is___________? D. Only (a) and (b)
A. Immunity In the SPWM, the modulating signal
B. Emission is___________?
C. Interference A. Square
D. Electromagnetic compatibility B. Sinusoidal
The output current in PWM DC – DC converters C. Triangular
is equal to___________? D. Saw – tooth
A. Average value of the output inductor current A TRIAC can be turned on
B. Product of an average inductor current and a with______________?
function of duty ratio A. Positive voltage at the gate terminal
C. Either A. or B. B. Negative voltage at the gate terminal
D. None of these C. Either (a) or (b)
A step – down choppers can be used D. None of these
in___________? The transfer function of PWM is generally
A. Electric traction developed in______________?
B. Electric vehicles A. Time domain
C. Machine tools B. Frequency domain
D. All of these C. Either A. or B.
In a lossless inverter, the average power absorbed D. None of these
in one period by the load must be__________?

13
DIAC and TRIAC both are semiconductors rating required by primary
devices and conduct in____________________? C. DC output power to the transformer volt – amp
A. DIAC conducts in forward direction and rating required by secondary
TRIAC conducts in reverse direction D. DC output power to the transformer volt – amp
B. Both conducts in forward direction rating required by primary
C. Both conducts in reverse direction A carrier based PWM technique in CSI is
D. Both conducts in either direction composed of____________?
The Graetz bridge makes excellent use of A. A switching pulse generator and a shorting
______________? pulse generator
A. Current transformer B. A shorting pulse distributor
B. Potential transformer C. A switching and shorting pulse combination
C. Power transformer D. All of these
D. SCR In a square – wave operation of 3 phase CSIs, the
In constant frequency PWM, at perturbation the power values are on for___________?
amplitude of the sinusoidal component is A. 60 degree
a___________? B. 90 degree
A. Linear function C. 120 degree
B. Non linear function D. 150 degree
C. Constant function Ripple factor is the ratio
D. None of these of______________________?
If the firing angle becomes negative, then the A. Rms value of the ac component of load
rectifier begins to work as_______________? voltage to the dc voltage
A. A rectifier B. Average value of the ac component of load
B. An inverter voltage to the peak value of voltage
C. A chopper C. Average value of the dc component of load
D. A regulator voltage to the ac voltage
In variable frequency, PWM gain D. Peak value of the dc component of load voltage to
A. Phase lead helps to increase the phase the ac voltage
margin of the control loop Form factor of a rectifier is the ratio of
B. Phase lag helps to increase the phase margin of the ______________?
control loop A. Root mean square value of voltage and
C. Phase lead helps to decrease the phase margin of current to its peak value
the control loop B. Root mean square value of voltage and current
D. Phase lag helps to decrease the phase margin of to its average value
the control loop C. Average value of current and voltage to its root
In a 3 phase half wave rectifier, when firing angle mean square value
is less than 90 degree, then the average dc output D. Peak value of current and voltage to its root mean
voltage becomes__________________? square value
A. Positive Silicon controlled rectifier can be turned
B. Negative on____________?
C. Zero A. By applying a gate pulse and turned off
D. None of these only when current becomes zero
Transformer utilization factor is a measure of the B. And turned off by applying gate pulse
merit of a rectifier circuit. It is the ratio C. By applying a gate pulse and turned off by
of_______________? removing the gate pulse
A. AC input power to the transformer volt – D. By making current non zero and turned off by
amp rating required by secondary making current zero
B. AC input power to the transformer volt – amp

14
TRIAC is a semiconductor power electronic C. Fifth harmonic
device which contains____________? D. Do not produce harmonics
A. Two SCR’s connected in reverse parallel An ideal diode is___________?
B. Two SCR’s connected in parallel A. Unidirectional
C. Two SCR’s connected in series B. Bidirectional
D. Two BJT’s connected in series C. Fixed voltage polarity
The curve between V and I of SCR when anode is D. Only (a) and (c)
positive w.r.t cathode and when anode is negative The input current waveform of a bridge
w.r.t cathode are known controlled rectifier when the load is perfectly
as_____________________? filtered is___________?
A. both as forward characteristics A. Sine wave
B. both as reverse characteristics B. Square wave
C. former as forward characteristics and later as C. Saw – tooth wave
reverse characteristics D. Trapezoidal wave
D. former as reverse characteristics and later as The IGBT resulted in higher switching speed and
forward characteristics lower energy losses. It can be used
An SCR can be used___________? for___________?
A. as static conductor A. Uninterruptible power supplies
B. for power control B. Induction heating system
C. for speed control of dc shunt motor C. Constant voltage and frequency power supplies
D. All of these D. All of these
With gate open, the maximum anode current at The advantage of using free – wheeling diode in
which SCR is turned off from ON condition is half controlled bridge converter is that
called____________? A. There is always a path for the dc current
A. breakdown voltage independent of the ac line
B. peak reverse voltage B. There is always a path for the ac current
C. holding current independent of the ac line
D. latching current C. There is always a path for the dc current
A crowbar is a circuit which is used to protect dependent of the ac line
a_____________? D. There is always a path for the ac current
A. voltage sensitive load from excessive dc independent of the ac line
power supply output voltages To detect an over – current fault condition, the
B. current sensitive load from excessive dc power most reliable method is to connect
supply output voltages a_____________?
C. voltage sensitive load from excessive ac power A. Current sensor across IGBT
supply output voltages B. Voltage sensor across IGBT
D. current sensitive load from excessive ac power C. Current sensor in series with IGBT
supply output voltages D. Voltage sensor in series with IGBT
Bidirectional semiconductor device Harmonics in 3 phase inverters can be reduced by
is___________? using___________?
A. Diode A. Passive filter
B. BJT B. Active filter
C. SCR C. Both passive and active filters
D. TRIAC D. None of these
A full wave rectifier with resistive load The on – state voltage drop of IGBT consists
produces___________? of__________?
A. Second harmonic A. Drop across the collector junction
B. Third harmonic B. Drop across the drift region

15
C. Drop across MOSFET portion C. Equal to that of MOSFET
D. All of these D. Equal to that of BJT
The most suited gate pulses given to the AC For a buck converter to reduce the conduction
regulator with R – L load can be in the form losses in diode
of____________? A. A high on – resistance switch can be added
A. Continuous signal in parallel
B. Large isolating pulse transformer B. A low on – resistance switch can be added in
C. A train of pulses parallel
D. None of these C. A high on – resistance switch can be added in
The maximum firing angle in the half wave series
controlled regulator is_____________? D. A low on – resistance switch can be added in
A. 180 degree series
B. 190 degree Advantages of HVDC transmission over AC
C. 200 degree system is / are____________?
D. 210 degree a. Reversal of power can be controlled by firing
With increase in firing angle, angle
A. Both harmonic distortion and quality of b. Very good dynamic behavior
input current increases c. They can link two AC system operating
B. Harmonic distortion increases and quality of unsynchronized
input current decreases d. All of these
C. Harmonic distortion decreases and quality of input For bidirectional operation of
current increases converters____________?
D. Both harmonic distortion and quality of input A. A parallel combination of controllable
current decreases switch and a diode is used
n a phase controlled 3 phase ac voltage controller, B. A parallel combination of controllable switch and
the harmonic present is__________? capacitor is used
A. 2nd C. A series combination of controllable switch and a
B. 3rd diode is used
C. 5th D. A series combination of controllable switch and a
D. 7th capacitor is used
The power MOSFET device is a___________? In rectifiers, load current flow is_________?
A. Current controlled unipolar device A. Unidirectional
B. Voltage controlled unipolar device B. Bidirectional
C. Current controlled bipolar device C. Either (a) or (b)
D. Voltage controlled bipolar device D. Non directional
In dual converters________________? Due to non sinusoidal waveform of the input
A. Both rectifiers provides positive current to current, the power factor of the rectifier
the load is____________?
B. Both rectifiers provide negative current to the A. Negatively affected by firing angle
load B. Negatively affected by distortion of the
C. One rectifiers provide positive current to the load input current
and the other negative current C. Positively affected by both firing angle and
distortion of the input current
D. One rectifier provide positive current to the
D. Both (a) and (b)
source and the other negative current to the load
Single phase VSI are mainly used
The conduction losses in IGBT is____________?
in___________?
A. More than that of MOSFET
A. Power supplies
B. Lower than that of MOSFET
B. Ups

16
C. Multilevel configuration In bipolar modulation, the carrier is symmetric
D. All of these about zero with amplitude equal to Cm, the PWM
The man made noise sources is / output
are_____________? A. Zero
A. Motors B. Switches between – 1 / 2 and + 1 / 2
B. Switches, radio interferences C. Switches between – 1 and + 1
C. Computers, digital electronics D. Switches between 0 and + 1
D. All of these In a 3 phase VSI out of eight valid states, the
Very large values of modulation index (greater number of valid states that produce zero ac line
than 3.24) lead to___________? voltages is/are_________?
A. Square AC output voltage A. One
B. Sine AC output voltage B. two
C. Triangular AC output voltage C. Three
D. Trapezoidal AC output voltage D. Four
Any electrical signal present in a circuit other The square wave operation of 3 phase VSI lines
than the desired signal is known contains the harmonics. The amplitudes
as______________? are____________?
A. Noise A. Directly proportional to their harmonic
B. Distortion order
C. Interference B. Inversely proportional to their harmonic order
D. All of these C. Not related to their harmonic order
In single phase VSI, the harmonic which is not D. None of these
present is____________? In a three phase voltage source
0A. 2nd inverters____________?
B. 3rd A. Only amplitude of voltage is controllable
C. 5th B. Only phase is controllable
D. 7th C. Both amplitude and phase is controllable
In commutation PAC stands for_______? D. Amplitude, phase and frequency of voltages
A. Permanent angle converter should always be controllable
B. Phase angle converter Under harmonic free load voltages, the 3 phase
C. Phase angle commutation VSI_____________?
D. Phase and commutation A. Does not contains second harmonic
Double fourier series analysis of PWM B. Does not contains third harmonic
is_____________? C. Does not contains fifth harmonic
A. Two dimensional functions D. Does not contains seventh harmonic
B. Three dimensional functions Double edge modulation eliminates certain
C. One dimensional functions harmonics when the reference is a__________?
D. All of these A. Sine wave
In the operation and control of both naturally B. Square wave
commutated and forced commutated SCR base C. Triangular wave
converter, commutation plays an important role. D. Trapezoidal wave
The converters is / are ___________? For similar carrier and modulating signals, the
A. AC – DC line current used in CSI is__________?
B. DC – DC A. Identical to line voltage in a VSI
C. DC – AC B. Identical to line current in VSI
D. All of these C. Identical to phase voltage in VSI
D. Identical to phase voltage in CSI

17
The carrier which are commonly used in constant The control method used for PWM dc – dc
– frequency PWM is______________? converter is______________?
A. Sawtooth carrier A. Voltage mode control
B. Inverted sawtooth carrier B. Current mode control
C. Triangle carrier C. Hysteric control
D. All of these D. All of these
In a 3 phase CSI, if the required line output Between the incoming and outgoing devices in
voltages are balanced and 120 degree out of phase, voltage commutation
then the chopping angles are used to eliminate A. Large overlapping takes place
only the harmonics at frequencies B. Small overlapping operation
A. 5 C. No overlapping operation
B. 7 D. None of these
C. 11 The average value of the output voltage in a step –
D. All of these down dc chopper is given by__________?
A capacitive load in voltage source inverters A. V 0 = V s
generates ________________? B. V 0 = D V s
A. Small current spikes and can be reduced by C. V 0 = V s / D
using an inductive filter D. V 0 = V s / ( 1 – D )
B. Large current spikes and can be increased by using The effects of EMI can be reduced
an inductive filter by____________?
C. Small current spikes and can be increased by using A. Suppressing emissions
an inductive filter B. Reducing the efficiency of the coupling path
D. Large current spikes and can be reduced by C. Reducing the susceptibility of the receptor
using an inductive filter D. All of these
In a three phase converter, the number of notches Choppers is a_______________?
per cycle is____________? A. AC – DC converters
A. One B. AC – AC converters
B. Three C. DC – AC converters
C. Six D. DC – DC converters
D. Nine In radiative coupling, the emitter radiation
The main objective of static power converters is field_____________?
to____________? A. Decays as 1 / R, where R is the separation
A. Obtain an dc output waveform from a dc distance between the emitter and the
power supply receptor
B. Obtain an ac output waveform from a dc power B. Decays as R, where R is the separation distance
supply between the emitter and the receptor
C. Obtain an dc output waveform from a dc power C. Decays as 1 / 2 R, where R is the separation
supply distance between the emitter and the receptor
D. Obtain an ac output waveform from a ac power D. Decays as 2R, where R is the separation distance
suppl between the emitter and the receptor
During the commutation period in 3 phase In BJT, switching losses occurs___________?
converter, overlap time is_____________? A. Only at turn – on
A. Dependent on the load current B. Only at turn – off
B. Dependent on the voltage C. Both at turn on and off
C. Dependent on both the load current and load D. None of these
voltage behind the short circuit current In BJT, the forward biased base emitter junction
D. Independent on both the load current and load inject holes from base to emitter, the
voltage holes_______?

18
A. Do not contribute to the collector current A. Symmetric triangular voltage across itself
B. Result in net current flow component into B. Symmetric rectangular voltage across itself
the base C. Symmetric trapezoidal voltage across itself
C. Contribute to the collector current D. Symmetric sinusoidal voltage across itself
D. Only (a) and (b) The sum of all phase current in a star connected
E. Only (b) and (c) primary winding with no neutral connection is
In EMC signal, the source delivers maximum equal to___________?
power to the input of transmission line when the A. Phase current
transmission line input impedance B. Three times the phase current
A. Is equal to the source resistance C. Three times the line current
B. Greater than the source resistance D. Zero at all times
C. Smaller than the source resistance In current commutated DC-DC choppers, the
D. None of these voltage spike appears across the load
As the breakdown voltage reached, the DIAC when_____________?
exhibits? A. Voltage across the commutating inductances
A. Negative resistance characteristics collapses
B. Goes into avalanche condition B. The capacitance voltage adds to the supply voltage
C. Voltage drop snaps back C. Both A. and B.
D. All of these D. None of these
For swept frequency measurements, the input For power output higher than 15 kW, the suitable
impedance of the mismatched transmission line rectifier is________________?
would vary with frequency as the electrical length A. Single phase
of the transmission line would B. 3 phase
A. Decrease with frequency C. Poly phase
B. Remains same with change in frequency D. Only (b) and (c)
C. Increase with frequency In a full wave rectifier, the rectification ratio is
D. Either A. or B. approximately equal to____________?
DIAC are specifically designed to A. 61%
trigger______________? B. 71%
A. TRIAC C. 81%
B. SCR D. 91%
C. GTO LISN is a device used to measure conducted
D. Only (a) and (b) emissions. LISN stands for_____________?
Voltage commutation circuit can be converted A. Line integrated stabilization network
into a current commutation by interchanging the B. Line impedance stabilization network
positions of____________? C. Line integrated stored network
A. Diode and capacitor D. Laser integrated stabilization networking
B. Capacitor and SCR In a single phase full wave rectifier, during
C. Inductor and capacitor blocking state the pea inverse voltage of diode
D. Capacitor and load is______________?
In a 3 phase bridge rectifier the ripple frequency A. V m
is _____________? B. 2 V m
A. Equal to the input frequency C. V m / 2
B. Twice the input frequency D. 4 V m
C. Three times the input frequency A single phase ac – dc converter is also known
D. Six times the input frequency as____________?
In a load commutated DC – DC chopper, the A. rectifier
capacitor has a_____________? B. inverter

19
C. chopper A. Duty ratio only
D. regulator B. Frequency only
The output power of the cascaded amplifier / C. Duty ratio and frequency
attenuator system can be determined D. Duty ratio, frequency and time delay
using___________? IGBT stands for___________?
A. Actual gain of amplifier A. Insulated gate bipolar transistor
B. Actual gain of amplifier and attenuator B. Insulated gate bidirectional transistor
C. Gain in dB of amplifier and attenuator C. Inductive gate bipolar transistor
D. Actual gain of attenuator D. Inductive gate bidirectional transistor
If the gate voltage of an SCR is removed, then Electrical power output in a d.c. generator is
the_______________? equal to____________?
A. anode current decreases A. Electrical power developed in armature –
B. anode current does not decrease at all copper losses
C. anode current increases B. Mechanical power input – iron and friction losses
D. cathode current increases C. Electrical power developed in armature – iron and
Anode of an operational SCR is copper losses
_______________? D. Mechanical power input – iron and friction
A. Always positive w.r.t cathode losses – copper losses
B. Always negative w.r.t anode An ideal switch is___________?
C. Always positive w.r.t anode A. Lossless
D. Always negative w.r.t cathode B. Carry current in any direction when it is on
An SCR is made up of silicon because? C. Does not carry any current in any direction when it
A. silicon has large leakage current than is off
germanium D. All of these
B. silicon has small leakage current than In ac – dc conversion, when the switch is closed
germanium then the sum of voltages around the loop
C. silicon has small leakage voltage than germanium is____________?
D. silicon has large leakage voltage than germanium A. Zero
In a silicon controlled rectifier, the load is B. Non zero
connected___________? C. Equal to the sum of voltage when switch is open
A. Across anode D. Twice of the voltage when switch is open
B. In series with anode If a shunt motor is started with its field winding
C. Across cathode open then?
D. In series with cathode A. It will rotate at the same speed as that with
AC power in a load can be controlled by its field winding closed
using____________? B. It will rotate at less speed as that with its field
A. Two SCR’s in parallel opposition winding closed
B. Two SCR’s in series C. It will rotate at dangerously high speed
C. Three SCR’s in series D. None of these
D. Four SCR’s in series A rectifier with an external low pass filter is an
Number of PN junction in an SCR example of______________?
is____________? A. Indirect switch matrix circuits
A. Two B. Direct switch matrix circuits
B. Three C. Embedded converters
C. Four D. All of these
D. Five What is the advantage of HRC fuses over
The switching function of semiconductor devices Rewirable fuses?
can be characterized with___________?

20
A. High speed operation C. 83.3 %
B. High rupturing capacity D. 90.9 %
C. No ageing effect Maximum di / dt in a SCR is________?
D. All of the above A. Directly proportional to Vm of supply
The power demand can be estimated voltage
approximately by___________? B. Inversely proportional to Vm of supply voltage
A. Load survey method C. Inversely proportional to L in the circuit
B. Mathematical method D. Both A and C
C. Statistical method A thyristor string is made of a no. of SCR
D. Economic parameters connected in series and parallel. The string have
4 thyristors rated 200 V in series. The operating volume and current of 11 KV and 4 KA. The
voltage of the string is 600 V. Derating factor of voltage and current rating of available SCRs are
the string is_____________________? 1800 V and 1000 A. For a string efficiency of 90 %
A. 0.75 let the number of SCRs in series and parallel are a
B. 0.7 and b respectively. Then the value of a and b will
C. 0.2 be_____________?
D. 0.25 A. 5, 7
Unipolar modulation is generally used B. 4, 6
in____________? C. 7, 5
A. AC – AC converters D. 6, 4
B. AC – DC converters For series connected SCR’s dynamic
C. DC – AC converters equalising circuit consists of___________?
D. DC – DC converters A. R and C in series but with diode across C
Dynamic equalizing circuit is used B. R and C in series but with diode across R
for________________? C. Series R and diode with C across R
A. equal division of voltage across each D. Series R and diode with C across R
thyristor By which one of the following we can measure the
B. equal division of current through each thyristor in reliability of a string_____________?
parallel A. String efficient
C. equal division of voltage across each thyristor in B. Reliability factor
parallel C. Factor of safety
D. equal division of current through each thyristor in D. Derating factor
series Anode current in an SCR consists
A string of n parallel SCRs is operated at 72 KA, of____________?
the rating of each SCR is 1 KA. If derating factor A. holes only
of the string is 0.1. value of n will B. electrons only
be___________? C. either electron or holes
A. 60 D. Both electron and holes
B. 70 To meet high current demand we use SCRs
C. 80 in______________?
D. 90 A. series connection.
60 thyrsistors are connected in series and parallel B. parallel connection.
to form a 10 KV and 5.5 KA switch. Each C. anti parallel connection.
thyristor is rated for 1.2 KV, 1 KA. The no. of D. both B and C.
parallel path are 6. The efficiency of the switch Dynamic equalising circuit is
is______________________? useful____________?
A. 76.3 % A. To limit di / dt of SCR
B. 91.6 % B. To limit dV / dt of SCR

21
C. For voltage equalisation C. IGBTs
D. Both B and C D. All of above
SCRs are used in series to During gate recovery time_____________?
meet_______________? A. charge carriers of J2 junction recombined
A. high current demand B. charge carriers of J2 junction is swept out
B. low voltage demand C. charge carrier of J1 junction removed
C. low current demand D. charge carriers of J3 junction is removed
D. high voltage demand During reverse recovery
Which following is a two terminal three layer time__________________?
device? A. charge carrier of junction J2 recombined
A. BJT B. charge carrier of junction J1 is swept out
B. Power dioed C. charge carrier of junction J3 is swept out
C. MOSFET D. both B and C
D. None of above Which of the following is true about SIT?
ON state voltage drop across SCR lie between the A. SIT is a high power, high frequency
range_____________? device
A. 0 – 0.5 V. B. SIT is a high power, low frequency device
B. 0.5 – 1 V. C. SIT is a high power, high voltage device
C. 1 – 1.5 V. D. SIT is a low power, high frequency device
D. 1.5 – 2 V. During which time maximum conduction
Which of following is not a power spreading take place in the thyristor during turn
transistor? ON?
A. IGBTs A. Delay time
B. COOLMOS B. Spread time
C. TRIAC C. Rise time
D. SITS D. Same for every case
Which statement is true ? A GTO can be turned on by
A. Reverse recovery time ( trr ) > gate recovery applying___________?
time (tgr) A. Positive gate signal
B. Device turn OFF time ( tq ) > reverse recover time B. Positive drain signal
(trr) C. Positive source signal
C. Circuit turn OFF time > device turn OFF time ( tq D. None of these
) SITH is also known as___________?
D. All of these A. Filled controlled diode
Which of following is normally ON device? B. Filled controlled rectifier
A. SIT C. Silicon controlled rectifier
B. BJT D. None of these
C. TRIAC The typical time of rising time lies
D. IGBT between______________?
Typical range of thyristor turn OFF time A. 10 – 20 µs
is______________? B. 40 – 60 µs
A. 3 – 10 µs C. 1 – 4 µs
B. 3 – 50 µs D. 90 – 100 µs
C. 3 – 100 µs The reverse recovery time of diode is trr = 3
D. 3 – 500 µs μs and the rate off all of the diode current is
Power transistor are type of___________? di/dt = 30 A/μs. The storage charge current
A. B.JTs QRR is___________?
B. MOSFETs

22
A. 130 μs Delay time is defined by the interval
B. 135 μs when_______________?
C. 140 μs A. gate current increases from 90 % to 100 %
D. 145 μs of its final value
Maximum power loss occurs B. anode current reaches 10 % from forward leakage
during_________________? current
A. delay time C. anode voltage drops from 100 % to 90 % of its
B. rise time actual value
C. spread time D. all of these
D. all Which one is most suitable power device for high
Spread time is defined as the interval during frequency (>100 KHz) switching
which_____________? application?
A. anode voltage drops from 10 % of its initial A. BJT
value to zero B. Power MOSFET
B. anode current rises from 90 % to its final value C. Schottky diode
C. both (A) and (B) D. Microwave transistor
D. anode current rises from 10 % to 90 % of its final Snubber circuit is used with
value SCR_________________?
The turn-on time of an SCR with inductive load is A. in series
20 µs. The puls train frequency is 2.5 KHz with a B. in parallel
mark/space ratio of 1/10, then SCR C. either series or parallel
will___________? D. anti parallel
A. Turn on Why resistor is used in Snubber
B. Not turn on circuit_________________ ?
C. Turn on if inductance is removed A. To minimize the loss
D. Turn on if pulse frequency us increased to two B. To minimize the charging current
times C. To minimize the discharging current
A power MOSFET has three terminals D. All of these
called___________? What may happen high dV / dt____________?
A. Collector, emitter and gate A. Unwanted turn ON
B. Drain, source and gate B. Breakdown of J2 junction
C. Drain, source and base C. Both A and B
D. Collector, emitter and base D. Anyone of these
Rise time is defined by the interval Thermal voltage VT can be given
when____________? by____________?
A. gate current rises from 90 % to 100 % of it A. Kq/T
final value B. KT/q
B. anode voltage drops from 90 % to 10 % of its C. qT/K
initial value D. (K2/q)(T + 1/T – 1)
C. anode current rises 10 % to 90 % of its final value What happen due to high di /
D. both B and C dt____________?
A modern power semiconductor device that A. Breakdown of junction
combines the characteristic of BJT and MOSFET B. Local hot spot
is_____________? C. Insulation failure
A. IGBT D. None of these
B. FCT IGBT combines the advantages of_____________?
C. MCT A. BJTs and SITs
D. GTO B. BJTs and MOSFETs

23
C. SITs and MOSFETs C. Using CB and fuse.
D. None of these D. Using equalizing circuit
Which of the following is used in SCR to protect Thyristor is nothing but a____________?
from high dV / dt__________________? A. Controlled transistor
A. Snubber circuit B. Controlled switch
B. Fuse C. Amplifier with higher gain
C. Equalizing circuit D. Amplifier with large current gain
D. Circuit breaker Gate circuit or triggering circuit of a thyristor is
COOLMOS device can be used in application up A. lower power circuit.
to power range of___________? B. high power circuit.
A. 1 KVA C. magnetic circuit.
B. 2 KVA D. may be low power or high power circuit
C. 500 VA After proper turn on of
D. 100 KVA thyristor____________?
What is used to protect a thyristor from high di / A. gate signal is always present
dt conditions__________? B. gate signal must be removed
A. Fuse. C. gate signal should present but can be removed
B. Snubber circuit D. none of the above.
C. Inductor SCR will be turned off when anode current
D. Voltage clamping device is_______________?
Compared to transistor, _________ have lower on A. < latching current but greater than holding
state conduction losses and higher power handling current and gate signal is 0.
capability? B. less than holding current.
A. TRIACs C. < latching current but greater than holding current
B. Semi conductor diodes and gate signal is present.
C. MOSFETs D. both (A) and (B).
D. Thyristor The capacitance of reversed bised junction J2 in a
Materials used in heat sink should thyristor is CJ2 = 20 pF and can be assumed to be
have_____________? independant of the off state voltage. The limiting
A. high thermal conductivity value of the charging current to turn on the
B. large surface area thyristor is 16 mA. What is the critical value of
C. high melting point dv/dt?
D. All of these A. 600 V/µs
A thyristor can termed as__________? B. 800 V/µs
A. AC switch C. 1200 V/µs
B. DC switch D. 1000 V/µs
C. Both a and B BCT is used for____________?
D. Square wave switch A. High power phase control
Which of the following is used in heat B. High power current control
sink_____________? C. Low power current control
A. Iron D. Low power phase control
B. Aluminium Let of a thyristor Vc1, Vc2, Vc3 are forward
C. Carbon break over voltage for gate current Ig1, Ig2, Ig3
D Silver respectively. Then________________?
How can we protect SCR from thermal conditions A. Vc1 > Vc2 > Vc3 when Ig1 > Ig2 > Ig3.
_____________? B. Vc1 > Vc2 > Vc3 when Ig1 < Ig2 < Ig3.
A. Use of snubber circuit. C. Vc1 = Vc2 = Vc3 any value of Ig.
B. Using heat sink. D. Vc1 > Vc2 > Vc3 when Ig1 ≥ Ig2 &Atil

24
Which of following devices has highest di/dt and A. 20 A
dv/dt capability? B. 200 A
A. SIT C. 600 A
B. SITH D. 400 A
C. GTO What is used to protect the SCR from over
D. SCR current ________________?
Which triggering is the most A. CB and fuse.
reliable____________? B. Heat sink.
A. Forward voltage triggering C. Snubber circuit.
B. Gate triggering D. Voltage clamping device.
C. dV / dt triggering Under normal operating condition voltage
D. Thermal triggering clamping device offers impedance of_________?
Leakage current flows through the thyristor A. high value.
in_________? B. low value.
A. forward blocking mode C. zero value.
B. reverse blocking mode D. moderate value.
C. both forward and reverse blocking mode Which semiconductor device acts like a diode and
D. forward conduction mode two transistor?
Which of the following is disadvantage of fast A. UJT
recovery diodes? B. Diac
A. Recovery is only 5 µs C. Triac
B. Recovery is only 50 µs D. SCR
C. Doping is carried out Under over voltage condition impedance offered
D. None of these by the voltage clamping device is__________?
When a large surge current of very short duration A. low
flows through a thyristor then which one of the B. High
following device will operate to protect the C. moderate
thyristor ___________? D. infinity
A. CB The latching current of GTO should be of order
B. Snubber circuit A. 100 mA
C. Voltage clamping device B. 500 mA
D. Fast acting current limiting device (FACL fuse) C. 1 A
A power semiconductor may undergo damage due D. 2 A
to____________? The maximum di/dt in a SCR
A. High di/dt is____________?
B. High dv/dt A. Directly proportional to supply voltage
C. Low di/dt B. Directly proportional to inductance in the circuit
D. Low dv/dt C. Inversely proportional to supply voltage
CB used for over current protection of thyristor D. Both A and B
operates when the fault current Example of a voltage clamping
is__________? device______________?
A. of long period A. fast acting fuse
B. of short duration B. snubber circuit
C. both (A) and (B) C. metal oxide varistor
D. neither (A) nor (B) D. aluminium block
If the anode current is 800 A, then the amount of Switching frequency of SITH
current required to turn off the GTO is is____________?
about____________? A. 5 KHz

25
B. 10 KHz A. junction J2 is in reverse bias and J1, J3 is in
C. 60 KHz forward bias.
D. 100 KHz B. junction J3 is in forward bias and J1, J2 is in
Practical way of obtaining static voltage reverse bias.
equalization in series connected SCRs is by the use C. Junction J1, J3 is in reverse bias and J2 is in
of____________? forward bias.
A. One resistor across the string D. Junction J1 and J2 is in forward bias and J3 is in
B. Resistors of the same value across each reverse bias.
SCR In reverse blocking mode of a thyristor______?
C. Resistors of different values across each SCR A. junction J2 is in reverse bias and J1, J3 is in
D. One resistor in series with each SCR forward bias.
Thyristor can be protected from over voltages by B. junction J3 is in forward bias and J1, J2 in reverse
using____________? bias.
A. voltage clamping device. C. junction J1, J3 is in reverse bias and J2 is in
B. fuse. forward bias.
C. heat sink. D. junction J1 and J2 is in forward bias and J3 is in
D. snubber circuit. reverse bias.
Thyristor can be protected from over voltages by If holding current of a thyristor is 2 mA then
using latching current should be_____?
A. 23 mA. A. 0.01 A.
B. 40 mA. B. 0.002 A.
C. 10 mA. C. 0.009 A.
D. 60 mA. D. 0.004 A.
A single phase full bridge inverter can operate in Which statement is true for latching current
load commutation mode in case load consists ___________?
of____________? A.It is related to turn off process of the device.
A. RL. B. It is related to conduction process of device.
B. RLC underdamped. C. It is related to turn on process of the device.
C. RLC overdamped. D. Both C and D.
D. RLC critically damped. A step up chopper has input voltage 110 V and
The function of snubber circuit connected across output voltage 150 V. The value of duty cycle
the SCR is to___________? is_____?
A. Suppress dV / dt. A. 0.32
B. Increase dV / dt. B. 0.67
C. Decrease dV / dt. C. 0.45
D. Decrease di / dt. D. 0.27
A single phase one pulse controlled circuit has a
For an SCR gate – cathode characteristic resistance R and counter emf E load 400 sin(314 t)
is a straight line of 130. For triggered source as the source voltage. For a load counter emf of
volume of 15 V and allowable gate power 200 V, the range of firing angle control is
dissipation of 0.5 W compute the gate source _____?
resistance_____? A. 30° to 150°.
A. 111.9 Ω. B. 30° to 180°.
B. 11.19 Ω. C. 60° to 120°.
C. 108 Ω. D. 60° to 180°.
D. 115 Ω A single phase full bridge inverter can operated in
In forward blocking mode of a load commutation mode in case load consist
thyristor________? of______?

26
A. RL. C. Device with four junction
B. RLC underdamped. D. None of the above
C. RLC overdamped. A thyristor equivalent of a thyratron tube is a
D. RLC critically damped
_________?
An SCR is considered to be a semi controlled
A. Diac
device because_______?
A. it can be turned OFF but not ON with a gate B. Triac
pulse. C. Silicon controlled-rectifier SCR
B. it conducts only during one half cycle of an D. None of above
alternating current wave. A Triac is a ______________?
C. it can be turned ON but not OFF with a gate A. 2 terminal switch
pulse.
B. 2 terminal bilateral switch
D. it can be turned ON only during one half cycle of
an AC. C. 3 terminal bilateral switch
The typical value of SCR for modern alternator D. 3 terminal bidirectional switch
is____________?
A. 1.5. CHAPTER # TRANSFORMERS
B. 0.5.
C. 1.0. Which of the following statements regarding an
D. 1.2. idel single-phase transformer having a turn ratio
An SCR has half cycle surge current rating of of 1 : 2 and drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V
3000 A for 50 Hz supply. One cycle surge current A.C. supply is incorrect?
will be_____? A. Its secondary current is 5 A
A. 1500 A. B. Its secondary voltage is 400 V
B. 6000 A. C. Its rating is 2 kVA
C. 2121.32 A. D. Its secondary current is 20 A
D. 4242.64 A. E. It is a step-up transformer
A Triac has three terminals viz ___________? In a given transformer for a given applied voltage,
A. Drain, source, gate losses which remain constant irrespective of load
B. Two main terminal and a gate terminal changes are__________?
C. Cathode, anode, gate A. hysteresis and eddy current losses
D. None of the above B. friction and windage losses
A thyristor is basically________? C. copper losses
A. PNPN device D. none of the above
B. A combination of diac and triac Losses which occur in rotating electric machines
C. A set of SCRs and do not occur in transformers
D. A set if SCR,diac and triac are___________?
A PNPN device having two gates is A. friction and windage losses
___________? B. magnetic losses
A. Diac C. hysteresis and eddy current losses
B. Triac D. copper losses
C. SUS For given applied voltage, with the increase in
frequency of the applied voltage?
D. BCS
A. eddy current loss will decrease
A silicon controlled racitifier (SCR) is a B. eddy current loss will increase
____________? C. eddy current loss will remain unchanged
A. Unijunction device D. none of the above
B. Device with three junction

27
In a power or distribution transformer about 10 A. Horn gaps
per cent end turns are heavily B. Thermal overload relays
insulated__________? C. Breather
A. to withstand the high voltage drop due to D. Conservator
line surge produced by the shunting A good voltage regulation of a transformer
capacitance of the end turns means________________?
B. to absorb the line surge voltage and save the A good voltage regulation of a transformer
winding of transformer from damage means
C. to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a A. output voltage fluctuation from no load to full
transformer from damage load is least
D. none of the above B. output voltage fluctuation with power factor is
Reduction in core losses and increase in least
permeability are obtained with transformer C. difference between primary and secondary voltage
employing__________? is least
A. core built-up of laminations of cold rolled D. difference between primary and secondary voltage
grain oriented steel is maximum
B. core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet Which of the following protection is normally not
C. either of the above provided on small distribution transformers ?
D. none of the above A. Overfluxing protection
The noise produced by a transformer is termed B. Buchholz relay
as_______________________? C. Overcurrent protection
A. zoom D. All of the above
B. hum For a transformer, operating at constant load
C. ringing current, maximum efficiency will occur
D. buzz at______________?
Which of the following parts of a transformer is A. 0.8 leading power factor
visible from outside ? B. 0.8 lagging power factor
A. Bushings C. zero power factor
B. Core D. unity power factor
C. Primary winding A Transformer transforms____________?
D. Secondary winding A. voltage
Which of the following insulating materials can B. current
withstand the highest temperature safely ? C. current and voltage
A. Cellulose D. power
B. Asbestos A transformer can have regulation closer to
C. Mica zero___________?
D. Glass fibre A. on full-load
The efficiency of two identical transformers under B. on overload
load conditions can be determined C. on leading power factor
by_______________? D. on zero power factor
A. short-circuit test In a transformer the resistance between its
B. back-to-back test primary and secondary should
C. open circuit test be_____________?
D. any of the above A. zero
Which of the following acts as a protection against B. 10 Q
high voltage surges due to lightning and switching C. 1000 Q
? D. infinity

28
The secondary of a current transformer is always A. low,low
short-circuited under operating conditions B. high,high
because it____________________? C. low,high
A. avoids core saturation and high voltage D. high,low
induction In a step-down transformer, there is a change of
B. is safe to human beings 15 A in the load current. This results in change of
C. protects the primary circuit supply current of_________________?
D. none of the above A. less than 15 A
A shell-type transformer has_________? B. more than 15 A
A. high eddy current losses C. 15 A
B. reduced magnetic leakage D. none of the above
C. negligibly hysteresis losses For the parallel operation of single phase
D. none of the above transformers it is necessary that they should
N atural air coo ling is generally restricted for have___________?
transformers up to__________? A. same efficiency
A. 1.5 MVA B. same polarity
B. 5 MVA C. same kVA rating
C. 15 MVA D. same number of turns on the secondary side.
D. 50 MVA Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the
The size of a transformer core will depend power factor of the load is_____________?
on__________? A. unity
A. frequency B. lagging
B. area of the core C. leading
C. flux density of the core material D. zero
D. A. and B. both Auto-transformer makes effective saving on
The secondary winding of which of the following copper and copper losses, when its transformation
transformers is always kept closed? ratio is_________________?
A. Step-up transformer A. approximately equal to one
B. Step-down transformer B. less than one
C. Potential transformer C. great than one
D. Current transformer D. none of the above
The function of breather in a transformer Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to
is___________? determine____________?
A. to provide oxygen inside the tank A. hysteresis losses
B. to cool the coils during reduced load B. copper losses
C. to cool the transformer oil C. core losses
D. to arrest flow of moisture when outside air D. eddy current losses
enters the transformer If a transformer is switched on to a voltage more
The efficiencies of transformers compared with than the rated voltage______________?
that of electric motors of the same power A. its power factor will deteriorate
are____________? B. its power factor will increase
A. about the same C. its power factor will remain unaffected
B. much smaller D. its power factor will be zero
C. much higher Open circuit test on transformers is conducted to
D. somewhat smaller determine____________?
E. none of the above A. hysteresis losses
The transformer oil should have _______ volatility B. copper losses
and _______ viscosity?

29
C. core losses C. paper
D. eddy current losses D. any of the above
Part of the transformer which is most subject to When secondary of a current transformer is open-
damage from overheating is_____________? circuited its iron core will be__________?
A. iron core A. hot because of heavy iron losses taking
B. copper winding place in it due to high flux density
C. winding insulation B. hot because primary will carry heavy current
D. frame or case C. cool as there is no secondary current
E. transformer tank D. none of above will happen
During open circuit test of a transformer: The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy
A. primary is supplied rated voltage loads, is comparatively low
B. primary is supplied full-load current because_______________?
C. primary is supplied current at reduced voltage A. copper loss becomes high in proportion to
D. primary is supplied rated kVA the output
The voltage transformation ratio of a transformer B. iron loss is increased considerably
is equal to the ratio of_______________? C. voltage drop both in primary and secondary
A. primary turns to secondary turns becomes large
B. secondary current to primary current D. secondary output is much less as compared to
C. secondary induced e.m.f. to primary induced primary input
e.m.f The maximum load that a power transformer can
D. secondary terminal voltage to primary applied carry is limited by its________________?
voltage A. temperature rise
A no-load test is performed on a transformer to B. dielectric strength of oil
determine_______________? C. voltage ratio
A. core loss D. copper loss
B. copper loss The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed
C. efficiency to______________?
D. magnetising current A. load changes
E. magnetising current and loss B. oil in the transformer
Which type of winding is used in 3 phase shell- C. magnetostriction
type transformer? D. mechanical vibrations
A. Circular type Which of the following is the most likely source of
B. Sandwich type harmonics in a transformer ?
C. Cylindrical type A. poor insulation
D. Rectangular type B. Overload
An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted C. loose connections
primarily to measure______________? D. Core saturation
A. insulation resistance If a transformer is continuously operated the
B. copper loss maximum temperature rise will occur
C. core loss in_______________?
D. total loss A. core
E. efficiency B. windings
F. none of the above C. tank
The transformer lamination’s are insulated from D. any of the above
each other by____________? Iron loss of a transformer can be measured
A. mica strip by____________?
B. thin coat of varnish A. low power factor wattmeter
B. unity power factor wattmeter

30
C. frequency meter C. type test
D. any type of wattmeter D. none of the above
Which of the following loss in a transformer is In an actual transformer the iron loss remains
zero even at full load ____________? practically constant from no load to full load
A. Core loss because:____________?
B. Friction loss A. value of transformation ratio remains
C. Eddy current loss constant
D. Hysteresis loss B. permeability of transformer core remains constant
Negative voltage regulation is indicative that the C. core flux remains practically constant
load is___________? D. primary voltage remains constant
A. capacitive only C. secondary voltage remains constant
B. inductive only The path of the magnetic flux in transformer
C. inductive or resistive should have____________?
D. none of the above A. high reluctance
Helical coils can be used B. low reactance
on___________________? C. high resistance
A. low voltage side of high kVA D. low resistance
transformers When a given transformer is run at its rated
B. high frequency transformers voltage but reduced frequency,
C. high voltage side of small capacity transformers its____________?
D. high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers A. flux density remains unaffected
If the supply frequency to the transformer is B. iron losses are reduced
increased,”the iron loss will__________? C. core flux density is reduced
A. not change D. core flux density is increased
B. decrease Which of the following properties is not
C. increase necessarily desirable for the material for
D. any of the above transformer core ?
Which of the following is not a routine test on A. Low hysteresis loss
transformers ? B. High permeability
A. Core insulation voltage test C. High thermal conductivity
B. Impedance test D. Adequate mechanical strength
C. Radio interference test The leakage flux in a transformer depends
D. Polarity test upon______________?
An ideal transformer will have maximum A. load current
efficiency at a load such that? B. load current and voltage
A. copper loss = iron loss C. load current, voltage and frequency
B. copper loss iron loss D. load current, voltage, frequency and power factor
D. none of the above An ideal transformer is one which
A transformer can have zero voltage regulation has_____________?
at______________? A. no losses and magnetic leakage
A. leading power factor B. interleaved primary and secondary windings
B. lagging power factor C. a common core for its primary and secondary
C. unity power factor windings
D. zero power factor D. core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper
Noise level test in a transformer is metal
a______________? E. none of the above
A. special test Which of the following does not change in an
B. routine test ordinary transformer ?

31
A. Frequency C. Copper losses are negligible
B. Voltage D. Eddy losses are totally eliminated
C. Current Power transformers are generally designed to
D. Any of the above have maximum efficiency around__________?
The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil A. no-load
due to variation of atmospheric temperature B. half-load
during day and night is taken care of by which C. near full-load
part of transformer? D. 10% overload
A. Conservator Which winding of the transformer has less cross-
B. Breather sectional area?
C. Bushings A. Primary winding
D. Buchholz relay B. Secondary winding
The magnetising current of a transformer is C. Low voltage winding
usually small because it has___________? D. High voltage winding
A. small air gap Silicon steel used in lamination’s mainly
B. large leakage flux reduces___________?
C. laminated silicon steel core A. hysteresis loss
D. fewer rotating parts B. eddy current losses
Buchholz’s relay gives warning and protection C. copper losses
against_________________? D. all of the above
A. electrical fault inside the transformer Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily
itself when______________?
B. electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing A. load is balanced only
feeder B. load is unbalanced only
C. for both outside and inside faults C. on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
D. none of the above D. none of the above
Two transformers are connected in parallel. These Star/star transformers work satisfactorily
transformers do not have equal percentage when________________?
impedance. This is likely to result A. load is unbalanced only
in____________? B. load is balanced only
A. short-circuiting of the secondaries C. on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
B. power factor of one of the transformers is D. none of the above
leading while that of the other lagging Which of the following property is not necessarily
C. transformers having higher copper losses will have desirable in the material for transformer
negligible core losses core ?
D. loading of the transformers not in proportion A. Mechanical strength
to their kVA ratings B. Low hysteresis loss
During short circuit test iron losses are negligible C. High thermal conductivity
because of _____________? D. High permeability
A. the current on secondary side is negligible Distribution transformers are generally designed
B. the voltage on secondary side does not vary for maximum efficiency
C. the voltage applied on primary side is low around________________?
D. full-load current is not supplied to the transformer A. 90% load
Which of the following is the main advantage of B. zero load
an auto-transformer over a two winding C. 25% load
transformer? D. 50% load
A. Hysteresis losses are reduced The value of flux involved m the e.m.f. equation of
B. Saving in winding material a transformer is____________?

32
A. average value C. 1000 ohms
B. r.m.s. value D. infinite
C. maximum value Harmonics in transformer result
D. instantaneous value in___________?
The main reason for generation of harmonics in a A. increased core losses
transformer could be_______________? B. increased I2R losses
A. fluctuating load C. magnetic interference with communication circuits
B. poor insulation D. all of the above
C. mechanical vibrations Helical coils can be used on___________?
D. saturation of core A. low voltage side of high kVA
Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformers
transformer oil unless the oil temperature B. high frequency transformers
exceeds? C. high voltage side of small capacity transformers
A. 50°C D. high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
B. 80°C The function of conservator in a transformer
C. 100°C is___________________?
D. 150°C A. to project against’internal fault
The full-load copper loss of a trans¬former is 1600 B. to reduce copper as well as core losses
W. At half-load, the copper loss will C. to cool the transformer oil
be___________? D. to take care of the expansion and contraction of
A. 6400 W transformer oil due to variation of temperature of
B. 1600 W sur-roundings
C. 800 W The thickness of laminations used in a
D. 400 W transformer is usually____________?
A Buchholz relay can be installed A. 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm
on______________? B. 4 mm to 5 mm
A Buchholz relay can be installed on C. 14 mm to 15 mm
A. auto-transformers D. 25 mm to 40 mm
B. air-cooled transformers Material used for construction of transformer
C. welding transformers core is usually___________________?
D. oil cooled transformers A. wood
A transformer oil must be free B. copper
from________________? C. aluminium
A. sludge D. silicon steel
B. odour Hysteresis loss in a transformer varies as CBmax
C. gases = maximum flux density) ?
D. moisture A. Bmax
The core used in high frequency transformer is B. Bmax1-6
usually___________? C. Bmax1-83
A. copper core D. B max
B. cost iron core The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations
C. air core set by magnetic forces, is termed
D. mild steel core as_________________?
In a transformer the resistance between its A. magnetostrication
primary and secondary is____________? B. boo
A. zero C. hum
B. 1 ohm D. zoom

33
The transformer ratings are usually expressed in If the percentage impedances of the two
terms of______________? transformers working in parallel are different,
A. volts then______________________?
B. amperes A. transformers will be overheated
C. kW B. power factors of both the transformers will
D. kVA be same
An ideal transformer has infinite values of C. parallel operation will be not possible
primary and secondary inductances. The D. parallel operation will still be possible, but the
statement is______________? power factors at which the two transformers
A. true operate will be different from the power factor of
B. false the common load
The chemical used in breather If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the
is_______________? transformer and K is the transformation ratio
A. asbestos fiber then the equivalent secondary resistance referred
B. silica sand to primary will be___________?
C. sodium chloride A. R2/VK
D. silica gel B. R2IK2
The chemical used in breather for transformer C. R22!K2
should have the quality of____________? D. R22/K
A. ionizing air Two transformers operating in parallel will share
B. absorbing moisture the load depending upon
C. cleansing the transformer oil their____________?
D. cooling the transformer oil A. leakage reactance
The use of higher flux density in the transformer B. per unit impedance
design____________? C. efficiencies
A. reduces weight per kVA D. ratings
B. reduces iron losses The power transformer is a
C. reduces copper losses constant______________?
D. increases part load efficiency A. voltage device
In a transformer the tappings are generally B. current device
provided on_____________? C. power device
A. primary side D. main flux device
B. secondary side The purpose of providing iron core in a step-up
C. low voltage side transformer is?
D. high voltage side A. to provide coupling between primary and
What will happen if the transformers working in secondary
parallel are not connected with regard to polarity B. to increase the magnitude of mutual flux
? C. to decrease the magnitude of mag-netizing current
A. The power factor of the two trans-formers D. to provide all above features
will be different from the power factor of Greater the secondary leakage
common load flux____________?
B. Incorrect polarity will result in dead short A. less will be the secondary induced e.m.f.
circuit B. less will be the primary induced e.m.f.
C. The transformers will not share load in proportion C. less will be the primary terminal voltage
to their kVA ratings D. none of the above
D. none of the above Spacers are provided between adjacent coils?
A. to provide free passage to the cooling oil
B. to insulate the coils from each other

34
C. both A. and (b) The no load current in a transformer lags behind
D. none of the above the applied voltage by an angle of
No-load current of a transformer about_____________?
has_____________? A. 180°
A. has high magnitude and low power factor B. 120″
B. has high magnitude and high power factor C. 90°
C. has small magnitude and high power factor D. 75°
D. has small magnitude and low power factor A common method of cooling a power
Transformer breaths in transformer is_______________?
when_______________? A. natural air cooling
A. load on it increases B. air blast cooling
B. load on it decreases C. oil cooling
C. load remains constant D. any of the above
D. none of the above In a given transformer for given applied voltage,
The maximum efficiency of a distribution losses which remain constant irrespective of load
transformer is____________? changes are______________?
A. at no load A. friction and windage losses
B. at 50% full load B. copper losses
C. at 80% full load C. hysteresis and eddy current losses
D. at full load D. none of the above
Power transformers are designed to have Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order
maximum efficiency at___________? of________________?
A. 100 per cent
B. 98 per cent
A. nearly full load C. 50 per cent
B. 70% full load D. 25 per cent
C. 50% full load Which winding in a transformer has more
D. no load number of turns ?
Natural oil cooling is used for transformers up to
A. Low voltage winding
a rating of____________?
B. High voltage winding
A. 3000 kVA
C. Primary winding
B. 1000 kVA
D. Secondary winding
C. 500 kVA
Primary winding of a
D. 250 kVA
transformer________________?
In the transformer the function of a conservator is
A. is always a low voltage winding
to_______________?
B. is always a high voltage winding
A. provide fresh air for cooling the transformer
C. could either be a low voltage or high voltage
B. supply cooling oil to transformer in time of
winding
need
D. none of the above
C. protect the transformer from damage when oil
A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of
expends due to heating
a D.C. supply because_______________?
D. none of the above
A. there is no need to change the D.C. voltage
In a transformer routine efficiency depends
B. a D.C. circuit has more losses
upon_____________?
C. Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction
A. supply frequency
are not valid since the rate of change of flux is
B. load current
zero
C. power factor of load
D. none of the above
D. both B. and (c)
A transformer transforms__________________?

35
A. voltage A. temperature
B. current B. stray losses
C. power C. all-day efficiency
D. frequency D. none of the above
In the transformer following winding has got The dielectric strength of transformer oil is
more cross-sectional area______________? expected to be______________?
A. Low voltage winding A. lkV
B. High voltage winding B. 33 kV
C. Primary winding C. 100 kV
D. Secondary winding D. 330 kV
While conducting short-circuit test on a No-load on a transformer is carried out to
transformer the following side is short circuited? determine______________?
A. High voltage side A. copper loss
B. Low voltage side B. magnetising current
C. Primary side C. magnetising current and loss
D. Secondary side D. efficiency of the transformer
Which of the following is not a part of The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer
transformer installation ? should have______________?
A. Conservator A. high resistance
B. Breather B. high reluctance
C. Buchholz relay C. low resistance
D. Exciter D. low reluctance
The purpose of providing an iron core in a The no-load current drawn by transformer is
transformer is to_____________? usually what per cent of the full-load current
A. provide support to windings ?
B. reduce hysteresis loss A. 0.2 to 0.5 per cent
C. decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path B. 2 to 5 per cent
D. reduce eddy current losses C. 12 to 15 per cent
No-load current in a D. 20 to 30 per cent
transformer________________? The degree of mechanical vibrations produced by
A. lags behind the voltage by about 75° the laminations of a transformer depends
B. leads the voltage by about 75° on____________?
C. lags behind the voltage by about 15° A. tightness of clamping
D. leads the voltage by about 15° B. gauge of laminations
The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum C. size of laminations
when_____________? D. all of the above
A. copper losses = hysteresis losses A transformer core is laminated to__________?
B. hysteresis losses = eddy current losses A. reduce hysteresis loss
C. eddy current losses = copper losses B. reduce eddy current losses
D. copper losses = iron losses C. reduce copper losses
The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled D. reduce all above losses
grain oriented steel is around__________? In a transformer the energy is conveyed from
A. 1.7 Wb/m2 primary to secondary_________?
B. 2.7 Wb/m2 A. through cooling coil
C. 3.7 Wb/m2 B. through air
D. 4.7 Wb/m2 C. by the flux
Sumpner’s test is conducted on transformers to D. none of the above
determine_____________?

36
Which of the following does not change in a A. reduces power factor
transformer ? B. corrodes the material
A. Current C. gives odour
B. Voltage D. transfer energy to the ground
C. Frequency E. none of the above
D. All of the above For an overhead line, the surge impedance is
taken as________________?
CHAPTER # TRANSMISSION & A. 20-30 ohms
B. 70—80 ohms
DISTRIBUTION
C. 100—200 ohms
A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly used
D. 500—1000 ohms
on________________?
E. none of the above
A. primary transmission
Which of the following is usually not the
B. secondary transmission
generating voltage ?
C. primary distribution
A. 6.6 kV
D. secondary distribution
B. 8.8 kV
There is a greater possibility of occurence of
C. 11 kV
corona during______________?
D. 13.2 kV
A. dry weather
As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a 3-wire
B. winter
distributor with same maximum voltage to earth
C. summer heat
uses only__________________?
D. humid weather
A. 31.25 percent of copper
E. none of the above
B. 33.3 percent of copper
Which of the following is not a constituent for
C. 66.7 percent of copper
making porcelain insulators ?
D. 125 percent of copper
A. Quartz
A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both
B. Kaolin
ends with equal voltages. As compared to a similar
C. Felspar
distributor fed at one end only, the drop at the
D. Silica
middle point is______________?
Which of the following materials is used for
A. one-fourth
overhead transmission lines ?
B. one-third
A. Steel cored aluminium
C. one-half
B. Galvanised steel
D. twice
C. Cadmium copper
E. none of the above
D. Any of the above
Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply
The power transmitted will be maximum
voltage of a D.C. 2-wire feeder is increased 100
when____________?
percent, saving in copper
A. corona losses are minimum
is____________________?
B. reactance is high
A. 25 percent
C. sending end voltage is more
B. 50 percent
D. receiving end voltage is more
C. 75 percent
A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power
D. 100 percent
to________________?
Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical
A. distributors
energy at__________________?
B. generating stations
A. 400 V
C. service mains
B. 11 kV
D. all of the above
C. 66 kV
The presence of ozone due to corona is harmful
D. 400 kV
because it________________?

37
The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 C. either of the above
kV line is approximately equal D. none of the above
to________________? The material commonly used for insulation in
A. 2 m high voltage cables is_______________?
B. 3.5 m A. lead
C. 6 m B. paper
D. 8.5 m C. rubber
The minimum clearance between the ground and D. none of the above
a 220 kV line is about_________________? Multicore cables generally
0 use________________?
A. square conductors
A. 4.3 m B. circular conductors
B. 5.5 m C. rectangular conductors
C. 7.0 m D. sector-shaped conductors
D. 10.5 m E. none of the above
The material commonly used for sheaths of
High voltage transmission lines
underground cables is______________?
use__________________?
A. lead
A. suspension insulators
B. rubber
B. pin insulators
C. copper
C. both A. and B.
D. iron
D. none of the above
The material generally used for armour of high
The distributors for residential areas
voltage cables is_____________?
are______________?
A. aluminium
A. single phase
B. steel
B. three-phase three wire
C. brass
C. three-phase four wire
D. copper
D. none of the above
In transmission lines the cross-arms are made
Most of the high transmission lines in Pakistan
of________________?
are_______________?
A. copper
A. underground
B. wood
B. overhead
C. R.C.C.
C. either of the above
D. steel
D. none of the above
Overhead lines generally
The voltage of the single phase supply to
use__________________?
residential consumers is_____________?
A. copper conductors
A. 110 V
B. all aluminium conductors
B. 210 V
C. A.C.S.R. conductors
C. 230 V
D. none of these
D. 400 V
The power factor of industrial loads is
Besides a method of trial and error, which of the
generally______________?
following methods is employed for solution of
A. unity
network problems in interconnected system
B. lagging
?
C. leading
A. Circulating current method
D. zero
B. Thevenin’s theorem
The loads on distributors systems are
C. Superposition of currents
generally__________________?
D. Direct application of Kirehhoffs laws
A. balanced
E. All of the above
B. unbalanced

38
A booster is a_________________? conductor size in case of long-distance heavy power
A. series wound generator transmission
B. shunt wound generator The square root of the ratio of line impedance and
C. synchronous generator shunt admittance is called the___________?
D. none of the above A. surge impedance of the line
Which of the following D.C. distribution system is B. conductance of the line
the simplest and lowest in first cost ? C. regulation of the line
A. Radial system D. none of the above
B. Ring system The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at the receiving
C. Inter-connected system end of the open-circuited or lightly loaded line is
D. None of the above called the________________?
Which of the following methods is used for laying A. Seeback effect
of underground cables ? B. Ferranti effect
A. Direct laying C. Raman effect
B. Draw-in-system D. none of the above
C. Solid system 310 km line is considered
D. All of the above as_______________?
The operating voltage of extra high tension cables A. a long line
is upto_______________? B. a medium line
A. 6.6 kV C. a short line
B. 11 kV D. any of the above
C. 33 kV Which of the following are the constants of the
D. 66 kV transmission lines ?
E. 132 kV A. Resistance
The operating voltage of supertension cables is up B. Inductance
to_________________? C. Capacitance
A. 3.3 kV D. All of the above
B. 6.6 kV The corona is considerably affected by which of
C. 11 kV the following _______________?
D. 33 kV A. Size of the conductor
The operating voltage of high voltage cables is up B. Shape of the conductor
to_______________? C. Surface condition of the conductor
A. l.lkV D. All of the above
B. 3.3kV
The usual spans with R.C.C. poles
C. 6.6kV
are_______________?
D. llkV A. 40—50 meters
Which of the following is the demerit of a B. 60—100 meters
‘constant voltage transmission system’ ? C. 80—100 meters
A. Increase of short-circuit current of the D. 300—500 meters
system Galvanised steel wire is generally used
B. Availability of steady voltage at all loads at the line as______________?
terminals A. stay wire
C. Possibility of better protection for the line due to B. earth wire
possible use of higher terminal reactants C. structural components
D. Improvement of power factor at times of D. all of the above
moderate and heavy loads Which of the following materials is not used for
E. Possibility of carrying increased power for a given transmission and distribution of electrical
power________________?

