GV.

ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Did she get the better of you in the argument?
A. try to beat B. gain a disadvantage over
C. gain an advantage over D. try to be better than
Question 2: I didn’t go to work this morning. I stayed at home due to the morning rain.
A. thanks to B. on account of C. in spite of D. in addition to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work
helps foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often
simultaneously, thus teaching people how to (3) _____________their way through different systems.
It therefore brings people into touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart
to others that say a teacher or agriculturalist or nurse would have, (4) _____________they do have
many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and
enthusiasm can be harnessed for the benefit of their fellow human beings, and ultimately
themselves. From (5) _____________this, the gain to any community no matter how many
volunteers are involved is (6) _____________.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (7) _____________have shown an ability to
work as part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would
be desirable qualities in any employee.
Question 3: A. give B. work C. put D. take
Question 4: A. so B. but C. or D. for
Question 5: A. all B. none C.above D. both
Question 6: A. unattainable B. immeasurable C. undetectable D. impassible
Question 7: A. which B. whose C. who D. what

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: Different from English taught to all Vietnamese students, Chinese and Russian have
been made optional languages taught at secondary schools in Vietnam.
A. compulsory B. important C. comfortable D. necessary
Question 9: It’s quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice they
witness in the street.
A. take no notice of B. have no feeling for
C. show respect for D. pay attention to

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: Although we had told them not to keep us waiting, they made no __________to speed
up deliveries.
A. comment B. action C. attempt D. progress
Question 11: You really dropped _________the other day when you told Brian you’d seen his wife
at the cinema. He thought she was at her mother’s.
A. a plank B. a log C. a brick D. a stone
Question 12: I can’t possibly lend you any more money; it is quite out of the ________.
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A. place B. question C. order D. practice
Question 13: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty__________paintings were
destroyed, including two by Van Gogh.
A. worthy B. priceless C. worthless D. valueless
Question 14: __________ only in the Andes, the plant is used by local people to treat skin diseases.
A. Finding B. Found C. Having found D. Founded
Question 15: If the world’s tropical forests continue to disappear at their present rate, many animal
species__________extinct.
A. would become B. would have become C. became D. will become
Question 16: Half the way of the trip, we stopped__________and let the others________up with
us.
A. to rest/catch B. resting/catch C. resting/to catch D. to rest/to catch
Question 17: __________ get older, the games they play become increasingly complex.
A. For children to B. Children, when C. Although children D. As children
Question 18: My mother__________strawberries for years but she has never had such a good crop
before.
A. had grown B. is growing C. grew D. has been growing
Question 19: Your mother__________read a bit of a letter you received because she opened it
without looking at the name on the envelope.
A. silently B. intentionally C. deliberately D. accidentally
Question 20: It was not until the end of the nineteenth century __________.
A. did plant breeding become a scientific discipline
B. that plant breeding became a scientific discipline
C. that a scientific discipline was plant breeding
D. did a scientific discipline become plant breeding
Question 21: “Did you have__________nice holiday?” – “Yes, it was__________best holiday I
have ever had.”
A. a – the B. the – the C. the – a D. a – a
Question 22: The equator is an_____line that divides the Earth into two.
A. imaginable B. imaginary C. imagination D. imaginative
Question 23: This survey is to find out the young people’s attitudes______love.
A. into B. with C. for D. toward
Question 24: They are studying pronunciation with Mr Brown,____________?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 25: She works seven days ______week.
A. a B. the C. an D. no article

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. enjoy B. danger C. invite D. enact
Question 27: A. competent B. computer C. commute D. compliance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: She wrote the text. She selected the illustration as well.
A. In order to select the illustration, she had to write the text.
B. The text she wrote was not as good as the illustration she selected.
C. If she had written the text, she would have selected the illustration.
D. She not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration.
Question 29: Nam defeated the former champion in three sets. He finally won the inter-school table
tennis championship.
A. Being defeated by the former champion, Nam lost the chance to play the final game of
inter-school table tennis championship.
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B. Having defeated the former champion in the inter-school table tennis, Nam did not hold the title
of champion.
C. Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis
championship.
D. Although Nam defeated the former champion in three sets, he did not win the title of inter-school
table tennis champion.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The Internet started out as a limited network called the ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects
Agency Network). It was a network of computers that allowed communication even if computers
became non-functioning. It was the academic and scientific community that adopted the Internet,
using a protocol called TCP/IP, TCP/IP allows a number of different network computers to be
connected together. This is called the Internet. The Internet allows the creation of the World Wide
Web or the Web for short. The Web consists of Internet sites that allow data to be shared by others.
Aside from making the Web possible, the Internet also makes e-mail, chat room and file-sharing and
telephoning possible. It even allows people to watch media and play games.
The Web can be read in a browser. A browser is simply a software program that uses HTTP
(Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) data transmission. This will allow you to view Web pages. HTTP lets
you browser read the text, graphics, animation, video and music that are on the Web page. It also
enables you to click on a link on the page using the mouse. The links on a Web page that guide you
to go from one Web page to another are called hyperlinks. A Web page usually contains many
hyperlinks so that you can "browse" the Internet. It is much like reading a book. You can go from
page to page and get new information. One example of a browser is Internet Explorer. In the address
box of your browser, you can type in an address called a URL for "uniform resource locator".
To be able to use the Internet, you must have a computer with an Internet connection and
software that lets you view that Web page. Internet connection is called a dial-up connection. It
needs the use of your telephone to connect your computer to an Internet service. A faster type of
connection is called broadband. This requires a cable or some other equipment. If you turn on the
computer with a broadband connection, it connects you to the Internet at a time.
Question 30: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The Internet Explorer can be used to browse the Web.
B. The most popular Internet programs are e-mail, chatting and games.
C. Equipment is needed to allow a computer to connect to the Internet.
D. The Internet is an invention that makes sending and receiving data possible.
Question 31: The word "adopted" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________
A. changed B. approved C. fostered D. chose
Question 32: The word "It" in paragraph 1 refer to___________
A. data B. the Internet C. media D. Web
Question 33: All of the following are true of the Web page EXCEPT___________
A. each Web page has its own Internet site
B. the Web cannot be read without software
C. every Web page has a
D. Web pages contain hyperlinks that bring you to other pages
Question 34: Why does the author mention a book in paragraph 2?
A. to note a reason why the World Wide Web was created
B. to compare browsing to turning the pages of a book
C. to suggest that reading a book is better than browsing the Web
D. to provide an example of information that can be viewed on the Web

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

3
 It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has
been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The difference between
schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no
limits. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on
a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of
informal learning. The agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the people
arguing about politics on the radio, from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has a
certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a
stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People receive
education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term; it is a lifelong process, a
process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be a necessary part of one's
entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little
from one setting to the next. Throughout the country, children arrive at school at about the same
time, take the assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take
exams, and so on. The pieces of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an
understanding of the workings of governments, have been limited by the subjects being taught. For
example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth
about political problems in their society or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with.
There are clear and undoubted conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.
Question 35: This passage is mainly aimed at___________
A. giving examples of different schools
B. telling the difference between the meaning of two related words
C. listing and discussing several educational problems
D. telling a story about excellent teachers
Question 36: In the passage, the expression "children interrupt their education to go to school"
mostly implies that___________
A. education is totally ruined by schooling
B. schooling prevents people discovering things
C. all of life is an education
D. schooling takes place everywhere
Question 37: The word "all-inclusive" in the passage mostly means ___________
A. allowing no exceptions
B. including everything or everyone
C. involving many school subjects
D. going in many directions
Question 38: Which of the following would the writer support?
A. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things every day.
B. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible.
C. Without formal education, people won't be able to read and write.
D. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
Question 39: Because the general pattern of schooling varies little from one setting to the next,
school children throughout the country ___________
A. are taught by the same teachers
B. have the same abilities
C. have similar study conditions
D. do similar things
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The best schools teach a variety of subjects.
B. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.
C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.
D. Education and schooling are quite different experiences.
4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: Most greeting cards are folding and have a picture on the front and a message inside.
A. Most B. folding C. on the front D. inside
Question 42: The most important requirements for you to become a mountain climber are your
strong passion and you have good heath.
A. The first important B. to become C. are D. you have good health
Question 43: The new government has decided to set all political prisoners freely.
A. government has decided B. to set
C. political prisoners D. freely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the
students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 45: They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the
quality of the country's education.
A. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the country's
education.
B. The quality of the country's education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes.
C. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
D. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
Question 46: I regret giving Dennis my phone number.
A. I should have given Dennis my phone number.
B. If only I had given Dennis my phone number.
C. If only I had not given Dennis my phone number.
D. I wish I could give Dennis my phone number.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. decided B. hatred C. sacred D. warned
Question 48: A. manufacture B. mature C. pasture D. agriculture

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: This situation happened in a restaurant
- Customer: “Excuse me!”
- Waiter: “Yes, sir. How can I help you?”
- Customer: “I don’t want to make a scene but there’s a fly in my soup.”
- Waiter: “_____________”
A. I’m so sorry! I will get you another one.
B. What can I do to help?
C. You are right. I will get you another one.
D. You could be right but I don’t think it is a fly.
Question 50: Alice and Mary have just finished watching a movie.
- Alice: “Endgame is such a wonderful movie”
5
- Mary: “_____________”
A. I couldn’t agree more. B. I don’t like your saying.
C. I didn’t say anything. D. I’m a huge fan of Marvel.

6
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 52 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 1: One of the biggest issues that many victims of negligent behavior encounter is
difficulty in determining whether or not an action had foreseeable consequences.
A. predictable B. unpredictable C. ascertainable D. computable
Question 2: We’re really close friends but we just cannot see eye to eye on politics.
A. not see well B. not share the same views about
C. not understand D. not care for

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
People of different countries have quite different lifestyles. We Americans are wasteful people,
(3)_________ saving.
Our grandfathers began this pattern, for nature’s resources seemed so plentiful that no one ever
imagined a shortage. Within a few years of the first Virginia settlement, for example, pioneers
burned down their houses when they were ready to move to the West. They only wanted to have the
nails for (4)_________ use. No one ever gave a thought to the priceless hardwoods that went up in
smoke. We the people in the United States destroy many things that other peoples save. I (5)
_________this when I was living in Britain. I received a letter from one of England’s largest banks.
It was enclosed in a used envelope that had been readdressed to me. Such a practice would be (6)
_________in the United States. American banks, (7) _________the smallest, always use expensive
stationery with the names of all twenty-eight vice-presidents listed on one side of the page.
Question 3: A. accustomed to B. dislike C. enjoy D. not used to
Question 4: A. urgent B. practical C. various D. future
Question 5: A. noticed B. notified C. remembered D. reminded
Question 6: A. common B. aggressive C. unthinkable D. inadequate
Question 7: A. excluding B. however C. even D. usually

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: All of the students are obliged to pass the entrance examination in order to attend the
university.
A. forced B. impelled C. required D. optional
Question 9: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: Only one of our gifted students___________ to participate in the final competition.
A. has been chosen B. have been chosen C. were choosing D. chosen
Question 11: They were fortunate___________ from the fire before the building collapsed.
A. to rescue B. to have rescue C. rescuing D. to have been rescued
Question 12: ___________one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a
combination of dance and mime performed to music.
A. Being considering B. Considering C. Considered D. To consider
Question 13: ___________he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had

1
Question 14: I knew they were talking about me___________they stopped when I entered the
room.
A. because B. so that C. because of D. despite
Question 15: Some people are born rich; ___________ are born poor.
A. another B. the other C. others D. other
Question 16: Some people are concerned with physical__________when choosing a wife or
husband.
A. attract B. attractive C. attractiveness D. attractively
Question 17: Can you tell me who is responsible___________checking passports?
A. to B. in C. about D. for
Question 18: His answer was so confusing that it hardly made________
A. meaning B. interpretation C. indelibility D. sense
Question 19: If I had enough money, I ___________ abroad to improve my English.
A. will go B. would go C. should go D. go
Question 20: There are millions of stars in___________
A. space B. spaces C. a space D. the space
Question 21: The children are really getting in my ___________. Tell them to go and play outside.
A. hair B. nerves C. mouth D. books
Question 22: With hard work and study, you can ___________the goals you set for yourself.
A. establish B. succeed C. achieve D. increase
Question 23: They were___________ disappointed at the result of the game.
A. enthusiastically B. bitterly C. relatively D. significantly
Question 24: Peter______ a better understanding of Algebra than we do.
A. makes B. has C. takes D. gives
Question 25: The sight of his pale face brought ________ to me how ill he really was.
A. place B. house C. life D. home

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. enthusiasm B. certificate C. particular D. manufacture
Question 27: A. company B. candidate C. previous D. position

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: I did not dare to turn on the television. I was afraid of waking the baby up.
A. I did not dare to turn on the television for fear of walking the baby up.
B. Waking up the baby, I could not continue watching the television.
C. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up.
D. I decided to turn the television down to avoid waking the baby up.
Question 29: His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious
university.
A. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that prestigious
university.
B. Failing to apply to that prestigious university, his academic record at high school was poor.
C. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn't apply to that prestigious
university.
D. His academic record at high school was poor, as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious
university.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Satoru Iwata is not a household name, but he should be. Most people, however, would recognize
his brain children, the Nintendo DS and the Wii. These two game systems completely changed the
2
world of gaming. It's hard to imagine gaming without them, but amazingly, the DS and Wii almost
didn't happen! It is only thanks to the innovative ideas of Iwata that we have these systems today.
Satoru Iwata was made the CEO of Nintendo in 2002. At that time, the video game market was
suffering, and Nintendo was having trouble with its sales. Iwata thought that a change in strategy
was due. Previously, the strategy in the game industry was to keep making the same kinds of games
and consoles but just improve their power and complexity. However, Iwata didn't just want to attract
dedicated gamers. He wanted to bring in new kinds of players to video gaming. How was he going
to do that? He decided to change the very concept of video games.
Iwata wanted to make video games easier to pick up and more relevant to people's lives. Out of
this idea came the Nintendo DS. People interacted more directly with the game by using a touch
screen instead of just a set of buttons. Iwata took this idea to the extreme with the motion-based Wii.
Now, just by using natural body movements, players can enjoy playing all sorts of games.
The kinds of games produced changed as well. Along with the regular role-playing game (RPG),
action, and sport games, new kinds of "games" were designed. Some of the new games, like Brain
Age, improved thinking abilities. Others, like Wii Fit, improved fitness. This has brought in a new
age of gaming. Everyone from grandparents to their grandchildren seems to be playing Nintendo
products. With all that we have seen so far, we can only wonder what is next for Iwata. Surely it will
be something groundbreaking.
Question 30: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Satoru Iwata is a man with amazing ideas.
B. Gaming is not just for dedicated gamers anymore.
C. Satoru Iwata is an important man for dedicated gamers
D. The gaming industry is making educational games now.
Question 31: What first motivated Iwata to change the strategy of Nintendo?
A. He wanted to make useful consoles.
B. He wanted to lower sales.
C. He wanted to attract more players.
D. He wanted a new concept for gaming.
Question 32: The word "that" in paragraph 2 refer to ____________
A. Bringing new kinds of players to video gaming.
B. Attracting dedicated gamers
C. Making the same kinds of games
D. Improving games' power and complexity.
Question 33: What did Iwata change about the world of gaming?
A. More games for children and girls.
B. More dedicated games.
C. Created a new style of gaming.
D. Less expensive game systems.
Question 34: The word "groundbreaking" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning
to____________
A. innovative B. bad C. beautiful D. natural

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In the last third of the nineteenth century, a new housing form was quietly being developed. In 1869
the Stuyvesant, considered New York's first apartment house, was built on East Eighteenth Street.
The building was financed by the developer Rutherfurd Stuyvesant and designed by Richard Morris
Hunt, the first American architect to graduate from the Ecole des Beaux Arts in Paris. Each man had
lived in Paris, and each understood the economics and social potential of this Parisian housing form.
But the Stuyvesant was at best a limited success. In spite of Hunt's inviting façade, the living space
was awkwardly arranged. Those who could afford them were quite content to remain in the more
sumptuous, single-family homes, leaving the Stuyvesant to young married couples and bachelors.

3
 The fundamental problem with the Stuyvesant and the other early apartment buildings that quickly
followed, in the 1870's and early 1880's was that they were confined to the typical New York
building lot. That lot was a rectangular area 25 feet wide by 100 feet deep – a shape perfectly suited
for a row house. The lot could also accommodate a rectangular tenement, though it could not yield
the square, well-lighted, and logically arranged rooms that great apartment buildings require. But
even with the awkward interior configurations of the early apartment buildings, the idea caught on.
It met the needs of a large and growing population that wanted something better than tenements but
could not afford or did not want row houses. So while the city's newly emerging social leadership
commissioned their mansions, apartment houses and hotels began to sprout in multiple lots, thus
breaking the initial space constraints.
In the closing decades of the nineteenth century, large apartment houses began dotting the
developed portions of New York City, and by the opening decades of the twentieth century, spacious
buildings, such as the Dakota and the Ansonia finally transcended the tight confinement of row
house building lots. From there it was only a small step to building luxury apartment houses on the
newly created Park Avenue, right next to the fashionable Fifth Avenue shopping area.
Question 35: The new housing form discussed in the passage refers to ______.
A. row houses B. hotels C. apartment buildings D. single-family homes
Question 36: It can be inferred that a New York apartment building in the 1870's and 1880's had all
of the following characteristics EXCEPT ______
A. It was spacious inside. B. It had limited light.
C. Its room arrangement was not logical. D. It was rectangular.
Question 37: The author mentions the Dakota and the Ansonia in paragraph 3 because ______.
A. they are examples of large, well-designed apartment buildings
B. they are famous hotels
C. they were built on a single building lot
D. their design is similar to that of row houses
Question 38: Why did the idea of living in an apartment become popular in the late 1880's?
A. The city officials of New York wanted housing that was centrally located.
B. Large families needed housing with sufficient space.
C. The shape of early apartments could accommodate a variety of interior designs.
D. Apartments were preferable to tenements and cheaper than row houses.
Question 39: The word "sumptuous" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. modern B. unique C. luxurious D. distant
Question 40: Why was the Stuyvesant a limited success?
A. Most people could not afford to live there.
B. There were no shopping areas nearby.
C. The arrangement of the rooms was not convenient.
D. It was in a crowded neighborhood.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: My uncle has gone to Nha Trang on vacation, but I wish he is here so that he could
help me repair my bicycle.
A. could help B. has gone C. he is D. on vacation
Question 42: Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large,
industrial cities today.
A. with B. in C. are D. industrial
Question 43: Leonardo is often thought of primarily as an artist, and with masterclasses such as
The Last Supper and the Mona Lisa to his credit, his place in art history is assured.
A. masterclasses B. thought of C. place D. to his credit

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
4
Question 44: He lost his job three months ago.
A. They are three months since he lost his job.
B. It is three months since he lost his job.
C. It is three months ago for him to lose his job.
D. It has been three months since he has lost his job.
Question 45: Nam said to the taxi driver, “Please turn left at the first traffic light."
A. Nam tells the taxi driver please turn left at the first traffic light.
B. Nam said the taxi driver for turn left at the first traffic light.
C. Nam asked the taxi driver if turning left at the first traffic light.
D. Nam told the taxi driver to turn left at the first traffic light.
Question 46: He raised his hand high. He wanted to attract his teacher's attention.
A. Because his teacher attracted him, he raised his hand high.
B. To attract his teacher's attention, he raised his hand high.
C. Though he raised his hand high, he could not attract his teacher's attention.
D. He had such a high raising of hand that he failed to attract his teacher's attention.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. climate B. examine C. invitation D. interview
Question 48: A. society B. geography C. dry D. sandy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: “What a boring lecture!” –“ ”
A. Yes, it was dull, wasn’t it? B. I don’t agree. It’s dull.
C. It’s interesting, wasn’t it? D. I’m sorry not.
Question 50: “Oh, I’m sorry! Am I disturbing you? –“ ”
A. Sure, you’re a real nuisance! B. No, never mind.
C. You’re such a pain in the neck! D. No, you’re OK.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 53 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: "What I've got to say to you now is strictly off the record and most certainly not for
publication," said the government official to the reporter.
A. beside the point B. not recorded C. not popular D. not yet official
Question 2: I hope things will start to look up in the new year.
A. get better B. get worse C. become popular D. get bored

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Victor Gruen, an American architect, revolutionized shopping in the 1950s by creating the type of
shopping centre (3) ___________ we now call a shopping mall.
Gruen's (4) ___________was to provide a pleasant, quiet and spacious shopping environment
with large car parks, which usually meant building in the suburbs. He also wanted people to be able
to shop in all kinds of weather. He insisted on using building designs that he knew people would feel
comfortable with, but placed them in landscaped 'streets' that were entirely enclosed and often
covered with a curved glass roof. This was done to (5) ___________ some of the older shopping
arcades of city centres, but (6) ___________ these housed only small speciality shops, Gruen's
shopping malls were on a much grander scale.
Access to the whole shopping mall was gained by using the main doors, which
(7)___________the shopping 'streets' from the parking areas outside. As there was no need to keep
out bad weather, shops no longer needed windows and doors, and people could wander freely from
shop to shop. In many cities, shopping malls now contain much more than just shops; cinemas,
restaurants and other forms of entertainment are also growing in popularity.
Question 3: A. that B. who C. whose D. what
Question 4: A. direction B. aim C. search D. view
Question 5: A. model B. imitate C. repeat D. shadow
Question 6: A. while B. when C. because D. as a result
Question 7: A. disconnected B. withdrew C. separated D. parted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest.
A. hungry B. rich C. poor D. full
Question 9: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now.
A. constant B. changeable C. objective D. ignorant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: Daisy works at a big hospital. She's___________
A. nurse B. a nurse C. the nurse D. nurses
Question 11: Tom painted his bedroom black. It looks dark and dreary. He___________different
colour.
A. has to choose C. must have chosen
B. should have chosen D. could have been choosing
Question 12: Did you paint it yourself or did you___________ it painted?
A. make B. do C. get D. ask
Question 13: There's someone at the door. ___________it
1
A. I'm answering C. I answer
B. I'll answer D. I answered
Question 14: Many a candidate___________unsuccessful in the oral test.
A. was B. aren't C. weren't D. were
Question 15: I couldn't repair my bike, ___________I didn't have the right tools.
A. so B. for C. because of D. therefore
Question 16: In Vietnam, two, three or even four generations live___________one roof.
A. in B. over C. with D. under
Question 17: Many old people are still more___________than some indolent youths.
A. active B. action C. activity D. activeness
Question 18: She was a devoted nurse, always very___________to the needs of her elderly patients.
A. observant B. attentive C. careful D. delicate
Question 19: Young people___________to succeed in life should work hard.
A. who wanting B. want C. wanting D. wanted
Question 20: On___________ he had won, he jumped for joy.
A. he was told B. having told C. being told D. telling
Question 21: I wonder if you could___________ me a small favour, John.
A. do B. give C. make D. bring
Question 22: The process of___________ Jackson from a talented teenager into a franchise player
began in training camp.
A. exchanging B. transforming C. altering D. converting
Question 23: The situation has become___________ worse, and it is now impossible to handle.
A. progressively B. continuously C. frequently D. constantly
Question 24: She was pleased that things were going on _______.
A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfaction
Question 25: I was late for work because my alarm clock did not _______ .
A. turn off B. put off C. send off D. go off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. religion B. official C. currency D. establish
Question 27: A. integration B. original C. relationship D. development

