ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. A polygraph or "lie detector" is often used to test an individual's guilt in a

crime by measuring
(A) Brain waves and heart rate.
(B) Heart rate, respiration and galvanic skin response.
(C) Heart rate, brain wave and eye movement.
(D) The voice, heart rate and brain wave.
(E) The tone and pitch of the voice.
2. An important component of paranoia usually include the following EXCEPT
(A)An organized delusional system with jealous content.
(B) The presence of auditory hallucinations.
(C)The experiencing doubt and suspicion of people's intentions
(D)The persistently bears grudges.
(E) Perceives gestures as an attack against him or her without sufficient basis.
3. A parent is trying to teach her child how to properly close the door so that it
will not disturb other members of the family when passing. It is a technique
used in
(A) Behaviour therapy.
(B) Logotherapy.
(C)Client-centered therapy.
(D) Psychoanalysis.
(E) Rational-emotive therapy.
4. The arousal theory, stating that emotion precedes overt behaviour and
Consists mainly oh general state of arousal or activation, is called the
(A) Cannon-Bard Theory.
(B) James-Lange theory.
(C)General-adaptation theory.
(D)Premack principle.
(E) Schachter theory.
5. German psychiatrist Emil Kraepelin (1856-1926) first distinguished between
depressive illness and____________, or what was later called schizophrenia.
(A)Dementia praecox
(B) Obsessive compulsive disorder
(C) Paranoia
(D)Multiple personality disorder
(E) Delusion
6. Areas of the brain that are damaged are referred to as having
(A) brain lesions
(B) hemispheres
(C) brain lobes
(D) cortical adhesions
(E) corpus collosum
7. In an emergency, the adrenal glands of the body secrete "emergency"
hormones, while the body prepares for fight or flight, directed by
(A) the central-nervous system
(B) the somatic nervous system
(C) the sensorimotor nervous system
(D) the sympathetic nervous system
(E) the parasympathetic nervous system
8. Lani visited the campus mental health center because of her increasing
feelings of guilt and anxiety
(A) presenting problem
(B) prevalence
(C) incidence
(D) prognosis
(E) etiology
9. Students diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) are
four to nine times more likely to be
(A) females than males
(B) males than females
(C) Children than adults
(D) Asian children than American children
(E) Urban area children than rural area children
10. A psychotic reaction where there is a disturbance in affect; the mood of the
individual may swing between hyperactivity to hypoactivity is called
(A) Manic-depressive reaction
(B) Paranoid reaction
(C) Schizo-affective disorder
(D) Schizophrenic reaction
(E) Mania
11. The most frequent type of schizophrenic disorder admitted to the hospital
is
(A) Catatonic
(B) Paranoid
(C) Delusional
(D) Schizo-affective
(E) Schizotypal
12. A psychoneurosis characterized by the presence of one or more
unexplained, severe or unrealistic fears is called
(A) Conversion reaction
(B) Dissociative reaction
(C) Phobic reaction
(D) Hypervigilance
(E) Paranoia
13. Which symptom is basic in to every type of psychoneurosis?
(A) Hysteria
(B) Amnesia
(C) Depression
(D) Anxiety
(E) Paranoia
14. Suicide may include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Common in adolescents
(B) Common to patients with terminally ill diseases
(C) May not be prevented
(D) may require Immediate hospitalization
(E) May be prevented
15. In Kubler-Ross Stages of Dying, what stage will the being e patient
experience diagnosed with a terminal illness?
(A) Depression
(B) Denial
(C) Acceptance
(D) Anger
(E) Bargaining
16. All of the following are characteristics of Anti-Social Personality Disorder
EXCEPT:
(A) Obsessed with success and power
(B) Blames people for their actions
(C) Disregard the rights of others
(D) Destroys properties
(E) Need for attention
17. The term used to describe a condition in which a person has abnormal fear
of heights
(A) Acrophobia
(B) Agoraphobia
(C) Hemophobia
(D) Arachnophobia
(E) Xenophobia
18. Which of the following best explains why people tend to stay in a slightly
elevated state of arousal after a life-threatening event?
(A) Their neurons remain in a state of graded potentiality even after they have fired.
(B) Their neurons continue to keep the body in an alert state.
(C) Their adrenal glands continue to secrete epinephrine even after the crisis is over.
(D)) Their Parasympathetic nervous system remains in a state of fight or flight.
(E) Their bloodstream continues to contain elevated levels of adrenaline.
