15/01/2021

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 NEET BOOSTER TEST SERIES (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 5

Topics covered :
Physics : Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory, Oscillations and Waves
Chemistry : Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques, Hydrocarbons, Environmental
Chemistry
Botany : Mineral Nutrition, Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Respiration in Plants
Zoology : Locomotion & Movement, Neural Control & Coordination

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : (1) 391.4 K

1. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is (2) 210.6 K

isobarically expanded from volume V to 2V. If (3) 371.4 K
initial temperature of gas is T, then the increase
in internal energy of gas is (4) 310.5 K

(1) 2RT 3. 5 moles of an ideal gas are compressed to half

3RT the initial volume at constant temperature of 300

(2)
2 K. The work done by the gas in the process is (R
(3) RT = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1)

5 (1) 4.2 × 103 J

(4) RT
2
(2) – 2.1 × 104 J
2. Three moles of oxygen at 400 K and one mole of
ammonia at 300 K are mixed in an isolated fixed (3) – 8.6 × 103 J
chamber. The final temperature of the mixture is (4) – 6.3 × 103 J

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Test-5 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

4. The kinetic molecular theory of gases predicts 9. Two different masses m and 3m of a perfect gas
that at a given temperature are heated separately in a vessel of constant
(1) Molecules of all gases have the same volume, the pressure and absolute temperature
average translational kinetic energy per graphs for these cases are shown as A and B.
molecule The ratio of slopes of curve B to A is

(2) Lighter gas molecules have lower average

translational kinetic energy per molecule than
heavier gas molecule
(3) All molecules in a gas don’t have same
average translational kinetic energy per
molecule
2
(1) (2) 3
(4) Lighter gas molecules have higher average 3
translational kinetic energy per molecule than
1 1
heavier gas molecules (3) (4)
3 2
5. ∆U = 0 in a non cyclic process of an ideal gas. 10. Two moles of an ideal gas monoatomic in nature
The process occupies a volume V at 27°C. The gas is
(1) May be isobaric expanded adiabatically to a volume of 8V. Final
(2) May be isochoric temperature of the gas is

(3) May be isothermal (1) 20°C (2) 5°C

(3) 200 K (4) 75 K
(4) Must be isothermal
11. A gas undergoes the cycle of pressure and
6. A certain amount of heat energy is supplied to a
volume changes as shown in figure. The net work
monoatomic ideal gas which expands at constant
done by the gas
pressure. What fraction of heat energy is
converted into work?
2 2
(1) (2)
5 3

5 3
(3) (4)
7 5
7. In an adiabatic compression the product of
pressure and volume
(1) Decreases
(1) 100 J
(2) Increases
(2) – 100 J
(3) Remains same
(3) 200 J
(4) First increases then decreases
(4) – 400 J
8. In a process, the pressure of an ideal gas is
12. Efficiency of Carnot’s engine is 50% when
proportional to square of volume of the gas. If the
temperature of sink is 500 K. In order to increase
temperature of the gas increases, in this process
efficiency to 60% keeping temperature of source
the work done by the gas is
same, what should be temperature of sink?
(1) Negative
(1) 400 K
(2) Positive (2) 500 K
(3) Zero (3) 600 K
(4) May be positive or zero (4) 650 K
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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-5

13. 100% conversion of heat into work is impossible 19. A platform performs simple harmonic oscillations
even when the engine used is ideal. It implies in a vertical plane. The amplitude of oscillation is
from 20 cm. A coin placed on top of platform is not
(1) First law of thermodynamics separated from it, the least time of these
oscillation is (g = 9.8 ms–2)
(2) Second law of thermodynamics
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.6 s
(3) Zeroth’s law of thermodynamics
(3) 0.9 s (4) 1.2 s
(4) Kinetic theory of gases
20. Which of the following is not characteristics of
14. For a certain apparatus the diffusion rate of
simple harmonic motion?
hydrogen gas has an average value of
28.7 cm3s–1, the diffusion of another gas under (1) The motion is periodic
the same condition is measured to have an (2) In oscillations energy is conserved
average rate of 7.2 cm3s–1. The gas is (3) The motion is along a straight line about
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Helium equilibrium position
(3) Neon (4) Oxygen (4) The acceleration of the particle is directed
15. Two gases are under identical condition of towards extreme position
temperature, pressure and volume. The ratio of 21. In simple harmonic motion, the velocity of particle
mean free paths of molecules of two gases
=
is given by v 144 − 16 x 2 m s–1, where x is in
having molecular diameter 2 Å and 3 Å
meter. The maximum value of particle velocity
respectively is
during motion is
(1) 1.5 (2) 6
(1) 6 m s–1 (2) 16 m s–1
(3) 0.44 (4) 2.25
(3) 12 m s–1 (4) 13 m s–1
16. The equation of displacement of a particle in
22. A particle is in simple harmonic motion. At the
SHM is given by y = sinωt + cosωt. Then the ratio
extreme position, the force acting is 10 N. The
of amplitude to magnitude of initial displacement
force on the particle at a point midway between
is
mean and extreme position is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 2 N (2) 2.5 N
(3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 5 2 N (4) 5 N
17. The time period of a SHM is 6 s and amplitude is
23. Natural length of a spring is 30 cm and its spring
6 cm. The displacement from mean position at a
constant is 3000 N m–1. A mass of 10 kg is slowly
time 8 s after the particle passing through its right
hung from it. The time period of oscillation of this
extreme position is
system is
(1) – 2 cm (2) 3 cm
π π
(3) – 3 cm (4) – 4 cm (1) s (2) s
5 5 3
18. In SHM, projection of uniform circular motion of a
π π
uniformly revolving particle on a circle, having (3) s (4) s
10 3 2
sense of rotation clockwise can be given by
 π 24. A light spring supports a 500 gram weight at its
relation
= x 2 sin  2t +  where x is in cm and t
 3 lower end. It oscillates up and down with a period
in second. The initial phase (in rad) and time of 4 s. How much weight must be removed from
period of revolution of particle will be lower end of spring to reduce period to 2 s?