39
A. Copper When a live conductor of public electric supply
B. Aluminium breaks down and touches the earth which of the
C. Steel following will happen?
D. Tungsten A. Current will flow to earth
The wooden poles well impregnated with creosite B. Supply voltage will drop
oil or any preservative compound have C. Supply voltage will increase
life_____________? D. No current will flow in the conductor
A. from 2 to 5 years E. None of the above
B. 10 to 15 years The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as
C. 25 to 30 years the__________?
D. 60 to 70 years A. resistivity of conductor material increases
If variable part of annual cost on account of B. permeability of conductor material increases
interest and depreciation on the capital outlay is C. diameter increases
equal to the annual cost of electrical energy D. frequency increases
wasted in the conductors, the total annual cost will The following system is not generally used?
be minimum and the corresponding size of A. 1-phase 3 wire
conductor will be most economical. This statement B. 1-phase 4 wire
is known as___________________? C. 3-phase 3 wire
A. Kelvin’s law D. 3-phase 4 wire
B. Ohm’s law When a conductor carries more current on the
C. Kirchhoffs law surface as compared to core, it is due
D. Faraday’s law to___________?
E. none of the above A. permeability variation
Overhead system can be designed for operation up B. corona
to____________? C. skin effect
A. 11 kV D. unsymmetrical fault
B. 33 kV E. none of the above
C. 66 kV The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type
D. 400 kV voltage regulator is effected by__________?
The underground system cannot be operated A. electromagnetic induction
above_________________? B. varying the resistance
A. 440 V C. varying the reactance
B. 11 kV D. variable transformer
C. 33 kV Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little
D. 66 kV use when the load VAR requirement
_______________are the conductors, which is___________?
connect the consumer’s terminals to the A. large
distribution? B. small
A. Distributors B. fluctuating
B. Service mains D. any of the above
C. Feeders Electro-mechanical voltage regulators are
D. None of the above generally used in___________?
By which of the following systems electric power A. reactors
may be transmitted ? B. generators
A. Overhead system C. transformers
B. Underground system D. all of the above
C. Both A. and (b)
D. None of the above

40
The angular displacement between two On which of the following factors skin effect
interconnected stations is mainly due depends?
to___________? A. Frequency of the current
A. armature reactance of both alternators B. Size of the conductor
B. reactance of the interconnector C. Resistivity of the conductor material
C. synchronous reactance of both the alternators D. All of the above
D. all of the above Constant voltage transmission entails the
When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is following disadvantage?
shut down the bus-bar voltage A. large conductor area is required for same
will___________? power transmission
A. fall B. short-circuit current of the system is increased
B. rise C. either of the above
C. remain unchanged D. none of the above
D. none of the above In a tap changing transformer, the tappings are
The frequency of voltage generated, in case of provided on__________?
generators, can be increased by___________? A. primary winding
A. using reactors B. secondary winding
B. increasing the load C. high voltage winding
C. adjusting the governor D. any of the above
D. reducing the terminal voltage Which of the following equipment, for regulating
E. none of the above the voltage in distribution feeder, will be most
When the interconnector between two stations has economical?
large reactance? A. Static condenser
A. the transfer of power will take place with B. Synchronous condenser
voltage fluctuation and noise C. Tap changing transformer
B. the transfer of power will take place with least loss D. Booster transformer
C. the stations will fall out of step be¬cause of For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the
large angular displacement between the stations following factors have higher values except:
D. none of the above A. specific volume
In the analysis of which of the following lines B. electrical conductivity
shunt capacitance is neglected? C. co-efficient of linear expansion
A. Short transmission lines D. resistance per unit length for same cross-section
B. Medium transmission lines For transmission of power over a distance of 200
C. Long transmission lines km, the transmission voltage should
D. Medium as well as long transmission lines be_________kv?
For transmission of power over a distance of 500 A. 132 kV
km, the transmission voltage should be in the B. 66 kV
range? C. 33 kV
A. 150 to 220 kV D. 11 kV
B. 100 to 120 kV Aluminium has a specific gravity
C. 60 to 100 kV of___________?
D. 20 to 50 kV A. 1.5
The effect of corona can be detected B. 2.7
by___________? C. 4.2
A. presence of ozone detected by odour D. 7.8
B. hissing sound Pin type insulators are generally not used for
C. faint luminous glow of bluish colour voltages beyond_________?
D. all of the above

41
A. 1 kV By which of the following a bus-bar is rated?
B. 11 kV A. Current only
C. 22 kV B. Current and voltage
D. 33 kV C. Current, voltage and frequency
The current drawn by the line due to corona losses D. Current, voltage, frequency and short time
is___________? current
A. non-sinusoidal In aluminium conductors, steel core is provided
B. sinusoidal to____________?
C. triangular A. compensate for skin effect
D. square B. neutralise proximity effect
The use of strain type insulators is made where C. reduce line inductance
the conductors are__________? D. increase the tensile strength
A. dead ended By which of the following methods string
B. at intermediate anchor towers efficiency can be improved?
C. any of the above A. Using a guard ring
D. none of the above B. Grading the insulator
The voltage drop, for constant voltage C. Using long cross arm
transmission is compensated by D. Any of the above
installing__________? E. None of the above
A. inductors Owing to skin effect:
B. capacitors A. current flows through the half cross-section
C. synchronous motors of the conductor
D. all of above B. portion of the conductor near the surface
E. none of the above carries more current and core of the conductor
jCorona usually occurs when the electrostatic carries less current
stress in air around the conductor exceeds? C. portion of the conductor near the surface carries
A. 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm less current and core of the conductor carries more
B. 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm cur¬rent
C. 22 kV (maximum value)/cm D. any of the above
D. 30 kV (maximum value)/cm E. none of the above
In a substation the following equipment is not Which of the following bus-bar schemes has the
installed? lowest cost?
A. exciters A. Ring bus-bar scheme
B. series capacitors B. Single bus-bar scheme
C. shunt reactors C. Breaker and a half scheme
D. voltatre transformers D. Main and transfer scheme
For which of the following equipment current In AC.S.R. conductors, the insulation between
rating is not necessary? aluminium and steel conductors
A. Circuit breakers is_________?
B. Isolators A. insulin
C. Load break switch B. bitumen
D. Circuit breakers and load break switches C. varnish
A circuit is disconnected by isolators D. no insulation is required
when____________? A conductor, due to sag between two supports,
A. line is energized takes the form of____________?
B. there is no current in the line A. semi-circle
C. line is on full load B. triangle
D. circuit breaker is not open

42
C. ellipse No-load speed of which of the following motor will
D. catenary be highest ?
Transmission voltage of 11 kV is normally used A. Shunt motor
for distances up to_____km? B. Series motor
A. 20—25 km C. Cumulative compound motor
B. 40—50 km D. Differentiate compound motor
C. 60—70 km The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor
D. 80—100 km can be changed by___________?
Read More Details about this Mcq A. interchanging supply terminals
Which of the following characteristics should the B. interchanging field terminals
line supports for transmission lines possess? C. either of A. and B. above
A. Low cost D. None of the above
B. High mechanical strength Which of the following application requires high
C. Longer life starting torque ?
D. All of the above A. Lathe machine
Which of the following distribution systems is B. Centrifugal pump
more reliable? C. Locomotive
A. Radial system D. Air blower
B. Tree system If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors,
C. Ring main system which rriotor would be preferred ?
D. All are equally reliable A. Series motor
The steel used in steel cored conductors is B. Shunt motor
usually__________? C. Differentially compound motor
A. alloy steel D. Cumulative compound motor
B. stainless steel Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine
C. mild steel tools ?
D. high speed steel A. Series motor
E. all of the above B. Shunt motor
Which of the following relays is used on long C. Cumulative compound motor
transmission lines? D. Differential compound motor
A. Impedance relay Differentially compound D.C. motors can find
B. Mho’s relay applications requiring___________?
C. Reactance relay A. high starting torque
D. None of the above B. low starting torque
C. variable speed
D. frequent on-off cycles
Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?
CHAPTER # DC MOTORS A. Shunt motor
Kingdom Protoctista includes_______________? B. Series motor
A. Prokaryotic organisms C. Differential compound motor
B. Unicellular organisms D. Cumulative compound motor
C. Fungi According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, when the
D. Eu-cariotiquic organisms forefinger points in the direction of the field or
The size of poxvirus is_______________? flux, the middle finger will point in the direction
A. 20 nm of_________________?
B. 200 nm A. current in the conductor aovtaat of
C. 250 nm conductor
D. 300 nm

43
C. resultant force on conductor C. run at lower speed
D. none of the above D. burn due to heat produced in the field winding
If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened by .eddy currents
while motor is running______________? To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal
without wastage of electrical energy is used?
A. the speed of motor will be reduced % A. Ward Leonard control
B. the armature current will reduce B. rheostatic control
C. the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1 C. any of the above method
D. the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed D. none of the above method
Starters are used with D.C. motors
When two D.C. series motors are connected in
because______________?
parallel, the resultant speed
A. these motors have high starting torque
is____________?
B. these motors are not self-starting
A. more than the normal speed
C. back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
B. loss than the normal speed
D. to restrict armature current as there is no back
C. normal speed
e.m.f. while starting
D. zero
In D.C. shunt motors as load is
The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its
reduced__________________?
full-load speed can be obtained by_____________?
A. the speed will increase abruptly
A. decreasing the field current
B. the speed will increase in proportion to
B. increasing the field current
reduction in load
C. decreasing the armature current
C. the speed will remain almost/constant
D. increasing the armature current
D. the speed will reduce
In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is______________?
A D.C. series motor is that
A. independent of armature current
which______________?
B. directly proportional to the armature current
A. has its field winding consisting of thick
C. proportional to the square of the current
wire and less turns
D. inversely proportional to the armature current
B. has a poor torque
A direct on line starter is used: for starting
C. can be started easily without load
motors___________?
D. has almost constant speed
A. up to 5 H.P
For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required
B. up to 10 H.P
because___________?
C. up to 15 H.P
A. it limits the speed of the motor
D. up to 20 H.P
B. it limits the starting current to a safe
What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C.
value
motor vanishes suddenly?
C. it starts the motor
A. The motor will stop
D. none of the above
B. The motor will continue to run
The type of D.C. motor used for shears and
C. The armature may burn
punches is_____________?
A. shunt motor D. The motor will run noisy
B. series motor In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is
C. differential compoutid D.C. motor dependent on back e.m.f. only
D. cumulative compound D.C. motor because____________?
If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. A. back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
supply it will_______________? B. armature drop is negligible
A. run at normal speed C. flux is proportional to armature current
B. not run D. flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt
motors

44
In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of A. series motors
maximum power, the current in the armature will B. shunt motors
be_____________? C. compound motors
A. almost negligible D. none of the above
B. rated full-load current In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain
C. less than full-load current the maximum temperature rise?
D. more than full-load current A. Slip rings
These days D.C. motors are widely used B. Commutator
in____________? C. Field winding
A. pumping sets D. Armature winding
B. air compressors Which of the following law/rule can he used to
C. electric traction determine the direction of rotation of D.C. motor
D. machine shops ?
By looking at which part of the motor, it can be A. Lenz’s law
easily confirmed that a particular motor is D.C. B. Faraday’s law
motor? C. Coloumb’s law
A. Frame D. Fleming’s left-hand rule
B. Shaft Which of the following load normally needs
C. Commutator starting torque more than the rated torque?
D. Stator A. Blowers
In which of the following applications D.C. series B. Conveyors
motor is invariably tried? C. Air compressors
A. Starter for a car D. Centrifugal pumps
B. Drive for a water pump The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is
C. Fan motor generally_______________?
D. Motor operation in A.C. or D.C A. low
In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is B. around 500 Q
used__________? C. 1000 Q
A. to improve cooling D. infinitely large
B. to reduce copper losses The speed of a D.C. series motor
C. to increase the generated e.m.f. is_____________?
D. to reduce the sparking A. proportional to the armature current
A three point starter is considered suitable B. proportional to the square of the armature
for______________? current
A. shunt motors C. proportional to field current
B. shunt as well as compound motors D. inversely proportional to the armature current
C. shunt, compound and series motors In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is
D. all D.C. motors reduced by 50%, the torque of the motor will be
In case-the conditions for maximum power for a equal to
D.C. motor are established, the efficiency of the A. 100% of the previous value
motor will be______________? B. 50% of the previous value
A. 100% C. 25% of the previous value
B. around 90% D. 10% of the previous value
C. anywhere between 75% and 90% E. none of the above
D. less than 50% The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor
The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is is directly proportional to__________?
least in case of____________? A. the torque required
B. the speed of the motor

45
C. the voltage across the terminals Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may
D. none of the above result in____________?
The power mentioned on the name plate of an A. damage to commutator segments
electric motor indicates____________? B. damage to commutator insulation
A. the power drawn in kW C. increased power consumption
B. the power drawn in kVA D. all of the above
C. the gross power Which of the following motor is preferred for
D. the output power available at the shaft operation in highly explosive atmosphere ?
Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading A. Series motor
property? B. Shunt motor
A. Series motor C. Air motor
B. Shunt motor D. Battery operated motor
C. Cumulatively compounded ‘motor If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased,
D. Differentially compounded motor which of the following will decrease ?
Which D.C. motor will be suitable along with A. Starting torque
flywheel for intermittent light and heavy loads? B. Operating speed
A. Series motor C. Full-load current
B. Shunt motor D. All of the above
C. Cumulatively compounded motor Which one of the following is not the function of
D. Differentially compounded motor pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if A. To reduce eddy current loss
shunt field circuit suddenly opens__________? B. To support the field coils
A. nothing will happen to the motor C. To spread out flux for better uniformity
B. this will make armature to take heavy D. To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
current, possibly burning it The mechanical power developed by a shunt
C. this will result in excessive speed, possibly motor will be maximum when the ratio of back
destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal e.m.f. to applied voltage is______________?
stresses D. motor will run at very slow speed A. 4.0
D.C. series motors are used______________? B. 2.0
A. where load is constant C. 1.0
B. where load changes frequently D. 0.5
C. where constant operating speed is needed The condition for maximum power in case of D.C.
D. in none of the above situations motor is______________?
For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, A. back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
following motor has poor starting B. back e.m.f. = | x supply voltage
torque_____________? C. supply voltage = | x back e.m.f
A. shunt D. supply voltage = back e.m.f
B. series For which of the following applications a D.C.
C. differentially compounded motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
D. cumulativelyc’ompounded A. Low speed operation
In case of conductively compensated D.C. series B. High speed operation
motors, the compensating winding is C. Variable speed operation
provided______________? D. Fixed speed operation
A. as separately wound unit In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of the
B. in parallel with armature winding order of_________________?
C. in series with armature winding A. 2 to 3 per cent
D. in parallel with field winding B. 10 to 15 per cent

46
C. 20 to 25 per cent high speed in the same direction
D. 50 to 75 per cent D. the motor will not work and come to stop
Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high
cranes and hoists ? starting torque and therefore make use
A. Series motor of_____________?
B. Shunt motor A. D.C. series motor
C. Cumulatively compounded motor B. D.C. shunt motor
D. Differentially compounded motor C. induction motor
Three point starter can be used D. all of above motors
for______________? Which of the following motor has the poorest
A. series motor only speed regulation ?
B. shunt motor only A. Shunt motor
C. compound motor only B. Series motor
D. both shunt and compound motor C. Differential compound motor
Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor D. Cumulative compound motor
because_____________? As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt
A. it increases the input power con-sumption motor will____________?
B. commutator gets damaged A. reduce slightly
C. both A. and B. B. increase slightly
D. none of the above C. increase proportionately
Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives D. remains unchanged
uniform speed variation_____________? The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is
A. in one direction proportional to____________?
B. in both directions A. field flux only
C. below normal speed only B. armature current only
D. above normal speed only C. both A. and B.
Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to D. none of the above
reduce the peak demand by the motor, compound Which of the following method of speed control of
motor will have to be_____________? D.C. machine will offer minimum efficiency ?
A. level compounded A. Voltage control method
B. under compounded B. Field control method
C. cumulatively compounded C. Armature control method
D. differentially compounded D. All above methods
Following motor is used where high starting Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired
torque and wide speed range control is required? in case of____________?
A. Single phase capacitor start A. centrifugal pumps
B. Induction motor B. elevators
C. Synchronous motor C. steel rolling mills
D. D.C. motor D. colliery winders
E. None of the above The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-
In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The speed
shunt field suddenly opens____________? regulation of the motor is______________?
A. the motor will first stop and then run in A. 2.36%
opposite direction as series motor B. 4.76%
B. the motor will work as series motor and run at C. 6.77%
slow speed in the same direction D. 8.84%
C. the motor will work as series motor and run at The armature voltage control of D.C. motor
provides____________?

47
A. constant torque drive C. constant torque drive
B. constant voltage drive D. none of the above
C. constant current drive If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient
D. none of the above temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient
As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting temperature, then the motor_____________?
a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a heavy current A. of lower H.P. should be selected
from flowing though the armature B. of higher H.P. should be selected
circuit____________________? C. can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
A. a resistance is connected in series with D. is to be derated by a factor recommended by
armature manufacturer and select the next higher H.P.
B. a resistance is connected parallel to the armature motor
C. armature is temporarily open circuited If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are
D. a high value resistor is connected across the field interchanged, this action will offer following kind
winding of braking?
The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be increased A. regenerative
by_______________? B. plugging
A. increasing the resistance in armature circuit C. dynamic braking
B. increasing the resistance in field circuit D. none of the above
C. reducing the resistance in the field circuit E. any of the above
D. reducing the resistance in the armature circuit Which of the following motors one will choose to
If I2 be the armature current, then speed of a D.C. drive the rotary compressor ?
shunt motor is_______________? A. D.C. shunt motor
A. independent of Ia B. D.C. series motor
B. proportional to la C. Universal motor
C. varies as (Ia) D. Synchronous motor
D. varies as la If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the
Which motor has the poorest speed control? back e.m.f. of the motor will_________?
A. Differentially compounded motor A. increase
B. Cumulatively compounded motor B. decrease
C. Shunt motor C. remain same
D. Series motor D. become zero
For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction
changed_______________? applications ?
A. torque will remain constant A. Torque and speed are inversely proportional
B. torque will change but power will remain to armature current
constant B. Torque is proportional to armature current
C. torque and power both will change C. Torque is proportional to square root of armature
D. torque, power and speed, all will change current
The plugging gives the____________? D. The speed is inversely proportional to the
A. zero torque braking torque and the torque is proportional to square of
B. smallest torque braking armature current
C. highest torque braking Which of the following motors is usually used in
D. none of the above house-hold refrigerators ?
The armature voltage control of D.C. motor A. D.C. shunt motor
provides_____________? B. D.C. series motor
A. constant voltage drive C. Single phase induction motor (split phase start
B. constant current drive or induction run motor)

48
D. Reluctance motor A. Frequency of magnetic reversals
E. Synchronous motor B. Maximum value of flux density
Which of the following motors is most suitable for C. Volume and grade of iron
signalling devices and many kinds of timers ? D. Rate of flow of ventilating air
A. D.C. shunt motor In a D.C. generator all of the following could be
B. D.C. series motor the effects of iron losses except___________?
C. Induction motor A. Loss of efficiency
D. Reluctance motor B. Excessive heating of core
Which motor should not be started on no- C. Increase in terminal voltage
load ? D. Rise in temperature of ventilating air
A. Series motor The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given
B. Shunt motor below. Which loss is likely to have highest
C. Cumulatively compounded motor proportion at rated load of the generator ?
D. Differentially compounded motor A. hysteresis loss
Ward-Leonard control is basically B. field copper loss
a____________? C. armature copper loss
A. voltage control method D. eddy current loss
B. field divertor method Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator
C. field control method varies significantly with the load current ?
D. armature resistance control method A. Field copper loss
For constant torque drive which speed control B. Windage loss
method is preferred ? C. Armature copper loss
A. Field control D. None of the above
B. Armature voltage control Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends
C. Shunt armature control upon_____________?
D. Mechanical loading system A. magnetic field
In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed B. active length of the conductor
is imposed by________? C. current flow through the conductors
A. residual magnetism of the generator D. number of conductors
B. core losses of motor E. radius of armature
C. mechanical losses of motor and generator together F. all above factors
D. all of the above D.C. shunt motors are used for
The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard driving____________?
control method is______________? A. trains
A. high initial cost B. cranes
B. high maintenance cost C. hoists
C. low efficiency at Hght loads D. machine tools
D. all of the above In a manual shunt motor starter?
Regenerative method of braking is based on A. over load relay is connected in series and
that___________? no volt relay in parallel with the load
A. back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage B. over load relay is connected in parallel and no volt
B. back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage relay in series with the load
C. back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied C. over load relay and no volt relay are both
voltage connected in series with the load
D. none of the above D. over load relay and no volt relay are both
The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least connected in parallel with the load
depends on____________? Which of the following steps is likely to result in
reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C. generator ?

49
A. Providing laminations in armature core The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt
B. Providing laminations in stator machines is to find out____________?
C. Using non-magnetic material for frame A. stray losses
D. Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for B. eddy current losses
armature core material C. field copper losses
Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is D. windage losses
dissipated in the form of heat? Which of the following tests will be suitable for
A. Mechanical loss testing two similar D.C. series motors of large
B. Core loss capacity ?
C. Copper loss A. Swinburne’s test
D. All of the above B. Hopkinson’s test
Which of the following losses are significantly C. Field test
reduced by laminating the core of a D.C. D. Brake test
generator ? Hopkinson’s test on D.C. machines is conducted
A. Hysteresis losses at_______________?
B. Eddy current losses A. no-load
C. Copper losses B. part load
D. Windage losses C. full-load
The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator D. overload
of 10 kW will be nearly______________? During rheostat braking of D.C. series
A. 100 W motors_____________?
B. 500 W A. motor is run as a generator
C. 1000 W B. motor is reversed in direction
D. 1500 W C. motor is run at reduced speed
The condition for maximum efficiency for a D.C. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking
generator is______________? is generally used ?
A. eddy current losses = stray losses A. Shunt motors
B. hysteresis losses = eddy current losses B. Series motors
C. copper losses = 0 C. Compound motors
D. variable losses = constant losses D. All of the above
D.C. generators are normally designed for Which method of braking is generally used in
maximum efficiency around_____________? elevators ?
A. full-load A. Plugging
B. rated r.p.m. B. Regenerative braking
C. rated voltage C. Rheostatic braking
D. all of the above D. None of the above
In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take In variable speed motor___________?
place in___________/ A. a stronger commutating field is needed at
A. yoke low speed than at high speed
B. commutator B. a weaker commutating field is needed at low
C. armature conductors speed than at high speed
D. armature rotor C. same commutating field is needed at low speed
D.C. generators are installed near the load centres than at high speed
to reduce_____________? D. none of the above is correct
A. iron losses When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f.
B. line losses induced is___________?
C. sparking A. self-induced e.m.f.
D. corona losses B. mutually induced e.m.f.

50
C. back e.m.f The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be
D. none of the above more than full load speed. This is possible
Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires by______________?
frequent starting, stopping, reversing and speed A. reducing the field current
control______________? B. decreasing the armature current
A. drum type controller is used C. increasing the armature current
B. three point starter is used D. increasing the excitation current
C. four point starter is used E. none of the above methods
D. all above can be used One D.C. motor drives another D.C. motor. The
If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if second D.C. motor when excited and
shunt field circuit suddenly driven_______________?
opens____________? A. runs as a generator
A. this will make armature to take heavy B. does not run as a generator
current, possibly burning it C. also runs as a motor comes to stop after sometime
B. this will result in excessive speed, possibly If the load on a DC shunt motor is increases, its
destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal speed is slightly reduced due to______________?
stresses A. increase in armature current
C. nothing will happen to motor B. increase in flux
D. motor will come to stop C. decrease in reactance
D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain D. decrease in back emf
minimum value for most of the time and some In which of the following device the generated emf
peak value for short duration. We will select and armature current are in the opposite
the________________? directions?
A. series motor A. dc generator
B. shunt motor B. dc motor
C. compound motor C. transformer
D. any of the above D. all of the above
D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil With the increase in temperature, the speed of DC
for certain part of the load cycle and peak value shunt motor____________?
for short duration. We will select A. decreases.
this______________? B. increases
A. series motor C. remain same
B. shunt motor D. none of the above
C. compound motor With the increase in temperature, the speed of DC
D. any of the above series motor______________?
Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving A. decreases
property ? B. increases
A. Series motor C. remain same
B. Shunt motor D. none of the above
C. Cumulatively compounded motor If the field winding resistance of a DC shunt
D. Differentially compounded motor motor is increases, its speed will____________?
In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur If the field winding resistance of a DC shunt
in____________? motor is increases, its speed will
A. the field A. decreases
B. the armature B. increases
C. the brushes C. remains same
D. the commutator D. none of the above

51
Which of the following method is used for the A. all the four poles are north poles
speed control of DC shunt motor? B. alternate poles are north and south
A. voltage control method C. all the four poles are south poles
B. flux control method D. two north poles follow two south poles
C. rheostat control method In lap winding, the number of brushes is
D. all of the above always_____________?
A dc series motor should not be started on no load A. double the number of poles
because it would___________? B. same as the number of poles
A. not develop starting torque C. half the number of poles
B. fail to start without load D. two
C. run at dangerously high speed The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are
D. draw more current without producing sufficient generally______________?
torque A. ball bearings
In a DC motor the inter-pole winding is connected B. bush bearings
in________________? C. magnetic bearmgs
A. series with field winding D. needle bearings
B. series speed armature winding In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear
C. parallel big field winding may be___________?
D. parallel with armature winding A. severe sparking
Armature reaction in dc motor B. rough commutator surface
results___________? C. imperfect contact
A. decrease in speed D. any of the above
B. increase in speed For a D.C. generator when the number of poles
C. short circuit and the number of armature conductors is fixed,
D. open circuit then which winding will give the higher
Which of the following test can be performed on e.m.f___________ ?
DC series motor? A. Lap winding
B. Wave winding
A. Swinburne test C. Either of A. and B. above
B. Hopkinson test D. Depends on other features of design
C. Brake test Copper brushes in D.C. machine are
D. Field test used_____________?
A. where low voltage and high currents are
Ward Leonard method of speed control is basically
involved
a______________?
B. where high voltage and small cur-rents are
involved
A. field control method C. in both of the above cases
B. armature controlled method
D. in none of the above cases
C. field diverter
D. frequency control method In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are
primary function of____________?
A. current
CHAPTER # DC GENERATORS
A separately excited generator as compared to a B. voltage
self-excited generator_____________? C. speed
A. is amenable to better voltage control D. none of above
B. is more stable Fleming’s right-hand rule regarding direction of
C. has exciting current independent of load current induced e.m.f., correlates__________?
D. has all above features A. magnetic flux, direction of current flow and
In a four-pole D.C. machine____________? resultant force

52
B. magnetic flux, direction of motion and the The commutator segments are connected to the
direction of e.m.f. induced armature conductors by means of___________?
C. magnetic field strength, induced voltage and A. copper lugs
current B. resistance wires
D. magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of C. insulation pads
motion of conductor D. brazing
In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to Which of the following could be lamina-
the pole core by_____________? proximately the thickness of laminations of a D.C.
A. rivets machine ?
B. counter sunk screws A. 0.005 mm
C. brazing B. 0.05 mm
D. welding C. 0.5 m
While applying Fleming’s right-hand rule to And D. 5 m
the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb points Laminations of core are generally made
towards___________? of________________?
A. direction of induced e.m.f. A. case iron
B. direction of flux B. carbon
C. direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger C. silicon steel
points in the direction of generated e.m.f. D. stainless steel
D. direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger The armature of D.C. generator is laminated
points along the lines of flux to_______________?
According to Fleming’s right-hand rule for A. reduce the bulk
finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when B. provide the bulk
middle finger points in the direction of induced C. insulate the core
e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction D. reduce eddy current loss
of____________? Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of
A. motion of conductor variations in_____________?
B. lines of force A. speed
C. either of the above B. load
D. none of the above C. voltage
In a commutator_____________? D. speed and voltage
A. copper is harder than mica Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of
B. mica and copper are equally hard variations in______________?
C. mica is harder than copper A. speed
D. none of the above B. load
The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made C. voltage
of_____________? D. speed and voltage
A. mica In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit
B. copper from armature is given through_____________?
C. cast iron A. commutator
D. carbon B. solid connection
The resistance of armature winding depends C. slip rings
on D. none of above
A. length of conductor Brushes of D.C. machines are made
B. cross-sectional area of the conductor of_________?
C. number of conductors A. carbon
D. all of the above

53
B. soft copper A. demagnetisation only
C. hard copper B. cross magnetisation as well as mag¬netisation
D. all of above C. crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable D. cross magnetisation only
cause could not be_____________? Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C.
A. imperfect brush contact machine is_____________?
B. field resistance less than the critical A. crossmagnetising
resistance B. demagnetising
C. no residual magnetism in the generator C. magnetising
D. faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the D. none of above
residual magnetism D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or
If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor disconnected from them only under the floating
and v the velocity of conductor, then induced condition________________?
e.m.f. is given by______________? A. to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
A. Blv B. to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
B. Blv2 C. to avoid burning of switch contacts
C. Bl2v D. all above
D. Bl2v2 Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a
In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a D.C. machine due to______________?
two layer lap winding with sixteen coils, the pole A. oscillating magnetic field
pitch will be__________________? B. pulsating magnetic flux
A. 4 C. relative rotation between field and armature
B. 8 D. all above
C. 16 Equilizer rings are required in case armature
D. 32 is_______________?
The material for commutator brushes is A. wave wound
generally_______________? B. lap wound
A. mica C. delta wound
B. copper D. duplex wound
C. cast iron Welding generator will have____________?
D. carbon A. lap winding
The insulating material used between the B. wave winding
commutator segments is normally_____________? C. delta winding
A. graphite D. duplex wave winding
B. paper In case of D.C. machine winding, number of
C. mica commutator segments is equal
D. insulating varnish to______________?
In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator A. number of armature coils
remain in contact with conductors B. number of armature coil sides
which_________________? C. number of armature conductors
A. lie under south pole D. number of armature turns
B. lie under north pole For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of
C. lie under interpolar region D.C. supply will be suitable___________?
D. are farthest from the poles A. rotary converter
If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order B. mercury are rectifier
to bring these brushes in magnetic neutral axis, C. induction motor D.C. generator set
there will be________________? D. synchronous motor D.C. generator set

54
Flashing the field of D.C. generator Which of the following statement about D.C.
means:______________? generators is false ?
A. neutralising residual magnetism A. Compensating winding in a D.C. machine
B. creating residual magnetism by a D.C. helps in commutation
source B. In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is
C. making the magnetic losses of forces parallel connected in series with the armature winding
D. increasing flux density by adding extra turns of C. Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and
windings on poles approximately equal to the pole pitch
The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. D. Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel
machine is______________? running of D.C. shunt gen¬erators
A. to reduce the reluctance of the mag¬netic Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when
path it lies_____________?
B. to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux A. along neutral axis
density B. along field axis
C. to support the field coil C. in any of the above positions
D. to discharge all the above functions D. in none of the above positions
In the case of lap winding resultant pitch A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator
is____________? when operating as a motor would
A. multiplication of front and back pitches be____________?
B. division of front pitch by back pitch A. cumulatively compounded long shunt
C. sum of front and back pitches B. deferentially compounded long shunt
D. difference of front and back pitches C. cumulatively compounded short shunt
The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt D. differentially compounded short shunt
generator is 600 V. The armature resistance is 0.1 The demagnetising component of armature
ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the reaction in a D.C. generator___________?
terminal voltage will be_____________? A. reduces generator e.m.f.
A. 640 V B. increases armature speed
B. 620 V C. reduces interpoles flux density
C. 600 V D. results in sparking trouble
D. 580 V To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator
In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to of a D.C. machine?
the resistance of_____________? A. the brushes of opposite polarity should
A. brushes track each other
B. field B. the brushes of same polarity should track each
C. armature other
D. load C. brush position has no effect on the commutator
A D.C. welding generator has____________? grooving
A. lap winding D. None
B. wave moving Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced
C. duplex winding by_______________?
D. any of the above A. electromagnets
To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a B. permanent magnets
D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as to bring C. both A. and B.
them? D. none of the above
A. just ahead of magnetic neutral axis The number of brushes in a commutator depends
B. in magnetic neutral axis on______________?
C. just behind the magnetic neutral axis A. speed of armature
D. none B. type of winding

55
C. voltage the induced e.m.f. is generator A and B will
D. amount of current to be collected be_______________?
The following constitute short-circuit in the A. 2 : 3
armature winding. B. 3 : 1
A. Insulation failure between two commutator C. 3 : 2
bars D. 1 : 3
B. Insulation failure between two turns of a coil Number of tappings for each equalizer ring is
C. Two of more turns of the same coil getting equal to_____________?
grounded A. number of pole pairs
D. All of the above B. number of poles
Compensating windings are used in D.C. C. number of parallel paths
generators______________? D. number of commutator segments
A. mainly to reduce the eddy currents by The voltage drop for which of the following types
providing local short-circuits of brush can be expected to be least ?
B. to provide path for the circulation of cooling air A. Graphite brushes
C. to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the B. Carbon brushes
armature reaction C. Metal graphite brushes
D. none of the above D. None of the above
Which of the following components of a D.C, A D.C. generator can be considered
generator plays vital role for providing direct as____________?
current of a D.C. generator ? A. rectifier
A. Dummy coils B. primemover
B. Commutator C. rotating amplifier
C. Eye bolt D. power pump
D. Equilizer rings The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C.
The rapid wear of brushes takes place due generator isE. Now while pole flux remains
to____________? constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled,
A. abrasion from dust the e.m.f. generated will
B. excessive spring pressure be_______________?
C. rough commutator bars A. E/2
D. high mica insulation between com-mutation bars B. 2E
E. all of the above factors C. slightly less than E
In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. D. E
generated are reduced by_____________? In any rotating machine that part which houses
A. using conductor of annealed copper the conductors and in which e.m.f. induced is to be
B. using commutator with large number of utilized is called____________?
segments A. rotor
C. using carbon brushes of superior quality B. stator
D. using equiliser rings C. field
In D.C. generators, lap winding is used D. armature
for______________? The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually
A. high voltage, high current made of__________________?
B. low voltage, high current A. silicon steel
C. high voltage, low current B. copper
D. low voltage, low current C. non-ferrous material
Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. D. cast-iron
Generator A has wave wound armature while In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum
generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of of_____________?

56
A. total copper loss and mechanical loss C. voltage at the toad end of the feeder
B. armature copper loss and iron loss D. for none of the above purpose
C. shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss An exciter for a turbo generator is
D. iron loss and mechanical loss a_____________?
Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines A. separately excited generator
requires______________? B. shunt generator
A. brushes should be of proper grade and size C. series generator
B. brushes should smoothly run in the holders D. compound generator
C. smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut Following D.C. generator will be in a position to
D. all of the above build up without any residual magnetism in the
Lap winding is composed of_____________? poles______________?
A. any even number of conductors A. series generator
B. any odd number of conductors B. shunt generator
C. that even number which is exact multiple of poles C. compound generator
+2 D. self-excited generator
D. that even number which is exact multiple of poles Interpole flux should be sufficient
Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine to_____________?
is________________? A. neutralise the commutating self induced
A. identified by the scarring of the commutator e.m.f.
segment to which open circuited coil is B. neutralise the armature reaction flux
connected C. neutralise both the armature reaction flux as
B. indicated by a spark completely around the well as commutating e.m.f. induced in the coil
commutator D. perform none of the above functions
C. both A. and (b) In case of a flat compounded generator:
D. none of the above A. voltage generated is less than the rated
For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. voltage
compound generators, we should ensure B. generated voltage is proportional to the load on the
that_______________? generator
A. voltage of the incoming generator should be C. voltage remains constant irrespective of the
same as that of bus bar load
B. polarity of incoming generator should be same as D. speed varies in proportion to the load on the
that of bus bar generator
C. all the series fields should be run in parallel by D.C. generator generally preferred for charging
means of equilizer connection automobile batteries is______________?
D. series fields of all generators should be either A. series generator
on positive side or negative side of the armature B. shunt generator
E. all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied C. long shunt compound generator
In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the D. any of’the above
field winding is increased, then output voltage In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical
will____________? degrees and electrical degrees will be the same
A. increase when____________?
B. decrease A. r.p.m. is more than 300
C. remain unaffected B. r.p.m. is less than 300
D. fluctuate heavily C. number of poles is 4
D.C. series generator is D. number of poles is 2
used_________________? Which of the following generator will have
A. to supply traction load negligible terminal voltage while running on no-
B. to supply industrial load at constant voltage load?

57
A. Series generator C. the generator runs on overload
B. Shunt generator D. the generator runs on designed speed
C. Compound generator In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at
D. Separately excited generator brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the coil is
Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a neutralised by all of the following
position to build up without any residual except______________?
magnetism in the poles? A. interpoles
A. Series generator B. dummy coils
B. Shunt generator C. compensating winding
C. Compound generator D. shifting of axis of brushes
D. None of the above The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator
Permeance is the reciprocal of______________? drops on load because of all of the following
A. flux density reasons except:_____________?
B. reluctance A. armature reaction
C. ampere-turns B. armature resistance drop
D. resistance C. field weakening due to armature reaction and
In over compounded generator, full load terminal armature
voltage is______________? D. commutation
A. almost zero In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux
B. less than no load terminal voltage distribution in space is______________?
C. more than no load terminal voltage A. sinusoidal
D. equal to no-load terminal voltage B. triangular
In D.C. generators the polarity of the C. pulsating
interpoles_____________? D. flat topped
A. is the same as that of the main pole ahead The purpose of providing dummy coils in a
B. is the same as that of the immediately generator is____________?
preceding pole A. to reduce eddy current losses
C. is opposite to that of the main pole ahead B. to enhance flux density
D. is neutral as these poles do not play part in C. to amplify voltage
generating e.m.f. D. to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field
directly proportional to____________? of a shunt generator. The armature voltage wave
A. flux/pole will_____________?
B. speed of armature A. will be zero
C. number of poles B. will be of 5 Hz
D. all of the above C. will be of 5 xiVHz
In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load D. will be of v Hz 5
terminal voltage is______________? A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has
A. negligibly low generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed increases to
B. equal to no-load terminal voltage 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be
C. more than no-load terminal voltage nearly_______________?
D. less than no-load terminal voltage A. 150 V
In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis B. 175 V
coincides with the geometrical neutral axis, C. 240 V
when_______________? D. 290 V
A. there is no load on|he generator A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed
B. the generator runs on full load without any excitation. The open circuit voltage
will be_____________?

58
A. zero A. external resistance = internal char-acteristic –
B. about 2 V armature reaction
C. about 50 V B. internal characteristic = magnetisation
D. 220 V characteristic – ohmic drop
The purpose of providing dummy coils in a C. external characteristic = magnetisation
generator is__________________? characteristic – ohmic drop – armature reaction
A. to reduce eddy current losses D. magnetisation characteristic = external
B. to enhance flux density characteristic
C. to amplify voltage The number of armature parallel paths in a two-
D. to provide mechanical balance for the rotor pole D.C. generator having duplex lap winding
If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. is______________?
generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will
be____________? A. 2
A. zero B. 4
B. small C. 6
C. the same as rated voltage D. 8
Wave winding is composed of_______________?
D. high
A. any even number of conductors
Armature reaction in a generator results
B. any odd number of conductors
in_____________?
C. that even number which is exact multiple of
A. demagnetisation of leading pole tip and
poles + 2
magnetisation of trailing pole tip
D. that even number which is exact multiple of poles
B. demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and
For both lap and wave windings, there are as
magnetisation of leading pole tip
many commutator bars as the number
C. damagnetising the center of all poles
of_____________?
D. magnetising the center of all poles
A. slots
Following energized winding of a D.C. machine
B. armature conductors
should not be opened as it would produce high
C. winding elements
inductive voltage which may be dangerous to
D. poles
personnel and may cause its own insulation
In a separately excited generator supplying rated
failure.
load the armature reaction.
A. Series field
A. is always present
B. Compensating field
B. is always absent
C. Inter pole field
C. may be sometimes present
D. Shunt field
D. none of the above
Which generator would you prefer for feeding
The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is
long D.C. transmission lines ?
excited by_______________?
A. Series generator
A. external current
B. Shunt generator
B. armature current
C. Over compound generator
C. shunt current
D. Flat compound generator
D. load current
In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be
The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the
increased by_____________?
resistance of_____________?
A. increasing its field resistance
A. field
B. decreasing its field resistance
B. brushes
C. increasing its speed
C. armature
D. decreasing its speed
D. load
In a D.C. generator:___________________?

59
As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in A. Shunt generators
the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C. generator is B. Series generators
approximately______________? C. Compound generators
A. 40 percent D. None of the above
B. 25 percent Two generators are running in parallel. One of the
C. 10 percent generators may run as motor for which of the
D. 5 percent following reasons ?
Shunt generators are most suited for stable A. The direction of that generator is reversed
parallel operation because of B. The speed of that generator is increased
their______________? C. The field of that generator is weakened
A. rising voltage characteristics D. That generator takes large share of loads
B. identical voltage characteristics When two D.C. generators are running in parallel
C. drooping voltage characteristics an equilizer bar is used______________?
D. linear voltage characteristics A. to increase the series flux
When two D.C. series generators are running in B. to increase the generated e.m.f.
parallel, an equilizer bar is C. to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature
used________________? reaction of both the machines
A. to increase the speed and hence generated D. so that the two identical machines will pass
e.m.f. approximately equal cur¬rents to the load
B. to increase the series flux The essential condition for parallel operation of
C. so that two similar machines will pass two D.C. generators is that they have
approximately equal currents to the load ________________?
D. to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature A. same kW rating
reaction of both machines B. the same operation r.p.m.
The main factor which leads to unstable parallel C. the same drooping voltage characteristics
operation of flat and over compounded generators D. same percentage regulation
is_____________? Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature
A. their rising voltage characteristics resistance of 0.02 ohm and field resistance of 50
B. unequal number of turns in their series field ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of
windings 1000 amperes to the load circuit. If their e.m.fs.
C. unequal speed regulation of their primemovers are 270 V and 265 V, their bus bar voltage will
D. unequal series field resistances be_____________________?
If a self excited D.C. generator after being A. 270 V
installed, fails to build up on its first trial run, the B. 267.5 V
first thing to do is to______________? C. 265 V
A. reverse the field connections D. 257.4 V
B. increase the field resistance With a D.C. generator which of the following
C. increase the speed of primemover regulation is preferred ?
D. check armature insulation resistance A. 100% regulation
Which of the following generating machine will B. infinite regulation
offer constant voltage on all loads? C. 50% regulation
A. Self-excited generator D. 1% regulation
B. Separately excited generator A shunt generator can self-
C. Level compounded generator excite:_________________?
D. All of the above A. only if the resistance of the field circuit is
Which of the following generators will be less than critical value
preferred if they are required to be run in B. only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater
parallel? than critical value

60
C. irrespective of the value of the resistance in the A. synchronous speed
field circuit B. below synchronous speed
D. none C. above synchronous speed
The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V D. any of the above
when the load current is 5 A. If the load current is In a star-delta starter of an induction
increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will motor___________?
be____________? A. resistance is inserted in the stator
A. 150 V B. reduced voltage is applied to the stator
B. less than 150 V C. resistance is inserted in the rotor
C. greater than 150 V D. applied voltage perl stator phase is 57.7% of
D. none of the above the line voltage
The open circuit voltage of a compound generator Slip ring motor is preferred over squirrel cage
is 250 V. At full load the terminal induction motor where___________?
voltage____________? A. high starting torque is required
A. will be less than 250 V B. load torque is heavy
B. will always be 250 V C. heavy pull out torque is required
C. may be greater or less than 250 V D. all of the above
D. none of the above Reduced voltage starter can be used
A D.C. generator works on the principle with_____________?
of____________? A. slip ring motor only but not with squirrel
A. Lenz’s law cage induction motor
B. Ohm’s law B. squirrel cage induction motor only but not with
C. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction slip ring motor
D. none of the above C. squirrel cage as well as slip ring induction
A series generator can self- motor
excite:______________? D. none of the above
A. only if the load current is zero A squirrel cage induction motor is not selected
B. only if the load current is not zero when___________?
C. irrespective of the value of load current A. initial cost is the main consideration
D. none of the above B. maintenance cost is to be kept low
C. higher starting torque is the main
CHAPTER # POLYPHASE consideration
INDUCTION MOTORS D. all above considerations are involved
Insertion of resistance in the stator of an induction Less maintenance troubles are experienced in case
motor___________? of___________?
A. increases the load torque A. slip ring induction motor
B. decreases the starting torque B. squirrel cage induction motor
C. increases the starting torque C. both A. and (b)
D. none of the above D. none of the above
The starting torque of a three phase induction In a squirrel cage motor the induced e.m.f.
motor can be increased by__________? is___________?
A. increasing slip A. dependent on the shaft loading
B. increasing current B. dependent on the number of slots
C. both A. and (b) C. slip times the stand still e.m.f. induced in the
D. none of the above rotor
The rotor of an induction motor runs D. none of the above
at__________? The purpose of using short-circuit gear
is___________?

61
A. to short circuit the rotor at slip rings In induction motor, percentage slip depends
B. to short circuit the starting resistances in the on__________?
starter A. supply frequency
C. to short circuit the stator phase of motor to form B. supply voltage
star C. copper losses in motor
D. none of the above D. none of the above
Temperature of the stator winding of a three When /?2 is the rotor resistance, .X2 the rotor
phase induction motor is obtained reactance at supply frequency and s the slip, then
by___________? the condition for maximum torque under running
A. resistance rise method conditions will be_____________?
B. thermometer method A. sR2X2 = 1
C. embedded temperature method B. sR2 = X2
D. all above methods C. R2 = sX2
For driving high inertia loads best type of D. R2 = s2X2
induction motor suggested is_____________? In case of a double cage induction motor, the
A. slip ring type inner cage has__________?
B. squirrel cage type
C. any of the above
D. none of the above A. high inductance arid low resistance
Insertion of resistance in the rotor of an induction B. low inductance and high resistance
motor to develop a given torque? C. low inductance and low resistance
A. decreases the rotor current D. high inductance and high resistance
In an induction motor if air-gap is
B. increases the rotor current
increased__________?
C. rotor current becomes zero
A. the power factor will be low
D. rotor current rernains same
B. windage losses will be more
Insertion of reactance in the rotor
C. bearing friction will reduce
circuit_______?
D. copper loss will reduce In an induction motor
A. reduces starting torque as well as
The torque developed by a 3-phase induction
maximum torque
motor least depends on__________?
B. increases starting torque as well as maximum
A. rotor current
torque
B. rotor power factor
C. increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque
C. rotor e.m.f.
remains unchanged
D. shaft diameter
D. increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque
Which motor is preferred for use in mines where
decreases
explosive gases exist ?
An induction motor can run at synchronous speed
A. Air motor
when____________?
B. Induction motor
A. it is run on load
C. D.C. shunt motor
B. it is run in reverse direction
D. Synchronous motor
C. it is run on voltage higher than the rated voltage
Lubricant used for ball bearing is
D. e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit
usually___________?
The low power factor of induction motor is due
A. graphite
to___________?
B. grease
A. rotor leakage reactance
C. mineral oil
B. stator reactance
D. molasses
C. the reactive lagging magnetizing current necessary
The circle diagram for an induction motor cannot
to generate the magnetic flux
be used to determine____________?
D. all of the above

62
A. efficiency A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C.
B. power factor induction motor has a speed of 960 r.p.m. on full
C. frequency load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the
D. output machine will be__________?
Blocked rotor test on induction motors is used to A. 0.01
find out? B. 0.02
A. leakage reactance C. 0.03
B. power factor on short circuit D. 0.04
C. short-circuit current under rated voltage The power scale of circle diagram of an induction
D. all of the above motor can be found from__________?
The complete circle diagram of induetion motor A. stator resistance test
can be drawn with the help of data found B. no-load test only
from__________? C. short-circuit test only
A. noload test D. noue of the above
B. blocked rotor test A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction
C. stator resistance test motor will produce a change of approximately
D. all of the above ________?
In the squirrel-cage induction motor the rotor A. 4% in the rotor torque
slots are usually given slight B. 8% in the rotor torque
skew__________? C. 12% in the rotor torque
A. to reduce the magnetic hum and locking D. 16% in the rotor torque
tendency of the rotor The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction
B. to increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars motor is__________?
C. to ensure easy fabrication A. parabola
D. none of the above B. hyperbola
The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under C. rectangular parabola
running condition is maximum__________? D. straigth line
A. at the unit value of slip The vafcie of transformation ratio of an induction
B. at the zero value of slip motor can be found by__________?
C. at the value of the slip which makes rotor A. open-circuit test only
reactance per phase equal to the resistance per B. short-circuit test only
phase C. stator resistance test
D. at the value of the slip which makes the rotor D. none of the above
reactance half of the rotor In a three-phase induction
What will happen if the relative speed between the motor__________?
rotating flux of stator and rotor of the induction A. power factor at starting is high as compared
motor is zero ? to that while running
A. The slip of the motor will be 5% B. power factor at starting is low as compared to
B. The rotor will not run that while running
C. The rotor will run at very high speed C. power factor at starting in the same as that while
D. The torque produced will be very large running
The stating torque of the slip ring induction motor In three-phase induction motors sometimes
can be increased by adding__________? copper bars are placed deep in the rotor
A. external inductance to the rotor to___________?
B. external resistance to the rotor A. improve starting torque
C. external capacitance to the rotor B. reduce copper losses
D. both resistance and inductance to rotor C. improve efficiency
D. improve power factor

63
Which is of the following data is required to draw A pump induction motor is switched on to a
the circle diagram for an induction motor ? supply 30% lower than its rated voltage. The
A. Block rotor test only pump runs. What will eventually happen ? It
B. No load test only will____________?
C. Block rotor test and no-load test A. stall after sometime
D. Block rotor test, no-load test and stator B. stall immediately
resistance test C. continue to run at lower speed without damage
In case of 3-phase induction motors, plugging D. get heated and subsequently get damaged
means__________? Which type of bearing is provided in small
A. pulling the motor directly on line without a induction motors to support the rotor shaft ?
starter A. Ball bearings
B. locking of rotor due to harmonics B. Cast iron bearings
C. starting the motor on load which is more than the C. Bush bearings
rated load D. None of the above
D. interchanging two supply phases for quick The speed characteristics of an induction motor
stopping closely resemble the speedload characteristics of
In a three-phase induction which of the following machines?
motor_______________? A. D.C. series motor
A. iron losses in stator will be negligible as B. D.C. shunt motor
compared to that in rotor C. universal motor
B. iron losses in motor will be neg¬ligible as D. none of the above
compared to that in rotor It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction
C. iron losses in stator will be less than that in rotor motor and use starter because____________?
D. iron losses in stator will be more than that in A. it will run in reverse direction
rotor B. it will pick up very high speed and may go
Short-circuit test on an induction motor cannot be out of step
used to determine___________? C. motor takes five to seven times its full load
A. windage losses current
B. copper losses D. starting torque is very high
C. transformation ratio If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor
D. power scale of circle diagram is short circuited rotor will move___________?
The starting torque of a 3-phase squirrel cage A. in the opposite direction as the direction of
induction motor is____________? the rotating field
A. twice the full load torque B. in the same direction as the direction of the
B. 1.5 times the full load torque field
C. equal to full load torque C. in any direction depending upon phase squence of
A 3-phase slip ring motor has____________? supply
A. double cage rotor As load on an induction motor goes on
B. wound rotor increasing______________?
C. short-circuited rotor A. its power factor goes on decreasing
D. any of the above B. its power factor remains constant
5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction motors C. its power factor goes on increasing even after full
are available for the following r.p.m. Which motor load
will be the costliest ? D. its power factor goes on increasing up to full
A. 730 r.p.m. load and then it falls again
B. 960 r.p.m. Slip ring motor is recommended
C. 1440 r.p.m. where____________?
D. 2880 r.p.m.

64
A. speed control is required the field and are in the same direction
B. frequent starting, stopping and reversing is C. rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed
required of the field and are in the same direction
C. high starting torque is needed D. none of the above
D. all above features are required If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to
In an induction motor the relationship between stator slots, runs at 1/7 of the normal speed, the
stator slots and rotor slots is phenomenon will be termed
that_____________? as____________?
A. stator slots are equal to rotor slots A. humming
B. stator slots are exact multiple of rotor slots B. hunting
C. stator slots are not exact multiple of rotor slots C. crawling
D. none of the above D. cogging
Low voltage at motor terminals is due The ‘cogging’ of an induction motor can be
to____________? avoided by____________?
A. inadequate motor wiring A. proper ventilation
B. poorely regulated power supply B. using DOL starter
C. any one of the above C. auto-transformer starter
D. none of the above D. having number of rotor slots more or less than
A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is the number of stator slots (not equal)
carrying too heavy load and one of its fuses blows The power factor of an induction motor under no-
out. Then the motor______________? load conditions will be closer
A. will continue running burning its one phase to_____________?
B. will continue running burning its two phase A. 0.2 lagging
C. will stop and carry heavy current causing B. 0.2 leading
permanent damage to its winding C. 0.5 leading
D. will continue running without any harm to the D. unity
winding The ‘crawling” in an induction motor is caused
A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, by___________?
is carrying full load and one of its fuses blows out. A. high loads
Then the motor_______________? B. low voltage supply
A. will continue running burning its one C. improper design of machine
phase D. harmonics developed in the motor
B. will continue running burning its two phases The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can
C. will stop and carry heavy current causing be controlled by all of the following
permanent damage to its winding except_____________?
D. will continue running without any harm to the A. changing supply frequency
winding B. changing number of poles
Size of a high speed motor as compared to low C. changing winding resistance
speed motor for the same H.P. will be__________? D. reducing supply voltage
A. bigger DOL starting of induction motors is usually
B. smaller restricted to_____________?
C. same A. low horsepower motors
D. any of the above B. variable speed motors
Slip of an induction motor is negative C. high horsepower motors
when_____________? D. high speed motors
A. magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite In a three-phase induction motor, the number of
direction poles in the rotor winding is always__________?
B. rotor speed is less than the synchronous speed of

65
A. zero Stepless speed control of induction motor is
B. more than the number of poles in stator possible by which of the following methods ?
C. less than number of poles in stator A. e.m.f. injection in rotor eueuit
D. equal to number of poles in stator B. Changing the number of poles
In three-phase squirrel-cage induction C. Cascade operation
motors____________? D. None of the above
A. rotor conductor ends are short-circuited It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction
through slip rings motor and use starter because__________?
B. rotor conductors are short-circuited through A. motor takes five to seven times its full
end rings load current
C. rotor conductors are kept open B. it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of
D. rotor conductors are connected to insulation step
The maximum torque in an induction motor C. it will run in reverse direction
depends on___________? D. starting torque is very high
A. frequency When the equivalent circuit diagram of doouble
B. rotor inductive reactance squirrel-cage induction motor is constructed the
C. square of supply voltage two cages can be considered__________?
D. all of the above A. in series
An induction motor is__________? B. in parallel
A. self-starting with zero torque C. in series-parallel
B. self-starting with high torque D. in parallel with stator
C. self-starting with low torque The torque developed in the cage induction motor
D. non-self starting with autostarter is___________?
If any two phases for an induction motor are A. k/torque with direct switching
interchanged_______? B. K x torque with direct switching
A. the motor will run in reverse direction C. K2 x torque with direct switching
B. the motor will run at reduced speed D. k2/torque with direct switching
C. the motor will not run The auto-starters (using three auto transformers)
D. the motor will burn can be used to start cage induction motor of the
Rotor rheostat control method of speed control is following type__________?
used for____________? A. star connected only
A. squirrel-cage induction motors only B. delta connected only
B. slip ring induction motors only C. A. and B. both
C. both A. and (b) D. none of the above
D. none of the above The crawling in the induction motor is caused
For which motor the speed can be controlled from by____________?
rotor side ? A. low voltage supply
A. Squirrel-cage induction motor B. high loads
B. Slip-ring induction motor C. harmonics develped in the motor
C. Both A. and (b) D. improper design of the machine
D. None of the above E. none of the above
In the circle diagram for induction motor, the Which of the following methods is easily
diameter of the circle represents____________? applicable to control the speed of the squirrel-cage
A. slip induction motor _____________?
B. rotor current A. By changing the number of stator poles
C. running torque B. Rotor rheostat control
D. line voltage C. By operating two motors in cascade
D. By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit

66
An induction motor is identical C. (l-s)Ns
to_________? D. (Ns-l)s
A. D.C. compound motor Slip rings are usually made of___________?
B. D.C. series motor A. copper
C. synchronous motor B. carbon
D. asynchronous motor C. phospor bronze
The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor D. aluminium
must have__________? In case the air gap in an induction motor is
A. zero frequency increased____________?
B. the same frequency as the slip frequency A. the magnetising current of the rotor will
C. the same phase as the rotor e.m.f. decrease
D. high value for the satisfactory speed control B. the power factor will decrease
In case of the induction motors the torque C. speed of motor will increase
is___________? D. the windage losses will increase
A. inversely proportional to (Vslip) In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots
B. directly proportional to (slip)2 are usually given slight skew in order
C. inversely proportional to slip to__________?
D. directly proportional to slip A. reduce windage losses
The good power factor of an induction motor can B. reduce eddy currents
be achieved if the average flux density in the air C. reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
gap is___________? D. reduce magnetic hum
A. absent In medium sized induction motors, the slip is
B. small generally around___________?
C. large A. 0.04%
D. infinity B. 0.4%
A double squirrel-cage induction motor C. 4%
has______________? D. 14%
A. two rotors moving in oppsite direction Which of the following component is usually
B. two parallel windings in stator fabricated out of silicon steel ?
C. two parallel windings in rotor A. Bearings
D. two series windings in stator B. Shaft
Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case C. Statorcore
of____________? D. None of the above
A. single phase motors An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will
B. variable speed motors have____________?
C. low horse power motors A. 8 poles
D. high speed motors B. 6 poles
The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction C. 4 poles
motor is___________? D. 2 poles
A. low The term ‘cogging’ is associated
B. negligible with___________?
C. same as full-load torque A. three phase transformers
D. slightly more than full-load torque B. compound generators
In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then C. D.C. series motors
actual running speed of an induction motor will D. induction motors
be___________? The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage
A. Ns induction motor is usually____________?
B. s.N,

67
A. two CHAPTER # SINGLE PHASE
B. three INDUCTION MOTORS
C. four The capacitors used in single-phase capacitor
D. none motors have no__________?
The efficiency of an induction motor can be A. voltage rating
expected to be nearly____________? B. dielectric medium
A. 60 to 90% C. polarity marking
B. 80 to 90% D. definite value
C. 95 to 98% If a D.C. series motor is operated on A.C. supply,
D. 99% it will____________?
A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% A. spark excessively
slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will B. have poor efficiency
be____________? C. have poor power factor
A. 200 Hz D. all of the above
B. 50 Hz A universal motor is one
C. 2 Hz which______________?
D. 0.2 Hz A. can be operated either on D.C. or A.C.
In case the air gap in an induction motor is supply at approximately the same speed and
increased? output
A. the magnetising current of the rotor will B. can be marketed internationally
decrease C. runs at dangerously high speed on no-load
B. the power factor will decrease In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually
C. speed of motor will increase connected to commutator____________?
D. the windage losses will increase A. through resistance
In an induction motor, no-load the slip is B. through reactances
generally____________? C. through capacitors
A. less than 1% D. solidly
B. 1.5% A repulsion motor is equipped
C. 2% with__________?
D. 4% A. slip rings
The shaft of an induction motor is made B. commutator
of_____________? C. both A. and (b)
A. high speed steel D. none of the above
B. stainless steel Which of the following motors has two separate
C. carbon steel windings on the motor ?
D. cast iron A. Repulsion motor
The torque of an induction motor is___________? B. Repulsion induction motor
A. directly proportional to slip C. Repulsion start induction run motor
B. inversely proportional to slip D. None of the above
C. proportional to the square of the slip Which of the following statements regarding a
D. none of the above reluctance motor is incorrect ?
The frame of an induction motor is usually made A. It cannot be reversed, ordinarily
of____________? B. It requires no D.C. field excitation for its
A. silicon steel operation
B. cast iron C. It is nothing else but a single-phase, salient pole
C. aluminium synchronous-induction motor
D. bronze D. Its squirrel cage-rotor is of unsym-metrical

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magnetic construction in order to vary reluctance synchronous one
path between stator and rotor C. So far as its basic working principle is concerned,
A shaded pole motor does not it is similar to shaded pole motor
possess___________? D. the air-gap between rotor and salient poles is non-
A. centrifugal switch uniform
B. capacitor If starting winding of a single-phase induction
C. commutator motor is left in the circuit, it
D. all of the above will____________?
To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor A. run faster
start motor while it is running we B. spark at light loads
should___________? C. draw excessive current and overheat
A. disconnect motor from the supply till it D. run slower
stops then reconnect it to supply with If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor
reversed connection of main or auxiliary winding motor using two capacitors fails to open
B. disconnect motor from supply and immediately then____________?
reconnect it to supply with reversed connections of A. motor will not come up to speed
the main winding B. motor will not carry the load
C. reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary C. current drawn by the motor will be excessively
winding and after motor comes to rest then connect high
auxiliary winding to the supply D. electrolytic capacitor will, in all probability,
D. reverse the direction of connections of the suffer break down
auxiliary winding and immediately connect it to Which of the following statements regarding two
supply value capacitor motor is incorrect ?
In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is A. It is a reversing motor
increased so that it cannot maintain synchronous B. It is preferred to permanent-split single-
speed the motor will_____________? value capacitor motor where frequent reversals
A. become unstable are required
B. draw excessive armature current and may C. It has low starting as well as rushing currents
burn out D. It has high starting torque
C. fall out of synchronism and come to stand still If a single phase induction motor runs slower than
D. run as induction motor normal, the most likely defect is_____________?
Most of the fractional horsepower motors have A. worn bearings
either___________? B. short-circuit in the winding
A. hard and annealed bearings C. open-circuit in the winding
B. ball or roller bearings D. none of the above
C. soft and porous bearings Two-value capacitor motor finds increased
D. plain or sleeve bearings application as compressor motor in small home
In a universal motor, the most common cause of air-conditioners because_____________?
brush sparking is___________? A. it is comparatively cheaper
A. open armature winding B. it has almost non-destructible capacitor
B. shorted armature winding C. it has low starting as well as running currents
C. shorted field winding” at relatively high power factor
D. high commutator mica D. it is quiet in operation
E. all of the above Which of the following motors is used in tape-
Which of the following statements regarding recorders ____________?
reluctance-start motor is incorrect ? A. Hysteresis motor
A. It is similar to reluctance motor B. Reluctance motor
B. It is basically an induction motor and not a

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C. Capacitor-run motor The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually
D. Universal motor not quite parallel to the shaft because
Starting winding of a single phase motor of a it_____________?
refrigerator is disconnected from the circuit by A. improves the efficiency
means of a___________? B. helps the rotor teeth to remain under the
A. magnetic relay stator teeth
B. thermal relay C. helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor
C. centrifugal switch teeth to remain under the stator teeth
D. none of the above D. improves the power factor
Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary In a ceilingfan employing capacitor run
winding of the motor at about ______ percent of motor____________?
synchronous speed? A. secondary winding surrounds the
A. 30 to 40 primary winding
B. 70 to 80 B. primary winding surrounds the secondary winding
C. 80 to 90 C. both are usual arrangements
D. 100 D. none of the above
Which of the following motors is used in a The speed/load characteristics of a universal
situation where load increases with speed ? motor is same as that of_____________?
A. Induction motor A. A.C. motor
B. Three-phase series motor B. D.C. shunt motor
C. Schrage motor C. D.C. series motor
D. Hysteresis motor D. none of the above
Which of the following motors is used for unity The shaded pole motor is used for__________?
power factor ? A. high starting torque
A. Hysteresis motor B. low starting torque
B. Schrage motor C. medium starting torque
C. Universal motor D. very high starting torque
D. Reluctance motor If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80
In repulsion motor, zero torque is developed percent of synchronous speed of motor, it would
when___________? result in_________?
A. brush axis is 45° electrical to field axis A. damage to the starting winding
B. brush axis coincides with the field axis B. damage to the centrifugal switch
C. brush axis is 90° electrical to field axis C. overloading of running winding
D. both B. and (c) D. none of the above
The motor used for the compressors Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion
is____________? induction motor is similar to that of a
A. d.c. series motor D.C____________?
B. shaded pole motor A. shunt motor
C. capacitor-start capacitor-run motor B. series motor
D. reluctance motor C. compound motor
The purpose of stator winding in the compensated D. separately excited motor
repulsion motor is to_____________? In split phase motor main winding is of
A. provide mechanical balance _____________?
B. improve power factor and provide better A. thin wire placed at the top of the slots
speed regulation B. thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
C. prevent hunting in the motor C. thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
D. eliminate armature reaction D. thick wire placed at the top of the” slots

70
In repulsion motor, maximum torque is developed C. slightly more than full load current
when____________? D. several times the full load current
A. brush axis is at 45° electrical to the field Which of the following statements regarding
axis repulsion-start induction motor is incorrect ?
B. brush axis coincides with the field axis A. It requires more maintenance of commutator
C. brush axis is at 90° electrical to the field axis and other mechanical devices
D. none of the above B. It makes quite a bit of noise on starting
The rotor of a hysteresis motor is made C. In fractional horse power motors, it has
of___________? replaced the capacitor motors
A. aluminium D. It is not easily reversed
B. cast iron After the starting winding of a single phase
C. chrome steel induction motor is disconnected from supply, it
D. copper continues to run only on ______________?
Which of the following applications always have A. running winding
some load whenever switched on ? B. rotor winding
A. Vacuum cleaners C. field winding
B. Fan motors D. compensating winding
C. Pistol drills A.C. series motor as compared to D.C. series
D. All of the above motor has__________?
Torque developed by a single phase induction A. smaller brush width
motor at starting is_____________? B. less number of field turns
A. pulsating C. more number of armature turns
B. uniform D. less air gap
C. none of the above E. all of the above
D. nil Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for high-
The speed control of universal motor used for quality record players and tape-recorders
sewing machines is by____________? because___________?
A. friction A. it revolves synchronously
B. varying the resistance B. it is not subject to any magnetic or
C. tapping the field mechanical vibrations
D. centrifugal mechanism C. it can be easily manufactured in extremely small
The electric motor used in portable drills sizes of up to 1 W output
is__________? D. it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely
A. capacitor run motor steady both in amplitude and phase
B. hysteresis motor Which of the following statements regarding
C. universal motor single-phase induction motors correct?
D. repulsion motor A. It requires only one winding
In a hysteresis motor, the rotor must B. It can rotate in one direction only
have____________? C. It is self-starting
A. retentivity D. It is not self-starting
B. resistivity Speed control of a universal motor is achieved
C. susceptibility by__________?
D. none of the above A. varying field flux with tapped field windings
Locked rotor current of a shaded pole motor B. connecting rheostat in series
is____________? C. applying variable voltage by means of silicon
A. equal to full load current controlled rectifier
B. less than full load current D. applying variable voltage by means of variable

71
auto-transformer When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C.
E. all of the above methods supply, the power factor will be low because
Which of the following statements regarding of____________?
hysteresis motor is in incorrect? A. high inductance of field and armature
A. It is extremely sensitive to fluctuations in circuits
supply voltage B. induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
B. Its high starting torque is due to its high rotor C. fine copper wire winding
hysteresis loss D. none of the above
C. It is extremely quiet in operation In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no
D. It accelerates from rest to full-speed almost teeth or winding ?
instantaneously A. Split phase motor
The starting winding of a single-phase motor is B. Reluctance motor
placed in_________? C. Hysteresis motor
A. armature D. Universal motor
B. field The speed of a universal motor is generally
C. rotor reduced by using_________?
D. stator A. gear trains
The speed of a universal motor is usually reduced B. V-belts
by using____________? C. brakes
A. gearing D. chains
B. belts Which of the following single-phase motors has
C. brakes relatively poor starting torque ?
D. chains A. Universal motor
A reluctance motor____________? B. Repulsion motor
A. is self-starting C. Capacitor motor
B. is constant speed motor D. All single phase motors have zero starting torque
C. needs no D.C. excitation Which of the following motors can be used for
D. all of the above unity power factor ?
Which motor is normally free from mechanical A. Capacitor run motor
and magnetic vibrations ? B. Shaded pole motor
A. Split phase motor C. Hysteresis motor
B. Universal motor D. Schrage motor
C. Hysteresis motor Which type of load is offered by cranes and hoists
D. Shaded pole motor ?
As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical A. Gradually varying load
and magnetic vibrations therefore these are B. Non-reversing, no-load start
considered as suitable for__________? C. Reversing, light start
A. fans D. Reversing, heavy start
B. blowers The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be
C. sound equipment in the range_________?
D. mixer grinders A. 200 to 250 W
The direction of rotation of universal motor can B. 250 to 500 W
be reversed the by reversing the flow of current C. 50 to 150 W
through__________? D. 10 to 20 W
A. armature winding The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing
B. field winding machine will be around__________?
C. either armature winding or field winding A. 100 to 150 W
D. none of the above B. 40 to 75 W

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C. 10 to 30 W C. ceramic type
D. 5 to 10 W D. a.c. electrolytic type
In case of high speed universal motor which of the In split-phase motor auxiliary winding is
following needs more attention? of___________?
A. End play A. thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
B. Air gap B. thick wire placed at the top of the slots
C. Insulation in rotor C. thin wire placed at the top of the slots
D. Balancing of rotor D. thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
The repulsion-start induction-run motor is used Single phase induction motor usually operates
because of___________? on__________?
A. good power factor A. 0.6 power factor lagging
B. high efficiency B. 0.8 power factor lagging
C. minimum cost C. 0.8 power factor leading
D. high starting torque D. unity power factor
In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of Which of the following motors will operate at high
rotation of the motor is__________? power factor ?
A. from main pole to shaded pole A. Shaped pole motor
B. from shaded pole to main pole B. Split phase motor
C. either of the above depending on voltage C. Capacitor start motor
D. either of the above depending on power factor D. Capacitor run motor
Which of the following single-phase induction Which of the following single-phase motors is
motors is generally used in time phonographs ? suitable for timing and control purposes ?
A. Resistance start A. Reluctance motor
B. Capacitor start capacitor run B. Series motor
C. Shaded pole C. Repulsion motor
D. Universal D. Universal motor
Which of the following motors has highest starting A schrage motor can run on___________?
torque ? A. zero slip
A. Repulsion motor B. negative slip
B. Shaped pole motor C. positive slip
C. Capacitor-start motor D. all of the above
D. Split-phase motor A universal motor can run on___________?
Which of the following motors can be run on AC. A. A.C. only
as well as D.C. supply ? B. D.C. only
A. Universal motor C. either A.C. or D.C.
B. Repulsion motor D. none of the above
C. Synchronous motor Which of the following motors is preferred for
D. Reluctance motor tape-recorders ?
In A.C. series motor compensating winding is A. Shaded pole motor
employed to_____________? B. Hysteresis motor
A. reduce the effects of armature reaction C. Two value capacitor motor
B. increase the torque D. Universal motor
C. reduce sparking at the brushes A single-phase induction motor is__________?
D. none of the above A. inherently self-starting with high torque
In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used B. inherently self-starting with low torque
for running purposes is_______________? C. inherently non-self-starting with low torque
A. air capacitor D. inherently non-self-starting with high torque
B. paper spaced oil filled type