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: We almost gave up hope. At that time, the rescue party arrived.
A. We were on the verge of giving up hope when the rescue party arrived.
B. Had the rescue party not arrived, we wouldn't have given up hope.
C. Only after the rescue party arrived did we give up hope.
D. It was not until the rescue party arrived that we gave up hope.
Question 29: They finished one project. They started working on the next.
A. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
B. Only if they had finished one project did they start working on the next.
C. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.
D. Not until they started working on the next project did they finish the previous one.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
HISTORY OF POTATO CHIPS
Peru’s Inca Indians first grew potatoes in the Andes Mountains in about 200 BC. Spanish
conquistadors brought potatoes to Europe, and colonists brought them to America. Potatoes are
fourth on the list of the world’s food staples – after wheat, corn, and rice. Today, Americans
consume about 140 pounds of potatoes per person every year, while Europeans eat twice as many.
2
 One of our favourite ways to eat potatoes is in the form of potato chips. While Benjamin
Franklin was the American ambassador to France, he went to a banquet where potatoes were
prepared in 20 different ways. Thomas Jefferson, who succeeded Franklin as our French
ambassador, brought the recipe for thick–cut, French fried potatoes to America. He served French
fries to guests at the White House in 1802 and at his home, Monticello.
A native American chef named George Crum created the first potato chips on August 24,
1853, at Moon Lake Lodge in Saratoga, New York. He became angry when a diner complained that
his French fries were too thick, so he sliced the potatoes as thinly as possible, making them too thin
and crisp to eat with a fork. The diner loved them, and potato chips were born. In 1860, Chef Crum
opened his own restaurant and offered a basket of potato chips on every table.
Joe “Spud” Murphy and Seamus Burke produced the world’s first seasoned crisps, cheese &
onion and salt & vinegar chips, in the 1950s in Ireland. In the United Kingdom and Ireland, crisps
are what we, in the United States, call potato chips, while their chips refer to our French fries.
Ketchup–flavored chips are popular in the Middle East and Canada. Seaweed–flavored chips are
popular in Asia, and chicken– flavored chips are popular in Mexico. Other flavors from around the
world include: paprika, pickled onions, béarnaise, meat pie, chili crab, salmon teriyaki, borscht,
Caesar salad, roasted sausage, firecracker lobster, roast ox, haggis and black pepper, olive, and
spaghetti.
Question 30: The word “them” in the passage refers to .
A. potatoes B. colonists C. conquistadors D. Indians
Question 31: What happened in the 1950s?
A. The world’s first French fries were produced
B. The world’s first seasoned potato chips were produced.
C. The world’s first potato chips were produced.
D. The world’s first seasoned French fries were produced.
Question 32: Which of the following is a true statement?
A. Different flavored potato chips are popular in different parts of the world.
B. Potato chips are only popular in America.
C. Ketchup–flavored potato chips are most popular in America.
D. Potato chips are not really eaten very much in Asia.
Question 33: Potato chips are called in the United Kingdom.
A. fries B. crisps C. lobsters D. potatoes
Question 34: What question is answered in the second paragraph?
A. Who invented the potato chip?
B. How many pounds of potatoes are eaten per person in America each year?
C. When were salt & vinegar chips invented?
D. Who served French fries in the White House?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Most parents want their sons and daughters to have equal chances of success when they
grow up. Today, equality of the sexes is largely mandated by public policy and law. However, old-
fashioned ideas and a lot of prejudice are still part of our culture and present challenging questions
for parents.
Gender stereotypes are rigid ideas about how boys and girls should behave. We all know
what these stereotypes are: A "feminine" girl should be insecure, accommodating and a little
illogical in her thinking. A "masculine" boy should be strong, unemotional, aggressive, and
competitive. How are children exposed to these stereotypes? According to the researchers David
and Myra Sadker of the American University of Washington, D.C., boys and girls are often treated
differently in the classroom. They found out that when boys speak, teachers usually offer
constructive comments, when girls speak, teachers tend to focus on the behavior. It's more
important how the girls act rather than what they say.
The emphasis on differences begins at birth and continues throughout childhood. For
3
example, few people would give pink baby's clothes to a boy or a blue blanket to a girl. Later,
many of us give girls dolls and miniature kitchenware, while boys receive action figures and
construction sets. There's nothing wrong with that. The problem arises when certain activities are
deemed appropriate for one sex but not the other. According to Heather J. Nicholson, Ph.D.,
director of the National Resource Center for Girls, Inc., this kind of practice prevents boys and girls
from acquiring important skills for their future lives.
"The fact is," says Nicholson, "that society functions as a kind of sorting machine regarding
gender. In a recent survey, fifty-eight percent of eighth-grade girls but only six percent of boys
earned money caring for younger children. On the other hand, twenty-seven percent of boys but
only three percent of girls earned money doing lawn work". If we are serious about educating a
generation to be good workers and parents, we need to eliminate such stereotypes as those
mentioned previously.
Gender stereotypes inevitably are passed to our children. However, by becoming aware of
the messages our children receive, we can help them develop ways to overcome these incorrect
ideas. To counteract these ideas, parents can look for ways to challenge and support their children,
and to encourage confidence in ways that go beyond what society's fixed ideas about differences of
sext are.
(Source: https://en.isicollective.com)
Question 35: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Deep-seated stereotypes about genders and their effects.
B. Different prejudice about how girls and boys should behave and be treated.
C. The role of culture in the behavior of different genders.
D. The influence of education and society on gender stereotypes.
Question 36: The word "deemed" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______.
A. celebrated B. supposed C. designed D. established
Question 37: According to the second passage, David and Myra Sadker of the American University
of Washington, D.0 found that_____.
A. schoolboys and schoolgirls are treated equally in the classroom.
B. teachers often concentrate on boys' behavior and girls' manners.
C. boys are commented usefully whereas girls are paid attention to behavior.
D. girls are taught to be insecure, accommodating and illogical while boys are strong, unemotional,
aggressive, and competitive.
Question 38: According to the passage, which of the following is UNTRUE about gender
stereotypes?
A. Male and female children are expected to behave the same as what adults think they should.
B. The distinctions in treatment to boys and girls commence when they were given birth.
C. Its beneficial for children to practice fundamental skills if they are treated unequally quite early
D. Children are differently treated not only at homes but also at schools.
Question 39: What does the word "that" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The differences between boys and girls begin at birth and continue throughout childhood.
B. People often give pink clothes to a boy and a blue blanket to a girl.
C.Many people give girls dolls and miniature kitchens and boys receive action figures and
construction sets when they were born.
D. People give different genders of children distinct kinds of presents or clothes.
Question 40: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Parents are able to help reduce the influence of gender stereotypes on their children.
B. Teachers and parents have to join hands to encourage children's confidence in social activities.
C. Society functions often categorize jobs regardless of genders.
D. The problems males and females get when they are adults may originate from gender stereotypes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, orD on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: I visited Mexico and United States last year.
4
A. visited B. Mexico C. United States D. last year
Question 42: Yesterday he said he regretted not to have gone to the exhibition last week.
A. yesterday B. said C. regretted D. not to have gone
Question 43: Minh’s mother would sooner not to meet her friend in person than phone her.
A. sooner B. not to meet C. in person D. than

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: I’m sure it wasn’t Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
A. It couldn’t be Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
B. It can’t have been Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
C. It mustn’t have been Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
D. It mightn’t be Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
Question 45: She asked if I had passed the English test the week before.
A. “Had you passed the English test the week before?” she asked.
B. “Did you passed the English test the week before?” she asked.
C. “Did you pass the English test last week?” she asked.
D. “If you passed the English test last week?” she asked.
Question 46: They stayed for hours, which tired us.
A. We are tiring from their staying for hours.
B. That they stayed for hours made us tired.
C. Staying for hours with us made them feel tired.
D. We are tired so they stayed for hours.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. butter B. put C. sugar D. push
Question 48: A. church B. teach C. much D. ache

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: David: "Do you want me to help you with those suitcases?"
Jennifer:" ___________”
A. Of course, not for me. B. No, I can't help you now.
C. No, those aren't mine. D. No, I can manage them myself.
Question 50: "What do you do for a living"-"___________”
A. I get a high salary, you know. B. I want to be a doctor, I guess.
C. I work in a bank. D. It's hard work, you know.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 54 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined words in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Mothers keep their young hidden underground in their homes for up to six weeks until
they are old enough to fend for themselves.
A. take care of B. move C. feed D. look for
Question 2: Mrs. Roy keeps an open house on Saturday evening parties - you'll find all kinds of
people there. hiếu khách
A. welcome all members B. welcomes a select group of people
C. keeps the doors of the house open D. keeps the gates open for a few persons

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Higher Education in the UK
Students who have successfully completed an A-level course may go to university to do a three
or four-year course leading to a first degree such as Bachelor of Arts (BA), Bachelor of Science
cung cấp an offer of a place
(BSC), etc. They apply to several universities which then (3) ___________
specifying the minimum grades the student needs to obtain in the A level subjects studied. Higher
education is not (4) ___________ . In principle, students have to pay a contribution to the cost of
teaching tuition fees) and have also to pay their living costs (maintenance). The government
provides loans to help them pay for university education which have to be paid back from earnings
once their income reaches a certain (5) ___________ In recent years, government policy has been to
increase the percentage of 18-year olds (6) ___________ go to university, which is now, at 40%,
double the 1990 figure, but this growth has been at the (7) ___________ of the amount of financial
support given to individual students.
Universities receive money from the state for each student and are responsible for employing
staff and deciding which courses to offer. The head of a university, who is responsible for its
management, is called a vice-chancellor. phó hiệu trưởng
Question 3: A. create B. do C. make D. get
Question 4: A. permitted B. allowed C . compulsory D. free
Question 5: A. grade B. level C. mark D. rank
Question 6: A. who B. which C. whose D. whom
Question 7: A. fee B. suspense C. charge D. expense

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: Can you break down our expenses by month and by region?
A. distribute B. separate C. combine D. isolate
Question 9: During the recession, many small companies were eradicated.
A. destroyed completely B. abolished
C. erased D. established

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: Many children who get into trouble in their early teens go on to become ______
offenders. ng phạm tội thg xuyên
A. resistant B. persistent C. consistent D. insistent
Question 11: If I lived by the sea, I ______ a lot of swimming.
A. did B. would do C. do D. will do
1
Question 12: I have no patience with gossip. What I told Bill was a secret. He ______ it to you.
A. shouldn't read B. mustn't read
C. shouldn't have repeated D. mustn't have repeated
Question 13: I don't think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ______.
A. as dry as a bone B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as rice D. as dry as wood
Question 14: If the work-force respected you, you wouldn't need to ______ your authority so often.
A. maintain B. inflict C. assert D. affirm
Question 15: I suggest ______ some more mathematics puzzles.
A. making B. doing C. going D. taking
Question 16: The school is half empty as a serious epidemic of COVID-19 has broken ______.
A. in B. down C. up D. out
Question 17: I meant to sound confident at the interview but I'm afraid I ______ as dogmatic.
A. came through B. came over C. came out D. came off
Question 18: We live at ______ third house from the church.
A. the B. an C. no article D. a
Question 19: The film ______ by the time we _______ to the cinema.
A. already started/ had gotten B. had already started/ got
C. has already started/ got D. had already started/ had gotten
Question 20: Many young people want to work for a humanitarian organization, ______?
A. doesn't it B. didn't they C. does it D. don't they
Question 21: Jack asked his sister ______.
A. where you have gone tomorrow B. where would she go the following day
C. where she would go the following day D. where you will go tomorrow
Question 22: Almost 90 per cent of the world's students are now affected by nationwide school
closures ______ the spread of coronavirus disease.
A. on the point of B. about to C. bound to D. due to
Question 23: COVID-19 is a ______ illness and is largely spread via droplets in the air.
A. respiratory B. breath C. respiration D. breathing
Question 24: ________ to help, we will have finished the work.
A. By the time John comes B. Since John comes
C. When John comes D. Until John comes
Question 25:_______the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there instead
of going there by train.
A. To discover B. Discovered C. To have discovered D. Discovering

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. symbolic B. expensive C. disastrous D. confident
Question 27: A. realize B. devote C. postpone D. decide

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 29: He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.

2
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Insects’ lives are very short and they have many enemies, but they must survive long enough to
breed and perpetuate their kind. The less insect-like they look, the better their chance of survival. To
look "inedible" by imitating plants is a way frequently used by insects to survive. Mammals rarely
imitate plants, but many fish and invertebrates do.
The stick caterpillar is well named. It is hardly distinguishable from a brown or green twig. This
caterpillar is quite common and can be found almost anywhere in North America. It is also called
"measuring worm" or "inchworm." It walks by arching its body, then stretching out and grasping the
branch with its front feet then looping its body again to bring the hind fed forward, when danger
threatens, the stick caterpillar stretches its body away from the branch at an angle and remains rigid
and still, like a twig, until the danger has passed.
Walking sticks, or stick insects, do not have to assume a rigid, twig-like pose to find protection: they
look like inedible twigs in any position. There are many kinds of walking sticks, ranging in size
from a few inches of the North American variety to some tropical species that may be over a foot
long, when at rest their front legs are stretched out, heightening their camouflage. Some of the
tropical species are adorned with spines or ridges, imitating the thorny bushes or trees in which they
live.
Leaves also seem to be a favorite object for insects to imitate. Many butterflies can suddenly
disappear from view by folding their wings and sitting quietly among the plants that they resemble.
Question 30: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Caterpillars that live in trees
B. The feeding habits of insects
C. How some insects imitate plants to survive
D. Insects that are threatened with extinction
Question 31: Which of the following does the word “enemies” in line 1 refer to?
A. plants looking like insects B. extreme weather conditions
C. creatures that eat insects D. insects looking like plants
Question 32: According to the passage, how does a stick caterpillar make itself look like a twig?
A. By holding its body stiff and motionless
B. By looping itself around a stick
C. By changing the colour of its skin
D. By laying its body flat against a branch
Question 33: Which of the following is the antonym of the word “inedible” in paragraph 3?
A. eatable B. colourful C. beautiful D. moving
Question 34: How can butterflies make themselves invisible?
A. By hiding under the leaves
B. By disappearing from the view
C. By folding wings and sitting still among the leaves with similar colours
D. By flying among colourful flowers

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear
around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human
voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop
crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first,
the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and
that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can
detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon,
these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior.
3
Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is
playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis
of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such
cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in
all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and
transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk
to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of
their words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize
certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is
observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In other
words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations
that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they
will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For
babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is
for adults.
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds.
B. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language
C. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language
development
D. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice
Question 36: Why does the author mention a bell and rattle in paragraph 1?
A. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds.
B. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry.
C. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds.
D. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like.
Question 37: The word “diverse” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. surrounding B. divided C. different D. stimulating
Question 38: The passage mentions of the following as ways adults modify their speech when
talking to their babies EXCEPT .
A. giving all words equal emphasis B. speaking with shorter sentences
C. speaking more loudly than normal D. using meaningless sounds
Question 39: What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to
acquire language?
A. Babies begin to understand words in songs.
B. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.
C. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.
D. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.
Question 40: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they
cannot understand them?
A. They understand the rhythm.
B. They enjoy the sound.
C. They can remember them easily.
D. They focus on the meaning of their parents’ words.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
schoolchildren's behaviour and their academic performance.
A. exhausting B. into C. behaviour D. academic performance
4
Question 42: Most workers seems to be happy with their new working conditions.
A. seems B. with C. new D. conditions
Question 43: It is the night of 5th November that people in Britain light bonfires and have fireworks
as a national tradition.
A. the night of 5th November B. in Britain
C. fireworks D. national

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: Tim is too young to attend the course.
A. Tim is not old enough for attending the course.
B. Tim is very young that he can't attend the course.
C. Tim is not young enough to attend the course.
D. Tim is not allowed to attend the course because of his age.
Question 45: He said to us, "Come here tomorrow."
A. He told us go there the next day.
B. He told us to go here the next day.
C. He told us to go there the next day.
D. He said to us to go there the next day.
Question 46: Much as George loved travelling in Asia, he decided not to go to Indonesia because of
his fears of terrorism.
A. Although George touring Asia, ever since the threat of terrorism started, he hadn't been to
Indonesia.
B. George would have gone to Indonesia if he hadn't been scared to terrorism so much because Asia
was his favorite travel spot.
C. As Indonesia had become a high-risk terrorism spot, George, who normally loved Asia, was
afraid to go there.
D. Even though George liked touring Asia very much, he was afraid of the terrorism in Indonesia, so
he chose not to go there.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. knock B. knee C. bank D. know
Question 48: A. police B. little C. ship D. give

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Jane and Janet are talking about their favourite sports.
Jane: "Are you interested in scuba diving?" - Janet: "___________.”
A. Very. Undersea life is being strongly contaminated.
B. Very. Undersea life is fascinating
C. Not any. Undersea life is too expensive.
D. Well, things are much different now.
Question 50: Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
Professor: "Congratulations on your award." - Mary: “___________”
A. I like it that you understand.
B. I do appreciate your supervision.
C. I can't agree more with yours.
D. I feel so sorry for you, professor.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 55 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: We are having a surprise party for Susan next Saturday, so don't give the secret away
by saying anything to her.
A. ask anyone to come B. tell her the secret
C. go to the party D. find out the secret
Question 2: Fallout from a nuclear power station damaged in the tsunami may endanger the
vegetation.
A. stimulate B. harm C. inhibit D. benefit

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns (3) ___________ strongly affect
the world. When the water is warm, the amount of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions
decreases. Australia could (4) ___________ experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand,
Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (5) ___________ rainstorms. In Pakistan
and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area much
drier.
This happening is called El Nino and is used by weather forecasters to make long range weather
predictions. They also know that El Nino will unusually bring heavy rains to the southwestern part
of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same time.
According to research, weather forecasters used to know about the coming weather with
certainty. Now everything has become completely different.
El Nino itself used to be (6) ___________ . It would occur every two to seven years. But now,
this weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or
cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (7) ___________on a global scale either.
Question 3: A. what B. when C. whether D. that
Question 4: A. even B. ever C. nevertheless D. however
Question 5: A. cruel B. angry C. strict D. severe
Question 6: A. incredible B. remarkable C. predictable D. notable
Question 7: A. transfer B. transformation C. shift D. change

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: 1975 saw a ban on the trade of rare species. The ban was endorsed by 136 countries.
A. rejected B. approved C. praised D. implemented
Question 9: Digital video recorders are changing the way people watch TV. They are expensive.
However, they offer a number of advantages over the old ways of watching and recording TV
shows.
A. developments B. drawbacks C. chances D. benefits

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: He rarely goes fishing, ____________?
A. doesn't he B. is he C. does he D. isn't he
Question 11: Have you ever considered____________to study in a foreign country?
A. going B. to go C. to be going D. having gone
Question 12: You must hurry, ____________ you'll miss the last bus.
1
A. otherwise B. and C. nevertheless D. but
Question 13: I talked to the boy____________ kite was caught in a tree.
A. whose B. whom C. who's D. of which
Question 14: My brother applied____________ the job that he saw advertised in the paper.
A. in B. on C. to D. for
Question 15: Since____________to a warmer and less humid climate, I've had no trouble with my
asthma.
A. I move B. I moving C. upon moving D. moving
Question 16: The apples are____________sweeter than the others.
A. more B. very C. most D. a lot
Question 17: He talks as if he____________everything about me.
A. knows B. has known C. had known D. knew
Question 18: By the time you get to the theater, the play ____________
A. will have finished B. will finish
C. finishes D. will have been finished
Question 19: ____________ has been a topic of continual geological research.
A. The continents formed B. If the continents formed
C. How did the continents form D. How the continents were formed
Question 20: I____________ think that we should do something immediately to change the
situation we are in.
A. person B. personal C. personally D. personality
Question 21: We want everyone to begin the test____________
A. simultaneously B. unexpectedly C. indefinitely D. continuously
Question 22: I have no idea how to____________ this kind of business.
A. make B. turn C. take D. run
Question 23: There's a(n) ____________ of difference between liking someone and loving them.
A. world B. earth C. whole D. entirety
Question 24: When the boss walked into the office, his secretary ______.
A.has been typing B.was typing C. is typing D. had typed
Question 25: She got the job ___________ the fact that she had very little experience.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. certificate B. compulsory C. remember D. information
Question 27: A. administrative B. productivity C. electricity D. opportunity

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: Randy doesn’t play rugby. Neither does Lucy
A. Neither Randy nor Lucy doesn’t play rugby.
B. Neither Randy nor Lucy play rugby.
C. Neither Randy nor Lucy plays rugby.
D. Either Randy or Lucy plays rugby.
Question 29: Nguyen Huu Kim Son broke the SEA Games record in the men’s 400-metre
individual medley event. He is very proud of it.
A. He is very proud of what he broke the SEA Games record.
B. He takes pride in breaking the SEA Games record.
C. He is interested in the SEA Games record.
D. He is very proud of he broke the SEA Games record.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
2
 Deep brain stimulation (DBS), an experimental technology that involves implanting a
máy tạo nhịp tim xung điện
pacemaker-like device in a patient’s brain to send electrical impulses, is a hotly debated subject in
the field of medicine. It is an inherently risky procedure and the exact effects on the human brain
aren’t yet fully understood.
But some practitioners believe it could be a way to alleviate the symptoms of depression or
even help treat Alzheimer’s — and now they suspect it could help with drug addiction as well. In a
world’s first, according to the Associated Press, a patient in Shanghai’s Ruijin Hospital had a DBS
device implanted in his brain to treat his addiction to methamphetamine. And the device has had an
astonishingly positive effect, the patient says. “This machine is pretty magical. He adjusts it to make
you happy and you’re happy, to make you nervous and you’re nervous,” he told the Associated
đau buồn
Press. “It controls your happiness, anger, grief and joy.”
Other studies in China have yielded mixed results trying to treat opioid addictions using DBS,
according to the AP. In the United States, at least two studies that tried to treat alcoholism with DBS
bỏ vì ko thể biện minh cho nhx rủi ro
were dropped for not being able to justify the risks. The idea of using DBS to treat drug addiction
has raised concerns in medical communities across the globe about brain hemorrhage, seizures, or
personality changes. xuất huyết não, co giật
Question 30: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Symptoms of depression B. Curing addiction
C. Deep brain stimulation D. Brain diseases
Question 31: The word “alleviate” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. demolish B. ease C. destroy D. devalue
Question 32: The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to__________________.
A. Deep brain stimulation B. a pacemaker-like device
C. the field of medicine D. a patient’s brain
Question 33: According to the passage, the use of DBS_____________.
A. has been thoroughly studied by scientists.
B. has been approved by all Chinese practitioners.
C. has achieved both positive and negative results.
D. has successfully cured opioid addictions in China.
Question 34: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as concerns about the use of DBS
to treat drug addiction in medical communities worldwide EXCEPT______________.
A. Seizures B. Personality changes
C. Brain hemorrhage D. Alcoholism

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
It weighed about 10,000 tons, entered the atmosphere at a speed of 64,000 km/h and
exploded over a city with a blast of 500 kilotons. But on 15 February 2013, we were lucky. The
meteorite that showered pieces of rock over Chelyabinsk, Russia, was relatively small, at only
about 17 metres wide. Although many people were injured by falling glass, the damage was nothing
compared to what had happened in Siberia nearly one hundred years ago. Another relatively small
object (approximately 50 metres in diameter) exploded in mid–air over a forest region, flattening
about 80 million trees. If it had exploded over a city such as Moscow or London, millions of people
would have been killed.
By a strange coincidence, the same day that the meteorite terrified the people of
Chelyabinsk, another 50m–wide tiểu hành tinh
asteroid passed relatively close to Earth. Scientists are expecting
that visit and know that the asteroid will return to fly close to us in 2046, but the Russian meteorite
earlier in the day had been too small for anyone to spot.
sao chổi
Most scientists agree that comets and asteroids pose the biggest natural threat to human
va chạm
existence. It was probably a large asteroid or comet colliding with Earth which wiped out the
dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. An enormous object, 10 to 16 km in diameter, struck the
Yucatan region of Mexico with the force of 100 megatons. That is the equivalent of one Hiroshima
tương đương
bomb for every person alive on Earth today.
3
 Many scientists, including the late Stephen Hawking, say that any comet or asteroid greater
than 20 km in diameter that hits Earth will result in the complete destruction of complex life,
including all animals and most plants. As we have seen, even a much smaller asteroid can cause
great damage.
The Earth has been kept fairly safe for the last 65 million years by good fortune and the
lực hấp dẫn sao mộc vũ trụ
massive gravitational field of the planet Jupiter. Our cosmic guardian, with its stable circular orbit
far from the sun, sweeps up and scatters away most of the dangerous comets and asteroids which
might cross Earth’s orbit. After the Chelyabinsk meteorite, scientists are now monitoring potential
hazards even more carefully but, as far as they know, there is no danger in the foreseeable future.
(Adapted from British Council Learning English Teens)
Question 35: According to the last paragraph, scientists say that .
A. their early warning systems will protect us
B. a meteorite is likely to hit Earth sooner or later
C. all the possible dangers are being monitored carefully
D. we are not in any danger for the moment
Question 36: It can be inferred from the 1st paragraph that the Siberian meteorite _______.
A. could be much worse
B. caused many deaths due to falling glass
C. was not as destructive as the one in Russia
D. was greatly reduced by the early warning system
Question 37: On the same day as the meteorite exploded over Chelyabinsk,______.
A. scientists realized that an even bigger asteroid could hit the Earth
B. an asteroid terrified the people of Chelyabinsk
C. scientists spotted many other asteroids around the Earth
D. there was another unrelated asteroid event
Question 38: The word “blast” is closest in meaning to_____.
A. explosion B. collision C. event D. crisis
Question 39: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT______.
A. Earth has been relatively safe thanks to luck and the protective force of another planet from our
solar system
B. Comets and asteroids could put an end to all plant and animal life on Earth
C. A small asteroid can still cause a lot of damage
D. Millions of people were killed in an explosion of a meteorite in Moscow and London
Question 40: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Russian Meteorite: A Disaster B. A Strange Coincidence
C. Meteorite Killed Millions Of People D. The End Of Life On Earth?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: As far as I'm concerned, it was the year 2007 that Vietnam joined the World Trade
Organization. in
A. that B. concerned C. the D. the year 2007
Question 42: Since vitamins are contained in a wide variety of foods, people seldom lack of most of
them.
A. variety of B. in a C. are D. lack of
Question 43: Some of the agricultural practices used today is responsible for fostering
desertification.
A. of B. used C. is D. fostering

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: It's difficult for me to understand what he implies.
A. I find it difficult to understand what he really means.
4
B. Understanding what he implies is found difficult.
C. What he implies is not very difficult to understand.
D. To understand what he really means is difficult to find.
Question 45: "Believe me. It's no use reading that book”, Janet told her boyfriend.
A. Janet opposed her boyfriend's idea that reading the book was not useful.
B. Janet managed to persuade her boyfriend that reading the book was worthwhile.
C. Janet tried to convince her boyfriend that the book was not worth reading.
D. Janet suggested to her boyfriend that reading the book was useful.
Question 46: I had two job offers upon graduation, neither of which was appropriate for my
qualifications.
A. The two jobs offered to me after my graduation didn't suit my qualifications.
B. Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my qualifications.
C. I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my
qualifications.
D. Though I wasn't qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. doctor B. sock C. wrong D. sport
Question 48: A. iron B. celebrate C. parent D. restaurant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: “Do you feel like going to the stadium this afternoon?".
“___________”
A. I don't agree. I'm afraid. B. I feel very bored.
C. You're welcome. D. That would be great.
Question 50: Cindy: "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!"
Mary: “___________”
A. Yes, all right. B. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday.
C. Never mention it. D. Thanks, but I'm afraid.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 56 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: The rains of 1993 causing the Missouri river to overflow resulted in one of the worst
floods of the 20th century.
A. stopped B. lessened C. caused D. overcame
Question 2: "I'm really feeling under the weather today; I have a terrible cold."
A. not so well B. very well C. not bad D. not happy