π π (1) 275 gm
(1) ,πs (2) , 2π s
3 3 (2) 325 gm
π π (3) 375 gm
(3) – , 2π s (4) – ,πs
3 3 (4) 125 gm

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Test-5 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

25. For a simple harmonic oscillator, potential energy (1) Wavelength of wave is 1 m
is equal to kinetic energy (2) Velocity of propagation is 20 m s–1
(1) Once during each cycle (3) Wave frequency is 5 Hz
(2) Twice during half cycle (4) Wave frequency is 10 Hz
(3) When x = A (amplitude)
32. A simple harmonic progressive wave is
(4) At each moment of time represented by an equation y = 8 sin 2π(0.1 x –
26. A small mass body attached to one end of a 2t) where x and y are in cm and t in second. At
spring oscillates horizontally with SHM, with any instant phase difference between two
1 particles separated by 1 cm along x-direction is
frequency of (Hz) and total energy of 40 J. If
2π (1) 36° (2) 45°
maximum speed is 0.8 m s–1, force constant of
(3) 72° (4) 90°
the spring is
33. In a standing wave, all the particles of medium
(1) 250 N m–1
(2) 500 N m–1 (1) Have zero displacement simultaneously at
some instant
(3) 125 N m–1
(2) Are at rest simultaneously at some instant
(4) 1000 N m–1
(3) Have maximum displacement simultaneously
27. For a simple pendulum, graph between time
at some instant
period and square root of its length will be
(4) All of these
(1) A straight line (2) A parabola
34. A wire having a linear density of 0.1 kg/m is kept
(3) A circle (4) A hyperbola
under a tension of 490 N. It is observed that it
28. For a damped oscillator the mass of the block is
resonates at a frequency of 400 Hz. The next
200 g. Spring constant is 90 N m–1 and damping
higher frequency is 450 Hz. Find the length of
constant is 40 g s–1. The period of oscillation is
wire
approximately
(1) 0.4 m (2) 0.7 m
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.4 s
(3) 1.2 m (4) 1.3 m
(3) 0.5 s (4) 0.9 s
35. Three coherent sound waves have amplitudes of
29. The potential of a particle of mass 10 g placed in
a potential field is given by V = (50x2 + 10) erg/g. 12 mm, 6 mm and 4 mm arrive at a given point
The frequency of oscillation is π
with successive phase difference of . The
2
2 –1 3 –1
(1) s (2) s amplitude of resultant wave is
π π
(1) 7 mm (2) 10 mm
5 –1 6 –1
(3) s (4) s (3) 4.8 mm (4) 14 mm
π π
30. Transverse waves are not possible inside fluids 36. The speed of sound in hydrogen gas at 27°C is
because (1) 1520 m s–1 (2) 1670 m s–1
(1) Fluids have low density (3) 1320 m s–1 (4) 1830 m s–1
(2) Fluids yield to shear forces 37. Third overtone of a closed organ pipe is in unison
(3) Fluids have infinite shear modulus with fourth harmonic of an open organ pipe. The
ratio of lengths of those pipes is
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct
31. A travelling waves passes a point of observation. 5 7
(1) (2)
At this point the time interval between successive 6 8
crests is 0.2 s and separation between adjacent 2 4
(3) (4)
crests is 2 m, then 3 7

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-5

38. The string of a violin emits a note of frequency

600 Hz at its correct tension. Now the string is bit
taut and produces 5 beats per second with a
tuning fork of frequency 600 Hz. What is (2)
frequency of note emitted by this taut string?
(1) 605 Hz (2) 600 Hz
(3) 610 Hz (4) 595 Hz
39. A car is approaching a crossing at a speed of
20 m/s, sounds a horn of frequency 500 Hz when
80 m from crossing. Speed of sound in air is (3)
330 m s–1. What frequency is heard by an
observer 60 m from the crossing on straight road
which crosses the road at right angles as in the
figure.