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For which of the applications a reluctance motor The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors
is preferred ? is______________?
A. Electric shavers A. 95% to 99%
B. Refrigerators B. 80% to 90%
C. Signalling and timing devices C. 50% to 75%
D. Lifts and hoists D. 5% to 35%
The motor used on small lathes is Burning out of winding is due
usually_________? to___________?
A. universal motor A. short circuited capacitor
B. D.C. shunt motor B. capacitor value hiving changed
C. single-phase capacitor run motor C. open circuiting of capacitor
D. 3-phase synchronous motor D. none of the above
A hysteresis motor works on the principle Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be
of__________? reversed by reversing the connection
A. hysteresis loss of__________?
B. magnetisation of rotor A. running winding only
C. eddy current loss B. starting winding only
D. electromagnetic induction C. either A. or (b)
Which of the following motor will give the highest D. both A. and (b)
starting torque ? Which of the following motors is inherently self
A. D.C. shunt motor starting ?
B. Schrage motor A. Split motor
C. Repulsion start and induction run motor B. Shaded-pole motor
D. Universal motor C. Reluctance motor
The power factor of a single-phase induction D. None of these
motor is usually? The direction of rotation of an hysteresis motor is
A. lagging determined by____________?
B. always leading A. interchanging the supply leads
C. unity B. position of shaded pole with respect to
D. unity to 0.8 leading main pole
A shaded pole motor can be used C. retentivity of the rotor material
for_____________? D. none of these
A. toys A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is
B. hair dryers switched on to supply with its capacitor replaced
C. circulators by an inductor of equivalent reactance value. It
D. any of the above will______________?
In a capacitor start single-phase motor, when A. start and then stop
capacitor is replaced by a B. start and run slowly
resistance____________? C. start and run at rated speed
A. torque will increase D. not start at all
B. the motor will consume less power Which of the following motors is used in mixies ?
C. motor will run in reverse direction A. Repulsion motor
D. motor will continue to run in same direction B. Reluctance motor
Short-circuiter is used in_____________? C. Hysteresis motor
A. repulsion induction motor D. Universal motor
B. repulsion motor In a single phase motor the centrifugal
C. repulsion start induction run motor switch____________?
D. none of the above

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A. disconnects auxiliary winding of the A. Capacitor run motor
motor B. Shaded pole motor
B. disconnects main winding of the motor C. Capacitor start motor
C. reconnects the main winding the motor D. Split phase motor
D. reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor In a shaded pole motor, the shading coil usually
The running winding of a single phase motor on consist of___________?
testing with meggar is found to be ground. Most A. a single turn of heavy wire which is in
probable location of the ground will parallel with running winding
be___________? B. a single turn of heavy copper wire which is
A. at the end connections short-circuited and carries only induced current
B. at the end terminals C. a multilayer fine gauge copper wire in parallel
C. anywhere on the winding inside a slot with running winding
D. at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out D. none of the above
of the slot The rotor developed by a single-phase motor at
The value of starting capacitor of a fractional starting is___________?
horse power motor will be__________? A. more than i.he rated torque
A. 100 uF B. rated torque
B. 200 uF C. less than the rated torque
C. 300 uF D. zero
D. 400 uF In a split phase motor____________?
In repulsion motor direction of rotation of A. the starting winding is connected through
motor____________? a centrifugal switch
A. is opposite to that of brush shift B. the running winding is connected through a
B. is the same as that of brush shift centrifugal switch
C. is independent of brush shift C. both starting and running windings are connected
A centrifugal switch is used to dis- connect through a centrifugal switch
‘starting winding when motor has___________? D. centrifugal switch is used to control supply
A. run for about 1 minute voltage
B. run for about 5 minutes If the capacitor of a single-phase motor is short-
C. picked up about 50 to 70 per cent of rated circuited_________?
speed A. the motor will not start
D. picked up about 10 to 25 per cent of rated speed B. the motor will run
In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving C. the motor will run in reverse direction
field is produced by the use of_________? D. the motor will run in the same direction at reduced
A. inductor r.p.m
B. capacitor In a capacitor start and run motors the function of
C. resistor the running capacitor in series with the auxiliary
D. shading coils winding is to_______________?
If a particular application needs high speed and A. improve power factor
high starting torque, then which of the following B. increase overload capacity
motor will be preferred ? C. reduce fluctuations in torque
A. Universal motor D. to improve torque
B. Shaded pole type motor In a split phase motor, the running winding
C. Capacitor start motor should have?
D. Capacitor start and run motor A. high resistance and low inductance
Which of the following motor will have relatively B. low resistance and high inductance
higher power factor ? C. high resistance as well as high inductance
D. low resistance as well as low inductiance

75
In capacitor start single-phase A synchronous motor which works on a leading
motors____________? power factor and does not drive a mechanical load
A. current in the starting winding leads the is called as_________?
voltage A. static condenser
B. current in the starting winding lags the voltage B. condenser
C. current in the starting winding is in phase with C. synchronous condenser
voltage in running winding D. none of the above
D. none of the above If the synchronous motor, properly synchronised
In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement to the supply is running on no load and is having
between starting and running winding can be negligible loss then_____________?
nearly__________? A. the stator current will be zero
A. 10° B. the stator current will be very small
B. 30° C. the stator current will be very high
C. 60° D. the back e.m.f. will be more than the supply
D. 90° voltage
Which of the following motor will give relatively E. none of the above
high starting torque ___________? The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous
A. Capacitor start motor motor is defined as the angle between
B. Capacitor run motor the__________?
C. Split phase motor A. rotor and stator teeth
D. Shaded pole motor B. rotor and the stator poles of opposite
polarity
C. rotor and the stator poles of the same polarity
CHAPTER # SYNCHRONOUS D. none of the above
MOTORS The maximum torque which a synchronous motor
A synchronous motor can develop synchronous will develop at rest for any angular position of the
torque: rotor, at rated stator supply voltage and
A. when under loaded frequency, is known as__________?
B. while over-excited A. locked-rotor torque
C. only at synchronous speed B. synchronous torque
D. below or above synchronous speed C. pull up torque
The maximum power developed in a synchronous D. reluctance torque
motor will depend on__________? If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole
A. the rotor excitation only synchronous motor is open circuited, the motor
B. the supply voltage only will__________?
C. the rotor excitation and supply volt-age both
D. the rotor excitation, supply voltage and A. stop
B. run as induction motor
maximum value of coupling angle (90°) C. function as static condenser
E. none of the above D. burn with dense smoke
In a synchronous motor, the breakdown torque A synchronous machine with low value of short-
is__________? circuit ratio has___________?
A. directly proportional to the square of the A. lower stability limit
applied voltage B. high stability limit
B. directly proportional to applied voltage C. good speed regulation
C. inversely proportional to applied voltage D. good voltage regulation
D. none of the above E. none of the above
The maximum constant load torque under which
a synchronous motor will pull into synchronism at

76
rated rotor supply voltage and frequency is known D. rotor excitation
as___________? E. none of the above
A. pull-up torque If the field of a synchronous motor is
B. pull-in torque underexcited, the power factor will
C. pull-out torque be_____________?
D. none of the above A. zero
The construction of a synchronous motor B. unity
resembles____________? C. lagging
A. a series motor D. leading
B. an induction motor In a synchronous motor, the damping winding is
C. an alternator generally used to______________?
D. a rotary converter A. reduce noise level
For power factor correction, synchronous motors B. reduce the eddy currents
operate at____________? C. provide starting torque only
A. no-load and greatly over-excited fields D. prevent hunting and provide the starting
B. no-load and under-excited fields torque
C. normal load with minimum excitation E. none of the above
D. normal load with zero excitation In a synchronous motor it the back e.m.f.
Which of the following losses is not dissipated by generated in the armature at noload is
the stator core surface in a synchronous motor? approximately equal to the applied voltage, then
A. Eddy current losses in the conductors A. the motor is said to be fully loaded
B. Iron losses in the stator B. the torque generated is maximum
C. Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors C. the excitation is said to be zero per cent
D. Windage losses D. the excitation is said to be hundred per cent
E. None of the above In a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor,
The size of a synchronous motor decreases with the frequency, pole number and load torque all
the increase in___________? are halved. The motor speed will
A. flux density be____________?
B. horse power rating A. 3000 r.p.m.
C. speed B. 1500 r.p.m.
D. all of the above C. 750 r.p.m.
Which of the following losses, in a synchronous D. none of the above
motor, does not vary with load? In a synchronous motor, V-curves represent
A. Windage loss relation between____________?
B. Copper losses A. armature current and field current
C. Any of the above B. power factor and speed
D. None of the above C. field current and speed
In a synchronous motor, the armature current has D. field current and power factor
large values for____________? By which of the following methods the constant
A. high excitation only speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to
B. low excitation only new fixed value ?
C. both high and low excitation A. By changing the supply frequency
D. none of the above B. By interchanging any two phases
The back e.m.f. in the stator of a synchronous C. By changing the applied voltage
motor depends on____________? D. By changing the load
A. number of poles The torque angle, in a synchronous motor, is the
B. flux density angle between_______________?
C. rotor speed

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A. the supply voltage and the back e.m.f. A. D.C. motor
B. magnetising current and back e.m.f. B. Reluctance motor
C. the rotating stator flux and rotor poles C. Universal motor
D. none of the above D. Synchronous motor
A 3-phase synchronous motor is running E. Induction motor
clockwise. If the direction of its field current is If the field circuit of an unloaded salientpole
reversed synchronous motor gets suddenly open-circuited,
A. the motor will stop then
B. the motor continue to run in the same A. it runs at a slower speed
direction B. the motor stops
C. the winding of the motor will burn C. it continues to run at the same speed
D. the motor will run in the reverse direction D. it runs at a very high speed
E. none of the above A synchronous motor is running with normal
The net armature voltage of a synchronous motor excitation. When the load is increased, the
is equal to the_______________? armature current drawn by it increases
A. vector sum of Eb and V because
B. arithmetic sum of Eb and V A. speed of the motor is reduced
C. arithmetic difference of Eb and V B. power factor is decreased
D. vector difference of Eh and V C. Eb (back e.m.f.) becomes less than V (applied
In a synchronous motor, damper windings are voltage)
provided on____________? D. Er (net resultant voltage) in armature is
A. stator frame increased
B. rotor shaft E. none of the above
C. pole faces If in a synchronous motor, driving a given
D. none of the above mechanical load and drawing current at a leading
In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the negative power factor from constant voltage supply its field
phase sequence exists when the motor excitation is increased, its power factor
is_______________? A. will become more
A. supplied with unbalanced voltage B. will become less
B. under-loaded C. will remain unchanged
C. over-loaded D. none of the above.
D. none of the above Stability of a synchronous machine:
Due to which of the following reasons a A. decreases with increase in its excitation
synchronous motor fails to pull into synchronism B. increases with increase in its excitation
after applying D.C. field current? C. remains unaffected with increase in excitation
A. High field current D. any of the above
B. Low short circuit ratio If excitation of a synchronous motor running with
C. High core losses a constant load is decreased from its normal value,
D. Low field current ignoring effects of armature reaction, it leads
A rotory converter can also be run as to____________?
a___________? A. increase in both armature current and
A. d.c. shunt motor power factor angle
B. d.c. series motor B. increase in back e.m.f. but decrease in armature
C. d.c. compound motor current
D. induction motor C. increase in both armature current and power factor
E. synchronous motor which is lagging
In which of the following motors the stator and D. increase in torque angle but decrease in back
rotor fields rotate simultaneously? e.m.f.

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While starting a salient pole synchronous motor C. thrice
by induction motor action and connecting field D. six times
discharge resistance across field, starting and E. nine times
accelerating torque is produced A synchronous machine with large air gap
by_____________? has______________?
A. induction motor torque in field winding A. a higher value of stability limit
B. induction motor torque in damper winding B. a small value of inherent regulation
C. eddy current and hysteresis torque in pole faces C. a higher synchronizing power which makes the
D. reHetance motor torque due to saliency of the machine less sensitive to load variations
rotor D. all of the above
E. all of the above methods To limit the operating temperature an electrical
A synchronous motor installed at the receiving machine should have proper____________?
end substation operates with such an excitation A. voltage rating
that it takes power at lagging power factor. Now if B. current rating
the applied voltage of the synchronous motor goes C. power factor
down, the power factor of the synchronous motor D. speed
will___________? When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor
A. remain same is increased, which of the following will reduce?
B. go down A. Stator flux
C. improve B. Pull in torque
D. none of the above C. Both A. and (b)
Which of the following motors will be used in D. None of the above
electric clocks? An over excited synchronous motor is used
A. D.C. shunt motor for____________?
B. D.C. series motor A. fluctuating loads
C. A.C. induction motor B. variable speed loads
D. A.C. synchronous motor C. low torque loads
Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity D. power factor corrections
when_____________? Slip rings are usually made of__________?
A. the armature current is maximum A. carbon or graphite
B. the armature current is minimum B. brass or steel
C. the armature current is zero C. silver or gold
D. none of the above D. copper or aluminium
Which of the following methods is used to start a A synchronous motor has better power factor as
synchronous motor? compared to that of an equivalent induction
motor. This is mainly because?
A. synchronous motor has no slip
A. Damper winding B. stator supply is not required to produce
B. Star-delta starter magnetic field
C. Damper winding in conjunction with star-delta C. mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
starter D. synchronous motor has large airgap
D. Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Synchronous motors are_____________?
In a synchronous motor running with fixed
A. not-self starting
excitation, when the load is increased three times,
B. self-starting
its torque angle becomes approximately
C. essentially self-starting
A. one-third
D. none of the above
B. twice
Synchronsizing power of a synchronous machine
is_____________?

79
A. direcly proportional to the synchronous A synchronous motor can operate
reactance at____________?
B. inversely proportional to the synchronous A. lagging power factor only
reactance B. leading power factor only
A. equal to the synchronous reactance C. unity power factor only
D. none of the above D. lagging, leading and unity power factors
If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole synchronous
When the stator windings are connected in such a motor is 6° electrical, its value in mechanical
fashion that the number of poles are made half, degrees is__________?
the speed of the rotor of a synchronous A. 2
motor___________? B. 3
A. remains same as the original value C. 4
B. decreases to half the original value D. 6
C. tends to becomes zero The minimum armature current of the
D. increases to two times the original value synchronous motor corresponds to operation
When load on an over-excited or under excited at______________?
synchronous*motor is increased, rate of change of A. zero power factor leading
its armature current as compared with that of B. unity power factor
power factor is___________? C. 0.707 power factor lagging
A. more D. 0.707 power factor leading
B. less Synchronous motor always runs
C. equal at______________?
D. twice A. the synchronous speed
Riunting in a synchronous motor takes B. less than synchronous speed
place___________? C. more than synchronous speed
A. when supply voltage fluctuates D. none of the above
B. when load varies Under which of the following conditions hunting
C. when power factor is unity of synchronous motor is likely to occur?
D. motor is under loaded A. Periodic variation of load
The percentage slip in case of a synchronous B. Over-excitation
motor is____________? C. Over-loading for long periods
A. 1% D. Small and constant load
B. 100% A synchronous motor is running on a load with
C. 0.5% normal excitation. Now if the load on the motor is
D. zero increased
When the field of a synchronous motor is under- A. power factor as well as armature current will
excited, the power factor will be____________? decrease
A. leading B. power factor as well as armature current will
B. lagging increase
C. unity C. power factor will increase but armature current
D. zero will decrease
The oscillations in a synchronous motor can be D. power factor will decrease and armature
damped out by_______________? current will increase
A. maintaining constant excitation As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the
B. running the motor on leading power factors motor takes more armature current because
C. providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces A. the increased load has to take more current
D. oscillations cannot be damped B. the rotor by shifting its phase backward
causes motor to take more current

80
C. the back e.m.f. decreases causing an increase in D. turbine
motor current E. none of the above
D. the rotor strengthens the rotating field casuing In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator
more motor current back e.m.f. & depends on_______________?
The power developed by a synchronous motor will A. d.c. excitation only
be maximum when the load angle B. speed of the motor
is____________? C. load on the motor
A. zero D. both the speed and rotor flux
B. 45° The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends
C. 90° on______________?
D. 120° A. speed
A synchronous motor can be started by________? B. load
A. pony motor C. load angle
B. D.C. compound motor D. all of the above
C. providing damper winding A synchronous motor can be made self starting by
D. any of the above providing?
A pony motor is basically a_________? A. damper winding on rotor poles
A. small induction motor B. damper winding on stator
B. D.C. series motor C. damper winding on stator as well as rotor poles
C. D.C. shunt motor D. none of the above
D. double winding A.C./D.C. motor The shaft of synchronous motor is made
When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole of____________?
synchronous motor suddenly gets A. mild steel
disconnected______________? B. chrome steel
A. the motor stops C. alnico
B. it runs as a reluctance motor at the same D. stainless steel
speed The operating speed of a synchronous motor can
C. it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed be changed to new fixed value
D. none of the above by___________?
A synchronous motor can be used as a A. changing the load
synchronous capacitor when it is____________? B. changing the supply voltage
A. under-loaded C. changing frequency
B. over-loaded D. using brakes
C. under-excited The maximum power developed in a synchronous
D. over-excited motor occurs at a coupling angle of____________?
Mostly, synchronous motors are A. 30°
of_____________? B. 60°
A. alternator type machines C. 90°
B. induction type machines D. 180°
C. salient pole type machines In which of the following motors the stator and
D. smooth cylindrical type machines rotor magnetic field rotate at the same speed?
The working of a synchronous motor is similar A. Universal motor
to_____________? B. Synchronous motor
A. gear train arrangement C. Induction motor
B. transmission of mechanical power by D. Reluctance motor
shaft A synchronous motor running with normal
C. distribution transformer excitation adjusts to load increases essentially by
increase in______________?

81
A. back e.m.f. If one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous motor is
B. armature current short-circuited, motor will ______________?
C. power factor A. will refuse to start
D. torque angle B. will overheat in spots
The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous C. will not come upto speed
motor will usually fall in range___________? D. will fail to pull into step
A. 60 to 70% The maximum speed variation in a 3-phase
B. 75 to 80% synchronous motor is____________?
C. 85 to 95% A. 10 per cent
D. 99 to 99.5% B. 6 per cent
The armature current of the synchronous motor C. 4 per cent
has higher values for_____________? D. 2. per cent
A. high excitation only E. zero
B. low excitation only In a synchronous motor, the maximum power
C. both A. and (b) developed depends on all of the following
D. none of the above except:
When the rotor speed, in a synchronous machine, A. rotor excitation
becomes more than the synchronous speed during B. maximum value of coupling angle
hunting, the damper bars C. direction of rotation
develop_________________? D. supply voltage
A. inductor motor torque The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous
B. induction generator torque motor running with normal excitation is
C. synchronous motor torque to___________?
D. d.c. motor toque A. decrease both armature current and power
E. none of the above factor
While starting a synchronous motor by induction B. decrease armature current but increase power
motor action, field winding is factor
usually_____________? C. increase armature current but decrease power
A. connected to D.C. supply factor
B. short-circuited by low resistance D. increase both its armature current and power
C. kept open-circuited factor
D. none of the above In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator
Armature of a synchronous machine back e.m.f. Eb depends on___________?
is____________? A. load on the motor
A. of reducing number of slip rings on the rotor B. d.c. excitation only
B. armature is associated with large power as C. both the speed and rotor flux
compared to the field circuits D. none of the above
C. of difficulty of providing high voltage insulation Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot be due
on rotor to___________?
D. all of the above reasons A. windage friction
The power factor of a synchronous motor is better B. variable load
than that of induction motor because C. variable frequency
A. stator supply is relieved of responsibility D. variable supply voltage
of producing magnetic field A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-
B. mechanical load on the motor can be adjusted bars has at constant full load, 100% excitation and
C. synchronous motor runs at synchronous speed unity power factor. On changing the excitation
D. synchronous motor has large air gap only, the armature current will
have_____________?

82
A. no change of power factor The ratio of starting torque to running torque in a
B. lagging power factor with over-excitation synchronous motor is____________?
C. leading power factor with under-excitation A. zero
D. leading power factor with over-excitation B. one
A synchronous motor develops maximum power C. two
when load angle is____________? D. infinity
A. 45° The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous motor
B. 60° working on leading power factor will
C. 90° be_____________?
D. 120° A. more than the supply voltage
The armature current of the synchronous B. less than the supply voltage
motor C. equal to the supply voltage
A. has large values for low excitation i niy D. None of these
B. has large values for high excitation only Which of the following resistances can be
C. has large values for low and high excitation measured by conducting insulation resistance test
D. any of the above on a synchronous motor ?
Exciters of synchronous machines A. Phase to phase winding resistance
are______________? B. Stator winding to earthed frame
A. d.c. series machines C. Rotor winding to earthed shaft
B. d.c. shunt machines D. All of the above
C. d.c. compound machines The speed of a synchronous motor:
D. any of the above A. increases as the load increases
The duration of sudden snort-circuit test on a B. decreases as the load decreases
synchronous motor is usually C. always remains constant
about_____________? D. none of the above
A. one hour When a 3-phase synchronous generator is
B. one minute supplying a zero power factor lagging load, the
C. one second armature field affects the main field in the
D. none of the above following way
The maximum value of torque that a synchronous A. augments it directly
motor can develop without losing its synchronism, B. directly opposes it
is known as_____________? C. cross-magnetises it
A. slip torque D. none of the above
B. pull-out torque If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical
C. breaking torque load and drawing current at lagging power factor
D. synchronising torque from constant voltage supply, its field excitation is
Which of the following motors is non-self starting increased, then its power factor__________?
? A. become more
A. D.C. series motor B. become less
B. synchronous motor C. remain constant
C. Squirrel cage induction motor D. none of the above
D. Wound round induction motor Change of D.C. excitation of a synchronous motor
The magnitude of field flux in a 3-phase changes:
synchronous motor? A. applied voltage of the motor
A. varies with power factor B. power factor of power drawn by the
B. varies with speed motor
C. varies with the load C. motor speed
D. remains constant at all loads

83
D. none of the these
E. all of the these
The mechanical displacement of the rotor with A. supply voltage fluctuates
respect to the stator, in polyphase multipolar B. load in motor varies
synchronous motors running at full load, is of the C. excitation winding gets disconnected
order of_____________? D. supply voltage frequency changes
The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is
A. zero degree
always___________?
B. two degrees
A. 1%
C. five degrees
B. 0.5%
D. ten degrees
C. positive
An important advantage of a synchronous motor
D. zero
over wound round induction motor is that
. In a synchronous motor which loss varies with
A. its power factor may be varied at will
load ?
B. its speed is independent of supply frequency
A. Windage loss
C. its speed may be controlled more easily
B. Bearing friction loss
D. none of the above
C. Copper loss
The angle between the rotating stator flux and
D. Core loss
rotor poles is called _________ angle.
For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph
A. synchronizing
is drawn between:_______________?
B. obtuse
A. armature current and power factor
C. torque
B. terminal voltage and load factor
D. power factor
C. power factor and field current
Slip-rings in a synchronous motor
D. field current and armature current
carry____________?
An over-excited synchronous motor
A. direct current
takes__________?
B. alternating current
A. leading current
C. no current
B. lagging current
D. all of the above
C. both A. and (b)
A synchronous motor working at leading power
D. none of the above
factor can be used as____________?
The synchronous motor is not inherently self-
A. voltage booster
starting because_______________?
B. phase advancer
A. the force required to accelerate the rotor
C. noise generator
to the synchronous speed in an instant is
D. mechanical synchronizer
absent
The standard full-load power factor ratings for
B. the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near
synchronous motors are___________?
synchronous speed is absent
A. zero or 0.8 leading
C. a rotating magnetic field does not have enough
B. unity or 0.8 lagging
poles
C. unity or 0.8 leading
D. the rotating magnetic field is produced by only 50
D. unity or zero
Hz frequency currents
The rotor copper losses, in a synchronous motor,
When V is the applied voltage, then the
are met by____________?
breakdown torque of a synchronous motor varies
A. d.c. source
as_________?
B. armature input
A. V
C. motor input
B. V312
D. supply lines
C. V2
A synchronous motor will always stop
D. 1/V
when:______________?

84
A three-phase synchronous motor will C. both current controlled and voltage controlled
have_____________? resistor
A. no slip-rings D. none of the above
B. one slip-ring Kirchhoff s current law states that
C. two slip-rings A. net current flow at the junction is positive
D. three slip-rings B. Hebraic sum of the currents meeting at
In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous the junction is zero
motor is short-circuited the motor C. no current can leave the junction without some
will____________? current entering it.
A. not start D. total sum of currents meeting at the junction is
B. run at 2/3 of synchronous speed zero
C. run with excessive vibrations An ideal voltage source should
D. take less than the rated load have______________?
Synchronous motors are generally not self- A. large value of e.m.f.
starting because: B. small value of e.m.f.
A. the direction of rotation is not fixed C. zero source resistance
B. the direction of instantaneous torque D. infinite source resistance
reverses after half cycle Which of the following is non-linear circuit
C. startes cannot be used on these machines parameter?
D. starting winding is not provided on the machines A. Inductance
B. Condenser
CHAPTER # NETWORK THEOREMS C. Wire wound resistor
If the energy is supplied from a source, whose D. Transistor
resistance is 1 ohm, to a load of 100 ohms the Kirchhoff s law is not applicable to circuits
source will be___________? with____________?
A. a voltage source A. lumped parameters
B. a current source B. passive elements
C. both of above C. distributed parameters
D. none of the above D. non-linear resistances
An ideal voltage source has__________? For high efficiency of transfer of power, internal
A. zero internal resistance resistance of the source should be____________?
B. open circuit voltage equal to the voltage on A. equal to the load resistance
full load B. less than the load resistance
C. terminal voltage in proportion to current C. more than the load resistance
D. terminal voltage in proportion to load D. none of the above
Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in
yields:________________? the same current path must be in___________?
A. equivalent current source and impedance A. series with each other
in parallel B. parallel with each other
B. equivalent current source and impedance in series C. series with the voltage source
C. equivalent impedance D. parallel with the voltage source
D. equivalent current source The superposition theorem is applicable
A linear resistor having 0 < R < °o is to____________?
a______________? A. linear, non-linear and time variant responses
A. current controlled resistor B. linear and non-linear resistors only
B. voltage controlled resistor C. linear responses only
D. none of the above

85
Between the branch voltages of a loop the output resistance of the network as seen from the
Kirchhoff s voltage law imposes_____________? terminals of the load”. The above statement is
A. non-linear constraints associated with____________?
B. linear constraints 0
C. no constraints
D. none of the above A. Millman’s theorem
Which of the following is a bilateral B. Thevenin’s theorem
element? C. Superposition theorem
A. Constant current source D. Maximum power transfer theorem
A capacitor is generally a____________?
B. Constant voltage source
A. bilateral and active component
C. Capacitance
B. active, passive, linear and nonlinear
D. None of the above
component
Choose the incorrect statement: A branch formed
C. linear and bilateral component
by the parallel connection………
D. non-linear and active component
A. A branch formed by the parallel
Kirchhoff s law is applicable
connection of any resistor R and open circuit
to____________?
has the characteristic of an open circuit.
A. passive networks only
B. A branch formed by the parallel connection of any
B. a.c. circuits only
resistor R and a short circuit has the characteristic of
C. d.c. circuits only
a short circuit.
D. both a.c. as well d.c. circuits
C. A branch formed by the series connection of any
The superposition theorem is applicable
resistor R and an open circuit has the characteristic of
to____________?
an open circuit.
A. linear, non-linear and time variant responses
D. A branch formed by the series connection of any
B. linear and non-linear resistors only
resistor R and a short circuit has the characteristic of
C. linear responses only
resistor R.
D. none of the above
According to Kirchhoffs voltage law, the algebraic
Between the branch voltages of a loop the
sum of all IR drops and e.m.fs. in any closed loop
Kirchhoff s voltage law
of a network is always____________?
imposes_____________?
A. negative
A. non-linear constraints
B. positive
B. linear constraints
C. determined by battery e.m.fs.
C. no constraints
D. zero
D. none of the above
The concept on which Superposition theorem is
Which of the following is a bilateral
based on_____________?
element?
A. reciprocity
A. Constant current source
B. duality
B. Constant voltage source
C. non-linearity
C. Capacitance
D. linearity
D. None of the above
For a voltage source:
Choose the incorrect statement: A branch formed
A. terminal voltage is always lower than source
by the parallel connection………
e.m.f.
A. A branch formed by the parallel
B. terminal voltage cannot be higher than source
connection of any resistor R and open circuit
e.m.f.
has the characteristic of an open circuit.
C. the source e.m.f. and terminal voltage are equal
B. A branch formed by the parallel connection of any
D. None
resistor R and a short circuit has the characteristic of
“Maximum power output is obtained from a
a short circuit.
network when the load resistance is equal to the
C. A branch formed by the series connection of any

86
resistor R and an open circuit has the characteristic of A. nonlinear elements only
an open circuit. B. linear elements only
D. A branch formed by the series connection of any C. linear, non-linear, active and passive elements
resistor R and a short circuit has the characteristic of D. linear, non-linear, active, passive, time varying
resistor R. as wells as time-in-variant elements
According to Kirchhoffs voltage law, the algebraic If resistance across LM in Fig. 2.30 is 15 ohms, the
sum of all IR drops and e.m.fs. in any closed loop value of R is____________?
of a network is always____________? A. 10 Q
A. negative B. 20 Q
B. positive C. 30 Q
C. determined by battery e.m.fs. D. 40 Q
D. zero The circuit whose properties are same in either
The concept on which Superposition theorem is direction is known as__________?
based on_____________? A. unilateral circuit
A. reciprocity B. bilateral circuit
B. duality C. irreversible circuit
C. non-linearity D. reversible circuit
D. linearity A non-linear network does not satisfy__________?
For a voltage source: A. superposition condition
A. terminal voltage is always lower than source B. homogeneity condition
e.m.f. C. both homogeneity as well as superposition
B. terminal voltage cannot be higher than source condition
e.m.f. D. homogeneity, superposition and associative
C. the source e.m.f. and terminal voltage are equal condition
D. None A terminal where three on more branches meet is
“Maximum power output is obtained from a known as______________?
network when the load resistance is equal to the A. node
output resistance of the network as seen from the B. terminus
terminals of the load”. The above statement is C. combination
associated with____________? D. anode
A. Millman’s theorem A closed path made by several branches of the
B. Thevenin’s theorem network is known as____________?
C. Superposition theorem A. branch
D. Maximum power transfer theorem B. loop
A capacitor is generally a____________? C. circuit
A. bilateral and active component D. junction
B. active, passive, linear and nonlinear In Thevenin’s theorem, to find Z
component A. all independent current sources are short
C. linear and bilateral component circuited and independent voltage sources are
D. non-linear and active component open circuited
Kirchhoff s law is applicable to____________? B. all independent voltage sources are open circuited
A. passive networks only and all independent current sources are short
B. a.c. circuits only circuited
C. d.c. circuits only C. all independent voltage and current sources are
D. both a.c. as well d.c. circuits short circuited
Kirchhoff s voltage law applies to circuits D. all independent voltage sources are short
with____________? circuited and all independent current sources are
open circuited

87
The superposition theorem requires as many A. equal to load resistance
circuits to be solved as there are____________? B. less than the load resistance
A. sources, nodes and meshes C. greater than the load resistance
B. sources and nodes D. none of the above
C. sources The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-
D. nodes conductor diodes. The circuit will be known
While calculating Rth in Thevenin’s theorem and as___________?
Norton equivalent A. non-linear circuit
A. all independent sources are made dead B. linear circuit
B. only current sources are made dead C. bilateral circuit
C. only voltage sources are made dead D. none of the above
D. all voltage and current sources are made dead A network which contains one or more than one
“In any linear bilateral network, if a source of source of e.m.f. is known as___________?
e.m.f. E in any branch produces a current I in any A. linear network
other branch, then same e.m.f. acting in the B. non-linear network
second branch would produce the same current / C. passive network
in the first branch”. D. active network
The above statement is associated with Millman’s theorem yields____________?
A. compensation theorem A. equivalent resistance
B. superposition theorem B. equivalent impedance
C. reciprocity theorem C. equivalent voltage source
D. none of the above D. equivalent voltage or current source
Kirchhoffs current law is applicable to only The number of independent equations to solve a
A. junction in a network network is equal to_____________?
B. closed loops in a network A. the number of chords
C. electric circuits B. the number of branches
D. electronic circuits C. sum of the number of branches and chords
Thevenin resistance Rth is found D. sum of number of branches, chords and nodes
A. by removing voltage sources along with A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The
their internal resistances equivalent delta elements will
B. by short-circuiting the given two terminals be_____________?
C. between any two ‘open’ terminals A. R/6
D. between same open terminals as for Etk B. fi?
The resistance LM will be____________? C. 2R
A. 6.66 Q D. 4R
B. 12 Q Which of the following is the passive
C. 18Q element?
D. 20Q A. Capacitance
Efficiency of power transfer when maximum B. Ideal current source
transfer of power c xerosis C. Ideal voltage source
A. 100% D. All of the above
B. 80% A passive network is one which
C. 75% contains____________?
D. 50% A. only variable resistances
For maximum transfer of power, internal B. only some sources of e.m.f. in it
resistance of the source should be_____________?

88
C. only two sources of e.m.f. in it CHAPTER # ECONOMICS OF POWER
D. no source of e.m.f. in it GENERATION
“In any network containing more than one Load factor of a power station is
sources of e.m.f. the current in any branch is the generally___________?
algebraic sum of a number of individual fictitious A. equal to unity
currents (the number being equal to the number B. less than unity
of sources of e.m.f.), each of which is due to C. more than unity
separate action of each source of e.m.f., taken in D. equal to zero Diversity factor is always
order, when the remaining sources of e.m.f. are In two part tariff, variation in load factor will
replaced by conductors, the resistances of which affect____________?
are equal to the internal resistances of the A. fixed charges
respective sources”. The above statement is B. operating or running charges
associated with: C. both A. and (b)
A. Thevenin’s theorem D. either A. or (b)
B. Norton’s theorem Which plant can never have 100 percent load
C. Superposition theorem factor?
D. None of the above A. Peak load plant
“Any number of current sources in parallel may B. Base load plant
be replaced by a single current source whose C. Nuclear power plant
current is the algebraic sum of individual source D. Hydro electric plant
currents and source resistance is the parallel Which of the following generating station has
combination of individual source resistances”. minimum running cost ?
This statement is associated with: A. Nuclear
A. Thevenin’s theorem B. Hydro
B. Millman’s theorem C. Thermal
C. Maximum power transfer theorem D. Diesel
D. None of the above Static capacitors are rated in terms
To determine the polarity of the voltage drop of_____________?
across a resistor, it is necessary to A. kW
know___________? B. kWh
A. value of current through the resistor C. kVAR
B. direction of current through the resistor D. none of the above
C. value of resistor For a power plant which of the following
constitutes running cost?
D. e.m.fs. in the circuit
A. Cost of wages
Kirchhoffs voltage law is related
B. Cost of fuel
to_____________?
C. Cost of lubricants
A. junction currents
D. All of the above
B. battery e.m.fs.
Generators for peak load plants are usually
C. IR drops
designed for maximum efficiency
D. both B. and C. at____________?
E. none of the above A. 25 to 50 percent full load
Superposition theorem can be applied only to B. 50 to 75 percent full load
circuits having____________? C. full load
A. resistive elements D. 25 percent overload
B. passive elements A power transformer is usually rated
C. non-linear elements in____________?
D. linear bilateral elements

89
A. kW A. 15 years
B. kVAR B. 30 years
C. kWh C. 60 years
D. kVA
D. 100 years
Most efficient plants are normally used
The load factor of domestic load is
as____________?
usually____________?
A. peak load plants
A. 10 to 15%
B. base load plants
B. 30 to 40%
C. either A. or (b)
C. 50 to 60%
D. none of the above
D. 60 to 70%
In a load curve the highest point
A load curve indicates___________?
represents______________?
A. average power used during the period
A. peak demand
B. average kWh (kW) energy consumption
B. average demand
during the period
C. diversified demand
C. either of the above
D. none of the above
D. none of the above
The primary reason for low power factor is supply
A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges
system is due to installation of____________?
in____________?
A. induction motors
A. flat rate tariff
B. synchronous motors
B. two part tariff
C. single phase motors
C. maximum demand tariff
D. d.c. motors
D. any of the above
The efficiency of a plant is of least concern when it
The area under a load curve gives__________?
is selected as___________?
A. average demand
A. peak load plant
B. energy consumed
B. casual run plant
C. maximum demand
C. either A. or (b)
D. none of the above
D. base load plant
Diversity factor has direct effect on
Which of the following is the disadvantage of
the____________?
static capacitor for power factor
A. fixed cost of unit generated
improvement?
B. running cost of unit generated
A. Easily damaged by high voltage
C. both A. and B.
B. Cannot be repaired
D. neither A. nor B.
C. Short service life
Load curve is useful in deciding
D. All of the above
the_____________?
Which lightening stroke is most dangerous?
A. operating schedule of generating units
A. Direct stroke on line conductor
B. sizes of generating units
B. Indirect stroke on conductor
C. total installed capacity of the plant
C. Direct stroke on tower top
D. all of the above
D. Direct stroke on ground wire
Load curve of a power plant has
For the same cylinder dimensions and speed,
always____________?
which of the following engine will produce least
A. zero slope
power?
B. positive slope
A. Supercharged engine
C. negative slope
B. Diesel engine
D. All of these
C. Petrol engine
Annual depreciation of the plant it proportional to
D. All of the above engines will equal power
the earning capacity of the plant vide
The expected useful life of an hydroelectric power
station is around_________________?

90
A. sinking fund depreciation A. Soap
B. straight line depreciation B. Sugar
C. reducing balances depreciation C. Vegetable oil
D. none of the above D. Caustic soda
Load curve helps in deciding___________? In a power plant if the maximum demand on the
A. total installed capacity of the plant plant is equal to the plant capacity, then
B. sizes of the generating units A. plant reserve capacity will be zero
C. operating schedule of generating units B. diversity factor will be unity
D. all of the above C. load factor will be unity
A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that D. load factor will be nearly 60%
A. plant is used for stand by purpose only For which of the following power plants highly
B. plant is under maintenance skilled engineers are required for running the
C. plant is used for base load only plants?
D. plant is used for peak load as well as base load A. Solar power plants
Low power factor is usually not due B. Gas turbine power plants
to___________? C. Nuclear power plants
A. arc lamps D. Hydro-electric power plants
B. induction motors Large capacity generators are
C. fluorescent tubes invariably___________?
D. incandescent lamp A. water cooled
Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is B. natural air cooled
possible through____________? C. forced air cooled
A. fuel cells D. hydrogen cooled
B. solar cells Which of the following is the disadvantage due to
C. MHD generators low power factor?
D. none of the above A. Poor voltage regulation
power plant is expected to have the longest life? B. Increased transmission losses
A. Steam C. High cost of equipment for a given load
B. Diesel D. All of the above
C. Hydroelectric A synchronous condenser is virtually which of the
D. Any of the above following?
The increased load during summer months is due A. Induction motor
to____________? B. Under excited synchronous motor
A. increased business activity C. Over excited synchronous motor
B. increased water supply D. D.C. generator
C. increased use of fans and air conditioners A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which
D. none of the above of the following reasons?
____________is the reserved generating capacity A. To excite the poles of main exciter
available for service under emergency conditions B. To provide requisite starting torque to main
which is not kept in operation but in working exciter
order. C. To provide requisite starting torque to generator
A. Hot reserve D. None of the above
B. Cold reserve Which of the following are not repayable after a
C. Spinning reserve stipulated period?
D. Firm power A. Shares
__________ industry has the least power B. Fixed deposits
consumption per ton of product? C. Cash certificates
D. Bonds

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In power plants insurance cover is provided for A. Fuel cost
which of the following? B. Interest on capital
A. Unskilled workers only C. Insurance charges
D. Depreciation
B. Skilled workers only
In _________ fuel transportation cost is
C. Equipment only
least.
D. All of the above
A. nuclear power plants
When the demand of consumers is not met by a
B. diesel generating plants
power plant, it will resort to which of the
C. steam power stations
following?
D. None
A. Efficient plant operation
Which of the following, in a thermal power plant,
B. Power factor improvement at the ,
is not a fixed cost?
generators
A. Fuel cost
C. Penalising high load consumers by increasing the
B. Interest on capital
charges for electricity
C. Depreciation
D. Load shedding
D. Insurance charges
An alternator coupled to a __________ runs at
Air will not be the working substance in which of
slow speed, as compared to as compared to
the following?
others.
A. Open cycle gas turbine
A. diesel engine
B. Closed cycle gas turbine
B. hydraulic turbine
C. Diesel engine
C. steam turbine
D. Petrol engine
D. gas turbine
During load shedding:
Which of the following is an advantage of static
A. system power factor is changed
capacitor for power factor improvement?
B. some loads are switched off
A. Little maintenance cost
C. system voltage is reduced
B. Ease in installation
D. system frequency is reduced Efficiency is the
C. Low losses
secondary consideration in
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not a source of power?
The connected load of a IVMIM uir consumer is
A. Thermocouple
around___________?
B. Photovoltaic cell
A. 5 kW
C. Solar cell
B. 40 kV
D. Photoelectric cell
C. 80 kW
_____________can generate power at
D. 120 kW
unpredictable or uncontrolled times?
Which of the following is not an operating cost?
A. Solar power plant
A. Maintenance cost
B. Tidal power plant
B. Fuel cost
C. Wind power plant
C. Salaries of high officials
D. Any of the above
D. Salaries of operating staff
For high value of diversity factor, a power station
In which’of the following power plants the
of given installed capacity will be in a position to
maintenance cost is usually high?
supply?
A. Nuclear power plant
A. less number of consumers
B. Hydro-electric power plants
B. more number of consumers
C. Thermal power plants
C. neither A. nor B.
D. Diesel engine power plants
D. either A. or B.
With reference to a power station which of the
Maximum demand on a power plant
following is not a fixed cost?
is_________________?

92
A. the greatest of all “short time interval Different generating stations use following prime
averaged” demand during a period movers?
B. instantaneous maximum value of kVA A. diesel engine
supplied during a period
B. hydraulic turbine
C. both A. or B.
D. none of the above C. gas turbine
Approximate estimation of power demand can be D. steam turbine
made by_____________? E. any of the above
A. load survey method Following power plant has instant starting?
B. statistical methods A. nuclear power plant
C. mathematical method B. hydro power plant
D. economic parameters C. diesel power plant
E. all of the above D. both B and C
Annual depreciation cost is calculated E. none of the above
by___________? Power plant having maximum demand more than
A. sinking fund method the installed rated capacity will have utilization
B. straight line method factor?
C. both A. and B. A. equal to unity
D. none of the above B. less than unity
Depreciation charges are high in case C. more than unity
of__________? D. none of the above
A. thermal plant Annual operating expenditure of a power plant
B. diesel plant consists of____________?
C. hydroelectric plant A. fixed charges
D. none of these B. semi-fixed charges
High load factor indicates C. running charges
A. average power used during the period D. all of the above
B. average kWh (kW) energy consumption Annual instalment towards depreciation reduces
during the period as rate of interest increases
C. either of the above with______________?
D. none of the above A. sinking fund depreciation
Annual depreciation as per straight line method, B. straight line depreciation
is calculated by__________? C. reducing balances depreciation
A. the capital cost divided by number of year of D. none of the above
life Direct conversion of heat into electric power is
B. the capital cost minus the salvage value, is possible through__________?
divided by the number of years of life A. fuel cell
C. increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at B. batteries
stipulated rate of interest C. thermionic converter
D. none of the above D. all of the above
In Hopkinson demand rate or two part tariff the Which of the following should be used for
demand rate or fixed charges extinguishing electrical fires?
are__________? A. Water
A. dependent upon the energy consumed B. Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher
B. dependent upon the maximum demand of the C. Foam type fire extinguisher
consumer D. CO2 fire extinguisher
C. both A and B Ships are generally powered by___________?
D. neither A nor B A. nuclear power plants
B. hydraulic turbines

93
C. diesel engines C. hydro-electric power plants
D. steam accumulators D. thermal power plants
E. none of the above Which of the following power plants need the least
A nuclear power plant is invariably used as period for installation ?
a__________? A. Thermal power plant
A. peak load plant B. Diesel power plant
B. base load plant C. Nuclear power plant
C. stand-by plant D. Hydro-electric power plant
D. spinning reserve plant __________ is invariably used for peak load
E. any of the above A. Nuclear power plant
___________ will offer the least load. B. Steam turbine plant
A. Vacuum cleaner C. Pumped storage plant
B. Television D. None of the above
C. Hair dryer Which of the following is the essential
D. Electric shaver requirement of peak load plant ?
Which of the following equipment provides A. It should run at high speed
fluctuating load? B. It should produce high voltage
A. Exhaust fan C. It should be small in size
B. Lathe machine D. It should be capable of starting quickly
C. Welding transformer By the use of which of the following power factor
D. All of the above can be improved?
Salvage value of the plant is always____________? A. Phase advancers
A. positive B. Synchronous compensators
B. negative C. Static capacitors
C. zero D. Any of the above
D. any of the above An induction motor has relatively high power
Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and factor at__________?
ready to take load when switched on is known A. rated r.p.m.
as____________? B. no load
A. firm power C. 20 percent load
B. cold reserve D. near full load
C. hot reserve In a distribution system, in order to improve
D. spinning reserve power factor, the synchronous capacitors are
_________offers the highest electric load. installed__________?
A. Television set A. at the receiving end
B. Toaster B. at the sending end
C. Vacuum cleaner C. either A. or (b)
D. Washing machine D. none of the above
___________ is invariably used as base load plant. Which of the following is the disadvantage of a
A. Diesel engine plant synchronous condenser?
B. Nuclear power plant A. High maintenance cost
C. Gas turbine plant B. Continuous losses in motor
D. Pumped storage plant C. Noise
In case of _________ fuel transportation is the D. All of the above
major problem. For a consumer the most economical power factor
A. diesel power plants is generally____________?
B. nuclear power plants A. 0.5 lagging
B. 0.5 leading

94
C. 0.95 lagging A. Diesel engine plant
D. 0.95 leading B. Gas turbine plant
In an interconnected system, the diversity factor C. Nuclear power plant
of the whole system: D. Pumped storage plant
A. remains unchanged Which of the following component, in a steam
B. decreases power plant, needs maximum maintenance
C. increases attention?
D. none of the above A. Steam turbine
__________ will be least affected due to charge in B. Condenser
supply voltage frequency. C. Water treatment plant
A. Electric clock D. Boiler
B. Mixer grinder The effect of electric shock on human body
C. Ceiling fan depends on which of the following?
D. Room heater A. current
Which of the following is not necessarily an B. voltage
advantage of interconnecting various power C. duration of contact
stations? D. all of the above
A. Improved frequency of power supplied Which of the following devices may be used to
B. Reduction in total installed capacity provide protection against lightening over
C. Increased reliability voltages?
D. Economy in operation of plants A. Horn gaps
For a diesel generating station the useful life is B. Rod gaps
expected to be around_________Years? C. Surge absorbers
A. 15 to 20 years D. All of the above
B. 20 to 50 years Load shedding is possible through which of the
C. 50 to 75 years following?
D. 75 to 100 years A. Switching of the loads
Which of the following is not a method for B. Frequency reduction
estimating depreciation charges? C. Voltage reduction
A. Sinking fund method D. Any of the above
B. Straight line method The knowledge of diversity factor helps in
C. Diminishing value method determining__________?
D. Halsey’s 50—50 formula A. plant capacity
Which of the following source of power is least B. average load
reliable? C. peak load
A. Solar energy D. kWh generated
B. Geothermal power
C. Wind power CHAPTER # A.C FUNDAMENTALS,
D. iMHD CIRCUITS & CIRCUIT THEORY
An over excited synchronous motor on no load is
The period of a sine wave is _____ seconds. Its
known as__________?
frequency is
A. synchronous condenser
A. 20 Hz
B. generator
B. 30 Hz
C. induction motor
C. 40 Hz
D. alternator
D. 50 Hz
Which of the following plants is almost inevitably
The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V. Its average
used as base load plant?
value is___________?

95
A. 127.4 V C. resistance only
B. 141.4 V D. all above
C. 282.8 V Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually
D. 200V improved by connecting capacitor to it
The power consumed in a circuit element will be in____________?
least when the phase difference between the A. parallel
current and voltage is__________? B. series
A. 180″ C. either A. or (b)
B. 90° D. none of the above
C. 60° Power factor of the following circuit will be unity
D. 0° A. inductance
For the same peak value which of the following B. capacitance
wave will ‘have the highest r.m.s. value? C. resistance
A. square wave D. both A. and B.
B. half wave rectified sine wave The double energy transient occur in
C. triangular wave the____________?
D. sine wave A. purely inductive circuit
The phase difference between voltage and current B. R-L circuit
wave through a circuit element is given as 30°. C. R-C circuit
The essential condition is that D. R-L-C circuit
A. both waves must have same frequency A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its angular
B. both waves must have identical peak values frequency is ________ radian/second.
C. both waves must have zero value at the same time A. 100 n
D. none of the above B. 50 jt
In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of the C. 25 JT
circuit is___________? D. 5 n
A. minimum The form factor is the ratio of_______?
B. maximum A. peak value to r.m.s. value
C. zero B. r.m.s. value to average value
D. none of the above C. average value to r.m.s. value
Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal D. none of the above
to____________? The period of a wave is___________?
A. R/Z A. the same as frequency
B. cosine of phase angle difference be-tween B. time required to complete one cycle
current and voltage C. expressed in amperes
C. kW/kVA D. none of the above
D. ratio of useful current to total cur¬rent Iw/I The reactance offered by a capacitor to
E. all of these alternating current of frequency 50 Hz is 20 Q. If
The best place to install a capacitor frequency is increased to 100 Hz, reactance
is___________? becomes_______ohms?
A. very near to inductive load A. 2.5
B. across the terminals of the inductive load B. 5
C. far away from the inductive load C. 10
D. any where D. 15
All the rules and laws of D.C. circuit also apply to If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of
A.C. circuit containing_____________? different amplitudes and phase angles are
A. capacitance only subtracted, the resultant is____________?
B. inductance only

96
A. a sinusoid of the same frequency A. triangular wave
B. a sinusoid of half the original frequency B. sine wave
C. a sinusoid of double the frequency C. square wave
D. not a sinusoid D. half wave rectified sine wave
The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This Form factor for a sine wave is________?
figure represents__________? A. 1.414
A. mean value B. 0.707
B. r.m.s. value C. 1.11
C. peak value D. 0.637
D. average value For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s.
A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value value is_______?
230 V refers to__________? A. 0.5 Imax
A. average voltage B. 0.707
B. r.m.s. voltage C. 0.9
C. peak voltage D. 1.414 Lmax
D. none of the above For a sine wave with peak value Emax _______
If two sine waves of the same frequency have a 8.30. the average value is?
phase difference of JT radians, then_______? A. 0.636 Emax
A. both will reach their minimum values at the B. 0.707 Emax
same instant C. 0.434 EWc
B. both will reach their maximum values at the same D. lAUEmax
instant Form Factor is the ratio of__________?
C. when one wave reaches its maxi¬mum value, A. average value/r.m.s. value
the other will reach its minimum value B. average value/peak value
D. none of the above C. r.m.s. value/average value
Two waves of the same frequency have opposite D. r.m.s. value/peak value
phase when the phase angle between them The r.m.s. value of a sinusoidal A.C. current is
is_________? equal to its value at an angle
A. 360° of_______degrees?
B. 180° A. 90
C. 90° B. 60
D. 0° C. 45
The power consumed in a circuit element will be D. 30
least when the phase difference between the Capacitors for power factor correction are rated
current and voltage is________? in_________?
A. 180″ A. kW
B. 90° B. kVA
C. 60° C. kV
D. 0° D. kVAR
For the same peak value, which of the following For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period will
wave has the least mean value ? be__________?
A. half wave rectified sine wave A. 0.05 s
B. triangular wave B. 0.005 s
C. sine wave C. 0.0005 s
D. square wave D. 0.5 s
The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the Capacitive reactance is more when_______?
case of___________? A. capacitance is less and frequency of
supply is less

97
B. capacitance is less and frequency of supply is B. directly as square of number of turns
more C. directly as the permeability of the core
C. capacitance is more and frequency of supply is D. inversely as the length of the iron path
less E. as A. to (d)
D. capacitance is more and frequency of supply is Pure inductive circuit____________?
more A. consumes some power on average
Time constant of an inductive B. does not take power at all from a line
circuit___________? C. takes power from the line during some part of
A. increases with increase of inductance and the cycle and then returns back to it during other
decrease of resistance part of the cycle
B. increases with the increase of inductance and the D. none of the above
increase of resistance Power factor of the following circuit will be
C. increases with decrease of inductance and zero__________?
decrease of resistance A. resistance
D. increases with decrease of inductance and increase B. inductance
of resistance C. capacitance
Poor power factor________? D. both B. and C.
A. reduces load handling capability of electrical Power factor of the system is kept
system high__________?
B. results in more power losses in the electrical A. to reduce line losses
system B. to maximise the utilization of the capacities
C. overloads alternators, transformers and of generators, lines and transformers
distribution lines C. to reduce voltage regulation of the line
D. results in more voltage drop in the line D. due to all above reasons
E. results in all above In a loss-free R-L-C circuit the transient current
In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to is__________?
its twice value and reducing capacitance to its half A. oscillating
value__________? B. square wave
A. will change the maximum value of current at C. sinusoidal
resonance D. non-oscillating
B. will change the resonance frequency The square waveform of current has following
C. will change the impedance at resonance frequency relation between r.m.s. value and average
D. will increase the selectivity of the circuit value?
Inductance affects the direct current A. r.m.s. value is equal to average value
flow__________? B. r.m.s. value of current is greater than average
A. only at the time of turning off value
B. only at the time of turning on C. r.m.s. value of current is less than average value
C. at the time of turning on and off D. none of the above
D. at all the time of operation The time constant of the capacitance circuit is
In a highly capacitive circuit defined as the time during which
the__________? voltage________?
A. apparent power is equal to the actual power A. falls to 36.8% of its final steady value
B. reactive power is more than the apparent power B. rises to 38.6% of its final steady value
C. reactive power is more than the actual power C. rises to 63.2% of its final steady value
D. actual power is more than its reactive power D. none of the above
Inductance of a coil Varies__________? The r.m.s. value of alternating current is given by
A. directly as the cross-sectional area of steady (D.C.) current which when flowing through
magnetic core

98
a given circuit for a given time value of 220 V is induced. Which of the following
produces__________? values is indicated by the voltmeters ______?
A. the more heat than produced by A.C. when A. 220 V
flowing through the same circuit B. 220V3V
B. the same heat as produced by A.C. when C. 220/V3 V
flowing through the same circuit D. none of the above
C. the less heat than produced by A.C. flowing When an alternating current passes through an
through the same circuit ohmic resistance the electrical power converted
D. none of the above into heat is__________?
In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can A. apparent power
take place in____________? B. true power
A. C only C. reactive power
B. L only D. none of the above
C. R only A pure capacitor connected across an A.C. voltage
D. all above consumed 50 W. This is due to________?
In a pure resistive circuit__________? A. the capacitive reactance in ohms
A. current lags behind the voltage by 90° B. the current flowing in capacitor
B. current leads the voltage by 90° C. the size of the capacitor being quite big
C. current can lead or lag the voltage by 90° D. the statement is incorrect
D. current is in phase with the voltage The product of apparent power and cosine of the
The transient currents are associated with phase angle between circuit voltage and
the____________? current is
A. changes in the stored energy in the A. true power
inductors and capacitors B. reactive power
B. impedance of the circuit C. volt-amperes
C. applied voltage to the circuit D. instantaneous power
D. resistance of the circuit An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure
In the case of an unsymmetrical alternating resistance of 3.5 ohms in parallel with a pure
current the average value must always be taken inductance of impedance of 3.5 ohms?
over__________? A. the current through the resistance is more
A. unsymmetrical part of the wave form B. the current through the resistance is less
B. the quarter cycle C. both resistance and inductance carry equal
C. the half cycle currents
D. the whole cycle D. none of the above
In a pure inductive circuit___________? In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency
A. the current is in phase with the voltage is reduced to 1/2, the current
B. the current lags behind the voltage by 90° will__________?
C. the current leads the voltage by 90° A. be reduced by half
D. the current can lead or lag by 90° B. be doubled
The power factor at resonance in R-L- C parallel C. be four times at high
circuit is________? D. be reduced to one fourth
A. zero In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency
B. 0.08 lagging is reduced to 1/2, the current will__________?
C. 0.8 leading A. be reduced by half
D. unity B. be doubled
In each of the three coils of a three phase C. be four times as high
generator, an alternating voltage having an r.m.s. D. be reduced to one fourth

99
The power factor of a D.C. circuit is C. Vc and VL
always__________? D. none of the above
A. less than unity The inductance of a coil can be increased
B. unity by_________?
C. greater than unity A. increasing core length
D. zero B. decreasing the number of turns
The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave having C. decreasing the diameter of the former
r.m.s. value of 60 A is____________? D. choosing core material having high relative
A. 60 sin 25 t permeability
B. 60 sin 50 t Which of the following waves has the highest
C. 84.84 sin 3141 value of peak factor ___________?
D. 42.42 sin 314 t A. Square wave
Ohm is unit of all of the following B. Sine wave
except___________? C. Half wave rectified sine wave
A. inductive reactance D. Triangular wave
B. capacitive reactance The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is
C. resistance 200 V. The r.m.s. value of full wave rectified AC.
D. capacitance will be___________?
The frequency of an alternating current A. 282.8 V
is____________? B. 141.4 V
A. the speed with which the alternator runs C. 111 V
B. the number of cycles generated in one D. 100 V
minute In a three-phase supply floating neutral is
C. the number of waves passing through a point in undesirable because it way give rise
one second to___________?
D. the number of electrons passing through a point in A. high voltage across the load
one second B. low voltage across the load
The series and parallel resonance on L-C circuit’ C. unequal line voltages across the load
differs in that_________? D. minimun voltage across the load
A. series resistance needs a low-resistance The frequency of domestic power supply in
source for sharp rise in current Pakistan is_________?
B. series resonance needs a high-resistance source for A. 200 Hz
sharp increase in current B. 100 Hz
C. parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source C. 60 Hz
for a sharp in¬crease in impedance D. 50 Hz
D. parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit
for a sharp rise in line current behaves as almost purely___________?
The r.m.s. value of pure cosine function A. resistive
is_________? B. inductive
A. 0.5 of peak value C. capacitive
B. 0.707 of peak value D. none of the above
C. same as peak value At _______ frequencies the parallel R-L circuit
D. zero behaves as purely resistive
The phosphors for which of the following pair are A. low
180° out of phase for VL, VC and VR______? B. very low
A. Vc and VR C. high
B. VL and VR D. very high

100
The power is measured in terms of decibles in case A. reactive power in a circuit
of_________? B. the extent of neutralisation of reactive power
A. electronic equipment in a circuit
B. transformers C. a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to pass
C. current transformers current
D. auto transformers D. a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to resist the
Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries flow of current
current at_______ frequencies Aphasoris________?
A. very low A. a line which represents the magnitude
B. low and phase of an alternating quantity
C. medium B. a line representing the magnitude and direction of
D. high an alternating quantity
In an A.C. circuit power is dissipated C. a coloured tag or band for distinction between
in____________? different phases of a 3-phase supply
A. resistance only D. an instrument used for measuring phases of an
B. inductance only unbalanced 3-phase load
C. capacitance only Which of the following statements pertains to
D. none of the above resistors only _____________?
In a sine wave the slope is constant_______? A. can dissipate considerable amount of
A. between 0° and 90° power
B. between 90° and 180° B. can act as energy storage devices
C. between 180° and 270° C. connecting them in parallel in¬creases the total
D. no where value
Which of the following refers to a parallel D. oppose sudden changes in voltage
circuit ? Wire-wound resistors are unsuitable for use at
A. The current through each element is same high frequencies because they_______?
B. The voltage across element is in proportion to it’s A. create more electrical noise
resistance value B. are likely to melt under excessive eddy
C. The equivalent resistance is greater than any one current heat
of the resistors C. consume more power
D. The current through any one element is less D. exhibit unwanted inductive and capacitive
than the source current effects
In a parallel R-C circuit, the current The purpose of a parallel circuit resonance is to
always________the applied voltage? magnify________?
A. lags A. current
B. leads B. voltage
C. remains in phase with C. power
D. none of the above D. frequency
What will be the phase angle between two All definitions of power factor of a series R-L-C
alternating waves of equal frequency, when one circuit are correct except__________?
wave attains maximum value the other is at zero A. ratio of net reactance and impedance
value________ ? B. ratio of kW and kVA
A. 0° C. ratio of J and Z
B. 45° D. ratio of W and VA
C. 90° In AC. circuits, laminated iron is invariably used
D. 180° in order to__________?
Capacitive susceptance is a measure A. reduce eddy current loss
of__________? B. increase heat radiation

101
C. make assembly cheap and easier A. low efficiency
D. reduce circuit permeability B. high power factor
A parallel AC. circuit in resonance C. unity power factor
will__________? D. maximum load current
A. have a high voltage developed across each Which of the following coil will have large
inductive and capacitive section resonant frequency __________?
B. have a high impedance A. A coil with large resistance
C. act like a resistor of low value B. A coil with low resistance
D. have current in each section equal to the line C. A coil with large distributed capacitance
current D. A coil with low distributed capacitance
The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with
10 kVA and active power is 8 kW. The reactive 30 A r.m.s. current which of the following
power in the circuit is_________? equation represents this wave_________ ?
A. 4 kVAR A. 42.42 sin 3141
B. 6 kVAR B. 60 sin 25 t
C. 8 kVAR C. 30 sin 50 t
D. 16 kVAR D. 84.84 sin 25 t
The ratio of active power to apparent power is In a R-L-C circuit_________?
known as factor__________?
A. demand
B. load A. power is consumed in resistance and is equal
C. power to I R
D. form B. exchange of power takes place between inductor
The effective resistance of an iron-cored choke and supply line
C. exchange of power takes place between capacitor
working on ordinary supply frequency is more
and supply line
than its true resistance because D. exchange of power does not take place between
of____________? resistance and the supply line
A. iron loss in core E. all above are correct
B. skin effect If resistance is 20 Q. and inductance is 27 in a R-L
C. increase in temperature series circuit, then time constant of this circuit will
D. capacitive effect between adjacent coil turns be________?
A. 0.001 s
A pure inductance connected across 250 V, 50 Hz B. 0.1 s
supply consumes 100 W. This consumption can be C. 10 s
attributed to_________? D. 100 s
A. the big size of the inductor The safest value of current the human body can
B. the reactance of the inductor carry for more than 3 second is_________?
C. the current flowing in the inductor A. 4 mA
D. the statement given is false B. 9 mA
The input of an A.C. circuit having power factor C. 15 mA
of 0.8 lagging is 40 kVA The power drawn by the D. 25 mA
circuit is__________? Time constant of a circuit is the time in seconds
A. 12 kW taken after the application of voltage to
B. 22 kW each___________?
C. 32 kW A. 25% of maximum value
D. 64 kW B. 50% of maximum value
In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared C. 63% of maximum value
with kW indicates_________? D. 90% of the maximum value

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Power factor of electric bulb is__________? A. actual power is zero
A. zero B. reactive power is zero
B. lagging C. apparent power is zero
C. leading D. none of above is zero
D. unity Inductance of coil___________?
Which of the following circuit component opposes A. is unaffected by the supply frequency
the change in the circuit voltage ? B. decreases with the increase in supply
A. Inductance frequency
B. Capacitance C. increases with the increase in supply frequency
C. Conductance D. becomes zero with the increase in supply
D. Resistance frequency
Pure inductive circuit takes power from the A.C. Time constant of a capacitive circuit__________?
line when_________? A. increases with the decrease of capacitance
A. applied voltage decreases but current and decrease of resistance
increases B. increases with the decrease of capacitance and
B. applied voltage increases but current decreases increase of resistance
C. both applied voltage and current increase C. increases with the increase of capacitance and
D. both applied voltage and current decrease decrease of resistance
The time constant of a series R-C circuit is given D. increase with increase of capacitance and
by____________? increase of resistance
A. R/C In any A.C. circuit always__________?
B. RC2 A. apparent power is more than actual
C. RC power
D. R2C B. reactive power is more than apparent power
In R-L-C series resonant circuit magnitude of C. actual power is more than reactive power
resonance frequency can be changed by changing D. reactive power is more than actual power
the value of__________? In a series L-C circuit at the resonant frequency
A. R only the__________?
B. L only A. current is maximum
C. C only B. current is minimum
D. LorC C. impedance is maximum
E. R,LorC D. voltage across C is minimum
Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C
circuit________? CHAPTER # CABLES
A. depends upon the magnitude of R Which of the following insulation is used in cables
B. depends upon the magnitude of L ?
C. depends upon the magnitude of C A. Varnished cambric
D. depends upon the magnitude of R, Land C B. Rubber
Time constant of an inductive circuit_________? C. Paper
A. increases with increase of inductance and D. Any of the above
decrease of resistance The thickness of the layer of insulation on the
B. increases with the increase of inductance and the conductor, in cables, depends upon___________?
increase of resistance A. reactive power
C. increases with the decrease of inductance and B. power factor
decrease of resistance C. voltage
D. increases with decrease of inductance and increase D. current carrying capacity
of resistance The insulating material for a cable should
In a purely inductive circuit__________? have__________?

103
A. low cost A. avoid excessive sheath losses
B. high dielectric strength B. make it flexible
C. high mechanical strength C. either of the above
D. all of the above D. none of the above
Which of the following protects a cable against In case of three core flexible cable the colour of
mechanical injury___________? the neutral is_________?
A. Bedding A. blue
B. Sheath B. black
C. Armouring C. brown
D. None of the above D. none of the above
Empire tape is__________? In a cable, the maximum stress under operating
A. varnished cambric conditions is at___________?
B. vulcanised rubber A. insulation layer
C. impregnated paper B. sheath
D. none of the above C. armour
In a cable immediately above metallic sheath D. conductor surface
______ is provided Dielectric strength of rubber is
A. earthing connection around____________?
B. bedding A. 5 kV/mm
C. armouring B. 15 kV/mm
D. none of the above C. 30 kV/mm
The bedding on a cable consists of____________? D. 200 kV/mm
A. hessian cloth High tension cables are generally used up
B. jute to_____________?
C. any of the above A. 11kV
D. none of the above B. 33kV
cables are used for 132 kV C. 66 kV
lines____________? D. 132 kV
A. High tension Low tension cables are generally used up
B. Super tension to___________?
C. Extra high tension A. 200 V
D. Extra super voltage B. 500 V
The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is C. 700 V
more than that in A.C. mainly due D. 1000 V
to__________? Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV
A. absence of harmonics are___________?
B. non-existence of any stability limit A. oil filled
C. smaller dielectric loss B. S.L. type
D. absence of ripples C. belted
E. none of the above D. armoured
The insulating material for cables In the cables, the location of fault is usually found
should____________? out by comparing____________?
A. be acid proof A. the resistance of the conductor
B. be non-inflammable B. the inductance of conductors
C. be non-hygroscopic C. the capacitances of insulated conductors
D. have all above properties D. all above parameters
In single core cables armouring is not done The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is
to________? at_____________?