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among
which the financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can
(3)____________ tens of billions of dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even
triple. In addition to the direct costs of hosting the Games (the opening and closing ceremonies,
athletes' village, security, etc.), cities often must build expensive new venues
(4)____________lesser-known sports. Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional
maintenance costs long after the Games have ended.
While costs are the (5) ____________ concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider.
doanh thu
For one, an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending,
tài trợ
corporate sponsorship, and television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988)
actually made a large profit from the Games they hosted. (6) ____________ hosting the Olympic
trao lại uy tín
Games confers prestige on a host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and tourism.
The Olympics are also an opportunity to invest in projects (7) ____________ improve the city's
quality of life, such as new transportation systems.
Question 3: A. outnumber B. exceed C. overcharge D. surmount
Question 4: A. on B. at C. in D. for
Question 5: A. instrumental B. primary C. influential D. supplementary
Question 6: A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. However
Question 7: A. which B. who C. what D. whom

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: It was a very wonderful opportunity for us to catch.
A. break B. destroy C. hold D. miss
Question 9: I could only propose a(n) partial solution to the crisis in the company.
A. whole B. halfway C. half D. effective

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: When Bill got home, his children_____________in the yard.
A. will be playing B. were playing C. are playing D. played
Question 11: Did you manage_____________the book you were looking for?
A. to find B. found C. finding D. find
Question 12: That cannot be a true story. He_____________it up.
A. must have made B. should have made
C. would have made D. can have made
Question 13: Beethoven's Fifth Symphony_____________next weekend.
A. is going to be performed B. has been performed
1
C. will be performing D. will have performed
Question 14: She said that when she_____________to school, she saw an accident
A. had been walking B. has walked C. was walking D.has been walking
Question 15: She wanted Tom, _______she liked, as a partner, but she got Jack, ____she didn’t like.
A. whom/ whose B. whose/ whom C. whose/ whose D. whom/ whom
Question 16: Scarcely_____________out of bed when_____________
A. had I got/ did the doorbell ring B. had I got/ the doorbell rang
C. I had got/ did the doorbell ring D. I had got/ the doorbell rang
Question 17: I think he will join us, _____________?
A. won’t he B. don’t I C. will not he D. do not I
Question 18: For more than 10 years, we have seen the significant_____________in the economy
of our country.
A. develop B. developments C. developers D. developed
Question 19: The_____________load for this car is one ton.
A. top B. max trạng thái tối đa C. peak D. height
Question 20: Most modern office_____________includes facsimile machines, photocopiers and
telephone systems.
A. device B. tool C. equipment D. instrument
Question 21: I just took it_____________that he’d always be on time. coi cái j là hiển nhiên
A. into consideration B. easy C. into account D. for granted
Question 22: That’s exactly what I mean, Tom. You’ve_____________!
A. put your foot in it mắc lỗi B. killed two birds with one stone
C. put two and two together hiển nhiên D. hit the nail on the head đoán trúng ý
Question 23 My car is getting unreliable. I think I’ll trade it_____________for a new one.
A. off B. away C. in đổi D. up
Question 24: The more I tried my best to help her, ……….she became.
A. less lazy B. the lazier C. the more lazy D. lazier
Question 25: She has just bought____________.
A. an interesting French old painting B. an old interesting French painting
C. a French interesting old painting D. an interesting old French painting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word having a different stress
pattern from the rest.
Question 26: A. experience B. congratulate C. particular D. engineering
Question 27: A. terrorist B. expected C. contribute D. exciting

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: They finished one project. They started working on the next right away.
A. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
B. Only if they had finished one project did they start working on the next.
C. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.
D. Not until did they start working on the next project when they finished one.
Question 29: Having been informed of her critical condition, he decided not to tell her his financial
problem.
A. He told her about his money issue because he was in critical condition.
B. He did not mention his financial problem as he was aware of her critical condition.
C. Someone informed her that he was having a financial problem when she was in critical
condition.
D. Despite knowing her critical condition, he talked about his financial problem.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
2
 Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has
phát hành
varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of
the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies.
Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that
time Vermont and Kentucky had joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of
mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee in 1796, for
example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and half dollars were produced with sixteen stars.
As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme
would not prove practical and the coins from 1798 were issued with only thirteen Stars - one for
each of the original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the 1828 half-cent was
issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with only 12 stars, but this is
dấu chấm hết
the result of a die break and is not a true error.
Question 30: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Stars on American coins
B. The teaching of astronomy in state universities
C. Colonial stamps and coins
D. The star as national symbol of the United States
Question 31: The expression "Curiously enough" is used because the author finds it strange that
___.
A. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes
B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794
C. silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen
D. no silver coins were issued until 1794
Question 32: Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars?
A. Tennessee had left the Union. B. The mint made a mistake.
C. There were twelve states at the time. D. There is a change in design policy.
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American coin?
A. Half nickel B. Half-dollar C. Half-cent D. Half dime
Question 34: The word "their" in line 1 refers to _________.
A. features B. coins C. stars D. colonies

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions. độ ẩm
Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve it, and that
phơi
the easiest way to do this was to expose the food to sun and wind. In this way the North American
xay thành bột
Indians produced pemmican (dried meat ground into powder and made into cakes), the
cá kho quả chà là và quả mơ
Scandinavians made stockfish and the Arabs dried dates and apricots.
All foods contain water - cabbage and other leafy vegetables contain as much as 93% water,
thịt nạc
potatoes and other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60%
depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which causes food
to go bad is checked. hy lạp, địa trung hải
Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterranean countries, and also in
California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out
on trays in drying yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are
sẽ đc phơi qua khói lưu huỳnh mận mận khô
exposed to the fumes of burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain
dung dịch kiềm
varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to
crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, increasing the rate of drying.
Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such dehydration is to put
food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110°C at entry to about
thịt băm
45°C at exit. This is the usual method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.
Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a heated
hình trụ thép nằm ngang đc nung nóng khoang
horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air
passes. In the first case, the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken
cạo ra khỏi trục lăn
3
 tương đối thô
up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom of the
chamber as dạng bột mịn
a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in
soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.
Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans or frozen, and
vô giá
they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers,
binh lính
explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with
nội trợhousewives because it takes so little time to cook them.
Question 35: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Advantages of dried foods.
B. Water: the main component of food.
C. Mechanization of drying foods.
D. Different methods of drying foods
Question 36: The word "checked" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________
A. reduced considerably
B. put a tick
C. examined carefully
D. motivated to develop
Question 37: In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help____________
A. remove their wax coating
B. kill off bacteria
C. maintain their color
D. crack their skin
Question 38: Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat
is____________
A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards
B. dipping them in an alkaline solution
C. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through
D. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder
Question 39: The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will
be____________
A. small flakes B. fine powder C. dried soup D . recognizable pieces
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Liquids are not dried in the same way as fruits and vegetables.
B. Dried foods have several advantages over canned or frozen foods.
C. Fruit is usually dried by being laid out on trays in the sun.
D. People in India began to use drying methods centuries ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: Computers have made access to information instantly available just by push a few
buttons.
A. have B. access C. instantly available D. by push
Question 42: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that
have become extinct have increased.
A. industrialized B. species C. extinct D. have
Question 43: The party has won a historical victory at the polls.
A. has won B. a C. historical D. at

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: They couldn't climb up the mountain because of the storm.
A. The storm made them not to climb up the mountain.
B. The storm made them could not to climb up the mountain.
4
C. The storm kept them from climb up the mountain.
D. The storm made them impossible to climb up the mountain.

Question 45: "If I were in your shoes, I would try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment," said the professor to his research student.
A. The professor advised his research student to try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out
the experiment.
B. The professor complained that his research student didn't finish the pre-lab report before carrying
out the experiment.
C. The professor told his research student that he wished he could finish the pre-lab report before
carrying out the experiment.
D. The professor regretted that his research student didn't try to finish the pre-lab report before
carrying out the experiment.

Question 46: The government does not know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
A. Little does the government know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
B. It is unknown what to do with household rubbish in large cities by the government.
C. Rarely the government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
D. Hardly any government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. health B. think C. mother D. earth
Question 48: A. book B. moon C. food D. pool

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: "I have a terrible headache?" –“____________”
A. Maybe I'm not going to the doctor's. B. Not very well. Thanks.
C. Maybe you should take a rest. D. Not bad. I'm not going to the doctor's.
Question 50: "Shall we go out tonight?". “____________”
A. Yes, I can B. Yes, we are. C. Yes, we go. D. Yes, let's.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 57 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Even though the mountain was very steep and the climb was hazardous, several
adventurous tourists managed to reach the top.
A. causing a lot of risks B. bringing excitement
C. costing a lot of money D. resulting in depression
Question 2: Those children who stay longer hours at school than at home tend to spend their
formative years in the company of others with similar aims and interests.
A. being separated from peers B. forming a new business company
C. being together with friends D. enjoying the care of parents

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.
With job vacancies available all year round offering high salaries, Vietnam has been ranked the
second-best place in the world to teach English by TEFL Exchange, a community for teachers of
English (3) _____ a foreign language. The site (4) _____ that a foreign English teacher can earn
between 1,200-2,200 USD a month in Vietnam, where the average annual income in 2016 was just
2,200 USD. They can (5) _____ a job any time of year and the best places to do so are the country's
three largest cities: Hanoi, Ho Chi Minh City and Da Nang. Candidates only need to hold a
bachelor's (6) _____ and a TEFL (Teaching English as a Foreign Language) certificate. English is an
obligatory subject from sixth grade across Vietnam, but in large cities, many primary schools
demand high (7) _____. Foreign language centers have been thriving here, with students as young as
three years old.
Question 3: A. similar B. for C. as D. like
Question 4: A. judges B. evaluates C. guesses D. estimates
Question 5 A. search B. hunt C. seek D. find
Question 6: A. level B. diploma C. qualification D. degree
Question 7: A. capacity B. experience C. ability D. competency

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: That house hasn’t been occupied for three years now. It must be haunted since no one
is renting or buying it.
A. cleaned B. taken C. absent D. vacant
Question 9: He’s such a phony. He’s always complaining about his friends behind their back, but
whenever he sees them, he says really nice things about them.
A. to be bad at acting B. to tell lies all the time
C. to pretend to like others D. to try to make friends

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the
following question.
Question 10: When I came to visit her last night, she __________ a bath.
A. is having B. was having C. has D. have
Question 11: We __________ Mrs. Brown since last Saturday.
A. don't see B. haven't seen C. didn't see D. hadn't seen
Question 12: The students __________ to be at school by the teacher at 8:00 am.
A. tell B. told C. have told D.were told
Question 13: Be sure _________ neatly when you go to a job interview.
1
A. to be dressing B. dress C. dressing D. to dress
Question 14: We enjoy ________ time together in the evening when the family members gather in
the living room after a day of working hard.
A. spending B. to spend C. spend D. spent
Question 15: Most of the people _________ to talk at the lecture arrived late because of the heavy
traffic.
A. invited B. who inviting C. whom were invited D. Invite
Question 16: It is of great importance to create a good impression __________ your interviewer.
A. on B. about C. for D. at
Question 17: Paul was ____ disappointed with his examination results that he didn't smile all week.
A. too B. enough C. such D. so
Question 18: Tell me the day _________ you want to have your interview.
A. which B. when C. in that D. where
Question 19: Good preparations _________ your job interview is a must.
A. with B. upon C. in D. for
Question 20: He is __________ that everyone loves him.
A. very kind B. too kind C. kind enough D.such a kind man
Question 21: This is the cat _________.
A. whom I bought at the pet shop B. where at the pet shop I bought
C. I bought at the pet shop D. at the pet shop I bought it
Question 22: _________ to school as a child, I would have learned how to use a computer.
A. Although I went B. Because I was able to go
C. If I had been able to go D. Unless I didn't go
Question 23: My cousin, _________, is going to come and stay with us this summer holiday.
A. who I talked to you B. I talk to you about her.
C. whom I talked to you about her D. whom I talked to you about
Question 24: __________ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived
C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn't arrived
Question 25: You should find a job to live _________ from your parents.
A. dependence B. independence C. independent D. independently

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. dismiss B. destroy C. display D. district
Question 27: A. entertain B. candidate C. referee D. afternoon

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
Question 29: He did not remember the meeting. He went out for a coffee with his friends then.
A. Not remembered the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
B. Not to remember the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
C. Not remember the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
D. Not remembering the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

2
 Around the world, Rio de Janeiro is famous for its beautiful beaches, and Carnival celebration.
But the city is also known for its poor areas, known as favelas. For years, many favelas had high
poverty and crime rates. However, things are starting to change.khu ổ chuột
In the past, many favelas received very little government assistance. Neighbourhood residents
had to build their own streets and homes. Gangs were also common, and so were guns. However, a
new government plan is starting to change this. The city is sending thousands of police officers into
xoá bỏ
favelas with the goal of driving out the gangs. In some favelas, the plan is already working. Crime is
down, and unlike the past, children are playing in the streets again. New apartment buildings are
being built, and the city is providing more services. "In 20 years," says police officer Leonardo
Nogueira, "the children who live here now will be different people."
Police influence is changing the favelas, but something else is, too. Today, more Brazilians are
moving into these neighbourhoods because housing is expensive in other parts of Rio. "Favelas are a
place for young doctors without money to get started and young architects to start working,"
explains Simone Miranda, a Rio tour guide. In the past, favela residents felt different - separate from
the rest of Rio. "But now," says Miranda, "they feel part of the society of Brazil.”
Life is improving in the favelas, but there are still challenges. In some areas, poverty rates are
still high. As students, families, and foreigners move into the favelas, property costs skyrocket. In
some areas, housing has more than doubled in price. Despite this, favela residents are hopeful. If
Rio can develop these favelas for all residents - both poor and middle class the city could become a
model for other cities with similar problems.
Question 30: Another title for this passage could be ____________
A. A History of Rio's Favelas
B. Crime on the Rise in Rio's Favelas
C. Favelas, Rio's New Tourist Destination
D. How Rio's Favelas Are Changing
Question 31: Which of these things found in favelas is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. art B. guns C. gangs D. poverty
Question 32: What does the word "skyrocket" in the last paragraph mean?
A. to increase quickly
B. to become dangerous
C. to drop slowly
D. to become smaller
Question 33: What can you replace the word "this" in the last paragraph with?
A. these areas
B. these cheap houses
C. these challenges
D. these foreigners
Question 34: What is true about the future of favelas?
A. They will set a good example about dealing with urban problems.
B. They will provide cheap residence for the poor and middle class.
C. They face both advantages and drawbacks.
D. Foreigners won't move into favelas because of high crime rates.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, which provides
information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are
the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential campaigns
knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.
North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street" interviews on local television
news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate
indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a
certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or
3
 factory workers, depending on which area the news people select. Second, television interviews tend
to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who
may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it
is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of
questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it.
It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even
questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information
desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done
properly and the questions are worded accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of
survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people
find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written
questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject's
thăm dò
underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and
more consistent.
Question 35: The passage mainly discusses ___________
A. the history of surveys in North America
B. the principles of conducting surveys
C. problems associated with interpreting surveys
D. the importance of polls in American political life
Question 36: According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the street interviews is
that they ___________
A. are not based on a representative sampling
B. are used only on television
C. are not carefully worded
D. reflect political opinions
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, the most important thing for an effective survey is
________.
A. a high number of respondents
B. carefully worded questions
C. an interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feeling
D. a sociologist who is able to interpret the results
Question 38: As it can be inferred from the passage, sociologists can be frustrated when
___________
A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
B. questionnaires are too difficult to read
C. questionnaires are too expensive and difficult to distribute
D. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own options
Question 39: According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is
that___________
A. live interviews cost less
B. live interviews can produce more information
C. live interviews are easier to interpret
D. live interviews minimize the influence of the researcher
Question 40: The word "probe" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________
A. apply B. analyze C. influence D. explore

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: It was a six-hours journey; we were completely exhausted when we arrived.
A. a six-hours B. completely C. exhausted D. we arrived
Question 42: You aren't allowed smoking because you are too young to do it.
4
A. smoking to smoke B. because C. too D. do it
Question 43: He was so exhausted that he felt asleep at his desk.
A. so B. exhausted C. felt asleep D. at

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: "Let's have dinner out." said George.
A. George wanted to have dinner out alone.
B. George suggested having dinner out.
C. George invited them having dinner out.
D. George let others have dinner out.
Question 45: "If only I had taken his advice."
A. I wish I followed his advice.
B. I wish I have taken his advice.
C. I regret not having taken his advice.
D. I regret not to take his advice.
Question 46: A child is influenced as much by his schooling as by his parents.
A. Schooling doesn't influence a child as much as his parents do.
B. A child's parents have greater influence on him than schooling.
C. A child can influence his parents as much as his schooling.
D. A child's schooling influences him as much as his parents do.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. encourage B. country C. ground D. young
Question 48: A. certificate B. central C. decision D. social

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the
following exchanges.
Question 49: Peter and Bob are talking about the plan for tonight.
- Peter: “____________” - Bob: “I'd love to. Thank you.”
A. What would you do if you can afford a new car?
B. Would you like to go to the new coffee shop with me?
C. Why do you spend so much time playing games?
D. Would you like a cake?
Question 50: Mike in Joe are talking about transport in the future.
- Mike: "Do you think there will be pilotless planes?" - Joe: “______________”
A. I'm afraid I can't. B. What for? There are quite a few around.
C. I'm glad you like it. D. Why not?There have been cars without drivers.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 58 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1. If minor disputes are left unsettled, tough ones will accumulate sooner or later.
A. decrease in number B. increase in number
C. improve in quality D. decline in volume
Question 2. He went through much hardship before he became a successful businessman.
A. met B. accepted C. endured D. created

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word for each of the blanks.
It's always worth preparing well for an interview. Don't just hope (3) _________ the best. Here
are a few tips. Practice how you say things, as well as what you intend to say. If you don't own a
video camera, perhaps a friend of yours (4) ___________. Borrow it and make a video tape of
yourself. Find somebody (5) _________ it with you and give you a bit of advice on how you appear
and behave.
Before the interview, plan what to wear. Find out how the company expects its (6) ___________
to dress. At the interview, believe in yourself and be (7) ___________, open and friendly. Pay
attention and keep your answers to the point. The interviewer doesn't want to waste time and neither
do you.
Question 3: A. against B. for C. to D. at
Question 4: A. does B. is C. have D. own
Question 5: A. being watch B. watching C. watched D. to watch
Question 6: A. colleagues B. employees C. customers D. employers
Question 7: A. dishonest B. honestly C. honest D. honesty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 8: The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase the
precision of the sampling procedure.
A. inaccuracy B. exactness C. insecurity D. flexibility
Question 9: Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of time
just before the check-in counter closed.
A. in a terrible condition B. with all out luggage
C. at the very last moment D. with much time to spare

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: In most_______developed countries, up to 50% of_______population enters
higher education at some time in their lives.
A. the / Ø B. Ø / Ø C. the / the D. Ø / the
Question 11: But for his kind support, I______.
A. would not have succeeded B. did not succeed
C. had not succeeded D. would succeed
Question 12: - Jean: “Why didn’t you tell me about the plans for the merge?”
- Jack: “I would have told you _______ .”
A. if you asked me to B. had you asked me to
C. you had asked to me D. you were asking me
Question 13: This year, so far, we ______28,000 dollars and are still counting.
1
 A. are raising B. have been raised C. have raised D. raised
Question 14: It is now over seventy years since Lindbergh _____ across the Atlantic.
A. has been flying B. flew C. had flown D. has flown
Question 15: All applications to courses at tertiary institutions are made through UCAS, a central
agency _____ UK universities and colleges of higher education.
A. standing for B. instead of C. on behalf of D. representative of
Question 16: Books are still a cheap _____ to get knowledge and entertainment.
A. means B. way C. method D. measure
Question 17: Galileo proved that the earth ______ round the sun.
A. goes B. went C. is going D. was going
Question 18: Getting promotion also means getting more _________ .
A. responsibility B. ability C. advisability D. creativity
Question 19: Fire engines and ambulances have ______ over other traffic.
A. prior B. priority C. before D. precedence
Question 20: By the end of last March, I _______ English for five years.
A. had been studied B. had been studying
C. will have been studying D. will have studied
Question 21: _______ he hasn’t had any formal qualifications, he has managed to do very well.
A. Despite B. Although C. If D. Whereas
Question 22: We are considering having ________ for the coming lunar New Year.
A. redecorated our flat B. our flat redecorated
C. to redecorate our flat D. our flat to be redecorated
Question 23: Tim looks so frightened and upset. He ______ something terrible.
A. must experience B. ought to have experienced
C. should have experienced D. must have experienced
Question 24:This house _______ in 1970 by my grandfather.
A. built B. was built C. was build D. has built
Question 25: What do you know _____him?
A. on B. about C. with D. for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. struggle B. diverse C. neglect D. complete
Question 27: A. supportive B. marvellous C. nursery D. primary

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: She doesn't want to go to their party. We don't want to go either.
A. Neither she nor we don't want to go to their party.
B. Neither we nor she wants to go to their party.
C. Neither we nor she want to go to their party.
D. Either we or she doesn't want to go to their party.
Question 29: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn't continue without her.
A. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.
B. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.
C. If she hadn't contributed positively, we couldn't have continued with the project.
D. Provided her contribution wouldn't come, we couldn't continue with the project.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
To toot, to cut the cheese, or to fart are all funny ways to talk about something that everyone
does: passing gas! A normal person passes about half a liter of gas a day, which equals about 14 farts
per day. Lots of people are embarrassed by passing gas, but there is no need to feel this way. The
2
first step is to admit that everyone does it. After you face up to this fact, then you can really enjoy
learning some interesting facts about your gas.
There are several sources of gas. Gas in our intestines has to do with both the air we swallow and
the gas molecules in our blood. In addition, gas is also produced from chemical reactions and
bacteria living in our intestines. Nervous people usually have more gas for two reasons. They
swallow more air when they get nervous, and food usually goes through their digestive systems
faster, which means that the oxygen in the food cannot be absorbed quickly enough. Therefore, the
oxygen naturally found in the food goes into the intestines and becomes gas.
sự hôi thối
Another interesting fact is that a person's diet affects the stinkiness of his or her gas. Foods with a
lot of sulfur in them, such as eggs, meat, and cauliflower-cause stinkier gas. On the other hand,
beans cause a lot of gas, but this gas isn't usually stinky because beans aren't high in sulfur.
However, they do contain a lot of sugars that bacteria in the intestines love. The bacteria eat the
sugars and produce gas.
Finally, people wonder, "Where does gas go when you hold it in? Is this held gas harmful?" Well,
this gas will not poison you, but you may get a bad stomach ache from the pressure. The gas that
you hold in is neither released nor absorbed. It moves back up into the intestines and sooner or later
comes out. It is not lost, just delayed. Now that you know some facts about gas, be proud of yourself
and say, "Yes, I cut the cheese!"
Question 30: What is the main idea?
A. Dangers of gas B. Jokes about passing gas
C. Myths about gas in our bodies D. Things to know about our gas
Question 31: Why does gas from our bodies smell bad?
A. The air is bad. B. It contains sulfur.
C. Food is digested quickly. D. It is from bacteria.
Question 32: According to the passage, which of the following foods would cause stinkier gas?
A. candy B. steak C. black beans D. pasta
Question 33: The pronoun "they" in paragraph 3 refers to ___________
A. beans B. eggs C. gas D. bacteria
Question 34: What does the word "diet" in this passage probably mean?
A. a part of the digestive system B. a program for losing weight
C. special foods to improve health D. the food a person eats

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
kỹ thuật các công trình
Early peoples had no need for engineering works to supply their water. Hunters and nomads
camped near natural sources of freshwater, and populations were so sparse that pollution of the
water supply was not a serious problem. After community life developed and agricultural villages
became urban centres, the problem of supplying water became important for inhabitants of a city, as
well as for irrigation of the farms surrounding the city. Irrigation works were known in prehistoric
nhx ng cai trị
times, and before 2000 BC the rulers of Babylonia and Egypt constructed systems of dams and
ngăn chặn
canals to impound the flood waters of the Euphrates and Nile rivers, controlling floods and
providing irrigation water throughout the dry season. Such irrigation canals also supplied water for
domestic purposes. The first people to consider the sanitation of their water supply were the ancient
cống dẫn nc
Romans, who constructed a vast system of aqueducts to bring the clean waters of the Apennine
bộ lọc
Mountains into the city and built basins and filters along these mains to ensure the clarity of the
đế chế Roman tan rã
water. The construction of such extensive water-supply systems declined when the Roman Empire
disintegrated, and for several centuries local springs and wells formed the main source of domestic
and industrial water. suối và giếng
The invention of the force pump in England in the middle of the 16th century greatly extended
the possibilities of development of water-supply systems. In London, the first pumping waterworks
hồ
was completed in 1562; it pumped river water to a reservoir about 37m above the level of the River
Thames and from the reservoir the water was distributed by gravity, through lead pipes, to buildings
in the vicinity. phân phối bởi lực hấp dẫn, thông qua ống nc đến các toà nhà trg khu vực

3
 Increased per-capita demand has coincided with water shortages in many countries. Southeast
England, for example, receives only 14 percent of Britain's rainfall, has 30 percent of its population,
and has experienced declining winter rainfall since the 1980s.
In recent years a great deal of interest has been shown in the conversion of seawater to fresh
water to provide drinking water for very dry areas, such as the Middle East. Several different
chưng cất, thẩm thấu điện, thẩm thấu ngc và bay hơi đống băng trực tiếp
processes, including distillation, electrodialysis, reverse osmosis, and direct-freeze evaporation, have
been developed for this purpose. Some of these processes have been used in large facilities in the
United States. Although these processes are successful, the cost of treating seawater is much higher
than that for treating fresh water.
Question 35: Early peoples didn't need water supply engineering works because ___________
A. their community life had already developed
B. natural sources of fresh water nearby were always available
C. there was almost no dry season in prehistoric times
D. they had good ways to irrigate their farms
Question 36: The word "impound" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to"___________ “
A. supply B. irrigate C. provide D. drain
Question 37: Clean water supply was first taken into consideration by___________
A. the English people B. the ancient Romans
C. the Egyptians D. the US people
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true about London's water supply in the middle of the
16th century?
A. Water was pumped from the River Thames.
B. Water was stored in a reservoir.
C. Water ran from the reservoir to buildings.
D. Water was conducted through canals.
Question 39: One of the causes of water shortages in South-east England is___________
A. water pollution B. increased demand
C. water-supply system decline D. water evaporation
Question 40: In the passage, the author mainly discusses___________
A. the development of water supply B. the results of water shortages
C. the water pumping systems D. the fresh water storage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time. of
A. As B. can perform C. its functions D. in half the time
Question 42: She saidtome that she lived close to where she worked, so she just walked there.
A. said B. she lived C. close to D. she worked
Question 43: Every city in the United States has traffic problems because the amount of cars on
American streets and highways is increasing every year.number
A. in the United States B. traffic C. the amount D. is increasing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: It is much more difficult to speak English than to speak French.
A. To speak English is more difficult than to speak French.
B. Speaking English is more difficult than to speak French.
C. Speaking French is not as difficult as to speaking English.
D. To speak French is more difficult than to speak English.
Question 45: I really believe my letter comes as a great surprise to John.
A. John might have been very surprised to receive my letter.
B. John must be very surprised to receive my letter.
C. John may be very surprised to receive my letter.
4
D. John must have been very surprised to receive my letter.
Question 46: I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. symbolic B. expensive C. disastrous D. confident
Question 48: A. realize B. devote C. postpone D. decide

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Julie and Ann are talking about their new classmate.
Julie: “ ____________?”
Ann: “Yeah, not bad, I suppose.”
A. He is quite good-looking, isn't he B. Do you see him often
C. What are you thinking D. How did you meet him
Question 50: Nam and Lan are talking in the office when they have a tea-break.
Nam: "Would you like to join us for dinner after work?"
Lan: “_________________”
A. Thanks. You can cook dinner.
B. I'd love to, but I have to finish my important report for tomorrow.
C. Thanks for your help, but I can cook dinner myself.
D. What's wrong with you?