19. Stimulation of norepinephrine receptors appears to produce.
(A) euphoria
(B) increased motor activity
(C) alertness
(D) anxiety
(E) decreased attention
20. All of the following conditions are considered acceptable regarding the use
of deception in study EXCEPT
(A) the research is of great importance and cannot be conducted without the use of
deception
(B) participants are expected to find the procedures reasonable upon being informed
of them
(C) participants must be allowed to withdraw from the experiment at any time
(D) the research must be conducted as a double-blind study
(E) experimenters must debrief the participants after the study is concluded.
21. Which of the following statements most accurately explains the purpose of
repression?
(A) It allows individuals to indirectly express their anger toward others.
(B) It encourage clients to shift difficult feelings about loved ones onto their therapist.
(C) It is a means of unconsciously dealing with thoughts that are very anxiety
provoking.
(D) It allows individuals to explain away acts in avoid uncomfortable feelings.
(E) It is an unconscious model that allows people to describe the way things work.
22. If genetic factors play an important role in the development of intelligence
as measured h an IQ test, then which of the following statements is most likely
to be true?
(A)The IQ scores of parents and their offspring will be more nearly alike than the IQ
scores of fraternal twins.
(B) The IQ scores of siblings reared together will be more nearly alike than the IQ
scores identical twins.
(C)The IQ scores of fraternal twins reared together will be more nearly alike than the
IQ scores of identical twins reared apart.
(D)The IQ scores of fraternal twins will be equivalent in similarity to the IQ scores of
identical twins.
(E) The IQ scores of identical twins reared apart will be more nearly alike than the IQ
scores of fraternal twins reared together.
23. According to Jellinek (1952), the prodromal phase of alcoholism is marked
by
(A) Heavy social drinking
(B) Drinking to relieve tension
(C) Blackouts
(D) Smoking
(E) Binge eating
24, With Barbituarate and Benzodiazepine Abuse and Dependency, sedative
intoxication is
generally associated with
(A) slurred speech
(B) uncoordinated motor movements
(C) impairment in attention and memory
(D) increased vigilance
(E) A, B, and C
25. Mixing alcohol with other drugs can have an___________ effect, meaning
that the effect of the two drugs taken together is greater than the effect of
either substance alone.
(A) mediating
(B) moderating
(C) potentiating
(D) limiting
(E) Increasing
26. Which drug was once believed to provide insight into the symptoms of
schizophrenia?
(A) Cannabis
(B) Cocaine
(C) LSD
(D) Caffeine
(E) Alcohol
27. In OCD, one of the most dysfunctional beliefs has been defined as an
inflated sense of responsibility. This is
(A) an inability to take responsibility for one's actions
(B) delusion of grandeur
(C) the belief that one has power which is pivotal to bring about or present
subjectively crucial negative outcomes
(D) increased sense of self importance
(E) delusion of persecution
28. Cognitive theorists refer to certain thinking error characteristic of
depressed individuals as cognitive______________.
(A) catastrophizing
(B) distortions
(C) leaps
(D) mistakes
(E) dissonance
29. NN hat is the difference between delirium and dementia?
(A) delirium is maybe due to medical condition.
(B) dementia can be observed through months and years.
(C) they can be both caused by infection.
(D) Only A and B.
(E) None of these.
30. Interpersonal therapists believe that depressive episodes are often
triggered by negative interpersonal events, which they classify into four types.
Which of the following is NOT one of these types?
(A) Grief
(B) Role transitions
(C) Divorce
(D) Inadequate social skills
(E) Gangsterism
31. A involves a period of symptoms in which an individual experience an
unusually intense sad mood
(A) Depressive Disorder
(B) Cyclothyrnic Disorder
(C) Gender Dysphoria
(D) Dysphoria
(E) Persistent Depressive Disorder
32. The following are criteria for a Major Depressive Episode EXCEPT
(A) Depressed mood most of the day
(B) Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all or most daily activities
(C) Psychomotor agitation or retardation observable by others
(D) Hallucinations and Delusions
(E) Elevated mood
33. people with persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) have, for at
least________years (s), a more limited set of symptoms of those that occur
with major depressive disorder.
(A)1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
34. Symptoms that occur with major depressive disorder include the following
EXCEPT
(A) Sleep and appetite disturbances
(B)Low energy or fatigue
(C) High self-esteem
(D) Difficulty with concentration and decision making
(E) Loss of interest
35. The diagnosis of ________________is used for children who exhibit
chronic and severe irritability and have frequent temper outbursts that occur
on average, 'three or more times "leek over at least one year and in at least two
settings.