104
A. armour of relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the
B. bedding cable will become_____________?
C. conductor surface A. one half
D. lead sheath B. double
The surge resistance of cable is__________? C. four times
A. 5 ohms D. none of the above
B. 20 ohms Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond
C. 50 ohms 66 kV because___________?
D. 100 ohms A. insulation may melt due to higher
In capacitance grading of cables we use a _______ temperature
dielectric? B. skin effect dominates on the conductor
A. composite C. of corona loss between conductor and sheath
B. porous material
C. homogeneous D. there is a danger of breakdown of insulation
D. hygroscopic due to the presence of voids
PVC stands for____________? In cables the charging current__________?
A. polyvinyl chloride A. lags the voltage by 90°
B. post varnish conductor B. leads the voltage by 90°
C. pressed and varnished cloth C. lags the voltage by 180°
D. positive voltage conductor D. leads the voltage by 180°
E. none of the above If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a
Conduit pipes are normally used to protect maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the dielectric
_______ cables strength of insulation should be_______________?
A. unsheathed cables A. 5 kV/mm
B. armoured B. 10 kV/mm
C. PVC sheathed cables A. 15 kV/mm
D. all of the above D. 30 kV/mm
The material for armouring on cable is The intersheaths in the cables are used
usually__________? to_____________?
A. steel tape A. minimize the stress
B. galvanised steel wire B. avoid the requirement of good insulation
C. any of the above C. provide proper stress distribution
D. none of the above D. none of the above
The relative permittivity of rubber The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be
is____________? avoided economically by the use of___________?
A. between 2 and 3 A. inter-sheaths
B. between 5 and 6 B. insulating materials with different dielectric
C. between 8 and 10 constants
D. between 12 and 14 C. both (A) and (B)
Pressure cables are generally not used D. none of the above
beyond__________? In the cables, sheaths are used to___________?
A. 11 kV A. prevent the moisture from entering the
B. 33 kV cable
C. 66 kV B. provide enough strength
D. 132 kV E. provide proper insulation
A certain cable has an insulation of relative D. none of the above
permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced by one If the length of a cable is doubled, its
capacitance____________?

105
A. becomes one-fourth two, to avoid interference, should
B. becomes one-half be______________?
C. becomes double A. 2 cm
D. remains unchanged B. 10 cm
The metallic sheath may be made of lead or lead C. 50 cm
alloy or of aluminium ? D. 400 cm
A. Yes Cables for 220 kV lines are
B. No invariably____________?
It is difficult to maintain oil filled A. mica insulated
cables____________? B. paper insulated
A. Yes C. compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
B. No D. rubber insulated
In congested areas where excavation is expensive E. none of the above
and inconvenient ‘draw in system’ of laying of Copper as conductor for cables is used
underground cables is often adopted as________?
A. Yes A. annealed
B. No B. hardened and tempered
Polyethylene has very poor dielectric and ageing C. hard drawn
properties D. alloy with chromium
A. Yes The advantage of oil filled cables is_________?
B. No
Natural rubber is obtained from milky sap of A. more perfect impregnation
tropical trees B. smaller overall size
A. Yes C. no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids
D. all of the above
B. No
The breakdown voltage of a cable depends
In capacitance grading a homogeneous dielectric
on_____________?
is used
A. presence of moisture
A. Yes
B. working temperature
B. No
C. time of application of the voltage
Rubber is most commonly used insulation in
D. all of the above
cables
The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is
A. Yes
usually_______________?
B. No
A. 0.04 mm
The disadvantage with paper as insulating
B. 0.2 to 0.4 mm
material is____________?
E. 3 to 5 mm
A. it is hygroscopic
D. 40 to 60 mm
B. it has high capacitance
Underground cables are laid at sufficient
C. it is an organic material
depth___________?
D. none of the above
A. to minimise temperature stresses
The insulating material should
B. to avoid being unearthed easily due to
have____________?
removal of soil
A. low permittivity
C. to minimize the effect of shocks and vibrations
B. high resistivity
due to gassing vehicles, etc
C. high dielectric strength
D. for all of the above reasons
D. all of the above
The electrostatic stress in underground cables
If a power cable and a communication cable are to
is_________?
run parallel the minimum distance between the
A. same at the conductor and the sheath
B. minimum at the conductor and maximum at

106
the sheath CHAPTER # ELECTROLYSIS &
C. maximum at the conductor and minimum at STORAGE OF BATTERIES
the sheath
In alkaline cell the electrolyte
D. zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
is_____________?
E. none of the above
A. dilute sulphuric acid
A cable carrying alternating current
B. concentrated sulphuric acid
has__________?
C. NaOH
A. hysteresis losses only
D. KOH
B. hysteresis and leakage losses only
A typical output of a solar cell
C. hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
is_____________?
D. hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
A. 0.1V
Capacitance grading of cable implies__________?
B. 0.26 V
A. use of dielectrics of different
C. 1.1 V
permeabilities
D. 2 V
B. grading according to capacitance of cables per km
A constant-voltage generator has___________?
length
A. minimum efficiency
C. cables using single dielectric in different
B. minimum current capacity
concentrations
C. low internal resistance
D. capacitance required to be introduced at different
D. high internal resistance
lengths to counter the effect of inductance
Which of the following factors adversely affects
E. none of the above
the capacity of the leadacid battery ?
The advantage of cables over overhead
A. Temperature of surroundings
transmission lines is___________?
B. Specific gravity of electrolyte
A. easy maintenance
C. Rate of discharge
B. low cost
D. All of the above
C. can be used in congested areas
In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the
D. can be used in high voltage circuits
form of___________?
Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV,
A. charged ions
which insulation would you prefer ____________?
B. chemical energy
A. Polyvinyle chloride
C. electrostatic energy
B. Vulcanised rubber
D. electromagnetic energy
C. Impregnated paper
Satellite power requirement is provided
D. Compressed SFe gas
through________?
E. none of the above
A. solar cells
The insulation of the cable decreases
B. dry cells
with__________?
C. nickel-cadmium cells
A. the increase in length of the insulation
D. lead-acid batteries
B. the decrease in the length of the insulation
Cells are connected in parallel to__________?
C. either A. or (b)
A. increase the efficiency
D. none of the above
B. increase the current capacity
In a cable the voltage stress is maximum
C. increase the voltage output
at____________?
D. increase the internal resistance
A. sheath
Which among the following constitutes the major
B. insulator
load for an automobile battery _________?
E. surface of the conductor
A. Brake light
D. core of the conductor
B. Self starter
C. Parking lights
D. Spark plugs

107
When the load resistance equals the generator C. they have same ampere-hour capacity
resistance which of the following will be maximum D. they have identical internal resistance
__________? Which of the following has lower specific gravity
A. Current V__________?
B. Efficiency of the circuit A. Dilute H2S04
C. Power in the load resistance B. Concentrated H2SO4
D. Voltage across the load resistance C. Water
Under normal charging rate, the charging current D. Any of the above
should be__________? Which of the following battery is used for air-craft
A. 10% of capacity _____________?
B. 20% of capacity A. Lead-acid battery
C. 30% of capacity B. Nickel-iron battery
D. 40% of capacity C. Dry cell battery
Which of the following is incorrect ? D. Silver oxide battery
A. A storage cell has a reversible chemical In a battery cover is placed over the element and
reaction sealed to the top of the battery container. This is
B. A lead-acid cell can be recharged done____________?
C. A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life A. to reduce evaporation of water from
D. A primary cell has an irreversible chemical electrolyte
reaction B. to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the
While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid electrolyte
battery___________? C. to discharge both of the above functions
A. water is poured into acid D. to discharge none of the above functions
B. acid is poured into water Hydrogen evolved during charging produces
C. anyone of the two can be added to other chemical explosive mixture when it is more
The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead- than___________?
acid battery is_____________? A. 2%
A. chlorine B. 4%
B. dust particles C. 6%
C. lead crystals D. 8%
D. iron Which of the following primary cells has the
Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical highest voltage___________ ?
connections to the lead-acid battery___________? A. Manganese-alkaline
A. prevent local heating B. Carbon-zinc
B. prevent short-circuiting C. Lithium
C. reduce path resistance D. Mercury
D. prevent corrosion For a cell to work, which of the following
Which of the following cell has a. reversible condition(s) become necessary ___________?
chemical reaction ___________? A. Two electrodes of different meta’s should be
A. Lead-acid inserted in the electrolyte, not touching each
B. Mercury oxide other
C. Carbon-zinc B. Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the
D. Silver-oxide electrodes
When two batteries are connected in parallel, it C. Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
should be ensured that___________? D. All above three conditions are necessary
A. they have same e.m.f. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results
B. they have same make in___________?

108
A. boiling of electrolyte due to gassing A. 1.0
B. warping of plates B. 1.5
C. damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery C. 2.4
case due to excessive temperature D. 2.9
D. all above Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell
Extent of corrosion in the underground metal is_____________?
work depends upon___________? A. 0.8
A. amount of moisture B. 0.95
B. type of metals C. 1.1
C. type of soil chemicals D. 1.21
D. all above factors During the idle period of the battery, strong
Mercury cell has which of the following electrolyte tends to change the active material of
characteristics ____________? the cell into____________?
A. Flat discharge current-voltage curve A. Pb02
B. High power to weight ratio B. PbSC-4
C. Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse C. PbO
conditions of high temperature and humidity D. Pb
D. All of the above The body of Edison cell is made of___________?
Which of the following primary cells has the A. bakelite
lowest voltage_________ ? B. rubber
A. Lithium C. nickel plated steel
B. Zinc-chloride D. aluminium
C. Mercury All the electrical connections between the battery
D. Carbon-zinc and vehicle should be by____________?
Short circuiting of a cell may be A. thin aluminium wires
caused____________? B. thin copper wires
A. buckling of plates C. rigid cables
B. faulty separators D. flexible cables
C. lead particles forming circuit between positive and Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is
negative plates based on _______ hours discharge rate
D. excessive accumulation of sediment A. 8
E. any one of above B. 12
Charging of sulfated battery produces _________ C. 16
heat D. 24
A. no Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is _______ Edison cell
B. very little A. equal to
C. less B. less than
D. more C. more than
Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of D. much more than
_______ volts The following indicate that battery on charge has
A. 0.8 attained full charge___________?
B. 0.9 A. colour of electrode
C. 1.0187 B. gassing
D. 1.5 C. specific gravity
A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _______ D. all above
volts from fully charged state to fully discharged Dry cell is modification of____________?
state A. Deniell cell
B. Leclanche cell

109
C. Lead-acid cell C. more than
D. Edison cell D. much more than
Excessive charging a battery tends The following indicate that battery on charge has
to____________? attained full charge___________?
A. produce gassing A. colour of electrode
B. increase the internal resistance of the battery B. gassing
C. to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide C. specific gravity
thereby weakening them physically D. all above
D. bring about all above changes Dry cell is modification of____________?
In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in A. Deniell cell
electrolyte its C.G. should be___________? B. Leclanche cell
A. lowered C. Lead-acid cell
B. raised D. Edison cell
C. undisturbed Excessive charging a battery tends
D. displaced sideways to____________?
Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell A. produce gassing
is_____________? B. increase the internal resistance of the battery
A. 0.8 C. to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide
B. 0.95 thereby weakening them physically
C. 1.1 D. bring about all above changes
D. 1.21 In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in
During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte its C.G. should be___________?
electrolyte tends to change the active material of
the cell into____________?
A. Pb02 A. lowered
B. PbSC-4 B. raised
C. PbO C. undisturbed
D. Pb D. displaced sideways
During discharge, the active material of both the
The body of Edison cell is made of___________?
positive and negative plates is changed
A. bakelite
to___________?
B. rubber
A. Pb
C. nickel plated steel
B. Pb02
D. aluminium
C. PbO
All the electrical connections between the battery
D. PbS04
and vehicle should be by____________?
Persons preparing electrolyte should
A. thin aluminium wires
wear___________?
B. thin copper wires
A. goggles or other face shield
C. rigid cables
B. rubber
D. flexible cables
C. rubber boots and gloves
Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is
D. all above safety devices
based on _______ hours discharge rate
The current flow through electrolyte is due to the
A. 8
movement of____________?
B. 12
A. ions
C. 16
B. holes
D. 24
C. electrons
Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is _______ Edison cell
D. none of the above
A. equal to
If a battery is wrongly connected on charge
B. less than
following will happen__________?

110
A. current delivered by the battery will be high A. decreases
B. current drawing will be nil B. increases
C. current drawing will be very small C. remains constant
D. current drawing will be very high D. none of the above
Life of the batteries is in the following ascending Following will happen if the specific gravity of
order____________? electrolyte becomes more than 1.23
A. Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel A. Loss of capacity
cadmium cell B. Loss of life
B. Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell C. Corrosion of the grids of the plate
C. Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell D. All above
D. Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls
Shelf life of a small dry cell is___________? below plates____________?
A. equal to that of large dry cell A. capacity of the cell is reduced
B. less than that of large dry cell B. life of the cell is reduced
C. more than that of large dry cell C. open plates are converted to lead sulphate
D. none of the above D. all above
Level of electrolyte in a cell should be ________ On overcharging a battery____________?
the level of plates A. it will bring about chemical change in active
A. below materials
B. equal to B. it will increase the capacity of the battery
C. above C. it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
D. none of the above D. none of the above will occur
______ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge In constant voltage charging method, the charging
of the battery current from discharged to fully charged
A. colour condition_____________?
B. mass A. decreases
C. viscosity B. increases
D. specific gravity C. remains constant
Battery charging equipment is generally D. none of the above
installed______________? Each cell has a vent cap________?
A. in well ventilated location A. to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
B. in clean and dry place B. to add water to the cell if needed
C. as near as practical to the battery being charged C. to check the level of electrolyte
D. in location having all above features D. to do all above functions
48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as____________?
of___________? A. positive active material
A. 48 amperes for 1 hour B. negative active material
B. 24 amperes for 2 hours C. passive material
C. 8 amperes for 6 hours D. none of the above
D. 6 amperes for 8 hours The effect of sulphation is that the internal
Batteries are charged by_____________? resistance__________?
A. rectifiers A. increases
B. engine generator sets B. decreases
C. motor generator sets C. remains same
D. any one of the above methods D. none of the above
In constant-current charging method, the supply The lead-acid cell should never be discharged
voltage from discharged to fully charged beyond____________?
condition____________?

111
A. 1.8 V C. 1000
B. 1.9 V D. 1250
C. 2 V Over charging______________?
D. 2.1 V A. produces excessive gassing
Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the B. loosens the active material
surface of the plates happens because C. increases the temperature resulting in buckling of
of___________? plates
A. allowing a battery to stand in discharged D. all above
condition for a long time The open circuit voltage of any storage cell
B. topping up with electrolyte depends wholly upon___________?
C. persistent undercharging A. its chemical constituents
D. low level of electrolyte B. on the strength of its electrolyte
E. all above C. its temperature
The substances which combine together to store D. all above
electrical energy during the charge are called Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell
________ materials is__________?
A. active A. NaOH
B. passive B. onlyH2S04
C. inert C. only water
D. dielectric D. dilute H2SO4
Undercharging___________? When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a
A. reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte lead-acid cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell is
B. increases specific gravity of the electrolyte in___________?
C. produces excessive gassing A. charged state
D. increases the temperature B. discharged state
In ________ system the charging current is C. both (A) and (B)
intermittently controlled at either a maximum or D. active state
minimum value Negative plate of an Edison cell is made
A. two rate charge control of__________?
B. trickle charge A. copper
C. floating charge B. lead
D. an equalizing charge C. iron
Internal short circuits are caused by___________? D. silver oxide
A. breakdown of one or more separators The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured
B. excess accumulation of sediment at the by____________?
bottom of the cell A. manometer
C. both (A) and (B) B. a mechanical gauge
D. none of the above C. hydrometer
The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured D. psychrometer
in_____________? The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of
A. amperes Edison cell____________?
B. ampere-hours A. less than
C. watts B. more than
D. watt-hours C. equal to
Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and D. none of the above
discharges______________? Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is___________?
A. 500 A. NaOH
B. 700 B. KOH

112
C. HC1 C. lead
D. HN03 D. zinc powder
Life of the Edison cell is at The average charging voltage for alkali cell is
least_____________? about__________?
A. five years A. 1 V
B. seven years B. 1.2 V
C. eight years C. 1.7 V
D. ten years D. 2.1 V
On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies
Edison cell is about__________? between________?
A. 40% A. 25 to 35%
B. 60% B. 40 to 60%
C. 70% C. 70 to 80%
D. 80% D. 90 to 95%
The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is Trickle charging of a storage battery helps
nearly______________? to___________?
A. 1.4 V A. maintain proper electrolyte level
B. 1 V B. increase its reserve capacity
C. 0.9 V C. prevent sulphation
D. 0.8 V D. keep it fresh and fully charged
The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly It is noticed that durum charging___________?
_________ times that of the lead-acid cell 0
A. two
B. three A. there is a rise in voltage
C. four B. energy is absorbed by the cell
D. five C. specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased
The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on D. the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour
(PbCfe) and cathode becomes grey metallic lead (Pb)
A. rate of discharge
E. all of the above
B. temperature As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a
C. density of electrolyte nickel-iron cell is less due to its__________?
D. quantity of active materials A. compactness
E. all above B. lower e.m.f.
The ampere-hour efficiency of a lead acid cell is C. small quantity of electrolyte used
normally between_________? D. higher internal resistance
A. 20 to 30% In a lead-acid cell dilute sulfuric acid (electrolyte)
B. 40 to 50% approximately comprises the
C. 60 to 70% following__________?
D. 90 to 95% A. one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the B. two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
electrolyte assumes _______ appearance C. three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
A. dull D. all H2S04
B. reddish It is noticed that during discharging the following
C. bright does not happen___________?
D. milky A. both anode and cathode become PbS04
The active material of the positive plates of silver- B. specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
zinc batteries is_________? C. voltage of the cell decreases
A. silver oxide D. the cell absorbs energy
B. lead oxide

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Those substances of the cell which take active part A. output voltage
in chemical combination and hence produce B. temperature of electrolyte
electricity during charging or discharging are C. specific gravity of electrolyte
known as________materials D. none of the above
A. passive The output voltage of a charger
B. active is__________?
C. redundant A. less than the battery voltage
D. inert B. higher than the battery voltage
During the charging and discharging of a nickel- C. the same as the battery voltage
iron cell____________? D. none of the above
A. corrosive fumes are produced The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour
B. water is neither formed nor absorbed efficiency of a lead-acid cell is____________?
C. nickel hydroxide remains unsplit A. just one
D. its e.m.f. remains constant B. always greater than one
A dead storage battery can be revived C. always less than one
by___________? D. none of the above
A. adding distilled water The storage battery generally used in electric
B. adding so-called battery restorer power station is__________?
C. a dose of H2SO4 A. nickel-cadmium battery
D. none of the above B. zinc-carbon battery
Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel. The C. lead-acid battery
output voltage is__________? D. none of the above
A. 1 V During the charging of a lead-acid
B. 1.5 V cell__________?
C. 1.75 V A. its voltage increases
D. 2 V B. it gives out energy
As compared to constant-current system, the C. its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in
constant-voltage system of charging a lead acid colour
cell has the advantage of___________? D. specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
A. reducing time of charging The active materials on the positive and negative
B. increasing cell capacity plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery
C. both (A) and (B) are_______?
D. avoiding excessive gassing A. lead and lead peroxide
The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms B. lead sulphate and lead
of____________? C. lead peroxide and lead
A. current rating D. none of the above
B. voltage rating The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on
C. ampere-hour rating its___________?
D. none of the above A. temperature
Cells are connected in series in order B. rate of charge
to_____________? C. rate of discharge
A. increase the voltage rating D. quantity of active material
B. increase the current rating The charge required to liberate one gram
C. increase the life of the cells equivalent of any substance is known as
D. none of the above _________ constant
The best indication about the state of charge on a A. time
lead-acid battery is given by____________? B. Faraday’s
C. Boltzman

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When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged C. 4 times of its original value
condition, the color of its positive plate D. 8 times of its original value
is__________? An electric field can
A. dark grey deflect_______________?
B. brown A. Neutrons
C. dark brown B. X-rays
D. none of above C. Both glass rod and silk acquire a negative charge
The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is D. None
directly proportional to the quantity of electricity. Electric flux linked with a surface will be
The statement is associated with____________? maximum when____________?
A. Newton’s law A. The surface is held parallel to the electric
B. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic field
C. Faraday’s law of electrolysis B. The surface is held perpendicular to the electric
D. Gauss’s law field
During charging the specific gravity of the C. The surface makes an angle of 45°with the field
electrolyte of a lead-acid battery D. All of the above
A. increases The electric lines of force are____________?
B. decreases A. imaginary
C. remains the same B. physically existing every where
D. becomes zero C. physically existing near the charges
The active materials of a nickel-iron battery D. depends upon case
are___________? If free space between the plates of a capacitor is
A. nickel hydroxide replaced by a dielectric_____________?
B. powdered iron and its oxide A. The potential difference remains constant
C. 21% solution of KOH capacittance and energy stored increases
D. all of the above B. The potential difference remains constant
CHAPTER # ELECTROSTATICS capacittance decreases and energy increases
C. The potential difference decreases but both
capacitance and energy increase
If the distance between the two point charges
D. both potential difference and capacitance decrease
become half then force between them
but energy increases
becomes______________?
A hollow metallic sphere of 8cm diameter is
A. double
charged with 4 x 10 8C. The potential on its
B. half
surface will be_________________?
C. four times
A. 900 volts
D. remains same
B. 9000 volts
The electric charge of 100 °C is 13cm apart from
C. 90 volts
another charge 16.9°C electric force between them
D. zero
is_____________?
Potential difference is the work done in moving
A. 9x107N
unit positive charge form one point to
B. 900N
another________________?
C. 9x105N
A. in the direction of electric intensity
D. 9x106N
B. against electric intensity
Two charges are placed at a certain distance. If
C. in any direction
the magnitude of each charge is doubled the force
D. in the direction of electric flux
will become_____________?
The value of the capacitance depends upon
A. 1/4th of its original value
the________________?
B. 1/8th of its original value

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A. voltage applied A. V/A
B. thickness of the capacitor plates B. J/V
C. geometry of the capacitor C. V/m
D. dinsity of the capacitor plates D. A/m
A 5 μF capacitor has a potential difference across Photocopier and inject printer are dealt
its plates of 200 volts. The charge on the capacitor in________________?
is____________? A. Electrostatics
A. 2.5 x 10-8 C B. Charges in motion
B. 10-5 C C. Capacitors
C. 103 C D. Electric fields
D. 4 x 103 C If a charged rod is brought closer to a gas filled
Equivalent capacitance is greater than individual balloon then______________?
capacitances in_____________? A. Radius decreases
A. series combination B. Balloon bursts
B. parallel combination C. Radius increase
C. both series and parallel combinations D. Balloon squeezes
D. none of above If metallic conductor is charged negatively then its
The number of electrons in one coulomb charge is weight______________?
equal to_______________? A. Remains same
A. 6.2 x 1018 B. First increases then decreases
B. 1.6 x 1019 C. Decreases then increases
C. 6.2 x 1021 D. Increases for a while
D. 1.6 x 10-27 If two charges are increased by two times then
SI unit of the permittivity of free space force_____________?
is________________? A. Decreases 9 times
A. Nm2C2 B. Increases 9 times
B. N-1mC-2 C. Increases 4 times
C. NmC-1 D. Decreases 4 times
D. N-1m-2C2 If mica sheet is placed between the plates of a
Value of εr for various dielectrics is capacitor the capacity_______________?
always________________? A. increases
A. Less than unity B. decreases
B. Equal to the unit C. increases then decreases
C. Larger than unit D. decreases then increases
D. No hard and fast rule If an electrons is allowed to move along the field in
Which one of the following can be taken as the a non uniform electric field then it will
measure of electric intensity ? follow__________________?
A. F/A A. Spiral path
B. V/A B. Straight line
C. VF/A C. Curved path
D. q/VA D. Circular path
Electric flux due to a point charge +q Selenium becomes a conductor in light so it
is______________? behaves like____________?
A. 1/4IIɛ q/r A. Semiconductor
B. q/ɛ0 B. Photodiode
C. 1/4IIɛ0. q/r2 C. Light emitting diode
D. 4IIɛ0 D. Capacitor
N/C =_____________?

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In a charged capacitor the energy resides A. 2 x 106m/sec
in________________? B. 3 x 106m/sec
A. magnetic hield C. 5 x 106m/sec
B. electric field D. 4 x 106m/sec
C. nuclear field Equipotential planes are_______________?
D. gravitational field A. parallel to one another
A capacitor is a perfect insulator B. non parallel to one another
for______________? C. intersecting
A. direct current D. circular
B. alternating current The metallic spheres A and B of radii 2m and 4m
C. both for the direct and alternating current respectively carry the same charge 4 x 10 8C. If
D. none of above the spheres are connected by a copper
A charge of 0.10C accelerated through a potential wire_______________?
difference of 1000V acquires kinetic A. charge will flow from A to B
energy_______________? B. charge will flow from B to A
A. 200J C. no flow of charge will occur
B. 100J D. both a and b are possible
C. 1000J Two similar charges each of one coulomb placed
D. 100 eV in air one meter apart repel each other with a
Electric intensity at infinite distance from the force______________?
point charge is_____________? A. 9 x 109N
A. zero B. 9.2 x 104N
B. infinite C. 9 x 109N
C. positive D. 9 x 107N
D. negative A closed surface contains two equal and opposite
In a non-uniform electric field a polar molecule charges. The net electric flux from the surface will
will experience____________? be________________?
A. Net torque A. negative
B. Net force B. positive
C. both series and parallel combinations C. zero
D. zero D. data is insufficient
Two oppositely charged balls A and B attract Electric intensity being a vector quantity always
third conducting ball C when placed near them points_______________?
turn by turn. Then ball C must A. along the direction of force experienced
be______________? by a unit positive charge
A. positively charged B. opposite to the direction of force experienced by a
B. electrically neutral unit positive charge
C. negatively charged C. perpendicular to the direction of force experienced
D. positively and negatively charged by a uit positive charge
capacitor is to have an energy content of 20J it D. any of above
must be placed across a potential difference An electric charge at rest
of________________? produces_______________?
A. 4 volts A. only a magnetic field
B. 9 volts B. only an electric field
C. 2 volts C. neither electric field nor magnetic field
D. 1 vol D. both electric and magnetic fields
A 25eV electron has a speed The force per unit charge is know
of______________? as__________________?

117
A. electric flux A. remain uncharged
B. electric intensity B. decrease
C. electric potential C. increase
D. all of above are same D. become zero
Electric force between two point charges in air or A capacitor consists of_____________?
vacuum is F. If we replace air or vacuum by an A. two insulators separated by a conductor
insulator (dielectric) of relative permitivity Cr the B. two conductors separated by an insulator
force between the charges will_______________? C. two insulators only
A. decrease D. two conductors only
B. increase A paper capacitor is usually available in the form
C. remain constant of_____________?
D. depends upon composition of dielectric A. tubes
The minimum charge on any object cannot be less B. rolled foil
than_______________? C. disc
A. 1.6 x 10-19C D. meshed plates
B. 3.2 x 10-19C The absolute permittivity of free space is given
C. 9.1 x 109C by_____________?
D. no definite value exist A. 8.854 x 1(T9 F/m)
When we rub a glass rod with a silk cloth B. 8.854 x 1(T10 F/m)
then________________? C. 8.854 x KT11 F/m
A. glass rod acquires negative charge while silk D. 8.854 x 10″12 F/m
acquires positive charge Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
B. glass rod acquires positive charge while silk A. The thinner the dielectric, the more the
acquires negative charges capacitance and the lower the voltage
C. both glass rod and silk acquire negative charge breakdown rating for a capacitor .
D. both glass rod and silk acquire positive charge B. A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white,
A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately green, black, red and yellow has the capacitance
exploded due to wrong connections, which type of value of 500 pF
capacitor it could be ? C. Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a
A. Paper capacitor higher voltage breakdown rating for the combination
B. Ceramic capacitor D. A capacitor can store charge because it has a
C. Electrolytic capacitor dielectric between two conductors
D. Any-of the above Which of the following capacitors can be used for
Which of the following capacitors is marked for temperature compensation ?
polarity ? A. Air capacitor
A. Air B. Ceramic capacitor
B. Paper C. Paper capacitor
C. Mica D. None of the above
D. Electrolytic The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is
The power dissipated in a pure capacitor taken as____________?
is______________? A. zero
A. zero B. 1
B. proportional to applied voltage C. 4
C. proportional to value of capacitance D. 10
D. both (B) and (C) above While testing a capacitor with ohm meter, if the
When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel capacitor shows charging, but the final resistance
plate capacitor, the potential difference between reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be
plates will______________? concluded that the capacitor is____________?

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A. short-circuited C. 1200 uC
B. open circuited D. 1600 uC
C. alright Which of the following material has least value of
D. leaky dielectric constant ?
Electric field intensity is a A. Ceramics
quantity_____________? B. Oil
A. scalar C. Glass
B. vector D. Paper
C. both A. and (6) For closer tolerances which of the following
D. none of the above capacitors is usually preferred ?
Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C A. Paper capacitor
when charged from a D.C source of voltage V is B. Mica capacitor
equal to joules_______________? C. Ceramic disc capacitor
A. CV2 D. None of the above
B. C2V Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance
C. CV2 of___________?
D. CV A. ± 5%
When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad B. ± 10%
capacitor, it will store energy C. ± 15%
of_____________? D. ± 20%
A. 2 joules “The surface integral of the normal component of
B. 4 joules the electric displacement D over any closed
C. 6 joules surface equals the charge enclosed by the
D. 8 joules surface”. The above statement is associated
Dielectric constant for mica is with_______?
nearly_____________? A. Gauss’s law
A. 200 B. Kirchhoff s law
B. 100 C. Faraday’s law
C. 3 to 8 D. Lenz’s law
D. 1 to 2 capacitors can be used only for D.C ?
What is the value of capacitance that must be A. Air
connected in parallel with 50 pF condenser to B. Paper
make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ? C. Mica
A. 50 pF D. Electrolytic
B. 100 pF The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of
C. 150 pF glass is given by___________?
D. 200 pF
The capacitor preferred for high frequency
circuits is_____________? A. 0.1 to 0.4
A. air capacitor B. 0.5 to 1.0
B. mica capacitor C. 2.0 to 4.0
C. electrolytic capacitor D. 5 to 100
The electrostatic force between two charges of one
D. none of the above
coulomb each and placed at a distance of 0.5 m
If a 6 uF capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge
will be____________?
in coulombs will be____________?
A. 36 x 10fa
A. 800 uC
B. 36 x 107 N
B. 900 uC
C. 36 x 108 N
D. 36 x 109 N

119
Dielectric strength of mica is___________? A capacitor having capacitance of 5 uF is charged
A. 10 to 20 kV/mm to a potential difference of 10,000 V. The energy
B. 30 to 50 kV/mm stored in the capacitor is__________?
C. 50 to 200 kV/mm A. 50 joules
D. 300 to 500 kV/mm B. 150 joules
capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency C. 200 joules
tuning? D. 250 joules
A. Paper The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing
B. Air through a surface in an electric field is
C. Mica called____________?
D. Electrolytic A. electric flux
When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential B. electric flux density
gradient is_____________? C. magnetic flux density
A. uniform D. electric charge density
B. non-uniform Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have
C. zero maintained between them a potential difference of
D. any of the above 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed
capacitors are used in transistor circuits? between them is______________?
A. Ceramic A. 0.56 x 1015 m/s2
B. Paper B. 1.5 x 1015 m/s2
C. Air C. 1.6 x 1015 m/s2
D. Electrolytic D. 1.76 x 1015 m/s2
The inverse of capacitance is The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting
called_______________? charged merely by the nearness of a charged body
A. reluctance is known as____________?
B. conductance A. pholoelectric effect
C. susceptance B. chemical effect
D. elastance C. magnetic effect
____________field is associated with the D. induction
capacitor?
A. Electric The relative permittivity has the following
B. Magnetic units__________?
C. Both (A) and (B) A. F/m
D. None of the above B. m/F
The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a C. Wb/m
body is known as____________? D. no units
A. current A unit tube of flux is known as tube___________?
B. voltage A. Newton
C. potential gradient B. Faraday
D. charge C. Michale
The potential gradient across the material of low D. None of the above
permittivity is than across the material of high The value of E within the field due to a point
permittivity? charge can be found with the help of___________?
A. smaller A. Faraday’s laws
B. greater B. Kirchhoff s laws
C. both (A) and (B) C. Coulomb’s laws
D. none of the above D. none of the above

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at a point is equal to the negative potential A. Farad/sq-m
gradient at that point? B. Farad/meter
A. Electric intensity C. Weber/meter
B. Electric flux D. Weber/sq-m
C. Magnetic flux In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum
D. Magnetic flux density at the surface of the______________?
Dielectric strength _________ with increasing A. earth
thickness B. conduction
A. increases C. sheath
B. decreases D. insulator
C. remains unaltered The property of a capacitor to store electricity is
D. none of the above called its____________?
Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is A. capacitance
equal to the at that point? B. charge
A. electric flux C. energy
B. magnetic flux density D. none of the above
C. potential gradient A capacitance of 100 fiF is connected in series with
D. none of the above a resistance of 8000 £2. The time constant of the
The unit of dielectric strength is given circuit is______________?
by___________? A. 0.2 s
A. V/m B. 0.4 s
B. V2/m C. 0.6 s
C. m/V D. 0.8 s
D. m/V2 The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as
Electric displacement is a__________quantity the time during which capacitor charging voltage
A. scalar actually rises to _________ percent of its
B. vector value
C. both of the above A. 37, initial
D. none of the above B. 62, initial
is that property of a capacitor which delays any C. 62, final
change of voltage across it ? D. 37, final
A. Inductance Dielectric strength of a material depends
B. Capacitance on_____________?
C. Potential gradient A. moisture content
D. None of the above B. temperature
One volt is the same as___________? C. thickness
A. one joule/coulomb D. all of the above
B. one coulomb/joule E. none of the above
C. one coulomb 1 volt/meter is same as___________?
D. one joule A. 1 meter/coulomb
Which medium has the least dielectric strength B. 1 newton meter
____________? C. 1 newton/meter
A. Paraffin wax D. 1 joule/coulomb
B. Quartz The bridge used for the measurement of the value
C. Glass of the capacitance is____________?
D. Air A. Wien’s bridge
Permittivity is expressed in_____________? B. Wheatstone bridge

121
C. Schering bridge Out of the following capacitors of identical rating
D. Hay’s bridge which one will have the smallest dimensions
The capacitance between two plates increases ___________ ?
with____________? A. Aluminium foil capacitor
A. shorter plate area and higher applied voltage B. Mica capacitor
B. shorter plate area and shorter distance C. Ceramic capacitor
between them D. Paper capacitor
C. larger plate area, longer distance between plates The presence of an uncharged conductor near a
and higher,applied voltage charged one increases the__________?
D. larger plate area and shorter distance between A. charge of the charged conductor
plates B. capacity of the charged conductor
If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes C. potential of the charged conductor
practically to zero and stays there, capacitor D. all of the above
is___________? Which of the following statements is correct ?
A. charged A. Mica capacitors are available in capacitance
B. short-circuited values of 5 to 20 uF
C. lossy B. Air capapitors have a black band to indicate the
D. satisfactory outside foil
The capacitance C is charged through a resistance C. Electrolytic capacitors must be connected in
R. The time constant of the charging circuit is correct polarity
given by__________? D. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in correct
A. CIR polarity
B. 1/RC For a good 0.05 uF capacitor ohmmeter reading
C. RC should___________?
D. RIC A. show low resistance momentarily and
Mica capacitors are characterized by all of the back off to a very high resistance
following except___________? B. show high resistance momentarily and then a very
A. stable operation low resistance
B. accurate value C. go quickly to 50 ohm approximately and remain
C. low leakage reactance there
D. low losses D. not move at all
An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited
conductor, then_____________? capacitor is____________?
A. the uncharged conductor gets charged by A. infinity
conduction B. few kilo ohms
B. the uncharged conductor gets charged by C. few megohms
induction and then attracted towards the charging D. zero
body An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to
C. the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then provide__________?
charged by induction A. low capacitance
D. it remains as such B. fixed capacitance
Paper condenser is___________? C. variable capacitance
A. always polarised D. large value of capacitance
B. usually of fixed value A positive and a negative charge are initially 50
C. electrolytic condenser mm apart. When they are moved close together so
D. a variable condenser that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force
between them will be________________?

122
A. 5 times smaller than before C. ground the framework
B. 5 times greater than before D. humidify the surroundings
C. 10 times greater than before A region around a stationary electric charge
D. 25 times larger than before has__________?
A condenser suitable for D.C. only A. an electric field
is________? B. a magnetic field
A. metallic plate variable gang condenser C. both A. and (6)
B. metallic paper capacitor D. none of the above
C. oil impregrated paper condenser Dielectric strength of a medium is usually
D. poled aluminium electrolytic condenser expressed in____________?
Which of the following capacitor is preferred in A. J/mm
case of single phase motor ? B. C/m2
A. Mica capacitor C. kV/mm
B. Paper capacitor D. N/mm
C. Electrolytic capacitor Which is the most superior dielectric out of the
D. Ceramic capacitor following ?
When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the A. Air
field strength____________? B. Glass
A. decreases C. Bakelite
B. increases D. Paper
C. reduces to zero To prevent the generation of static charges on
D. remain unchanged rubber or flat leather__________?
Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an A. surface is moistened
equal and similar charge repels with a force of 9 x B. conductive dressing is done
10 N, is known as_____________? C. oil compound dressing is done
A. milli-coulomb D. talcum powder is sprayed on the surface
B. micro-coulomb A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes
C. pico-coulomb the change in circuit__________?
D. coulomb A. Current
If a third equal and similar charge is placed B. Voltage
between two equal and similar charges, then this C. impedance
third charge will_____________? D. None of the above
A. move out of the field of influence of the two In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored
charges in_________?
B. remain in stable equilibrium A. metal plates
C. not be in equilibrium B. dielectric
D. be in unstable equilibrium C. dielectric as well as metal plates
Which of the following capacitors preferred for D. none of the above
high frequency circuits ? The minimum value of potential gradient in a
A. Air capacitor cable occurs in____________?
B. Electrolytic capacitor A. insulation
C. Mica capacitor B. conductor
D. none of the above C. outer sheath
In order to remove static electricity from D. uniformly all over
machinery___________? Dielectric strength of
A. construct insulated cabins medium____________?
B. insulate the machinery
A. increases with rise in temperature

123
B. increases with moisture content A. Air
C. is same for all insulating materials B. Mica
D. none of the above C. Plastic film
A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the D. Ceramic
plates of which are 4 mm apart. The strength of The units of volume charge density
electric field is___________? are___________?
A. 100 kV/m A. Coulomb/meter
B. 10 kV/m B. Coulomb/meter
C. 5 kV/m C. Coulomb/meter
D. 2 kV/m D. Coulomb/meter
What will happen to an insulating medium if Which of the following capacitors will have the
voltage more than the breakdown voltage is least value of breakdown voltage________ ?
applied on it__________ ? A. Mica
A. It will become magnetic B. Paper
B. It will melt C. Ceramic
C. It will get punctured or cracked D. Electrolytic
D. Its molecular structure will get changed Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the
A capacitor consists of two____________? same ratings ___________?
A. ceramic plates and one mica disc A. Ceramic capacitor
B. insulators separated by a dielectric B. Paper capacitor
C. silver-coated insulators C. Both will be of equal size
D. conductors separated by an insulator D. None of the above
The time constant and R-C circuit may also be A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both
defined as the time during which the charging have the same physical dimensions. Which will
current falls to ________ percent of its initial have more value of capacitance _______?
maximum value A. Ceramic capacitor
A. 37 B. Mica capacitor
B. 42 C. Both will have identical value of capacitance
C. 63 D. It depends on applied voltage
D. 73 The capacity of capacitor bank used in power
at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of factor correction is expressed in terms
force passing normally through a unit cross of____________?
section at that point ? A. kW
A. Electric intensity B. kVA
B. Magnetic flux density C. kVAR
C. Electric flux D. volts
D. None of the above The relative permittivity of free space is given
A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor by__________?
diameter 10 mm and the internal diameter of A. 1
sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress B. 10
in the cable is____________? C. 100
A. 62 x 105 V/m D. 1000
B. 72 x 105 V/m A gang condenser is a____________?
C. 82 x 105 V/m A. polarised capacitor
D. 92 x 105 V/m B. variable capacitor
capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio C. ceramic capacitor
frequency coupling and tuning ? D. none of the above
0 The unit of capacitance is__________?

124
A. henry The sparking between two electrical contacts can
B. ohm be reduced by inserting a___________?
C. farad A. capacitor in parallel with contacts
D. farad/m
B. capacitor in series with each contact
Air capacitors are generally available in the
C. resistance in line
range_________?
D. none of the above
A. 10 to 400 pF
Which of the following statements is incorrect
B. 1 to 20 pF
_________________?
C. 100 to 900 pF
A. The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors
D. 20 to 100 pF
is generally high
A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of
B. The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with
charge. The value of capacitance will
reduction in value of capacitance
be_____________?
C. The stored energy in a capacitor increases with
A. 10 F
applied voltage
B. 10 uF
D. A wire cable has distributed capacitance between
C. 100 nF
the conductors
D. 1000 uF
In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series
Capacitance increases with_____________?
equivalent resistance value will
A. increase in plate area and decrease in
be_______________?
distance between the plates
A. small
B. increase in plate area and distance between the
B. very small
plates
C. large
C. decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
D. zero
D. reduction in plate area and distance between the
Which of the following capacitors has relatively
plates
shorter shelf life____________?
In a capacitive circuit___________?
A. Mica capacitor
A. a steady value of applied voltage causes
B. Electrolytic capacitor
discharge
C. Ceramic capacitor
B. an increase in applied voltage makes a
D. Paper capacitor
capacitor charge
Which of the following expression is correct for
C. decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor
electric field strength___________?
charge
A. E = D/E
D. none of the above
B. E = D2/t
The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the
C. E = jtD
order of____________?
D. E= nD2
A. 0.0002
Which of the following statement is true
B. 0.002
__________?
C. 0.02
A. The current in the discharging capacitor
D. 0.2
grows linearly
Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given.
B. The current in the dicharging capacitor grows
The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be obtained by
exponentially
using them_____________?
C. The current in the discharging capacitor decays
A. all in series
exponentially
B. all in parallel
D. The current in the discharging capacitor decreases
C. two in parallel and third in series with this
constantly
combination
Which of the following materials has the highest
D. two in series and third in parallel across this
value of dielectric constant___________?
combination

125
A. Glass A. Air capacitors have a black band to indicate
B. Vacuum the outside foil
C. Ceramics B. Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the
D. Oil
correct polarity
For which of the following parameter variation,
C. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the
the capacitance of the capacitor remains
correct polarity
unaffected ____________?
D. Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value
A. Distance between plates
of 1 to 10 pF
B. Area of the plates
If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the
C. Nature of dielectric
alternating current can flow in the circuit
D. Thickness of the plates
because__________________?
Which of the following capacitors will have the
A. varying voltage produces the charging
least variation ____________?
and dicharging currents
A. Paper capacitor
B. of high peak value
B. Ceramic capacitor
C. charging current can flow
C. Silver plated mica capacitor
D. discharge current can flow
D. None of the above
A dielectric material must be____________?
In a capacitor the electric charge is stored
A. resistor
in____________?
B. insulator
A. metal plates
C. good conductor
B. dielectric
D. semi conductor
C. both (A) and (B)
The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected
D. none of the above
by____________?
“The total electric flux through any closed surface
A. distance between plates
surrounding charges is equal to the amount
B. area of plates
oflcharge enclosed”. The above statement is
C. thickness of plates
associated with____________?
D. all of the above
A. Coulomb’s square law
The units of capacitance are____________?
B. Gauss’s law
A. volts/coulomb
C. Maxwell’s first law
B. coulombs/volt
D. Maxwell’s second law
C. ohms
Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor after being
D. henry/Wb
charged from a constant voltage source are
If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel,
separated apart by means of insulated handles,
the net cararitance is___________?
then the____________?
A. 20 uF
A. Voltage across the plates increases
B. 30 uE
B. voltage across the plates decreases
C. 40 uF
C. charge on the capacitor decreases
D. 50 uF
D. charge on the capacitor increases
An electrolytic capacitor can be used
Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric
for_____________?
produces an electrolytic field 100 times greater
A. D.C. only
than air. What will be the value of dielectric
B. AC. only
constant ________?
C. both D.C. as well as A.C.
A. 50
Which of the following is not a vector
B. 100
___________?
C. 150
A. Linear momentum
D. 200
B. Angular momentum
Which of the following statements is correct
___________?

126
C. Electric field The electric field at a point situated at a distance d
D. Electric potential from straight charged conductor is____________?
The lines of force due to charged particles A. proportional to d
are_________? B. inversely proportional to d
A. always straight C. inversely proportional to d
B. always curved D. none of the above
C. sometimes curved A field line and an equipotential surface
D. none of the above are____________?
If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the A. always parallel
plates of an air capacitor, the capacitance B. always at 90°
will__________? C. inclined at any angle 0
A. decrease D. none of the above
B. increase The force between two charges is 120 N. If the
C. remains unchanged distance between the charges is doubled, the force
D. become zero will be________________?
A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its A. 60 N
capacitance is___________? B. 30 N
A. 0.024 F C. 40 N
B. 0.12 F D. 15 N
C. 0.6 F The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne
D. 0.8 F another is attributed to the existence
If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, of____________?
the net capacitance is A. electrons
A. 5 uF B. protons
B. 30 uF C. neutrons
C. 45 uF D. electric field
D. 50 uF For making a capacitor, it is better to select a
A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its dielectric having___________?
capacitance is_____________? A. low permittivity
A. 0.024 F B. high permittivity
B. 0.12 F C. permittivity same as that of air
C. 0.6 F D. permittivity slightly more than that of air
D. 0.8 F
The direction of electric field due +0 positive
CHAPTER # MAGNETIC CIRCUIT
charge is ___________?
Those magnetic materials are best suited for
A. away from the charge
making armature and transformer cores which
B. towards the charge
have ________ permeability and ________
C. both A. and (6)
hystersis loss
D. none of the above
A. high, high
The electric field intensity at a point situated 4
B. low, high
meters from a point charge is 200 N/C. If the
C. high, low
distance is reduced to 2 meters, the field intensity
D. low, low
will be______________?
A material for good magnetic memory should
A. 400 N/C
have____________?
B. 600 N/C
A. low hysteresis loss
C. 800 N/C
B. high permeability
D. 1200 N/C
C. low retentivity
D. high retentivity

127
If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, force
the hysteresis loss in this material will C. molecular friction
be____________? D. it high retentivity
A. zero Hysteresis loss least depends on____________?
B. small A. volume of material
C. large B. frequency
D. none of the above C. steinmetz coefficient of material
The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of D. ambient temperature
inductance 10 H when suddenly connected to a The unit of reluctance is_____________?
D.C. supply of 200 V is__________Vs A. metre/henry
A. 50 B. henry/metre
B. 20 C. henry
C. 0.05 D. 1/henry
D. 500 Reciprocal of reluctance is_______________?
The rate of rise of current through an inductive A. reluctivity
coil is maximum_____________? B. permeance
A. at 63.2% of its maximum steady value C. permeability
B. at the start of the current flow D. susceptibility
C. after one time constant The property of a material which opposes the
D. near the final maximum value of current creation of magnetic flux in it is known
Permanent magnets are normally made as_____________?
of_____________? A. reluctivity
A. alnico alloys B. magnetomotive force
B. aluminium C. permeance
C. cast iron D. reluctance
D. wrought iron Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because
The unit of magnetic flux is______________? it has_____________?
A. henry A. low coercivity
B. weber B. low retentivity
C. ampereturn/weber C. low hysteresis loss
D. ampere/metre D. high coercivity
Point out the wrong statement. Magnetic leakage A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an
is undesirable in electric machines because iron core because_______________?
it___________? A. ferrites have high resistance
A. lowers their power efficiency B. ferrites are magnetic
B. increases their cost of manufacture C. ferrites have low permeability
C. leads to their increased weight D. ferrites have high hysteresis
D. produces fringing Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used
An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to reduce____________?
to____________? A. copper loss
A. increase m.m.f. B. eddy current loss
B. increase the flux C. hysteresis loss
C. prevent saturation D. all of the above
D. none of the above While comparing magnetic and electric circuits,
In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place the flux of magnetic circuit is compared with
primarily due to___________? which parameter of electrical circuit ?
A. rapid reversals of its magnetisation A. E.m.f.
B. flux density lagging behind magnetising B. Current

128
C. Current density B. 1 H/m
D. Conductivity C. 1/4JI
The unit of retentivity is____________? D. 4n x 10-‘ H/m
A. weber Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds
B. weber/sq. m to________ in an electric circuit
C. ampere turn/meter A. resistance
D. ampere turn B. resistivity
Conductance is analogous to_____________? C. conductivity
A. permeance D. conductance
B. reluctance The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic
C. flux material is_____________?
D. inductance A. less than one
Hard steel is suitable for making permanent B. more than one
magnets because_____________? C. more than 10
A. it has good residual magnetism D. more than 100 or 1000
B. its hysteresis loop has large area CHAPTER # RECTIFIERS &
C. its mechanical strength is high CONVERTERS
D. its mechanical strength is low
Which of the following methods may be used to
Those materials are well suited for making
convert A.C. system to D.C ?
permanent magnets which have ________
A. Rectifiers
retentivity and _________ coercivity
B. Motor converters
A. low, high
C. Motor-generator sets
B. high, high
D. Rotary converters
C. high, low
E. All of the above
D. low, low
A synchronous converter can be
Conductivity is analogous to____________?
started______________?
A. retentivity
A. by means of a small auxiliary motor
B. resistivity
B. from AC. side as induction motor
C. permeability
C. from D.C. side as D.C. motor
D. inductance
D. any of the above methods
When both the inductance and resistance of a coil
E. none of the above methods
are doubled the value of________________?
Which of the following are the applications of
A. time constant remains unchanged
D.C. system ?
B. initial rate of rise of current is doubled
A. Battery charging work
C. final steady current is doubled
B. Arc welding
D. time constant is halved
C. Electrolytic and electro-chemical processes
Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its
D. Arc lamps for search lights
current is increased by
E. All of the above
percent___________?
In a single phase rotary converter the number of
A. 25
slip rings will be_____________?
B. 50
A. two
C. 41.4
B. three
D. 100
C. four
Relative permeability of vacuum
D. six
is__________?
E. none
A. 1
A rotary converter combines the function
of____________?

129
A. an induction motor and a D.C. generator B. high power factor
B. a synchronous motor and a D.C. C. zero power factor
generator D. none of the above
C. a D.C. series motor and a D.C. generator In a rotary converter armature currents
D. none of the above are______________?
With a motor converter it is possible to obtain A. d.c. only
D.C. voltage only upto__________? B. a.c. only
A. 200-100 V C. partly a.c. and partly d.c.
B. 600—800 V In which of the following appUcations, direct
C. 1000—1200 V current is absolutely essential ?
D. 1700—2000 V A. Illumination
Which of the following is reversible in action ? B. Electrolysis
A. Motor generator set C. Variable speed operation
B. Motor converter D. Traction
C. Rotary converter In a mercury arc rectifier positive ions are
D. Any of the above attracted towards______________?
E. None of the above A. anode
A rotary converter is a single machine B. cathode
with______________? C. shell bottom
A. one armature and one field D. mercury pool
B. two armatures and one field In which of the following equipment direct
C. one armature and two fields current is needed ?
D. none of the above A. Telephones
A rotary converter in general construction and B. Relays
design, is more or less like___________? C. Time switches
A. a transformer D. All of the above
B. an induction motor Which of the following AC. motors is usually used
C. an alternator in large motor-generator sets?
D. any D.C. machine A. Synchronous motor
Which of the following metals is generally B. Squirrel cage induction motor
manufactured by electrolysis process ? C. Slip ring induction motor
A. Load D. Any of the above
B. Aluminium In a rotary converter I2R losses as compared to a
C. Copper D.C. generator of the same size will
D. Zinc be___________?
E. None of the above A. same
Normally, which of the following is used, when a B. less
large-scale conversion from AC. to D.C. power is C. double
required ? D. three times
A. Motor-generator set The potential drop in the arc, in a mercury arc
B. Motor converter rectifier, varies_____________?
C. Rotary converter A. 0.05 V to 0.2 V per cm length of the arc
D. Mercury arc rectifier B. 0.5 V to 1.5 V per cm length of the arc
A rotary converter operates at C. 2 V to 3.5 V per cm length of the arc
a______________? D. none of the above
A. low power factor Mercury, in arc rectifiers, is chosen for cathode
because________________?

130
A. its ionization potential is relatively low If cathode and anode connections in a mercury
B. its atomic weight is quite high arc rectifier are inter changed_____________?
C. its boiling point and specific heat are low A. the rectifier will not operate
D. it remains in liquid state at ordi¬nary temperature B. internal losses will be reduced
E. all of the above C. both ion and electron streams will move in the
Glass rectifiers are usually made into units same direction
capable of D.C. output (maximum continuous D. the rectifier will operate at reduced efficiency
rating) of _____________? The voltage drop at anode, in a mercury arc
A. 100 A at 100 V rectifier is due to_____________?
B. 200 A at 200 V A. self restoring property of mercury
C. 300 A at 300 V B. high ionization potential
D. 400 A at 400 V C. energy spent in overcoming the electrostatic
E. 500 A at 500 V field
The cathdde voltage drop, in a mercury arc D. high temperature inside the rectifier
rectifier, is due to_____________? The voltage drop between the anode and cathode,
A. expenditure of energy in ionization of a mercury arc rectifier comprises of the
B. surface resistance following_____________?
C. expenditure of energy in overcoming the A. anode drop and cathode drop
electrostatic field B. anode drop and arc drop
D. expenditure of energy in liberating electrons C. cathode drop and arc drop
from the mercury D. anode drop, cathode drop and arc drop
To produce cathode spot in a mercury arc The ionization potential of mercury is
rectifier______________? approximately_____________?
A. anode is heated A. 5.4 V
B. tube is evacuated B. 8.4 V
C. an auxiliary electrode is used C. 10.4 V
D. low mercury vapour pressures are used D. 16.4 V
The advantage of mercury arc rectifier is In a glass bulb mercury arc rectifier the
that________________? maximum current rating is restricted
A. it is light in weight and occupies small floor to___________?
space A. 2000 A
B. it has high efficiency B. 1500 A
C. it has high overload capacity C. 1000 A
D. it is comparatively noiseless D. 500 A
E. all of the above In a mercury arc rectifier characteristic blue
The internal efficiency of a mercury arc rectifier luminosity is due to_____________?
depends on___________? A. colour of mercury
A. voltage only B. ionization
B. current only C. high temperature
C. voltage and current D. electron streams
D. r.m.s. value of current When a rectifier is loaded which of the following
E. none of the above voltage drops take place ?
In a mercury pool rectifier, the voltage drop A. Voltage drop in transformer reactance
across its electrodes___________? B. Voltage drop in resistance of transformer
A. is directly proportional to load and smoothing chokes
B. is inversely proportional to load C. Arc voltage drop
C. varies exponentially with the load current D. All of the above
D. is almost independent of load current

131
Which of the following mercury arc rectifier will In a phase-shift control method, the phase shift
deliver least undulating current? between anode and grid voltages can be achieved
A. Six-phase by means of______________?
B. Three-phase A. shunt motor
C. Two-phase B. synchronous motor
D. Single-phase C. induction regulator
In a three-phase mercury arc rectifiers each anode D. synchronous generator
conducts for____________? In mercury arc rectifiers having grid, the arc can
A. one-third of a cycle be struck between anode and cathode only when
B. one-fourth of a cycle the grid attains a certain potential, this potential
C. one-half a cycle being known as______________?
D. two-third of a cycle A. maximum grid voltage
In a mercury arc rectifier________ flow from B. critical grid voltage
anode to cathode C. any of the above
A. ions D. none of the above
B. electrons Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
C. ions and electrons A. Copper oxide rectifier is a linear device
D. any of the above B. Copper oxide rectifier is not a perfect
A mercury arc rectifier possesses __________ rectifier
regulation characteristics C. Copper oxide rectifier has a low efficiency
A. straight line D. Copper oxide rectifier finds use in control circuits
B. curved line E. Copper oxide rectifier is not stable during early
C. exponential life
D. none of the above In phase-shift control method the control is
In a grid control of mercury arc rectifiers when carried out by varying the of grid voltage
the grid is made positive relative to cathode, then A. magnitude
it the electrons on their may to anode. B. polarity
A. accelerates C. phase
B. decelerates D. any of the above
C. any of the above E. none of the above
D. none of the above The metal rectifiers are preferred to valve
On which of the following factors the number of rectifiers due to which of the following advantages
phases for which a rectifier should be designed ?
depend ? A. They are mechanically strong
A. The voltage regulation of the rec¬tifier B. They do not require any voltage for filament
should be low heating
B. In the output circuit there should be no harmonics C. Both (A) and (B)
C. The power factor of the system should be high D. None of the above
D. The rectifier supply transformer should be utilized Copper oxide rectifier is usually designed not to
to the best ad-vantage operate above___________?
E. all of the above A. 10°C
It is the_________of the transformer on which the B. 20°C
magnitude of angle of overlap depends? C. 30°C
A. resistance D. 45°C
B. capacitance Ageing of a selenium rectifier may change the
C. leakage reactance output voltage by__________?
D. any of the above A. 5 to 10 per cent
B. 15 to 20 per cent

132
C. 25 to 30 per cent Which of the following is the loss within the
D. none of the above mercury arc rectifier chamber ?
The efficiency of the copper oxide rectifier seldom A. Voltage drop in arc
exceeds____________? B. Voltage drop at the anode
A. 90 to 95% C. Voltage drop at the cathode
B. 85 to 90% D. All of the above
C. 80 to 85% Which of the following rectifiers are primarily
D. 65 to 75% used for charging of low voltage batteries from
Selenium rectifier can be operated at AC supply ?
temperatures as high as____________? A. Mechanical rectifiers
A. 25°C B. Copper oxide rectifiers
B. 40°C C. Selenium rectifiers
C. 60°C D. Electrolytic rectifiers
D. 75°C E. Mercury arc rectifiers
The applications of selenium rectifiers are usually The efficiency of an electrolytic rectifier is
limited to potential of_____________? nearly____________?
A. 10 V A. 80%
B. 30 V B. 70%
C. 60 V C. 60%
D. 100 V D. 40%
E. 200 V The ignited or auxiliary anode in mercury arc
In selenium rectifiers efficiencies ranging from rectifier is made of____________?
_______ to _______ percent are attainable? A. graphite
A. 25, 35 B. boron carbide
B. 40, 50 C. aluminium
C. 60, 70 D. copper
D. 75, 85
A commutating rectifier consists of commutator CHAPTER # MAGNETISM &
driven by___________?
ELECTROMAGNETISM
A. an induction motor
The direction of magnetic lines of force
B. a synchronous motor
is________________?
C. a D.C. series motor
A. from south pole to north pole
D. a D.C. shunt motor
B. from north pole to south pole
In a mercury arc rectifier, the anode is usually
C. from one end of the magnet to another
made of_____________?
D. none of the above
A. copper
A permeable substance is
B. aluminium
one_____________?
C. silver
A. which is a good conductor
D. graphite
B. which is a bad conductor
E. tungsten
C. which is a strong magnet
Which of the following rectifiers have been used
D. through which the magnetic lines of force can
extensively in supplying direct current for
pass very easily
electroplating ?
A magnetic field exists around____________?
A. Copper oxide rectifiers
A. iron
B. Selenium rectifiers
B. copper
C. Mercury arc rectifiers
C. aluminium
D. Mechanical rectifiers
D. moving charges
E. None of the above

133
The materials having low retentivity are suitable Magnetising steel is normals difficult
for making_____________? because____________?
A. weak magnets A. it corrodes easily
B. temporary magnets B. it has high permeability
C. permanent magnets C. it has high specific gravity
D. none of the above D. it has low permeability
Tesla is a unit of_____________? When an iron piece is placed in a magnetic
A. field strength field_____________?
B. inductance A. the magnetic lines of force will bend away
C. flux density from their usual paths in order to go away from
D. flux the piece
Ferrites are materials B. the magnetic lines of force will bend away from
A. paramagnetic their usual paths in order to pass through the
B. diamagnetic piece
C. ferromagnetic C. the magnetic field will not be affected
D. none of the above D. the iron piece will break
The two conductors of a transmission line carry The ratio of intensity of magnetisation to the
equal current I in opposite directions. The force magnetisation force is known as_____________?
on each conductor is________________? A. flux density
A. proportional to 7 B. susceptibility
B. proportional to X C. relative permeability
C. proportional to distance between the conductors D. none of the above
D. inversely proportional to I Materials subjected to rapid reversal of
Air gap has_________eluctance as compared to magnetism should have______________?
iron or steel path? A. large area oiB-H loop
A. little B. high permeability and low hysteresis loss
B. lower C. high co-ercivity and high retentivity
C. higher D. high co-ercivity and low density
D. zero The unit of relative permeability
Which of the following is a vector quantity ? is_____________?
A. Relative permeability A. henry/metre
B. Magnetic field intensity B. henry
C. Flux density C. henry/sq. m
D. Magnetic potential D. it is dimensionless
A material which is slightly repelled by a magnetic Indicate which of the following material does not
field is known as_____________? retain magnetism permanently
A. ferromagnetic material A. Soft iron
B. diamagnetic material B. Stainless steel
C. paramagnetic material C. Hardened steel
D. conducting material D. None of the above
Fleming’s left hand rule is used to The force between two long parallel conductors is
find_________________? inversely proportional to_____________?
A. direction of magnetic field due to current A. radius of conductors
carrying conductor B. current in one conductor
B. direction of flux in a solenoid C. product of current in two conductors
C. direction of force on a current carrying D. distance between the conductors
conductor in a magnetic field The left hand rule correlates to______________?
D. polarity of a magnetic pole

134
A. current, induced e.m.f. and direction of force Which of the following is a ferromagnetic material
on a conductor ?
B. magnetic field, electric field and direction of force A. Tungsten
on a conductor B. Aluminium
C. self induction, mutual induction and direction of C. Copper
force on a conductor D. Nickel
D. current, magnetic field and direction of force Substances which have permeability less than the
on a conductor permeability of free space are known
A conductor of length L has current I passing as_____________?
through it, when it is placed parallel to a magnetic A. ferromagnetic
field. The force experienced by the conductor will B. paramagnetic
be______________? C. diamagnetic
A. zero D. bipolar
B. BLI In the left hand rule, forefinger always
C. B2LI represents______________?
D. BLI2 A. voltage
The use of permanent magnets is. not made B. current
in_____________? C. magnetic field
A. magnetoes D. direction of force on the conductor
B. energy meters Ferrites are a sub-group of_______________?
C. transformers A. non-magnetic materials
D. loud-speakers B. ferro-magnetic materials
Two infinitely long parallel conductors in vacuum C. paramagnetic materials
any separated 1 metre between centers >then a D. ferri-magnetic materials
current of 1 ampere flows the. uk each conductor, Reciprocal of permeability is____________?
produce on each other a force A. reluctivity
of_________________? B. susceptibility
A. 2 x 1(T2 N/m) C. permittivity
B. 2 x KT3 N/m D. conductance
C. 2 x 10″5 N/m Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux
D. 2x 1(T7 N/m) density ?
The main constituent of permalloy A. weber
is_____________? B. lumens
A. cobalt C. tesla
B. chromium D. none of the above
C. nickel The working of a meter is based on the use of a
D. tungsten permanent magnet. In order to protect the meter
Paramagnetic materials have relative functioning from stray magnetic
permeability________________? fields______________?
A. slightly less than unity A. meter is surrounded by strong magnetic
B. equal to unity fields
C. slightly more than unity B. a soft iron shielding is used
D. equal to that ferromagnetic mate rials C. a plastic shielding is provided
Gilbert is a unit of_______________? D. a shielding of anon-magnetic material is used
A. electromotive force The relative permeability is less than unity is case
B. magnetomotive force of_____________?
C. conductance A. ferromagnetic materials
D. permittivity B. ferrites

135
C. non-ferrous materials A. resistance of the coil
D. diamagnetic materials B. motion of the magnet
Which of the following is not a unit of flux? C. number of turns of the coil
A. Maxwell D. pole strength of the magnet
B. Telsa When two ends of a circular uniform wire are
C. Weber joined to the terminals of a battery, the field at the
D. All of the above center of the circle?
One telsa is equal to___________? A. will be zero
A. 1 Wb/mm2 B. will be infinite
B. 1 Wb/m C. will depend on the amount of e.m.f. applied
C. 1 Wb/m2 D. will depend on the radius of the circle
D. 1 mWb/m2 A 300 mm long conductor is carrying a current of
The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field 10 A and is situated at right angles to a magnetic
has been removed is known as____________? field having a flux density of 0.8 T ; the force on
A. permeance the conductor will be____________?
B. residual magnetism A. 240 N
C. susceptance B. 24 N
D. reluctance C. 2.4 N
Which of the following is expected to have the D. 0.24 N
maximum permeability ? The electromagnet has 50 turns and a current of
A. Brass 1A flows through the coil. If the length of the
B. Copper magnet circuit is 200 mm, what is the magnetic
C. Zinc field strength ?
D. Ebonite A. 2500 AT/m
One maxwell is equal to____________? B. 250 AT/m
A. 10 webers C. 25 AT/m
B. 10 webers D. 2.5 AT/m
C. 10 webers Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the
D. 10 webers conductors are separated by 20 mm, the force per
Out of the following statements, concerning an meter of length of each conductor will
electric field, which statement is not true ? be_____________?
A. The electric intensity is a vector quantity A. 100 N
B. The electric field intensity at a point is B. 10 N
numerically equal to the force exerted upon a C. 1 N
charge placed at that point D. 0.1 N
C. An electric field is defined as a point in space at A 200 turn coil having an axial length of 30 mm
which an electric charge would experience a force and a radius of 10 mm is pivoted in a magnetic
D. Unit field intensity in the exertion of a force of field having a flux density of 0.8 T. If the coil
one newton on a charge of one coulomb carries a current of 0.5 A, the torque acting on the
Susceptibility is positive coil will be_____________?
for______________? A. 8 N-m
A. non-magnetic substances B. 0.48 N-m
B. diamagnetic substances C. 0.048 N-m
C. ferromagnetic substances D. 0.0048 N-m
D. none of the above A square cross-sectional magnet has a pole
When a magnet is in motion relative to a coil the strength of 1 x 10 Wb and cross sectional area of
induced e.m.f. does not depend 20 mm x 20 mm. What is the strength at a
upon____________? distance of 100 mm from the unit pole in air ?