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(1) 505 Hz (2) 510 Hz 43. A sound wave travels with velocity of 300 m s–1.
(3) 525 Hz (4) 550 Hz through a gas. 9 beats are produced in 3 s, when
40. A window whose area is 2 m2 opens on a street two waves pass through it simultaneously. If one
of wave has 2 m wavelength, the wavelength of
where the street noise results at the window an
other wave may be
intensity level of 60 dB. What is the intensity of
sound wave that enters through the window? (1) 2.04 m (2) 1.24 m

(1) 4 µW m–2 (3) 1.68 m (4) 1.32 m

44. A pulse of wave trains travels along a stretched
(2) 1 µW m–2
string and reaches fixed end of the string. It will
(3) 6 µW m–2 be reflected back with
(4) 12 µW m–2 (1) A phase change of 180° with velocity
41. When sound wave travels from water to air, it reversed
(1) Bends towards the normal (2) Same phase as the incident pulse with no
reversal of velocity
(2) Bends away from the normal
(3) A phase change of 180° with no reversal of
(3) May not emerge out
velocity
(4) May bend in any direction
(4) Same phase as the incident pulse but with
42. Which of the following graphs is correct? reverse velocity
45. A string of mass 2.5 kg is under a tension of 200
N. The length of string is 20 m. If the transverse
jerk is struck at one end of the string, the
(1) disturbance will reach other end in
(1) 1 s (2) 0.5 s
(3) 2 s (4) 2.5 s

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Test-5 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

CHEMISTRY

46. The most stable carbocation among the following 51. The IUPAC name of the given compound is
is
⊕ ⊕
(1) (CH3 )3 C (2) Ph – CH2
⊕ ⊕
(3) CH2 = CH – CH2 (4) CH2 = CH

47. The compound(s) which show(s) keto-enol (1) 4-Methyl-5-chloro-nitrobenzene

tautomerism is/are (2) 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
(3) 3-Chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
(4) 6-Chloro-4-nitrotoluene
52. Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-
trans isomerism?
I II III
(1)
(1) I only (2) II and III only
(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III (2) CH3CH = C(CH3)2
48. During estimation of nitrogen present in an (3) PhCH2 – CH = CH2
organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the (4) Ph – CH = CH – Ph
ammonia evolved from 0.2 g of the compound 53. The general molecular formula, which represents
was neutralized by 5 mL of 1 M H2SO4. The the homologous series of alkanone is
percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
(1) CnH2n+2O (2) CnH2nO
(1) 90% (2) 55%
(3) CnH2n–2O (4) CnH2n+1O
(3) 70% (4) 62%
O O
49. Select the incorrect statement. || ||
(1) Electrophiles attack at high electron density 54. CH3 – CH2 – C– OH and CH3 – C– O – CH3 are
sites (1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomers
(2) Electrophiles are Lewis bases (3) Functional isomers (4) Metamers
(3) Generally electrophiles are electron deficient 55. In the given compound, the hybridization of
species C1, C3, C4 and C6 respectively are
(4) SO3 is an example of electrophile
50. Consider the given compounds

(CH3 )2 C = C(CH3 )2 (1) sp3, sp, sp2, sp

I (2) sp3, sp, sp, sp3
(CH3 )2 C = CHCH3 (3) sp3, sp, sp2, sp2
III (4) sp2, sp, sp2, sp3
The magnitude of enthalpy of hydrogenation of 56. Species which has the highest –I effect among
these compounds will be in the order the following is

(1) II > I > III (2) I > III > II (1) – CN (2) – COOH

(3) III > I > II (4) II > III > I (3) – NO2 (4) – OH

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-5

57. Which of the following species is aromatic in 63. Heating sodium propanoate with sodalime gives
nature? (1) Hexane

(1) (2) (2) Ethane

(3) 2, 3-dimethylbutane
(4) Butane
(3) (4) 64. The product obtained on reaction of
58. In the reaction, with acetylene is

(1)

A is
(2)
(1)

(2) (3)

(4)
(3)
65. The compound which will not react with bromine
water is
(4)
(1)
59. Maximum number of structural isomers possible
for the molecular formula C4H8 is (2) PhCH2CH = CH2
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) CH3 – C ≡ CH
(3) 6 (4) 3
60. The compound which is least reactive towards (4)
Friedel-Crafts reaction is
66. The most stable conformer of ethane –1,2-diol is
(1) Ethylbenzene (2) Chlorobenzene
(1) Fully eclipsed form
(3) Nitrobenzene (4) Benzene
(2) Gauche form
X
61. But-2-yne → cis-But-2-ene (3) Antiform
The reagent (X) used in the above reaction is (4) Partially eclipsed form
(1) Na/C2H5OH 67. Identify the major product formed in the following
reaction
(2) Na/Liquid NH3
(3) LiAlH4
(4) H2/Pd/C (Lindlar’s catalyst)
62. The correct order of stability of the following
canonical forms is