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 59 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: In a school year in Vietnam, there are two semesters called the first semester and the
second semester.
A. senses B. parts C. terms D. systems
Question 2: The new college is intended to improve the life chances of children in the inner city.
A. productions B. communities C. opportunities D. questions

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Isolated from the mainland, the Con Dao islands are one of Vietnam’s star (3) _______. Long
nhx kẻ bất lương
preserved of political prisoners and undesirables, they now turn heads thanks to their striking
bao bọc
natural beauty. Con Son, the (4) _____of this chain of 15 islands and islets, is ringed with lovely
vịnh đẹp
beaches, coral reefs and scenic bays, and remains partially covered (5)______ tropical forests. In
vắng vẻ
addition to hiking, diving and exploring deserted coastal roads, there are excellent
tắc kè hoa
wildlife–watching opportunities, such as the black giant sóc
squirrel and endemic bow–fingered gecko.
(6)________ it seems an island paradise, Con Son was once hell on earth for the thousands of
sống mòn mỏi dưới hàng tá nhà tù
prisoners who languished in a dozen jails during French rule and the American–backed regime.
Many Vietnamese visitors are former soldiers (7)________ were imprisoned on the island. Until
recently, few foreigners visited Con Dao, but with the commencement of low–cost boat connections
this looks sure to change.
Question 3: A. attractive B. attract C. attractions D. attractiveness
Question 4: A. largest B. larger C. most large D. large
Question 5: A. of B. to C. for D. in
Question 6: A. Even B. However C. Therefore D. Although
Question 7: A. which B. who C. what D. they

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: The nominating committee always meets behind closed doors, lest its deliberations
become known prematurely.
A. privately B. publicly C. safely D. dangerously
Question 9: Organized research may discourage novel approaches and inhibit creativity, so seminal
discoveries are still likely to be made by inventors in the classic individualistic tradition. novel: mới lạ
A. common B. unbiased C. varied D. coherent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 10: The girls____________ to the cinema. They won't be back until ten o'clock.
A. went B. were C. have been D. have gone
Question 11: What____________ views do Americans and Asians have about love and marriage?
A. tradition B. traditionally C. traditionalism D. traditional
Question 12: Dr. Smith is the person in____________ I don't have much confidence.
A. which B. whom C. him D. that
Question 13: "Don't worry about your necklace. Give it to me and I promise to____________ great
care of it."
A. bring B. take C. keep D. make

1
Question 14: __________ my mother's encouragement, I wouldn't have made such a daring
decision.
A. Until B. In spite C. But for D. Providing
Question 15: All students should be____________ literate when they leave school.
A. numerate biết tính toán B. numeric C. numeral D. numerous
Question 16: Only a few of the many species____________ risk of extinction actually make it to
the lists and obtain legal protection.
A. in B. on C. at D. with
Question 17: ____________ always gives me real pleasure.
A. I arrange flowers B. The flowers are arranged
C. Arranging flowers D. While arranging flowers nurse
Question 18: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, ____________
A. more heat it retains B. it retains the more heat
C. the heat it retains more D. the more heat it retains
Question 19: He applied for a teaching____________ at Bales University with great confidence.
A. employment B. post C. work . D. career
Question 20: "The inflation rate in Greece is five times____________ my country", he said.
A. as high as that in B. as much as
C. as much as that in D. more than
Question 21: Martha, Julia and Mark are 17, 19 and 20 years old____________
A. independently B. separately C. respectively D. respectfully
Question 22: Since he failed his exam, he had to____________ for it again.
A. take B. sit C. make D. pass
Question 23: I'm going to the corner shop for some bits and____________ need anything?
A. pieces thứ lặt vặt, nhỏ B. things C. little D. pity
Question 24: Nobody called me yesterday, ……………….?
A. didn't it B. do they C. didn't they D. did they
Question 25: The children had to__________in the principal’s office after they took part in a fight.
A. face the music lãnh trách nhiệm, nhận hình phạt B. hit the right notes lm vc 1 cách đúng đắn
C. beat around the bush nói vòng vo D. play second fiddle đóng vai phụ, ở thế yếu hơn

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. quality B. different C. determine D. brilliant
Question 27: A. private B. physics C. degree D. tutor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: She heard the news of the death of her mother. She fainted.
A. On hearing the news of her dead mother, she fainted.
B. On hearing the news of her mother's death, she fainted.
C. She fainted so she heard the news of the death of her mother.
D. She fainted and then she heard the news of the death of her mother.
Question 29: Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment. Others feel that it
allows more jobs to be created.
A. Arguing that new technology causes unemployment, other economists feel that it allows more
jobs to be created.
B. Besides the argument that new technology causes unemployment, some economists feel that it
allows more jobs to be created.
C. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment whereas others feel that it
allows more jobs to be created.
D. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, so others feel that it allows
more jobs to be created.
2
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In One Cubic Foot In any environment — forest, mountain, or water — you always see the big
animals first: birds, mammals, fish. But under your feet, on land or in the water, there are many
sinh vật nhỏ hơn
smaller organisms: insects, tiny plants, miniature sea creatures. They seem unimportant, but, in fact,
these sea creatures and ground dwellers are "the heart of life on the Earth," says naturalist E.O.
Wilson. Without them, our world would change dramatically.
Most organisms on the Earth live on the ground or just below it. Here, they are part of an
important cycle. Plants and animals fall to the ground when they die. Later, tiny insects and other
organisms break down the dead plant and animal material. This process eventually returns nutrients
to the soil and gives plants energy. Plants can then help to maintain a healthy environment for
humans and other animals.
Despite their importance, scientists know very little about most ground organisms. To learn
more, photographer David Liittschwager went to different places around the world, including a
forest, a river, a mountain, and a coral reef. In each place, he put a green 12-inch cube on the ground
or in the water. Then he and his team counted and photographed the organisms that lived in or
moved through the cube. Often they discovered hundreds, some only a millimeter in size. "It was
vc tìm thấy các viên ngọc nhỏ
like finding little gems," he says. In the coral reef in French Polynesia, he saw thousands of
creatures in the cube and photographed 600. The team identified as many as possible, but it was
difficult. Many of the animals they found were new species.
Question 30: Another title for the passage could be___________
A. Dangers to Ground Creatures
B. The Importance of Tiny Organisms
C. Saving Small Animals in Cubes
D. The Life of Nutrients
Question 31: The word "miniature" in paragraph 1 means___________
A. very small B. very large C. very beautiful D. very important
Question 32: The word "their" in paragraph 3 refers to ___________
A. scientists B. ground organisms C. cubes D. nutrients
Question 33: Liittschwager and his team used the cube to___________
A. collect different species for research
B. test the quality of the soil and water
C. count and photograph animal species
D. protect animals from human activities
Question 34: All of the following are true about Liittschwager and his team EXCEPT that
_________
A. they went to various places in the world
B. they discovered numerous organisms in small sizes
C. they examined cubes by putting them on the ground or in the water
D. they did some experiments with the organisms

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Herman Melville, an American best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more
popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used his
knowledge gained during his travels as a basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen,
Melville signed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to
Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In
1841, Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he
wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to
the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval

3
 merchant ship: tàu buôn
hải quân hoa kì
frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White Jacket
(1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman.1 ng lính hải quân
With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal
kì lạ
following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with
giảm dần
the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the
1 câuwhite
saga of the hunt for the great chuyện ngu ngôn
whale, was mang
also atính biểu tượng
heavily cao allegory
symbolic về cuộc đấu tranh
of the anh dũng
heroic
của nhân đạo chống lại vũ trụ sự chuyển biến văn học
struggle of humanity against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville's literary
metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that
served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known
today.
Question 35: The subject of the passage is ____________
A. Melville's travels
B. the popularity of Melville's novels
C. Melville's personal background
D. Moby Dick
Question 36: The word "the one" in paragraph 2 refers to ____________
A. Moby Dick
B. Melville's popularity
C. Philosophical symbolism
D. Melville's literary metamorphosis
Question 37: According to the passage, Melville's early novels were____________
A. published while he was traveling
B. completely fictional
C. all about his work on whaling ships
D. based on his travel experience
Question 38: A "frigate" in paragraph 1 is probably____________
A. an office B. a ship C. a troop D. a fishing boat
Question 39: How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville's popularity? Text
A. His popularity increased immediately. Text
B. It had no effect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease.
D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.
Question 40: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on ____________
A. nineteenth-century novels
B. oceanography
C. American history
D. modern American literature

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: Safari is an organized trip to hunting or photograph wild animals, usually in Africa.
A. organized B. hunting hunt C. wild animals D. usually in
Question 42: There is estimated that the Orion nebula contains enough matter to form 10,000 stars.
A. There It B. contains C. enough D. to form
Question 43: Great apes are in crisis of becoming extinct.
A. Great B. are C. crisis danger D. extinct

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: Friendly though he may seem, he’s not to be trusted.
A. He’s too friendly to be trusted.
B. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he’s not to be trusted.
4
D. However friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.
Question 45: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 46: Calling Odyssey is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s worth not calling Odyssey since his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Odyssey since his phone is out of order.
C. It’s useless call Odyssey as his phone is out of order.
D. There is no point in calling Odyssey as his phone is out of order.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word having the underlined
part pronounced differently from the rest.
Question 47: A. graduate B. maximum C. vacancy D. applicant
Question 48: A. employed B. provided C. challenged D. explained

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Two friends Jane and Thomas are talking about their final term test.
Jane: “I’ve been half ready for the final term test.” – Thomas: “______”
A. Thank you so much. B. You are welcome!
C. Then, I’d call it a day. D. Incredible! I haven’t even started.
Question 50: James and Kate are in a café.
James: “______” – Kate: “Thank you. Could I have a cup of coffee?”
A. Will you buy tea or coffee on the way home? B. Do you want something to eat right now?
C. Would you like something to drink? D. Are you tired after a long journey?

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 60 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 1: You never really know where you are with her as she just blows hot and cold.
A. keeps changing her mood B. keeps taking things
C. keeps going D. keeps testing
Question 2: His new yacht is certainly an ostentatious display of his wealth.
A. large B. showy C. expensive D. ossified
phô trương
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The well-being of America's rural people and places depends upon many things - the availability
of good-paying jobs; (3)____________to critical services such as education, health care, and
communication; strong communities; and a healthy natural environment. And,
(4)____________urban America is equally dependent upon these things, the challenges to
mật độ thấp
well-being look very different in rural areas than in urban areas. Small-scale, low-density settlement
(5)____________ make it more costly for communities and businesses to provide critical services.
Declining jobs and income in the natural resource-based industries (6) ____________ many rural
areas depend on forced workers in those industries to find new ways to make a living. Low-skill,
low-wage rural manufacturing industries must find new ways to challenge the increasing number of
sự xa xôi và hẻo lảnh cản trở
foreign competitors. Distance and remoteness impede many rural areas from being connected to the
urban centers of economic activity. Finally, changes in the availability and use of natural resources
located in rural areas affect the people who earn a living from those resources and those who
(7)____________ other benefits from them.
Question 3: A. challenge B. key C. access D. advantage
Question 4: A. because B. while C. when D. since
Question 5: A. styles B. tools C. means D. patterns
Question 6: A. who B. what C. that D. whom
Question 7: A. involve B. evolve C. bring D. derive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: Don't be chicken-hearted; ask her to the party.
A. humble B. bold C. cowardly D. shy
Question 9: The children are usually the mother's biological offspring. But this does not rule out
adoption.
A. illegalize B. include C. allow D. exclude

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer that most suitable in the
following questions
Question 10: Why is everyone___________ him all the time?
A. criticize B. criticizing C. critical D. criticism
Question 11: I'm really looking forward___________to university.
A. go B. to going C. going D. to go
Question 12: She___________ me a very charming compliment on my painting.
A. showed B. took C. paid D. made
Question 13: Thanks to my friend's___________ remarks, my essays have been improved.
A. constructor B. construction C. construct D. constructive
Question 14: All of us won't go camping___________the weather stays fine.
1
A. so B. unless C. but D. however
Question 15: You shouldn't have criticized him in front of the class. It was
extremely___________of you.
A. insensitive vô cảm B. sensitive C. insensible D. sensible
Question 16: Our country has large areas of___________ beauty.
A. unharmed B. undangered C. unspoilt hoang sơ D. uninjured
Question 17: The___________ polluted atmosphere in some industrial regions is called "smog".
A. much B. largely C. fully D. heavily
Question 18: A few months ago I moved into a very small flat after____ for years with my parents.
A. be living B. having lived C. being lived D. have living
Question 19: We should participate in the movements___________ the natural environment.
A. organizing to conserve B. organized conserving
C. which organize to conserve D. organized to conserve
Question 20: Below are some pieces of advice that can help you reduce the feeling of pressure and
create a good impression___________ your interviewer.
A. on B. in C. about D. over
Question 21: I wish I ___________ able to accept that role, but I was preparing for another play at
the time.
A. have been B. would be C. was D. had been
Question 22: Her doctor suggested that she___________ a short trip abroad.
A. will take B. would take C. take D. took
Question 23: Doctors gave him a___________ bill of health after a series of tests and examinations.
A. clean sức khoẻ tốt B. clear C. dirty D. happy
Question 24: This house __________ in 1970 by my grandfather.
A. was built B. was build C. has built D. built
Question 25: The sight of his pale face brought ________ to me how ill he really was.
A. house B. life C.home D. place

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. benefit B. chemical C. habitat D. destruction
Question 27: A. depend B. adopt C. private D. explain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 28: Edward has just moved to France. His grandfather died last year.
A. Edward has just moved to France, where his grandfather died last year.
B. Edward has just moved to France, whose grandfather died last year.
C. Edward, whose grandfather died last year, has just moved to France.
D. Edward, who has just moved to France, his grandfather died last year.
Question 29: His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the
competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the
competition.
C. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the
competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well in the
competition.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Sylvia Earle, a marine botanist and one of the foremost deep-sea explorers, has spent over
2
 marine botanist: nhà thực vật học biển
foremost: hàng đầu
niềm yêu thích
6,000 hours, more than seven months, underwater. From her earliest years, Earle had an affinity
lần đầu tiên thả mình ra biển khơi
for marine life, and she took her first plunge into the open sea as a teenager. In the years since
then she has taken part in a number of landmark underwater projects, from exploratory
expeditions around the world to her celebrated “Jim dive” in 1978, which was the deepest solo
tàu hộ trợ
dive ever made without cable connecting the diver to a support vessel at the surface of the sea.
Clothed in a Jim suit, a futuristic suit of plastic and metal armor, which was secured to a
tàu ngầm có người lái
manned submarine, Sylvia Earle plunged vertically into the Pacific Ocean, at times at the speed of
100 feet per minute. On reaching the ocean floor, she was released from the submarine and from
dây buộc
that point her only connection to the sub was an 18-foot tether. For the next 2½ hours, Earle
đi lang thang dưới đáy biển ghi chép
roamed the seabed taking notes, collecting 15 specimens, and planting a U.S. flag. Consumed by a
desire to descend deeper still, in 1981 she became involved in the design and manufacture of 20
tàu lặn dưới đáy biển sâu
deep-sea submersibles, one of which took her to a depth of 3,000 feet. This did not end Sylvia
Earle’s accomplishments.
Question 30: When did Sylvia Earle discover her love of the sea?
A. In her childhood.
B. During her 6,000 hours underwater.
C. After she made her deepest solo dive.
D. In her adulthood.
Question 31: It can be inferred from the passage that Sylvia Earle .
A. is not interested in the scientific aspects of marine research
B. is uncomfortable in tight spaces
C. does not have technical expertise
D. has devoted her life to ocean exploration
Question 32: The author’s opinion of Sylvia Earle is .
A. critical B. supportive C. ambivalent D. disrespectful
Question 33: What will the paragraph following this passage probably be about?
A. Sylvia Earle’s childhood.
B. More information on the Jim suit.
C. Earle’s achievements after 1981.
D. How deep-sea submersibles are manufactured.
Question 34: The main purpose of this passage is .
A. to explore the botany of ocean floor
B. to present a short biography of Sylvia Earle
C. to provide an introduction to oceanography
D. to show the historical importance of the Jim dive

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions. mà ko cần quan tâm tới địa hình bên dưới
There are two basic types of glaciers, those that flow outward in all directions with little regard for
any underlying terrain and those that are bị confined
giới hạnby terrain to a particular path.
The first category of glaciers includes those massive blankets that cover whole continents,
tảng băng
appropriately called ice sheets. There must be over 50,000 square kilometers of land covered with
ice for the glacier to qualify as an ice sheet, when portions of an ice sheet spread out over the ocean,
they form ice shelves. thềm băng
About 20,000 years ago the Cordilleran Ice sheet covered nearly all the mountains in southern
Alaska, western Canada, and the western United States. It was about 3 kilometers deep at its thickest
point in northern Alberta. Now there are only two sheets left on Earth, those covering Greenland and
Antarctica.
Any domelike body of ice that also flows out in all directions but covers less than 50,000 square
chỏm băng
kilometers is called an ice cap. Although ice caps are rare nowadays, there are a number in
northeastern Canada, on Baffin Island, and on the Queen Elizabeth Islands.
The second category of glaciers includes those of a variety of shapes and sizes generally called
mountain or alpine glaciers. Mountain glaciers are typically identified by the landform that controls
sông băng
3
their flow. One form of mountain glacier that resembles an ice cap in that it flows outward in several
trường băng
directions is called an ice field. The difference between an ice field and an ice cap is subtle.rất nhỏ
Essentially, the flow of an ice field is somewhat controlled by surrounding terrain and thus does not
have the domelike shape of a cap. There are several ice fields in Wrangell. St. Elias, and Chugach
mountains of Alaska and northern British Columbia. sông băng hình tròn và thung lũng
Less spectacular than large ice fields are the most common types of mountain glaciers: the cirque
and valley glaciers. Cirque glaciers are found in depressions in the surface of the land and have a
characteristic circular shape. The ice of valley glaciers, bound by terrain, flows down valleys, curves
around their corners, and falls over cliffs. đổ xuống vách đá uốn quanh
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Where major glaciers are located
B. How glaciers shape the land
C. The different kinds of glaciers
D. How glaciers are formed
Question 36: The word “terrain” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____________.
A. the seabed B. area of land C. countryside D. prairie
Question 37: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ice sheets are so named
because____________
A. they are thicker in some areas than the others
B. they are identified by the landform that controls their flow
C. they cover large areas of land
D. they are confined to cirque glaciers
Question 38: According to paragraph 5, ice fields resemble ice caps in which of the following
ways?
A. Their flow B. Their texture C. Their location D. Their shape
Question 39: The word “subtle” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by____________.
A. slight B. substantial C. regional D. obvious
Question 40: All of the following are alpine glaciers EXCEPT____________.
A. cirque glaciers B. ice caps C. ice fields D. Valley glaciers

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: We know that we have to work hardly to earn a living ourselves and support the
family.
A. that B. hardly C. ourselves D. support
Question 42: San Francisco City, that is a beautiful city, has a population of six million.
A. San Francisco B. that which C. a D. has
Question 43: The first year at college was probably the most challenged year of my life.
A. The B. college C. probably D. challenged year
ing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
A. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn’t listen.
B. You should persuade him to change his mind.
C. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind.
D. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
Question 45: “No, it wasn’t me who broke the antique vase.” said the child.
A. The child denied having broken the antique vase.
B. The child refused to have broken the antique vase.
C. The child accepted to have broken the antique vase.
D. The child objected to having broken the antique vase.
Question 46: The more he learned about the job, the less interested he got.
4
A. As soon as he learned about the interesting job, he got it.
B. Though learning that the job is not interesting, he got it.
C. Even though the job is not interesting, he learned about it.
D. When he got to know more about the job, he lost his interest in it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. black B. fare C. calcium D. match
Question 48: A. called B. passed C. watched D. talked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Jane had difficulty carrying her suitcase upstairs, and Mike, her friend, offered to help.
Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mike: "Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?"
Jane:" ____________”
A. That's very kind of you. B. Not a chance.
C. I don't believe it. D. Well done!
Question 50: Minh, a student from Hai Phong, is going to take the college entrance exam in Hanoi
next week. His father is seeing him off at the railway station. Select the most suitable response to fill
in the blank.
Dad: "Good luck with the exam, Minh!"
Minh: "____________.Dad."
A. By no means B. I wish so
C. Thank you D. Never mind

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 61 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C or on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: The corporation has recently unveiled a new version of its new search engine.
A. revealed B. made C. changed D. implemented
Question 2: As he noticed the dark clouds extending across the skyline, he quickly packed up his
things and left.
A. enhancing B. claiming C. guarding D. spanning