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A. 63.38 N/Wb A. 2
B. 633.8 N/Wb B. 4
C. 6338 N/Wb C. 6
D. 63380 N/Wb D. 8
Unit for quantity of electricity The materials are a bit inferior conductors of
is_____________? magnetic flux than air
A. ampere-hour A. ferromagnetic
B. watt B. paramagnetic
C. joule C. diamagnetic
D. coulomb D. dielectric
What is the magnitude and the direction of force he retentivity (a property) of material is useful for
per 1.1m length of a pair of conductors of a direct the construction of__________?
current linecarrying 10 amperes and spaced 100 A. permanent magnets
mm apart ? B. transformers
A. 22 x 10″8 N C. non-magnetic substances
B. 22 x 10″7 N D. electromagnets
C. 22 x 10-6 N he retentivity (a property) of material is useful for
D. 22 x 10″5 N the construction of_______________?
The unit of flux is the same as that A. permanent magnets
of_______________? B. transformers
A. reluctance C. non-magnetic substances
B. resistance D. electromagnets
C. permeance A permanent magnet______________?
D. pole strength A. attracts some substances and repels
The commonly used material for shielding or others
screening magnetism is____________? B. attracts all paramagnetic substances and repels
A. copper others
B. aluminium C. attracts only ferromagnetic substances
C. soft iron D. attracts ferromagnetic substances and repels all
D. brass others
The Biot-savart’s law is a general modification The relative permeability of materials is not
of_______________? constant
A. Kirchhoffs law A. diamagnetic
B. Lenz’s law B. paramagnetic
C. Ampere’s law C. ferromagnetic
D. Faraday’s laws D. insulating
If a copper disc is rotated rapidly below a freely A rectangular magnet of magnetic moment M is
suspended magnetic needle, the magnetic needle cut into two piece of same length, the magnetic
shall start rotating with a velocity? moment of each piece will be______________?
A. less than that of disc but in opposite A. M
direction B. M/2
B. equal to that of disc and in the same direction C. 2 M
C. equal to that of disc and in the opposite direction D. M/4
D. less than that of disc and in the same direction Magnetic moment is a_____________?
What will be the current passing through the ring A. pole strength
shaped air cored coil when number of turns is 800 B. universal constant
and ampere turns are 3200 ? C. scalar quantity
D. vector quantity

137
Hysteresis loop in case of magnetically hard A. 2 AT
materials is more in shape as compared to B. 4 AT
magnetically soft materials C. 6 AT
A. circular D. 10 AT
B. triangular The initial permeability of an iron rod
C. rectangular is________________?
D. none of the above A. the highest permeability of the iron rod
A keeper is used to_____________? B. the lowest permeability of the iron rod
A. change the direction of magnetic lines C. the permeability at the end of the iron rod
B. amplify flux D. the permeability almost in non-magnetised
C. restore lost flux state
D. provide a closed path for flux Which of the following statements is correct ?
The uniform magnetic field A. The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is
is______________? lower than its outside surface
A. the field of a set of parallel conductors B. The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is zero
B. the field of a single conductor C. The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is
C. the field in which all lines of magnetic flux are greater than its outside surface
parallel and equidistant D. The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is
D. none of the above same as on its outside surface
The change of cross-sectional area of conductor in The magnetic reluctance of a
magnetic field will affect______________? material______________?
A. reluctance of conductor A. decreases with increasing cross sectional
B. resistance of conductor area of material
C. A. and B. both in the same way B. increases with increasing cross-sec-tional area of
D. none of the above material
The magneto-motive force C. does not vary with increasing cross-sectional area
is______________? of material
A. the voltage across the two ends of exciting D. any of the above
coil In a simple magnetic field the strength of magnet
B. the flow of an electric current flux_______________?
C. the sum of all currents embraced by one line of A. is constant and has same value in energy
magnetic field part of the magnetic field
D. the passage of magnetic field through an exciting B. increases continuously from initial value to final
coil value
A certain amount of current flows through a ring- C. decreases continuously from initial value to final
shaped coil with fixed number of turns. How does value
the magnetic induction B varies inside the coil if D. first increases and then decreases till it becomes
an iron core is threaded into coil without zero
dimensional change of coil ? The bar magnet has____________?
A. Decreases A. the dipole moment
B. Increases B. monopole moment
C. Remains same C. A. and B. both
D. First increases and then decreases depending on D. none of the above
the depth of iron in¬sertion How does the magnetic compass needle behave in
What will be the magnetic potential difference a magnetic field ?
across the air gap of 2 cm length in magnetic field A. It assures a position right angle to magnetic
of 200 AT/m ? field
B. It starts rotating

138
C. It assures a position which follows a line of For which of the following materials the net
magnetic flux magnetic moment should be zero ?
D. None of the above A. Diamagnetic materials
Which of the following type of materials are not B. Ferrimagnetic materials
very important for engineering applications C. Antiferromagnetic materials
? D. Antiferrimagnetic materials
A. Ferromagnetic Which of the following statements is correct
B. Paramagnetic ?
C. Diamagnetic A. The conductivity of ferrites is better than
D. None of the above ferromagnetic materials
The stray line of magnetic flux is defined B. The conductivity of ferromagnetic materials is
as_____________? better than ferrites
A. a line vertical to the flux lines C. The conductivity of ferrites is very high
B. the mean length of a ring shaped coil D. The conductivity of ferrites is same as that of
C. a line of magnetic flux in a non-uniform field ferromagnetic materials
D. a line of magnetic flux which does not follow Core of an electromagnet should
the designed path have____________?
Which of the following materials are diamagnetic A. low coercivity
? B. high susceptibility
A. Silver C. both of the above
B. Copper D. none of the above
C. Silver and copper Main causes of noisy solenoid
D. Iron are______________?
For which of the following materials the A. strong tendency of fan out of laminations at
saturation value is the highest ? the end caused by repulsion among magnetic
A. Ferromagnetic materials lines of force
B. Paramagnetic materials B. uneven bearing surface, caused by dirt or uneven
C. Diamagnetic materials wear between moving and stationary parts
D. Ferrites C. both of above
The attraction capacity of electromagnet will D. none of the above
increase if the_______________? Magnetism of a magnet can be destroyed
A. core length increases i by_____________?
B. core area increases A. heating
C. flux density decreases B. hammering
D. flux density increases C. by inductive action of another magnet
The susceptibility of paramagnetic materials D. by all above methods
generally lies between____________?
A. KT3 and 1CT6 CHAPTER # ELECTROMAGNETIC
B. 1CT3 and 1CT7 INDUCTION
C. KT4 and KT8
A coil of wire is arranged with its plane
D. 10″2 and KT5
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field o flux
Temporary magnets are used
density B. when the radius of the coil increases
in______________?
from r1 to r2 in time Δt then what is the emf
A. loud-speakers
induced in the coil ?
B. generators
A. ωB/r22-r12/Δt
C. motors
B. ωB(r2-r1)2/Δt
D. all of the above
C. ωB(r22-r12)/Δt
D. ωB(r22+r12)/Δt

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Self-inductance of a long solenoid magnetic field. Emf produced in the rod
is______________? is_____________?
A. μoN2A A. 0 volt
B. μoN2/A B. 3.125 volt
C. μoN2 C. 31.25 volt
D. BA D. 0.03125 volt
The alternating current has frequency of 106 Hz The self-inductance of a solenoid is increased
in such a way that time period for completion of when a soft iron core is inserted into it. This is
cycle is_______________? because the soft iron core_______________?
A. 1Hzs A. Decreases the resistance of the solenoid
B. 1.5Hzs B. Reduces the effect of eddy current
C. 106sec C. Improves the flux linkage between the turns of
D. 1sec the coil
Self inductance of a coil depends D. Increases the mutual inductance between the
upon________________? solenoid and the core
A. current flowing An aeroplane of wingspan 10m flies from the
B. number of turns per unit length equator towards the North Pole. The wings are
C. voltage produce perpendicular to the vertical component of the
D. all earths magnetic field (B = 4×10-5T). At maximum
Energy stored in a magnetic field is given speed an emf of 96mV is induced across the wing
by______________? tips. The maximum speed of the aeroplane
A. LI2 is____________?
B. L2I/2 A. 150msec-1
C. LI2/2 B. 384msec-1
D. IL2 C. 38.4msec-1
For electroplating we D. 200msec-1
use_________________? Non inductive resistances are used in
A. A D.C source decreasing______________?
B. an A.C source A. Mutual inductance
C. any source B. Self inductance
D. all of the above C. Magnetic fields
The only difference between construction of D.C D. Heating effect
generator and A.C generator is that Which one of the following devices does not
of_______________? function like an electric motor ?
A. carbon brushes A. Galvanometer
B. coil B. Ammeter
C. commutator C. Voltmeter
D. magnetic field D. Transformer
If the secondary coil has Ns turns and the primary For long distance transmission the transformer
Np turns the relation between secondary and used is_____________?
primary voltages is given by_____________? A. Step down
A. Vs/Vp = Np/Ns B. Input voltage and output voltage remain
B. Vs/Vp = Ns/Np same
C. Vp/Vs = Ns/Np C. Step up
D. Vp/Vs = Np/Ns D. Amplifier is used
A metal rod of 25 cm length is moving at a speed Lagging of changes in the magnetization of a
of 0.5/sec in direction perpendicular to 0.25T substance behind changes in the magnetic field as

140
the magnetic field is varied is known as A. producing heat
magnetic_____________? B. producing light
A. Retaintivity C. Magnetizing iron
B. Permeability D. Producing magnetic field
C. Flux A small coil lies inside a large coil. The two coils
D. Hysteresis are horizontal concentric and carry currents in
When the motor is at its maximum speed then opposite directions. The large coil will
back emf will be______________? experience______________?
A. Maximum 0A. A torque about horizontal axis
B. Zero B. A torque about vertical axis
C. Intermediate values C. An upward force along the axis
D. No back emf D. No resultant force
Transformer works on the principle The emf induced in a conductor of unit length
of________________? moving with unit velocity at right angles to a
A. Lenzs law magnetic field is equal to_____________?
B. Faradays law A. Magnetic flux density
C. Mutual induction B. Torque
D. Law of conservation of power C. Mutual induction
An electric current induced within the body of a D. Motional emf
conductor when that conductor either moves The emf induced in a coil by a changing magnetic
through a non uniform magnetic field or in a flux may have unit as______________?
region where there is a change in magnetic flux is A. ms-1A
called_____________? B. ms-2A-1
A. Induced current C. kgms2A-1
B. Eddy current D. kgm2s-1A-1
C. Back emf Power loss in actual transformer is due
D. None of the above to_________________?
The out put voltage of a transformer is 3 times the A. Small output
input voltage then turns ratio will B. Eddy currents and magnetic hysterias
be________________? C. Soft iron core
A. 3-Jan D. Back emf
B. 3 A.C and D.C have the
C. 1 same______________?
D. 6 A. effect in charging a capacitor
Long distance transmission is easy B. effect in charging a battery
for________________? C. effect while passing through an inductance
A. D.C voltage D. heating effect through a resistance
B. A.C voltage Which of the following uses electric energy and
C. Half A.C voltage does not convert it into any other form ?
D. Half D.C voltage A. transformer
Magnetic compass needle will be deflecting if it is B. motor
kept near________________? C. D.C generator
A. Static charge D. A.C generator
B. Soft iron Inductors acts as a short circuit
C. Semi-conductor for_______________?
D. Accelerating charge A. AC
A.C can not be used for_______________? B. DC

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C. Both A and B C. magnetizing and electroplating
D. none of these D. all the above
If the coil is wound on an iron core the flux A dynamo converts______________?
through it will_______________? A. mechanical energy into electrical energy
A. decrease B. electrical energy into mechanical energy
B. become zero C. magnetic energy into mechanical energy
C. remain the same D. magnetic energy into electrical energy
D. increase cmf generated by A.C dynamo depends
Which of the following works on torque on the upon_____________?
current carrying conductor placed in magnetic A. number of turns in the coil
field ? B. magnetic field strength
A. galvanometer C. frequency of rotation
B. ammeter D. all of above
C. voltmeter Current produced by moving the loop of wire
D. all of the above across a magnetic field is
A.C cannot be used for________________? called_____________?
A. producing heat A. A.C current
B. producing light B. D.C current
C. magnetizing and electroplating C. induced current
D. all the above D. mean square current
Which one of the following functions like a motor The practical illustration of the phenomenon of
? mutual induction is____________?
A. A.C generator
A. galvanometer B. D.C dynamo
B. ammeter C. induction coil
C. voltmeter
D. transformer
D. all of above
An alternating current or The polarity of the induced voltage can be
voltage________________? determined by using the left-hand generator rule
A. fluctuates off and on A. Yes
B. varies in magnitude alone B. No
C. changes its direction again and again Reversing the field or the current will reverse the
D. changes its magnitude continuously and force on the conductor
reverses its direction of flow after regularly A. Yes
recurring intervals. B. No
emf induced in a circuit according to Faradays The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as
law depends on the_____________? equal to the e.m.f. induced in volts when the
A. maximum magnetic flux current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit
B. rate of change of magnetic flux Weber turns
C. change in magnetic flux A. Yes
D. initial magnetic flux B. No
Weber is the unit of_____________? Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in
A. Magnetic field intensity circuit current ?
B. magnetic induction A. Resistance only
C. magnetic flux B. Inductance only
D. self-inductance C. Capacitance only
A.C cannot be used for_______________? D. Inductance and capacitance
A. producing heat
B. producing light

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A coil is wound on iron core which carries current C. 0.2 Wb
I. The self-induced voltage in the coil is not D. 0.02 Wb
affected by________________? Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual
A. variation in coil current coupling have a total inductance of___________?
B. variation in voltage to the coil A. 300 uH
C. change of number of turns of coil B. 600 uH
D. the resistance of magnetic path C. 150 uH
A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will D. 75 uH
result in________________? Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least
A. unchanged inductance eddy current losses ?
B. increased inductance A. Air core
C. zero inductance B. Laminated iron core
D. reduced inductance C. Iron core
The co-efficient of coupling between two air core D. Powdered iron core
coils depends on____________? A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced
A. self-inductance of two coils only voltage of 60 V. Over what time interval must a
B. mutual inductance between two coils only flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a
C. mutual inductance and self inductance of two voltage ?
coils A. 0.01 s
D. none of the above B. 0.1 s
Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second C. 0.5 s
induced 20 volts in a coil. The value of inductance D. 5 s
is___________?
A. 5 mH A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it
B. 10 mH with 10 mA. The inductive reactance
C. 5 H is_____________?
D. 10 H A. 50 ohms
A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes B. 500 ohms
at the rate of 1 A/s. The value of inductance C. 1000 ohms
is___________? D. 5000 ohms
A. 3500 mH A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under
B. 350 mH 60° to a magnetic field of 1.1 tesla. The force on
C. 250 mH the conductor will be nearly______________?
D. 150 mH A. 50 N
Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long B. 120 N
carrying a current of 50 amperes at right angles to C. 240 N
a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla D. 480 N
A. 100 N A conductor 2 meters long moves at right angles
B. 400 N to a magnetic field of flux density 1 tesla with a
C. 600 N velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the
D. 1000 N conductor will be____________?
An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 A. 10 V
turns solenoid as a result of a change in flux which B. 15 V
occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change C. 25V
is____________? D. 50V
A. 20 Wb Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H,
B. 2 Wb the mutual inductance being zero. If the two coils

143
are connected in series, the total inductance will An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of
be_____________? inductance 4H. The rate of change of current must
A. 6 H be______________?
B. 8 H A. 64 A/s
C. 12 H B. 32 A/s
D. 24 H C. 16 A/s
Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of D. 4 A/s
conservation of__________? Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH
A. induced current and a co-efficient of coupling of 0.5. If the two
B. charge coils are connected in series aiding, the total
C. energy inductance will be______________?
D. induced e.m.f. A. 32 mH
In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links B. 38 mH
with coil 2, the co-efficient of coupling will C. 40 mH
be____________? D. 48 mH
A. 2.0 The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The
B. 1.0 inductance of coil is 6 mH. If the core length is
C. 0.5 doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same,
D. zero the inductance will be_____________?
A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the A. 3 mH
number of turns is increased to 400 turns, all B. 12 mH
other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the C. 24mH
same, the inductance will be___________? D. 48mH
Which of the following is unit of inductance
?
A. 6 mH A. Ohm
B. 14 mH B. Henry
C. 24 mH C. Ampere turns
D. 48 mH D. Webers/metre
The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18
Which of the following circuit elements will
mH. If the co-efficients of coupling is 0.5, the
oppose the change in circuit current ?
mutual inductance of the coils is______________?
A. Capacitance
A. 4 mH
B. Inductance
B. 5 mH
C. Resistance
C. 6 mH
D. All of the above
D. 12 mH
A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current
In case of an inductance, current is proportional
losses because____________?
to___________?
A. more wire can be used with less D.C.
A. voltage across the inductance
resistance in coil
B. magnetic field
B. the laminations are insulated from each other
C. both A. and B.
C. the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of
D. neither (A) nor (B)
the core
For a purely inductive circuit which of the
D. the laminations are stacked vertfcally
following is true ?
The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a
A. Apparent power is zero
conductor depends on the______________?
B. Relative power is.zero
A. flux density of the magnetic field
C. Actual power of the circuit is zero
B. amount of flux cut
D. Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will
not be charged

144
C. amount of flux linkages An open coil has_____________?
D. rate of change of flux-linkages A. zero resistance and inductance
Which of the following is not a unit of inductance B. infinite resistance and zero inductance
? C. infinite resistance and normal inductance
A. Henry D. zero resistance and high inductance
B. Coulomb/volt ampere
C. Volt second per ampere CHAPTER # SWITCHGEAR &
D. All of the above PROTECTION
Mutually inductance between two magnetically-
The fuse blows off by___________?
coupled coils depends on____________?
A. burning
A. permeability of the core
B. arcing
B. the number of their turns
C. melting
C. cross-sectional area of their common core
D. none of the above
D. all of the above
H.R.C. fuse, as compared to a rewirable fuse,
The law that the induced e.m.f. and current
has_________________?
always oppose the cause producing them is due
A. no ageing effect
to____________?
B. high speed of operation
A. Faraday
C. high rupturing capacity
B. Lenz
D. all of the above
C. Newton
An isolator is installed_____________?
D. Coulomb
A. to operate the relay of circuit breaker
If current in a conductor increases then according
B. as a substitute for circuit breaker
to Lenz’s law self-induced voltage
C. always independent of the position of circuit
will____________?
breaker
A. aid the increasing current
D. generally on both sides of a circuit breaker
B. tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
Protection by fuses is generally not used
C. produce current opposite to the in-creasing
beyond__________?
current
A. 20 A
D. aid the applied voltage
B. 50 A
Air-core coils are practically free
C. 100 A
from______________?
D. 200 A
A. hysteresis losses
Oil switches are employed
B. eddy current losses
for_____________?
C. both (A) and (B)
A. low currents circuits
D. none of the above
B. low voltages circuits
The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is
C. high voltages and large currents circuits
induced in it when the current through the coil
D. all circuits
changes is known as__________?
A fuse in a motor circuit provides protection
A. self-inductance
against__________?
B. mutual inductance
A. overload
C. series aiding inductance
B. short-circuit and overload
D. capacitance
C. open circuit, short-circuit and overload
The direction of induced e.m.f. can be found
D. none of the above
by_____________?
On which of the following effects of electric
A. Laplace’s law
current a fuse operates ?
B. Lenz’s law
A. Photoelectric effect
C. Fleming’s right hand rule
B. Electrostatic effect
D. Kirchhoff s voltage law

145
C. Heating effect C. non-directional
D. Magnetic effect D. none of the above
The fuse rating is expressed in terms Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV power
of_____________? system are designed to operate
A. current in_______________?
B. voltage A. 100 microsecond
C. VAR B. 50 millisecond
D. kVA C. 0.5 sec
The power loss is an important factor for the D. 0.1 sec
design of_______________? The fuse wire, in D.C. circuits, is inserted
A. transmission line in____________?
B. motor A. negative circuit only
C. generator B. positive circuit only
D. feeder C. both (A) and (B)
The material used for fuse must D. either (A) or (B)
have_____________? A fuse is never inserted in____________?
A. low melting point and high specific A. neutral wire
resistance B. negative of D.C. circuit
B. low melting point and -low specific resistance C. positive of D.C. circuit
C. high melting point and low specific resistance D. phase dine
D. low melting point and any specific resistance A switchgear is device used
A fuse is connected_______________? for_____________?
A. in series with circuit A. interrupting an electrical circuit
B. in parallel with circuit B. switching an electrical circuit 111.
C. either in series or in parallel with circuit C. switching and controlling an electrical circuit
D. none of the above D. switching, controlling and protecting the
The steady state stability of the power system can electrical circuit and equipment
be increased by_____________? The information to the circuit breaker under fault
A. connecting lines in parallel conditions is provided by____________?
B. connecting lines in series A. relay
E. using machines of high impedance B. rewirable fuse
D. reducing the excitation of machines C. H.R.C. only
E. none of the above D. all of the above
Series capacitors are used to_________________? By which of the following methods major portion
A. compensate for line inductive reactance of the heat generated in a H.R.C. fuse is dissipated
B. compensate for line capacitive reactance ?
C. improve line voltage A. Radiation
D. none of the above B. Convection
The torque produced in induction type relay C. Conduction
(shaded pole structure) is_____________? D. All of the above
A. inversely proportional to the current A balanced 3-phase system consists
B. inversely proportional to the square of the of_______________?
current A. zero sequence currents only
C. proportional to the current B. positive sequence currents only
D. proportional to square of the current C. negative and zero sequence currents
Admittance relay is __________ relay? D. zero, negative and positive sequence currents
A. impedance A short-circuit is identified by_____________?
B. directional

146
A. no current flow D. 20 to 30 sec
B. heavy current flow E. none of the above
C. voltage drop Which of the following devices will receive voltage
D. voltage rise surge first travelling on the transmission line ?
To limit short-circuit current in a power system A. Lightning arresters
are used______________? B. Relays
A. earth wires C. Step-down transformer
B. isolators D. Switchgear
C. H.R.C. fuses A _________ is used to measure the stator %
D. reactors winding temperature of the generator?
In a single bus-bar system there will be complete A. thermocouple
shut down when____________? B. pyrometer
A. fault occurs on the bus itself C. resistance thermometer
B. fault occurs on neutral line D. thermometer
C. two or more faults occur simultaneously Distance relays are
D. fault occurs with respect to earthing generally_____________?
Overfluxing protection is recommended A. split-phase relays
for_____________? B. reactance relays
A. distribution transformer C. impedance relays
B. generator transformer of the power plant D. none of the above
C. auto-transformer of the power plant relays are used for phase faults on long line?
D. station transformer of the power plant A. Impedance
If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the B. Reactance
VII ratio will be____________? C. Either of the above
A. constant for all distances D. None of the above
B. lower than that of if fault occurs away relay is preferred for phase fault on short
from the relay transmission line?
C. higher than that of if fault occurs away from the A. Induction type
relay B. Reactance
D. none of the above C. Impedance
The inductive interference between power and D. None of the above
communication line can be minimized For which of the following ratings of the
by__________? transformer differential protection is
A. transposition of the power line recommended ?
B. transposition of the communication line A. above 30 kVA.
C. both (A) and (B) B. equal to and above 5 MVA
D. increasing the distance between the conductors C. equal to and above 25 MVA
transmission line has reflection coefficient as D. none of the above
one? The short circuit in any winding of the
A. Open circuit transformer is the result
B. Short-circuit of_______________?
E. Long A. mechanical vibration
D. None of the above B. insulation failure
The relay with inverse time characteristic will C. loose connection
operate within____________? D. impulse voltage
A. 1.5 sec The short circuit in any winding of the
B. 5 to 10 sec transformer is the result of______________?
C. 5 to 20 sec

147
A. mechanical vibration Which of the following parameter can be
B. insulation failure neglected for a short line ?
C. loose connection A. Inductance
D. impulse voltage B. Capacitance
Which of the following circuit breakers has high C. Resistance
reliability and minimum maintenance ? D. Reactance
A. Air blast circuit breakers The under voltage relay can be used
B. Circuit breaker with SF6 gas for______________?
C. Vacuum circuit breakers A. generators
D. Oil circuit breakers B. busbars
Over voltage protection is recommended C. transformers
for______________? D. motors
A. hydro-electric generators E. all of the above
B. steam turbine generators For which of the following protection from
C. gas turbine generators negative sequence currents is provided ?
D. all of the above A. Generators
E. none of the above B. Motors
What will be the reflection co-efficient of the wave C. Transmission line
of load connected to transmission line if surge D. Transformers
impedance of the line is equal to load ? Bus coupler is very essential in
A. Zero arrangement______________?
B. Unity A. single bus
C. Infinity B. double bus, double breaker
D. None of the above C. main and transfer bus
Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted D. all of the above
at___________? Which of the following statements is
A. zero current incorrect ?
B. maximum current A. Lightning arrestors are used before the
C. minimum voltage switchgear
D. maximum voltage B. Shunt reactors are used as compensation reactors
The single phasing relays are used for the C. The peak short current is (1.8 xV2) times the A.C.
protection of_____________? component
A. single phase motors only D. The MVA at fault is equal to base MVA divided
B. two phase motors only by per unit equivalent fault reactance
C. two single phase motors running in parallel For cost and safety, the outdoor substations are
D. three phase motors installed for voltages
Series reactors should have________________? above_________________?
A. low resistance A. 11 kV
B. high resistance B. 33 kV
C. low impedance C. 60kV
D. high impedance D. 110kV
The inverse definite mean time relays are used for Short-circuit currents are due
over current and earth fault protection of to_______________?
transformer against_________________? A. single phase to ground faults
A. heavy loads B. phase to phase faults
B. internal short-circuits C. two phase to ground faults
C. external short-circuits D. three phase faults
D. all of the above E. any of these

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A.C. network analyser is used to solve problems To protect most of the electrical equipment
of_______________? handling low power, the types of relays used
A. load flow are______________?
B. load flow and short-circuit A. thermocouple
C. load flow and stability B. electronic and bimetallic
D. load flow, short-circuit and stability C. both (A) and (B)
E. none of the above D. none of the above
To reduce short circuit fault currents are Which of the following is the least expensive
used_____________? protection for overcurrent is low voltage
A. reactors system ?
B. resistors A. Rewireable fuse
C. capacitors B. Isolator
D. none of the above C. Oil circuit breaker
Induction cup relay is operated due to changes D. Air break circuit breaker
in________________? E. None of the above
A. current Insulation resistance of high voltage circuit
B. voltage breakers is more than________________?
C. impedance A. 1 mega ohms
D. all of the above B. 10 mega ohms
When a wave propagates on a transmission line, it C. 100 mega ohms
suffers reflection several times D. 500 mega ohms
at_____________? The delay fuses are used for the protection of
A. tapping ___________?
B. load end A. motors
C. sending end B. power outlet circuits
D. sending and other end C. fluorescent lamps
E. all of the above D. light circuits
The reflection co-efficient at the open circuited The time of closing the cycle, in modern circuit
end of a transmission line___________? breakers is_____________?
A. zero A. 0.003 sec
B. infinity B. 0.001 sec
C. unity C. 0.01 sec
D. none of the above D. 0.10 sec
The contacts of high voltage switches used in E. none of the above
power system are submerged in oil. The main For the protection of power station buildings
purpose of the oil is to______________? against direct strokes the requirements
A. lubricate the contacts are___________?
B. insulate the contacts from switch body A. interception
C. extinguish the arc B. interception and conduction
D. all of the above C. interception, conduction and dissipation
E. none of the above D. interception, conduction, dissipation and reflection
H.R.C. fuses provide best protection E. none of the above
against________________? Wave trap is used to trap waves
A. overload of__________________?
B. reverse current A. power frequencies
C. open-circuits B. higher frequencies entering generator or
D. short-circuits

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transformer units A. inrush protection
C. either of the above B. distance protection
D. none of the above C. time graded and current graded over current
Resistance grounding is used for voltage protection
between_________________? D. both (B) and (C)
A. 33kVto66kV E. none of the above
B. HkVto33kV When a transmission line is energized, the wave
C. 3.3kVandllkV that propagates on it is____________?
D. none of the above A. current wave only
The ground wire should not be smaller than No B. voltage wave only
_________ copper C. Both (A) and (B)
A. 2 D. power factor wave only
B. 4 Burden of a protective relay is the
C. 6 power______________?
D. 10 A. required to operate the circuit breaker
Interruption of large currents by relay B. absorbed by the circuit of relay
requires______________? C. developed by the relay circuit
A. arc suppressing blow out coils D. none of the above
B. wide separation of the opened contacts The current zero interruption, in oil and air blast
C. high speed opening of contacts circuit breakers, is achieved by____________?
D. all of the above A. lengthening of the gap
The arc voltage produced in A.C. circuit breaker B. cooling and blast effect
is always_____________? C. both (A) and (B)
A. in phase with the arc current D. deionizing the oil with forced air
B. lagging the arc current by 90″ E. none of the above
C. leading the arc current by 90° The current zero interruption, in oil and air blast
D. none of the above circuit breakers, is achieved by_______________?
Overheating of relay contacts or contact born out A. lengthening of the gap
is due to_______________? B. cooling and blast effect
A. slow making and breaking of load circuit C. both A. and B
contacts D. deionizing the oil with forced air
B. foreign matter on the contact surface E. none of the above
C. too low contact pressure The relay operating speed depends
D. all of the above upon_________________?
Shunt capacitance is neglected while A. the spring tension
considering______________? B. the rate of flux built up
A. short transmission line C. armature core air gap
B. medium transmission line D. all of the above
C. long transmission line Relays can be designed to respond to changes
D. medium and long transmission lines in________________?
Ionization in circuit breaker is facilitated A. resistance, reactance or impedance
by___________? B. voltage and current
A. high temperature C. light intensity
B. increase of mean free path D. temperature
C. increasing field strength E. all above
D. all of the above An efficient and a well designed protective
A transmission line is protected relaying should have_____________?
by_____________?

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A. good selectivity and reliability A. over currents
B. economy and simplicity B. short duty
C. high speed and selectivity C. intermittant duty
D. all of the above D. repeated duty
A differential relay measures the vector difference Circuit breakers usually operate
between_________________? under______________?
A. two currents A. transient state of short-circuit current
B. two voltages B. sub-transient state of short-circuit current
C. two or more similar electrical quantities C. steady state of short-circuit current
D. none of the above D. after D.C. component has ceased
Protective relays are devices that detect abnormal D.C. shunt relays are made
conditions in electrical circuits by of_____________?
measuring_____________? A. few turns of thin wire
A. current during abnormal condition B. few turns of thick wire
B. voltage during abnormal condition C. many turns of thin wire
C. constantly the electrical quantities which differ D. many turns of thick wire
during normal and abnormal conditions Circuit breakers are
D. none of the above essentially____________?
In a circuit breaker the basic problem is A. current carrying contacts called
to________________? electrodes
A. maintain the arc B. arc extinguishers
B. extinguish the arc C. circuits to break the system
C. transmit large power D. transformers to isolate the two systems
D. emit the ionizing electrons E. any of the above
The voltage appearing across the contacts after Circuit breakers are essentially______________?
opening of the circuit breaker is A. current carrying contacts called
called__________voltage electrodes
A. recovery B. arc extinguishers
B. surge C. circuits to break the system
C. operating D. transformers to isolate the two systems
D. arc E. any of the above
E. none of the above In order that current should flow without causing
Large internal faults are protected excessive heating or voltage drop, the relay
by_______________? contacts should_________________?
A. merz price percentage differential A. have low contact resistance
protection B. be clean and smooth
B. mho and ohm relays C. be of sufficient size and proper shape
C. horn gaps and temperature relays D. have all above properties
D. earth fault and positive sequence relays Thermal overload relays are used to protect the
Directional relays are based on flow motor against over current due
of____________? to____________?
A. power A. short-circuits
B. current B. heavy loads
C. voltage wave C. grounds
D. all of the above D. all of the above
Air blast circuit breaker is used Overload relays are of_______________type
for_____________? A. induction
B. solid state

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C. thermal A. delayed
D. electromagnetic B. instantaneous
E. all above C. both of the above
A thermal protection switch can protect D. none of the above
against_____________? Thermal circuit breaker has____________?
A. short-circuit A. delayed trip action
B. temperature B. instantaneous trip action
C. overload C. both of the above
D. over voltage D. none of the above
SF6 gas______________? With which of the following, a circuit breaker
A. is yellow in colour must be equipped for remote operation?
B. is lighter than air A. Inverse time trip
C. is nontoxic B. Time-delay trip
D. has pungent small C. Shunt trip
E. none of the above D. None of the above
Which of the following medium is employed for E. All of the above
extinction of arc in air circuit breaker? The main function of a fuse is
A. Water to_____________?
B. Oil A. protect the line
C. Air B. open the circuit
D. SF6 C. protect the appliance
On which of the following routine tests are D. prevent excessive currents
conducted ? E. none of the above
A. Oil circuit breakers
B. Air blast circuit breakers CHAPTER # OP-AMP CIRCUITS
C. Minimum oil circuit breakers An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/μ S .The largest
D. All of the above sine wave O/P voltage possible at a frequency of 1
The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made MHZ is_______________?
of______________? A. 10 volts
A. copper tungsten alloy B. 5 volts
B. porcelain C. 5/ volts
C. electrolytic copper D. 5/2 volts
D. aluminium alloy A 741-Type OP-AMP has a gain-bandwith
Arc in a circuit behaves product of 1MHz. A non-inverting amplifier using
as_______________? this opamp & having a voltage gain of 20db will
A. a capackive reactance exhibit -3db bandwidth of______________?
B. an inductive reactance A. 50KHz
C. a resistance increasing with voltage rise across the B. 100KHz
arc C. 1000/17KHz
D. a resistance decreasing with voltage rise across D. 1000/7.07KHz
the arc A differential amplifier is invariably used in the
Fault diverters are basically____________? i/p stage of all op-amps. This is done basically to
A. fuses provide the op-amps with a very
B. relays high______________?
C. fast switches A. CMMR
D. circuit breakers B. Bandwidth
Magnetic circuit breaker has ___________ trip C. Slew rate
action D. Open-loop gain

152
Assume that the op-amp of the fig. is ideal. If Vi is The two input terminals of an opamp are labeled
a triangular wave, then V0 will as______________?
be______________? A. High and low
A. Square wave B. Positive and negative
B. Triangular wave C. Inverting and non inverting
C. Parabolic wave D. Differential ans non differential
D. Sine wave For an op-amp having differential gain Av and
A differential amplifier has a differential gain of common-mode gain Ac the CMRR is given
20,000. CMMR=80dB. The common mode gain is by___________?
given by_______________? A. Av + Ac
A. 2 B. Av / Ac
B. 1 C. 1 + Av / AC.
C. 1/2 D. Ac / Av
D. 0 Hysteresis is desirable in Schmitt-trigger,
Which of the following amplifier is used in a because______________?
digital to analog converter? A. Energy is to be stored/discharged in
A. Non inverter parasitic capacitances
B. Voltage follower B. Effects of temperature would be compensated
C. Summer C. Devices in the circuit should be allowed time
D. Difference amplifier for saturation and desaturation
When a step-input is given to an op-amp D. It would prevent noise from causing false
integrator, the output will be______________? triggering
A. A ramp The output voltage Vo of the above circuit
B. A sinusoidal wave is____________?
C. A rectangular wave A. -6V
D. A triangular wave with dc bias B. -5V
For an ideal op-amp, which of the following is C. -1.2V
true? D. -0.2V
A. The differential voltage across the input In the above circuit the current ix is___________?
terminals is zero A. 0.6A
B. The current into the input terminals is zero B. 0.5A
C. The current from output terminal is zero C. 0.2A
D. The output resistance is zero D. 1/12A
In the differential voltage gain & the common An opamp has a slew rate of 5V/ S. the largest sine
mode voltage gain of a differential amplifier are wave o/p voltage possible at a frequency of 1MHz
48db & 2db respectively, then its common mode is____________?
rejection ratio is________________? A. 10 V
A. 23dB B. 5 V
B. 25dB C. 5V
C. 46dB D. 5/2 V
D. 50dB The approximate input impedance of the opamp
Differential amplifiers are used circuit which has Ri=10k, Rf=100k,
in______________? RL=10k?
A. Instrumentation amplifiers A. ∞
B. Voltage followers B. 120k
C. Voltage regulators C. 110k
D. Buffers D. 10k

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An amplifier using an opamp with slew rate A. Less than one
SR=1v/sec has a gain of 40db.If this amplifier has B. Greater than one
to faithfully amplify sinusoidal signals from dc to C. Of zero
20KHz without introducing any slew-rate induced D. Equal to one
distortion, then the input signal level The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting
exceed_____________? amplifier equal to______________?
A. 795mV A. The ratio of the input resistance to feedback
B. 395mV resistance
C. 795mV B. The open-loop voltage gain
D. 39.5mV C. The feedback resistance divided by the input
An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal__________? resistance
A. Current controlled Current source D. The input resistance
B. Current controlled Voltage source Calculate the cutoff frequency of a first-order low-
C. Voltage controlled Voltage source pass filter for R1 = 2.5kΩ and C1 =
D. Voltage controlled Current source 0.05μF___________?
How many op-amps are required to implement A. 1.273kHz
this equation Vo = V1? B. 12.73kHz
A. 4 C. 127.3 kHz
B. 3 D. 127.3 Hz
C. 2
D. 1 CHAPTER # HEATING & WELDING
How many op-amps are required to implement Properly of low temperature co-eflficient of
this equationop-amps? heating element is desired due to which of the
A. 2 following reasons ?
B. 3 A. To avoid initial rush of current
C. 4 B. To avoid change in kW rating with
D. 1 temperature
The ideal OP-AMP has the following C. Both (A) and (B)
characteristics D. Either (A) or (B)
A. Ri=∞ ,A=∞ ,R0=0 It is desirable to operate the arc furnaces at power
B. Ri=0 ,A=∞ ,R0=0 factor of_____________?
C. Ri=∞ ,A=∞ ,R0=∞ A. zero
D. Ri=0 ,A=∞ ,R0=∞ B. 0.707 lagging
If ground is applied to the (+) terminal of an C. unity
inverting op-amp, the (–) terminal D. 0.707 leading
will_____________? Ajax Wyatt furnace is started
A. Not need an input resistor when____________?
B. Be virtual ground A. it is filled below core level
C. Have high reverse current B. it is filled above core level
D. Not invert the signal C. it is fully empty
An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal______________? D. none of the above
A. Current controlled Current source Radiations from a black body are proportional
B. Current controlled voltage source to____________?
C. Voltage controlled voltage source A. T1
D. voltage controlled current source B. T2
A non inverting closed loop op amp circuit C. T3
generally has a gain factor______________? D. T*

154
Which of the following methods is used to control C. Auto-transformer
temperature in resistance furnaces ? D. Heating elements of variable resis-tance material
A. Variation of resistance Direct arc furnaces have which of the following
B. Variation of voltage power factors ?
C. Periodical switching on and off of the supply A. Unity
D. All of the above methods B. Low, lagging
In arc furnace the function of choke C. Low, leading
is______________? D. Any of the above
A. to stabilize the arc Which of the following is an advantage of eddy
B. to imprpve, power factor
current heating ?
C. to reduce severity of the surge
A. The amount of heat generated can be
D. none of the above
controlled accurately
Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are used
B. Heat at very high rate can be gene-rated
in____________?
C. The area of the surface over which heat is
A. induction heating of steel
B. dielectric heating produced can be accurately controlled
C. induction heating of brass D. All of the above
D. resistance heating Radiant heating is used for which of the following
In electric press, mica is used because it is ?
_________ conductor of heat but/and __________ A. Annealing of metals
conductor of electricity? B. Melting of ferrous metals
A. bad, good C. Heating of liquids in electric kettle
B. bad, bad D. Drying of paints and varnishes
C. good, bad For radiant heating around 2250°C, the heating
D. good, good elements are made of____________?
In heating the ferromagnetic material by A. copper alloy
induction heating, heat is produced due B. carbon
to_____________? C. tungsten alloy
A. induced current flow through the charge D. stainless steel alloy
B. hysteresis loss taking place below curie The electrode of a direct arc furnace is made
temperature of____________?
C. due to hysteresis loss as well as eddy current loss A. tungsten
takingplace in the charge B. graphite
D. none of the above factors C. silver
Resistance variation method of temperature D. copper
control is done by connecting resistance elements In direct arc furnace, which of the following has
in_____________? high value ?
A. series A. Current
B. parallel B. Voltage
C. series-parallel connections C. Power factor
D. star-delta connections D. All of the above
E. all of the above ways In a domestic cake baking oven the temperature is
Which of the following devices is necessarily controlled by________________?
required for automatic temperature control in a A. voltage variation
furnace ? B. thermostat
A. Thermostat C. auto-transformer
B. Thermocouple D. series-parallel operation

155
Due to which of the following reasons it is A. Heat treatment of castings
desirable to have short arc length ? B. Heating of insulators
A. To achieve better heating C. Melting aluminium
B. To increase the life of roof refractory D. None of the above
C. To have better stirring action Which of the following will happen if the thickness
D. To reduce problem of oxidation of refractory wall of furnace is increased ?
E. All of the above A. Heat loss through furnace wall will increase
In an electric press mica is B. Temperature inside the furnace will fall
used_____________? C. Temperature on the outer surface of furnace
A. as an insulator walls will drop
B. as a device for power factor improvement D. Energy consumption will increase
C. for dielectric heating A non-dimensional number generally associated
D. for induction heating with natural convection heat transfer
By the use of which of the following, high is____________?
frequency power supply for induction furnaces A. Prandtl number
can be obtained ? B. Grashoff number
A. Coreless transformers C. Pecelet number
B. Current transformers D. Nusselt number
C. Motor-generator set Induction heating process is based on which of the
D. Multi-phase transformer following principles ?
The temperature inside a furnace is usually A. Thermal ion release principle
measured by which of the following ? B. Nucleate heating principle
A. Optical pyrometer C. Resistance heating principle
B. Mercury thermometer D. Electro-magnetic induction princi¬ple
C. Alcohol thermometer The process of heat transfer during the reentry of
D. Any of the above satellites and missiles, at very high speeds, into
Which of the following insulating materials was earth’s atmosphere is known as_______________?
suitable for low temperature applications ? A. ablation
A. Asbestos paper B. radiation
B. Diatomaceous earth C. viscous dissipation
C. 80 percent magnesia D. irradiation
D. Cork In resistance heating highest working temperature
The material of the heating element for a furnace is obtained from heating elements made
should have___________? of_____________?
A. lower melting point A. nickel copper
B. higher temperature coefficient B. nichrome
C. high specific resistance C. silicon carbide
D. all of the above D. silver
In an electric room heat convector the method of For heating element high resistivity material is
heating used is______________? chosen to______________?
A. arc heating
B. resistance heating
C. induction heating A. reduce the length of heating element
D. dielectric heating B. increase the life of the heating element
C. reduce the effect of oxidation
Induction furnaces are employed for which of the
D. produce large amount of heat
following ?

156
In the indirect resistance heating method, Heat transfer by condition will not occur
maximum heat-transfer takes place when____________?
by____________? A. bodies are kept in vacuum
A. radiation B. bodies are immersed in water
B. convection C. bodies are exposed to thermal radiations
C. conduction D. temperatures of the two bodies are identical
D. any of the above Heat is transferred simultaneously by condition,
For intermittent work which of the following convection and radiation_____________?
furnaces is suitable ? A. inside boiler furnaces
A. Indirect arc furnace B. during melting of ice
B. Core less furnace C. through the surface of the insulted pipe carrying
C. Either of the above steam
D. None of the above D. from refrigerator coils to freezer of a refrigerator
Induction heating takes place it which of the For the transmission of heat from one body to
following ? another__________?
A. Insulating materials A. temperature of the two bodies must be
B. Conducting materials which are magnetic different
C. Conducting materials which are non-magnetic B. both bodies must be solids
D. Conducting materials which may or may not be C. both bodies must be in contact
magnetic D. at least one of the bodies must have some source
By which of the following methods the of heating
temperature inside arc nace can be varied ? A perfect black body is one that_____________?
A. By disconnecting some of the heating A. transmits all incident radiations
elements B. absorbs all incident radiations
B. By varying the operating voltage C. reflects all incident radiations
C. By varying the current through heating elements D. absorbs, reflects and transmits all incident
D. By any of the above method radiations
In induction heating ___________ is abnormally When a body reflects entire radiation incident on
high? it, then it is known as____________?
A. phase angle A. white body
B. frequency B. grey body
C. current C. black body
D. voltage D. transparent body
In a resistance furnace the atmosphere is used for heating non-conducting
is_____________? materials?
A. oxidizing A. Eddy current heating
B. deoxidising B. Arc heating
C. reducing C. Induction heating
D. neutral D. Dielectric heating
Which of the following has the highest value of _________ has the highest value of thermal
thermal conductivity ? conductivity?
A. Water A. Copper
B. Steam B. Aluminium
C. Sold ice C. Brass
D. Melting ice D. Steel

157
Which of the following heating methods has Moisture content in the soil __________ the earth
maximum power factor ? soil resistance?
A. Arc heating A. increase
B. Dielectric heating B. decrease
C. Induction heating C. does not affect
D. Resistance heating D. none of the above
Which of the following is an advantage of heating When the 3-phase system is not grounded and if
by electricity ? Single Line to Ground fault occurs, the voltage of
A. Quicker operation the other two healthy phases
B. Higher efficiency will____________?
A. Increases
C. Absence of flue gases
B. Decreases
D. All of the above
C. Remains unaffected
method has leading power
For an EHV equipment for maintenance first it
factor____________?
should be isolated and connected to ground
A. Resistance heating
because_____________?
B. Dielectric heating
A. to provide low impedance
C. Arc heating B. to discharge the charging capacitance to
D. Induction heating ground
Which of the following methods of heating is not C. protection for operating personnel
dependent on the frequency of supply ? D. both (B) and (C)
A. Induction heating The objective of earthing or grounding
B. Dielectric heating is_______________?
C. Electric resistance heating A. to provide as low resistance possible to
D. All of the above the ground
B. to provide as high resistance possible to the
ground
CHAPTER # EARTHING OR
C. to provide flow of positive, negative and zero
GROUNDING sequence currents
Average resistance of human body D. none of the above
is____________? Factors on which soil resistance
A. 500 ohms depends_______________?
B. 1000 ohms A. depth of the electrode
C. 1500 ohms B. moisture
D. 2000 ohms C. Nacl
Ground resistance should be designed such D. all the above
that_____________?A. grounding resistance Generally grounding is provided for
should be as low as possible A. only for the safety of the equipment
B. grounding resistance should be as high as possible B. only for the safety of the operating personnel
C. grounding resistance should be always zero C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of the above D. none of the above
When earth fault occurs______________? The size of the earth or ground wire is based on
A. voltage potential at the earth mat the______________?
increases due to grounding A. maximum fault current carrying through the
B. voltage potential at the earth mat decreases due to ground wire
grounding B. rated current carrying capacity of the service line
C. voltage potential at the earth mat remains zero C. depends on the soil resistance
irrespective of fault D. both (A) and (C)
D. none of the above

158
CHAPTER # PARALLEL CIRCUITS The following resistors are in parallel across a
There is a total of 800 mA of current into four voltage source: 220Ω , 470Ω , and 560Ω . The
parallel resistors. The currents through three of resistor with the least current
the resistors are 40 mA, 70 mA, and 200 mA. The is______________?
current through the fourth resistor A. 220 Ω
is______________? B. 470 Ω
A. 490 mA C. 560 Ω
B. 800 mA D. impossible to determine without knowing the
C. 310 mA voltage
D. 0 A In a certain three-branch parallel circuit, R1 has
If one of the resistors in a parallel circuit is 12 mA through it, R2 has 15 mA through it, and
removed, the total resistance_____________? R3 has 25 mA through it. After measuring a total
A. decreases of 27 mA, you can say that____________?
B. increases A. R3 is open
C. remains the same B. R1 is open
D. doubles C. R2 is open
The following currents are measured in the same D. the circuit is operating properly
direction in a three-branch parallel circuit: 200 Five 100 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. If
mA, 340 mA, and 700 mA. The value of the one resistor is removed, the total resistance
current into the junction of these branches is______________?
is____________? A. 25 Ω
A. 200 mA B. 500 Ω
B. 540 mA C. 100 Ω
C. 1.24 A D. 20 Ω
D. 900 mA The total resistance of a parallel circuit is 50 Ω. If
Four resistors are connected in parallel. Fifteen the total current is 120 mA, the current through
mA flows through resistor R. If the second resistor the 270 Ω that makes up part of the parallel
is 2R, the third resistor 3R, and the fourth resistor circuit is approximately_______________?
4R, the total current in the circuit A. 22 mA
is______________? B. 120 mA
A. 60 mA C. 220 mA
B. 15 mA D. 50 mA
C. 135 mA A 470 Ω resistor, a 220 Ω resistor, and a 100 Ω
D. 31.25 mA resistor are all in parallel. The total resistance is
Six resistors are in parallel. The two lowest-value approximately________________?
resistors are both 1.2 kΩ. The total A. 790 Ω
resistance______________? B. 470 Ω
A. is less than 6 kΩ C. 60 Ω
B. is greater than 1.2 kΩ D. 30 Ω
C. is less than 1.2 kΩ Four equal-value resistors are connected in
D. is less than 600 Ω parallel. Ten volts are applied across the parallel
Six resistors are in parallel. The two lowest-value circuit and 2 mA are measured from the source.
resistors are both 1.2 kΩ. The total The value of each resistor is______________?
resistance_____________? A. 12.5 Ω
A. is less than 6 kΩ B. 200 Ω
B. is greater than 1.2 kΩ C. 20 KΩ
C. is less than 1.2 kΩ D. 50 Ω
D. is less than 600 Ω

159
When a 1.6 kΩ resistor and a 120Ω resistor are Five light bulbs are connected in parallel across
connected in parallel, the total resistance 110 V. Each bulb is rated at 200 W. The current
is____________? through each bulb is
A. greater than 1.6 kΩ approximately___________?
B. greater than 120 but less than 1.6 kΩ A. 2.2 A
C. less than 120 but greater than 100 Ω B. 137 mA
D. less than 100 Ω C. 1.8 A
An ammeter has an internal resistance of 50 Ω. D. 9.09 A
The meter movement itself can handle up to 1 mA. A set of Christmas tree lights is connected in
If 10 mA is applied to the meter, the shunt parallel across a 110 V source. The filament of
resistor, RSH1, is each light bulb is 1.8 k. The current through each
approximately___________? bulb is approximately___________?
A. 55 Ω A. 610 mA
B. 5.5 Ω B. 18 mA
C. 50 Ω C. 110 mA
D. 9 Ω D. 61 mA
Four 8 Ω speakers are connected in parallel to the Three lights are connected in parallel across a 120
output of an audio amplifier. If the maximum volt source. If one light burns out_____________?
voltage to the speakers is 12 V, the amplifier must A. the remaining two will glow dimmer
be able to deliver to the speakers_____________? B. the remaining two will glow brighter
A. 18 W C. the remaining two will not light
B. 1.5 W D. the remaining two will glow with the same
C. 48 W brightness as before
D. 72 W When an additional resistor is connected across an
A sudden increase in the total current into a existing parallel circuit, the total
parallel circuit may resistance____________?
indicate______________? A. remains the same
A. a drop in source voltage B. decreases by the value of the added resistor
B. an open resistor C. increases by the value of the added resistor
C. an increase in source voltage D. decreases
D. either a drop in source voltage or an open resistor Four resistors of equal value are connected in
Three 47 Ω resistors are connected in parallel parallel. If the total voltage is 15 V and the total
across a 110 volt source. The current drawn from resistance is 600 Ω, the current through each
the source is parallel resistor is____________?
approximately_______________? A. 25 mA
A. 2.3 A B. 100 mA
B. 780 mA C. 6.25 mA
C. 47 mA D. 200 mA
D. 7.06 A The currents into a junction flow along two paths.
In a five-branch parallel circuit, there are 12 mA One current is 4 A and the other is 3 A. The total
of current in each branch. If one of the branches current out of the junction is_____________?
opens, the current in each of the other four A. 1 A
branches is_______________? B. 7 A
A. 48 mA C. unknown
B. 12 mA D. the larger of the two
C. 0 A If there are a total of 120 mA into a parallel
D. 3 mA circuit consisting of three branches, and two of the

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branch currents are 40 mA and 10 mA, the third A. Two
branch current is_________________? B. Three
A. 50 mA C. Four
D. None of the above
B. 70 mA
The application where one would most likely find
C. 120 mA
a crystal oscillator is____________?
D. 40 mA
A. Radio receiver
The power dissipation in each of four parallel
B. Radio transmitter
branches is 1.2 W. The total power dissipation
C. AF sweep generator
is________________?
D. None of the above
A. 1.2 W
In a certain oscillator Av = 50. The attention of the
B. 4.8 W
feedback circuit must be___________?
C. 0.3 W
A. 1
D. 12 W
B. 01
C. 10
CHAPTER # OSCILLATORS D. 02
____________is a fixed frequency oscillator?
An oscillator produces___________oscillations? A. Phase-shift oscillator
A. Damped B. Hartely-oscillator
B. Undamped C. Colpitt’s oscillator
C. Modulated D. Crystal oscillator
D. None of the above An important limitation of a crystal oscillator
If the crystal frequency changes with temperature, is____________?
we say that crystal has___________temperature A. Its low output
coefficient? B. Its high Q
A. Positive C. Less availability of quartz crystal
B. Zero D. Its high output
C. Negative The Q of the crystal is of the order
D. None of the above of____________?
An LC oscillator cannot be used to produce A. 100
____________frequencies? B. 1000
A. High C. 50
B. Audio D. More than 10,000
C. Very low In a Wien-bridge oscillator, if the resistances in
D. Very high the positive feedback circuit are decreased, the
In an LC transistor oscillator, the active device frequency____________?
is___________? A. Remains the same
A. LC tank circuit B. Decreases
B. Biasing circuit C. Increases
C. Transistor D. Insufficient data
D. None of the above A second condition for oscillations
An oscillator employs___________feedback? is____________?
A. Positive A. A gain of 1 around the feedback loop
B. Negative B. No gain around the feedback loop
C. Neither positive nor negative C. The attention of the feedback circuit must be one-
D. Data insufficient third
In a phase shift oscillator, we use____________RC D. The feedback circuit must be capacitive
sections? An oscillator differs from an amplifier because
it_____________?

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A. Has more gain For an oscillator to properly start, the gain
B. Requires no input signal around the feedback loop must initially
C. Requires no d.c. supply be_________?
D. Always has the same input A. 1
The piezoelectric effect in a crystal B. Greater than 1
is___________? C. Less than 1
A. A voltage developed because of D. Equal to attenuation of feedback circuit
mechanical stress One condition for oscillation is_____________?
B. A change in resistance because of temperature A. A phase shift around the feedback loop of
C. A change in frequency because of temperature 180o
D. None of the above B. A gain around the feedback loop of one-third
In an LC circuit, when the capacitor is maximum, C. A phase shift around the feedback loop of 0o
the inductor energy is____________? D. A gain around the feedback loop of less than 1
A. Minimum The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due
B. Maximum to___________of the crystal?
C. Half-way between maximum and minimum A. Rigidity
D. None of the above B. Vibrations
A Wien bridge oscillator C. Low Q
uses___________feedback? D. High Q
A. Only positive In a phase shift oscillator, the frequency
B. Only negative determining elements are _______________?
C. Both positive and negative A. L and C
D. None of the above B. R, L and C
Quartz crystal is most commonly used in crystal C. R and C
oscillators because:____________? D. None of the above
A. It has superior electrical properties Hartley oscillator is commonly used
B. It is easily available in______________?
C. It is quite inexpensive A. Radio receivers
D. None of the above B. Radio transmitters
The signal generator generally used in the C. TV receivers
laboratories is___________oscillator? D. None of the above
A. Wien-bridge In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillator
B. Hartely is____________L or C?
C. Crystal A. Proportional to square of
D. Phase shift B. Directly proportional to
In an LC oscillator, if the value of L is increased C. Independent of the values of
four times, the frequency of oscillations is D. Inversely proportional to square root of
__________? An oscillator converts __________?
A. Increased 2 times A. power into d.c. power
B. Decreased 4 times B. power into a.c. power
C. Increased 4 times C. mechanical power into a.c. power
D. Decreased 2 times D. none of the above
In Colpitt’s oscillator, feedback is
obtained___________?
B. By a tickler coil
C. From the centre of split capacitors
D. None of the above

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 CHAPTER # AMPLIFIERS WITH A. Resistive
NEGATIVE FEEDBACK B. Capacitive
C. Inductive
The output impedance of an emitter follower
D. None of the above
is______________?
Negative feedback is employed in
A. High
__________________?
B. Very high
A. Oscillators
C. Almost zero
B. Rectifiers
D. Low
C. Amplifiers
When negative voltage feedback is applied to an
D. None of the above
amplifier, its voltage gain ____________?
When current feedback (negative) is applied to an
A. Is increased
amplifier, its output impedance
B. Is reduced
________________?
C. Remains the same
A. Is increased
D. None of the above
B. Is decreased
The value of negative feedback fraction is always
C. Remains the same
_______________?
D. None of the above
A. Less than 1
The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100
B. More than 1
db. If a negative feedback of 3 db is applied, the
C. Equal to 1
gain of the amplifier will become______________?
D. None of the above
A. 5 db
If the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 mV
B. 300 db
from the output is fed back to the input, then
C. 103 db
feedback fraction is_____________?
D. 97 db
A. 10
Emitter follower is used for ________________?
B. 1
A. Current gain
C. 01
B. Impedance matching
D. 15
C. Voltage gain
The gain of an amplifier with feedback is known
D. None of the above
as____________gain?
The voltage gain of an emitter follower is
A. Resonant
_____________?
B. Open loop
A. Much less than 1
C. Closed loop
B. Approximately equal to 1
D. None of the above
C. Greater than 1
If the feedback fraction of an amplifier is 0.01,
D. None of the above
then voltage gain with negative feedback is
If voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an
approximately________________?
amplifier, its output impedance ______________?
A. 500
A. Remains the same
B. 100
B. Is increased
C. 1000
C. Is decreased
D. 5000
D. None of the above
When current feedback (negative) is applied to an
An emitter follower has ______________input
amplifier, its input impedance _____________?
impedance?
A. Is decreased
A. Zero
B. Is increased
B. Low
C. Remains the same
C. High
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
A feedback circuit usually employs
Emitter follower is a _______________circuit?
_________________ network?

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A. Voltage feedback An emitter follower has ______________input
B. Current feedback impedance?
C. Both voltage and current feedback A. Zero
D. None of the above B. Low
When a negative voltage feedback is applied to an C. High
amplifier, its bandwidth_____________? D. None of the above
A. Is increased Emitter follower is a
B. Is decreased _______________circuit?
C. Remains the same A. Voltage feedback
D. Insufficient data B. Current feedback
Emitter follower is used C. Both voltage and current feedback
for________________? D. None of the above
A. Current gain When a negative voltage feedback is applied to an
B. Impedance matching amplifier, its bandwidth_____________?
C. Voltage gain A. Is increased
D. None of the above B. Is decreased
When voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an C. Remains the same
amplifier, its input impedance _______________? D. Insufficient data
A. Is decreased Emitter follower is used
B. Is increased for________________?
C. Remains the same A. Current gain
D. None of the above B. Impedance matching
The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100 C. Voltage gain
db. If a negative feedback of 3 db is applied, the D. None of the above
gain of the amplifier will When voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an
become______________? amplifier, its input impedance
A. 5 db _______________?
B. 300 db A. Is decreased
C. 103 db B. Is increased
D. 97 db C. Remains the same
Emitter follower is used for ________________? D. None of the above
A. Current gain
B. Impedance matching CHAPTER # TRANSISTORS
C. Voltage gain IC = [a / (1 – a )] IB +_____________?
D. None of the above A. ICEO
The voltage gain of an emitter follower is B. ICBO
_____________? C. IC
A. Much less than 1 D. (1 – a ) IB
B. Approximately equal to 1 IC = ß IB +__________?
C. Greater than 1 A. ICBO
D. None of the above B. IC
If voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an C. ICEO
amplifier, its output impedance ______________? D. aIE
A. Remains the same The output impedance of a transistor connected
B. Is increased in_____________arrangement is the highest?
C. Is decreased A. common emitter
D. None of the above B. common collector

164
C. common base B. ß = (1 – a ) / a
D. none of the above C. ß = a / (1 – a )
IC = aIE +____________? D. ß = a / (1 + a )
A. IB The phase difference between the input and
B. ICEO output voltages in a common base arrangement
C. ICBO is___________?
D. ßIB A. 180o
In a pnp transistor, the current carriers B. 90o
are______________? C. 270o
A. acceptor ions D. 0o
B. donor ions The leakage current in CE arrangement
C. free electrons is____________that in CB arrangement?
D. holes A. more than
The collector of a transistor B. less than
is____________doped? C. the same as
A. heavily D. none of the above
B. moderately If the value of a is 0.9, then value of ß
C. lightly is___________?
D. none of the above A. 9
In a npn transistor,_____________are the B. 0.9
minority carriers? C. 900
A. free electrons D. 90
B. holes BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made
C. donor ions of____________?
D. acceptor ions A. germanium
The input impedance of a transistor B. silicon
is___________? C. carbon
A. high D. none of the above
B. low As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the
C. very high base-emitter resistance___________?
D. almost zero A. decreases
The value of a of a transistor B. increases
is_____________? C. remains the same
A. more than 1 D. none of the above
B. less than 1 The most commonly used transistor arrangement
C. 1 is____________arrangement?
D. none of the above A. common emitter
In a tansistor, IC = 100 mA and IE = 100.2 mA. B. common base
The value of ß is____________? C. common collector
A. 100 D. none of the above
B. 50 The output impedance of a transistor
C. about 1 is____________?
D. 200 A. high
The relation between ß and a B. zero
is______________? C. low
A. ß = 1 / (1 – a ) D. very low
The emitter of a transistor is___________doped?