(1) (2)

(1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I

(3) (4)
(3) II > I > III (4) I > III > II

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Test-5 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

68. The products obtained on reductive ozonolysis of 75. Consider the following reaction,
CH3 − C = C = CH − CH3 are Hg2+ /H O+
| Ph – C ≡ C – CH3 
3
→ A (Major) .
CH3
Identify A.
(1) CH3CHO + CO2 + CH3CH2OH
OH
(2) CH3 – CO – CH2CH3 + CH3 – CH2OH |
(3) CH3 – CO – CH3 + CH3CHO + CO2 (1) Ph – CH2 – CH – CH3

(4) CH3 – CO – CH3 + CH3CHO + HCHO

O
69. The technique used to separate chloroform and ||
aniline is (2) Ph – C – CH2 – CH3

(1) Distillation (2) Crystallisation OH

I
(3) Chromatography (4) Steam distillation
(3) Ph – CH – CH2 – CH3
70. On reaction of sodium nitroprusside with sodium
fusion extract, violet colour appears. It indicates CH3
the presence of which element in the sample? |
(4) Ph – C – OH
(1) S (2) N |
(3) Br (4) P CH3
71. ‘Blue baby syndrome’ is caused by the excess of
76. Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen is negative for which
(1) Lead in drinking water of the following compounds?
(2) Nitrates in drinking water
(1) Hydrazine
(3) Sulphates in drinking water
(2) Amide
(4) PAN in the atmosphere
(3) Urea
72. n-Hexane on heating to 773 K at 10–20 atm
pressure in presence of vanadium pentaoxide (4) Ethylamine
forms 77. During sulphonation of benzene, the electrophile
CH3 CH3 is
I I (1) H2SO4
(1) CH3 − CH − CH − CH3
(2) SO2
(2) (3) HSO−4

(3) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 (4) SO3

78. Maximum prescribed concentration of Fe in
(4) drinking water is

73. The alkene which gives only one product on (1) 0.2 ppm
reaction with HBr is (2) 0.02 ppm
(1) 2, 3-dimethylbut-2-ene (3) 5 ppm
(2) Pent-2-ene (4) 0.5 ppm
(3) 2-methylbut-2-ene 79. Normally, the pH of rain water is
(4) Hex-2-ene (1) 4.2
74. Which of the following species adds in the first
(2) 6.3
step during the addition of propene with ICl?
(3) 5.6
(1) Cl+ (2) I+
(4) 7.2
(3) Cl– (4) I–

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-5

80. Which of the following is not a green house gas? 86. The number of σ and π bonds in phenanthrene
(1) Nitrous oxide molecule respectively are
(2) Methane (1) 24, 5
(3) Ozone (2) 28, 7
(4) Sulphur dioxide (3) 19, 5
81. Identify the incorrect statement. (4) 26, 7
(1) Ozone layer prevents the sun’s harmful (UV) 87. For which of the following compounds, Kjeldahl’s
radiation from reaching the earth’s surface method is not applicable?
(2) The atmosphere that surrounds the earth has (1) Azobenzene
the same thickness at all heights
(2) Nitrobenzene
(3) Dinitrogen and dioxygen are the main
(3) Pyridine
constituents of air
(4) All of these
(4) SO2 is poisonous to both animals and plants
88. Which one of the following is a nucleophilic
82. Correct order of boiling point for the given
substitution reaction?
alkanes is

(1)
(1)
(2)

(3)
(2)
(4)
83. The major contributor(s) of acid rain is/are
(1) SO2 (2) NO2
(3) CO (4) Both (1) and (2) (3)
84. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
photochemical smog?
(1) It occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate
(4)
(2) Its main components results from the action
of sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbons and
nitrogen oxides 89. The alkane which on monochlorination gives
maximum number of products (structural isomers)
(3) It is called as reducing smog
is
(4) All of these
(1) 2-2-dimethylpropane
85. Consider the following reactions,
(2) 2-methylpropane
Red hot iron tube
CaC2 + 2H2O → A B. (3) 2-methylbutane
873 K
A and B respectively are (4) Pentane
90. Which of the following is a pesticide?