(A) Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
(B) Persistent Depressive Disorder
(C) Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
(D) Major Depressive Disorder
(E) Autism Spectrum Disorder
36. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder must have its onset before the age
of___________
(A)6
(B)11
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) 15
37. Women who experience depressed mood or changes in mood, irritability,
dysphoria. And anxiety during the premenstrual phase that subside after the
menstrual period I most of the cycles of the preceding year may be diagnosed
with _______________.
(A) Major Depressive Disorder
(B) Persistent Depressive Disorder
(C) Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder
(D) Gender Dysphoria
(E) Post-Partum Disorder
38. The authors of the DSM-5 included Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder
because
(A)they wanted women with symptoms of Premenstrual dysphoric disorder treatment
that might not otherwise be available to them
(B) they wanted to put a label on what women experience every mouth
(C) they wanted to pathologize normal monthly variations in mood that women may
experience
(D)j they wanted to Consider it a nondiagnosable condition
(E) they want to isolate Women before their menstruation for prevention
39. The following disorders involve alterations in mood except for
(A) Bipolar I Disorder
(B) Bipolar II Disorder
(C) Gender Dysphoria
(D) Cyclotymic Disorder
(E) Borderline Personality Disorder
40, A feeling state that is more cheerful and elevated that average is known as
a ___________ moods
(A) Dystonic
(B) Euphoric
(C) Anhedonic
(D) Anxious
(E) Hysteria
41, A Person who experiences a depressed mood for at least two weeks, is in
Clinically significant distress because of these symptoms, and is negative for
physiological effects of a substance or for another medical condition would be
diagnosed as having
(A) Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
(B) Major Depressive Disorder
(C) Persistent Depressive Disorder
(D) Premenstrual/Dysphoric Disorder
(E) Bipolar I
42. Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) is a consolidation of DSM-IV
defined____________ and _____________
(A) Substance/Medication-Induced Depressive Disorder and Major Depressive
Disorder
(B) Major Depressive Disorder and Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
(C) Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder and Depressive Disorder Due to Another
Medical Condition
(D) Chronic Major Depressive Disorder and Dysthymic Disorder
(E) Bipolar I and Bipolar II people experience more severe depressions and milder
periods of mania.
43. In____________, people experience more severe depressions and milder
periods of mania.
(A) Depression with atypical features
(B) Bipolar I disorder
(C) Bipolar II disorder
(D) Cyclothymic Disorder
(E) Persistent Depressive Disorder
44. Which of the following is false about the role of genetics in mood
disorders?
(A)Family history studies have found that the first-degree relatives of people with
bipolar disorder are 2-3 times more likely to have either bipolar or unipolar
depression
(B) Family history studies have found that the first-degree relatives of people with
unipolar depression are more likely than controls to have either bipolar or unipolar
depression
(C)Twin studies have yielded more equivocal results for unipolar depression that for
bipolar depression.
(D)Fewer than 10% of the first-degree relatives of people with bipolar disorder will
develop the disorder themselves.
(E) A depressed mother has 50% chances of having a depressed son than a
depressed daughter.
45. Which of the following statement is false about lithium?
(A) Lithium is more effective at reducing the symptoms of mania than the symptoms
of depression.
(B) Most people who take lithium only do so during (or just prior to) a manic episode
in order to prevent its side effects.
(C) There are enormous differences between the rates at which individuals absorb
lithium, which makes a proper dosage difficult to ascertain.
(D) Lithium is often administered in conjunction with antidepressants
(E) Lithium is effective in reducing hallucinations of those with Schizophrenia.
46. People with depression:
(A) Tend to have increased slow-wave sleep and move into rapid eye movement
sleep (REM) earlier in the night than non-depressed people
(B) Tend to have increased activity in the frontal cortex
(C) Have less REM sleep per night than nondepressed people
(D) Tend to have increased activity of the nondominant sphere
(E) Tend to have decreased activity of the nondominant sphere
47. The part of the neuroendocrine system found to be hyperactive in people
with depression is the
(A) Cerebral Cortex
(B) Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal Axis
(C) Cerebellum
(D) Dominant Brain Hemisphere
(E) Hippocampus
48. Which of the following is NOT true of persistent depressive disorder
(dysthymia)?
(A) To meet criteria, symptoms must persist for at least two years for adults.