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A. lightly C. carbon
B. heavily D. none of the above
C. moderately The collector-base junction in a transistor
D. none of the above has___________?
The base of a transistor A. forward bias at all times
is____________doped? B. reverse bias at all times
A. heavily C. low resistance
B. moderately D. none of the above
C. lightly A heat sink is generally used with a transistor
D. none of the above to______________?
At the base-emitter junctions of a transistor, one A. increase the forward current
finds___________? B. decrease the forward current
A. a reverse bias C. compensate for excessive doping
B. a wide depletion layer D. prevent excessive temperature rise
C. low resistance In a transistor, signal is transferred from
D. none of the above a___________circuit?
In a transistor if ß = 100 and collector current is A. high resistance to low resistance
10 mA, then IE is___________? B. low resistance to high resistance
A. 100 mA C. high resistance to high resistance
B. 100.1 mA D. low resistance to low resistance
C. 110 mA A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not
D. none of the above connected in CE mode with same bias voltages,
The phase difference between the input and the values of IE, IB and IC will____________?
output voltages of a transistor connected in A. remain the same
common emitter arrangement is___________? B. increase
A. 0o C. decrease
B. 180o D. none of the above
C. 90o IC = [a / (1 – a )] IB + [___________ / (1 – a
D. 270o )?
The phase difference between the input and A. ICBO
output voltages of a transistor connected in B. ICEO
common collector arrangement C. IC
is_____________? D. IE
A. 1800 The voltage gain of a transistor connected in
B. 00 common collector arrangement is____________?
C. 900 A. equal to 1
D. 2700 B. more than 10
The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates C. more than 100
the direction of____________? D. less than 1
A. electron current in the emitter The voltage gain in a transistor connected
B. electron current in the collector in___________arrangement is the highest?
C. hole current in the emitter A. common base
D. donor ion current B. common collector
The most commonly used semiconductor in the C. common emitter
manufacture of a transistor D. none of the above
is_____________? The power gain in a transistor connected
A. germanium in___________arrangement is the highest?
B. silicon

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A. common emitter C. emitter
B. common base D. collector-base-junction
C. common collector
D. none of the above
The input impedance of a transistor connected CHAPTER # SEMICONDUCTOR
in___________arrangement is the highest? DIODE
A. common emitter
A zener diode utilizes ______________
B. common collector
characteristics for its operation?
C. common base
A. forward
D. none of the above
B. reverse
The value of ß for a transistor is
C. both forward and reverse
generally____________?
D. none of the above
A. 1
If the a.c. input to a half-wave rectifier is an r.m.s
B. less than 1
value of 400/√2 volts, then diode PIV rating
C. between 20 and 500
is__________________?
D. above 500
A. 400/√2 V
In a transistor ______________?
B. 400 V
A. IC = IE + IB
C. 400 x √2 V
B. IB = IC + IE
D. none of the above
C. IE = IC – IB
There is a need of transformer
D. IE = IC + IB
for__________________?
Most of the majority carriers from the
A. half-wave rectifier
emitter____________?
B. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
A. recombine in the base
C. bridge full-wave rectifier
B. recombine in the emitter
D. none of the above
C. pass through the base region to the collector
The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that
D. none of the above
the__________________?
In a transistor, the base current is
A. components are expensive
about_________of emitter current?
B. diodes must have a higher power rating
A. 25%
C. output is difficult to filter
B. 20%
D. none of the above
C. 35 %
A zener diode has ______________ breakdown
D. 5%
voltage?
A transistor is a___________operated
A. undefined
device?
B. sharp
A. current
C. zero
B. voltage
D. none of the above
C. both voltage and current
A series resistance is connected in the zener circuit
D. none of the above
to_______________?
A transistor has____________?
A. properly reverse bias the zener
A. one pn junction
B. protect the zener
B. two pn junctions
C. properly forward bias the zener
C. three pn junctions
D. none of the above
D. four pn junctions
In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves
The element that has the biggest size in a
like a _______________source?
transistor is____________?
A. constant voltage
A. collector
B. constant current
B. base

167
C. constant resistance A. paper capacitor
D. none of the above B. air capacitor
A zener diode is________________ device? C. mica capacitor
A. a non-linear D. electrolytic capacitor
B. a linear If the PIV rating of a diode is
C. an amplifying exceeded,_______________?
D. none of the above A. the diode conducts poorly
Mains a.c. power is converrted into d.c. power B. the diode is destroyed
for_________________? C. the diode behaves like a zener diode
A. lighting purposes D. none of the above
B. heaters The most widely used rectifier is
C. using in electronic equipment ________________?
D. none of the above A. half-wave rectifier
The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier B. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
is_________________? C. bridge full-wave rectifier
A. 2 D. none of the above
B. 1.21 The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier
C. 2.5 is ___________that of the equivalent center-tap
D. 0.48 rectifier?
The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is A. one-half
_____________? B. the same as
A. 40.6 % C. twice
B. 81.2 % D. four times
C. 50 % A 10 V power supply would use ____________ as
D. 25 % filter capacitor?
For the same secondary voltage, the output A. paper capacitor
voltage from a centre-tap rectifier is___________ B. mica capacitor
than that of bridge rectifier? C. electrolytic capacitor
A. twice D. air capacitor
B. thrice ____________ rectifier has the lowest forward
C. four time resistance?
D. one-half A. solid state
A half-wave rectifier has an input voltage of 240 V B. vacuum tube
r.m.s. If the step-down transformer has a turns C. gas tube
ratio of 8:1, what is the peak load voltage? Ignore D. none of the above
diode drop? A zener diode is destroyed if
A. 27.5 V it______________?
B. 86.5 V A. is forward biased
C. 30 V B. is reverse biased
D. 42.5 V C. carrier more than rated current
_____________ filter circuit results in the best D. none of the above
voltage regulation? The doping level in a zener diode
A. choke input is______________ that of a crystal diode?
B. capacitor input A. the same as
C. resistance input B. less than
D. none of the above C. more than
A 1,000 V power supply would use_____________ D. none of the above
as a filter capacitor?

168
When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the A. remains the same
most important consideration is ____________? B. is increased
A. forward characteristic C. is decreased
B. doping level D. none of the above
C. reverse characteristic The ratio of reverse resistance and forward
D. PIC rating resistance of a germanium crystal diode is about
A zener diode is always_______________ ______________?
connected? A. 1 : 1
A. reverse B. 100 : 1
B. forward C. 1000 : 1
C. either reverse or forward D. 40,000 : 1
D. none of the above A crystal diode has forward resistance of the
A zener diode has ________________? order of ________________?
A. one pn junction A. kΩ
B. two pn junctions B. Ω
C. three pn junctions C. MΩ
D. none of the above D. none of the above
A crystal diode utilises …………….. characteristic A crystal diode is used as______________?
for rectification A. an amplifier
A. reverse B. a rectifier
B. forward C. an oscillator
C. forward or reverse D. a voltage regulator
D. none of the above If the arrow of crystal diode symbol is positive
A zener diode is used as ______________? w.r.t. bar, then diode is
A. an amplifier _____________biased?
B. a voltage regulator A. forward
C. a rectifier B. reverse
D. a multivibrator C. either forward or reverse
The knee voltage of a crystal diode is D. none of the above
approximately equal to ________________? The d.c. resistance of a crystal diode is
A. applied voltage ______________ its a.c. resistance?
B. breakdown voltage A. the same as
C. forward voltage B. more than
D. barrier potential C. less than
When the crystal current diode current is large, D. none of the above
the bias is ______________? The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is
A. forward about _______________?
B. inverse A. 2.5 V
C. poor B. 3 V
D. reverse C. 10 V
If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, D. 0.7 V
then leakage current ______________? A crystal diode has______________?
A. remains the same A. one pn junction
B. decreases B. two pn junctions
C. increases C. three pn junctions
D. becomes zero D. none of the above
If the doping level of a crystal diode is increased, If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased,
the breakdown voltage__________________? the width of depletion layer_____________?

169
A. remains the same A. the mobility decreases
B. is decreased B. the transconductance increases
C. in increased C. the drain current increases
D. none of the above D. none of the above
A crystal diode is a A change in the value of the emitter resistance Re
________________device? in a differential amplifier?
A. non-linear A. affects the difference mode gain Ad
B. bilateral B. affects the common mode gain Ac
C. linear C.affects both Ad and Ac
D. none of the above D. does not effect either Ad and Ac
When the graph between current through and In a p-n junction diode under reverse bias , the
voltage across a device is a straight line, the device magnitude of electric field is maximum
is referred to as _______________? at_____________?
A. linear A. the edge of the depletion region on the p-
B. active side
C. nonlinear B. the edge of the depletion region on the n-side
D. passive C. the p-n junction
The PIV rating of a crystal diode is D. the center of the depletion region on the n-side
_______________ that of equivalent vacuum A constant current signal across a parallel RLC
diode circuits gives an o/p of 1.4v at the signal frequency
A. the same as of 3.89KHZ and 4.1KHZ .At the frequency of
B. lower than 4KHZ,the o/p voltage will be___________?
C. more than A. 1 v
D. none of the above B. 2v
The leakage current in a crystal diode is due to C. 1.4v
_________________? D. 2.8v
A. minority carriers The bandwidth of an RF tuned amplifier is
B. majority carriers dependent on____________?
C. junction capacitance A. Q –factor of the tuned o/p circuit
D. none of the above B. Q –factor of the tuned i/p circuit
The reverse current in a diode is of the order of C. Quiescent operating point
_____________? D. Q-factor of the o/p and i/p circuits as well as
A. kA quiescent operating point
B. mA Most of the linear ICs are based on the two-
C. μA transistor differential amplifier because of
D. A its___________?
A. input voltage dependent linear transfer
CHAPTER # ANALOG ELECTRONICS characteristic
Which of the following is not associated with a p-n B. high voltage gain
junction? C. high input resistance
A. junction capacitance D. high CMRR
B. charge storage capacitance A dc power supply has no-load voltage of 30v,and
C. depletion capacitance a full-load voltage of 25v at full-load current of
D. channel length modulation 1A.Its output resistance & load regulation
Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because ,respectively are_____________?
as the temperature of FET A. 5 Ω & 20 %
increases_________________? B. 25 Ω & 20 %

170
C. 5 Ω & 16.7 % impedances
D. 25 Ω & 16.7 % C. Increase in input impedance & decreases in
A 741-type OP-AMP has a gain-bandwidth output impedance
product of 1MHz. A non-inverting amplifier using D. Decrease in input impedance & increase in output
this op-amp & having a voltage gain of 20db will impedance
exhibit -3db bandwidth of__________? In a transistor leakage current mainly depends
A. 50 KHz on__________?
B. 100KHz A. doping of base
C. 1000/17 KHz B. size of emitter
D. 1000/7.07 KHz C. rating of transistor
In the differential voltage gain & the common D. temperature
mode voltage gain of a differential amplifier are When a transistor is connected in common emitter
48db &2db respectively, then its common mode mode, it with have__________?
rejection ratio is__________? A. negligible input resistance and high output
A. 23dB resistance
B. 25dB B. high input resistance and low output resistance
C. 46dB C. medium input resistance and high output
D. 50dB resistance
An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain D. low input resistance as well as output resistance
of 50,input resistance os 1 KΩ & Output In deriving ac equivalent circuit for an amplifier
resistance of 2.5KΩ.The input resistance of the circuit, we short circuit___________?
current-shunt negative feedback amplifier using A. all resistors
the above amplifier with a feedback factor of 0.2 B. all transistors
is___________? C. all inductors
A. 1/11KΩ D. all capacitors
B. 1/5KΩ In an op-amp
C. 5KΩ differentiator:________________?
D. 11KΩ A. the amplitude of output is proportional to
An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal___________? rate of change of input
A. Current controlled Current source B. the amplitude of output is proportional to input
B. Current controlled voltage source C. output occurs when input is finite and constant
C. Voltage controlled voltage source D. polarity of input and output is the same
D. voltage controlled current source The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is
The current gain of a BJT is__________? caused by_______________?
A. gm r0 A. fast turn-on
B. gm / r0 B. fast turn-off
C. gm rπ C. large collector-base reverse bias
D. gm /rπ D. large emitter-base forward bias
To prevent a DC return between source and load, A source follower using an FET usually has a
it is necessary to use___________? voltage gain which is___________?
A. resistor between source and load A. greater than +100
B. inductor between source and load B. slightly less than unity but positive
C. capacitor between source and load C. exactly unity but negative
D. either A. or B. D. about -10
Voltage Series feedback also called series-shunt An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/μ S .The largest
feedback) results in__________? sine wave O/P voltage possible at a frequency of 1
A. Increase in both input & output impedances MHZ is [Hint: Slew rate is defined as the max.
B. Decreases in both input & output rate of change of output voltage. Its unit is V/μS.

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A. 10 volts A. Internal Capacitance of the device
B. 5 volts B. Coupling capacitor at the input
C. 5/1 volts C. Skin effect
D. 5/2 volts D. Coupling capacitor at the output
A differential amplifier is invariably used in the The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can
i/p stage of all OP-amps. This is done basically to best be represented as a_____________?
provide the OP-amps with a very A. Current controlled Current source
high_________? B. Current controlled voltage source
A. CMMR C. Voltage controlled voltage source
B. Bandwidth D. voltage controlled current source
C. Slew rate In a full-wave rectifier using two ideal diodes,Vdc
D. Open-loop gain & Vm are the dc & peak values of the voltage
The effective channel length of a MOSFET in a respectively across a resistive load. If PIV is the
saturation decreases with increase peak inverse voltage of the diode, then the
in___________? appropriate relationships for this rectifier
A. Gate voltage is____________?
B. Drain voltage A. Vdc = Vm/π, PIV=2Vm
C. Source voltage B. Vdc = 2Vm/π, PIV=2vm
D. Body voltage C. Vdc = 2Vm/π, PIV=Vm
An n- channel JFET has IDSS=2mA,and Vp=- D. Vdc = Vm/π, PIV=Vm
4v.Its transconductance gm=in mA/V)for an The most commonly used amplifier in sample &
applied gate to source voltage VGS=-2v hold circuits is______________?
is___________? A. A unity gain non-inverting amplifier
A. 0.25 B. A unity gain inverting amplifier
B. 0.5 C. An inverting amplifier with a gain of 10
C. 0.75 D. An inverting amplifiers with a gain of 100
D. 1 Introducing a resistor in the emitter of a common
Class AB operation is often used in power large amplifier stabilizes the dc operating point against
signal amplifiers in order to_________? variations in____________?
A. get maximum efficiency A. Only the temperature
B. remove even harmonics B. only the β of the transistor
C. overcome a crossover distortion C. Both Temperature & β
D. reducing collector dissipation D. None of the above
Negative feedback in an In a CB amplifier the maximum efficiency could
amplifier____________? be____________?
A. Reduces gain A. 99%
B. Increase frequency &phase distortion B. 85%
C. Reduces bandwidth C. 50%
D. Increases noise D. 25%
The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at The horizontal intercept of dc load line is the same
high frequencies because of____________? as ideal____________?
A. Transistor capacitances A. cut off point
B. High current effects in the base B. saturation point
C. Parasitic inductive elements C. operating point
D. The early effect D. quasi saturation point
Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls Which of the following amplifier circuit using
at high frequencies due to the___________? junction transistor has the best gain?

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A. Common base A. 795mV
B. Common emitter B. 395mV
C. Common collector C. 795 mV
D. All have the same gain D. 39.5mV
MOSFET can be used as a__________? Three identical amplifiers with each one having a
A. current controlled capacitor voltage gain of 50,input resistance of 1KΩ &
B. voltage controlled capacitor output resistance of 250 ,are cascaded.The open
C. current controlled inductor circuit voltage gain of combined amplifier
D. voltage controlled inductors is_________?
A differential amplifier has a differential gain of A. 49dB
20,000 . CMRR=80 dB. The common mode gain is B. 51dB
given by________? C. 98dB
A. 2 D. 102dB
B. 1 The cascade amplifier is a multistage
C. 1/2 configuration of__________?
D. 0 A. CC-CB .
In a common emitter, unbypassed resister B. CE-CB
provides___________? C. CB-CC
A. voltage shunt feedback D. CE-CC
B. current series feedback The encapsulation of transistor is necessary
C. negative voltage feedback for__________?
D. positive current feedback A. preventing radio interference
. If =0.98 ,Ico=6µA and Iβ=100µA for a B. preventing photo-emission effects
transistor,then the value of Ic will be______? C. avoiding loss of free electrons
A. 2.3mA D. mechanical ruggedness
B. 3.2mA In all base driver amplifiers__________?
C. 4.6 mA A. ac collector voltage is 180° out of phase
D. 5.2mA with ac base voltage
The MOSFET switch in its on-state may be B. ac emitter voltage is 180° out of phase with ac
considered equivalent to_____________? base voltage
A. resistor C. ac collector voltage is in phase with ac base
B. inductor voltage
C. capacitor D. none of the above
D. battery
An npn BJT has gm=38mA/v, cµ =10¯14 F, cπ CHAPTER # HYBRID PARAMETERS
=10¯13F and DC current gain β0=90.For this The parameter hie stands for input impedance in
transistor fT & fβ are________? _____________?
A. fT =1.64 x 108 Hz & fβ = 1.47 x 1010 Hz. A. CB arrangement with output shorted
B. fT =1.47 x 1010 Hz & fβ = 1.64 x 108 Hz B. CC arrangement with output shorted
C. fT =1.33 x 1012 Hz & fβ = 1.47 x 1010 Hz C. CE arrangement with output shorted
D. fT =1.47 x 1010 Hz & fβ = 1.33 x 1012 Hz D. None of the above
An amplifier using an opamp with slew rate The values of h parameter of a transistor in CE
SR=1v/µsec has a gain of 40db.if this amplifier has arrangement are ____________
to faithfully amplify sinusoidal signals from dc to arrangement?
20 KHz without introducing any slew-rate A. The same as for CB
induced distortion, then the input signal level B. The same as for CC
must not exceed________? C. Different from that in CB
D. None of the above

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The hfe parameter is called ______________in CE In order to determine hfe and hie parameters of a
arrangement with output shorted? transistor, __________ is an a.c. short-circuited?
A. Voltage gain B. Input
B. Current gain C. Output
C. Input impedance D. Input as well as output
D. None of the above E. None of the above
If temperature changes, h parameters of a In CE arrangement, the value of input impedance
transistor ________________? is approximately equal to ______________?
B. May or may not change A. Hie
C. Do not change B. Hoe
D. Also change C. Hre
E. None of the above D. None of the above
If the operating point changes, the h parameters
of transistor_____________? CHAPTER # MODULATION &
A. Also change DEMODULATION
B. Do not change In a superhetrodyne receiver, the difference
C. May or may not change frequency is chosen as the IF rather than the sum
D. None of the above frequency because _________________?
The dimensions of hie parameter are A. The difference frequency is closer to
_______________? oscillator frequency
A. Mho B. Lower frequencies are easier to amplify
B. Ohm C. Only the difference frequency can be modulated
C. Farad D. None of the above
D. None of the above In a TRF radio receiver, the RF and detection
There are ______________ h parameters of a stages are tuned to______________?
transistor? A. Radio frequency
A. Two B. IF
B. Four C. Audio frequency
C. Three D. None of the above
D. None of the above In the above question, what is the power in
A transistor behaves as a linear device for sidebands?
_____________? A. 8 kW
A. Small signals only B. 6 kW
B. Large signals only C. 06 kW
C. Both small and large signals D. 9 kW
D. None of the above In TV transmission, sound signal is
The h parameter approach gives correct results ______________modulated?
for_______________? A. Amplitude
A. Large signals only B. Frequency
B. Small signals only C. Phase
C. Both small and large signals D. None of the above
D. None of the above The diode detector in an AM radio receiver is
Hybrid means_____________? usually found _____________?
A. Mixed A. Before the first RF stage
B. Single B. After the first RF stage
C. Unique C. After several stages of amplification
D. None of the above D. None of the above

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In the above question, what is the power in B. Abrupt voltage control
sidebands ? C. Automatic volume control
A. 8 kW D. Automatic voltage control
B. 6 kW In superhetrodyne receiver, the input at mixer
C. 06 kW stage is________________?
D. 9 kW A. IF and RF
Modulation refers to a low-frequency signal B. RF and AF
controlling the ________________? C. IF and AF
A. Amplitude of the carrier D. RF and local oscillator signal
B. Frequency of the carrier When the modulating signal controls the
C. Phase of the carrier frequency of the carrier, we
D. May be any of the above get______________?
The major advantage of FM over AM A. Phase modulation
is__________________? B. Amplitude modulation
A. Reception is less noisy C. Frequency modulation
B. Higher carrier frequency D. May be any one of the above
C. Smaller bandwidth The IF is 455 kHz. If the radio receiver is tuned to
D. Small frequency deviation 855 kHz, the local oscillator frequency is
Superhertodyne principle refers _______________?
to_________________? A. 455 kHz
A. Using a large number of amplifier stages B. 1310 kHz
B. Using a push-pull circuit C. 1500 kHz
C. Obtaining lower fixed intermediate frequency D. 1520 kHz
D. None of the above The function of ferrite antenna is
The superhetrodyne principle provides selectivity to_________________?
at ______________stage? A. Reduce stray capacitance
A. RF B. Stabilise d.c. bias
B. IF C. Increase the Q of tuned circuit
C. audio D. Reduce noise
D. Before RF A 100 V carrier is made to vary between 160 V
Most of the amplification in a superhetrodyne and 40 V by the signal. What is the modulation
receiver occurs at ______________stage? factor ?
A. IF A. 3
B. RF amplifier B. 6
C. Audio amplifier C. 5
D. Detector D. None of the above
If a radio receiver amplifies all the signal If Amin = 40 and Amax = 60, what is the
frequencies equally well, it is said to have high percentage of modulation?
________________? A. 20 %
A. Sensitivity B. 40 %
B. Selectivity C. 50 %
C. Distortion D. 10 %
D. Fidelity In a radio receiver, we generally use …………..
The letters AVC stand for oscillator as a local oscillator
________________? A. Crystal
A. Audio voltage control B. Wien-bridge
C. Phase-shift
D. Hartley

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A 50 kW carrier is to be amplitude modulated to a In a radio receiver, noise is generally developed at
level of 85%. What is the carrier power after _______________?
modulation ? A. IF stage
A. 50 kW B. Receiving antenna
B. 5 kW C. Audio stage
C. 8 kW D. RF stage
D. 25 kW The signal voltage induced in the aerial of a radio
As the modulation level is increased, the carrier receiver is of the order of ________________?
power__________________? A. mV
A. Is increased B. µV
B. Remains the same C. V
C. Is decreased D. None of the above
D. None of the above The signal voltage induced in the aerial of a radio
A high Q tuned circuit will permit an amplifier to receiver is of the order of_____________?
have high __________________? A. mV
A. Fidelity B. µV
B. Frequency range C. V
C. Sensitivity D. None of the above
D. Selectivity In a transmitter ____________oscillator is
Man made noise are______________ variations? used?
A. Amplitude A. Hartley
B. Frequency B. RC phase-shift
C. Phase C. Wien-bridge
D. Both phase and frequency D. Crystal
If level of modulation is increased In an AM wave useful power is carrier by
______________ power is increased? ______________?
A. Carrier A. Carrier
B. Sideband B. Sidebands
C. Carrier as well as sideband C. Both sidebands and carrier
D. None of the above D. None of the above
Demodulation is done in ________________? In an AM wave, the majority of the power is in
A. Receiving antenna _____________?
B. Transmitter A. Lower sideband
C. Radio receiver B. Upper sideband
D. Transmitting antenna C. Carrier
In radio transmission, the medium of transmission D. None of the above
is ________________? If modulation is 100% then signal amplitude is
A. Space ____________arrier amplitude?
B. An antenna A. Equal to
C. Cable B. Greater than
D. None of the above C. Less than
In TV transmission, picture signal is D. None of the above
______________ modulated? In amplitude modulation, the _____________of
A. Frequency carrier is varied according to the strength of the
B. Phase signal?
C. Amplitude A. Amplitude
D. None of the above B. Frequency

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C. Phase The initial response when tne output is not equal
D. None of the above to input is called_____________?
In pakistan, ______________ modulation is used A. Transient response
for radio transmission? B. Error response
A. Frequency C. Dynamic response
B. Amplitude D. Either of the above
C. Phase has tendency to oscillate______________?
D. None of the above A. Open loop system
Modulation is done B. Closed loop system
in____________________ C. Both A. and B.
A. Transmitter D. Neither A. nor B.
B. Radio receiver Which of the following statements is not
C. Between transmitter and radio receiver necessarily correct for open control system ?
D. None of the above A. Input command is the sole factor responsible
In amplitude modulation, bandwidth is for providing the control action
____________ the audio signal frequency? B. Presence of non-linearities causes
A. Thrice malfunctioning
B. Four times C. Less expensive
C. Twice D. Generally free from problems of non-linearities
D. None of the above In an open loop control system____________?
At 100% modulation, the power in each sideband A. Output is independent of control input
is _____________ of that of carrier? B. Output is dependent on control input
A. 50% C. Only system parameters have effect on the control
B. 40% output
C. 60% D. None of the above
D. 25% Which of the following is an open loop control
Overmodulation (amplitude) occurs when signal system ?
amplitude is _____________ carrier A. Field controlled D.C. motor
amplitude? B. Ward leonard control
A. Equal to C. Metadyne
B. Greater than D. Stroboscope
C. Less than A control system in which the control action is
D. None of the above somehow dependent on the output is known
Over modulation results in as____________?
______________? A. Closed loop system
A. Weakening of the signal B. Semiclosed loop system
B. Excessive carrier power C. Open system
C. Distortion D. None of the above
D. None of the above In open loop system_____________?
A. the control action depends on the size of the
CHAPTER # CONTROL SYSTEMS system
A good control system has all the following B. the control action depends on system variables
features except_____________? C. the control action depends on the input signal
A. good stability D. the control action is independent of the output
B. slow response A car is raining at a constant speed of 50 km/h,
C. good accuracy which of the following is the feedback element for
D. sufficient power handling capacity the driver ?

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A. Clutch C. Output pattern
B. Eyes D. Input pattern
C. Needle of the speedometer _______________is a closed loop system?
D. Steering wheel A. Auto-pilot for an aircraft
F. None of the above B. Direct current generator
A control system working under unknown C. Car starter
random actions is called______________? D. Electric switch
A. computer control system Which of the following should be done to make an
B. digital data system unstable system stable ?
C. stochastic control system A. The gain of the system should be decreased
D. adaptive control system B. The gain of the system should be
Any externally introduced signal affecting the increased
controlled output is called C. The number of poles to the loop transfer function
a______________? should be increased
A. feedback D. The number of zeros to the loop transfer function
B. stimulus should be increased
C. signal By which of the following the control action is
D. gain control determined when a man walks along a path ?
____________is a part of the human temperature A. Brain
control system? B. Hands
A. Digestive system C. Legs
B. Perspiration system D. Eyes
C. Ear Which of the following devices are commonly used
D. Leg movement as error detectors in instruments ?
In closed loop control system, with positive value A. Vernistats
of feedback gain the overall gain of the system B. Microsyns
will______________? C. Resolvers
A. decrease D. Any of the above
B. increase The band width, in a feedback
C. be unaffected amplifier_______________?
D. any of the above A. remains unaffected
For open control system which of the following B. decreases by the same amount as the gain
statements is incorrect ? increase
A. Less expensive C. increases by the sane saaaajajt as the gain
B. Recalibration is not required for decrease
maintaining the required quality of the output D. decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease
C. Construction is simple and maintenance easy _______________is an open loop control system?
D. Errors are caused by disturbances A. Ward Leonard control
An automatic toaster is a ___________ loop B. Field controlled D.C. motor
control system? C. Stroboscope
A. open D. Metadyne
B. closed As a result of introduction of negative feedback
C. partially closed which of the following will not decrease ?
D. any of the above A. Band width
A closed loop system is distinguished from open B. Overall gain
loop system by which of the following ? C. Distortion
A. Servomechanism D. Instability
B. Feedback

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Zero initial condition for a system The second derivative input signals modify which
means_______________? of the following ?
A. input reference signal is zero A. The time constant of the system
B. zero stored energy B. Damping of the system
C. ne initial movement of moving parts C. The gain of the system
D. system is at rest and no energy is stored in any D. The time constant and suppress the oscillations
of its components F. None of the above
Transfer function of a system is used to calculate Which of the following statements is correct for a
which of the following ? system with gain margin close to unity or a phase
A. The order of the system margin close to zero ?
B. The time constant A. The system is relatively stable
C. The output for any given input B. The system is highly stable
D. The steady state gain C. The system is highly oscillatory
The output of a feedback control system must be a D. None of the above
function of_________________? The transient response, with feedback
A. reference and output system_____________?
B. reference and input A. rises slowly
F. input and feedback signal B. rises quickly
D. output and feedback signal C. decays slowly
A.C. servomotor resembles_____________? D. decays quickly
A. two phase induction motor Which of the following statements is correct for
B. Three phase induction motor any closed loop system ?
C. direct current series motor A. All the co-efficients can have zero value
D. universal motor B. All the co-efficients are always non-zero
A control system with excessive noise, is likely to C. Only one of the static error co-efficients has a
suffer from_______________? finite non-zero value
A. saturation in amplifying stages D. None of the above
B. loss of gain A controller, essentially, is
C. vibrations a________________?
D. oscillations A. sensor
On which of the following factors does the B. clipper
sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes C. comparator
and load disturbances depend ? D. amplifier
A. Frequency In a stable control system backlash can cause
B. Loop gain which of the following ?
C. Forward gain A. Underdamping
D. All of the above B. Overdamping
Regenerative feedback implies feedback C. Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
with_______________? D. Low-level oscillations
A. oscillations In a control system the output of the controller is
B. step input given to_____________?
C. negative sign A. final control element
D. positive sign B. amplifier
increases the steady state accuracy? C. comparator
A. Integrator D. sensor
B. Differentiator F. none of the above
C. Phase lead compensator Due to which of the following reasons excessive
D. Phase lag compensator bond width in control systems should be avoided ?

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A. It leads to slow speed of response C. inductance
B. It leads to low relative stability D. capacitance
C. Noise is proportional to band width In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the
D. None of the above current is considered analogous
In an automatic control system which of the to_____________?
following elements is not used ? A. velocity
A. Error detector B. pressure
B. Final control element C. air flow
C. Sensor D. air flow rate
D. Oscillator The temperature, under thermal and electrical
The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is system analogy, is considered analogous
analogous to_____________? to_______________?
A. momentum A. voltage
B. velocity B. current
C. displacement C. capacitance
D. mass D. charge
Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous F. none of the above
to________________? The transient response of a system is mainly due
A. charge to________________?
B. current A. inertia forces
C. inductance B. internal forces
D. resistance C. stored energy
The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage D. friction
analogy, is analogous to______________? A signal other than the reference input that tends
A. charge to affect the value of controlled variable is known
B. resistance as_________________?
C. reciprocal of inductance A. disturbance
D. reciprocal of conductance B. command
F. none of the above C. control element
In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered D. reference input
analogous to_______________? The transfer function is applicable to which of the
A. heat flow following ?
B. reciprocal of heat flow A. Linear and time-in variant systems
C. reciprocal of temperature B. Linear and time-variant systems
D. temperature C. Linear systems
F. none of the above D. Non-linear systems
In liquid level and electrical system analogy, F. None of the above
voltage is considered analogous signal will become zero when the feedback signal
to_____________? and reference signs are equal?
A. head A. Input
B. liquid flow B. Actuating
C. liquid flow rate C. Feedback
D. none of the above D. Reference
In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous In a system zero initial condition means
to______________? that______________?
A. current A. The system is at rest and no energy is
B. charge stored in any of its components

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B. The system is working with zero stored energy An amplidyne can give which of the following
C. The system is working with zero reference signal characteristics ?
With feedback __________ increases? A. Constant current
A. system stability B. Constant voltage
B. sensitivity C. Constant current as well as constant voltage
C. gain D. Constant current, constant voltage and
D. effects of disturbing signals constant power
_____________is the reference input minus the F. None of the above
primary feedback? In a control system integral error compensation
A. Manipulated variable _________________ steady state error?
B. Zero sequence A. increases
C. Actuating signal B. minimizes
D. Primary feedback C. does not have any effect on
______________By which of the following the D. any of the above
system response can be tested better ? A differentiator is usually not a part of a control
A. Ramp input signal system because it______________?
B. Sinusoidal input signal A. reduces damping
C. Unit impulse input signal B. reduces the gain margin
D. Exponentially decaying signal C. increases input noise
___________From which of the following transfer D. increases error
function can be obtained ? When the initial conditions of a system are
A. Signal flow graph specified to be zero it implies that the system
B. Analogous table is________________?
C. Output-input ratio A. at rest without any energy stored in it
D. Standard block system B. working normally with reference input
F. None of the above C. working normally with zero reference input
Which of the following is the output of a D. at rest but stores energy
thermocouple ? When the initial conditions of a system are
A. Alternating current specified to be zero it implies that the system
B. Direct current is______________?
C. A.C. voltage A. at rest without any energy stored in it
D. D.C. voltage B. working normally with reference input
F. None of the above C. working normally with zero reference input
Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus D. at rest but stores energy
diagrams ? A phase lag lead network introduces in the
A. The poles of the transfer function for a set output_______________?
of parameter values A. lag at all frequencies
B. The bandwidth of the system B. lag at high frequencies and lead at low
C. The response of a system to a step input frequencies
D. The frequency response of a system C. lag at low frequencies and lead at high
F. None of the above frequencies
________________directly converts temperature D. none of the above
into voltage? Which of the following devices is used for
A. Thermocouple conversion of co-ordinates ?
B. Potentiometer A. Microsyn
C. Gear train B. Selsyn
D. LVDT C. Synchro-resolver
F. None of the above D. Synchro-transformer

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Which of the following is the definition of B. net pole
proportional band of a controller ? C. simple pole
A. The range of air output as measured variable D. two poles
varies from maximum to minimum The frequency and time domain are related
B. The range of measured variables from set value through which of the following ?
C. The range of measured variables through A. Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral
which the air output changes from maximum to B. Laplace Transform
minimum C. Fourier Integral
D. Any of the above D. Either B. or C.
F. None of the above Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is
Which of the following can be measured by the analogous to_____________?
use of a tachogenerator ? A. capacitance
A. Acceleration B. reciprocal of capacitance
B. Speed C. current
C. Speed and acceleration D. resistance
D. Displacement Static error coefficients are used as a measure of
F. None of the above the effectiveness of closed loop systems for
In order to increase the damping of a badly specified ___________ input signal?
underdamped system which of following A. acceleration
compensators may be used ? B. velocity
A. Phase-lead C. position
B. Phase-lag D. all of the above
C. Both A. and B. The type 2 system has __________ at the origin?
D. Either A. and B. A. no net pole
F. None of the above B. net pole
In a system low friction co-efficient C. simple pole
facilitates___________? D. two poles
A. reduced velocity lag error Velocity error constant of a system is measured
B. increased velocity lag error when the input to the system is unit ___________
C. increased speed of response function?
D. reduced time constant of the system A. parabolic
An increase in gain, in most systems, leads B. ramp
to_____________? C. impulse
A. smaller damping ratio D. step
B. larger damping ratio If a step function is applied to the input of a
C. constant damping ratio system and the output remains below a certain
D. none of the above level for all the time, the system is_____________?
A conditionally stable system exhibits poor A. not necessarily stable
stability at______________? B. stable
A. low frequencies C. unstable
B. reduced values of open loop gain D. always unstable
C. increased values of open loop gain F. any of the above
D. none of the above Addition of zeros in transfer function causes
The type 1 system has _________ at the which of the following ?
origin? A. Lead-compensation
A. no pole B. Lag-compensation
C. Lead-lag compensation
D. None of the above

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The phase lag produced by transportation The first order control system, which is well
relays_____________? designed, has a_______________?
A. is independent of frequency A. small bandwidth
B. is inverseh’proportional to frequency B. negative time constant
C. increases linearly with frequency C. large negative transfer function pole
D. decreases linearly with frequency D. none of the above
In pneumatic control systems the control valve Which of the following can be measured by LVDT
used as final control element ?
converts____________? A. Displacement
A. pressure signal to electric signal B. Velocity
B. pressure signal to position change C. Acceleration
C. electric signal to pressure signal D. Any of the above
D. position change to pressure signal With feed back __________ reduces?
F. none of the above A. system stability
The effect of error damping is B. system gain
to______________? C. system stability and gain
A. provide larger settling lime D. none of the above
B. delay the response technique gives quick transient and stability
C. reduce steady state error response______________?
D. any of the above A. Root locus
F. none of the above B. Bode
__________________can be extended to systems C. Nyquist
which are time-varying ? D. Nichols
A. Bode-Nyquist stability methods If the gain of the critical damped system is
B. Transfer functions increased it will behave as______________?
C. Root locus design A. oscillatory
D. State model representatives B. critically damped
Which of the following is an electromagnetically C. overdamped
device ? D. underdamped
A. Induction relay F. none of the above
B. Thermocouple Pressure error can be measured by which of the
C. LVDT following ?
D. Any of the above A. Differential bellows and straingauge
F. None of the above B. Selsyn
With feed back ____________ reduces? C. Strain gauge
A. system stability D. Strain gauge and potentiometer
B. system gain _____________is not a final control element?
C. system stability and gain A. Control valve
D. none of the above B. Potentiometer
The transfer function technique is considered as C. Electropneumatic converter
inadequate under which of the following D. Servomotor
conditions ? ____________technique is not applicable to
A. Systems having complexities and non- nonlinear system ?
linearities A. Nyquist Criterion
B. Systems having stability problems B. Quasi linearization
C. Systems having multiple input disturbances C. Functional analysis
D. All of the above D. Phase-plane representation

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Phase margin of a system is used to specify which A. it is used by everybody
of the following ? B. any logic function can be realized by
A. Frequency response NAND gates alone
B. Absolute stability C. all the minization techniques are applicable for
C. Relative stability optimum NAND gate realization
D. Time response D. many digital computers use NAND gates
The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system In which of the following base systems is 123 not a
are_____________? valid number ?
A. constant, constant A. Base 10
B. constant, infinity B. Base 16
C. zero, constant C. Base8
D. zero, zero D. Base 3
The type 0 system has ___________ at the The binary code of (21.125)10
origin? is_______________?
A. no pole A. 10101.001
B. net pole B. 10100.001
C. simple pole C. 10101.010
D. two poles D. 10100.111
F. none of the above Digital computers are more widely used as
Which of the following is the best method for compared to analog computers, because they
determining the stability and transient are______________?
response ? A. less expensive
A. Root locus B. always more accurate and faster
B. Bode plot C. useful over wider ranges of problem types
C. Nyquist plot D. easier to maintain
D. None of the above Consider the representation of six-bit numbers by
Which of the following is the non-linearity caused two’s complement, one’s complement, or by sign
by servomotor ? and magnitude: In which representation is there
A. Static friction overflow from the addition of the integers 011000
B. Backlash and 011000 ?
C. Saturation A. Two’s complement only
D. None of the above B. Sign and magnitude and one’s complement
A.C. servomotor is basically a____________? only
A. universal motor C. Two’s complement and one’s complement only
B. single phase induction motor D. All three representations
C. two phase induction motor (1(10101)2 is_______________?
D. three phase induction motor A. (37)10
B. ( 69)10
CHAPTER # DIGITAL ELECTRONICS C. (41 )10
Most of the digital computers do not have floating D. — (5)10
point hardware because_____________? What is the octal equivalent of the binary number
A. floating point hardware is costly : 10111101 ?
B. it is slower than software A. 675
C. it is not possible to perform floating point addition B. 275
by hardware C. 572
D. of no specific reason. D. 573
A NAND gate is called a universal logic element The number 1000 would appear just immediately
because______________? after__________________?

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A. FFFF (hex) A. an astable MV
B. 1111 (binary) B. a bistable MV
C. 7777 (octal) C. a latch
D. All of the above D. a monostable MV
The number of Boolean functions that can be In case of OR gate, no matter what the number of
generated by n variables is equal inputs, a____________________?
to_________________? A. 1 at any input causes the output to be at
A. 2n logic 1
B. 22 n B. 1 at any input causes the output to be at logic 0
C. 2n-1 C. 0 any input causes the output to be at logic 0
D. — 2n D. 0 at any input causes the output to be at logic 1
Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in Excess-3 code is known as_________________?
which______________? A. Weighted code
A. logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and B. Cyclic redundancy code
positive voltage respectively C. Self-complementing code
B. logic 0 and, -1 are represented by negative and D. Algebraic code
positive voltages respectively Indicate which of the following three binary
C. logic 0 voltage level is higher than logic 1 voltage additions are correct? 1.1011 + 1010 = 10101 II.
level 1010 + 1101 = 10111 ?
D. logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic 1 voltage III. 1010 + 1101 = 11111
level A. I and II
Among the logic families, the family which can be B. II and III
used at very high frequency greater than 100 MHz C. III only
in a 4 bit synchronous counter D. II and III
is__________________? Assuming 8 bits for data, 1 bit for parity, I start
A. TTLAS bit and 2 stop bits, the number of characters that
B. CMOS 1200 BPS communication line can transmit
C. ECL is__________________?
D. TTLLS A. 10 CPS
An OR gate has 6 inputs. The number of input B. 120 CPS
words in its truth table are________________? C. 12CPS
A. 6 D. None of the above
B. 32 The fan put of a 7400 NAND gate
C. 64 is_______________?
D. 128 A. 2TTL
NAND gates are preferred over others because B. 5TTL
these__________________? C. 8TTL
A. have lower fabrication area D. 10TTL
B. can be used to make any gate The binary number 10101 is equivalent to decimal
C. consume least electronic power number_________________?
D. provide maximum density in a chip A. 19
An AND gate will function as OR B. 12
if________________? C. 27
A. all the inputs to the gates are “1” D.21
B. all the inputs are ‘0’ The inverter is _________________?
C. either of the inputs is “1” A. NOT gate
D. all the inputs and outputs are complemented B. OR gate
A debouncing circuit is________________?

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C. AND gate A. Input operation
D.None of the above B. Tristate output operation
Which is the correct order of sequence for C. Bi-directional I/O pin access
representing the input values in K-map ? D. All of the above
A. (00, 01, 10, 11) In Boolean algebra, the bar sign (-)
B. (00, 10, 01, 11) indicates__________________?
C. (00, 01, 11, 10) A. OR operation
D. (00, 10, 11, 01) B. AND operation
The NOR gate is OR gate followed C. NOT operation
by____________________? D. None of the above
A. AND gate Which type of CPLD packaging can provide
B. NAND gate maximum number of pins on the package due to
C. NOT gate small size of the pins ?
D. None of the above A. PLCC
The only function of NOT gate is B. QFP
to__________________? C. PGA
A. Stop signal D. BGA
B. Invert input signal What would happen, if smaller logic modules are
C. Act as a universal gate utilized for performing logical functions
D. None of the above associated with FPGA? A. Propagation delay will
The NAND gate is AND gate followed increase B. FPGA area will increase C. Wastage of
by_________________? logic modules will not be prevented D. Number of
A. NOT gate interconnected paths in device will decrease ?
B. OR gate A. A & B
C. AND gate B. C & D
D. None of the above C. A & D
When an input signal 1 is applied to a NOT gate, D. B & C
the output is ______________? The universal gate is ________________?
A. 0 A. NAND gate
B. 1 B. OR gate
C. Either 0 & 1 C. AND gate
D. None of the above D. None of the above
Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use The inputs of a NAND gate are connected
of________________? together. The resulting circuit is
A. OR gates _______________?
B. NOT gates A. OR gate
C. NAND gates B. AND gate
D. None of the above C. NOT gate
Which mechanism allocates the binary value to D. None of the above
the states in order to reduce the cost of the
combinational circuits ?
CHAPTER # ELECTRIC TRACTION
A. State Reduction
The overall efficiency of steam locomotive is
B. State Minimization
around_____________?
C. State Assignment
A. 5 to 10 percent
D. State Evaluation
B. 15 to 20 percent
What is/are the configurable functions of each and
C. 25 to 35 percent
every IOBs connected around the FPGA device
D. 35 to 45 percent
from the operational point of view ?

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_________ locomotive has the highest operational C. 25 kV two phase A.C.
availability? D. 25 kV three phase A.C.
A. Electric In a steam locomotive electric power is provided
B. Diesel through_____________?
C. Steam A. overhead wire
The speed of a locomotive is controlled B. battery system
by_______________? C. small turbo-generator
A. flywheel D. diesel engine generator
B. gear box Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually
C. applying brakes 11. restricted to_______________?
D. regulating steam flow to engine A. 2 percent
The horsepower of steam locomotives B. 10 percent
is______________? C. 20 percent
A. up to 1500 D. 40 percent
B. 1500 to 2000 The wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies, are
C. 2000 to 3000 slightly tapered to_____________?
D. 3000 to 4000 A. reduce friction
Main traction systems used in India are, those B. increase friction
using______________? C. facilitate braking
A. electric locomotives D. facilitate in taking turns
B. diesel engine locomotives The efficiency of diesel locomotives is
C. steam engine locomotives nearly_______________?
D. diesel electric locomotives A. 20 to 25 percent
E. all of the above B. 30 to 40 percent
Which of the following is the voltage for single C. 45 to 55 percent
phase A.C. system ? D. 60 to 70 percent
A. 22 V Which of the following state capitals is not on
B. 440 V broad gauge track ?
C. 5 kV A. Lucknow
D. 15 kV B. Bhopal
E. None of the above C. Jaipur
For diesel locomotives the range of horsepower D. Chandigarh
is_______________? Electric locomotives in India are manufactured
A. 50 to 200 at______________?
B. 500 to 1000 A. Jamalpur
C. 1500 to 2500 B. Bangalore
D. 3000 to 5000 C. Chittranjan
Which of the following is an advantage of electric D. Gorakhpur
traction over other methods of traction ? Which of the following drives is suitable for mines
A. Faster acceleration where explosive gas exists ?
B. No pollution problems A. Steam engine
C. Better braking action B. Diesel engine
D. All of the above C. Battery locomotive
Long distance railways use which of the following D. Any of the above
? In case of steam engines the steam pressure
A. 200 V D.C. is_______________?
B. 25 kV single phase A.C. A. 1 to 4 kgf/cm2
B. 5 to 8 kgf/cm2

187
C. 10 to 15 kgf/cm2 A. It avoids wear of track
D. 25 to 35 kgf/cm2 B. Motor continues to remain loaded during braking
Automatic signalling is used for which of the C. It is instantaneous
following trains ? D. More heat is generated during braking
A. Mail and express trains For given maximum axle load tractive efforts of
B. Superfast trains AC. locomotive will be_____________?
C. Suburban and Urban electric trains A. less than that of D.C. locomotive
D. All trains B. more than that of D.C. locomotive
The steam engine provided on steam locomotives C. equal to that of D.C. locomotive
is____________? D. none of the above
A. single acting condensing type Due to which of the following co-efficient of
B. single acting non-condensing type adhesion improves ?
E. double acting condensing type A. Rust on the rails
D. double acting non-condensing type B. Dust on the rails
In case of locomotives the tractive power is C. Sand on the rails
provided by______________? D. All of the above
A. single cylinder double acting steam engine Tractive effort is required
B. double cylinder, single acting steam engine to_____________?
C. double cylinder, double acting steam engine A. overcome the gravity component of train
D. single stage steam turbine mass
In tramways which of the following motors is used B. overcome friction, windage and curve resistance
? C. accelerate the train mass
A. D.C. shunt motor D. do all of the above
B. D.C. series motor Co-efficient of adhesion reduces due to the
C. A.C. three phase motor presence of which of the following ?
D. AC. single phase capacitor start motor A. Sand on rails
The number of passenger coaches that can be B. Dew on rails
attached to a diesel engine locomotive on broad C. Oil on the rails
gauge is usually restricted to_____________/ D. both B. and C.
A. 5 The pulsating torque exerted by steam
B. 10 locomotives causes which of the following ?
C. 14 A. Jolting and skidding
D. 17 B. Hammer blow
Which of the following braking systems on the C. Pitching
locomotives is costly ? D. All of the above
A. Regenerative braking on electric The air resistance to the movement of the train is
locomotives proportional to_____________?
B. Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives A. speed
C. Vacuum braking on steam locomotives B. (speed)
D. All braking systems are equally costly C. (speed)
The speed of a superfast train is______________? D. 1/speed
A. 60 kmph The specific energy consumption of a train
B. 75 kmph depends on which of the following ?
C. 100 kmph A. Acceleration and retardation
D. more than 100 kmph B. Gradient
Which of the following is the advantage of electric C. Distance covered
braking ? D. All of the above

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Speed-time curve of main line service differs from Which of the following is the disadvantage of
those of urban and suburban services on following electric traction over other systems of traction ?
account_______________? A. Corrosion problems in the under-ground
A. it has longer free running period pipe work
B. it has longer coasting period B. Short time power failure interrupts traffic for
C. accelerating and braking periods are hours
comparatively smaller C. High capital outlay in fixed installations beside
D. all of the above route limitation
The normal value of adhesion friction D. Interference with communication lines
is______________? C. All of the above
A. 0.12 In main line service as compared to urban and
B. 0.25 suburban service______________?
C. 0.40 A. distance between the stops is more
D. 0.75 B. maximum speed reached is high
The friction at the track is proportional C. acceleration and retardation rates are low
to________________? D. all of the above
A. 1/speed For three-phase induction motors which of the
B. l/(speed)2 following is the least efficient method of speed
C. speed control ?
D. none of the above A. Cascade control
The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban B. Pole changing
services is restricted by the consideration C. Rheostat control
of______________? D. Combination of cascade and pole changing
A. Engine power The value of co-efficient of adhesion will be high
B. Track curves when rails are_________________?
C. Passenger Discomfort A. greased
D. Track size B. wet
Which of the following braking systems is used on C. sprayed with oil
steam locomotives ? D. cleaned with sand
A. Hydraulic system Specific energy consumption
B. Pneumatic system becomes________________?
C. Vacuum system A. more on steeper gradient
D. None of the above B. more with high train resistance
Co-efficient of adhesion C. less if distance between stops is more
is________________-? D. all of the above
A. high in case of D.C. traction than in the The voltage used for suburban trains in D.C.
case of AC. traction system is usually_______________?
B. low in case of D.C. traction than in the case of A. 12 V
AC. traction B. 24 V
C. equal in both AC. and D.C. traction C. 220 V
D. any of the above D. 600 to 750 V
Quadrilateral speed-time curve pertains to which _______________method can bring the locomotive
of the following services ? to dead stop?
A. Main line service A. Plugging braking
B. Urban service B. Rheostatic braking
C. Sub-urban service C. Regenerative braking
D. Urban and sub-urban service D. None of the above
Vacuum is created by which of the following ?

189
A. Vacuum pump An ideal traction system should
B. Ejector have_______________?
C. Any of the above A. easy speed control
D. None of the above B. high starting tractive effort
Battery operated trucks are used C. equipment capable of with standing large
in________________? temporary loads
A. steel mills D. all of the above
B. power stations Energy consumption in propelling the train is
C. narrow gauge traction required for which of the following?
D. factories for material transportation A. Work against the resistance to motion
The resistance encountered by a train in motion is B. Work against gravity while moving up the
on account of_________________? gradient
A. resistance offered by air C. Acceleration
B. friction at the track D. All of the above
C. friction at various parts of the rolling stock Overhead lines for power supply to tramcars are
D. all of the above at a minimum height of______________?
Series motor is not suited for traction duty due to A. 3 m
which of the following account ? B. 6 m
A. Less current drain on the heavy load torque C. 10 m
B. Current surges after temporary switching D. 15 m
off supply Specific energy consumption is least in
C. Self relieving property ________________ service?
D. Commutating property at heavy load A. main line
The return circuit for tramcars is B. urban
through_______________? C. suburban
A. neutral wire Specific energy consumption is affected by which
B. rails of the following factors ?
C. cables A. Retardation and acceleration values
D. common earthing B. Gradient
In case of _________________ free running and C. Distance between stops
coasting periods are generally long ? D. All of the above
A. main-line service Locomotive having monomotor
B. urban service bogies________________?
C. sub-urban service A. has better coefficient of adhesion
D. all of the above B. are suited both for passanger as well as
have maximum unbalanced freight service
forces_______________? C. has better riding qualities due to the reduction of
A. Diesel shunters lateral forces
B. Steam locomotives D. has all above qualities
C. Electric locomotives ________________ frequency is not common in
D. Diesel locomotives low frequency traction system?
When a bogie negotiates a curve, reduction in A. 40 Hz
adhesion occurs resulting in sliding. Thus sliding B. 25 Hz
is acute when_______________? C. 16 Hz
A. wheel base of axles is more D. non of these
B. degree of curvature is more Locomotives with monometer bogies
C. both A. and B. have_________________?
D. none of the above

190
A. uneven distribution of tractive effect C. 0.225
B. suitability for passanger as well as freight D. 0.16
service The coasting retardation is
C. lot of skidding around_________________?
D. low co-efficient of adhesion A. 0.16 km phps
For 25 kV single phase system power supply B. 1.6 km phps
frequency is_______________? C. 16 km phps
A. 60 Hz D. 40 km phps
B. 50 Hz The braking retardation is usually in the
C. 25 Hz range__________________?
D. 16 Hz A. 0.15 to 0.30 km phps
Suri transmission is_________________? B. 0.30 to 0.6 km phps
A. electrical-pneumatic C. 0.6 to 2.4 km phps
B. mechanical-electrical D. 3 to 5 km phps
C. hydro-mechanical E. 10 to 15 km phps
D. hydro-pneumatic Which of the following methods is used to control
In case of a steam engine an average coal speed of 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase traction ?
consumption per km is nearly________________? A. Reduced current method
A. 150 to 175 kg B. Tap changing control of transformer
B. 100 to 120 kg C. Series parallel operation of motors
C. 60 to 80 kg D. All of the above
D. 28 to 30 kg The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban
For which of the following locomotives the service is in the range_________________?
maintenance requirements are the least ? A. 0.2 to 0.5 km phps
A. Steam locomotives B. 1.6 to 4.0 km phps
B. Diesel locomotives C. 5 to 10 km phps
C. Electric locomotives D. 15 to 25 km phps
D. Equal in all of the above _______________watt-hours per tonne km is
Power for lighting in passanger coach, in a long usually the specific energy consumption for
distance electric train, is suburban services?
provided_________________? A. 15—20
A. directly through overhead electric line B. 50—75
B. through individual generator of bogie and C. 120—150
batteries D. 160—200
C. through rails
D. through locomotive CHAPTER # ELECTRICAL
Which of the following happens in Kando system ENGINEERING MATERIALS
? The covalent bond is formed
A. Three phase A.C. is converted into D.C. by_______________?
B. Single phase A.C. is converted into D.C. A. transfer of electrons between atoms
C. Single phase supply is converted into three B. sharing of electrons between atoms
phase system E. sharing of variable number of electrons by a
D. None of the above variable number of atoms
If the co-efficient of adhesion on dry rails is 0.26, D. none of the above
which of the following could be the value for wet The tiny block formed by the arrangement of a
rails ? small group of atoms is called the____________?
A. 0.3 A. unit cell
B. 0.26 B. space lattice

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C. either A. or (b) The co-ordination number of a simple cubic
D. none of the above structure is______________?
is a negatively charged particle present in an A. 2
atom______________? B. 4
A. Proton C. 6
B. Neutron D. 8
C. Electron A highly conductive material must
D. None of the above have___________?
The converse of hardness is known A. highest conductivity
as______________? B. lowest temperature co-efficient
A. malleability C. good mechanical strength
B. toughness D. good corrosion resistance
C. softness E. easy solderable and drawable quality
D. none of the above F. all of the above
The formula __________ determines the number Which of the following materials is preferred for
of electrons that can be accommodated in any transmitting electrical energy over long distance ?
level? A. Copper
A. 2n2 B. Aluminium
B. 4n2 C. Steel reinforced copper
C. 2n3 D. Steel reinforced aluminium
D. 4ns Superconductors are becoming popular for use
A perfect conductor has_____________? in________________?
A. zero conductivity A. generating very strong magnetic field
B. unity conductivity B. manufacture of bubble memories
C. infinite conductivity C. generating electrostatic field
D. none of the above D. generating regions free from magnetic field
Commonly used conducting materials The superconductivity is due to____________?
are_____________? A. the crystal structure having no atomic
A. copper vibration at 0°K
B. aluminium B. all electrons interact in the super-conducting state
C. both (A) and (B) C. the electrons jump into nucleus at 0°K
D. copper and silver D. none of the above
E. platinum and gold The conductivity of a conductor can be increased
The kinetic energy of a bounded electron by_______________?
is______________? A. decreasing its temperature
A. less than that of unbounded electron B. increasing its temperature
B. greater than that of unbounded electron C. decreasing its vibration
C. equal to that of unbounded electron D. increasing its vibration
D. infinite In a superconductor the value of critical density
E. none of the above depends upon______________?
The metal having the lowest temperature A. magnetic field strength
coefficient of resistance B. temperature
is_________________? C. either (A) or (B)
A. gold D. both (A) and (B)
B. copper High resistivity materials are used
C. aluminium in_____________?
D. kanthal A. precision instruments
B. heating elements

192
C. motor starters C. a heavy cross-section of copper or aluminium
D. incandescent lamps D. a ceramic tube having carbon rod inside it
E. all of the above The coils of D.C. motor starter are wound with
highest conductivity_____________? wire of_______________?
B. lowest temperature co-efficient A. copper
C. good mechanical strength B. kanthal
D. good corrosion resistance C. manganin
E. easy solderable and drawable quality D. nichrome
F. all of the above By increasing impurity content in the metal alloy
Superconductivity is observed for____________? the residual resistivity always_____________?
A. infrared frequencies A. decreases
B. d.c. and low frequency B. increases
C. a.c. and high frequency C. remains constant
D. frequencies having no effect D. becomes temperature independent
E. none of the above At transition temperature the value of critical
The value of critical field below the transition field is____________?
temperature will_______________? A. zero
A. increase B. negative real value
B. decrease C. positive real value
C. remain unchanged D. complex value
D. any of the above The transition temperature of mercury
On which of the following factors does the is____________?
resistivity of a material depend ? A. 18.0°K
A. Resistance of the conductor B. 9.22°K
B. Area of the conductor section C. 4.12°K
C. Length of the conductor D. 1.14’K
D. All of the above The structure sensitive property of a super
Mercury as an electric contact material conductor is______________?
is_______________? A. critical magnetic field
A. a liquid B. transition temperature
B. a metal C. critical current density
C. a metal liquid D. none of the above
D. a gas Constantan contains_______________?
Which of the following resistive materials has the A. silver and tin
lowest temperature co-efficient of resistance ? B. copper and tungsten
A. Nichrome C. tungsten and silver
B. Constantan D. copper and nickel
C. Kanthal Which of the following is the poorest conductor of
D. Molybdenum electricity ?
The conductors have transport phenomena of A. Carbon
electrons due to____________? B. Steel
A. electric field C. Silver
B. magnetic field D. Aluminium
C. electromagnetic field Which of the following variety of copper has the
D. none of the above best conductivity ?
An H.R.C. fuse is_______________? A. Induction hardened copper
A. a ceramic body having metal and caps B. Hard drawn copper
B. a wire of platinum

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C. Pure annealed copper A. Glass
D. Copper containing traces of silicon B. Quartz
Overhead telephone wires are made C. Corrundum
of_____________? D. Neoprene
A. aluminium A good electric contact material should have all of
B. steel the following properties except_____________?
C. ACSR conductors A. high resistivity
D. copper B. high resistance to corrosion
__________ is the main constituent of glass? C. good thermal conductivity
A. Fe203 D. high melting point
B. Si02 Thermonic emission occurs
C. AI2O3 in______________?
D. B2O3 A. vacuum tubes
___________ is most commonly used for making B. copper conductors
magnetic recording tape? C. ferrite cores
A. Silver nitrate D. transistors
B. Ferric oxide Addition of 0.3 to 4.5% silicon to iron ________
C. Small particles of iron the electrical resistivity of iron?
D. Silicon-iron A. increases
Carbon electrodes are not used B. decreases
in_______________? C. does not change
A. GLS lamps Most of the common metals have _________
B. electric arc furnace structure?
C. dry cells A. linear
D. cinema projectors B. hexagonal
In thermocouples which of the following pairs is C. orthorhombic
commonly used ? D. cubic
A. Copper-constantan __________ is a hard solder?
B. Aluminium-tin A. Tin-lead
C. Silver-German silver B. Tin-silver-lead
D. Iron-steel C. Copper-zinc
Solder is an alloy of______________? D. None of the above
A. copper and aluminium Which of the following affect greatly the resistivity
B. tin and lead of electrical conductors ?
C. nickel, copper and zinc A. Composition
D. silver, copper and lead B. Pressure
_____________is viscoelastic? C. Size
A. Cast-iron D. Temperature
B. Graphite Super conductivity can be destroyed
C. Rubber by_____________?
D. Glass A. adding impurities
Piezoelectric materials serve as a source of B. reducing temperatures
____________ ? C. application of magnetic field
A. resonant waves D. any of the above
B. musical waves Which of the following materials does not have
C. microwaves covalent bonds ?
D. ultrasonic waves A. Organic polymers
_________ is an example of piezoelectric material? B. Silicon

194
C. Metals C. the stiffness of the bonds it makes with
Non-linear resistors______________? neighbors
A. produce harmonic distortion The number of atoms per unit cell in B.C.C.
B. follows Ohm’s law at low temperatures only structure is_____________?
C. result in non-uniform heating A. 1
D. none of the above B. 2
In graphite, bonding is____________? C. 4
A. covalent D. 8
B. metallic Which of the following material is not a
C. Vander Waals semiconductor ?
D. Vander Waals and covalent A. Silica
A carbon resistor contains_____________? B. Germanium
A. carbon crystals C. Selenium
B. solid carbon granules D. Gallium-arsenide
C. pulverized coal Carbon rods are used in wet and dry cells
D. finely divided carbon black because_____________?
Total number of crystal systems A. carbon rod serves as conductor
is____________? B. carbon can resist the attack of battery acid
A. 2 C. both (A) and (B)
B. 4 D. either (A) or (B)
C. 7 Which of the following are non-conductors of
D. 12 electricity?
The resistivity of a metal is a function of A. Non-metal solids except carbon
temperature because_____________? B. Air and most other gases
A. the amplitude of vibration of the atoms C. Pure water and liquids in general except mercury
varies with temperature D. All of the above
B. the electron density varies with temperature Carbon resistors are used extensively because they
C. the electron gas density varies with temperature are____________?
Due to which of the following reasons aluminium A. easy to make
does not corrode in atmosphere ? B. compact
A. Aluminium is a noble metal C. inexpensive
B. Atmospheric oxygen can only diffuse very D. all of the above reasons
slowly through the oxide layer which is formed on The impurity atoms is
the surface of aluminium semiconductors_____________?
C. No reaction with oxygen occurs ft Any of the A. inject more charge carriers
above B. reduce the energy gap
The conductivity of a metal is determined C. increase the kinetic energy of valence electrons
by____________? D. all of the above
A. the electronic concentration and the Due to which of the following factors the brush
mobility of the free electrons wear rate is altered ?
B. the number of valence electrons per atom A. Speed of the machine
C. either (A) or (B) B. Contact pressure
D. none of the above C. Surface conditions of brush and commutator
In a crystal, an atom vibrates at a frequency D. Excessive sparking
determined by_______________? E. All of the above
A. the heat content of the crystal Carbon bearings are used under which of the
B. the temperature of the crystal following conditions ?