(1) (2) (1) Sodium chlorate

(2) Dieldrin
(3) Sodium Arsinite
(3) (4) (4) Potassium permanganate

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Test-5 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

BOTANY
91. Which of the following statements is not correct 97. In which of the following conversions, there is
with reference to respiration in plants? change in carbon number from reactant to
(1) Plants like animals have special systems for product?
gaseous exchange (1) Conversion of PEP to pyruvic acid
(2) Stomata, barks and lenticels are meant for (2) Conversion of citric acid to oxalosuccinic acid
gas exchange (3) Conversion of acetaldehyde to ethyl alcohol
(3) Gaseous exchange in plants is by diffusion (4) Conversion of α-ketoglutaric acid to succinic
(4) All living cells in plant have their surfaces acid
exposed to air 98. The aerobic respiration differs from fermentation,
92. Which of the following is the favoured substrate as the former process
for respiration? (1) Accounts only for a partial breakdown of
(1) Organic acids glucose

(2) Glucose (2) Has a net gain of 2 ATP from a glucose

molecule
(3) Fats
(3) Oxidised NADH to NAD+ vigorously
(4) Proteins
(4) Involves conversion of 3-phosphoglyceric
93. How many molecules of CO2 are evolved when acid to 2-phosphoglyceric acid
two molecules of tripalmitin are used as
99. When glucose is used as respiratory substrate
respiratory substrate to measure the RQ value?
the efficiency of aerobic respiration comes out as
(1) 145 molecules (2) 45 molecules
(1) 95%
(3) 102 molecules (4) 6 molecules (2) 75%
94. Identify the cycle operating in the matrix of the (3) 45%
mitochondria.
(4) 25%
(1) Glycolysis
100. EMP pathway and C3 pathway occurs
(2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle respectively in
(3) Calvin cycle (1) Mitochondrial matrix and cytoplasm
(4) Hatch-Slack cycle (2) Cytoplasm and chloroplast stroma
95. Which of the following is pair of interconvertible (3) Cytoplasm and mitochondrial matrix
triose phosphates? (4) Chloroplast stroma and cytoplasm
(1) DHAP – PGAL 101. The reactions catalysed by pyruvic
(2) PGAL – PGA dehydrogenase require the participation of
several co-enzymes like
(3) PGAL – Pyruvic acid
(1) ATP and GTP
(4) Pyruvic acid – Acetyl CoA
(2) NAD+ and Co-enzyme A
96. Which process provides raw material for
(3) Mg+2 and FADH2
oxidation of food?
(4) Co-enzyme A and NADP+
(1) Respiration
102. What is the net ATP gained when 4 molecules of
(2) Photorespiration lactic acid are formed from glucose molecules?
(3) Photosynthesis (1) 38 (2) 36
(4) Transpiration (3) 4 (4) 8

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-5

103. There are ' A' major way(s) in which different 110. Which of the following characteristics is correct
cells handle pyruvic acid produced by glycolysis. for calcium?
‘A’ represents. (1) It is relatively immobile
(1) Three (2) Two (2) It is transported out of the mature organs
(3) One (4) Six (3) Deficiency symptoms of calcium tend to
104. Which of the following statements is wrong for appear first in senescent organs
both lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation? (4) It is a trace element
(1) Not much energy is released 111. Which of the given is a free living anaerobic
(2) Processes are hazardous nitrogen fixer?
(3) NADH + H+ is oxidised to NAD+ (1) Beijerinckia (2) Rhodospirillum
(4) More than 50% percent of energy in glucose (3) Azotobacter (4) Frankia
is released 112. Both Rhizobium and Frankia are
105. The deficiency symptoms of N, Mg and K are first (1) Symbionts in leguminous plants
visible in the senescent leaves because
(2) Parasites on roots of leguminous plants
(1) They are immobile elements
(3) Free living but can fix atmospheric nitrogen
(2) They are mobile elements as symbionts
(3) They are critical elements (4) Chemoautotrophs
(4) They are micronutrients
113. Which of the following statements is correct?
106. CO2 is not released during which of the given
(1) Purple and green sulphur bacteria show
processes?
oxygenic photosynthesis
(1) Alcoholic fermentation
(2) Sucrose is a six carbon sugar
(2) Link reaction
(3) In bacterial photosynthesis, the electron
(3) Glycolysis donor is H2S
(4) Krebs cycle (4) The O2 evolved during photosynthesis
107. Read the statements A and B and choose the process comes from H2S in green plants
correct option. 114. “Glucose is usually stored as starch in plants.” It
A : Uptake of various mineral ions into the was first established by
symplast of the cells involves active (1) Van Niel
transport.
(2) Julius Von Sachs
B : Some minerals are absorbed passively also.
(3) Engelmann
(1) A and B both are correct
(4) Priestley
(2) A and B both are incorrect
115. The stromal lamella of chloroplast connects
(3) Only A is correct
(1) Two adjoining grana
(4) Only B is correct
(2) Two adjoining starch granules
108. Which essential element is absorbed in anionic
form? (3) Granum with inner membrane

(1) Boron (2) Copper (4) Lipid droplet with starch granule

(3) Zinc (4) Molybdenum 116. PS II and PS I have absorption maxima at

109. The manganese activates the enzymes involved (1) 600 nm and 700 nm respectively
in all of the given processes, except (2) 700 nm and 680 nm respectively
(1) Photosynthesis (2) Respiration (3) 700 nm and 600 nm respectively
(3) Nitrogen metabolism (4) Pollen germination (4) 680 nm and 700 nm respectively