(B) Depressed mood for most of the day for most days than not, as indicated by
subjective account or observation by others, for at least two years.
(C) There has been a manic episode or hypomanic episode, and criteria have been
met for cyclothymic disorder.
(D) To meet criteria symptoms must persist for at least 1 year for children.
(E) Low energy most of the days.
49. Mania is not recognized in the DSM-5 as a separate disorder because it
(A) is normal in conjunction with positive life events
(B) is an exciting and enjoyable experience
(C) is a less serious condition than hypomania
(D) almost never occurs without depressive episodes
(E) a way of coping for people with depressive episodes.
50. The main difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorder is
(A) the severity of the periods of mania
(B) interval between episodes of mania and depression
(C) severity of periods of depression
(D) level of medication necessary to treat the disorder
(E) the degree of withdrawal or involvement with other people
51. Person experiencing hypomanic episodes might not consider them
problematic because they
(A) end very quickly
(B) are associated with a rapid cycling pattern
(C) are rare and part of a mixed state
(D) mad be times of high productivity or creativity
(E) are associated with elevated mood and risky behavior
52. Before age 13, girls and boys are equally likely to have depression. During
adolescence, rates of depression climb for girls, possibly because of
(A) hormones
(B) self-consciousness about bodily changes during puberty
(C) victimization
(D) identity crisis
(E) all of the above
53. Passive suicidal ideation includes
(A) impulsive suicidal acts
(B) nonlethal attempts
(C) a wish to be dead
(D)) engaging in risky activities
(E) all of the above
54. Compared with completed suicides, suicide attempts are
(A) always preceded by a specific precipitating factor
(B) more likely in females than in males
(C) uncommon in adolescents
(D) less common in youth from a disadvantaged background
(E) more common to older persons
55. Stressful life events seem to lead to depression in some people but not in
others. A likely reason is that
(A) Stressful events in childhood do not lead to depression
(B) Some people have more genetic sensitivity to life stress
(C) Sow people erroneously report more stress than they actually experience
(D) Stress affects men far more seriously than women
(E) all of the above
56. In an interview with a psychologist, Nina says, “wala na akong ginawang
tama” such a statement is an example of
(A) learned helplessness
(B) major depression
(C) lack of positive reinforcement
(D) an automatic thought
(E) negative thought
57. One technique used in cognitive-behavioral therapy for depression is
asking patients to
(A) record their thoughts feelings, and behaviors
(B) recall any early childhood traumas
(C) examine role transitions in their life
(D) focus on communication analysis
(E) examine the feelings and emotions
58. In behavioral activation treatment for depression, the therapist and patient
(A) talk about a single behavior to be modified
(B) focus on uncontrollable activities that lead to helplessness
(C) participate in activating group therapy
(D) develop a comprehensive list of specific goals and activities in major life areas
(E) being aware of the consequences of every action or behavior
59. Second-generation antidepressants are often preferred over first-
generation drugs because
(A) their mechanism of action is better understood
(B) they have fewer troublesome side effects
(C) they are not associated with suicidal thinking
(D) they can be used without careful monitoring
(E) they are more effective in diminishing symptoms of depression
60. Electroconvulsive therapy (ETC) is most appropriate for patients who
(A) need to take large doses of antidepressants
(B) have depression with a known biological cause
(C) have a specific abnormality on one side of the brain
(D) are severely depressed and who have not responded to other treatments
(E) have hallucinations
61. Which of the following is not a biological treatment for mood disorders?
(A) electroconvulsive therapy
(B) transcranial magnetic stimulation
(C) deep brain stimulation
(D)) neuroimaging
(E) A and D
62. Genetic research on mood disorders has shown that__________.
(A)one's genetic make-up completely determines whether one will develop a mood
disorder
(B) there is a substantial genetic contribution to the development of mood disorders
(C) the genetic contribution to the development of mood disorders is nearly negligible
(D) the role of genetics in the development of mood disorders is insignificant
(E) all of the above
63. Cognitive theorists refer to certain thinking errors characteristic of
depressed individuals as cognitive
(A) catastrophizing
(B) distortions
(C) leaps
(D) mistakes
(E) all of the above
64. In addition to elevating mood, SSRIs appear to_______________.
(A) reduce sensitivity to interpersonal rejection
(B) increase sex drive
(C) dramatically curb psychotic symptoms
(D) decrease the risk of suicide
(E) improves sleep pattern
65. Which of the following cognitive distortions describes a person who
believes the worst is always going to happen?