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A. Where lubrication is difficult or im-possible Substances whose specific resistance abruptly
B. Where corrosive chemical action exists decreases at very low temperature are
C. Where high temperature exists called___________?
D. All of the above A. insulators
Steel wire is used as____________? B. conductors
A. overhead telephone wire C. semiconductors
B. earth wire D. superconductors
C. core wire of ACSR is the property of absorbing moisture from
D. all of the above atmosphere_____________?
Platinum is used in_____________? A. Solubility
A. electrical contacts B. Viscosity
B. thermocouple C. Porosity
C. heating element in high temperature furnace D. Hygroscopicity
D. grids of special purpose vacuum tubes The conduction of electricity, in semiconductors,
E. all of the above takes place due to movement
Which of the following high resistance materials of______________?
has the highest operating temperature ? A. positive ions only
A. Kanthal B. negative ions only
B. Manganin C. positive and negative ions
C. Nichrome D. electrons and holes
D. Eureka Thermocouples are mainly used for the
Low resistivity materials are used in__________? measurement of_____________?
A. transformer, motor and generator windings A. temperature
B. transmission and distribution lines B. resistance
C. house wiring C. eddy currents
D. all above applications D. coupling co-efficient
Which of the following materials is used for Which of the following materials is the best
making coils of standard resistances ? conductor of electricity ?
A. Copper A. Tungsten
B. Nichrome B. Aluminium
C. Platinum C. Copper
D. Manganin D. Carbon
Copper, even though costly, finds use in the Due to which of the following reasons copper and
windings of electrical machines aluminium are not used for heating elements
because_____________? ?
A. copper points offer low contact resistance A. Both have great tendency for oxidation
B. copper can be easily soldered and welded B. Both have low melting point
E. copper windings are less bulky and the machines C. Very large length of wires will be required
become compact D. All of the above
D. all of the above Which of the following is a semiconductor
Which of the following is an advantage of material ?
stranded conductor over equivalent single A. Phosphorous
conductor ? B. Rubber
A. Less liability to kink C. Silicon
B. Greater flexibility D. Aluminium
C. Less liability to break ___________ has the best damping properties?
D. All of the above A. Diamond
B. High speed steel

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C. Mild steel D. increase dielectric loss
D. Cast iron E. all of the above
Spark plug makes use of which of the following In conductors conduction of electricity takes place
materials for insulation ? due to movement of_______________?
A. Porcelain A. electrons only
B. Slate B. positive ions only
C. Asbestos C. negative ions only
D. Glass D. positive and negative ions
The photo-electric effect occurs only when the E. none of the above
incident light has more than a certain Surface resistance of an insulating material is
critical____________? reduced due to the______________?
A. intensity A. smoky and dirty atmosphere
B. speed B. humidity in the atmosphere
C. frequency C. both (A) and (b)
D. wave length D. neither (A) nor (b)
Selenium is __________ semiconductor? Which of the following factors affect resistivity of
A. extrnisic metals ?
B. intmisic A. Age hardening
C. N-type B. Alloying
D. P-type C. Temperature
Due to which of the following fact, in India, D. Cold work
aluminium is replacing copper ? E. All of the above
A. Aluminium is more ductile and malleable Superconducting metal in super conducting state
than copper has relative permeability
B. Aluminium is available in plenty, cheaper and of________________?
lighter than copper A. zero
C. Aluminium has lower resistivity than that of B. one
copper C. negative
D. Aluminium has less temperature co-efficient than D. more than one
copper For a particular material the Hall coefficient was
If the resistance of a conductor does not vary in found to be zero. The material is______________?
accordance with Ohm’s law it is known A. insulator
as____________? B. metal
A. non-linear conductor C. intrinsic semiconductor
B. reverse conductor D. none of the above
C. bad-conductor For a hole which of the following statements is
D. non-conductor incorrect ?
The forbidden gap in an insulator A. Holes can exist in certain semiconductors
is________________? only
A. large B. Holes can exist in any material including
B. small conductors
C. nil C. Holes may constitute an electric current
D. any of the above D. Holes can be considered as a net positive charge
Effect of moisture on the insulating materials is The conductivity of an extrinsic semiconductor
to________________? with temperature________________?
A. decrease dielectric constant A. decreases
B. decrease dielectric strength B. increases
C. decrease insulation resistance C. remains constant

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The carbon percentage is least C. large size machines
in__________________? D. any of the above
A. low carbon steel The efficiency of a machine should be as
B. wrought iron ____________ as possible to reduce the operating
C. cast iron cost?
D. malleable iron A. high
is an element used in semiconductors whose atoms B. low
have three valence electrons? C. either of the above
A. An acceptor D. none of the above
B. A donor Which of the following is the major consideration
C. Germanium to evolve a good design ?
D. Silicon A. Cost
For germanium the forbidden energy gap B. Durability
is_______________? C. Compliance with performance criteria as laid
A. 0.15 eV down in specifications
B. 0.25 eV D. All of the above
C. 0.5eV In induction motors, the length of air gap in kept
D. 0.7eV as small as mechanically possible is order to
The current due to electron flow in conduction have____________?
band is the hole current in valence band? A. low power factor
A. equal to B. high power factor
B. less than C. high over load capacity
C. greater than D. any of the above
D. any of the above Electrical machines having a power output up to
The minority carrier concentration is largely a about 750 W may be called__________machines?
function of_____________? A. small size
A. forward biasing voltage B. medium size
B. reverse biasing voltage C. large size
C. temperature D. any of the above
D. the amount of doping If an insulating material is operated beyond the
maximum allowable temperature, its life
is_____________?
A. drastically increased
CHAPTER # ELECTRICAL MACHINE B. drastically reduced
DESIGN C. unaffected
In _________ machines, the size of the shaft is D. none of the above
decided by the critical speed which depends on the impose limitation on design____________?
deflection of the shaft? A. Saturation
A. small B. Temperature rise
B. medium C. Efficiency
C. large D. Power factor
D. any of the above. E. All above
Electrical machines having power outputs ranging The design of mechanical parts is particularly
from a few kW up to approximately 250 kW may important in case of __________ speed
be classified as_____________? machines?
A. small size machines A. low
B. medium size machines

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B. medium Materials exhibiting zero value of resistivity are
C. high known as ____________ ?
D. any of the above A. conductors
The length cf air gap to be provided in B. semiconductors
__________ is primarily determined by power C. insulators
factor consideration? D. superconductors
A. d.c. series motor . Hot rolled sheets have ___________ value of
B. d.c. shunt motor permeability?
C. induction motor A. zero
D. synchronous motor B. low
The action of electromagnetic machines can be C. high
related to which of the following basic principles D. none of the above
__________? Aluminium when adopted as a conductor material
A. Induction in __________ transformers, decreases the overall
B. Interaction cost of the transformer?
C. Alignment A. small size
D. All of the above B. medium size
The change in flux linkages can be caused in C. large size
which of the following ways ? D. any of the above size
A. The flux is constant with respect to time and __________is extensively used for those portions
is stationary and the coil moves through it of magnetic circuit which carry steady flux and
B. The coil is stationary with respect to flux and the need superior mechanical properties ?
flux varies in magnitude with respect to time A. Grey cast-iron
C. Both the changes mentioned above occur together, B. Cast steel
i.e., the coil moves through a time varying field C. High carbon steel
D. All of the above D. Stainless steel
Commercial available medium size machines have The heat dissipated by from a surface depends
a speed range of __________ ? upon its temperature and its characteristics like
A. 200 to 400 r.p.m colour, roughness etc?
B. 600 to 1000 r.p.m A. conduction
C. 1000 to 1500 r.p.m B. convection
D. 2000 to 2500 r.p.m C. radiation
__________ has a low relative permeability and is D. any of the above
used principally in field frames when cost is of Which of the following materials is used in the
primary importance and extra weight is not manufacture of resistance grids to be used in the
objectionable? starters of large motors ?
A. Cast steel
B. Aluminium
C. Soft steel A. Copper
D. Cast iron B. Aluminium
_______________is universally used for windings C. Steel
of electrical machines because it is easily workable D. Cast-iron
On which of the following variables heat
without any possibility of fracture?
convected depends ?
A. Silver
A. Power density
B. Steel
B. Temperature difference between heated
C. Aluminium
surface and coolant
D. Copper
C. Thermal resistivity, density, specific heat

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D. Gravitational constant C. either A. or B.
E. All of the above D. none of the above
The mcrease in heat dissipation by air blasts is The heated parts of an electrical machine dissipate
due to increase in______________? heat into their surroundings by which of the
A. conduction following modes of heat dissipation ?
B. convection A. Conduction
E. radiation B. Convection
D. any ofthe above C. Radiation
Multiple inlet system of air cooling of turbo- D. All of the above
alternators can be used for machines of rating Which of the following is an advantage of
upto_______________? hydrogen cooling ?
A. 10 MW A. Increase in efficiency
B. 30 MW B. Increase in ratings
C. 60 MW C. Increase in life
D. 150 MW D. Smaller size of coolers
Hydrogen has a heat transfer co-efficient E. All of the above
__________ times that of air? The density of hydrogen is __________ times the
A. 1.5 density of air?
B. 2.5 A. 0.07
C. 3.5 B. 1.5
D. 4.5 C. 2.5
With conventional hydrogen cooling it is possible D. 3.5
to increase the rating of a single unit Machines cooled by direct cooling method may be
to___________? called_____________?
A. 50 MW A. “supercharged”
B. 100 MW B. “inner cooled”
C. 200 MW C. “conductor cooled”
D. none of the above D. any of the above
cooling is the process of dissipating the armature The resistivity of water should not be less
and field winding losses to a cooling medium than_____________?
circulating within the winding insulation A. 10 Q m
wall______________? B. 100 Q m
A. Direct C. 1000 Q m
B. Indirect D. 2000 Q m
C. Conventional In direct cooled system using hydrogen both stator
D. Any of the above and rotor conductors are
The thermal conductivity of hydrogen is made____________?
_____________ times that of air? A. solid
A. 2 B. hollow
B. 3 C. perforated
C. 5 D. any ofthe above
D. 7 Direct water cooling of rotor winding
The noise produced by a ___________ cooled presents_____________?
machine is less as the rotor moves in a medium of A. no mechanical difficulties
smaller density? B. lesser mechanical difficulties
A. air C. greater mechanical difficulties
B. hydrogen D. none of the above

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In self cooled motors the cooling time constant is C. Embedded temperature detector method
about ___________ than the heating time constant D. Any of the above
because cooling conditions are worse at The value of exciting or magnetizing current
standstill? depends upon which of the following factors ?
A. 2 to 3 times greater A. Total m.m.f. required
B. 3 to 4 times greater B. The number of turns in the exciting winding
C. 4 to 5 times greater C. The way in which the winding is distributed
D. none of the above D. All of the above
With direct water cooling it is possible to have By which of the following methods motor rating
ratings of about_____________? for variable load drives can be determined ?
A. 200 MW A. Method of average losses
B. 300 MW B. Equivalent current method
C. 400 MW C. Equivalent torque method
D. 600 MW D. Equivalent power method
The time taken by the machine to attain 0.632 of E. All of the above
its final steady temperature rise is electromagnets generally function as holding
called_____________? magnets ?
A. heating time constant A. Tractive
B. cooling time constant B. Portative
C. either A. or B. C. Either of the above
D. none of the above D. None of the above
Which of the following methods does not take into The design of electromagnets is based upon which
account the maximum temperature rise under of the following fundamental equations ?
variable load conditions ? A. Force equation
A. Equivalent power method B. Magnetic circuit equation
B. Equivalent current method C. Heating equation
C. Method of average losses D. Voltage equation
D. Equivalent torque method E. All of the above
The slot leakage can be calculated by making Which of the following is the commonly used type
which of the following assumptions ? of electromagnets ?
A. The current in the slot conductors is A. Flat-faced armature type
uniformly distributed over their cross-section B. Horse shoe type
B. The leakage path is straight across the slot and C. Flat-faced plunger type
around the iron at the bottom D. All of the above
C. The permanence of air paths is only considered. Tractive magnets are operated
The reluctance of iron paths is assumed as zero from____________?
D. All of the above A. a.c. supply
Which of the following methods is used for air B. d.c. supply
cooling of turbo-alternators ? C. either a.c. or d.c. supply
A. One sided axial ventilation D. none of the above
B. Two sided axial ventilation ____________are used for construction of core of
C. Multiple inlet system electromagnets?
D. All of the above
By which of the following methods the
temperature rise of windings and other parts may A. Soft magnetic materials
be determined ? B. Hard magnetic materials
A. Thermometer method C. Either A. or B.
B. Resistance method D. None of the above
Which of the following methods is most accurate ?

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A. Equivalent current method Power transformers have
B. Equivalent power method rating_______________?
C. Equivalent torque method A. equal to 50 kVA
D. Method of average losses B. equal to 100 kVA
Yokes with rectangular cross-section are used C. above 200 kVA
for_______________? D. none of the above
A. small capacity transformers In transformers using hot rolled steel, the cross-
B. medium capacity transformers section of the yoke is made about __________
C. large capacity transformers greater than that of the core?
D. any of the above A. 5 percent
Power transformers should be designed to have B. 10 percent
maximum efficiency________________? C. 15 percent
A. at one-fourth load D. 30 percent
B. at one-half load E. none of the above
C. at or near full load In D.C. machines the number of slots per pole
D. any of the above usually lies___________?
Dummy coil should not be used A. between 2 to 4
in_________________? B. between 6 to 8
A. small machines C. between 9 to 16
B. large machines D. between 20 to 30
C. either A. or B. Which of the following methods may be adopted
D. none of the above to reduce the effects of armature reaction ?
The distance between the starts of two consecutive A. Increase in length of air gap at pole tips
coils measured in terms of coil sides is B. Increasing reluctance of pole tips
called_____________? C. Compensating windings
A. front pitch D. Interpoles
B. winding pitch E. All of the above
C. commutator pitch In D.C. machines, the ________ in field mmf
D. back pitch results in increase in size and cost of machines?
When the two coil sides forming a coil are spaced A. increase
exactly one pole pitch apart they are said to be B. decrease
of_____________? C. either of the above
A. short pitch D. none of the above
B. full pitch In D.C. machines the width of the duct is
C. either of the above usually_____________?
D. none of the above A. 4 mm
The winding where dummy coils are used is B. 6 mm
sometimes called______________? C. 8 mm
A. duplex winding D. 10 mm
B. triplex winding In a D.C. machine the current per brush arm
C. forced winding should not be more than_____________?
D. none of the above A. 100 A
____________are always double layer type? B. 200 A
A. Closed windings E. 300 A
B. Open windings D. 400 A
C. Either of the above The weight of copper of both armature and field
D. None of the above windings decreases with __________ in number of
poles?

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A. increase C. Poor commutation
B. decrease D. Change in motor parameters
C. either of the above E. All of the above
D. none of the above Which of the following brushes can be used for
In a D.C. machine, the value of peripheral speed high values of current density ?
should not, normally, exceed___________? A. Metal graphite brushes
A. 10 m/s B. Hard carbon brushes
B. 20 m/s C. Electro-graphitic brushes
C. 30 m/s D. Natural graphite brushes
D. 40 m/s is usually used for brush rockers____________?
In D.C. machines, ir order to prevent excessive A. Mild steel
distortion of field form by the armature reaction, B. Copper
the field mmf must be made____________? C. Aluminium
A. equal to that of armature mmf D. Cast-iron
B. less in comparison with the armature mmf The stator of a D.C. machine comprises
C. large in comparison with the armature mmf of_____________?
D. none of the above A. main poles
The operation of a D.C. machine with large air B. interpoles
gap lengths is comparatively_____________? C. frame
A. quiet D. all of the above
B. noisy Which of the following in an application of D.C.
C. either of the above motors?
D. none of the above A. Traction
In D.C. machines the usual limit of slot pitch B. Drives for process industry
is________________? C. Battery driven vehicles
A. between 5 to 10 mm D. Automatic control
B. between 10 to 15 mm E. All of the above
C. between 15 to 20 mm The cylindrical windings using circular
D. between 25 to 35 mm conductors are used for current rating
D.C. machines designed with a large value of air of____________?
gap length have_____________? A. upto 20 A
A. worst, ventilation B. upto 40 A
B. poor ventilation C. upto 60 A
C. better ventilation D. upto 80 A
D. none of the above D.C. servomotors are used in______________?
In a D.C. machine the number of brush arms is A. purely D.C. control systems
_________ the number of poles? B. purely AC. control systems
A. less than C. both D.C. and AC. control systems
B. equal to D. none of the above
C. greater than The laminations of the armature of a D.C.
D. none of the above machine are usually ___________ thick?
Which of the following problem arises in D.C. A. 0.1 to 0.2 mm
motors which are fed from thyristor bridge B. 0.2 to 0.3 mm
circuits ? C. 0.3 to 0.4 mm
A. Increased I R losses D. 0.4 to 0.5 mm
B. Increased core losses ___________ brushes are fragile and cause
excessive wear of commutator?

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A. Natural graphite A. 40°C
B. Hard carbon B. 60°C
C. Electro graphitic C. 80°C
D. Metal graphite D. 104°C
____________ is the common method of applying The high voltage winding is usually which of the
brushes to the commntator? following type ?
A. Radial A. Cylindrical winding with circular
B. Trailing conductors
C. Reaction B. Cross-over winding with either circular or small
D. All of the above rectangular conductors
The insulation between windings and grounded C. Continuous disc type winding with rectangular
core and the insulation between the windings of conductors
the same phase is D. All of the above types
called__________________? D.C. windings are____________?
A. minor insulation A. sometimes 2-layer type
B. major insulation B. never 2-layer type
C. either of the above C. always 2-layer type
D. none of the above D. none of the above
The surge phenomenon is particularly important For 275 kV transformers, using cold rolled grain
in case of_______________? oriented steel, which of the following values of flux
A. low voltage transformers density may be used?
B. medium voltage transformers A. 1.0 Wb/m2
C. high voltage transformers B. 1.1 Wb/m2
D. any of the above C. 1.3 Wb/m2
A practical formula for determining the thickness D. 1.6 Wb/m2
of insulation between low voltage and high voltage E. None of the above
windings is__________________? A current density of __________ is ilsed for large
A. 1 + 0.2 kVmm power transformers with forced circulation of oil
B. 2 + 0.5 kVmm or with water cooling coils?
C. 4 + 0.7 kV mm A. 1.5 to 2.5 A/mm2
D. 5 + 0.9 kV mm B. 3.5 to 4.5 A/mm2
For large power transformers, self oil cooled type C. 4.0 to 5.0 A/mm2
or air blast type which of the following values of D. 5.4 to 6.2 A/mm2
current density may be used? Which of the following is the basic consideration
A. 1.0 to 1.2 A/mm2 in the design of insulation ?
B. 1.5 to 2.0 A/mm2 A. Electrical considerations
C. 2.2 to 3.2 A/mm2 B. Mechanical considerations
D. 3.2 to 4.2 A/mm2 C. Thermal considerations
The usual values of maximum flux densities for D. All of the above
distribution transformers using hot rolled silicon The voltage control in electric supply networks in
steel are______________? required on account of which of the following
A. 0.5 to 0.8 Wb/m2 reasons ?
B. 0.8 to 1.0 Wb/m2 A. Adjustment of voltage at consumers
C. 1.1 to 1.35 Wb/m2 premises within statutory limits
D. 1.4 to 1.8 Wb/m2 B. Control of active and reactive power
The flash point of transformer oil should be C. Adjustment of short period daily and seasonal
higher than_______________? voltage variations in accordance with variations of

204
load C. upto 80 kV
D. All of the above D. for 110 kV and above
Transformers with a capacity of up to __________ Cylindrical windings using circular conductors,
have a cooling radiator system with natural employed in transformers, are_____________?
cooling? A. single layered
A. 2 MVA B. double layered
B. 5 MVA C. multi-layered
C. 7.5 MVA D. none of the above
D. 10 MVA The cold rolled grain oriented steel has _________
The heat dissipating capability of transformers of permeability in the direction of the grain
ratings higher than 30 kVA in increased by orientation?
providing which of the following ? A. minimum
A. Corrugations B. maximum
B. Fins C. nil
C. Tubes D. none of the above
D. Radiator tanks The input impedance of a JFET is
E. All of the above _____________that of an ordinary
The forced oil and air circulation method is usual transistor?
one for transformers of A. equal to
capacities____________? B. less than
A. upto 5 MVA C. more than
B. upto 10 MVA D. none of the above
C. upto 20 MVA Which of the following is the major consideration
D. 30 MVA upwards to evolve a good design?
Disc windings are primarily used A. Cost
in_____________-? B. Durability
A. short capacity transformers C. Compliance with performance criteria as laid
B. medium capacity transformers down in specifications
C. high capacity transformers D. All of the above
D. any of the above
Helical windings are used in________________? CHAPTER # ELECTRONIC
A. distribution transformers INSTRUMENTS
B. power transformers
An ammeter has a resistance of G ohms and range
C. shell type transformers
of I amperes. The value of resistance required in
D. none of the above
parallel to convert it into an ammeter of range nI
The cold rolled grain oriented steel has
is______________?
___________ permeability in the direction of the
A. nG
grain orientation?
B. (n-1)G
A. minimum
C. G/(n-1)
B. maximum
D. G/n
C. nil
A CRO is used to measure
D. none of the above
_________________?
Multi-layer helical windings are commonly used
A. Voltage
in the transformers as high voltage
B. Frequency
windings_______________?
C. Phase
A. upto 20 kV
D. All of above
B. upto 50 kV
A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohms and range
V volts. The value of resistance required in series

205
to convert it into voltmeter of range nV A. Is increased
is________________? B. Is decreased
A. nG C. Remains the same
B. G/n D. None of the above
C. G/(n-1) Two multimeters A and B have sensitivities of 10
D. (n-1)G kO/V and 30 kO/V respectively. Then
Which of the following is likely to have the largest ______________?
resistance ? A. Multimeter A is more sensitive
A. Voltmeter of range 10 V B. Multimeter B is more sensitive
B. Moving coil galvanometer C. Both are equally sensitive
C. Ammeter of range 1 A D. None of the above
D. A copper wire of length 1 m and diameter 3 mm What is the total resistance of a voltmeter on the
The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is 10 V range when the meter movement is rated for
______________? 50 µA of full-scale current ?
A. Low A. 10 kO
B. Infinite B. 20 kO
C. Zero C. 200 kO
D. High D. None of the above
If 2% of the main current is to be passed through A series ohmmeter circuit uses a 3 V battery and a
a galvanometer of resistance G, then resistance of 1 mA meter movement. What is the half-scale
the shunt required is ________________? resistance for this movement ?
A. G/50 A. 3 kO
B. G/49 B. kO
C. 49 G C. kO
D. 50 G D. 6 kO
The horizontal plates of a CRO are supplied with When an ammeter is inserted in the circuit, the
_____________ to observe the waveform of circuit current will _____________?
signal? A. Increase
A. Sinusoidal wave B. Decrease
B. Cosine wave C. Remain the same
C. Sawtooth wave D. None of the above
D. None of the above A VTVM is never used to measure
An ideal ammeter has ______________ resistance? ______________?
A. Low A. Voltage
B. Infinite B. Current
C. Zero C. Resistance
D. High D. None of the above
To send 10% of the main current through a For display of signal pattern
moving coil galvanometer of resistance 99 O the _____________voltage is applied to the horizontal
shunt required is______________? plates of a CRO?
A. 11 O A. Sinusoidal
B. 9 O B. Rectangular
C. 100 O C. Sawtooth
D. 9 O D. None of the above
If the negative potential on the control grid of A galvanometer of resistance G is shunted by a
CRT is increased, the intensity of spot very small resistance S. The resistance of the
_____________? resulting ammeter is ______________?

206
A. GS/(G+S) A. Zero
B. G+S B. Very high
C. G-S C. Very low
D. None of the above D. None of the above
The sensitivity of a voltmeter which uses a 100 µA An ammeter should have_____________
meter movement is ____________? resistance?
A. 1 kO/V A. Infinite
B. 10 kO/V B. Very large
C. 5 kO/V C. Very low
D. Data insufficient D. None of the above
The materil used to coat inside the face of CRT is An ammeter is connected in __________ with the
______________? circuit element whose current we wish to
A. Carbon measure?
B. Sulphur A. Series
C. Silicon B. Parallel
D. Phosphorous C. Series or parallel
The most accurate device for measuring voltage is D. None of the above
____________? The sensitivity of a multimeter is given in
A. Voltmeter _______________?
B. Multimeter A. O
C. CRO B. Amperes
D. VTVM C. kO/V
A VTVM has_____________input resistance than D. none of the above
that of a multi meter? If a multimeter has a sensitivity of 1000 O per volt
A. More and reads 50 V full scale, its internal resistance is
B. Less _____________?
C. Same A. 20 kO
D. None of the above B. 50 kO
If the full-scale deflection current of a multimeter C. 10 kO
is 50 µA, its sensitivity is ________________? D. None of the above
A. 10 kO/V The input resistance of a VTVM is about
B. 100 kO/V ______________?
C. 50 kO/V A. 1000 O
D. 20 kO/V B. 10 kO
A voltmeter is connected in a _____________ with C. 20 kO
the circuit component across which potential D. 10 MO
difference is to be measured?
A. Parallel
B. Series
C. Series or parallel
D. None of the above
A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is
called_______________?
A. An ammeter
B. A voltmeter
C. A wattmeter
D. None of the above
A voltmeter should have ____________resistance?

207
 CHAPTER # FIELD EFFECT The source terminal of a JEFT corresponds to
TRANSISTORS FET _____________ of a vacuum tube?
A. plate
A common base configuration of a pnp transistor
B. cathode
is analogous to _____________?of a JFET
C. grid
A. common source configuration
D. none of the above
B. common drain configuration
The channel of a JFET is between the
C. common gate configuration
________________?
D. none of the above
A. gate and drain
In a JFET, IDSS is known as
B. drain and source
________________?
C. gate and source
A. drain to source current
D. input and output
B. drain to source current with gate shorted
The output characteristics of a JFET closely
C. drain to source current with gate open
resemble the output characteristics of a
D. none of the above
___________ valve?
In a certain CS JFET amplifier, RD= 1kO , RS=
A. pentode
560 O , VDD=10V and gm= 4500 µS. If the source
B. tetrode
resistor is completely bypassed, the voltage gain is
C. triode
________________?
D. diode
A. 450
In a FET, there are _____________pn junctions at
B. 45
the sides?
C. 2.52
A. three
D. 4.5
B. four
A certain p-channel E-MOSFET has VGS(th) = -
C. five
2V. If VGS= 0V, the drain current is
D. two
____________?
For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes
A. 0 mA
constant when VDS exceeds ________________?
B. ID(on)
A. cut off
C. maximum
B. VDD
D. IDSS
C. VP
A certain D-MOSFET is biased at VGS = 0 V. Its
D. V
data sheet specifies IDSS = 20mA and VGS(off) =
A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because
-5 V. The value of the drain current is
_________________?
_____________?
A. of power rating
A. 20 mA
B. the MOSFET has two gates
B. 0 mA
C. the JFET has a pn junction
C. 40 mA
D. none of the above
D. 10 mA
n a common-source JFET amplifier, the output
At cut-off, the JFET channel is _____________?
voltage is _____________?
A. at its widest point
A. 180o out of phase with the input
B. completely closed by the depletion region
B. in phase with the input
C. extremely narrow
C. 90o out of phase with the input
D. reverse baised
D. taken at the source
A certain JFET data sheet gives VGS(off) = -4 V.
A CS JFET amplifier has a load resistance of 10
The pinch-off voltage Vp is _____________?
kO , RD= 820O . If gm= 5mS and Vin= 500 mV,
A. +4 V
the output signal voltage is__________________?
B. -4 V
A. 2.05 V
C. dependent on VGS
B. 25 V
D. data insufficient

208
C. 0.5 V The input impedance of a MOSFET is of the order
D. 1.89 V of______________?
In a certain common-source D-MOSFET A. O
amplifier, Vds =3.2 V r.m. and Vgs = 280 mV B. a few hundred O
r.m.s. The voltage gain is_______________? C. kO
A. 1 D. several MO
B. 11.4 A MOSFET is sometimes called______________
C. 8.75 JFET?
D. 3.2 A. many gate
A certain common-source JFET has a voltage gain B. open gate
of 10. If the source bypass capacitor is removed, C. insulated gate
______________? D. shorted gate
A. the voltage gain will increase A MOSFET uses the electric field of a
B. the transconductance will increase _______________to control the channel current?
C. the voltage gain will decrease A. capacitor
D. the Q-point will shift B. battery
If load resistance in the above question (Q.49) is C. generator
removed, the output voltage will_____________? D. none of the above
A. increase If the gate of a JFET is made less negative, the
B. decrease width of the conducting
C. stay the same channel__________________?
D. be zero A. remains the same
A n-channel D-MOSFET with a positive VGS is B. is decreased
operating in _______________? C. is increased
A. the depletion-mode D. none of the above
B. the enhancement-mode The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current
C. cut off becomes zero is called ______________ voltage?
D. saturation A. saturation
The constant-current region of a JFET lies B. pinch-off
between______________? C. active
A. cut off and saturation D. cut-off
B. cut off and pinch-off The pinch-off voltage of a JFET is about
a. and IDSS _______________?
C. pinch-off and breakdown A. 5 V
If the cross-sectional area of the channel in n- B. 0.6 V
channel JEFT increases, the drain current C. 15 V
_____________? D. 25 V
A. is increased In class A operation, the input circuit of a JFET is
B. is decreased ____________ biased?
C. remains the same A. forward
D. none of the above B. reverse
The transconductance of a JFET ranges from C. not
________________? D. none of the above
A. 100 to 500 mA/V The pinch-off voltage in a JFET is analogous to
B. 500 to 1000 mA/V _____________ voltage in a vacuum tube?
C. 0.5 to 30 mA/V A. anode
D. above 1000 mA/V B. cathode

209
C. grid cut off C. both current and voltage
D. none of the above D. none of the above
_____________ has the lowest noise-level? A MOSFET has______________ terminals?
A. triode A. two
B. ordinary trnsistor B. five
C. tetrode C. four
D. JFET D. three
Which of the following devices has the highest The input control parameter of a JFET is
input impedance ? __________________?
A. JFET A. gate voltage
B. MOSFET B. source voltage
C. Crystal diode C. drain voltage
D. ordinary transistor D. gate current
The two important advantages of a JFET are A MOSFET can be operated
_________________? with________________?
A. high input impedance and square-law A. negative gate voltage only
property B. positive gate voltage only
B. inexpensive and high output impedance C. positive as well as negative gate voltage
C. low input impedance and high output impedance D. none of the above
D. none of the above In a p-channel JFET, the charge carriers are
In a JFET, when drain voltage is equal to pinch- _____________?
off voltage, the depletion layers ______________? A. electrons
A. almost touch each other B. holes
B. have large gap C. both electrons and holes
C. have moderate gap D. none of the above
D. none of the above A JFET is similar in operation to ___________
A JFET has high input impedance because valve?
_________________? A. diode
A. it is made of semiconductor material B. pentode
B. input is reverse biased C. triode
C. of impurity atoms D. tetrode
D. none of the above The gate of a JFET is ___________ biased?
A JFET has ____________ power gain? A. reverse
A. small B. forward
B. very high C. reverse as well as forward
C. very small D. none of the above
D. none of the above A JFET has three terminals,
If the reverse bias on the gate of a JFET is namely________________?
increased, then width of the conducting channel A. cathode, anode, grid
______________? B. emitter, base, collector
A. is decreased C. source, gate, drain
B. is increased D. none of the above
C. remains the same When drain voltage equals the pinch-off-voltage,
D. none of the above then drain current ___________ with the increase
A JFET is a__________ driven device? in drain voltage?
A. current A. decreases
B. voltage B. increases

210
C. remains constant A. Two
D. none of the above B. Four
A JFET is also called____________ C. Three
transistor? D. None of the above
A. unipolar A transistor behaves as a linear device for
B. bipolar _____________?
C. unijunction A. Small signals only
D. none of the above B. Large signals only
C. Both small and large signals
D. None of the above
CHAPTER # HYBRID PARAMETERS
The h parameter approach gives correct results
The parameter hie stands for input impedance in
for_______________?
_____________?
A. Large signals only
A. CB arrangement with output shorted
B. Small signals only
B. CC arrangement with output shorted
C. Both small and large signals
C. CE arrangement with output shorted
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
Hybrid means_____________?
The values of h parameter of a transistor in CE
A. Mixed
arrangement are ____________ arrangement?
B. Single
A. The same as for CB
C. Unique
B. The same as for CC
D. None of the above
C. Different from that in CB
In order to determine hfe and hie parameters of a
D. None of the above
transistor, __________ is an a.c. short-circuited?
The hfe parameter is called ______________in CE
B. Input
arrangement with output shorted?
C. Output
A. Voltage gain
D. Input as well as output
B. Current gain
E. None of the above
C. Input impedance
In CE arrangement, the value of input impedance
D. None of the above
is approximately equal to ______________?
If temperature changes, h parameters of a
A. Hie
transistor ________________?
B. Hoe
B. May or may not change
C. Hre
C. Do not change
D. None of the above
D. Also change
E. None of the above
If the operating point changes, the h parameters
of transistor_____________?
A. Also change
B. Do not change
C. May or may not change
D. None of the above
The dimensions of hie parameter are
_______________?
A. Mho
B. Ohm
C. Farad
D. None of the above
There are ______________ h parameters of a
transistor?

211
CHAPTER # INDUSTRIAL DRIVES A. Totally enclosed
Belted slip ring induction motor is almost B. Totally enclosed fan cooled
invariably used for_________________? C. Open type
A. water pumps D. Semi closed
B. jaw crushers The diameter of the rotor shaft for an electric
C. centrifugal blowers motor depends on which of the following ?
D. none of the above A. r.p.m. only
The travelling speed of cranes varies B. Horse power only
from_________________? C. Horse power and r.p.m.
A. 20 to 30 m/s D. Horse power, r.p.m. and power factor
B. 10 to 15 m/s In series motor which of the following methods
C. 5 to 10 m/s can be used for changing the flux per pole ?
D. 1 to 2.5 m/s A. Tapped field control
The cost of an induction motor will increase B. Diverter field control
as________________? C. Series-parallel control
A. horsepower rating increases but r.p.m. D. Any of the above
decreases For which of the following applications motor has
B. horsepower rating decreases but r.p.m. increases to start with high acceleration ?
C. horsepower rating and operating speed increases A. Oil expeller
D. horsepower rating and operating speed decreases B. Floor mill
While selecting motor for an air conditioner which C. Lifts and hoists
of the following characteristics is of great D. Centrifugal pump
importance ? Which of the following happens when star-delta
A. Type of bearings starter is used ?
B. Type of enclosure A. Starting voltage is reduced
C. Noise B. Starting current is reduced
D. Arrangement for power transmis¬sion C. Both A. and B.
E. None of the above D. None of the above
Which of the following alternatives will be Which of the following motors is preferred when
cheaper ? smooth and precise speed control over a wide
A. A 100 H.P. AC. three phase motor range is desired ?
B. Four motors of 25 H.P. each A. D.C. motor
C. Five motors of 20 H.P. each B. Squirrel cage induction motor
D. Ten motors of 10 H.P. each C. Wound rotor induction motor
Which of the following motors has series D. Synchronous motor
characteristics ? Which of the following motors is preferred for
A. Shaded pole motor boom hoist of a travelling crane ?
B. Repulsion motor A. Single phase motor
C. Capacitor start motor B. Synchronous motor
D. None of the above C. A.C. slip ring motor
For a D.C. shunt motor which of the following is D. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor
incorrect ? The capacity of a crane is expressed in terms
A. Unsuitable for heavy duty starting of_______________?
B. Torque varies as armature current A. type of drive
C. Torque-armature current is a straight line B. span
D. Torque is zero for zero armature current C. tonnes
Which of the following types of motor enclosure is D. any of the above
safest ?

212
Which of the following motors is preferred when B. steel plants
quick speed reversal is the main consideration ? C. heavy engineering workshops
A. Squirrel cage induction motor D. all of the above
B. Wound rotor induction motor In ______________ the speed can be varied by
E. Synchronous motor changing the position of brushes?
D. D.C. motor A. slip ring motor
A pony motor is used for the starting which of the B. schrage motor
following motors ? C. induction motor
A. Squirel cage induction motor D. repulsion motor
B. Schrage motor For a motor-generator set which of the following
C. Synchronous motor motors will be preferred ?
D. None of the above A. Synchronous motor
Besides a constant speed a synchronous rotor B. Slip ring induction motor
possesses which of the following advantages ? C. Pole changing induction motor
A. Lower cost D. Squirrel cage induction motor
B. Better efficiency In ________________ method of staging three
C. High power factor phase induction motors the starting voltage is not
D. All of the above reduced?
For crane travel which of the following motors is A. auto-transformer
normally used ? B. star-delta
A. Synchronous motor C. slip ring
B. D.C. differentially compound motor D. any of the above
C. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor Battery operated scooter for braking
D. AC. slip ring motor uses________________?
The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and A. plugging
lowering are which of the following ? B. mechanical braking
A. Precise control C. regenerative braking
B. Smooth movement D. rheostatic braking
C. Fast speed control In which of the following applications variable
D. All of the above speed operation is preferred ?
A wound rotor induction motor is preferred, as A. Exhaust fan
compared to squirrel cage induction motor, when B. Ceiling fan
major consideration is____________________? C. Refrigerator
A. slop speed operation D. Water pump
B. high starting torque _______________has the least value of starting
C. low windage losses torque to full load torque ratio?
D. all of the above A. D.C. shunt motor
By the use of which of the following m D.C. can be B. D.C. series motor
obtained from AC. ? C. Squirrel cage induction motor
A. Silicon diodes D. Slip ring induction motor
B. Mercury arc rectifier Battery operated scooter for braking
C. Motor generator set uses__________________?
D. Any of the above A. plugging
Heavy duty cranes are used B. mechanical braking
in________________? C. regenerative braking
A. ore handling plants D. rheostatic braking
Which of the following machines has heavy
fluctuation of load ?

213
A. Printing machine In jaw crushers a motor has to often start against
B. Punching machine ____________________ load?
C. Planer A. heavy
D. Lathe B. medium
In which of the following applications the load on C. normal
motor changes in cyclic order ? D. low
A. Electric shovels Which of the following motors is usually preferred
B. Cranes for kiln drives ?
C. Rolling mills A. Cascade controlled A.C. motor
D. All of the above B. Slip ring induction motor
For derries and winches which of the following C. Three phase shunt wound com-mutator motor
drives can be used ? D. Any of the above
A. Pole changing squirrel cage motors __________________ has relatively wider range of
B. D.C. motors with Ward-leonard con-trol speed control?
C. A.C. slip ring motors with variable resistance A. Synchronous motor
D. Any of the above B. Ship ring induction motor
In case of _______________ speed control by C. Squirrel cage induction motor
injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit is possible? D. D.C. shunt motor
A. d.c. shunt motor Rotor of a motor is usually supported on
B. schrage motor ___________________ bearings?
C. synchronous motor A. ball or roller
D. slip ring induction motor B. needle
___________________has least range of speed C. bush
control? D. thrust
A. Slip ring induction motor The size of an excavator is usually expressed in
B. Synchronous motor terms of_________________?
C. D.C. shunt motor A. ‘crowd’ motion
D. Schrage motor B. angle of swing
Flame proof motors are used C. cubic metres
in_________________? D. travel in metres
A. paper mills _________________method of starting a three
B. steel mills phase induction motor needs six terminals ?
C. moist atmospheres A. Star-delta
D. explosive atmospheres B. Resistance starting
In squirrel cage induction motors which of the C. Auto-transformer
following methods of starting cannot be used D. None of the above
? Which of the following is essentially needed while
A. Resistance in rotor circuit selecting a motor ?
B. Resistance in stator circuit A. Pulley
C. Auto-transformer starting B. Starter
D. Star-delta starting C. Foundation pedal
Heat control switches are used D. Bearings
in__________________? In a paper mill where constant speed is
A. transformers required________________?
B. cooling ranges A. synchronous motors are preferred
C. three phase induction motors B. A.C. motors are preferred
D. single phase C. individual drive is preferred
D. group drive is preferred

214
For blowers which of the following motor is Which of the following motors are best for the
preferred ? rolling mills ?
A. D.C. series motor A. Single phase motors
B. D.C. shunt motor B. Squirrel cage induction motors
C. Squirrel cage induction motor C. Slip ring induction motors
D. Wound rotor induction motor D. D.C. motors
Reluctance motor is a________________? For which of the following applications D.C.
A. variable torque motor motors are still preferred ?
B. low torque variable speed motor A. High efficiency operation
C. self starting type synchronous motor B. Reversibility
D. low noise, slow speed motor C. Variable speed drive
A reluctance motor_________________? D. High starting torque
A. is provided with slip rings ___________________is not a part of ball bearing
B. requires starting gear ?
C. has high cost A. Inner race
D. is compact B. Outer race
___________________is preferred for synthetic C. Cage
fibre mills? D. Bush
A. Synchronous motor The starting torque in case of centrifugal pumps is
B. Reluctance motor generally_________________?
C. Series motor A. less than running torque
D. Shunt motor B. same as running torque
Which of the following motors is used for C. slightly more than running torque
elevators ? D. double the running torque
A. Induction motor Which part of a motor needs maximum attention
B. Synchronous motor for maintenance ?
C. Capacitor start single phase motor A. Frame
D. Any of the above B. Rearing
________________ motor is a constant speed C. Stator winding
motor? D. Rotor winding
A. Synchronous motor Which feature, while selecting a.motor for
B. Schrage motor centrifugal pump, will be of least significance ?
C. Induction motor A. Starting characteristics
D. Universal motor B. Operating speed
The starting torque of a D.C. motor is C. Horse power
independent of which of the following? D. Speed control
A. Flux Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. drives are
B. Armature current generally used for _____________________
C. Flux and armature current excavators?
D. Speed A. Light duty
need frequent starting and stopping of electric B. Medium duty
motors ? C. Heavy duty
A. Paper mills D. All of the above
B. Grinding mills For a particular application the type of electric-
C. Air-conditioners and control gear are determined by which of the
D. Lifts and hoists following considerations ?

215
A. Starting torque When the load is above _______________ a
B. Conditions of environment synchronous motor is found to be more
C. Limitation on starting current economical?
D. Speed control range and its nature A. 2 kW
E. All of the above B. 20 kW
The load cycle for a motor driving a power press C. 50 kW
will be________________? D. 100 kW
A. variable load Light duty cranes are used in which of the
B. continuous following ?
C. continuous but periodical A. Power houses
D. intermittent and variable load B. Pumping stations
Which of the following motors always starts on C. Automobile workshops
load ? D. All of the above
A. Conveyor motor Which of the following motors are pre-ferred for
B. Floor mill motor overhead travelling cranes ?
C. Fan motor A. Slow speed motors
D. All of the above B. Continuous duty motors
While selecting an electric motor for a floor mill, C. Short time rated motors
which electrical characteristics will be of least D. None of the above
significance ?
A. Running characteristics CHAPTER # INTEGRATED CIRCUIT
B. Starting characteristics ICs are generally made of ________________?
C. Efficiency A. Silicon
D. Braking B. Germanium
The selection of an electric motor for any C. Copper
application depends on which of the following D. None of the above
factors ? _________________cannot be fabricated on an
A. Electrical characteristics IC?
B. Mechanical characteristics A. Transistors
C. Size and rating of motors B. Diodes
D. Cost C. Resistors
E. All of the above D. Large inductors and transformers
The SiO2 layer in an IC acts as
Which of the following motors is preferred for
________________?
traction work ?
A. A resistor
A. Universal motor
B. An insulating layer
B. D.C. series motor
C. Mechanical output
C. Synchronous motor
D. None of the above
D. Three-phase induction motor
The active components in an IC are
________________is preferred for automatic _______________?
drives? A. Resistors
A. Squirrel cage induction motor B. Capacitors
B. Synchronous motors C. Transistors and diodes
C. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. motors D. None of the above
D. Any of the above The most popular form of IC package is
_____________?

216
A. DIL A transistor takes_____________ inductor on a
B. Flatpack silicon IC chip?
C. TO-5 A. Less space than
D. None of the above B. More space than
An IC has _______________size? C. Same space as
A. Very large D. None of the above
B. Large Which of the following is most difficult to
C. Extremely small fabricate in an IC ?
D. None of the above A. Diode
___________ ICs are the most commonly used? B. Transistor
A. Thin films C. FET
B. Monolithic D. Capacitor
C. Hybrid CHAPTER # MEASUREMENT &
D. None of the above INSTRUMENT
We use _____________ ICs in computers? The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to
A. Digital full scale deviation of the instrument is
B. Linear called_______________?
C. Both digital and linear A. static sensitivity
D. None of the above B. dynamic deviation
An audio amplifier is an example of C. linearity
_________________? D. precision or accuracy
A. Digital IC A multirangq instrument
B. Linear IC has________________?
C. Both digital and linear IC A. multiple shunt or series resistances inside
D. None of the above the meter
The most popular types of ICs are B. multicoii arrangement
_________________? C. variable turns of coil
A. Thin-film D. multi range meters inside the measurement system
B. Hybrid E. any of the above
C. Thick-film The principle on which vector voltmeter is based
D. Monolithic is_____________?
Digital ICs process______________? A. that it works on the principle of complex
A. Linear signals only variation
B. Digital signals only B. that it measures the response of linear ramp
C. Both digital and linear signals voltage
D. None of the above C. same as digital meter
ICs are used in ______________? D. that it measures the amplitude of a single at
A. Linear devices only two points and at the same time measures their
B. Digital devices only phase difference
C. Both linear and digital devices In an energy meter braking torque is produced
D. None of the above to________________?
Operational amplifiers use A. safe guard it against creep
________________? B. brake the instrument
A. Linear ICs C. bring energy meter to stand still
B. Digital ICs D. maintain steady speed and equal to driving
C. Both linear and digital ICs torque
D. None of the above The power of a n-phase circuit can be measured
by using a minimum of_______________?

217
A. (n – 1) wattmeter elements A. deflecting and control
B. n wattmeter elements B. deflecting and damping
C. (n + 1) wattmeter elements C. deflecting, control and damping
D. 2n wattmeter elements D. vibration and balancing
Which of the following is measured by using a The gravity controlled instrument has crowded
vector voltmeter ? scale because current is proportional
A. Amplifier gain and phase shift to________________?
B. Filler transfer functions A. balancing weight
C. Complex insersion loss B. deflection angle
D. All of the above C. sine of deflection angle
Various adjustments in an energy meter If an instrument has cramped scale for larger
include_______________? values, then it follows________________?
A. light load or friction A. square law
B. lag and creep B. logarithmic law
C. overload and voltage compensation C. uniform law
D. temperature compensation D. none of the above
E. all of the above A sensitive galvanometer produces large
An instrument transformer is used to extend the deflection for a_______________?
range of______________? A. small value of current
A. induction instrument B. large value of current
B. electrostatic instrument C. large value of power
C. moving coil instrument D. large value of voltage
D. any of the above E. none of the above
The rectifier instrument is not free Volt box is a component to_____________?
from_______________? A. extend voltage range
A. temperature error B. measure voltage
B. wave shape error C. compare voltage in a box
C. frequency error D. none of the above
D. all of the above Commonly used standard capacitor
Most sensitive galvanometer is_____________? is______________?
A. elastic galvanometer A. spherical type
B. vibration galvanometer B. concentric cylindrical type
C. Duddlb galvanometer C. electrostatic type
D. spot ballistic galvanometer D. multilayer parallel plate type
Systematic errors are_________________? Commonly used instruments in power system
A. instrumental errors measurement are_______________?
B. environmental errors A. induction
C. observational errors B. moving coil or iron
D. all of the above C. rectifier
E.m.f. of a Weston cell is accurately measured D. electrostatic
by________________? In Weston synchronoscope the moving coil is
A. electrostatic voltmeter connected across______________?
B. hot wire voltmeter A. bus-bars
C. isothermal voltmeter B. incoming alternator
D. electrodynamic voltmeter C. fixed coils
Operating torques in analogue instruments D. any of the above
are_______________? For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the
suitable bridge is_______________?

218
A. Wein bridge Standard resistor is made
B. Modified De Santy’s bridge from_________________?
C. Schering bridge A. platinum
D. Any of the above B. maganin
E. None of the above C. silver
In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance D. nichrome
is measured in terms of_______________? The desirable static characteristics of a measuring
A. known inductance and resistance system are______________?
B. known capacitance and resistance A. accuracy and reproducibility
C. known resistance B. accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility
D. known inductance C. drift and dead zone
Two holes in the disc of energy meter are drilled D. static error
at the opposite sides of the spindle A Weston frequency meter
to_____________? is_____________?
A. improve its ventilation A. moving coil instrument
B. eliminate creeping at no load B. moving iron instrument
C. increase its deflecting torque C. dynamometer instrument
D. increase its braking torque D. none of the above
To measure radio frequency, the suitable In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural
frequency meter is_______________? frequencies of two adjacent reeds have a
A. Weston frequency meter difference of___________?
B. reed vibrator frequency meter A. 0.1 Hz
C. heterodoxy frequency meter B. 0.25 Hz
D. electrical resonance frequency meter C. 0.5 Hz
Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle D. 1.5 Hz
of_________________? In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector
A. electrostatic instrument above earth potential is______________?
B. thermocouple instrument A. a few volts only
C. moving iron instrument B. 1 kV
D. electrodynamic instrument C. 5 kV
Alternating current is measured D. 10 kV
by_______________? If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge
A. induction ammeter and resistances in the remaining three
B. permanent magnet type ammeter arms____________?
C. electrostatic ammeter A. the bridge can always be balanced
D. moving iron repulsion type voltmeter B. the bridge cannot be balanced
Instrument transformers are_______________? C. the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have
A. potential transformers some specific values
B. current transformers If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by
C. both A. and B. 80°, the loss angle of the capacitor
D. power transformers is_________________?
Damping of the Ballistic galvanometer is made A. 10°
small to_______________? B. 80°
A. get first deflection large C. 120°
B. make the system oscillatory D. 170°
C. make the system critically damped The two pressure coils of a single phase power
D. get minimum overshoot factor meter have_________________?

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A. the same dimensions and the same A. exactly 0°
number of turns B. approximately 0°
B. the same dimension but different number of turns C. exactly 90°
C. the same number of turns but different dimensions D. approximately 90°
D. none of the above A power factor meter
In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural has________________?
frequencies of two adjacent reeds have a A. one current circuit and two pressure
difference of_________________? circuits
A. 0.1 Hz B. one current circuit and one pressure circuit
B. 0.25 Hz C. two current circuits and one pres¬sure circuit
C. 0.5 Hz D. none of the above
D. 1.5 Hz To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C.
The power factor of a single phase load can be bridges we can use_______________?
calculated if the instruments available
are_____________?
A. one voltmeter and one ammeter A. magnetic screening
B. one voltmeter, one ammeter and one B. Wagner earthing device
wattmeter C. wave filters
C. one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter D. any of the above
For measurement of mutual inductance we can
D. any of the above
use________________?
A Weston synchronoscope is
A. Anderson bridge
a________________?
B. Maxwell’s bridge
A. moving coil instrument
C. Heaviside bridge
B. moving iron instrument
D. Any of the above
C. dynamometer instrument
In an AC. co-ordinate potentiometer, the currents
D. none of the above
in the phase and quadrature potentiometer are
In a Weston synchronoscope, the fixed coils are
adjusted to be_____________?
connected across_______________?
A. out of phase by 90°
A. bus-bars
B. out of phase by 60°
B. incoming alternator
C. out of phase by 30°
C. a lamp
D. out of phase by 0°
D. none of the above
E. out of phase by 180°
In a dynamometer 3-phase power factor meter,
Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors
the planes of the two moving coils are
due to________________?
at_____________?
A. electrostatic coupling
A. 0°
B. electromagnetic coupling
B. 60°
C. both A. and B.
C. 90°
D. none of the above
D. 120°
For measurement of inductance having high
In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of
value, we should use______________?
the two fixed coils are__________________?
A. Maxwell’s bridge
A. parallel
B. Maxwell Wein bridge
B. perpendicular
C. Hay’s bridge
C. inclined at 60°
D. Any of the above
D. inclined at 120°
A universal RLC bridge uses_________________?
In a single phase power factor meter the phase
A. Maxwell bridge configuration for
difference between the currents in the two
measurement of inductance and De Santas
pressure coils is___________________?
bridge for measurement of capacitance

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B. Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of C. a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a known
inductance and modified De Santy’s bridge for resistance
measurement of capacitance D. none of the above
C. Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of In a meggar controlling torque is provided
inductance and Wein bridge for measurement of by______________?
capacitance A. spring
D. Any of the above B. gravity
In a 3-phase power measurement by two C. coil
wattmeter method the reading of one of the D. eddy current
wattmeter was zero. The power factor of the load In a low power factor wattmeter the pressure coil
must be_______________? is connected_______________?
A. unity A. to the supply side of the current coil
B. 0.5 B. to the load side of the current coil
C. 0.3 C. in any of the two meters at connection
D. zero D. none of the above
To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. The scale of a rectifier instrument
potentiometer, it is desirable that the supply for is_________________?
the potentiometer in taken_______________? A. linear
A. from a source which is not the same as the B. non-linear
unknown voltage C. either A. or B.
B. from a battery D. neither A. nor B.
C. from the same source as the unknown voltage The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a
D. any of the above dynamometer wattmeter should
A phase shifting transformer is used in be_____________?
conjunction with_______________? A. almost zero
A. D.C. potentiometer B. low
B. Drysdale potentiometer C. high
C. A.C. co-ordinate potentiometer D. none of the above
D. Crompton potentiometer In a low power factor wattmeter the compensating
The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in coil is connected_______________?
conjunction with an A.C. potentiometer usually A. in series with current coil
has a _________________? B. in parallel with current coil
A. single-phase winding C. in series with pressure coil
B. two-phase winding D. in parallel with pressure coil
C. three-phase winding An induction wattmeter can be used
D. any of the above for_________________?
Basically a potentiometer is a device A. both D.C. and A.C.
for________________? B. D.C. only
A. comparing two voltages C. A.C. only
B. measuring a current D. any of the above
C. comparing two currents A dynamometer wattmeter can be used
D. measuring a voltage for______________?
E. none of the above A. both D.C. and A.C.
A voltage of about 200 V can be B. D.C. only
measured__________________? C. A.C. only
A. directly by a D.C. potentiometer D. any of the above
B. a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter
a volt ratio box are in________________?

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A. series C. neither too small not too large
B. parallel D. very thick
C. series-parallel A direct current can be measured
D. none of the above by________________?
For measuring current at high frequency we A. a D.C. potentiometer directly
should use_______________? B. a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with
A. moving iron instrument a standard resistance
B. electrostatic instrument C. a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt
C. thermocouple instrument ratio box
D. none of the above D. none of the above
The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be Which of the following devices should be used for
connected on the supply side of the current coil accurate measurement of low D.C. voltage ?
when______________? A. Small range moving coil voltmeter
A. load impedance is high B. D.C. potentiometer
B. load impedance is low C. Small range thermocouple voltmeter
C. supply voltage is low D. None of the above
D. none of the above To measure a resistance with the help of a
The adjustment of position of shading bands, in an potentiometer it is_________________?
energy meter is done to A. necessary to standardise the potentiometer
provide______________? B. not necessary to standardise the
A. friction compensation potentiometer
B. creep compensation C. necessary to use a volt ratio box in conjunction
C. braking torque with the potentiometer
D. none of the above D. none of the above
For measuring a very high resistance we should The electrical power to a meggar is provided
use_______________? by________________?
A. Kelvin’s double bridge A. battery
B. Wheat stone bridge B. permanent magnet D.C. generator
C. Meggar C. AC. generator
D. None of the above D. any of the above
The operating voltage of a meggar is It is required to measure the true open circuit
about_______________? e.m.f. of a battery. The best device
A. 6 V is_____________?
B. 12 V A. D.C. voltmeter
C. 40 V B. Ammeter and a known resistance
D. 100 V C. D.C. potentiometer
When a capacitor was connected to the terminal D. None of the above
of ohmmeter, the pointer indicated a low An ohmmeter is a____________?
resistance initially and then slowly came to infinity A. moving iron instrument
position. This shows that capacitor B. moving coil instrument
is____________? C. dynamometer instrument
A. short-circuited D. none of the above
B. all right Murray loop test can be used for location
C. faulty of________________?
In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of A. ground fault on a cable
a potentiometer should be_______________? B. short circuit fault on a cable
A. as long as possible
B. as short as possible

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C. both the ground fault and the short-circuit C. eddy currents
fault D. all of the above
D. none of the above In majority of instruments damping is provided
In a 3-phase power measurement by two by______________?
wattmeter method, both the watt meters had A. fluid friction
identical readings. The power factor of the load B. spring
was___________? C. eddy currents
A. unity D. all of the above
B. 0.8 lagging The disc of an instrument using eddy current
C. 0.8 leading damping should be of________________?
D. zero A. conducting and magnetic material
Which of the following is an essential part of a B. non-conducting and magnetic material
motor meter ? C. conducting and non-magnetic material
A. An operating torque system D. none of the above
B. A braking device The function of shunt in an ammeter is
C. Revolution registering device to______________?
D. All of the above A. by pass the current
The household energy meter is_______________? B. increase the sensitivity of the ammeter
A. an indicating instrument C. increase the resistance of ammeter
B. a recording instrument D. none of the above
C. an integrating instrument A potentiometer may be used
D. none of the above for_________________?
An ammeter is a______________? A. measurement of resistance
A. secondary instrument B. measurement of current
B. absolute instrument C. calibration of ammeter
C. recording instrument D. calibration of voltmeter
D. integrating instrument E. all of the above
The switch board instruments________________? The chemical effect of current is used in
A. should be mounted in vertical position ______________?
B. should be mounted in horizontal position A. D.C. ammeter hour meter
C. either A. or B. B. D.C. ammeter
D. neither A. nor B. C. D.C. energy meter
The pointer of an indicating instrument should D. none of the above
be______________? For handling greater currents induction
A. very light wattmeters are used in conjunction
B. very heavy with______________?
C. either A. or B. A. potential transformers
D. neither A. nor B. B. current transformers
Which of the following meters are not used on C. power transformers
D.C. circuits______________? D. either of the above
A. Mercury motor meters E. none of the above
B. Commutator motor meters is an instrument which measures the insulation
C. Induction meters resistance of an electric circuit relative to earth
D. None of the above and one another_______________?
In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is A. Tangent galvanometer
provided by_____________? B. Meggar
A. spring C. Current transformer
B. gravity D. None of the above

223
Induction type single phase energy meters C. recording
measure electric energy in_______________? D. integrating
A. kW E. none of the above
B. Wh Which of the following are integrating
C. kWh instruments ?
D. VAR A. Ammeters
E. None of the above B. Voltmeters
A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can C. Wattmeters
be used as flux-meter_____________? D. Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters
A. by using a low resistance shunt The spring material used in a spring control
B. by using a high series resistance device should have the following property?
C. by eliminating the control springs A. Should be non-magnetic
D. by making control springs of large moment of B. Most be of low temperature co-efficient
inertia C. Should have low specific resistance
Most common form of A.C. meters met with in D. Should not be subjected to fatigue
every day domestic and industrial installations E. All of the above
are______________? A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can
A. mercury motor meters be used as ____________by using a low resistance
B. commutator motor meters shunt?
C. induction type single phase energy meters A. ammeter
D. all of the above B. voltmeter
An induction meter can handle current up C. flux-meter
to_____________? D. ballistic galvanometer
A. 10 A Which of the following essential features is
B. 30 A possessed by an indicating instrument?
C. 60 A A. Deflecting device
D. 100 A B. Controlling device
__________ instruments are those which measure C. Damping device
the total quantity of electricity delivered in a D. All of the above
particular time ? Which of the following devices may be used for
A. Absolute extending the range of instruments ?
B. Indicating A. Shunts
C. Recording B. Multipliers
D. Integrating C. Current transformers
Resistances can be measured with the help D. Potential transformers
of_______________? E. All of the above
A. wattmeters A __________ device prevents the oscillation of
B. voltmeters the moving system and enables the latter to reach
C. ammeters its final position quickly___________?
D. ohmmeters and resistance bridges A. deflecting
E. all of the above B. controlling
The use of _________ instruments is merely C. damping
confined within laboratories as standardizing D. any of the above
instruments? Which of the following instruments indicate the
A. absolute instantaneous value of the electrical quantity
B. indicating being measured at the time at which it is being
measured ?

224
A. Absolute instruments C. 68 W
B. Indicating instruments D. None of the above
C. Recording instruments The number of stages that can be directly coupled
D. Integrating instruments is limited because___________?
According to application, instruments are A. Changes in temperature cause thermal
classified as_____________? instability
A. switch board B. Circuit becomes heavy and costly
B. portable C. It becomes difficult to bias the circuit
C. both A. and B. D. None of the above
D. moving coil The bandwidth of a single stage amplifier
E. moving iron is_____________that of a multistage
F. both D. and E. amplifier?
Which of the following essential features is A. More than
possessed by an indicating instrument ? B. The same as
A. Deflecting device C. Less than
B. Controlling device D. Data insufficient
C. Damping device The output of a microphone is rated at -52 db. The
D. All of the above reference level is 1V under specified conditions.
Which of the following properties a damping oil What is the output voltage of this microphone
must possess ? under the same sound conditions?
A. Must be a good insulator A. 5 mV
B. Should be non-evaporating B. 2 mV
C. Should not have corrosive action upon the metal C. 8 mV
of the vane D. 5 mV
D. The viscosity of the oil should not change with the If the power level of an amplifier reduces to half,
temperature the db gain will fall by___________?
E. All of the above A. 5 db
B. 2 db
C. 10 db
CHAPTER # MULTI-STAGE
D. 3 db
TRANSISTOR AMPLIFIERS
A gain of 1000 times in voltage is expressed In the initial stages of a multistage amplifier, we
by_______________? use______________?
A. 60 db A. RC coupling
B. 30 db B. Transformer coupling
C. 120 db C. Direct coupling
D. 600 db D. None of the above
The upper or lower cut off frequency is also A gain of 1,000,000 times in power is expressed
called______________frequency? by_____________?
A. Resonant A. 30 db
B. Sideband B. 60 db
C. 3 db C. 120 db
D. None of the above D. 600 db
The power output of an audio system is 18 W. For In transistor amplifiers, we
a person to notice an increase in the output use_____________transformer for impedance
(loudness or sound intensity) of the system, what matching?
must the output power be increased to ? A. Step up
A. 2 W B. Step down
B. 6 W

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C. Same turn ratio A. RC
None of the above B. Transformer
If a three-stage amplifier has individual stage C. Direct
gains of 10 db, 5 db and 12 db, then total gain in D. None of the above
db is____________? In practice, voltage gain is
A. 600 db expressed______________?
B. 24 db A. In db
C. 14 db B. In volts
D. 27 db C. As a number
Transformer coupling is generally employed when
D. None of the above
load resistance is______________?
The final stage of a multistage amplifier
A. Large
uses______________?
B. Very large
A. RC coupling
C. Small
B. Transformer coupling
D. None of the above
_____________coupling provides the maximum C. Direct coupling
voltage gain? D. Impedance coupling
A. RC RC coupling is not used to amplify extremely low
B. Transformer frequencies because____________?
C. Direct A. There is considerable power loss
D. Impedance B. There is hum in the output
In RC coupling, the value of coupling capacitor is C. Electrical size of coupling capacitor becomes very
about_______________? large
A. 100 pF D. None of the above
B. 0.1 µF 1 db corresponds to_____________change in
C. 0.01 µF voltage or current level?
D. 10 µF A. 40%
The best frequency response is B. 80%
of_____________coupling? C. 20%
A. RC D. 25%
B. Transformer The total gain of a multistage amplifier is less than
C. Direct the product of the gains of individual stages due
D. None of the above to____________?
In obtaining the frequency response curve of an A. Power loss in the coupling device
amplifier, the______________? B. Loading effect of the next stage
A. Amplifier level output is kept constant C. The use of many transistors
B. Amplifier frequency is held constant The use of many capacitors
C. Generator frequency is held constant A current amplification of 2000 is a gain
D. Generator output level is held constant of_________________?
In an RC coupling scheme, the coupling capacitor A. 3 db
CC must be large enough______________? B. 66 db
A. To pass d.c. between the stages C. 20 db
B. Not to attenuate the low frequencies D. 200 db
C. To dissipate high power The purpose of RC or transformer coupling is
D. None of the above to_____________?
When a multistage amplifier is to amplify d.c. A. Block a.c.
signal, then one must use_____________coupling? B. Separate bias of one stage from another

226
C. Increase thermal stability A. Frequency distortion
None of the above B. Amplitude distortion
The value of emitter capacitor CE in a multistage C. Frequency as well as amplitude distortion
amplifier is about____________? None of the above
A. 1 µF Transformer coupling provides high efficiency
B. 100 pF because___________?
C. 0.01 µF A. Collector voltage is stepped up
D. 50 µF B. resistance is low
RC coupling is generally confined to low power C. collector voltage is stepped down
applications because of____________? D. none of the above
A. Large value of coupling capacitor The noise factor of an ideal amplifier expressed in
B. Low efficiency db is_____________?
C. Large number of components A. 0
D. None of the above B. 1
An amplifier receives 0.1 W of input signal and C. 1
delivers 15 W of signal power. What is the power D. 10
gain in db? Transformer coupling is used
A. 8 db for__________amplification?
B. 6 db A. Power
C. 5 db B. Voltage
D. 4 db C. Current
The gain of an amplifier is expressed in db D. None of the above
because_____________? An advantage of RC coupling scheme is
A. It is a simple unit the___________?
B. Calculations become easy A. Good impedance matching
C. Human ear response is logarithmic B. Economy
D. None of the above C. High efficiency
The frequency response of transformer coupling D. None of the above
is___________? In an RC coupled amplifier, the voltage gain over
A. Good mid-frequency range_____________?
B. Very good A. Changes abruptly with frequency
C. Excellent B. Is constant
D. Poor C. Changes uniformly with frequency
1 db corresponds to_____________change in D. None of the above
power level? RC coupling is used
A. 50% for_____________amplification?
B. 35% A. Voltage
C. 26% B. Current
D. 22% C. Power
The lower and upper cut off frequencies are also D. None of the above
called_____________frequencies? A radio receiver has____________of
A. Sideband amplification?
B. Resonant A. One stage
C. Half-resonant B. Two stages
D. Half-power C. Three stages
The ear is not sensitive to___________? D. More than one stages

227
CHAPTER # POWER GENERATION D. none of the above
Read More Details about this Mcq
Which of the following power plant has least If the diversity factor of a power station is high
efficiency_________? then its generation cost is___________?
A. Nuclear power plant A. high
B. Hydro power plant B. low
C. Steam power plant C. remain same
D. Diesel power plant D. depend on the plan type
A steam power stations basically work on The ideal load factor should
the______________? be_____________?
A. thermodynamic cycle A. unity
B. Rankin cycle B. zero
C. Vapor pressure cycle C. negative.
D. Carton cycle D. infinity.
Which of the following Power Plant causes least Which of the following generating station has
environmental pollution____________? minimum running cost?
A. Thermal Power Plant A. Nuclear
B. Hydro Power Plant B. Hydro
C. Nuclear Power Plant C. Thermal
D. Diesel Power Plant D. Diesel
Which of the following power plant usually offer In hydro power plant, the graph between
highest maintenance cost___________? discharge and time is known as___________?
A. Nuclear power plants A. monograph.
B. Hydro-electric power plants B. load graph.
C. Thermal power plants C. discharge graph.
D. Diesel engine power plant D. hydro graph
The overall efficiency of a steam power station is The voltage of a single solar cells is about
________ its thermal efficiency. A. 0.5 volt
A. less than B. 1 volt
B. equal to C. 1.8 volt
C. greater than D. 1. 5 volt
D. none of the above Which of the following device is used to measure
Which of the following is usually not the vacuum?
generating voltage__________? A. Barometer
A. 6.6 kV B. Hygrometer
B. 9.9 kV C. U-tube manometer
C. 11kV D. Venturi metre
D. 13.2kV The fuel used in nuclear reactor
A gas turbine basically work on is_____________?
A. Carnot cycle A. radium
B. Rankin cycle B. cadmium
C. Brayton cycle C. uranium
D. Dual cycle D. all of the above
Diesel power plant are generally used Which material is used to made a solar
as___________? cell_______________?
A. peak load plant A. aluminum
B. base load plant B. Germanium
C. standby plant

228
C. silicon B. sizes of generating units
D. scandium C. total installed capacity of the plant
Demand factor is defined as___________? D. all of the above
A. average load/maximum load. One kilowatt hour is equal to_________?
B. maximum demand/connected load A. 532 k cal.
C. connected load/maximum demand. B. 735 k cal.
D. average load x maximum load C. 746 k cal.
In thermal power plant, heat from the flue gases is D. 860 k cal.
utilized in___________? If the load factor of a power station is high then its
A. super heater cost of generation will be_______?
B. condenser A. High.
C. economizer B. Low.
D. chimney C. Remain same.
Which of the following power plant has highest D. Depend upon plant type.
Depreciation charges? At low value of power factor, the cost of
A. Thermal plant generation of a power station will
B. Diesel plant be____________?
C. Hydroelectric plant A. high
D. All have same B. low
Which of the following power plant has least fuel C. remain same
transportation______________? D. none of the above
A. nuclear power plants Compounding of steam turbine is done
B. diesel generating plants for_______________?
C. thermal power plants A. reducing the work done
D. steam power stations B. increasing the rotor speed
Annual operating expenditure of a power plant C. reducing the rotor speed
consists of_________? D. balancing the turbine
A. fixed charges The value of the reheat factor is of the order
B. semi-fixed charges of_____________?
C. running charges A. 0.8 to 1.0
D. all of the above B. 1.0 to 1.05
Which of the following load is responsible for C. 1.1 to 1.5
lower power factor of supply system__________? D. above 1.5
A. induction motors Reheat factor is the ratio of_____________?
B. resistive loads A. isentropic heat drop to useful heat drop
C. synchronous Motors B. adiabatic heat drop to isentropic heat drop
D. all of the above C. cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages
Load factor of a power station is defined to total is isentropic enthalpy heat drop
as____________? Deaerative heating is done to_____________?
A. maximum demand/average load Deaerative heating is done to
B. average load x maximum demand A. heat the water
C. average load/maximum demand B. heat the air in the water
D. none of the above C. remove dissolved gases in the water
Load curve is useful in deciding Blowing down of boiler water is the
the__________? process_____________?
(a) A. operating schedule of generating units A. to reduce the boiler pressure
B. to increase the steam temperature
C. to control the solid concentration in the boiler

229
water by removing some of the concentrated Load carrying capacity of belt conveyor is
saline water about___________?
D. none of the above A. 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
TravelUng grate stoker can burn coals at the rates B. 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
of____________? C. 100 to 150 tonnes/hr
A. 50—75 kg/m per hour D. 150 to 200 tonnes/hr
B. 75—100 kg/m per hour In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are
C. 100—150 kg/m per hour used to remove___________?
D. 150—200 kg/m2 per hour A. dust
Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler B. clinkers
capacity is large, the stoker which is used C. iron particles
is______________? D. sand
A. underfeed stoker Secondary air is the air used
B. overfeed stoker to______________?
C. any A. reduce the flame length
Example of overfeed type stoker is___________? B. increase the flame length
A. chain grate C. transport and dry the coal
B. spreader D. provide air round the burners for getting
C. travelling grate optimum combustion
D. all of the above Primary air is that air which is used
Under-feed stokers work best for _________ coals to_____________?
high in volatile matter and with caking tendency? A. reduce the flame length
A. anthracite B. increase the flame length
B. lignite C. transport and dry the coal
C. semibituminous and bituminous D. provide air around burners for get¬ting optimum
In _________ system fuel from a central combustion
pulverizing unit is delivered to a bunker and then Caking coals are those which__________?
to the various burners? A. burn completely
A. unit B. burn freely
B. central C. do not form ash
C. none of the above D. form lumps or masses of coke
The amount of air which is supplied for complete The capacity of large turbo-generators varies
combustion is called___________? from___________?
A. primary air A. 20 to 100 MW
B. secondary air B. 50 to 300 MW
C. tertiary air C. 70 to 400 MW
Bucket elevators are used for___________? D. 100 to 650 MW
A. carrying coal in horizontal direction Economisers improve boiler efficiency
B. carrying coal in vertical direction by__________?
C. carrying coal in any direction A. 1 to 5%
Method which is commonly applied for unloading B. 4 to 10%
the coal for small power plant C. 10 to 12%
is___________? Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is
A. lift trucks usually kept now-a-days is of the order
B. coal accelerators of____________?
C. tower cranes A. 20 kgf/cm2
D. belt conveyor B. 50 kgf/cm2

230
C. 100 kgf/cm2 B. water in pipes surrounded by steam
D. 150 kgf/cm2 C. either A. or (b)
Load center in a power station D. none of the above
is___________? In a regenerative surface
A. center of coal fields condenser_____________?
B. center of maximum load of equipments A. there is one pump to remove air and
C. center of gravity of electrical system condensate
The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and B. there are two pumps to remove air and
heat recovery equipment is condensate
about_____________? C. there are three pumps to remove air, vapour and
A. 25 to 30% condensate
B. 40 to 50% D. there is no pump, the condensate gets removed by
C. 65 to 70% gravity
D. 85 to 90% In a steam power plant, the function of a
The maximum length of a screw conveyer is condenser is__________?
about___________? A. to maintain pressure below atmospheric to
A. 30 metres increase work output from the primemover
B. 40 metres B. to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from
C. 60 metres steam prime mover
D. 100 metres C. to condense large volumes of steam to water
Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at which may be used again in boiler
inclinations upto____________? D. all of the above
A. 30° Edward’s air pump____________?
B. 60° A. removes air and also vapour from condenser
C. 80° B. removes only air from condenser
D. 90° C. removes only un-condensed vapour from
Steam turbines commonly used in steam power condenser
station are__________? D. removes air alongwith vapour and also the
A. condensing type condensed water from condenser
B. non-condensing type The cooling section in the surface
C. none of the above condenser__________?
For the safety of a steam boiler the number of A. increases the quantity of vapour extracted
safety valves fitted are____________? along with air
A. four B. reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along
B. three with air
C. two C. does not affect vapour quantity extracted but
D. one reduces pump capacity of air extraction pump
Pipes carrying steam are generally made up D. none of the above
of_____________? In a surface condenser if air is removed, there
A. steel is___________?
B. cast iron A. fall in absolute pressure maintained in
C. copper condenser
D. aluminium B. rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
Evaporative type of condenser C. no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
has___________? D. rise in temperature of condensed steam
A. steam in pipes surrounded by water In a shell and tube surface
condenser____________?