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Test-5 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021
117. 8 molecules of water split into 123. The first C4-acid formed in the mesophyll cells of
(1) 2H+, O2 and 4e– C4-plant is

(2) 4H+, O2 and 8e– (1) Oxaloacetic acid

(3) 8H+, 2O2 and 8e– (2) Malic acid

(3) α-Ketoglutaric acid
(4) 16H+, 4O2 and 16e–
(4) Aspartic acid
118. By using radioactive 14C, Melvin Calvin
discovered that the first CO2 fixation product was 124. Regeneration of RuBP is crucial for continuity of
a CO2 fixation. Regeneration of 6 molecules of
RuBP requires
(1) 5-carbon compound
(1) 18 ATP (2) 12 ATP
(2) 6-carbon compound
(3) 6 ATP (4) 24 ATP
(3) 3-carbon organic acid
125. How many ATP and NADPH are required in
(4) 5-carbon keto sugar Sorghum, for fixation of 18 molecules of CO2?
119. In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO2 (1) 90 ATP and 12 NADPH
acceptor is (2) 36 NADPH and 90 ATP
(1) 5-carbon keto sugar (3) 90 NADPH and 36 ATP
(2) 5-carbon organic acid (4) 30 ATP and 12 NADPH
(3) 4-carbon organic acid 126. At higher CO2 concentration, the increased rates
(4) 3-carbon organic acid of photosynthesis leading to higher productivity
has been used for greenhouse crops such as
120. Chemiosmosis requires
tomatoes and bell pepper. The above result
(1) Only outer membrane of chloroplast and reflects that the tomato and bell pepper are
mitochondria (1) CAM plants (2) C3-plant
(2) Transmembrane channels of the CF1 of the (3) C4-plant (4) C2-plant
ATP synthase
127. Which of the following is wrong for reductive
(3) A proton gradient across the membrane amination?
(4) Positive hydrostatic pressure in xylem (1) It occurs in the presence of glutamate
121. Which of the following stages of the Calvin cycle dehydrogenase
involves utilisation of ATP and NADPH molecules (2) Ammonium ion directly combines with
both? α- ketoglutaric acid
(1) Carboxylation (2) Reduction (3) A oxidised coenzyme is required

(3) Decarboxylation (4) Regeneration (4) Water molecule is produced

122. The leaves of C4-plant differ from the 128. Which one of the following elements is not in the
list of essential elements, but beneficial in some
C3-plant in having
plants?
(1) Small cells around the vascular bundle called
(1) Zinc (2) Molybdenum
bundle sheath cells
(3) Boron (4) Sodium
(2) Single layer of bundle sheath cells with large
129. Moll’s half leaf experiment showed that the
intercellular spaces present around the
vascular bundle (1) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis

(3) Large intercellular space present between the (2) Light is essential for photosynthesis
bundle sheath cells (3) Starch is first visible product of
photosynthesis
(4) Large number of agranal chloroplasts in
wreath cells (4) O2 is evolved during light reaction

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-5

130. How many complexes are involved in (3) Bacillus and Spirillum
mitochondrial ETS? (4) Pseudomonas and Nitrobacter
(1) Zero (2) Two
134. More than 13 percent of alcohol in a beverage is
(3) Three (4) Four achieved through
131. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is
(1) Purification of alcohol
catalysed by
(2) Fermentation by Saccharomyces
(1) Enolase (2) Hexokinase
(3) Pyruvate kinase (4) PFK (3) Distillation of ethyl alcohol
132. Choose the incorrect match (4) Bacterial fermentation
(1) Leghaemoglobin – Oxygen scavenger 135. The following are the significance of hydroponics,
(2) Nitrogenase – Manganese and iron except
(3) Nostoc – Heterocyst (1) Commercial production of lettuce and tomato
(4) Auxin – Zinc (2) It controls soil-borne pathogens
133. Denitrification is carried by which of the given pair
(3) Identifying the deficiency symptom of an
of bacteria?
essential element
(1) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus
(4) It is very cost effective technique for high
(2) Nitrosomonas and Anabaena
yield

ZOOLOGY
136. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) and 138. Compare to visceral muscle fibres the skeletal
choose the correct option. muscle fibres
(i) Cilia help in locomotion in Paramecium
(1) Assist in the transport of food through the
(ii) Hydra uses tentacles for capturing of prey
digestive tract by peristalsis
and also for locomotion
(iii) Female reproductive tract in humans exhibit (2) Involved in locomotory actions and changes
flagellar movement to propel the ovum of body postures
(iv) Macrophages and leucocytes of humans are (3) Striated in appearance and involuntary in
specialised cells that exhibit amoeboid
nature
movement by forming pseudopodia
i ii iii iv (4) Are located in the inner walls of hollow
(1) T T F F visceral organs of the body
(2) T F T F 139. Read the following statements carefully w.r.t.
(3) T T F T skeletal muscle and choose the correct answer.
(4) T T T F A : Each fascicle consist of numerous muscle
137. Which of the following statements is incorrect fibres
w.r.t. cardiac muscle fibres?
B : All fascicles of a muscle are held together by
(1) Exclusively present in myocardium of heart
fascia
(2) Striated in appearance
(3) They are involuntary in nature as the nervous (1) Both statements are correct
system does not control their activities (2) Both statements are incorrect
directly
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Their cells never assemble in a branching
pattern (4) Only statement B is correct