(A) overgeneralizing
(B) excessive responsibility
(C) assuming temporal causality
(D) catastrophizing
(E) dissonance
66. Which of the following statements is true?
(A)The reformulated learned helplessness theory dropped the notion of causal
attributions and focused instead on perceived control.
(B) The negative cognitive triad refers to negative views of one's self. the world, and
one's childhood.
(C) Depressed people overestimate the amount of control they have over situations
that are actually uncontrollable.
(D)A pessimistic attributional style is one that is internal, stable, and global for
negative events.
(E) Internal attribution lead to fa u 1t conceptions about the self that also progress to
negative emotion.
67. _________________Symptoms of depression are common and include
fatigue and low energy, as well as Physical aches and pains.
(A) Physiological
(B) Cognitive
(C) Psychological
(D) Behavioral
(E) Social
68. All of the following are symptoms
(A) profound sadness
(B) physical aches and pains
(C) socially active
(D) thoughts of suicide
(E) loss of appetite
69. Mania involves
(A) boundless, frenzied energy
(B) feelings of euphoria
(C) ideas coming too fast and too many
(D) highly responsive
(E) all of the above
70. Panic disorder exhibit the following symptoms EXCEPT?
(A) chest pain or discomfort
(B) sweating
(C) chills or heat sensation
(D) crying
(E) paresthesias
71. Which of the following is a behavioral symptom exhibited by individuals
suffering from Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
(A) mind going blank
(B) irritability
(C) sleep disturbance
(D) muscle tension
(E) easily fatigued
72. Behavioral symptom of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) include
which of the following?
(A) avoidance of reminders
(B) inability to remember
(C) hypervigilance
(D) irritability
(E) becomes destructive
73. In Bipolar II Disorder, major depressive symptoms alternate with periods of
(A) Hallucination
(B) Hypomania
(C) Paranoia
(D) Mania
(E) Euphoria
74. In Major Depressive Disorder, which of the following is a significant
neurotransmitter!
(A) Serotonin
(B) Dopamine
(C) Monoamine
(D) Acetylcholine
(E) Glutamate
75. Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated specifically with
Bipolar Disorder ?
(A) Serotonin
(B) Norepinephrine
(C) Dopamine
(D) Acetylcholine
(E) Glutamate
76. Lower levels of activation in the Prefrontal Cortex results in
(A) failure to regulate emotions
(B) deficit in the will to change
(C) failure to anticipate incentives
(D) inability to understand the context of affective reactions
(E) hypersensitivity
77. In depression, deficits in the hippocampal function may result in
(A) deficit in the will to change
(B) failure to regulate emotions
(C) the individual dissociating affective responses from their relevant contexts
(D)) failure to anticipate incentives
(E) failure to remember significant events
78. The following are criteria for abnormality except
(A) clinical significance
(B) behavior reflects a dysfunction in psychological, biological or development
process
(C) behavior is associated with significant distress in important realms of life
(D) the individual's behavior is not considered socially "deviant" as defined terms of
religion, politics or sexuality
(F) failure to carry out everyday tasks
79. Which of the following would you regard as abnormal?
(A) finding a "lucky" seat during the midterms
(B) not wanting to eat solid food for days because you think you're too fat
(C) crying for three days after a loved one has passed away
(D) washing your hands right before you eat your meals
(E) building a shrine for your dead husband
80. A thyroid abnormality which causes a person's moods to fluctuate may be
considered as
(A) Biological cause
(B) Psychological cause
(C) Sociocultural cause
(D) Physical cause
(E) None of the above
81. Past experiences that affected your personality development may be
considered as
(A) Biological cause
(B) Psychological cause
(C) Sociocultural cause
(D) Physical cause
(F) None of the above
82. The following arc examples of sociocultural causes or abnormal behavior
except
(A) social policies
(B) discrimination
(C) stigma
(D) exposure to toxic substances
(E) inherited traits from your parents
83. The biopsychosocial perspective refers to
(A) the interaction in which biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors play a
role in the development of an individual's symptoms
(B) incorporates a developmental viewpoint
(C) interaction of factors which alter an individual's expression of behavior patterns
over time
(D) the interaction of nature and nurture
(E) all of the above
84. Under the DSM-5. the following are considered neurodevelopmental
disorders EXCEPT for
(A) autism spectrum disorders
(B) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
(C) specific learning disorder
(D) childhood Onset-Fluency Disorder
(E) functional neurological symptom disorder
85. Comorbidity is defined as
(A)the disorder closely aligned with the primary reason the individual is seeking
professional help
(B) alternative diagnoses
(C) situation that occurs when multiple diagnostic conditions occur simultaneously
within the same individual
(D) the nature of the client's symptoms
(E) differential diagnoses
86. Cultural formulation includes
(A) the clinician's assessment of the client's degree of identification with the culture
of origin
(B) the cultural beliefs about psychological disorders
(C) possible causes of the client's symptoms
(D) A and B
(E) B and C
87. The following are examples of modality of treatment except for
(A) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
(B) Family Therapy
(C) Individual Psychotherapy
(D) Group Therapy
(E) Existentialism
88. The following are the purposes served by the clinical interview except
(A) to allow clients to describe their symptoms
(B) to allow clients to give important background information on clients
(C) to enable the clinician to establish his or her background and credentials to
establish competence
(D) to enable clinicians to make observations of their clients that can guide decisions
about the next steps.