231
A. steam and cooling water mix to give the For Parson’s reaction steam turbine, degree of
condensate reaction is____________?
B. cooling water passes through the tubes and A. 75%
steam surrounds them B. 100%
C. steam passes through the cooling tubes and C. 50%
cooling water surrounds them D. 60%
D. all of the above varying with situation Parson’s turbine is___________?
In jet type condensers___________? A. pressure compounded steam turbine
A. cooling water passes through tubes and B. simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
steam surrounds them C. simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
B. steam passes through tubes and cooling water D. multi wheel reaction steam turbine
surrounds them Rateau steam turbine is______________?
C. steam and cooling water mix
D. steam and cooling water do not mix
The thermal efficiency of the engine with A. reaction steam turbine
condenser as compared to without condenser, for B. velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
a given pressure and temperature of steam, C. pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
is_____________? D. pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
Curtis turbine is_____________?
A. higher
A. reaction steam turbine
B. lower
B. pressure velocity compounded steam
C. same as long as initial pressure and temperature is
turbine
unchanged
C. pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
D. none of the above
D. velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
In steam turbines the reheat
Incase of reaction steam
factor_____________?
turbine___________?
A. increases with the increase in number of
A. there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and
stages
moving blades
B. decreases with the increase in number of stages
B. there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
C. remains same irrespective of number of stages
C. there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
D. none of the above
D. none of the above
Steam turbines are governed by the following
In De Laval steam turbine___________?
methods_____________?
A. the pressure in the turbine rotor is
A. Throttle governing
approximately same as in con¬denser
B. Nozzle control governing
B. the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than
C. By-pass governing
pressure in the con¬denser
D. all of the above
C. the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually
The value of reheat factor normally varies
decreases from inlet to exit from condenser
from___________?
D. none from the above
A. 0.5 to 0.6
The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel
B. 0.9 to 0.95
of a steam turbine_____?
C. 1.02 to 1.06
A. is same
D. 1.2 to 1.6
B. is different
Reheat factor in steam turbines depends
C. increases from one side to the other side
on______________?
D. decreases from one side to the other side
A. exit pressure only
In case of impulse steam turbine_____________?
B. stage efficiency only
A. there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving
C. initial pressures and temperature only
blades
D. all of the above
B. there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades

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C. there is enthalpy drop in nozzles C. 0.555
D. none of the above D. 0.5457
The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle
for the same pressure ratio leads to_________? for the steam initially superheated at inlet is
A. increase in dryness fraction of exit steam approximated by equation__________?
B. decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam A. pvls=C
C. no change in the quality of exit steam B. pv1126 = C
D. decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit C. pv1A = C
steam depending upon inlet quality D. pv = C
The effect of considering friction losses in steam The efficiency of chimney is
nozzle for the same pressure ratio leads approximately______________?
to________? A. 80%
A. increase in exit velocity from the nozzle B. 40%
B. decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle C. 20%
C. no change in exit velocity from the nozzle D. 0.25%
D. increase or decrease depending upon the exit The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case
quality of steam of___________?
The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle A. forced draught system
for the steam initially dry saturated at inlet is B. induced draught system
approximated by equation? C. balanced draught system
A. pv = C D. natural draught system
B. pv1A = C For the induced draught the fan is
C. pv1i = C located_______________?
D. pv A. near bottom of chimney
The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle B. near bottom of furnace
is defined as_____________? C. at the top of the chimney
A. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure D. anywhere permissible
of nozzle The artificial draught normally is designed to
B. the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of produce____________?
nozzle A. less smoke
C. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only B. more draught
when mass flow rate per unit area is minimum C. less chimney gas temperature
D. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure D. all of the above
only when mass flow rate = c Artificial draught is produced
The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of by____________?
maximum mass flow rate per area of steam A. air fans
through a nozzle when steam is initially B. steam jet
superheated is__________? C. fan or steam jet
A. 0.555 D. all of the above
B. 0.578 For the same draught produced the power of
C. 0.5457 induced draught fan as compared to forced
D. 0.6 draught fan is___________?
The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for A. less
maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam B. more
through a nozzle when steam is initially dry C. same
saturated is___________? D. not predictable
A. 0.6 The draught in locomotive boilers is produced
B. 0.578 by_____________?

233
A. forced fan A. due to the fact that furnace gases being light go
B. chimney through the chimney giving place to cold air from
C. steam jet outside to rush in
D. only motion of locomotive B. due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to
Artificial draught is produced cold column is higher than the pressure at the
by______________? chimney base due to hot column
A. induced fan C. due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure
B. forced fan is more than its environmental pressure
C. induced and forced fan D. all of the above
D. all of the above The draught which a chimney produces is
For forced draught system, the function of called_____________?
chimney is mainly_____________? A. induced draught
A. to produce draught to accelerate the B. natural draught
combustion of fuel C. forced draught
B. to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to D. balanced draught
avoid hazard The modern steam turbines are___________?
C. to reduce the temperature of the hot gases A. impulse turbines
discharged B. reaction turbines
D. none of the above C. impulse-reaction turbines
The draught produced by steel chimney as D. none of the above
compared to that produced by brick chimney for Economiser is used to heat_____________?
the same height is_____________? A. air
A. less B. feed water
B. more C. flue gases
C. same D. all above
D. may be more or less A steam power station requires
The draught produced by chimney of given height space______________?
at given outside temperature___________? A. equal to diesel power station
A. decreases if the chimney gas temperature B. more than diesel power station
increases C. less than diesel power station
B. increases if the chimney gas temperature Binary’vapour cycles are used to_____________?
increases A. increase the performance of the condenser
C. remains same irrespective of chimney gas B. increase the efficiency of the plant
temperature C. increase efficiency of the turbine
D. may increase or decrease Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour
The draught produced, for a given height of the cycle because it has____________?
chimney and given mean temperature of chimney A. higher critical temperature and pressure
gases_______________? B. higher saturation temperature than other
A. decreases with increase in outside air fluids
temperature C. relatively low vapourisation pressure
B. increases with increase in outside air temperature D. all above
C. remains the same irrespective of outside air Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used
temperature to________________?
D. may increase or decrease with increase in outside A. utilise heat of flue gases
air temperature B. increase thermal efficiency
In a boiler installation the natural draught is C. improve condenser performance
produced_____________? D. reduce loss of heat

234
In regenerative cycle feed water is heated A. change of internal energy between inlet and
by_____________? outlet
A. exhaust gases B. change of enthaply between inlet and outlet
B. heaters C. change of entropy between inlet and outlet
C. draining steam from the turbine D. change of temperature between inlet and outlet
D. all above Carnot cycle comprises of_______?
The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative A. two isentropic processes and two constant
feed heating cycle thermal volume processes
efficiency____________? B. two isentropic processes and two constant
A. increases with number of feed heaters pressure processes
increasing E. two isothermal processes and three constant
B. decreases with number of feed heaters increasing pressure processes
C. remains same unaffected by number of feed D. none of the above
heaters Rankine efficiency of a steam power
D. none of the above plant____________?
A. improves in summer as compared to that in
In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest
winter
economy is affected___________?
A. when steam is extracted from only one B. improves in winter as compared to that in
suitable point of steam turbine summer
C. is unaffected by climatic conditions
B. when steam is extracted from several places in
D. none of the above
different stages of steam turbine
C. when steam is extracted only from the last stage of Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of
steam turbine p1 an 1 high pressure limit of p2__________?
D. when steam is extracted only from the first stage A. has higher the renal efficiency than the
of steam turbine carnot cycle operating between same
In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum pressure limits
B. has lower the”nal efficiency than carnot cycle
value of the fraction of steam extracted for feed
operating between same pressure limit?
heating________________?
A. decreases with increase in Rankine cycle C. has same thermal efficiency as carnot cycle
efficiency operating between same pressure limits
D. may be more or less depending upon the
B. increases with increase in Rankine cycle
magnitude of p1 and p2
efficiency
C. is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power
efficiency plant may be in the range of____________?
D. none of the above A. 15 to 20 per cent
Regenerative cycle thermal B. 35 to 45 per cent
C. 70 to 80 per cent
efficiency_______________?
D. 90 to 95 per ceut
A. is always greater than simple Rankine
thermal efficiency The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is
B. is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal equal to____________?
efficiency only when steam is bled at particular A. Rankine cycle efficiency
pressure B. Carnot cycle efficiency
C. is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal C. Regenerative cycle efficiency
efficiency D. Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator
D. is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
efficiency The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day
In Rankine cycle the work output from the is approximately______________?
turbine is given by__________?

235
A. 700 W/m2 Due to which of the following reasons the cables
B. 800 W/m2 should not be operated too hot ?
C. 1 kW/m2 A. The oil may loose its viscosity and it may
D. 2 kW/m2 start drawing off from higher levels
Solar thermal power generation can be achieved B. Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst
by_______________? C. Unequal expansion may create voids in the
A. using focusing collector or heliostates insulation which will lead to ionization
B. using flat plate collectors D. The thermal instability may rise due to the rapid
C. using a solar pond increase of dielectric losses with temperature
D. any of the above system E. All of the above
In fuel cell, the ___________ energy is converted
into electrical energy?
A. mechanical CHAPTER # REGULATED D.C
B. chemical POWER SUPPLY
C. heat A power supply has a voltage regulation of 1%. If
D. sound the no-load voltage is 20 V, what is the full-load
The main source of production of biogas voltage ?
is__________________? A. 8 V
A. human waste B. 7 V
B. wet cow dung C. 6 V
C. wet livestock waste D. 2 V
D. all above In a regulated power supply, two similar 15 V
The proper indication of incomplete combustion zeners are connected in series. The input voltage is
is_______________? 45 V d.c. If each Zener has a maximum current
A. high CO content in flue gases at exit rating of 300 mA, what should be the value of the
B. high CO2 content in flue gases at exit series resistance ?
C. high temperature of flue gases A. 10 O
D. the smoking exhaust from chimney B. 50 O
The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air C. 25 O
is____________? D. 40 O
A. 21% When load current is zero, the Zener current will
B. 23% be_____________?
C. 77% A. Zero
D. 79% B. Minimum
The percentage O2 by Weight in atmospheric air C. Maximum
is____________? D. None of the above
A. 18% A power supply can deliver a maximum rated
B. 23% current of 0.5 A at full-load output voltage of 20
C. 77% V. What is the minimum load resistance that you
D. 79% can connect across the supply?
The commercial sources of energy A. 10 O
are____________? B. 20 O
A. solar, wind and biomass C. 15 O
B. fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear D. 40 O
energy A Zener regulator _____________ in the power
C. wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes supply?
D. none of the above A. Increases the ripple
B. Decreases the ripple

236
C. Neither increases nor decreases the ripple Which of these is the best description for a Zener
D. Data insufficient diode ?
The Zener current will be minimum A. It is a diode
when_____________? B. It is a constant current device
A. Load current is maximum C. It is a constant-voltage device
B. Load current is minimum D. It works in the forward region
C. Load current is zero If the load resistance decreases in a Zener
D. None of the above regulator, then Zener current ______________?
Two similar 15 V Zeners are connected in series. A. Decreases
What is the regulated output voltage ? B. Stays the same
A. 15 V C. Increases
B. 5 V D. None of the above
C. 30 V A Zener diode______________?
D. 45 V A. Is a battery
If the input a.c. voltage to regulated or ordinary B. Acts like a battery in the breakdown
power supply increases by 5% what will be the region
approximate change in d.c. output voltage? C. Has a barrier potential of 1 V
A. 10% D. Is forward biased
B. 20% A 30 V Zener will have depletion layer
C. 15% width_______________ that of 10 V Zener?
D. 5% A. More than
The load voltage is approximately constant when a B. Less than
Zener diode is ________________? C. Equal to
A. Forward biased D. None of the above
B. Unbiased What is true about the breakdown voltage in a
C. Reverse biased Zener diode ?
D. Operating in the breakdown region A. It decreases when load current increases
If the load current drawn by unregulated power B. It destroys the diode
supply increases, the d.c. output voltage C. It equals current times the resistance
_____________? D. It is approximately constant
A. Increases A 5 mA changes in Zener current produces a 50
B. Decreases mA change in Zener voltage. What is the Zener
C. Stays the same impedance ?
D. None of the above A. 1 O
If the load current drawn by unregulated power B. 1 O
supply increases, the d.c. output C. 100 O
voltage______________? D. 10 O
A. Increases The current in a Zener diode is limited by
B. Decreases _______________?
C. Stays the same A. External resistance
D. None of the above B. Power dissipation
In a loaded Zener regulator, which is the largest C. Both (A) and (B)
Zener current ? D. None of the above
A. Series current A certain regulator has a no-load voltage of 6 V
B. Zener current and a full-load output of 5.82 V. What is the load
C. Load current regulation ?
D. None of the above A. 09%
B. 87 %

237
C. 72 % Zener diode are generally made of
D. None of the above _____________?
A Zener diode that has very narrow depletion A. Germanium
layer will breakdown by____________ B. Silicon
mechanism? C. Carbon
A. Avalanche D. None of the above
B. Zener As the junction temperature increases, the voltage
C. Both avalanche and Zener breakdown point for avalanche
D. None of the above mechanism______________?
A Zener voltage regulator is used for A. Remains the same
____________ load currents? B. Decrease
A. High C. Increases
B. Very high D. None of the above
C. Moderate A Zener diode is used as a _____________voltage
D. Small regulating device?
A Zener voltage regulator will cease to act as a A. Shunt
voltage regulator if Zener current B. Series
becomes______________? C. Series-shunt
A. Less than load current D. None of the above
B. Zero In a 15 V Zener diode , the breakdown mechanism
C. More than load current will occur by ______________?
D. None of the above A. Avalanche mechanism
Another name for Zener diode is B. Zener mechanism
______________diode? C. Both Zener and avalanche mechanism
A. Breakdown D. None of the above
B. Voltage As the junction temperature increases, the voltage
C. Power breakdown point for Zener mechanism
D. Current _______________?
For increasing the voltage rating, zeners are A. Is increased
connected in_____________? B. Is decreased
A. Parallel C. Remains the same
B. Series-parallel D. None of the above
C. Series A Zener diode
D. None of the above utilises_____________characteristic for voltage
In a Zener voltage regulator, the changes in load regulation?
current produce changes in A. Forward
_________________? B. Reverse
A. Zener current C. Both forward and reverse
B. Zener voltage D. None of the above
C. Zener voltage as well as Zener current Commercial power supplies have voltage
D. None of the above regulation ______________?
If the doping level is increased, the breakdown A. of 10%
voltage of the Zener_______________? B. of 15%
A. Remains the same C. of 25%
B. Is increased D. within 1%
C. Is decreased In an unregulated power supply, if input a.c.
D. None of the above voltage increases, the output voltage
_______________?

238
A. Increases An SCR is made of silicon and not germanium
B. Decreases because silicon _________________?
C. Remains the same A. Is inexpensive
D. None of the above B. Is mechanically strong
In an unregulated power supply, if load current C. Has small leakage current
increases, the output voltage _____________? D. Is tetravalent
A. Remains the same In an SCR circuit the supply voltage is generally
B. Decreases ___________ that of breakover voltage?
C. Increases A. Equal to
D. None of the above B. Less than
A power supply which has voltage regulation of C. Greater than
____________ is unregulated power supply? D. None of the above
A. 0 % The normal way to turn on a SCR is
B. 5 % by______________?
C. 10 % A. Breakover voltage
D. 8% B. Appropriate anode current
An ideal regulated power supply is one which has C. Appropriate gate current
voltage regulation of________________? D. None of the above
A. 0% An SCR combines the features of
B. 5% ____________?
C. 10% A. A rectifier and resistance
D. 1% B. A rectifier and transistor
The rupture of co-valent bonds will occur when C. A rectifier and capacitor
the electric field is__________________? D. None of the above
A. 100 V/cm An SCR is turned off by _________________?
B. 6 V/cm A. Reducing anode voltage to zero
C. 1000 V/cm B. Reducing gate voltage to zero
D. More than 105 V/cm C. Reverse biasing the gate
Zener diode can be used as__________________? D. None of the above
A. c. voltage regulator only The control element of an SCR is
B. c. voltage regulator only ______________?
C. both D.C and A.C voltage regulator A. Cathode
D. none of the above B. Anode
C. Anode supply
D. Gate
CHAPTER # SCR (SILICON
In the normal operation of an SCR, anode is
CONTROLLED RECTIFIER) __________ w.r.t. cathode?
When an SCR is turned on, the voltage across it is A. At zero potential
about _____________? B. Negative
A. Zero C. Positive
B. 10 V D. None of the above
C. 1 V An SCR behaves as a____________switch?
D. 1 V A. Unidirectional
An SCR is a ____________ triggered device? B. Bidirectional
A. Voltage C. Mechanical
B. Current D. None of the above
C. Voltage as well as current In normal operation of an SCR, gate is
D. None of the above _____________w.r.t. cathode?

239
A. Positive C. Remains the same
B. Negative D. None of the above
C. At zero potential In an SCR circuit, the angle of conduction can be
D. None of the above changed by__________________?
An SCR is sometimes called ____________? A. Changing anode voltage
A. Triac B. Changing gate voltage
B. Diac C. Reverse biasing the gate
C. Unijunction transistor D. None of the above
D. Thyristor When SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is
An SCR is a solid state equivalent of ________________?
______________? A. Exactly zero
B. Small leakage current
C. Large leakage current
A. Triode D. None of the above
B. Pentode We can control a.c. power in a load by connecting
C. Gas-filled triode ______________?
D. Tetrode A. Two SCRs in series
An SCR has three terminals viz
B. Two SCRs in parallel
________________?
C. Two SCRs in parallel opposition
A. Cathode, anode, gate
D. None of the above
B. Anode, cathode, grid
If firing angle in an SCR circuit is increased, the
C. Anode, cathode, drain
output _____________?
D. None of the above
A. Remains the same
An SCR is made of_______________?
B. Is increased
A. Germanium
C. Is decreased
B. Silicon
D. None of the above
C. Carbon
An SCR can exercise control over____________of
D. None of the above
a.c. supply?
An SCR has ___________semiconductor
A. Positive half-cycles only
layers?
B. Negative half-cycles only
A. Two
C. Both positive and negative half-cycles
B. Three
D. Positive or negative half-cycles
C. Four
When SCR starts conducting, then _____________
D. None of the above
loses all control?
An SCR has __________ pn junctions?
A. Gate
A. Two
B. Cathode
B. Three
C. Anode
C. Four
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
An SCR is turned off when ________________?
A. Anode current is reduced to zero
B. Gate voltage is reduced to zero
C. Gate is reverse biased
D. None of the above
If gate current is increased, then anode-cathode
voltage at which SCR closes_________________?
A. Is decreased
B. Is increased

240
 CHAPTER # SEMICONDUCTOR C. Donor ions
THEORY D. None of the above
A pn junction acts as a__________________?
At absolute temperature, an intrinsic
A. Controlled switch
semiconductor has________________?
B. Bidirectional switch
A. A few free electrons
C. Unidirectional switch
B. Many holes
D. None of the above
C. Many free electrons
In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free
D. No holes or free electrons
electrons_____________?
A reverse biased pn junction has resistance of the
A. Equals the number of holes
order of________________?
B. Is greater than the number of holes
A. O
C. Is less than the number of holes
B. kO
D. None of the above
C. MO
When the temperature of an extrinsic
D. None of the above
semiconductor is increased, the pronounced effect
A reverse bias pn junction has_____________?
is on_________________?
A. Very narrow depletion layer
A. Junction capacitance
B. Almost no current
B. Minority carriers
C. Very low resistance
C. Majority carriers
D. Large current flow
D. None of the above
The barrier voltage at a pn junction for
The leakage current in a pn junction is of the
germanium is about________________?
order of________________?
A. 5 V
A. Aa
B. 3 V
B. mA
C. Zero
C. kA
D. 0.3 V
D. µA
The random motion of holes and free electrons
The leakage current across a pn junction is due
due to thermal agitation is called______________?
to________________?
A. Diffusion
A. Minority carriers
B. Pressure
B. Majority carriers
C. Ionisation
C. Junction capacitance
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
A hole and electron in close proximity would tend
With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of
to________________?
depletion layer__________________?
A. Repel each other
A. Decreases
B. Attract each other
B. Increases
C. Have no effect on each other
C. Remains the same
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
The battery connections required to forward bias
At room temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor
a pn junction are_________________?
has_______________?
A. +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
A. Many holes only
B. -ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
B. A few free electrons and holes
C. -ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
C. Many free electrons only
D. None of the above
D. No holes or free electrons
In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a
At room temperature, an intrinsic silicon crystal
shortage of_________________?
acts approximately as_______________?
A. Acceptor ions
A. A battery
B. Holes and electrons
B. A conductor

241
C. An insulator A. Remains the same
D. A piece of copper wire B. Increases
A forward biased pn junction diode has a C. Decreases
resistance of the order of_____________? D. None of the above
A. O A hole in a semiconductor is defined
B. kO as_________________?
C. MO A. A free electron
D. None of the above B. The incomplete part of an electron pair
In a semiconductor, current conduction is due bond
to________________? C. A free proton
A. Only holes D. A free neutron
B. Only free electrons A trivalent impurity has______________valence
C. Holes and free electrons electrons?
D. None of the above A. 4
The impurity level in an extrinsic semiconductor B. 5
is about_______________of pure semiconductor ? C. 6
A. 10 atoms for 108 atoms D. 3
B. 1 atom for 108 atoms The strength of a semiconductor crystal comes
C. 1 atom for 104 atoms from______________?
D. 1 atom for 100 atoms A. Forces between nuclei
The resistivity of pure germanium under standard B. Forces between protons
conditions is about_______________? C. Electron-pair bonds
A. 6 x 104 cm D. None of the above
B. 60 x cm A semiconductor is formed by
C. 3 x 106 cm ______________bonds?
D. 6 x 10-4 cm A. Covalent
The most commonly used semiconductor B. Electrovalent
is________________? C. Co-ordinate
A. Germanium D. None of the above
B. Silicon The resistivity of a pure silicon is about
C. Carbon _______________?
D. Sulphur A. 100 O cm
A pentavalent impurity B. 6000 O cm
has______________Valence electrons? C. 3 x 105 O m
A. 3 D. 6 x 10-8 O cm
B. 5 When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure
C. 4 semiconductor, it becomes________________?
D. 6 A. An insulator
Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor B. An intrinsic semiconductor
creates many_______________? C. p-type semiconductor
A. Holes D. n-type semiconductor
B. Free electrons An n-type semiconductor is______________?
C. Valence electrons A. Positively charged
D. Bound electrons B. Negatively charged
As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, C. Electrically neutral
the bulk resistance of the D. None of the above
semiconductor_______________? Addition of pentavalent impurity to a
semiconductor creates many________________?

242
A. Free electrons C. Paper
B. Holes D. Air
C. Valence electrons The value of collector load RC in a transistor
D. Bound electrons amplifier is _______________the output
When a pure semiconductor is heated, its impedance of the transistor?
resistance_________________? A. The same as
A. Goes up B. Less than
B. Goes down C. More than
C. Remains the same D. None of the above
D. Can’t say The output power of a transistor amplifier is more
A semiconductor has than the input power because the additional
generally_______________valence electrons? power is supplied by__________________?
A. 2 A. Transistor
B. 3 B. Biasing circuit
C. 6 C. Collector supply VCC
D. 4 D. None of the above
A semiconductor has ______________ A transistor amplifier has high output impedance
temperature coefficient of resistance? because ______________?
A. Positive A. Emitter is heavily doped
B. Zero B. Collector has reverse bias
C. Negative C. Collector is wider than emitter or base
D. None of the above D. None of the above
CC configuration is used for impedance matching
because its ________________?
CHAPTER # SINGLE STAGE A. Input impedance is very high
TRANSISTOR AMPLIFIERS B. Input impedance is low
C. Output impedance is very low
A single stage transistor amplifier with collector
D. None of the above
load RC and emitter resistance RE has a d.c. load
The d.c. load of a transistor amplifier is
of ________________________?
generally_______________ that of a a.c.
A. RC
load?
B. RC || RE
A. The same as
C. RC – RE
B. Less than
D. RC + RE
C. More than
For highest power gain, one would use
D. None of the above
_________________configuration?
If the input capacitor of a transistor amplifier is
A. CC
short-circuited, then_________________?
B. CB
A. Transistor will be destroyed
C. CE
B. Biasing conditions will change
D. none of the above
C. Signal will not reach the base
A transistor converts __________________?
D. None of the above
A. c. power into a.c. power
A CE amplifier is also called _______________
B. c. power into d.c. power
circuit?
C. high resistance into low resistance
A. Grounded emitter
D. none of the above
B. Grounded base
In transistor amplifiers, we generally
C. Grounded collector
use______________ capacitors?
D. None of the above
A. Electrolytic
B. Mica

243
If a transistor amplifier feeds a load of low A. Avoid voltage gain drop
resistance (e.g. speaker), then voltage gain will B. Forward bias the emitter
be_______________? C. Reduce noise in the amplifier
A. High D. None of the above
B. Very high The purpose of d.c. conditions in a transistor is
C. Moderate to___________________?
D. Low A. Reverse bias the emitter
The radio wave picked up by the receiving B. Forward bias the collector
antenna is amplified about _________________ C. Set up operating point
times to have reasonable sound output? D. None of the above
A. 1000 In the a.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor
B. A million amplifier, the capacitors are considered
C. 100 ___________________?
D. 10000 A. Short
The ratio of output impedance of a CE amplifier is B. Open
_______________? C. Partially open
A. About 1 D. None of the above
B. Low If RC and RL represent the collector resistance
C. High and load resistance respectively in a single stage
D. Moderate transistor amplifier, then a.c. load
The purpose of a coupling capacitor in a is____________________?
transistor amplifier is to ___________________? A. RL + RC
A. Increase the output impedance of transistor B. RC || RL
B. Protect the transistor C. RL – RC
C. Pass a.c. and block d.c. D. RC
D. Provide biasing The purpose of capacitors in a transistor amplifier
An amplifier has a power gain of 100. Its db gain is to___________________?
is ________________? A. Protect the transistor
A. 10 db B. Cool the transistor
B. 20 db C. Couple or bypass a.c. component
C. 40 db D. Provide biasing
D. None of the above In a CE amplifier, voltage gain
In order to get more voltage gain from a transistor =____________________ x RAC/Rin?
amplifier, the transistor used should A. α
have_________________? B. (1 + α)
A. Thin base C. (1+ β)
B. Thin collector D. β
C. Wide emitter If the power and current gains of a transistor
D. None of the above amplifier are 16500 and 100 respectively, then
In the d.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor voltage gain is_____________________?
amplifier, the capacitors are A. 165
considered__________________? B. 165 x 104
A. Short C. 100
B. Open D. None of the above
C. Partially short In a CE amplifier, the phase difference between
D. None of the above voltage across collector load RC and signal voltage
The purpose of emitter capacitor (i.e. capacitor is _________________?
across RE) is to ______________?

244
A. 180o C. both d.c. and a.c. load lines
B. 270o D. none of the above
C. 90o A single stage transistor amplifier
D. 0o contains______________ and associated circuitry?
In a single stage transistor amplifier, RC and RL A. Two transistors
represent collector resistance and load resistance B. One transistor
respectively. The transistor sees a d.c. load of C. Three transistor
_____________________? D. None of the above
A. RC + RL It is generally desired that a transistor should
B. RC || RL have_____________________ input impedance?
C. RL A. Low
D. RC B. Very low
When a transistor amplifier is operating, the C. High
current in any branch is _______________? D. Very high
A. Sum of a.c. and d.c. In the zero signal conditions, a transistor sees
B. c. only _____________ load?
C. c. only A. c.
D. difference of a.c. and d.c. B. c.
The phase difference between the output and C. both d.c. and a.c.
input voltages of a CE amplifier is D. none of the above
_____________? The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines
A. 180o is called________________?
B. 0o A. Saturation point
C. 90o B. Cut off point
D. 270o C. Operating point
If the collector supply is 10V, then collector cut off D. None of the above
voltage under d.c. conditions is _______________? If a transistor amplifier draws 2mA when input
A. 20 V voltage is 10 V, then its input impedance is
B. 5 V ____________?
C. 2 V A. 20 kΩ
D. 10 V B. 2 kΩ
The input capacitor in an amplifier is C. 10 kΩ
the______________ capacitor? D. 5 kΩ
A. Coupling
B. Bypass
C. Leakage
D. None of the above
The slope of a.c. load line is ______________ that
of d.c. load line?
A. The same as
B. More than
C. Less than
D. None of the above
When an a.c. signal is applied to an amplifier, ,the
operating point moves along_________________?
A. c. load line
B. c. load line

245
 CHAPTER # SOLID-STATE In a multivibrator, we have___________
SWITCHING CIRCUITS feedback?
A. Negative
An integrating circuit is a simple RC series circuit
B. 100 % positive
with output taken across ______________?
C. Both positive and negative
A. Both R and C
D. None of the above
B. R
A bistable multivibrator has
C. C
_________________?
D. None of the above
A. Two stable states
A differentiating circuit is a simple RC circuit
B. One stable state
with output taken across ____________?
C. No stable state
A. R
D. None of the above
B. C
For an integrating circuit to be effective , the RC
C. Both R and C
product should be____________ the time period of
D. None of the above
the input wave?
One would find a clamping circuit in
A. 5 times greater than
___________________?
B. 5 times smaller than
A. Receiving antenna
C. Equal to
B. Radio transmitter
D. At least 10 times greater than
C. Radio receiver
A monostable vibrator has_____________
D. Television receiver
A. No stable state
When the transistor (CE arrangement) is in the
B. One stable state
cut off region, the collector current is
C. Two stable states
______________?
D. None of the above
A. ICBO
For a differentiating circuit to be effective, the RC
B. ICEO
product should be ___________ the time period of
C. (ß + 1) ICEO
the input wave?
D. IC(sat)
A. Equal to
If the input to an integrating circuit is a succession
B. 5 times greater than
of alternating positive and negative pulses of very
C. 5 times smaller than
short duration, the output will be
D. At least 10 times greater than
_____________wave A?
The positive clipper is that which removes the
A.Rectangular
____________half-cycles of the input voltage?
B. Triangular
A. Negative
C. Sine
B. Positive
D. Square
C. Both positive and negative
When a transistor is used as an amplifier, it is
D. None of the above
operated in the _____________ region?
When a rectangular voltage waveform is applied
A. Off
to a capacitor, then the current waveform is
B. Saturation
______________?
C. Active
D. None of the above
A negative clipper removes the
A. Rectangular
______________half-cycles of the input voltage?
B. Sinusoidal
A. Negative C. Sawtooth
B. Positive D. Square
C. Both positive and negative The multivibrator which generates square wave of
D. None of the above its own is the ____________multivibrator?

246
A. Monostable When a transistor is driven to saturation, ideally
B. Bistable the output is _____________?
C. Astable A. VCC
D. None of the above B. 0
When a transistor is driven to cut off, ideally the C. VCC/2
output is _______________? D. 2VCC
A. VCC The most inexpensive switch is _____________
B. 0 switch?
C. VCC/2 A. Electronic
D. VCC/3 B. Mechanical
If d.c. supply of 10 V is fed to a differentiating C. Electromechanical
circuit, then output will be_______________? D. None of the above
A. 20 V A switch has ______________?
B. 10 V A. One state
C. 0 V B. Two states
D. None of the above C. Three states
If a square wave is fed to a differentiating circuit, D. None of the above
the output will be _____________? The maximum speed of electronic switch can be
A. Sine wave _____________operations per second?
B. Sharp narrow pulses A. 104
C. Rectangular wave B. 10
D. Triangular wave C. 1000
If the input to a differentiating circuit is a saw- D. 109
tooth wave, then output will be The main disadvantage of a mechanical switch is
_____________? that it_______________?
A. Square A. Is operated mechanically
B. Triangular B. Is costly
C. Sine C. Has high inertia
D. Rectangular D. None of the above
An astable multivibrator has The switch that has the fastest speed of operation
________________? is ____________ switch?
A. One stable state A. Electronic
B. Two stable states B. Mechanical
C. No stable state C. Electromechanical
D. None of the above D. None of the above
A relay is superior to a mechanical switch because A relay is ___________switch?
it _______________? A. A mechanical
A. Is relatively inexpensive B. An electronic
B. Does not require moving contacts C. An electromechanical
C. Combines control with power amplification D. None of the above
D. None of the above
______________ multivibrator is a square wave
oscillator?
A. Monostable
B. Astable
C. Bistable
D. None of the above

247
 CHAPTER # TRANSISTOR AUDIO The push-pull circuit must use ______________
POWER AMPLIFIERS operation?
A. Class A
The output transformer used in a power amplifier
B. Class C
is a _____________ transformer?
C. Class B
A. 1:1 ratio
D. Class AB
B. Step-up
What turn ratio (Np/Ns) of transformer is
C. Step-down
required to match 4 O speaker to a transistor
D. None of the above
having an output impedance of 8000 O ?
The pulsating d.c. applied to power amplifier
A. 2
causes________________?
B. 7
A. Burning of transistor
C. 3
B. Hum in the circuit
D. None of the above
C. Excessive forward voltage
For the same a.c. power output as above, what
D. None of the above
should be the minimum power rating of transistor
If the gain versus frequency curve of a transistor
for class B operation?
amplifier is not flat, then there is distortion ?
A. 10 W
A. Amplitude
B. 4 W
B. Intermodulation
C. 8 W
C. Frequency
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
The maximum a.c. power output from a class A
If the power rating of a transistor is 1W and
power amplifier is 10 W. What should be the
collector current is 100mA, then maximum
minimum power rating of the transistor used ?
allowable collector voltage is________________?
A. 10 W
A. 1V
B. 15 W
B. 100V
C. 5 W
C. 20V
D. 20 W
D. 10V
The class B push-pull circuit can deliver 100 W of
What will be the collector efficiency of a power
a.c. output power. What should be the minimum
amplifier having zero signal power dissipation of 5
power rating of each transistor ?
watts and a.c. power output of 2 watts ?
A. 20 W
A. 20%
B. 40 W
B. 80%
C. 10 W
C. 40%
D. 80 W
D. 50%
Power amplifiers generally use transformer
The driver stage usually
coupling because transformer
employs_________________?
permits______________?
A. Class A power amplifier
A. Cooling of the circuit
B. Push-pull amplifier
B. Impedance matching
C. Class C amplifier
C. Distortionless output
D. None of the above
D. Good frequency response
The output signal voltage and current of a power
The most important consideration in power
amplifier are 5V and 200 mA; the values being
amplifier is __________________?
r.m.s. What is the power output ?
A. Biasing the circuit
A. 1 W
B. Collector efficiency
B. 2 W
C. To keep the transformer cool
C. 4 W
D. None of the above
D. None of the above

248
A transformer coupled class A power amplifier C. Detector stage
has a load of 100 O on the secondary. If the turn D. F stage
ratio is 10:1, what is the value of load appearing Class_____________ power amplifier has the
on the primary? highest collector efficiency ?
A. 5 kO A. C
B. 20 kO B. A
C. 100 kO C. B
D. 10 kO D. AB
Transformer coupling can be used The maximum efficiency of resistance loaded class
in______________amplifiers? A power amplifier is _________________?
A. Either power or voltage A. 5%
B. Only power B. 50%
C. Only voltage C. 30%
D. None of the above D. 25%
An AF amplifier is shielded to ________________ coupling is generally employed
________________? in power amplifiers?
A. Keep the amplifier cool A. Transformer
B. Protect from rusting B. RC
C. Prevent induction due to stray magnetic fields C. direct
D. None of the above D. Impedance
The disadvantage of impedance matching is that it Power amplifiers handle ______________ signals
_______________? compare to voltage amplifiers?
A. Gives distorted output A. Small
B. Gives low power output B. Very small
C. Requires a transformer C. Large
D. None of the above D. None of the above
The most costly coupling is _______________ The maximum efficiency of transformer coupled
coupling? class A power amplifier is
A. RC _______________?
B. Direct A. 30%
C. Impedance B. 50%
D. Transformer C. 80%
Class C amplifiers are used as D. 45%
___________________? In class A operation, the operating point is
A. AF amplifiers generally located_____________of the d.c. load
B. Detectors line?
A. amplifiers A. At cut off point
C. None of the above B. At the middle
A class A power amplifier uses C. At saturation point
_________________? D. None of the above
A. Two transistors The maximum collector efficiency of class B
B. Three transistors operation is ________________?
C. One transistor A. 50%
D. None of the above B. 90%
The output stage of a multistage amplifier is also C. 5%
called _________________-? D. 5%
A. Mixer stage
B. Power stage

249
If a transistor is operated in such a way that A. Push-pull amplifier
output current flows for 60o of the input signal, B. Preamplifier
then it is ______________ operation? C. Class A power amplifier
A. Class A D. None of the above
B. Class B The size of a power transistor is made
C. Class C considerably large to________________?
D. None of the above A. Provide easy handling
A class A power amplifier is sometimes B. Dissipate heat
called______________amplifier? C. Facilitate connections
A. Symmetrical D. None of the above
B. Single-ended Class _____________ operation gives the
C. Reciprocating maximum distortion?
D. Differential A. A
A 2-transistor class B power amplifier is B. B
commonly called ______________ amplifier? C. C
A. Dual D. AB
B. Push-pull The output stage of a multistage amplifier usually
C. Symmetrical employs _________________?
D. Differential A. Push-pull amplifier
A power amplifier has comparatively B. Preamplifier
__________________ ß ? C. Class A power amplifier
A. Small D. None of the above
B. Large
C. Very large CHAPTER # TRANSISTOR BIASING
D. None of the above In the above question (Q38.) , what is the collector
Low efficiency of a power amplifier results voltage ?
in_________________? A. 3 V
A. Low forward bias B. 8 V
B. Less battery consumption C. 6 V
C. More battery consumption D. 7 V
D. None of the above The purpose of resistance in the emitter circuit of
When a transistor is cut off a transistor amplifier is to
_________________? _________________?
A. Maximum voltage appears across A. Limit the maximum emitter current
transistor B. Provide base-emitter bias
B. Maximum current flows C. Limit the change in emitter current
C. Maximum voltage appears across load D. None of the above
D. None of the above The base resistor method is generally used in
If the zero signal dissipation of a transistor is 1W, ________________?
then power rating of the transistor should be at A. Amplifier circuits
least___________________? B. Switching circuits
A. 5 W C. Rectifier circuits
B. 33 W D. None of the above
C. 75 W In a base resistor method, if the value of ß changes
D. 1 W by 50, then collector current will change by a
The output stage of a multistage amplifier usually factor ___________________?
employs______________? A. 25
B. 50

250
C. 100 For germanium transistor amplifier, VCE
D. 200 should_______________for faithful amplification?
If the value of collector current IC increases, then A. Be zero
the value of VCE ______________? B. Be 0.2 V
C. Not fall below 0.7 V
D. None of the above
A. Remains the same In a transistor amplifier circuit VCE = VCB
B. Decreases +________________?
C. Increases A. VBE
D. None of the above B. 2VBE
In a particular biasing circuit, the value of RE is
C. 5 VBE
about _________________?
D. None of the above
A. 10 kO
The stability factor of a collector feedback bias
B. 1 MO
circuit is_______________ that of base resistor
C. 100 kO
bias?
D. 800 O
A. The same as
The value of VBE ___________________?
B. More than
A. Depends upon IC to moderate extent
C. Less than
B. Is almost independent of IC
D. None of the above
C. Is strongly dependant on IC
If the temperature increases, the value of
D. None of the above
VCE_________________?
A silicon transistor is biased with base resistor
A. Remains the same
method. If ß=100, VBE =0.7 V, zero signal
B. Is increased
collector current IC = 1 mA and VCC = 6V , what
C. Is decreased
is the value of the base resistor RB ?
D. None of the above
A. 105 kO
The value of stability factor for a base resistor
B. 530 kO
bias is________________?
C. 315 kO
A. RB (ß+1)
D. None of the above
B. (ß+1)RC
When the temperature changes, the operating
C. (ß+1)
point is shifted due to _______________?
D. 1-ß
A. Change in ICBO
In voltage divider bias, VCC = 25 V; R1 = 10 kO;
B. Change in VCC
R2 = 2.2 V ; RC = 3.6 V and RE =1 kO. What is
C. Change in the values of circuit resistance
the emitter voltage?
D. None of the above
A. 7 V
The stabilisation of operating point in potential
B. 3 V
divider method is provided
C. V
by_______________?
D. 8 V
A. RE consideration
In voltage divider bias, operating point is 3 V, 2
B. RC consideration
mA. If VCC = 9 V, RC = 2.2 kO, what is the value
C. VCC consideration
of RE ?
D. None of the above
A. 2000 O
In the design of a biasing circuit, the value of
B. 1400 O
collector load RC is determined
C. 800 O
by__________________?
D. 1600 O
A. VCE consideration
The disadvantage of voltage divider bias is that it
B. VBE consideration
has _________________?
C. IB consideration
D. None of the above

251
A. High stability factor C. More than 200
B. Low base current D. 1
C. Many resistors The leakage current in a silicon transistor is
D. None of the above about_____________ the leakage current in a
For proper amplification by a transistor circuit, germanium transistor?
the operating point should be located at A. One hundredth
the_____________ of the d.c. load line? B. One tenth
C. One thousandth
D. One millionth
A. The end point The biasing circuit has a stability factor of 50. If
B. Middle due to temperature change, ICBO changes by 1
C. The maximum current point µA, then IC will change by___________________?
D. None of the above A. 100 µA
Thermal runaway occurs
B. 25 µA
when_________________?
C. 20 µA
A. Collector is reverse biased
D. 50 µA
B. Transistor is not biased
If the maximum collector current due to signal
C. Emitter is forward biased
alone is 3 mA, then zero signal collector current
D. Junction capacitance is high
should be at least equal
The operating point ________________ on the a.c.
to___________________?
load line?
A. 6 mA
A. Also line
B. mA
B. Does not lie
C. 3 mA
C. May or may not lie
D. 1 mA
D. Data insufficient
The circuit that provides the best stabilization of
The operating point is also called the
operating point is___________________?
_______________?
A. Base resistor bias
A. Cut off point
B. Collector feedback bias
B. Quiescent point
C. Potential divider bias
C. Saturation point
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
Transistor biasing is generally provided by
For good stabilsation in voltage divider bias, the
a_______________?
current I1 flowing through R1 and R2 should be
A. Biasing circuit
equal to or greater than_____________?
B. Bias battery
A. 10 IB
C. Diode
B. 3 IB
D. None of the above
C. 2 IB
Transistor biasing is done to keep
D. 4 IB
_____________in the circuit?
The disadvantage of base resistor method of
A. Proper direct current
transistor biasing is that it_________________?
B. Proper alternating current
A. Is complicated
C. The base current small
B. Is sensitive to changes in ß
D. Collector current small
C. Provides high stability
For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit,
D. None of the above
the value of VBE should_____________for a
An ideal value of stability factor
silicon transistor?
is________________?
A. Be zero
A. 100
B. Be 0.01 V
B. 200

252
C. Not fall below 0.7 V CHAPTER # TRANSISTOR TUNED
D. Be between 0 V and 0.1 V AMPLIFIERS
The zero signal IC is generally ______________
The Q of a tuned amplifier is generally
mA in the initial stages of a transistor amplifier?
_________________?
A. 4
A. Less than 5
B. 1
B. Less than 10
C. 3
C. More than 10
D. More than 10
D. None of the above
The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines
For frequencies below resonant frequency, a series
represents __________________?
LC circuit behaves as a _____________ load?
A. Operating point
A. Resistive
B. Current gain
B. Capacitive
C. Voltage gain
C. Inductive
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit,
Tuned class C amplifiers are used for RF signals
the value of VCE should______________for
of________________?
silicon transistor?
A. Low power
A. Not fall below 1 V
B. High power
B. Be zero
C. Very high power
C. Be 0.2 V
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
Double tuned circuits are used in ____________
Operating point represents__________________?
stages of a radio receiver?
A. Values of IC and VCE when signal is
A. IF
applied
B. Audio
B. The magnitude of signal
C. Output
C. Zero signal values of IC and VCE
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
In the double tuned circuit, if the mutual
Transistor biasing represents ______________
inductance between the two tuned circuits is
conditions?
decreased, the level of resonance curve
A. a.c
___________________?
B. d.c
A. Remains the same
C. both a.c. and d.c
B. Is lowered
D. none of the above
C. Is raised
For proper operation of the transistor, its
D. None of the above
collector should have___________________?
In parallel resonance, there is _______________?
A. Proper forward bias
A. Both voltage and current amplification
B. Proper reverse bias
B. Voltage amplifications
C. Very small size
C. Current amplification
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
If biasing is not done in an amplifier circuit, it
If a high degree of selectivity is desired, then
results in________________?
double-tuned circuit should have ___________
A. Decrease in the base current
coupling?
B. Unfaithful amplification
A. Loose
C. Excessive collector bias
B. Tight
D. None of the above
C. Critical
D. None of the above

253
For frequencies above the resonant frequency, a A. A pure resistive
parallel LC circuit behaves as a ____________ B. A pure inductive
load? C. A pure capacitive
A. Capacitive D. A resonant tank
B. Resistive For frequencies below the resonant frequency , a
C. Inductive parallel LC circuit behaves as a
D. None of the above ______________load?
In series resonance, there is__________________? A. Inductive
A. Voltage amplification B. Resistive
B. Current amplification C. Capacitive
C. Both voltage and current amplification D. None of the above
D. None of the above In the above question, what are the values of cut-
Frequencies above ______________ kHz are called off frequencies?
radio frequencies? A. 140 kHz , 60 kHz
A. 2 B. 1020 kHz , 980 kHz
B. 10 C. 1030 kHz , 970 kHz
C. 50 D. None of the above
D. 200 At parallel resonance, the phase angle between the
The Q of a tuned circuit refers to the property applied voltage and circuit current is
of_______________? _____________?
A. Sensitivity A. 90o
B. Fidelity B. 180o
C. Selectivity C. 0o
D. None of the above D. None of the above
In a parallel LC circuit, if the signal frequency is At parallel resonance, the ratio L/C is
decreased below the resonant frequency, ______________?
then________________? A. Very large
A. XL decreases and XC increases B. Zero
B. XL increases and XC decreases C. Small
C. Line current becomes minimum D. None of the above
D. None of the above If L/C ratio of a parallel LC circuit is increased,
The Q of a tuned amplifier is 50. If the resonant the Q of the circuit______________?
frequency for the amplifier is 1000kHZ, then A. Is decreased
bandwidth is __________________? B. Is increased
A. 10kHz C. Remains the same
B. 40 kHz D. None of the above
C. 30 kHz At series resonance, the net reactive component of
D. 20 kHz circuit current is _______________?
For frequencies above the resonant frequency , a A. Zero
series LC circuit behaves as a B. Inductive
____________load? C. Capacitive
A. Resistive D. None of the above
B. Inductive At series or parallel resonance, the circuit power
C. Capacitive factor is ________________?
D. None of the above A. 0
A class C amplifier always drives B. 5
_____________load? C. 1
D. 8

254
At series or parallel resonance, the circuit behaves C. Remains the same
as a ______________ load? D. Insufficient data
A. Capacitive In a parallel LC circuit, if the input signal
B. Resistive frequency is increased above resonant frequency
C. Inductive then _______________?
D. None of the above A. XL increases and XC decreases
If the resistance of a tuned circuit is increased, the B. XL decreases and XC increases
Q of the circuit _______________? C. Both XL and XC increase
A. Is increased D. Both XL and XC decrease
B. Is decreased At parallel resonance, the net reactive component
C. Remains the same circuit current is _______________?
D. None of the above A. Capacitive
At series resonance, the phase angle between B. Zero
applied voltage and circuit is______________? C. Inductive
D. None of the above
A resonant circuit contains
A. 90o ____________elements?
B. 180o A. R and L only
C. 0o B. R and C only
D. None of the above C. Only R
The dimensions of L/CR are that of
D. L and C
_______________?
At parallel resonance, the line current
A. Farad
is_______________?
B. Henry
A. Minimum
C. Ohm
B. Maximum
D. None of the above
C. Quite large
The Q of an LC circuit is given by
D. None of the above
_________________?
A tuned amplifier uses__________load?
A. 2pfr x R
A. Resistive
B. R / 2pfrL
B. Capacitive
C. 2pfrL / R
C. LC tank
D. R2/2pfrL
D. Inductive
In parallel resonance, the circuit impedance
At series resonance, voltage across L
is_________________?
is____________voltage across C?
A. C/LR
A. Equal to but opposite in phase to
B. R/LC
B. Equal to but in phase with
C. CR/L
C. Greater than but in phase with
D. L/CR
D. Less than but in phase with
When either L or C is increased, the resonant
A tuned amplifier is used in ___________
frequency of LC circuit ____________?
applications?
A. Remains the same
A. Radio frequency
B. Increases
B. Low frequency
C. Decreases
C. Audio frequency
D. Insufficient data
D. None of the above
If Q of an LC circuit increases, then bandwidth
The voltage gain of a tuned amplifier
______________?
is____________at resonant frequency
A. Increases
A. Minimum
B. Decreases
B. Maximum

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C. Half-way between maximum and minimum values
D. Zero D. a percent of the voltage division ratio squared
At series resonance, the circuit In a series–parallel circuit consisting of R1 and R2
offers____________ impedance? in series and connected in parallel with R3, if R1
A. Zero opens, then R2‘s voltage will:___________?
B. Maximum A. increase
C. Minimum B. remain the same
D. None of the above C. decrease
A tuned amplifier is generally operated in D. cannot tell
____________operation? The current flowing through an unloaded voltage
A. Class A divider is called the____________?
B. Class C A. bleeder current
C. Class B B. load current
D. None of the above C. resistor current
D. voltage current
With 21 V applied, if R1 = 5 ohms, R2 = 35 ohms,
and R3 = 14 ohms, what is the current of R2 if R1
is series connected with parallel circuit R2 and
CHAPTER # SERIES PARALLEL R3?
CIRCUITS
The first goal to accomplish in analyzing a
complex series-parallel circuit is A. 200 mA
B. 400 mA
to____________? C. 600 mA
A. solve for all the voltage drops D. 800 mA
B. solve for the total current and resistance If R1 is in series with parallel connected to R2 and
C. equate all series components R3, what happens to total current if R2
D. equate all parallel components opens?
The positive (+) and negative (-) ends of the A. cannot tell
battery are called ___________? B. remains the same
A. circuit diagram C. increases
B. battery knobs D. decreases
C. battery terminals A Wheatstone bridge can be used to determine an
D. battery sides unknown_____________?
When a Wheatstone bridge is in a balanced A. current
condition, the center voltmeter in the bridge will B. voltage
read_____________? C. resistance
A. twice the source voltage D. power
B. half the source voltage A device able to supply electrical energy is a
C. zero volts __________?
D. the same as the source voltage A. nonconductor
In a series–parallel circuit, individual component B. battery
power dissipation are calculated C. conductor
using_____________? D. microwave
A. individual component parameters A 6 V battery output is divided down to obtain
B. a percent of the total power depending on two output voltages. Three 2.2 kΩ resistors are
resistor ratios used to provide the two taps. The two output
C. total current squared multiplied by the resistor voltages are___________?

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A. 2 V, 4 V B. 20 %
B. 2 V, 2 V C. 100 %
C. 2 V, 6 V D. 50 %
D. 4 V, 6 V On which of the following voltage range settings
The internal resistance of a 20,000 ohm/volt will a voltmeter present the minimum load on a
voltmeter set on its 5 V range is_____________? circuit?
A. 20,000 Ω A. 1 V
B. 100,000 Ω B. 50 V
C. 200,000 Ω C. 500 V
D. 1,000,000 Ω D. 1,000 V
A certain voltage divider consists of three 1 kΩ The parallel combination of a 6.8 kΩ resistor and
resistors in series. Which of the following load a 10 kΩ resistor is in series with the parallel
resistors will have the least effect on the output combination of a 2.2 kΩ resistor and a 1 kΩ
voltage? resistor. A 100 V source is connected across the
A. 1 MΩ circuit. The resistor(s) with the greatest voltage
B. 100 kΩ drop is (are)___________?
C. 1 kΩ A. 6.8 kΩ
D. 330 Ω B. 2.2 kΩ
Two 1.2 kΩ resistors are in series and this series C. 6.8 kΩ and 10 kΩ
combination is in parallel with a 3.3 kΩ resistor. D. 2.2 kΩ and 1 kΩ
The total resistance is____________? The parallel combination of a 470 Ω resistor and a
A. 138 Ω 1.2 kΩ resistor is in series with the parallel
B. 1,389 Ω combination of three 3 kΩ resistors. A 200 V
C. 5,700 Ω source is connected across the circuit. The resistor
D. 880 Ω with the most current has a value
A certain voltage divider consists of two 12 kΩ of____________?
resistors in series. Which of the following load A. 470 Ω or 1.2 kΩ
resistors will have the most effect on the output B. 3 kΩ
voltage? C. 470 Ω
A. 1 MΩ D. 1.2 kΩ
B. 24 kΩ A balanced Wheatstone bridge consists of an RV
C. 18 kΩ of 3,500 Ω, an R2 of 200 Ω, and an R3 of 680 Ω.
D. 12 kΩ The value of RUNK is____________?
The parallel combination of a 470 Ω resistor and a A. 680 Ω
680 Ω resistor is in series with the parallel B. 1,029 Ω
combination of four 2 kΩ resistors. The total C. 200 Ω
resistance is___________? D. 880 Ω
A. 1,650 Ω In a certain five-step R/2R ladder network, the
B. 1,078 Ω smallest resistor value is 1 kΩ. The largest value
C. 77.8 Ω is___________?
D. 778 Ω A. Indeterminable
The parallel combination of a 470 Ω resistor and a B. 2 kΩ
1.5 kΩ resistor is in series with the parallel C. 10 kΩ
combination of five 1 kΩ resistors. The source D. 20 kΩ
voltage is 50 V. The percentage of the load current Three 10 kΩ resistors are connected in series. A
through any single 1 KΩ resistor 20 kΩ resistor is connected in parallel across one
is__________? of the 10 kΩ resistors. The voltage source is 24 V.
A. 25 % The total current in the circuit is___________?

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A. 900 μA A voltage divider consists of two 68 kΩ resistors
B. 9 mA and a 24 V source. The unknown output voltage
C. 90 mA is______________?
D. 800 μA A. 12 V
A voltage divider consists of two 100 kΩ resistors B. 24 V
and a 12 V source. What will the output voltage be C. 0 V
if a load resistor of 1 MΩ is connected to the D. 6 V
output?
A. 0.57 V
B. 6 V CHAPTER # PASSIVE FILTERS
C. 12 V In a certain low-pass filter, fc = 3.5 kHz.if the
D. 5.7 V input voltage is a 6 V sine wave with a dc level of
Two 3.3 kΩ resistors are in series and this series 10 V, what is the output voltage magnitude?
combination is in parallel with a 4.7 kΩ resistor. A. 0 V
The voltage across one of the 3.3 kΩ resistors is 12 B. 5.97 V
V. The voltage across the 4.7 kΩ resistor C. 6 V
is_________? D. 597 mV
A. 24 V A parallel resonant band-pass filter consists of a
B. 12 V 90 Ω resistor in series with a parallel network
C. 0 V made up of a 60 mH coil and a 0.02 µF capacitor.
D. 6 V The output is taken across the capacitor/coil. The
A certain circuit is composed of two parallel coil winding has a resistance of 20 Ω. What is the
resistors. The total resistance is 1,403 Ω. One of center frequency of the filter?
the resistors is 2 kΩ. The other resistor value A. 459 Hz
is____________? B. 4,591 Hz
A. 1,403 Ω C. 999 Hz
B. 4.7 kΩ D. 2,176 Hz
C. 2 kΩ An RL high-pass filter consists of a 470 Ω resistor
D. 3,403 Ω and a 600 mH coil. The output is taken across the
A certain Wheatstone bridge has the following coil. The circuit’s critical frequency
resistor values: R1 = 10 kΩ, R2 = 720 Ω, and R4 = is___________?
2.4 kΩ. The unknown resistance A. 125 Hz
is_____________? B. 1,250 Hz
A. 24 Ω C. 564 Hz
B. 2.4 Ω D. 5,644 Hz
C. 300 Ω An RC low-pass filter consists of a 120 Ω resistor
D. 3,000 Ω and a 0.002 µF capacitor. The output is taken
A 12 kΩ resistor, a 15 kΩ resistor, and a 22 kΩ across the capacitor. The circuit’s critical
resistor are in series with two 10 kΩ resistors that frequency is___________?
are in parallel. The source voltage is 75 V. A. 333 kHz
Current through the 15 kΩ resistor is B. 633 kHz
approximately___________? C. 331 kHz
A. 14 mA D. 60 kHz
B. 1.4 mA In a certain low-pass filter, fc = 3.5 kHz. Its pass-
C. 5 mA band is_______________?
D. 50 mA A. 0 Hz to 3.5 kHz
B. 0 Hz

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C. 3.5 kHz The output is taken across the capacitor/coil.
D. 7 kHz Assume RW = 0 Ω. What is the center frequency
An RC high-pass filter consists of an 820 Ω of the filter?
resistor. What is the value of C so that Xc is ten A. 5.14 MHz
times less than Rat an input frequency of 12 B. 514 kHz
kHz? C. 5.03 MHz
A. 81 µF D. 503 kHz
B. 161 µF In a certain low-pass filter, fc = 3.5 kHz. If the
C. 0.161 µF input voltage is a 6 V sine wave with a dc level of
D. 220 µF 10 V, what is the output voltage magnitude?
In a series resonant band-pass filter, a lower value A. 0 V
of Q results in______________? B. 5.97 V
A. a higher impedance C. 6 V
B. a smaller bandwidth D. 597 mV
C. a higher resonant frequency An RL low-pass filter consists of a 5.6 mH coil and
D. a larger bandwidth a 3.3 kΩ resistor. The output voltage is taken
The maximum output voltage of a certain low- across the resistor. The circuit’s critical frequency
pass filter is 15 V. The output voltage at the is______________?
critical frequency is_____________? A. 93.8 kHz
A. 10.60 V B. 93.8 Hz
B. 0 V C. 861 Hz
C. 21.21 V D. 86.12 kHz
D. 15 V An RC high-pass filter consists of a 0.2 µF
The same signal in Problem 2 is applied to an RC capacitor and a 220 Ω resistor. The output is
high-pass filter. If the reactance is zero at the taken across the resistor. The circuit’s critical
input frequency, the output voltage frequency is_____________?
is____________? A. 723 Hz
A. 12.73 V peak-to-peak B. 7,234 Hz
B. 18 V peak-to-peak C. 362 Hz
C. 9 V peak-to-peak D. 3,617 Hz
D. zero At a certain frequency, the output voltage of a
A sinusoidal voltage with a peak-to-peak value of filter is 6 V and the input is 12 V. The voltage
18 V is applied to an RC low-pass filter. If the ratio in decibels is_____________?
reactance at the input frequency is zero, the A. 6.02 dB
output voltage is____________? B. -6.02 dB
A. 18 V peak-to-peak C. 12.04 dB
B. zero D. -12.04 dB
C. 9 V peak-to-peak A series resonant band-pass filter consists of a 2
D. 12.74 V peak-to-peak mH coil, a 0.005 µF capacitor, and a 120 Ω
Vout = 500 mV, and Vin = 1.3 V. The ratio Vout/ resistor. The winding resistance of the coil is 12 Ω.
Vin expressed in dB is__________? The output voltage is taken off the resistor. Input
A. 0 dB voltage is 12 Vrms. What is the output voltage
B. 8.30 dB magnitude at the center frequency (f0)?
C. -8.30 dB A. 10.9 V
D. 0.8 dB B. 1.09 V
A parallel resonant band-pass filter consists of a C. 1.1 V
6.8 Ω resistor in series with a parallel network D. 12 V
made up of an 8 µH coil and a 120 pF capacitor.

259
A series resonant band-stop filter consists of a 68
Ω resistor, a 110 mH coil, and a 0.02 µF capacitor.
The internal resistance, RW, of the coil is 4 Ω.
Input voltage is 200 mV. Output voltage is taken
across the coil and capacitor in series. What is the
output voltage magnitude at f0?
A. 1.1 mV
B. 11.1 mV
C. 111 mV
D. 200 mV
In a certain low-pass filter, fc = 3.5 kHz. Its
passband is____________?
A. 3.5 kHz
B. 0 Hz
C. 0 Hz to 3.5 kHz
D. 7 kHz
In a certain parallel resonant band-pass filter, the
resonant frequency is 14 kHz. If the bandwidth is
4 kHz, the lower frequency_____________?
A. is 7 kHz
B. is 10 kHz
C. is 12 kHz
D. cannot be determined
At a certain frequency, the output voltage of a
filter is 6 V and the input is 12 V.the filter’s
bandwidth is____________?
A. 530 Hz
B. 106 Hz
C. 11.5 Hz
D. 53 Hz

SPECIAL THANKS TO MAKHDOOM

YOUNIS

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