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Test-5 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021
140. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. A band 146. A paired structure present in a bone of human
(1) It appears dark skull forms condyloid joint with bone of vertebral
column. The structure is
(2) Its middle part contains H zone which consist
of only thin filaments (1) Hyoid bone

(3) It consists of both actin and myosin filaments (2) Occipital condyle
and actin filament overlap the myosin (3) Odontoid peg
filaments on either edges (4) Vertebra prominens
(4) Its length remain same during muscle 147. Which of the following is a large triangular flat
contraction bone of appendicular skeleton present between
141. For muscle contraction, ATPase activity is the second and the seventh ribs?
present in (1) Humerus (2) Scapula
(1) LMM (2) HMM (3) Clavicle (4) Pubis
(3) Tail of meromyosin (4) G-actin 148. Choose the correct statement.
142. Choose the option with all incorrect events (1) Thoracic vertebrae and ribs together with
occurring during muscle contraction. sternum form rib cage
A. Size of sarcomere – Decreases (2) Last 2 pairs of ribs (11th and 12th) called
gradually and vertebrochondral ribs
ultimately become (3) All ribs articulate with sternum either directly
less than size of the or indirectly
dark band (4) Sternum articulates with all bones of pectoral
B. Size of I band – Increases gradually girdle
C. Size of H zone – Remains same as 149. How many structures from given below in the box
that of dark band are included in girdles of appendicular skeleton?
(1) Only A and B (2) Only B and C
Coxal bone, Ileum, Sacrum, Femur, Clavicle,
(3) Only C (4) A, B and C Patella, Tibia
143. Red muscle fibres
(1) Two
(1) Contain less quantity of myoglobin
(2) Three
(2) Possess high amount of sarcoplasmic
(3) Four
reticulum
(4) Five
(3) Only depend on anaerobic process for
energy 150. Which of the following joint is present between 1st
and 2nd vertebra of vertebral column?
(4) Can utilise the large amount of oxygen for
ATP production due to plenty of mitochondria (1) Ball and socket joint

144. Zygomatic bones are included in all except (2) Pivot joint

(1) Skull (3) Gliding joint

(2) Axial skeleton (4) Saddle joint

(3) Appendicular skeleton 151. The joints which allow considerable movements
and play a significant role in locomotion are
(4) Facial bones
(1) Ball and socket joint, joint between skull
145. In human skeleton, the number of limb bones are
bones
(1) 20 times to the number of girdle bones
(2) Hinge joint, ball and socket joint
(2) 60 times to number of ear ossicles
(3) Joint between adjacent vertebrae, saddle
(3) 30 times to number of cranial bones joint
(4) 2 times to number of bones of axial skeleton (4) Gliding joint, joint between skull bones

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-5

152. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. disorders of (1) (i) – b, (ii) – c, (iii) – a, (iv) – d
muscular/skeletal system. (2) (i) – b, (ii) – c, (iii) – d, (iv) – a
(1) Muscular dystrophy – Progressive (3) (i) – b, (ii) – a, (iii) – c, (iv) – d
degeneration of
(4) (i) – a, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – d
only visceral muscle
157. Which of the following primarily constitutes the
(2) Tetany – Occurs due to low
main framework of the trunk?
Ca+2 in body fluids
(3) Gout – Occurs due to (1) Skull (2) Vertebral column
disturbance of (3) Sternum (4) Ribs
metabolism of 158. Read the following statements.
purine
(i) Each middle ear contains ear ossicles
(4) Osteoporosis – Decreased levels of
(ii) Parietal and ethmoid both are paired bones
estrogen is a
of cranium
common cause in
females (iii) Our skeletal system consist of a framework of
bones and a few cartilages.
153. Select the correct set of bones which are present
only in lower limbs. Choose the option with only correct
statements.
(1) Tibia, radius (2) Humerus, tibia
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) Coxal bone, femur (4) Fibula, tarsals
154. All true ribs are attached to the thoracic (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
A
159. Ischium bone is a structural constituent of
vertebrae and B connected to the sternum
(1) Pectoral girdle (2) Coxal bone
with the help of hyaline cartilage.
Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks A (3) Axial skeleton (4) Lower limbs
and B respectively. 160. Select the bone of appendicular skeleton which
(1) Ventrally, Medially also articulates directly with axial skeleton