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Lặn bằng
Scuba diving is a sport in (3) __________ you swim underwater for extended (4) __________
bình khí
using special equipment. The word Scuba is actually an acronym for self-contained underwater
breathing apparatus. Scuba diving is an excellent way to see some very beautiful sites: coral diving
sites with their colorful sea life are the most famous but other scuba diving (5) __________ include
shipwrecks and caverns. tàu đắm và hang động
Scuba diving can also be a very relaxing sport and in many places it's very beginner friendly.
1 cuộc đào tạo lặn ngắn
Many dive sites are (6) __________ (under the care of an instructor) after a short briefing and
training dive. You can learn to dive far more quickly than you learn snow sports, for example. It's
also suitable for people with a number of physical disabilities. (7) __________ you can use the
breathing equipment and are able to successfully propel yourself underwater you may be able to
dive.
Question 3: A. which B. where C. that D. what
Question 4: A. stages B. rounds C. periods D. terms
Question 5: A. impression B. amusements C. recreations D. attractions
Question 6: A. available B. approaching C. accessible D. manageable
Question 7: A. Because B. When C. As long as D. Although
Miễn là
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 8: We should grow more trees so that they can absorb more carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere.
A. take in B. emit C. consume D. cut off
Question 9: We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high economic
growth, stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.
A. eradication B. aggravation C. prevention D. reduction
sự tăng lên
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: Julia couldn't come to the party because she____________ go to work
A. will have to B. have got C. have D. had to
Question 11: I have two sisters, ____________of whom are teachers because they are into teaching
careers.
A. both B. any C. all D. none
Question 12: The college campus is located in the center of the city, ____________it is very easy to
get there by public transportation.
A. however B. therefore C. so D. though
Question 13: Tea has been consumed in Vietnam for centuries by everyone____________ their
social or educational status.
1
A. in case of B. regardless of C. instead of D. because of
Question 14: We arranged to meet at 7.30, but she never____________.
A. turned down B. turned in C. turned into D. turned up
Question 15: We thought the chair was an antique worth a lot of money, but it turned out to be
a____________replica =priceless=vô giá
A. priceless B. valueless C. valuable D. invaluable
Question 16: Three hours a day of watching TV____________ too much.
A. are B. has C. is D. have
Question 17: All his novels are set in Italy with the____________of his last.
A. acceptance B. accept C. except D. exception
Question 18: Ten million text messages are sent on____________ every minute.
A. normal B. average C. general D. common
Question 19: You will need to ____________ the swimming pool before you carry out the
maintenance.
A. drop B. spill C. drain D. drip
Question 20: John, a notorious thief, ____________computer equipment worth $30 000. No one
detected him.
A. got away with B. do away with C. cut down on D. put up with
Question 21: Do you know who ____________the fact that sound travels in waves?
A. developed B. discovered C. invented D. found
Question 22: You ____________all those dishes, you know - I'd have done them myself when I got
home.
A. didn't need to wash B. needn't have washed
C. needn't wash D. don't need to wash
Question 23: My mom speaks two languages. One is Spanish and____________ one is French.
A. others B. the other C. another D. the others
Question 24: Nobody answered the door __________?
A. did they B. were they C. weren't they D. didn't they
Question 25: John hasn't studied hard this year, so, in the last couple of months, he has had to work
_________ just to catch up.
A. vaguely B. intensely C. barely D. randomly
có cường độ lớn
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. technique B. advance C. challenge D. attempt
Question 27: A. interview B. essential C. comfortable D. industry

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: My grandmother is very old. She can’t do the chores herself.
A. My grandmother is very old that she cant do the chores herself.
B. My grandmother is too old to do the chores herself.
C. My grandmother is such old that she cant do the chores herself.
D. My grandmother is too old to not do the chores herself.
Question 29: She turned the radio on at 7.30. She was still listening to it when her mother came
home at 9.30.
A. She had been listening to the radio at 7.30
B. She had been listening to the radio since 7.30
C. She had been listening to the radio after 7.30
D. She had been listening to the radio by 7.30

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
2
 THE MAN BOOKER PRIZE
The Man Booker Prize for Fiction is awarded annually for full-length novels of writers from the
Commonwealth or the Republic of Ireland with a view to representing the very best in contemporary
fiction. The prestigious prize was originally called the Booker-McConnell Prize, the name of the
sponsor company; however, it was better-known as the 'Booker Prize. In 2002, the name was
modified when Man Group became the sponsor and they kept the word 'Booker?
Books from publishers can be submitted for consideration for the prize. In addition, the judges
can sometimes send invitations to authors if they think the books should be included. Initially, the
Advisory Committee gives advice if there are any changes to the rules for the prize. Then, the
people who will judge the books will be selected. There is an annual change in the judging panel and
usually an individual is only a judge once.
The organizers also made great efforts to ensure that the judging panel is balanced in terms of
gender and professions. Normally, a writer, a critic, an editor and an academic are chosen along with
a celebrity from wider society. Nevertheless, when the panel of judges has been confirmed, they are
left to make their own decisions without any further involvement or intervention from the sponsor.
The Booker Prize is highly appreciated because it rewards the finest in fiction, features great
books to readers and transforms authors' careers. The influence of the prize is so huge that the
winner will almost certainly see the sales increase considerably, along with the £50,000 that comes
with the prize.
Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. the most well-known contemporary books B. a prestigious award in literature
C. the sponsor of the Man Booker prize D. the judging panel of a book prize
Question 31: The word “modified" in paragraph 1, is CLOSEST in meaning to____________
A. changed B. grasp C. allocate D. allowed
Question 32: All of the followings are true about the judges of Man Booker Prize EXCEPT
that____________
A. they may invite authors of the books which are appropriate for the prize
B. judges are selected every year
C. judges do different jobs in the society
D. their decisions are affected by the sponsors
Question 33: What will happen to the writer after they win the prize?
A. They will become a member of the judging board next year.
B. There will be an upsurge in the sales of their books.
C. They will have huge influence in the publishing world.
D. All of their books will be highly appreciated.
Question 34. What does the word "it" in the first paragraph refer to?
A. The Booker-McConnell Prize B. The sponsor company
C. The best contemporary fiction D. The Man group

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all these
cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is very funny, a
good cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feature of life and usually has a
serious purpose.
Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many years. In
wartime, for example, they proved to be an excellent way of spreading propaganda. Nowadays,
cartoons are often used to make short, sharp comments on politics and governments as well as on a
variety of social matters. In this way, the modern cartoon has become a very powerful force in
influencing people in Europe and the United States.
Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings in the
past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read and write. Such
cartoons about the lives and sayings of great men in China have proved extremely useful in bringing
3
education to illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China. Confucius, Mencius and Laozi
have all appeared in very interesting stories presented in the form of cartoons. The cartoons
themselves have thus served to illustrate the teachings of the Chinese sages in a very attractive way.
In this sense, many Chinese cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they do not
depend chiefly on telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chinese cartoons.
This is not their primary aim. In addition, to commenting on serious political and social matters,
Chinese cartoons have aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture as widely as
possible among the people.
Today, however, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge. They offer
a very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world, regardless of the particular
country in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the thoughts and teachings of the old Chinese
philosophers and sages can now reach people who live in such countries as Britain, France,
America, Japan, Malaysia or Australia and who are unfamiliar with Chinese culture.
Until recently, the transfer of knowledge and culture has been overwhelmingly from the West to
the East and not vice versa. By means of cartoons, however, publishing companies in Taiwan, Hong
Kong and Singapore are now having success in correcting this imbalance between the East and the
West.
Cartoons can overcome language barriers in all foreign countries. The vast increase in the
popularity of these cartoons serves to illustrate the truth of Confucius's famous saying "One picture
is worth a thousand words."
Question 35: Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons?
A. Originality, freshness, and astonishment.
B. Humour, unexpectedness, and criticism.
C. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness.
D. Seriousness, propaganda, and attractiveness.
Question 36: The major differences between Chinese cartoons and Western cartoons come from
their____________
A. purposes B. nationalities C. values D. styles
Question 37: The passage is intended to present ____________
A. a contrast between Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
B. an opinion about how cartoons entertain people
C. a description of cartoons of all kinds the world over
D. an outline of Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
Question 38: The word "imbalance" in paragraph 6 refers to____________
A. the mismatch between the East cartoons and the West cartoons
B. the influence of the East cartoons over the West cartoons
C. the dominant cultural influence of the West over the East
D. the discrimination between the West culture and the East culture
Question 39: Which of the following is most likely the traditional subject of Chinese cartoons?
A. The stories and features of the lives of great men the world over.
B. The illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China.
C. Jokes and other kinds of humour in political and social matters.
D. The philosophies and sayings of ancient Chinese thinkers.
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Western cartoons always have a serious purpose.
B. Cartoons will replace other forms of writing.
C. Cartoons can serve various purposes.
D. Language barriers restricted cartoons.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions
Question 41: Many places of history, scientific, cultural, or scenic importance have been designated
national monuments.
4
A. history ical B. cultural C. importance D. have been
Question 42: The villagers are highly appreciable of the volunteers' efforts in reconstructing their
houses after the devastating storm.
A. highly appreciable
ciate B. volunteers' efforts C. reconstructing D. devastating
Question 43: Basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a
basic part of the education of every child.
A. of B. history C. are is D. every

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: I didn't understand what he was saying because I hadn't read his book
A. I couldn't understand his book because I didn't read it.
B. I wouldn't have understood what he was saying if I hadn't read his book.
C. It was had to understand his book so I didn't understand what he was saying.
D. If I had read his book, I would have understood what he was saying.
Question 45: When the class was over, the student ran out, screamed and shouted.
A. As long as the class finished, the students ran out, screamed and shouted.
B. No sooner did the class finish than the student ran out, screamed and shouted.
C. As soon as the class had finished, the student ran out, screamed and shouted.
D. If the class was over, the students would run out, scream and shout.
Question 46: The police are questioning him at the headquarters.
A. He is being asked to make questions by the police at the headquarters.
B. The police are making questions about him at headquarters.
C. The police are trying to get information from him at the headquarters.
D. Many questions are raised about him by the police at the headquarters.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. identity B. finalist C. applicant D. reliance
Question 48: A. thrilling B. thorough C. healthy D. southern

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: "Hello, I'd like to speak to Mr. Green, please."
“__________”
A. I'm afraid I don't know. B. I'm sorry. I'll call again later.
C. Sorry. Can you take a message? D. Sure, I'll put you through.
Question 50: "Do you mind if I use your phone?" " __________”
A. Not at all. Help yourself. B. No, thanks.
C. Sorry, I have no idea. D. Certainly, it's true.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 62 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 1: It was late at night, the wind was howling and when she heard the knock on the door,
she almost jumped out of her skin.
A. was surprised B. was asleep C. was terrified D. was delighted
Question 2: Wild animals use various methods to ward off predators and their natural enemies.
A. rebel B. befriend C. deter D. attack
bảo vệ bản thân trc nguy hiểm
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
To get started on your weight loss journey, Davis recommends (3) ____________at three areas of
your lifestyle that might require change: food, exercise and sleep. “I call it a trifecta approach,
because these three things are essential to keeping weight loss sustainable," she said. For example,
in the diet category, you might start eating more (4) ____________vegetables and aim to drink more
water. Being more physically active might involve simply getting up every hour if you have a desk
job, taking the stairs instead of the elevator and parking your car farther from an entrance. Going to
the gym regularly is helpful, but don't expect it to make up (5) ____________those morning
doughnuts. Generally speaking, the amount of exercise required to compensate for diet damage is
huge (think of walking briskly for nearly two hours to burn off a 500-calorie piece of cake) and
explains why diet is generally more crucial than exercise for weight loss. Since sleep impacts hunger
and satiety hormones, getting enough Zs is another lifestyle factor that can (6) ____________or
break your weight loss efforts. “Sleep is essential for weight loss," Davis said. “I have clients who
are doing all these great things with their eating (7) ____________and going to the gym, but they
don't realize that a lack of sleep is really wrecking their goals?
(Source: https://edition.cnn.com)
Question 3: A. look B. to look C. looking D. looks
Question 4: A. fiber-rich B. fibered-rich C. rich-fiber D. rich-fibered
Question 5: A. of B. for C. on D. with
Question 6: A. bring B. do C. take D. make
Question 7: A. habitats B. habits C. habitual D. habitable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 8: Population growth rate varies among regions and even among countries within the
same region.
A. restrain changed B. stay unchanged C. remain unstable D. fluctuate
Question 9: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. difficult to operate D. simple and easy to use

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: The examination was not very difficult, but it was_____________ long.
A. so much B. too much C. very much D. much too
Question 11: Our industrial output_____________from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.
A. rises B. has risen C. was rising D. rose
Question 12; We had a lot of fun_____________at the picnic.
A. to play B. playing C. played D. plays
1
Question 13: We_____________to take a taxi. Otherwise we’ll be late for the meeting.
A. would rather B. had better C. must have D. will have
Question 14: Some film stars_____________difficult to work with.
A. are said be B. are said to be C. say to be D. said to be
Question 15: ___________ the long jumper_____________the pole-vaulter win the prize.
A. Both-and B. Neither-nor C. Either-or D. Not only-but also
Question 16: _____________restaurant you pick is fine with me.
A. Whichever B. Whenever C. whoever D. wherever
Question 17: Now the manager is no longer as indifferent____________criticism as he used to be.
A. against B. to C. towards D. with
Question 18: Does Mr. Mike bring his farm_____________to the local market every day?
A. productively B. productive C. product D. produce
Question 19: In population growth Latin America____________first, Africa second, and Asia third.
A. places B. ranks C. numbers D. stands
Question 20: The referee_____________the coin to decide which team would kick the ball first.
A. caught B. threw C. cast D. tossed
Question 21: Sorry for being late. I was_____________in the traffic for more than an hour.
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
để dành cho nhx lúc thiếu thốn
Question 22: Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a_____________day.
A. windy B. rainy C. foggy D. snow
Question 23: “What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly_____________and most certainly not for
publication” said the government to the reporter.
A. off the record ko chính thức B. for the time being
C. by the way D. on record
Question 24: The hotel was terrible, but the wonderful beach _________ our disappointment.
A. got over B. made up for C. saw to D. faced up to
Question 25: These chairs are _______ better than the others.
A. as B. much C. very D. either

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 26: A. courteous B. uncertain C. popular D. arrogant
Question 27: A. provide B. broaden C. succeed D. pursue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: People looked down on his invention at first. It enjoyed, however, an unparalleled
popularity later.
A. His invention, although treated with disdain in its early years, enjoyed an unparalleled
popularity later.
B. When his invention became extremely popular, people no longer looked down on it.
C. His invention was treated equally when it first appeared, but it gradually gained its popularity
afterwards.
D. The unparalleled popularity of his invention was an inevitable result as it was highly
thought of in its early years.
Question 29: He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not
talented.
A. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.
C. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.
D. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.

2
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions
In an unexpected sign of hope amid the expanding pandemic, scientists at the University of Oxford
said on Tuesday that an inexpensive and commonly available drug reduced deaths in patients
critically ill with COVID-19.
If the finding is officially confirmed, the drug, a steroid called dexamethasone, would be the first
treatment shown to reduce mortality in severely ill patients. Had doctors been using the drug to treat
the sickest Covid-19 patients in Britain from the beginning of the pandemic, up to 5,000 deaths
could have been prevented, the researchers estimated. In the study, it reduced deaths of patients on
ventilators by one-third, and deaths of patients on oxygen by one-fifth.
Until now, hospitals worldwide have had nothing to offer these desperate, dying patients, and the
prospect of a lifesaving treatment close at hand - in almost every pharmacy - was met with
something like elation by doctors.
Dexamethasone is the first drug to be shown to improve survival in Covid-19, one of the trial's chief
investigators, Peter Horby, a professor of emerging infectious diseases at the University of Oxford,
said in a statement. The survival benefit is clear and large in those patients who are sick enough to
require oxygen treatment.
However, there is still, obviously, a significant amount of scepticism. While hospitals in the United
Kingdom were allowed to begin treating severely ill COVID-19 patients with dexamethasone, many
experts in the United States demanded to see the data and the study itself, which have not yet been
peer reviewed or published.
(Adapted from nytimes.com)
Question 30: According to paragraph 2, it is estimated by researchers that _____
A. 5000 patients could have been saved had there been enough medical equipment.
B. 5000 patients would not have needed ventilators had dexamethasone been used.
C. 5000 patients would likely have not died if they had been given dexamethasone.
D. 5000 patients could have avoided COVID-19 infection if they had used steroids.
Question 31: The word 'it' in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. the finding B. the drug C. the pandemic D. the study
Question 32: The word "elation” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. great confusion B. bitter anger C. deep regret D. immense joy
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Before the dexamethasone research, hospitals had to give other drugs to COVID-19 patients.
B. Many health experts in the US still remain doubtful of the dexamethasone research's findings.
C. Dexamethasone is a type of steroid that is cheap and readily available in many pharmacies.
D. Researchers found that dexamethasone can reduce mortality in severely ill COVID-19 patients.
Question 34: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Doctors Under Pressure As COVID-19 Spreads
B. Scientists Found Potential Treatment For COVID-19
C. The Lack of Drugs Amid the COVID-19 Pandemic
D. Drugs Being Used to Treat COVID-19 Patients

Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual
not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that
the phones are more than a means of communication- having a mobile phone shows that they are
cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals
worried. Some doctors are convinced that in the future many people may suffer health problems
from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile
phone companies are bad for your health.

3
 On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who
use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern
scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at a young age because of
serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of
his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his
working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his
employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech
machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies
agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less
often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when
you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In
the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for
now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often
Question 35: The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with _______.
A. the cells and tissues of the brain. B. the resident memory.
C. the mobility of the mind and the body. D. the arteries of the brain.
Question 36: According to the writer, people should ____________.
A. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.
B. keep off mobile phones regularly.
C. never use mobile phones in all cases.
D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases.
Question 37: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ________.
A. abandoned his family. B. could no longer think by himself.
C. had a problem with memory. D. had a serious problem with mobility.
Question 38: The most suitable title for the passage could be _________.
A. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time
B. The Reason Why Mobile Phones Are Popular.
C. The Way Mobile Phones Work.
D. Technological Innovations and Their Price.
Question 39: The word "potentially" in the 4th paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to ________.
A. certainly B. privately C. obviously D. possibly
Question 40: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may ________.
A. change their user' temperament B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users' social behavior D. damage their users' emotions.

Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions
Question 41: Neither the Minister nor his assistants has given an explanation for the failure of the
conference last week. have
A. nor B. has given C. for D. the conference
Question 42: A year out provided her with so extensive experience that the interviewer was very
impressed. that
A. A year out B. so extensive C. was D. impressed
Question 43: Tim was considered to be a good employee because he was always punctual,
motivated and led the team well.
A. was considered B. employee C. always D. led the team well

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: He knew little about the nature world.
A. He had a little knowledge about the nature world.
4
B. He had little knowledge of the nature world.
C. He knew little knowledge according to the nature world.
D. He rarely knew of the little nature world.
Question 45: "Why don't you complain to the company, John?" said Peter.
A. Peter asked John why he doesn't complain to the company.
B. Peter advised John complaining to the company.
C. Peter suggested John to complain to the company.
D. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company.
Question 46: John certainly can't be held responsible for the accident.
A. In no way can John be held responsible for the accident.
B. Certainly can't John be held responsible for the accident.
C. For any reason can John not be held responsible for the accident.
D. On no account can John not be held responsible for the accident.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. theatre B. thunder C. therefore D. throughout
Question 48: A. apologises B. invites C. roofs D. certificates

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 49: Annie: 'Do you prefer traveling by plane or by train?
Peter: ‘____________’
A. I use neither. B. No, not at all. C. Sometimes. D. It terrifies me.
Question 50: Mary: 'Can you give me a lift? My car's in the shop and I'm already late to work?
Henry: ____________
A. No, that would be fine. B. Sure. I'll drop you off on my way to class.
C. Yes, but I am afraid I am in a hurry now. D. Sorry. I am more than happy to help.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 63 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Soccer has been slow to catch on in the U.S. This is because most people prefer to
watch baseball, basketball, and football.
A. get popular B. be entertained C. be frustrating D. be confusing
Question 2: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He's always
putting his foot in his mouth
A. speaking indirectly B. saying something upsetting
C. doing things in the wrong order D. talking too much

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks.
The story of gold is an adventure involving kings, queens, pirates, explorers, conquerors, and
the native people they conquered. Throughout history, gold has (3) _____________a magic spell
over
those it touched. Gold is beautiful and rare; a soft shiny metal that can be moulded into many
shapes. It has been used for money, jewelry, and to decorate special buildings such as palaces and
places of worship. (4) _____________the precious metal was discovered, prospectors rushed to
mine it, starting new cities and countries as they went. Gold and the people who love it have helped
shape the world we live in today. Gold is one of many elements, or substances that cannot be
changed by normal chemical means, that are found in the Earth's crust. Gold has a warm, sunny
colour and (5)_____________it does not react with air, water, and most chemicals, its shine never
fades. In its natural (6) _____________, gold is soft and easily shaped, when heated to 1,062 Celsius
it melts and can be poured (7) _____________moulds to form coins, gold bars, and other objects.
Stories have been told, movies made and legends born about the discovery of the world's great gold
deposits. It is a saga of dreams, greed, ambition and exploration.
Question 3: A. knitted B. folded C. woven D. sewn
Question 4: A. Whoever B. However C. Wherever D.Whatever
Question 5: A. despite B. because C. yet D. so
Question 6 : A. position B. size C. condition D.shape
Question 7 : A. into B. forward C. with D. at

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A connection between the events was implied in several news on TV this morning.
A. odd B. explicit C. implicit D. obscure
Question 9: We were paid about $50,000, but that was a drop in the bucket compared to what
some other companies got.
A. a small amount B. a sheer quantity C. a leading figure D. a dripping tap

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question10: The pool should not be made so deep____________ small children can be safe there.
A. if B. so as to C. though D. so that
Question 11: There has been a great increase in retail sales, ____________?
A. hasn't there B. isn't there C. isn't it D. doesn't it
Question 12: In China, there are still a lot of____________families sharing the same house.
A. extent B. extension C. extended D. extensive
1
Question 13: ________, they seem to be in agreement, though there are still some details to be
settled.
A. Shortly B. Overall C. Nonetheless D. Subsequently
Question 14: Only one of our gifted students____________to participate in the final competition.
A. has been chosen B. have been chosen C. were choosing D. chosen
Question 15: Ann was not____________ to think that the test was too difficult.
A. who B. the one who C. the only one D. among the people
Question 16: It is possible____________ may assist some trees in saving water in the winter.
A. the leaves are lost B. that the loss of leaves
C. to lose leaves D. when leaves have lost
Question 17: It is no use____________ over spilt milk.
A. crying B. to cry C. to be crying D. cried
Question 18: He succeeded ____________ getting a scholarship.
A. in B. about C. for D. on
Question 19: You should read this novel. It has been____________recommended by all the critics.
A. deeply B. fully C. highly D. truly
Question 20: Readers are invited to___________ their own conclusions from the report.
A. draw B. make C. learn D. think
Question 21: The boy's strange behavior aroused the____________of the shop assistant.
A. thought B. consideration C. expectations D. suspicions
Question 22: Long ago, women were____________to vote in political elections
A. prevented B. stopped C. forbidden D. banned
Question 23: It is not____________ the bounds of possibility that we'll all meet again one day.
A. beyond B. in C. under D. over
Question 24: Malaria is a disease _________ by the anopheles.
A. transmit B. transmitting C. is transmitted D. transmitted
Question 25: “Why do the police want to talk to you?" - "Because we saw the money ____ last
night."
A. stolen B. been stolen C. stealing D. stole

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate that it differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. participant B. particular C. enthusiast D. preferential
Question 27: A. technique B. finish C. reduce D. impress

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: We accept that changes are unavoidable. We will not allow everything to be wiped
out, destroyed or forgotten.
A. Despite accepting that changes are unavoidable, but we will not allow everything to be wiped
out, destroyed or forgotten.
B. We accept that changes are unavoidable, as we will not allow everything to be wiped out,
destroyed or forgotten.
C. Rather than accepting that changes are unavoidable we will allow everything to be wiped out,
destroyed or forgotten.
D. Accepting that changes are unavoidable does not mean that we will allow everything to be wiped
out, destroyed or forgotten.
Question 29: Increasing urbanization has led to problems. Cities are centers of civilization and
culture.
A. Although increasing urbanization has led to problems, but cities are centers of civilization and
culture.
B. In spite of increasing urbanization has led to problems, yet cities are centers of civilization and
culture.
2
C. Despite increasing urbanization has led to problems, but cities are centers of civilization and
cultures.
D. Though increasing urbanization has led to problems, cities are centers of civilization and culture.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
Social media marketing has increased due to the growing active user rates on social media sites.
For example, Facebook currently has 2.2 billion users, Twitter has 330 million active users and
Instagram has 800 million users.
One of the main uses is to interact with audiences to create awareness of the brand or service,
with the main idea of creating a two-way communication system where the audience and/or
customers can interact back; providing feedback as just one example. Social media can be used to
advertise; placing an advert on Facebook's Newsfeed, for example, can allow a vast number of
people to see it or targeting specific audiences from their usage to encourage awareness of the
product or brand. Users of social media are then able to like, share and comment on the advert,
becoming message senders as they can keep passing the advert's message on to their friends and
onwards. The use of new media puts consumers in the position of spreading opinions, sharing
experience, and has shifted power from organization to consumers for it allows transparency and
different opinions to be heard.
Media marketing has to keep up with all the different platforms. They also have to keep up with
the ongoing trends that are set by big influencers and draw many people's attention. The type of
audience a business is going for will determine the social media site they use.
Question 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Advertisements on social media B. New types of marketing
C. Let listen to our customers D. Two-way communication
Question 31: The word “vast” in the second paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to___________
A. enormous B. definite C. small D. certain
Question 32: According to the second paragraph, users can do the followings with the adverts on
social media EXCEPT___________
A. like B. share C. pass D. adjust
Question 33: According to the third paragraph, what do media marketing have to keep up with?
A. The type of audience B. The new trends set by every normal user
C. All the various platforms D. Other types of media
Question 34: What is the benefit of creating a two-way communication system?
A. It allows customers interact back B. It provides examples for users
C. Users can create their own adverts D. More and more people visit the sites