(E) to gather more information about the client
89. The mental status examination is
(A) objectively assess a client's behavior and functioning in a number of spheres
(B) a structured tool that clinicians use as a brief screening device to assess
dementia
(C) an in-depth test of potential cognitive impairments
(D) a tool which allows the clinician to get a better clinical picture based on
standardize scores
(E) all of the above
90. According to the Five Factor Model of McCrae and Costa, OCEAN stands
for
(A)Openness to experience, Conscientiousness, Extroversion, Agreeableness,
Neuroticism
(B) Openness to experience, Carefulness, Extravagance, Agreeableness,
Neuroticism
(C) Openness to experience, Calmness, Empathy, Angelic, Nebulous
(D) Openness to experience, Courageousness, Exhaustive, Ambivalent,
Nervousness
(E) Openness to experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness,
Neurotic/
91. Therapeutic milieu is
(A) the personality's seat of morality
(B) follows the pleasure principle which seeks immediate and total gratification of
sensual needs and desires
(C) includes the conscience and the aspirations of an individual
(D)gives the individual the cognitive powers of judgment, memory, perception, and
decision making
(E)the entire environment is set up so that every action, function, and encounter is
therapeutic
92. An insecurely attached adult
(A) protects himself or herself by remaining distant
(B) are able to relate with their close romantic partners IA whether or not their
partners will care about them
(C) feel that they cannot rely on their partner's love and support
(D) can easily maintain emotional balance
(E) can achieve sense of identity undue anxiety about
93. Key elements of psychodynamic therapy involve
(A) exploring the client's emotional experiences
(B) use of defense mechanisms
(C) close relationships with others
(D) identifying the significant figures
(E) all of the above
94. The token economy is considered an example of
(A) Dialectical Behavioral Therapy
(B) Behavioral Therapy
(C) Classical Conditioning
(D) Operant Conditioning
(E) Reward System

95. Neurodevelopmental disorders

(A) typically become evident early in children's development before they reach
school age
(B) deficits include impairments in personal, social, academic, or occupational
functioning
(C) may undergo maturational changes that alter the way their disorder manifests in
particular behaviors
(D) learning disabilities
(E) none of the above
96. Prevalence is the
(A) risk of acquiring a condition at some point in time
(B) ratio of people who acquire a disorder during a year's time
(C) proportion of a population that has a condition at any given moment in time
(D) rate of first admissions to a hospital of the hospital for a disorder
(E) all of the above
97. The following may be experienced by children who have ADHD during their
grade school years
(A) they may have lower grades
(B) repeated discipline problems
(C) placement in special education classes
97. The following may be experienced by children who have ADHD during their
grade school years
(A) they may have lower grades
(B) repeated discipline problems
(C) placement in special education classes
(D) loses personal belongings
(E) all of the above
98. According to the latest research on ADHD, stressors related to
environmental exposure include the following except
(A) exposure to toxic substances
(B) birth complications
(C) acquired brain damage
(D) involvement of several genes related to dopamine
(E) none of these
99. If an individual is considered suicidal, which of the following criteria for
defining abnormality would be met?
(A) biological
(B) risk to self
(C) personal distress
(D) impairment
(E) all of the above
100. Which theory has been postulated to explain depression to explain
depression as a. function of inescapable pain?
(A)Somatic marker hypothesis
(B) Learned helplessness
(C) Cognitive dissonance
(I)) Expectancy theory
(E) Stress and storm period