(2) Dorsally, Ventrally (1) Pubis (2) Sternum

(3) Laterally, Ventrally (3) Scapula (4) Clavicle

(4) Laterally, Dorsally 161. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. resting
membrane potential in a nerve cell?
155. The term bicephalic is applicable for
(1) More permeability of Na+ compare to K+ of
(1) Sternum (2) Ribs
axonal membrane
(3) Thoracic vertebrae (4) Sacrum
(2) Active transport of 3Na+ outwards for 2K+ into
156. Match the column I with column II and select the
the nerve cell by sodium – potassium pump
correct option.
(3) Polarised condition across the axonal
Column I Column II
membrane
(i) Ankle bones (a) Help in articulation
(4) All voltage gated channels present on axonal
of limbs with axial
membrane remain close
skeleton
162. Cerebral aqueduct is a structural constituent of
(ii) Neural canal (b) 14 in number
(1) Forebrain
(iii) Girdle bones (c) Central hollow
portion in each (2) Hindbrain
vertebra (3) Midbrain
(iv) Acromian process (d) Present in scapula (4) Medulla oblongata
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Test-5 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021
163. Choose the odd one w.r.t. limbic system.
(1) Amygdala (2) Hippocampus
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Cerebellum
164. Site for processing of hearing and speech is
present in
(1) Forebrain
(2) Midbrain
(3) Hindbrain
(4) PNS
165. Select the incorrect statement for efferent
neuron which participates in knee jerk reflex (1) X, S, T (2) P, Q, R
action.
(3) X, Q, R (4) E, Q, F
(1) Emerges from white matter of spinal cord
171. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human
(2) Makes synapse directly with afferent neuron brain.
(3) Ends at motor end plate of effector (1) Centres for respiration control, cardiovascular
(4) Included in PNS reflex and gastric secretions are present in
hindbrain
166. In cerebral hemispheres,
(2) Corpus callosum is a band of white nerve
(1) Grey matter surrounds the white matter fibres exclusively present in forebrain
(2) White matter surrounds the grey matter between cerebral hemispheres
(3) Prominent folds are present in white matter (3) Association areas of cerebral cortex is
responsible for complex functions like
(4) Two ventricles are found in each hemisphere
memory and communications
167. In each middle ear of mammals, the ear ossicle
(4) Hypothalamus controls body temperature,
stapes is found attached with urge of eating and also it is a major
(1) Round window of the vestibule coordination centre for sensory and motor
(2) Oval window of the cochlea signaling

(3) Tympanic membrane 172. Which of the following is exclusive for PNS?
(1) Nodes of Ranvier
(4) Temporal bone of skull
(2) Schwann cells
168. Cochlea of human’s ear contains Reissner’s
membrane, forms the boundary between (3) Myelinated nerve fibres
(4) Multipolar neuron
(1) Scala vestibuli and scala media
173. In visceral neural system, impulses travel
(2) Scala media and scala tympani
(1) Only from CNS to viscera
(3) Scala vestibuli and macula
(2) Only from viscera to CNS
(4) Crista ampullaris and macula
(3) From CNS to viscera and vice versa
169. Which among these is not a sensory structure?
(4) From CNS to skeletal muscles
(1) Crista
174. Parasympathetic nervous system influences all
(2) Arachnoid except
(3) Macula (1) Secretion of digestive juices
(4) Retina (2) Secretion of adrenal cortex
170. Identify the figure below given and select the (3) Secretion of saliva
labelled structures present in brain stem. (4) Rate of heart beat
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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-5

175. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. differences 177. Scotopic vision is the function of A which are
between fovea centralis and blind spot of retina of not present at B in retina, where optic nerves
human eye?
leave the eye ball.
Fovea Blind
Here A and B are
centralis spot
A B
(1) Location Lateral to Medial to
(1) Rods Fovea centralis
the blind and
spot, at the slightly (2) Rods Blind spots
posterior above the (3) Cone Fovea centralis
pole of the posterior (4) Cone Blind spots
eye pole of
178. Vitreous chamber is filled with a
the eye
ball (1) Aqueous humor
(2) Thin watery fluid
(2) Visual activity Low High
(3) Transparent gel
(3) Photoreceptor Both rods Only rods
(4) Saline solution
cells and cones
contained 179. Read the following statements w.r.t. pupil and
select the incorrect statement.
(4) Function Vision in Vision in
poor light bright (1) It is an aperture present in front of the lens
light (2) It is surrounded by the Iris

176. Crista ampullaris that acts as sensory receptor for (3) Its diameter is regulated by the muscle fibres
sensing the change in the position of head arises of ciliary body
from (4) Light rays enter into eye though it
(1) Ampulla of semi-circular canals 180. Select the structure present in bipolar neuron but
(2) Macula not in unipolar neuron
(3) Saccule and utricle (1) Cell body (2) Axon
(4) Organ of Corti (3) Dendrites (4) Soma

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