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people. In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin - a
behavioural biologist - describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does not give
sleeping the importance it deserves.
Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep. We are now a 24/7 society where shops and
services must be available all hours. We spend longer hours at work than we used to, and more time
getting to work. Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round the clock and late-night
TV and the Internet tempt us away from our beds. When we need more time for work or pleasure,
the easy solution is to sleep less. The average adult sleeps only 6.2 hours a night during the week,
whereas research shows that most people need eight or even eight and a half hours' sleep to feel at
their best. Nowadays, many people have got used to sleeping less than they need and they live in an
almost permanent state of "sleep debt".
Until the invention of the electric light in 1879 our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on the
hours of daylight. People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall. But nowadays our
hours of sleep are mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life, and most people are
3
woken up artificially by an alarm clock. During the day caffeine, the world's most popular drug,
helps to keep us awake. 75% of the world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a
point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation. cáu kỉnh
What doesthiếu ngủ mãn tính
a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as
humans, it also reduces our motivation and ability to work. This has serious implications for society
in general. Doctors, for example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially when they are on
giảm
'night call', and may get less than three hours' sleep. Lack of sleep can seriously impair their mood,
judgment, and ability to make decisions. Tired engineers, in the early hours of the morning, made a
series of mistakes with catastrophic results. On our roads and motorways lack of sleep kills
thousands of people every year. Tests show that a tired driver can be just as dangerous as a drunken
driver. However, driving when drunk is against the law but driving when exhausted isn't. As Paul
Martin says, it is very ironic that we admire people who function on very little sleep instead of
criticizing them for being irresponsible. Our world would be a much safer, happier place if everyone,
whatever their job, slept eight hours a night.
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about Paul
Martin?
A. He shows his concern for sleep deprivation in modern society.
B. He describes the modern world as a place without insomnia.
C. He is a scientist who is chronically deprived of sleep.
D. He gives an interesting account of a sleepless society.
Question 36: The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as__________
A. an easy solution to sleep deprivation
B. a temptation that prevents us from sleeping
C. a factor that is not related to sleep deprivation
D. an ineffective means of communication
Question 37: According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. The electric light was invented in the 19 century.
B. The sun obviously determined our daily routines.
C. The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep.
D. Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.
Question 38: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the last paragraph?
A. Sleep deprivation has negative effects on both individuals and society.
B. Doctors "on night call" do not need more than three hours of sleep a day.
C. Thousands of people are killed every day by drunken drivers.
D. Our motivation decreases with the bigger number of hours we sleep.
Question 39: The word "catastrophic" in the last paragraph probably means__________
A. likely to become worthless
B. becoming more noticeable
C. bound to bring satisfaction
D. causing serious damage or loss
Question 40: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. A Well-known Biologist
B. Sleep Deprivation: Causes and Effects
C. Accident Prevention: Urgent!
D. A Society of Sleepness People

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: Keith had so interesting and creative plans that everyone wanted to work on his
committee.
A. wanted B. plans C. so interesting D. on
Question 42: Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large,
industrial world.
4
A. in our large B. with C. many D. are
Question 43: A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the same
idea.
A. sentences B. consists of C. to D. A paragraph

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the
following questions
Question 44: The team couldn't reach the top of the mountain because of the avalanche.
A. The avalanche prevented the team from reaching the top of the mountain.
B. The avalanche made the team impossible to reach the top of the mountain.
C. The avalanche made it not capable of reaching the top of the mountain.
D. Reaching the top of the mountain was unable due to the avalanche.
Question 45: If I had been you, I would have helped him yesterday.
A. You should help him yesterday. B. You ought to help him yesterday.
C. You should have helped him yesterday. D. You had better help him yesterday.
Question 46: He hasn't met his Mom for 5 years.
A. It is for 5 years that he hasn't met his Mom B. It is 5 years since he hasn't met his Mom
C. He last met his Mom for 5 years D. He last met his Mom since 5 years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. wear B. pear C. bear D. beard
Question 48: A. enough B. high C. through D. though

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Hana and Rina are talking about Lucy.
- Hanna: “Lucy has lost her purse somewhere this morning!”
- Rina: “_____________”
A. Tough luck B. Congratulations!
C. Never mind. D. I will take it for her
Question 50: Lucia wants to borrow his friend's bike.
- Lucia: “Would you mind if I used your bike?”
- Friend: “_____________”
A. I don’t want to use your bike. B. Sure, go ahead.
C. Sorry, no, I won't do it. D. Please accept it with my best wishes.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 64 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 1: While they were away on vacation, they allowed their mail to accumulate at the post
office.
A. be delivered B. pile up C. get lost D. be returned
Question 2: There's a large grey area regarding whether the use of the new genetic technology is
lawful. ko rõ ràng ko đc biết tới
A. obviousness B. obscurity C. darkness D. imbalance

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbers.
Library is a collection of books and other informational materials made available to people for
tham khảo
reading, study, or reference. The word library comes from liber, the Latin word for "book".
(3)____________ library collections have almost always contained a variety of materials.
đương đại
Contemporary libraries maintain collections that include not only printed materials such as
manuscripts, books, newspapers, and magazines, but also audio-visual and online databases. In
addition, to maintaining collections within library buildings, modern libraries often feature
telecommunications links that provide users with access to information at remote sites.
The central mission of a library is to collect, organize, preserve, and provide access to knowledge
and information. In fulfilling this mission, libraries preserve a valuable record of culture that can be
passed down to (4) ____________ generations. Libraries are an essential link in this communication
between the past, present, and future. Whether the cultural record is contained in books or in
electronic formats, libraries ensure (5) ____________ the record is preserved and made available for
later use.
People use library resources to gain information about personal interests or to obtain recreational
materials such as films and novels. Students use libraries to supplement and enhance their classroom
experiences, to learn (6) ____________ in locating sources of information, and to develop good
reading and study habits. Public officials use libraries to research legislation and public policy
issues. One of the most valued of all cultural institutions, the library (7) ____________ information
and services that are essential to learning and progress.
Question 3: A. Despite B. However C. Therefore D. Instead
Question 4: A. succeeding B. succeed C. successful D. success
Question 5: A. what B. which C. who D. that
Question 6: A. abilities B. skills C. talents D. capacities
Question 7: A. relates B. applies C. supplies D. digests

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: Nutritious snacks provide an important contribution towards your child's daily
nutritional needs.
A. Unhealthy B. Packed C. Cooked D. Inexpensive
Question 9: She relies on you so much that she tells you the whole story. You'd better keep it under
your hat.
A. mysterious B. revealed C. confidential D. unknown

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to complete each
of the following questions.

1
Question 10: All applicants must ________ their university transcript and two reference letters to be
considered for this job.
A. submit B. omit C. admit D. permit
Question 11: I find it rather _________ to hear that Jack is getting married next week.
A. surprise B. surprisingly C. surprising D. surprised
Question 12: Nam wanted to know what time ________.
A. the movie began B. would the movie begin
C. the movie begins D. did the movie begin
Question 13: They live in a very _________ populated area of Italy.
A. barely B. hardly C. sparsely D. scarcely
Question 14: The last person __________ the room must turn off the lights.
A. who leave B. left C. to leave D. leaving
Question 15: While studying, he was financially dependent _______ his parents.
A. to B. from C. on D. of
Question 16: I don't remember ____________ of your decision to change our vocation plan.
A. being told B. to tell C. to be told D. telling
Question 17: It is essential that every student _________ to learn English at university.
A. had B. to have C. have D. has
Question 18: The prices at the garage I use are very ___________.
A. reasonable B. rational C. acceptable D. logical
Question 19: Although my village is not far away from the city center, we had no _________ until
recently.
A. electricity B. electric C. electrify D. electrical
Question 20: How can the boss act _________ nothing had happened?
A. if B. therefore C. so D. as though
Question 21: Had I studied harder, I _________ better in the last exam.
A. would have done B. would do C. had done D. wouldn't have done
Question 22: The singer was _________ on the piano by her sister.
A. discarded B. accompanied đệm nhạc C. played D. performed
Question 23: Don't worry about trying to catch the last train home, as we can easily _______ you up
for the night.
A. keep B. take C. put D. set
Question 24: I bought a _________ car.
A. modern blue American racing B. blue modern American racing
C. modern racing American blue D. modern blue racing American
Question 25: She started the course two months ago but dropped ______ after only a month.
A. back B. out C. off D. in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. confide B. finish C. prepare D. migrate
Question 27: A. beneficial B. economic C. industrial D. scientific

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Question 29: A thermometer is an instrument. We use it to measure the temperature.
A. We use it to measure the temperature which is a thermometer.
B. A thermometer is an instrument which is used to measure the temperature.
2
C. We use thermometer which measure the temperature.
D. A thermometer is an instrument which we use it to measure the temperature.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
By adopting a few simple techniques, parents who read to their children can considerably increase
their children's language development. It is surprising, but true. How parents talk to their children
makes a big difference in the children's language development. If a parent encourages the child to
actively respond to what the parent is reading, the child's language skills increase.
A study was done with two or three-year-old children and their parents. Half of the thirty children
participants were in the experimental study; the other half acted as the control group. In the
experimental group, the parents were given a two-hour training session in which they were taught to
ask open-ended questions rather than yes-no questions. For example, the parent should ask, "What is
the doggy doing?" rather than, "Is the doggy running away?" Experimental parents were also
instructed how to expand on their children's answers, how to suggest alternative possibilities, and
how to praise correct answers.
At the beginning of the study, the children did not differ on levels of language development, but at
the end of one month, the children in the experimental group were 5.5 months ahead of the control
group on a test of verbal expression and vocabulary. Nine months later, the children in the
experimental group still showed an advance of 6 months over the children in the control group.
Question 30: Parents can give great help to their children's language development by _______them.
A. responding to B. reading to C. adopting D. experimenting
Question 31: What does the word "they" in the second paragraph refer to?
A. Participants B. Children C. Questions D. Parents
Question 32: During the training session, experimental parents were taught to____________.
A. use yes-no questions B. study many experiments
C. ask open-ended questions D. give correct answers
Question 33: What was the major difference between the control group and the experimental one in
the study?
A. The number of participants. B. The books that were read.
C. The age of the children. D. The training that parents received.
Question 34: What conclusion can be drawn from this passage?
A. Children who read actively always act six months earlier than those who don't.
B. The more children read, the more intelligent they become.
C. Two or three-year-old children can be taught to read actively.
D. Children's language skills increase when they are required to respond actively.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions. sắp cạn kiệt
We may love coffee but, according to a 2019 study, our morning cup could be on the brink.
phá rừng sâu bệnh mầm bềnh
Scientists at Britain's Royal Botanic Gardens claim that conditions like deforestation, pests and
hết
pathogens could see 60 per cent of all wild coffee species perish within the next few decades.
Climate change alone could cut land suitable for Arabica production in half by 2050.
hiện thực
Nespresso wants to make sure none of this comes to fruition. That's why they've created the AAA
Sustainable Quality program to help farmers in prime coffee growing regions make their
trạng trại nhỏ
smallholdings more resilient to climate change. One of the ways it's doing so is with trees, which are
key to the future of not only high-quality coffee but the valuable heritage of the cultures that grow it.
By 2020, Nespresso plans to plant five million trees in Colombia, Guatemala, Ethiopia,
phương pháp nông lâm
Indonesia, Mexico, and Nicaragua through insetting - an agroforestry practice that balances a
trong chuỗi cung ứng qtrinh thấm nước
business's carbon emissions by planting trees within its supply chain. The insetting process,
implemented by forestry partner PUR Project, goes beyond accounting for a company's emissions to
restore local ecosystems and help build sustainability.

3
Text
 hỗn loạn
Over decades, increasingly turbulent weather conditions in these regions have caused their
củng cố
natural tree cover to disappear; taking soil-nourishing nutrients and wildlife that fortified the land
cây non trên sườn đồi núi cao
with it. But, by planting the right kinds of saplings on their high-altitude mountain slopes,
smallholders like Willy Solare's Aguilar of Jalapa, Guatemala are nurturing biodiversity back into
full swing. trở lại đầy đủ nhà nông học
Since 2014, Don Willy has been working closely with Nespresso agronomists to understand how
the trees he's planting secure his coffee's future by enriching the soil and protecting against extreme
weather. But, as a lucrative additional benefit, they'll also provide Don Willy and his wife Maria an
gỗ và củi
additional income from the fruit, timber and fuelwood they'll produce.
Passionate about preserving their region's rich coffee culture, forward thinking farmers like Don
áp dụng phương pháp nông lâm kết hợp bền vững
Willy are integral in encouraging other growers to adopt Nespresso's sustainable agroforestry
practices. After all, it's these techniques that will help them ensure that their heritage, and the worlds'
coffee supply, prospers for generations to come.
(Source: National Geographic October 2019 issue)
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Felling trees is one of the causes leading to coffee vanishing.
B. Growing trees is the priority of Nespresso.
C. Planting trees cannot bring any other benefits besides guaranteeing coffee's future.
D. Progressive farmers play an important role in spreading the techniques of Nespresso's
agronomists.
Question 36: Which of the following does not relate to extra earnings when planting trees?
A. fruit B. timber C. fuelwood D. flowers
Question 37: The word "turbulent" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to____________
A. moderate B. rough C. mild D. dry
Question 38: Which of the following terms does the author explain in the passage?
A. carbon emissions B. deforestation C. techniques D. insetting
Question 39: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. Preventing a world without coffee B. Ways to protect the world's coffee supply
C. Coffee on the verge of extinction D. Consequences of coffee disappearance
Question 40: Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. cause, consequence, and solution B. cause and effect
C. specific to general D. chronological order

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: By measuring the color of a star, astronomers can tell how hot is it.
A. measuring B. the C. how D. is it
Question 42: A £100 award has been offered for the return of the necklace.
A. awardreward B. has been offered C. for D. the
Question 43: A finishing motion picture is the work of the collaboration of many individuals.
A. finishing B. motion picture C. the work D. individuals

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: Studying all night is good for neither your grades nor your health.
A. Studying all night is good for your grades.
B. Studying all night does not help at all.
C. Studying all night is good for your health
D. Studying all night is helpful to you
Question 45: You should not keep bad company under any circumstances.
A. In no circumstances should you be friends with bad people.
B. Under no circumstances should you not keep bad company.
C. Under any circumstances shouldn’t you make friends with bad people.
4
D. In no circumstances should you keep your company because it is bad.
Question 46: Although he was disabled, he was quite confident the first time he practiced this sport.
A. Though a disabled boy, he was quite confident the first time he practiced this sport.
B. Though he was unable to walk, but the first time he practiced this sport, he was quite confident
C. In spite of being quite confident the first time he practiced this sport, he was disabled
D. He was quite confident when practicing this sport for the first time despite of a disabled boy.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. service B. practice C. office D. advice
Question 48: A. interviewed B. disapproved C. sacrificed D. qualified

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Stephanie: "Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?"
Scott: “____________”
A. No, thanks. B. No, not at all!
C. Yes, I do too. D. Yes, sure!
Question 50: "Remember not to eat fast. It's not good for your health.
" ____________"
A. All right, I won't. Thanks, doctor. B. It's OK. I will.
C. Thanks for your suggestion. D. I'm sorry. I have eaten so much fat.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 65 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate a word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 1: You never really know where you are with her as she just blows hot and cold.
A. keeps testing B. keeps going
C. keep changing her opinion D. keeps taking things
Question 2: With the Artemis program, NASA will land the first woman and next man on the Moon
by 2024, using innovative technologies to explore more of the lunar surface than ever before.
A. crude B. rustic C. traditional D. latest

Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but
can't find the energy to get out of bed in time for school? According to a new report, today's
generation of children are in danger of getting so little sleep that they are putting their mental and
physical health at (3)________. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours' sleep a night,
(4)________ teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five
youngsters gets anything between two and five hours' sleep a night less than their parents did at their
age.
This raises serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children's ability to
concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired
reaction time and poor concentration is well established. Research has shown that losing as little as
half an hour's sleep a night can have profound (5)_________ on how children perform the next day.
A good night's sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (6)________
they release a hormone that is essential for their 'growth spurt' (the period during teenage years when
the body grows at a rapid rate). It's true that they can, (7)_______ some extent, catch up on sleep at
weekends, but that won't help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday
afternoon.
By Tim Falla and Paul A. Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP
Question 3: A. risk B. threat C. danger D. jeopardy
Question 4: A. so B. or C. whereas D. because
Question 5: A. effective B. effectively C. affect D. effect
Question 6: A. that B. which C. when D. where
Question 7: A. at B. to C. in D. on

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined words in each of the following questions.
Question 8: Unemployment will be a dominant issue at the next meeting of the city council.
A. clever B. time-consuming C. vague D. minor
Question 9: Maria was very surprised when she won the prize. It was beyond her wildest dreams.
A. conceivable B. acceptable C. breathtaking D. commercial

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: I will return Bob's pen to him the next time I__________ him.
A. see B. will see C. am seeing D. saw
Question 11: It is important to have someone you can__________ in.
A. talk B. speak C. know D. confide
Question 12: You__________ clean the windows. The window-cleaner is coming tomorrow.
1
A. don't have B. must C. mustn't D. needn't
Question 13: I like to keep the windows open at night no matter how cold it gets. My wife,
__________prefers a warm bedroom with all windows tightly shut.
A. nevertheless B. consequently C. on the other hand D. moreover
Question 14: Our teacher would like__________
A. that we practicing our pronunciation B. we to practice our pronunciation
C. us to practice our pronunciation D. us practicing our pronunciation
Question 15: Kate plays__________ violin in an orchestra.
A. the B. а C. an D. no article
Question 16: They will be able to walk across the river__________
A. if the ice will be thick enough B. unless the ice is thick enough
C. if the ice is thick enough D. when the ice will be thick enough
Question 17: I don't care__________ money. Money can't buy happiness.
A. about B. with C. in D. at
Question 18: All the goods were__________ displayed in the shop window.
A. beauty B. beautiful C. beautifully D. beautified
Question 19: The Giant Panda has been on the__________ of extinction for many years.
A. border B. verge C. margin D. rim
Question 20: He was lucky to escape from the accident with only__________ injuries.
A. minor B. serious C. important D. major
Question 21: We are__________ an experiment to test how the metal reacts with water.
A. doing B. making C. giving D. carrying
Question 22: It is__________ appreciated that the rail network needs a complete overhaul.
A. widely B. badly C. regularly D. equally
Question 23: Writing rhymes for birthday cards is really easy. It's money for old__________
A. rags B. bread C. rope D. rubbish
Question 24: Standing on top of the hill, __________.
A. people have seen a castle far away B. lies a castle in the middle of the island
C. a castle can be seen from the distance D. we can see a castle in the distance
Question 25: Down into the cave _________.
A. did the rescue party go B. went the rescue party
C. the rescue party went D. did go the rescue party

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26 A. sector B. lawyer C. workforce D. prefer
Question 27 A. diversity B. biography C. biology D. fundamental

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: He sings well. He plays musical instruments perfectly.
A. Not only he sings well but does he also play musical instruments perfectly.
B. Not only does he sing well but he has also played musical instruments perfectly.
C. Not only does he sing well but he also plays musical instruments perfectly.
D. Not only does he sing well but he also play musical instruments perfectly.
Question 29: Hillary Clinton is planning to run for president in 2020. That surprises me a lot.
A. Hillary Clinton is planning to run for president in 2020, that surprises me most.
B. Hillary Clinton is planning to run for president in 2020, which surprises me very much.
C. What almost surprises me is Hillary Clinton's plan to run for president in 2020.
D. I am almost not surprised by Hillary Clinton's plan to run for president in 2020.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
2
 Learning to Love Locally Grown Foods
Cooking shows on TV are usually all about exotic foods. Thanks to globalization, people
vị giác
everywhere are introducing their taste buds to dishes from every corner of the world. At the same
time, other people are discovering that food from their area is the best kept secret. In the past few
years, this movement of purchasing local produce keeps picking up steam because it offers a lot of
benefits. thu mua nông sản
For starters, local food is often tastier because it is fresher. Goods that are imported from abroad
must be flown or shipped in from far away, so they naturally lose some of their freshness during the
journey. A simple way to test this is to sample a banana from overseas versus one that was grown
hàng hoá nhập khẩu
locally and compare the tastes. Imported goods must also be washed and packaged in plastic or other
containers so they can survive the journey. These materials may cause the nutritional value of these
goods to decline during the shipping process. Food safety is another reason why people are choosing
local produce. Today's laws regarding foods vary from country to country. This causes confusion
and makes it difficult to detect if any harmful pesticides were used. When you know the local farmer
who grows your food and the fields that are used to produce it, the chances of it being contaminated
are greatly reduced.
Buying local foods can also have a beneficial impact on the environment. By supporting local
growers, consumers can maintain green space and farmland in their communities. Buying locally
also helps to build the local community. If farmers can sell directly to consumers instead of a
middleman, they will earn more money for their families. Additional profits also enable farmers to
better care for their soil and keep quality standards high. In the end, it is a win-win situation for both
parties.
If you are interested in incorporating more local foods into your diet, you can start by attending a
farmers' market in your area. This is an open market where farmers sell fruits, vegetables, and meat
directly to the public. If you have any questions about the production process or quality of these
goods, you can ask the farmers directly. Once you experience the freshness of local foods for
yourself, it might be tough to go back to the supermarket.
Question 30: The word "this" in paragraph 2 refers to___________
A. how far a product travels before it reaches you
B. the smell of bananas when they first arrive
C. the difference between local and imported foods
D. the total transportation costs during the journey
Question 31: What could best replace the word "beneficial" in paragraph 3?
A. helpful B. bad C. strange D. unknown
Question 32: According to the passage, what is one reason why local foods taste better?
A. They cost more money.
B. They are wrapped in plastic.
C. They are more interesting.
D. They are fresher than imports.
Question 33: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT that___________
A. imported foods from abroad don't have good taste
B. imported foods must be processed to survive the long journey
C. local produce is often fresher and tastier than imported foods
D. the trend to purchase local produce has risen recently
Question 34: What is another good title for the passage?
A. Some Basic Information about Importing Food
B. Some Tasty Recipes to Try with Local Foods
C. A Day in the Life of a Farmer
D. The Best Foods is Closer Than You Think

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

3
 lão hoá
There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with a
minimum of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems
hệ thống miễn dịch, hệ thống nội tiết tố, thần kinh
become less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, and nervous system
could all produce characteristics that we associate with aging. Following a different vein, many
cấp độ tb và dưới tb tĩnh mạch
current researchers are looking for evidence at the cellular and subcellular
tb mô
level.
It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized tissue cells) grown in culture
bất tử
divide only a limited number of times and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this
respect). Fibroblast cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken from an adult. Thus
cấu tạo di truyền
some researchers believe thatrối aging
loạn occurs
bộ máyattb the cellular level and is part of the cell's genetic
di truyền
makeup. Any event that disturbs the cell's genetic machinery such as mutation,đột biến damaging chemicals
in the cell's environment, or loss of genetic material, could cause cells to lose their ability to divide
and thus bring on aging. Other theories of aging look at different processes. Chronological aging
refers to the passage of time since birth and is usually measured in years. While chronological age
can be useful in estimating the average status of a large group of people, it is a poor indicator of an
individual person's status because there is a tremendous amount of variation from one individual to
the next in regard to the rate at which biological age changes occur. For example, on the average,
aging results in people losing much of their ability to perform strenuous activities, yet some elderly
individuals are excellent marathon runners. hđ dùng sức
Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes in outward appearance with
advancing age. This includes changes in the body and changes in other aspects of a person's
appearance, such as the style of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing
aid. Like chronological aging, it is frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of
aging have occurred. However, it is an inaccurate indicator for either purpose because of variation
among individuals and because a person's appearance is affected by many factors that are not part of
aging, including illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight
Question 35: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Different Processes of Aging
B. Outstanding Characteristics Associated with Aging
C. Theories of Aging: Well Proven Hypotheses
D. Theories of Aging: Poorly Supported Hypotheses
Question 36: The author points out that cancer cells_____________
A. seem to live forever
B. divide and then die
C. divide more in embryos than in adults
D. lose their ability to divide
Question 37: The phrase “an embryo” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. a descendant B. an infant C. a parent D. an internal organ
Question 38: The word “strenuous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. basic B. troublesome C. mental D. intense
Question 39: As explained in this passage, the theory of aging which examines the cellular level
would NOT assign which of the following as a cause of aging?
A. Mutation B. Deterioration into the body’s immune system
C. Loss of genetic material D. Chemical damage from the environment
Question 40: According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an
individual’s status regarding aging because_____________ .
A. elderly people are often athletic
B. there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging
C. strenuous activities are not good measures of age
D. it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: It is essential that you turned off the light every morning before you leave for class.
4
A. It B. turned off C. before D. leave for
Question 42: The only criteria for entering this cafe is that you must be over 18 and single.
A. criteria B. entering C. must be D. single
Question 43: Mirrors done of shiny metal were used by the Egyptians in ancient times.
A. done B. were used C. in D. times

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: Someone stole Jim's bike yesterday.
A. Jim's bike has been stolen yesterday.
B. Jim had someone steal his bike yesterday.
C. Jim's bike is stolen.
D. Jim had his bike stolen yesterday.
Question 45: He never suspected that she was a witch.
A. At no time did he suspect that she was a witch.
B. Never did he suspect that a witch she was.
C. Never a witch did he suspect that she was.
D. No before did he suspect was she a witch.
Question 46: Affected by a serious disease, he was no longer able to speak clearly.
A. He would be able to speak clearly without being affected by a serious disease.
B. When he was not able to speak clearly, a serious disease affected him.
C. A serious disease resulted in his being unable to speak clearly.
D. He was affected by a serious disease as he was not able to speak clearly.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. participant B. particular C. enthusiast D. preferential
Question 48: A. technique B. finish C. reduce D. impress

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option
that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: - Kate: How lovely your cats are!
- David: “____________”
A. I love them, too B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so
C. Can you say it again D. Really? They are
Question 50: -John: “Everyone should learn more about how to treat the environment well."
- Jack: "____________________________”
A. That's not true B. I am sure about that. C. I couldn’t agree more. D. It's not true

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 66 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: The guards were ordered to get to the king's room on the double.
A. in a larger number B. very quickly
C. on the second floor D. every two hours
Question 2: We can use either verbal or non-verbal forms of communication.
A. using verbs B. using facial expressions
C. using speech D. using gesture

Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the
numbered blanks.
COVID-19 has forced us into social distancing, isolation and quarantine. These conditions are
likely fostering (3) _____ anxiety and loneliness in our cities. However, COVID-19 is an
opportunity to build a new kind of contact on (4) _____ we know and learn from this situation. It's
possible to promote social and emotional well-being. Integrating public and online spaces is one of
the approaches for building better communities. Our new online communication skills can help us
develop a better physical-digital interface for bringing people together. Video conferencing is
flexible and can enable long-distance connection and “work from home” hubs. (5) _____, social
media platforms, such as Facebook, Meetup, WhatsApp or art-based apps like Somebody, are (6)
______ for organising physical meetings too. These can help with community volunteering,
socialising, or simply sharing guerrilla-garden herbs for local cooking. A better physical-digital
interface could help new jobs flourish in "interactive" creative industries that virtually connect (7)
______ isolated individuals. New art spaces could be established, putting connective digital
infrastructure, such as audio-visual platforms, within physical spaces to help face-to-face and virtual
audiences interact.
(Adapted from https://theconversation.com/reconnecting-after-coronavirus)
Question 3: A. national B. widespread C. global D. international
Question 4: A. that B. what C. whom D. which
Question 5: A. In contrast B. Therefore C. Otherwise D. Moreover
Question 6: A. grateful B. careful C. awful D. useful
Question 7: A. another B. every C. other D. one

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined words in each of the following questions.
Question 8: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental
improvements.
A. something to suffer B. something enjoyable
C. something sad D. something to entertain
Question 9: For decoration, people mount animal heads on walls. They buy furs to make rooms
more lavish.
A. warm B. desirable C. luxurious D. modest

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: This car is too expensive for me. Can you show me____________cheaper one?
A. some B. a C. the D. such
Question 11: She is attending the seminar with a view to____________ more knowledge about
aviation.
1
A. acquire B. acquiring C. have acquired D. having acquired
Question 12: You____________ anything to me. If you want to spend virtually your entire income
on gambling, then that's up to you.
A. mustn't explain B. weren't supposed to explain
C. don't have to explain D. shouldn't have explained
Question 13: John said that no other car could go____________
A. fastest than his car B. faster like his car
C. so fast like his D. as fast as his car
Question 14: Thursday will be a busy day for me - I have many reports to complete and maybe a
press conference. I wish your father _________ on Saturday or Sunday. But I know it's not your
fault.
A. wouldn't come B. were coming C. came D. had come
Question 15: When____________about their preferences for movies, many people say that they are
in favour of detective films.
A. having asked B. asking C. asked D. are asked
Question 16: _______his new apartment is only a few blocks from work, he walks to work every
day.
A. Because of B. As long as C. Now that D. However
Question 17: They haven't reached an agreement whether the man was guilty or
innocent____________ the crime?
A. in B. from C. of D. by
Question 18: Check the milk bottle carefully to make sure that it has not been____________
A. broken into B. taken out C. touched up D. tampered with
Question 19: My decision to get married immediately after graduating from high school is the one I
now____________ regret.
A. painfully B. ferociously C. heavily D. keenly
Question 20: Paul was in the____________ of despair when he heard that Jane was leaving him.
A. jungle B. depths C. valley D. pits
Question 21: Sherlock Holmes was a____________ detective character created by Sir Arthur
Ignatius Conan Doyle.
A. misfortune B. prosperous C. fictional D. analytical
Question 22: Sabrina believes that it wouldn't be difficult for her to find an apprenticeship because
many corporations want to____________ excellent school graduates.
A. revive B. revalue C. recruit D. reunify
Question 23: It would be____________ high ticket prices kept people away from football matches.
A. a dime in a dozen B. a crying shame
C. a cut above D. an eye for an eye
Question 24: He was pleased that things were going on _________.
A. satisfactorily B. satisfied. C. satisfying D. satisfaction
Question 25: Would you mind taking the trash out __________?
A. when you leave the house B. until it starts to smell bad
C. before it overthrown so much D. Whether he agreed to help you

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. release B. offer C. amaze D. believe
Question 27: A. classify B. flexible C. sensitive D. tomato

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

2
B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the
match.
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
D. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
Question 29: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay
B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we'd do at night.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Social support refers to the help and comfort that is provided by other people or groups. Having a
good friend or a support group to talk with can be a key factor in dealing with stress in a positive
way. For those individuals who like to keep pets, the companionship of dogs, cats and other
animals has been found to be another significant form of social support.
In a study by Karen Allen, the findings confirmed that having a pet present significantly lowered
the stress reaction in subjects who were required to complete a stressful talk. Allen performed the
đối tượng
study using female subjects who owned dogs. The subjects were divided into random groups. In the
first groups, the subjects were allowed to take a good friend with them into the room where the task
would be done; in the second group, no support was provided in the room; in the third group, the
subjects were allowed to take their dogs with them. During the task, which consisted of solving a
very difficult math, a number of physiological reactions were measured, including blood pressure
and heart rate. As expected, the presence of emotional support seemed to influence the level of
stress. The group that was allowed to keep their dogs in the room showed significantly less tress as
measured by their physiological reactions to the task whereas the control group without emotional
support had a higher stress level.
What was somewhat unexpected in the study was the negative response by subjects to having a
good friend in the room. Rather than decreasing the stress level, the presence of a human actually
seemed to cause the highest stress reaction. A typical response by a subject was a pulse rate below
80 with the dog present, about 100 when alone in the room, and more than 115 when the human
friend was seated nearby. The conclusion suggested that having a pet may be a more effective way
to lower stress than having a human companion. At a minimum, Allen proved that pets do provide
very positive emotional support under conditions of stress.
(Source: Practice exercises for the TOEFL by Barron's)
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT a form of social support?
A. a friend B. a group C. a dog D. an enemy
Question 31: It can be inferred from the study conducted by Allen is that ____________
A. There is no difference when solving a problem alone or with others.
B. Dealing with stress is easiest for the one who is alone.
C. A pet is the most effective factor when someone deals with stress.
D. A close friend, not a pet, is needed when someone is stressed.
Question 32: The word "companionship" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to____________
A. friendship B. company C. pack D. herd
Question 33: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of friendship in releasing stress
B. The factor that makes stress unbearable
C. A summary of a study about pets
D. The role of pets in relieving stress
Question 34: Which of the following surprised people when they got the result of the study?
A. Emotional support seemed to impact the stress level.
B. Without emotional support led to higher stress level.
C. Blood pressure and heart rate are factors measured during the study.
3
D. The subjects with a close friend in the room answered pessimistically.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The elements other than hydrogen and helium exist in such small quantities that it is accurate to say
that the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium by weight and somewhat less than 75
percent hydrogen.
Astronomers have measured the abundance of helium throughout our galaxy and in other galaxies as
trg khí cái vì sao
well. Helium has been found in old stars, in relatively young ones, in interstellar gas, and in distant
tp cấu tạo
objects known as quasars. Helium nuclei have also been found to be constituents of cosmic rays
that fall on the earth (cosmic rays are not really a form of radiation; they consist of rapidly moving
hạt
particles of numerous different kinds). It doesn’t seem to make very much difference where the
helium is found. Its relative abundance never seems to vary much. In some places, there may be
slightly more of it; in others, slightly less, but the ratio of helium to hydrogen nuclei always remains
about the same.
Helium is created in stars. In fact, nuclear reactions that convert hydrogen to helium are responsible
for most of the energy that stars produce. However, the amount of helium that could have been
ko chỉ vài %
produced in this manner can be calculated, and it turns out to be no more than a few percent. The
universe has not existed long enough for this figure to be significantly greater. Consequently, if the
universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium now, then it must have been about 25 percent
helium at a time near the beginning.
However, when the universe was less than one minute old, no helium could have existed.
hạt v/c
Calculations indicate that before this time temperatures were too high and particles of matter were
moving around much too rapidly. It was only after the one- minute point that helium could exist. By
nguội
this time, the universe had cooled so sufficiently that neutrons and protons could stick together. But
the nuclear reactions that led to the formation of helium went on for only a relatively short time. By
the time the universe was a few minutes old, helium production had effectively ceased
Question 35: What does the passage mainly explain?
A. Why hydrogen is abundant.
B. How stars produce energy.
C. When most of the helium in the universe was formed.
D. The difference between helium and hydrogen.
Question 36: According to the passage, helium is____________.
A. difficult to detect.
B. the oldest element in the universe.
C. the second-most abundant element in the universe.
D. the most prevalent element in quasars.
Question 37: The word “constituents” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. causes B. relatives C. components D. targets
Question 38: The word “vary” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. include B. mean C. stretch D. change
Question 39: The creation of helium within stars____________.
A. cannot be measured
B. produces hydrogen as a by-product
C. produces energy
D. causes helium to be much more abundant in old stars than in young stars
Question 40: Most of the helium in the universe was formed____________.
A. in a very short time
B. in interstellar space
C. before most of the hydrogen
D. during the first minute of the universe's existence

4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: Despite the time of the year, yesterday's temperature was enough hot to turn on the air
conditioning
A. Despite B. yesterday's C. enough hot D. to turn on
Question 42: This concert is more worse than I expected it to be.
A. This B. is C. more worse D. to be
Question 43: Recovery after the accident will be a continual process that may take several months.
A. will be B. continual C. that D. months

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: She never eats cake except when she celebrates her birthday.
A. Until her birthday, she will never taste even a small piece of cake.
B. At last, on her last birthday, she tried a piece of her birthday cake.
C. Although she celebrates her birthday every year, she never eats any of her birthday cake.
D. The only occasion on which she eats cake is on her own birthday.
Question 45: "The new worker is always arguing with his colleagues". She said.
A. She informed that new worker was always arguing with his colleagues.
B. She said that new worker didn't like his colleagues.
C. She explained to her colleagues that the new worker was always arguing.
D. She complained that new worker was always arguing with his colleagues.
Question 46: They reported that the president was carefully protected by more than twenty agents.
A. It is reported that more than twenty agents were summoned to protect the president.
B. It is reported that the president to be cautiously protected by more than twenty agents.
C. The president is reported to have been carefully protected by more than twenty agents.
D. That the president was carefully protected by more than twenty agents is the focus of the
newspaper.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. coughed B. crooked C. cooked D. laughed
Question 48: A. band B. hand C. sand D. bank

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Mike's inviting Sue to go dancing.
- Mike: "Shall we go dancing tonight?"
- Sue: “________________”.
A. Yes, let's B. Not a little bit C. Never mind D. I can't agree with you
Question 50: Mike and Susan are talking about changes in modern society.
- Mike: "Our living standards have improved greatly."
- Susan: “_______________”
A. Sure. I couldn't agree more. B. Yes, it's nice of you to say so.
C. No, it's nice to say so. D. Thank you for saying so.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 67 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: I will not stand for your bad attitude any longer.
A. like B. mean C. tolerate D. care
Question 2: The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes
helped pave the way for academic freedom in the modern sense.
A. terminate B. prevent C. initiate D. lighten
bắt đầu, khởi xướng
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Plastic, a material we use every day, was first made more than 100 years ago from parts of plants.
However, plastic today is mostly made (3) ____________ oil, coal and natural gas. Plastic products
can be useful and convenient for people but bad for the planet.
Some types of plastic can last for a long time without wearing out. Plastic pollution on land
(4)____________ threat to the plants and animals. Mismanaged plastic releases harmful chemicals
into the surrounding soil, which can then leak into groundwater and cause serious harm to the
species (5) ____________ drink the water. What is more, plastic waste is dumped at sea. In 2012, it
was estimated that there was approximately 165 million tons of plastic pollution in the world's
oceans. Plastic debris has the potential to poison marine animals. Some species, such as sea turtles,
(6)____________been found to contain a large amount of plastic in their stomach. This can block
the animal's digestive tract and starve them to (7) ____________. Seabirds are also greatly affected
because they often mistake trash floating on the ocean's surface as prey.
Question 3: A. of B. from C. with D. by
Question 4: A. poses B. allows C. witnesses D. makes
Question 5: A. whom B. where C. that D. when
Question 6: A. has B. having C. had D. have
Question 7: A. death B. dead C. deadly D. die

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 8: His thoughtless comments made her very angry.
A. kind B. honest C. thoughtful D. pleasant
Question 9: I could not see what she was doing. It was so dark there.
A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from
nhận ra
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: Students are encouraged to develop critical thinking___________accepting opinions
without questioning them.
A. in addition B. for instance C. instead of D. because of
Question 11: When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for ___________15 minutes.
A. another B. others C. the others D. other
Question 12: We received a call from the teacher___________charge of the course.
A. at B. in C. on D. to
Question 13: I must go to the dentist and ___________.
A. get my teeth to take care of B. take care of my teeth
C. my teeth be taken care of D. get my teeth taken care of

1
Question 14: "What would you do in my place?" "Were_________treated like that, I would
complain to the manager."
A. I to had been B. I to be C. I have been D. to I be
Question 15: Hair colour is___________characteristics to use in identifying people.
A. one of the most obvious that art B. obviously one of the most
C. one of the most obvious D. most obvious one of
Question 16: Not until a monkey is several years old___________to exhibit signs of independence
from his mother.
A. does it begin B. beginning C. and begin D. it begins
Question 17: Dick ___________moustache, but he doesn't any more. He shaved it off because his
wife didn't like it.
A. got used to have B. is used to have C. used to have D. used to having
Question 18: Neither the students nor their lecturer___________ English in the classroom.
A. use B. uses C. are using D. have used
Question 19: As a child, I had an___________ friend called Polly.
A. image B. imagine C. imaginative D. imaginary
Question 20: In the last match, Sabella changed his information at half-time, introducing Fernando
Gago in midfield and Higuain in attack, but in the end it was Messi's magic that___________the
difference.
A. made B. gave C. did D. took
Question 21: Factories are not allowed to pump their industrial___________into the sea.
A. garbage B. litter C. waste D. rubbish
Question 22: Be sure not to rely too on your mother tongue when you are learning a foreign
language.
A. abundantly B. severely C. numerously D. heavily
Question 23: He's sometimes bad-tempered but he's a good fellow
A. at heart B. by heart C. with heart D. in heart
Question 24: I've searched ________ for that old photo album, but I can't find it anywhere.
A. high and low B. in and out C. straight and narrow D. thick and
thin mọi nơi lối sống ko thể chê trách
khó khăn
Question 25: We had a very nice meal, _________ vegetables were especially good.
A. The B. no article C. an D. a

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. expect B. become C. future D. tonight
Question 27: A. qualified B. sacrifice C. counterpart D. determine

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: Lee gave up her job. She planned to continue her education.
A. Lee’s education was interrupted since she wanted to find a job.
B. Lee gave up her job with the aim at continuing her education.
C. Lee gave up her job in case she continued her education.
D. Lee gave up her job with a view to continuing her education.
Question 29: This is a rare opportunity. You should take advantage of it to get a better job.
A. You should take advantage of this rare opportunity, for which is to get a better job.
B. This is a rare opportunity what you should take advantage of to get a better job.
C. You should take advantage of this opportunity, that is rare to get a better job.
D. This is a rare opportunity that you should take advantage of to get a better job.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
2
 Many scientists believe our love of sugar may actually be an addiction. When we eat or drink
sugary foods, the sugar enters our blood and affects parts of our brain that make us feel good. Then
the good feeling goes away, leaving us wanting more. All tasty foods do this, but sugar has a
particularly strong effect. In this way, it is in fact an addictive drug, one that doctors recommend we
all cut down on.
"It seems like every time I study an illness and trace a path to the first cause, I find my way back
to sugar," says scientist Richard Johnson. One-third of adults worldwide have high blood pressure,
and up to 347 million have diabetes. Why? "Sugar, we believe, is one of the culprits, if not the major
culprit," says Johnson. nguyên nhân vđ
Our bodies are designed to survive on very little sugar. Early humans often had very little food,
so our bodies learned to be very efficient in storing sugar as fat. In this way, we had energy stored
for when there was no food. But today, most people have more than enough. So the very thing that
once saved us may now be killing us.
So what is the solution? It's obvious that we need to eat less sugar. The trouble is, in today's
world, it's extremely difficult to avoid. From breakfast cereals to after-dinner desserts, our foods are
increasingly filled with it. Some manufacturers even use sugar to replace taste in foods that are
advertised as low in fat.
But there are those who are fighting back against sugar. Many schools are replacing sugary
desserts with healthier options like fruit. Other schools are growing their own food in gardens, or
building facilities like walking tracks so students and others in the community can exercise. The
battle has not yet been lost.
Question 30: What is this passage mainly about?
A. Our addiction to sugar B. Illnesses caused by sugar
C. Good sugar versus bad sugar D. Ways to avoid sugar
Question 31: The word "culprit" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________
A. disease B. unknown thing
C. sweet food D. cause of the problem
Question 32: What does the phrase "the very thing" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the amount of sugar in our food B. having enough food to survive
C. our ability to store sugar as fat D. early humans' lack of food
Question 33: According to the passage, why is it so hard to avoid sugar?
A. We like candy too much. B. It gives us needed energy.
C. It's in so many foods and drinks. D. We get used to eating it at school.
Question 34: Which of the following statements about sugar is NOT true?
A. Sugar makes us feel good. B. Our bodies store sugar as fat.
C. We need very little to survive. D. Only adults need to stop eating sugar.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
Artificial intelligence (AI) and related technologies are increasingly prevalent in business and
society; besides, they have been applied to education. These technologies have the potential to
transform many aspects of the teaching - learning process.
Basic activities in education like grading can be automated with the help of AI. At educational
institutes, marking a large number of tests and assignments is tedious work. Teachers often find that
grading takes up a considerable amount of time which can be used to interact with students and
prepare for class. AI, at present, may not be able to actually replace human grading; however, it's
getting pretty close. Nearly all kinds of multiple choice and fill-in-the blank testing can now be
performed by Al-driven machines, and automated grading of student writing may not be far behind.
Essay-grading softwares are still in their infancy, yet they will be fully developed over the coming
years, allowing teachers to focus more on classroom activities and professional development.
Learners can also get additional support from AI. For instance, tutoring programs based on
artificial intelligence already exist to help students with basic courses of mathematics, writing,
foreign language, etc. With the rapid pace of technological advancement in recent years,
3
sophisticated tutoring systems which can help students learn high order thinking and stimulate their
creativity will not be a pipe dream. Moreover, Al programs can give learners useful feedback and
assistance. Some schools, especially those with online courses, are using AI systems to monitor
students' progress. These systems not only offer students advice on individual courses but also help
students choose majors in accordance with areas where they succeed or struggle.
For better or worse, AI systems have taken place in certain types of classroom activities. In the
next decades, their influences will extend significantly, which offers both teacher and students a
much wider range of services.
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The potential of applying technologies to teaching
B. The various forms of AI
C. Artificial intelligence and related technologies
D. The changes made by AI in education
Question 36: The word "tedious" in paragraph 2, is CLOSEST in meaning to ___________
A. costly B. admirable C. boring D. economical
Question 37: As stated in paragraph 2, machines which are driven by AI can now___________
A. mark student writing automatically
B. grade almost all types of fill-in-the-blank questions
C. be fully developed by teachers
D. find out all the mistakes in students' papers
Question 38: The word "a pipe dream" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________
A. a phenomenon B. an illusion C. a denotation D. an expression
Question 39: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Teachers are lack of time to interact with students and prepare for class.
B. All kinds of multiple-choice questions are graded by machines.
C. Teachers focus more on classroom activities than professional development.
D. Learners can receive useful feedback and help from AI programs.
Question 40: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. AI technology is expected to dominate in every classroom in the next few decades.
B. Teachers gain more benefits from AI than students.
C. AI will play a more important role in education in the future
D. AI may pose a threat to every field except for education.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the
rain.
A. wooden B. surrounded ing C. to fall down D. the rain
Question 42: Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extreme concerned about the
changes to our climate which are taking place.
A. in B. extreme C. about D. are
Question 43: Her passion for helping people have motivated her to found her own charity
organization.
A. for B. have C. found D.
organization

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 44: It is not necessary to book tickets for the film in advance.
A. We should book tickets for the film in advance.
B. It is obligatory to book tickets for the film in advance.
C. It is our duty to book tickets for the film in advance.
D. We needn't book tickets for the film in advance.
4
Question 45: "When did you start practising yoga?" asked Tom.
A. Tom wanted to know when I was starting practising yoga.
B. Tom wanted to know when did I start practising yoga.
C. Tom wanted to know when I had started practising yoga.
D. Tom wanted to know when had I started practising yoga.
Question 46: Paul likes reading comic books more than watching cartoons.
A. Paul likes watching cartoons more than reading comic books.
B. Paul likes watching cartoons as much as reading comic books.
C. Paul doesn't like watching cartoons as much as reading comic books.
D. Paul doesn't like reading comic books as much as watching cartoons.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. nurture B. hurt C. nurse D. bury
Question 48: A. measure B. leisure C. ensure D. pleasure

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Two friends are talking to each other at the bar
David: Let me pay for the drink.
William: ____________
A. You are welcome B. That's very kind of you
C. That's ok. Don't worry D. Yes, just a moment
Question 50: Two students are talking at school.
Magret: Hey! ____________?
Frank: Not bad, thanks. I'm just glad it's over!
A. Do you feel like studying tomorrow for our math exam
B. How did your physics exam go
C. Would you like to try it on
D. Are you good at Maths

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 68 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 1: We had never experienced such discourtesy towards the elderly as it occurred at this
center
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
Question 2: Just by coincidence, I met my old classmate after 20 years.
A. sight B. surprise C. chance D. luck

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
sự phiền phức thông thg
NOISE POLLUTION sự tiếp xúc
Noise is more than a mere nuisance. At certain levels and durations of exposure, it can cause
màng nhĩ
physical damage to the eardrum, and (3) ___________ in temporary or permanent hearing loss. In
addition to causing hearing loss, (4) ___________noise exposure can also (5) ___________blood
pressure and pulse rate, cause irritability, anxiety, and mental fatigue, and interfere with sleep,
recreation, and personal communication. Noise pollution control is, (6) ___________, of importance
in the workplace and in the community.
Noise effects can be (7) ___________by a number of techniques, for example, increasing the
distance or blocking the path between the noise source and the recipient, reducing noise level at the
source, and protecting recipients with earplugs or earmuffs. ng nghe bg tai nghe hoặc nút bịt tai
Question 3: A. bring B. result C. create D. affect
Question 4: A. exceedingly B. excess C. excessively D. excessive
Question 5: A. enlarge B. maximize C. raise D. rise
Question 6: A. therefore B. however C. meanwhile D. in spite of
Question 7: A. minimized B. created C. brought D. done

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word/phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 8: The girl in the shelter is in the fifth grade with a body so scrawny that she looks more
like a second grade student
A. skinny B. slim C. stocky D. fat
Question 9: I was worried that they wouldn't like each other, but in fact they're getting on like a
house on fire.
A. rapidly B. fast C. slowly D. inactively

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: I don’t know much about computers, so I asked the assistant for____________advice.
A. a little B. many C. a few D. a lot
Question 11: You should know that everyone in this office____________busy planning the dance
for a week.
A. is B. has been C. are D. have been
Question 12: The children made____________up the mess they had left before they could watch
TV.
A. clear B. to clear C. clearing D. cleared
Question 13: Most headaches____________with aspirin unless they are too severe.
A. can treat B. can be treating C. can be treated D. can treats
Question 14: I wish I____________able to accept that role, but I was preparing for another
1
play at the time.
A. were B. was C. had been D. have been
Question 15: Everyone thought she would accept the offer. ____________, she turned it down
immediately.
A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. Hitherto
Question 16: I would have cooked something special if I____________you were coming.
A. knew B. know C. have known D. had known
Question 17: Women have proved repeatedly that they are equal and often superior ____________
men in almost every field.
A. to B. than C. as D. over
Question 18: There is still widespread____________against older people in the job market.
A. discriminate B. discriminatory C. discrimination D. discriminating
Question 19: The arrested man is suspected of____________government funds for himself.
A.robbing B. appropriating biến thủ C. appreciating D. confiscating
Question 20: It was hard to____________the temptation to watch the late-night show even though I
was so tired then. sự cám giỗ
A. defy B. resist C. refuse D. oppose
Question 21: The company managed to beat the ____________on delivering its new system.
A. team B. other C. time D. clock hoàn thành nhanh
Question 22: Even though she had been studying hard, she had only a____________chance of
passing the exam.
A. slim B. narrow C. thin D. light
Question 23: I ran in a marathon last week, but I was not fit enough. I____________after 15
kilometres.
A. dropped out B. moved in C. showed off D. closed down
Question 24: If it _________ for the heavy storm, the accident would not have happened.
A. weren't B. isn't C. hadn't been D. were
Question 25: Nobody answered the door __________?
A. were they B. did they C. weren't they D. didn't they

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. example B. happiness C. advantage D. disaster
Question 27: A. weather B. flower C. human D. canteen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: My aunt thinks the film is too frightening. I am not scared at all.
A. My aunt thinks the film is too frightening; hence, I am not scared at all.
B. My aunt thinks the film is too frightening for me to see.
C. My aunt thinks the film is too frightening, whereas I am not scared at all.
D. My aunt thinks the film is too frightening; however I am not scared at all.
Question 29: The students may be intelligent. They will not get used to dealing with practical
situations.
A. The students may be too intelligent to get used to dealing with practical situations.
B. Intelligent as they may be, the students will not get used to dealing with practical situations.
C. Intelligent as may be the students, they will get used to dealing with practical situations.
D. The students will get used to dealing with practical situations although they are intelligent.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result directly from
the ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the local area and of the
sự khéo léo
2
 nội địa
surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to which the city furnishes
services and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction between the situation and the site of
a city. Situation refers to the general position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site
involves physical characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important
to the continuing prosperity of a city. If a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its
development is continuing prosperity of a city. If a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its
development is much more likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost
unparalleled situation: it is located at the southern end of a huge lake that forces east-west
transportation lines to be compressed into its vicinity, and at a meeting of significant land and water
transport routes. It also overlooks what is one of the world's finest large farming regions. These
factors ensured that Chicago would become a great city regardless of the disadvantageous
characteristics of the available site, such as being prone to flooding during thunderstorm activity.
Similarly, it can be argued that much of New York City's importance stems from its early and
continuing advantage of the situation. Philadelphia and Boston both originated at about the same
time as New York and shared New York's location at the western end of one of the world's most
important oceanic trade routes, but only New York possesses an easy-access functional connection
(the Hudson Mohawk Lowland) to the vast Midwestern Hinterland. This account does not alone
explain New York's primacy, but it does include several important factors. Among the many aspects
of the situation that help to explain why some cities grow and others do not, the original location on
a navigable waterway seems particularly applicable. Of course, such characteristics as slope,
drainage, power resources, river crossings, coastal shapes, and other physical characteristics help to
determine city location, but such factors are normally more significant in early stages of city
development than later.
Question 30: According to the passage, a city's situation is more important than its site in regard to
the city's ________.
A. long-term growth and prosperity B. ability to protect its citizenry
C. possession of favorable weather conditions D. need to import food supplies
Question 31: The primary purpose of paragraph 1 is to _________.
A. summarize past research and introduce a new study
B. describe a historical period
C. emphasize the advantages of one theory over another
D. define a term and illustrate it with an example
Question 32: The word “ingenuity” in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to ___________.
A. traditions B. resourcefulness C. wealth D. organization
Question 33: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. hinterland B. primacy C. account D. connection
Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Historical differences among three large United States cities.
B. The development of trade routes through United States cities.
C. Contrasts in settlement patterns in the United States.
D. The importance of geographical situation in the growth of United States cities.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You're not too
far off. A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways that technology
intersects with teen friendships – and the results show that 57 percent of teens have made at least
one new friend online. Even more surprisingly, only 20 percent of those digital friends ever meet in
person.
While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55 percent of
their day texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual time with their
friends on a daily basis (outside of school hallways). These new forms of communication are key in
maintaining friendships day-to-day – 27 percent of teens instant message their friends every day, 23
3
percent connect through social media every day, and 7 percent even video chat daily. Text messaging
remains the main form of communication – almost half of survey respondents say it's their chosen
method of communication with their closest friend.
While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new friends (and
maintaining friendships) in the gaming world – 89 percent play with friends they know, and 54
percent play with online-only friends. Whether they're close with their teammates or not, online
garners say that playing makes them feel "more connected" to friends they know, or garners they've
never met.
When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity – 62
percent of teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a new friend
(although 80 percent still consider their phone number the best method of contact). Despite the
negative consequences-21 percent of teenage users feel worse about their lives because of posts they
see on social media – teens also have found support and connection through various platforms. In
fact, 68 percent of teens received support during a challenging time in their lives via social media
platforms.
Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected with
current friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals that girls are
more likely to block or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users report
experiencing "drama among their friends on social media."
(Source: https://www.realsimple.com)
Question 35: The word "digital" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. analogue B. numeracy C. numerous D. online
Question 36: According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their
friends?
A. 23% B. 25% C. 27% D. 55%
Question 37: The following sentences are true, EXCEPT _____.
A. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain relationship with friends
B. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships
C. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online
D. Teens only meet face-to-face one fifth of online friends they have made
Question 38: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The majority of teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in their lives.
B. Thanks to social media, more than two thirds of teens are supported when they face challenges in
their lives.
C. Boys are more likely to meet new friends than girls.
D. Most teens are not easy to give others their usernames when making new friends.
Question 39: What is the synonym of the word "breakup” in the last paragraph?
A. commencing B. popularity C. termination D. divorce
Question 40: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The difference of making new friends between girls and boys.
B. Social media connects friendship.
C. Social media affects friendship too much.
D. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: The 1980 Olympic gold medal in ice hockey was won by the U.S hockey team, an
accomplishment that surprise many.
A. The 1980 Olympic B. won C. an D. surprise
Question 42: Although his family was very poor, but he had a good education.
A. was B. poor C. but D. education
Question 43: International students should take full use of tutorial appointments.
A. should B. take full use C. of D. tutorial
make
4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: Andrew said, “You'd better not lend them any money, Harry."
A. Andrew advised Harry should not lend them any money.
B. Andrew said Harry not to lend them any money.
C. Andrew said to Harry not lend them any money.
D. Andrew advised Harry not to lend them any money.
Question 45: He can shout even louder, but I won't take any notice.
A. No matter how loud he can shout, I won't take any notice.
B. He can shout even louder won't take any of my notice.
C. Whatever ability he shout won't take notice of me.
D. However loud he can shout, but I won't take any notice.
Question 46: It wouldn't be a waste of time to look at that apartment again.
A. Did you find that looking at that apartment again was a waste of time?
B. It was worth looking at that apartment again.
C. Would we consider to look at that apartment again?
D. You shouldn't waste your time to look at that apartment again.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. stone B. zone C. phone D. none
Question 48: A. university B. unique C. unit D. undo

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Tom:" ___________”
Mike: "I won't say no!"
A. How are things with you, Mike?
B. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are?
D. What's your favourite, tea or coffee?
Question 50: Chris: "How did you open this?"
Dan:" ___________”
A. I opened it a few minutes ago.
B. I just turned that handle.
C. We need a hammer.
D. I opened it for them.

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 69 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word/ phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: In a desert, vegetation is so scanty as to be incapable of supporting any large human
population.
A. scarce B. rich C. sufficient D. sparse
Question 2: The boom in Japanese tourist arrivals in Viet Nam in recent years has prompted
Vietnamese carriers to open direct flights connecting the country's major cities with Japan.
A. quick decrease B. slow rise C. rapid increase D. slight decline

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution (3) ______ is as complicated as it is serious. It
is complicated because much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. (4) _____, exhaust
from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the automobile provides
transportation for millions of people. Factories discharge much of the material that pollutes the air
and water but factories give (5) ______ to a large number of people.
Thus, to end or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to (6)_______using many
things that benefit them. Most people do not want to do that, of course. But pollution can be
gradually reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the
amount of pollution that such things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and
enforce laws (7) ________require businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting
activities.
Question 3: A. event B. accident C. work D. problem
Question 4: A. As a result B. However C. Therefore D. For example
Question 5: A. employed B. employment C. unemployed D. unemployment
Question 6: A. start B. stop C. enjoy D. continue
Question 7: A. whom B. that C. whose D. who

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: "I'm sorry, madam. This is the fixed price and there is no discount."
A. negotiable B. discounted C. unchanged D. discussed
Question 9: A good dictionary is indispensable for learning a foreign language.
A. essential B. understandable C. remarkable D. unnecessary

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: They were both very excited about the meeting, as they__________ each other for
ages.
A. never saw B. didn't see C. hadn't seen D. haven't seen
Question 11: Regarding___________benefits, Bangkok's inhabitants have access to better services
and facilities than any other cities in Thailand.
A. society B. social C. sociable D. socializing
Question 12: If it___________for the suggestions of the teacher, nobody would have found out the
correct answer.
A. weren't B. had better not C. didn't thank D. hadn't been
Question 13: I don't think that there will be sunshine today, ___________?
A. will there B. won't it C. do I D. will you
1
Question 14: When are you going to get rid of those___________pants?
A. long, dreadful, Chinese, blue B. dreadful, long, blue, Chinese
C. Chinese, long, blue, dreadful D. blue, dreadful, Chinese, long
Question 15: It's advisable that he___________ seats at least three days in advance.
A. booked B. books C. book D. booking
Question 16: My parents gave me two books about astronomy, ___________I like very much.
A. neither of them B. some of those C. one of whom D. both of which
Question 17: ___________the film before, Tom didn't want to go to the cinema with his friends.
A. Seen B. To see C. Having seen D. Seeing
Question 18: We were ___________by John's video of his tour to Hawaii.
A. captured B. capsized C. captivated D. captained
Question 19: I've never really gone___________ folk music, but I love rock ballad.
A. in for B. on with C. up to D. down with
Question 20: Figures showed that there were 800 official burglaries in the area, but police believed
this is just the ___________
A. tip of the iceberg B. hot potato C. black sheep D. blind spot
Question 21: Face-to-face communication is one of the most popular___________ of
communication that can be used within an organization.
A. streams B. windows C. voyages D. channels
Question 22: He could revise his views ___________valuable
because comments from his supervisor.
A. in recognition of B. in the light of C. in need of D. in the middle of
Question 23: It has never___________ my mind that Jenifer has a plan to set up her own business.
A. came B. entered C. crossed D. reached
Question 24: They are studying pronunciation with Mr Brown,____________?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 25: She works seven days ______week.
A. a B. the C. an D. no article

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the world that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. sacrifice B. understand C. integrate D. recognize
Question 27: A. social B. mature C. secure D. polite

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: Stop eating snacks. Otherwise, you may get overweight.
A. Getting overweight can make you addicted to snacks.
B. Unless you get overweight, you will stop eating snacks.
C. You may not get overweight as long as you stop eating snacks.
D. Eating snacks can prevent you from getting overweight.
Question 29: He arrived in class. He realized he had forgotten his book on the bus.
A. No sooner had he realized he had forgotten his book on the bus than he arrived in class.
B. Had he arrived in class, he would have realized he had forgotten his book on the bus.
C. Only after he had realized he had forgotten his book on the bus did he arrive in class.
D. Not until he arrived in class did he realize he had forgotten his book on the bus.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Some people think that a spider is an insect, but it is an arachnid. Arachnids have two main body
parts and eight walking legs while insects have three main body parts and six legs. Many insects can
fly, but spiders cannot fly.
There are many different kinds of spiders around the world. They come in different colors, such
as black, brown, white, yellow, and orange. Spiders usually live for one year but a spider called the
2
Tarantula lives as long as 20 years. Some spiders are very small but some are so large they can fit a
dinner plate.
The most unusual thing is that a spider can spin a web. Spiders have silk in their stomach and
they use the silk to make a web. The web is the spider's home. But the spider does not stick to its
own web because its legs have oil on them. It is very strong and sticky. The web is used to catch
insects. When an insect is trapped on a spider's web, the spider wraps the insect in silk. It eats the
insect at a later time. However, the spider does not really eat it. Since it has no teeth, it puts venom
in the insect to make it a liquid.
Question 30: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Facts about spiders
B. The parts of a spider's body
C. How a spider makes its home
D. The eating habits of spiders
Question 31: Why does the author mention a dinner plate in paragraph 2?
A. To suggest that spiders can be eaten
B. To show a way to measure spider size
C. To give an example how big some spiders are
D. To point out that the larger spiders are safe
Question 32: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to____________
A. a spider B. the web C. their stomach D. an insect
Question 33: The word "wraps" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to____________
A. folds B. binds C. drinks D. bites
Question 34: All of the following are true EXCEPT that ____________
A. Spiders have a different body structure from that of insects.
B. Spiders have various colors and mostly live for a year.
C. Special spiders can spin a web and catch insects by it.
D. Spiders use poisons to make their food into a liquid.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The Premier League, often referred to as the English Premier League or the EPL outside England,
is the top level of the English football league system. Contested by 20 clubs, it operates on a system
xuống hạng
of promotion and relegation with the English Football League (EFL).
The Premier League is a corporation in which the member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run
from August to May with each team playing 38 matches (playing all 19 other teams both home and
away). Most of them are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons. The Premier League has
featured 47 English and two Welsh clubs since its inception, making it a cross-border league.
The competition was formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the
decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League,
founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth £1
billion a year domestically as of 2013-2014, with Sky and BT Group securing the domestic rights to
broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates €2.2 billion per year in domestic and
international television rights. Clubs were apportioned central payment revenues of £2.4 billion in
2016-2017, with a further £343 million in solidarity payments to English Football League (EFL)
clubs.
The Premier League is the most-watched sports league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories
to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. For the 2018-2019 season
average Premier League match attendance was at 38,181, second to the Bundesliga's 43,500, while
aggregated attendance across all matches is the highest of any league at 14,508,981. Most stadium
occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League ranks second in the UEFA coefficients of
leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons as of 2019, only
behind Spain's La Liga.

3
 Forty-nine clubs have competed since the inception of the Premier League in 1992. Six of them
have won the title since then: Manchester United (13), Chelsea (5), Manchester City (4), Arsenal
(3), Blackburn Rovers (1), and Leicester City (1). The record of most points in a Premier League
season is 100, set by Manchester City in 2017-2018.
(Retrieved from https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Premier_League&oldid=925531842)
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The highest football league in the UK.
B. Football clubs that take part in the Premier League.
C. The justifications why the Premier League became popular.
D. The history of the FA Premier League.
Question 36: The word "inception" in paragraph 2, is CLOSEST in meaning to____________
A. Commencement B. recommendation C. argument D. eviction
Question 37: It can be inferred from the second and the third paragraph that____________
A. Sky and BT Group shared the domestic rights to broadcast the matches equally in the season
2013 - 2014
B. British viewers do not have to pay to watch the matches of the Premier League.
C. Premier League mainly gains its money from broadcasting games worldwide.
D. The Football League First Division is the predecessor of the Premier League.
Question 38: The phrase "take advantage of” is CLOSEST in meaning to____________
A. treat someone badly B. exploit
C. bargain D. get a rough deal
Question 39: In 2019, which ranks first in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances
in European competitions over the past five seasons?
A. The Premier League B. La Liga
C. The Bundesliga D. Ligue 1
Question 40: According to paragraph 4, a majority of stadiums in the Premier
League____________
A. are equipped with modern facilities
B. can hold an approximately equivalent number of spectators.
C. are located near the city centres.
D. have most of their seats taken by spectators

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: The Canadian Shield is a huge, rocky region who curves around Hudson Bay like a
giant horseshoe.
A. a huge B. who C. around D. like
Question 42: Almost all of the people appeared on television wear makeup.
A. Almost B. of C. appeared D. wear
Question 43: The original World Cup trophy was given permanent to Brazil to honour that country’s
record third world cup title in Mexico in 1970.
A. The original World Cup trophy B. permanent
C. that country’s record D. in Mexico

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: "Why haven't I thought of this before?" Tony said to himself.
A. Tony advised himself not to have thought of that before.
B. Tony suggested himself not thinking of that before.
C. Tony said that why he hasn't thought of that before.
D. Tony wondered why he hadn't thought of that before.
Question 45: She is the most intelligent woman I have ever met.
A. I have never met a more intelligent woman than her.
4
B. She is not as intelligent as the women I have ever met.
C. I have ever met such an intelligent woman.
D. She is more intelligent than I am.
Question 46: She broke down the moment she heard the news.
A. She was broken for a moment when she heard the news.
B. She broke her leg when hearing the news.
C. On hearing the news, she broke down.
D. When she heard the news, she was sick.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. continents B. surroundings C. auditions D. homemakers
Question 48: A. damage B. international C. natural D. endanger

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Mark and Anne are talking after the class.
Mark: “Guess what? I’ve been recruited to be a member of the Green Dream Volunteer Group.”
Anne: “____________”
A. Good luck next time!
B. That’s great! Congratulations!
C. That’s the least thing I could do for you.
D. It doesn’t make sense to me.
Question 50: Amy and Jacob are talking about the two-day excursion at the end of the school year.
Amy: “You look so sad. ____________”
Jacob: “I couldn’t get my parents’ permission to stay the night away from home.”
A. Can you help me? B. How do you deal with it?
C. What should I do? D. What's the problem?

5
 GV. ĐỖ MINH TRUNG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 70 MÔN. TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Alzheimer's disease impairs a person's ability to recall memories.
A. enhances B. affects C. destroys D. diminishes
Question 2: It's no use talking to me about metaphysics. It's "a closed book to me.'
A. a subject that I don't understand B. a theme that I like to discuss
C. a book that is never opened D. an object that I really love

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Organic food is food produced by methods which conform to the standards of organic farming.
On an overall basis, organic food is prepared and processed (3) ___________using any chemical
fertilizers, pesticides, or chemical preservatives.
According to environmentalists, fertilizing, overproduction, and the use of pesticides in
(4)___________ farming may negatively affect the biodiversity and water supplies. As harmful
chemicals are excluded in organic farming, there is minimal soil, air, and water pollution. This will
ensure a (5) ___________and healthier world for our future generations.
Demand for organic foods is also driven by consumer's concerns for healthcare. Some kinds of
organic food have higher vitamin and mineral contents (6) ___________help to strengthen the
human immune system. For instance, organic milk is proven to have 60% more omega-3 fatty acids,
antioxidants, and vitamins than non-organic milk. Organic cows are also claimed to give better meat
quality. (7) ___________, because organic food products are controlled by very strict standards,
harmful chemicals will be eliminated from our diets, and only the best products are introduced to
customers.
Question 3: A. of B. from C. without D. at
Question 4: A. valuable B. current C. primary D. conventional
Question 5: A. safety B. safer C. safely D. unsafe
Question 6: A. where B. whom C. why D. that
Question 7: A. However B. Therefore C. Furthermore D. But

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 8: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the
graduation exam.
A. wear a backpack B. praise yourself
C. criticize yourself D. check up your back
Question 9: The new policy will help generate more jobs.
A. produce B. bring out C. form D. terminate.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: I don't think you know where she is, ______?
A. don't I B. don't you C. do I D. do you
Question 11: Yesterday, when I went shopping with my mother, we _____ my old teacher, who I
hadn’t seen for nearly 15 years.
A. ran into B. turned out C. took out D. saw with
Question 12: As a parent, you should try to create a safe _____ environment for your children to
grow up.
1
A. house B. homing C. housing D. home
Question 13: Ten million text messages are sent on _____ every minute.
A. normal B. common C. general D. average
Question 14: The house was burgled while the family was _____ in a card game.
A. buried B. busy C. absorbed D. helping
Question 15: Am I nervous? Of course not. Look at my hand - it's as steady as _____.cực kì vững vàng
A. a bridge B. a rock C. steel bars D. a stepladder
Question 16: You don't usually have to go into _____ hospital to have your ears cleaned. The doctor
can do it at the surgery.
A. an B. x (no article) C. the D. a
Question 17: If you _____ the lottery, what would you do with the money?
A. win B. had won C. will win D. won
Question 18: Teacher, are we expected to learn all the new words _____ heart?
A. at B. to C. in D. by
Question 19: It's worth _____ this book.
A. reading B. to read C. read D. being read
Question 20: I have never played badminton before. This is the first time I _____ to play.
A. try B. tried C. have tried D. am trying
Question 21: ______ extremely bad weather in the mountains, we're no longer considering our
skiing trip.
A. Due to B. Although C. Because D. Despite
Question 22: She saw a mouse _____.
A. when she was having a bath B. as long as she had a bath
C. as she had had a bath D. as soon as she has had a bath
Question 23: The song _____ by our listeners as their favorite of the week is "Goodbye Baby" by
Tunesmiths.
A. chosen B. choosing C. was chosen D. which chosen
Question 24: Mom left the chicken out on the table so that it could _____ slowly.
A. frosted B. frost C. frosty D. defrost
Question 25: You are old enough. I think it is high time you applied_______ a job.
A. in B. of C. for D. upon

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. confide B . maintain C. require D. major
Question 27: A. commercial B. disaster C. animal D. extinction

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: They found the bad weather very inconvenient. They chose to find a place for the
night.
A. The bad weather prevented them from driving any further.
B. Bad weather was approaching, so they started to look for a place to stay.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, they decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
D. Because the climate was so severe, they were worried about what we'd do at night.
Question 29: The announcement was made. Everyone in the room started complaining.
A. Only when everyone in the room started complaining, were the announcement made.
B. No sooner had the announcement been made than everyone in the room started complaining.
C. Were the announcement made, everyone in the room would started complaining.
D. Scarcely had the announcement been made when everyone in the room would have complained.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
2
Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbour wave and is used as the scientific term for seismic
sea wave generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea landslide of volcanic
eruption, when the ocean floor is tilted or offset during an earthquake, a set of waves is created
similar to the concentric waves generated by an object dropped into the water. Most tsunamis
originate along the Ring of Fire, a zone of volcanoes and seismic activity, 32,500 km long that
encircles the Pacific Ocean. Since 1819, about 40 tsunamis have struck the Hawaiian Islands.
A tsunami can have wavelengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of
kilometers across the deep ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an hour. Upon
entering shallow coastal waters, the wave, which may have been only about half a metre high out at
sea, suddenly grows rapidly. When the wave reaches the shore, it may be 15 m high or more.
Tsunamis have tremendous energy because of the great volume of water affected. They are capable
of obliterating coastal settlements.
Tsunamis should nót be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise underneath
hurricanes or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms reach land. Storm
surges are particularly devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone and accompanying storm
surge killed an estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh in 1970. The tsunami which struck south
and southeast Asia in late 2004 killed over 200 thousand people.
Question 30: What does the word “concentric” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. wavy B. having many centres
C. having a common centre D. a ring
Question 31: What is the greatest speed of tsunami travelling across the deep ocean?
A. 200 kilometres an hour B. 700 kilometres an hour
C. 800 kilometres an hour D. 150,000 kilometres an hour
Question 32: How are tsunamis capable of obliterating coastal settlements?
A. They have tremendous energy due to the great volume of water affected.
B. They are a metre high or more.
C. They travel hundreds of kilometres
D. They can strike the shore fifteen metres high
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Tsunami only occurs in Asia
B. A cyclone along with storm surges happened in Asia in 1970.
C. Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones.
D. Storm surges cause extensive coastal flooding.
Question 34: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Where tsunamis originate.
B. Damage caused by tsunamis.
C. Facts about tsunamis.
D. How tremendous the energy of a tsunami is.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in
business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of
women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40
billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As
Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was
the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman
entrepreneur". What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn
advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are
still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted,
“In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of
the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to happen, so they go out on their own".

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 In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics and clothing, for
example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer
software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with
degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software
that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers and her office was a bedroom at
home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the
newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop
additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200
employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock.
Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face
hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world
is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still
quite small. But the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the
years ahead.
Question 35: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business
world.
B. The computer is especially lucrative for women today.
C. Women are better at small business than men are.
D. Women today are opening more businesses of their own.
Question 36: The word "excluded" in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to___________
A. not permitted in
B. decorators of
C. often invited to
D. charged admission to
Question 37: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the
business world EXCEPT ___________
A. women were required to stay at home with their families.
B. women lacked ability to work in business.
C. women faced discrimination in business.
D. women were not trained in business.
Question 38: The expression "keep tabs on" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to___________
A. recognize the appearance of
B. keep records of
C. provide transportation for
D. pay the salaries of
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that business operated by
women are small because___________
A. women prefer a small intimate setting.
B. women can't deal with money.
C. women are not able to borrow money easily.
D. many women fail at large businesses.
Question 40: The author's attitude about the future of women in business is___________
A. skeptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 41: Geothermal energy is to obtain by using heat from the Earth's interior.
A. Geothermal B. to obtain C. using D. from
Question 42: A number of experts and studies have blamed the Mekong Delta's subsidence for the
sea level rise caused by climate change.
A. A number of B. blamed C. for D. change
Question 43: Ly Son Island is famous for its “lonely garlic”, that is exported to many countries.
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A. Ly Son Island B. for C. that D. to

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: Greater use of public transport would cut the amount of pollution from cars.
A. Were more people to use public transport, cars would stop releasing exhaust into the atmosphere.
B. If more people use public transport, it will cut the amount of pollution from cars.
C. If public transport was widely used, people would no longer suffer from pollution from cars.
D. If more people used public transport, there would be less pollution from cars.
Question 45: Mark delayed writing the book until he had done a lot of research.
A. Mark did a lot of research after he finished writing the book.
B. It was only when Mark had written the book that he did a lot of research.
C. Mark delayed writing the book as he had already done any research.
D. Only after Mark had done a lot of research did he begin to write the book.
Question 46: “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. graduate B. educate C. individual D. dedicated
Question 48: A. use B. umbrella C. under D. sun

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Two friends are talking to each other at a class reunion.
Jimmy: “___________”
Jack: "I work at the bank."
A. How do you do, Jack? B. What do you do for a living Jack?
C. How are you doing, Jack? D. Where did you work, Jack?
Question 50: Two neighbors are talking to each other about their work.
Sanji: "I'm taking a break from my gardening. There seems to be no end to the amount of work I
have to do."
Nico: “___________”
A. I do, too. B. Not at all
C. I'm glad I'm not in your shoes. D. There's no doubt about that.